VEDA
NTA
IAS
ACAD
EMY
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Scholarship Test
Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks% 200
è;ku nsa% vuqns'ksa dk fgUnh :ikUrj bl iqfLrdk ds vfUre i`"B ij Nik gSA VIA-C-RH
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1. January 26 selected as the date for the
inauguration of the constitution, because –
A. It was considered to be an auspicious day.
B. On that day the quit India Movement was
started in 1942.
C. The Congress had observed it as the
Independence Day in 1930.
D. None of these.
2. Who among the following was the first
‘Minister of Finance’ in independent India?
A. R. K. Shanmukham Chetty.
B. Liaquat Ali Khan
C. John Mathai.
D. Satya Narayan Sinha.
3. Which among the following Articles came into
force on 26th November 1949, the day the
Indian Constitution was adopted?
A. Article 388
B. Article 390
C. Article 387
D. Article 386
4. The division of power and Independence of
Judiciary are two important features of –
A. Democratic character of government
B. Federal Character of government
C. Socialist character of government
D. Unitary character of government
5. The Advantage of unitary system of governance
is –
A. More adaptability
B. Strong state
C. More participation by the people
D. Less chance of authoritarianism
6. Which of the following is a feature of
presidential form of government?
A. It protects the freedom of people
B. It ensures the speedy execution of policies
C. Fix term stabilizes the system
D. All of these
7. Which of the following term is not used in the
Preamble of the Constitution?
A. Sovereign, Democratic, Republic
B. Socialist
C. Secular
D. Federal
8. By which of the following modes can
citizenship be acquired in India?
i. By Birth
ii. Hereditary
iii. By Registration
iv. By Request
A. i and ii
B. i, ii, and iii
C. ii and iii
D. iv, ii and iii
9. Which article of the Indian Constitution
provides for equal opportunities for all citizens
in Public employment?
A. Article 22
B. Article 16
C. Article 20
D. Article 25
10. Which Fundamental Right in the Indian
Constitution includes abolition of
untouchability?
A. Right to Liberty and personal freedom
B. Right to freedom of Religion
C. Right to Equality
D. Cultural and Educational Rights
11. From which of the following Upanishads, the
motto “Satyamev Jayate” has been taken?
A. Prashna
B. Mundak
C. Mandukya
D. Isha Upanishad
12. The classical dance of Andhra Pradesh is –
A. Bharatanatyam
B. Kathak Kali
C. Kuchipudi
D. Odissi
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1- 26 जनवरी को सवंवधान के mn~?kkVu की तारीख के रूप
में चनुा गया] क्योंवक &
(a) यह एक शभु विन माना जाता था ।
(b) उस विन 1942 में भारत छोडो आंिोलन शरुू वकया
गया था ।
(c) 1930 में कांगे्रस ने इसे स्वतंत्रता विवस के रूप में
मनाया था ।
(d) इनमें स ेकोई नहीं ।
2. वनम्नवलवखत में स ेकौन स्वतंत्र भारत ds पहल s ^ववत्त मंत्री*
Fks \
(a) आर के “kueq[ke चेट्टी
(b) वलयाकत अली खान
(c) जॉन मथाई
(d) सत्य नारायण वसन्हा
3- fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk vuqPNsn 26 tuojh
1949 dks ykxw gqvk] ftl fnu Hkkjrh; lafo/kku dks
viuk;k x;k Fkk \
(a) अनचु्छेि 388
(b) अनचु्छेि 390
(c) अनचु्छेि 387
(d) अनचु्छेि 386
4. न्यायपावलका की शवि और स्वतंत्रता का ववभाजन fuEu
esa ls fdldh िो महत्वपणूण ववशेषताएं हैं &
(a) yksdrkaf=d ljdkj dh (b) la?kh; ljdkj dh
(c) समाजवािी सरकार dh
(d) एकात्मक सरकार dh
5. शासन की एकात्मक i)fr का लाभ ह ै&
(a) blesa अवधक अनकूुलन क्षमता gksrh gSA
(b) blesa jkT; dh fLFkfr मजबतू gksrh gSA
(c) blesa लोगों द्वारा अवधक भागीिारी gksrh gSA
(d) blesa सत्तावाि की सभंावना कम gksrh gSaA
6. वनम्नवलवखत में स ेकौन&lh राष्ट्रपवत “kklu i)fr dh
ववशेषता ह ै\
(a) यह लोगों की स्वतंत्रता की रक्षा करता ह ै
(b) यह नीवतयों का त्वररत वनष्ट्पािन सवुनवित करता ह ै
(c) blesa lqfuf”pr ,oa LFkk;h dk;Zdky gksrk gSA
(d) ये सभी
7. सवंवधान की प्रस्तावना में वनम्नवलवखत में स ेवकस शब्ि का
उपयोग नहीं वकया गया ह ै\
(a) सपं्रभु, लोकतांवत्रक] गणराज्य
(b) समाजवािी
(c) धमण वनरपेक्ष
(d) सघंीय
8. भारत में वनम्नवलवखत में स ेवकस पद्धवत स ेनागररकता प्राप्त
की जा सकती ह ै\
i. जन्म स े
ii. अनवुांवशक :i ls
iii. पंजीकरण द्वारा
iv. अनरुोध द्वारा
(a) i and ii (b) i, ii, and iii (c) ii and iii (d) iv, ii and iii
9. भारतीय सवंवधान का कौन सा लेख सावणजवनक रोजगार में
सभी नागररकों के वलए समान अवसर प्रिान करता ह ै\
(a) अनचु्छेि 22
(b) अनचु्छेि 16
(c) अनचु्छेि 20
(d) अनचु्छेि 25
10. भारतीय सवंवधान में वकस मौवलक अवधकार में अस्पशृ्यता
का उन्मलून शावमल ह ै\
(a) स्वतंत्रता का अवधकार और व्यविगत स्वतंत्रता
(b) धमण की स्वतंत्रता का अवधकार
(c) समानता का अवधकार
(d) सांस्कृवतक और शैवक्षक अवधकार
11. वनम्नवलवखत में स ेवकस उपवनषि ls ^सत्यमेव जयते* dk
vkn”kZokD; वलया गया ह ै\
(a) iz”u (b) eqaMd (c) ekUMqD;k
(d) ईशा उपवनषि
12. आंध्र प्रिशे का शास्त्रीय नतृ्य ह ै&
(a) भरतनाट्यम
(b) कथक कली
(c) कुवचपडुी
(d) ओविस
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13. Which of the following pair is not correctly
matched ?
A. Amir Khusrow – Sarod
B. Bhimsen Joshi – Singing
C. Utpal Dutt – Film
D. Shambhu Maharaj – Kathak
14. Which of the following organizations have
announced 2nd October as “World Non-Violence
Day” ?
A. United Nations Organization
B. World Peace Forum
C. Gandhi Peace Foundation
D. UNESCO
15. Which of the following Soils is used to make
bricks?
A. Peaty and Carbonic soil
B. Saline Soil
C. Laterite Soil
D. Red-Yellow Soil
16. Which of the followings is known as the
Lighthouse of Mediterranean Sea?
A. Stromboli of Sicily
B. Mount Pelee
C. Paricutin of Mexico
D. Vesuvius of Italy
17. Which of the UN summits is known as “Earth
Summit”?
A. Meeting of UN general assembly in 2005.
B. The United Nations Conference on
Environment and Development 1992.
C. The United Nations Conference on trade
and development 1994.
D. The United Nations Conference on human
environment 1972.
18. Which of the following has the responsibility of
promoting dance, music and theatre in India?
A. Sahitya Academy
B. National School of Drama
C. Sangeet Natak Academy
D. Lalit Kala Academy
19. Which of the following folk dance form is
associated with Jammu and Kashmir?
A. Jhora
B. Veedhi
C. Rauf
D. Suisini
20. Singhbhum is famous for-
A. Coal
B. Iron
C. Copper
D. Aluminium
21. ‘Farad per Meter’ is unit of
A. Conductance B. Capacitance C. Permittivity D. Inductance
22. Which of the following remains constant while throwing a ball upwards? A. Displacement B. Kinetic Energy C. Acceleration D. Velocity
23. A Spherical body moves with a uniform angular velocity (𝜔) around a circular path of radius (r). Which one of the following statements is correct? A. The body has a radial acceleration 2/5 𝜔2
×r directed away from the centre of the path.
B. The body has a redial acceleration 𝜔2r directed towards centre of path.
C. The body has an acceleration 𝜔2 tangential to its path.
D. The body has no acceleration. 24. A swinging pendulum has its maximum
acceleration at- A. The bottom of the swing B. The two extremities of the swing. C. Every point on the swing. D. No Particular portion of the pendulum.
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13.वनम्नवलवखत में स ेकौन सी जोडी सही ढंग स ेमेल नहीं
खाती ह ै\
(a) अमीर खसुरो & सरोि
(b) भीमसने जोशी & गायन
(c) उत्पल ित्त & विल्म
(d) शंभ ूमहाराज & कथक
14. वनम्नवलवखत esa ls fdl laxBu us 2 vDVwcj dks
^fo”o fgalk fnol* ds uke ls ?kksf’kr fd;k \
(a) सयंिु राष्ट्र सघं
(b) ववश्व शांवत मंच
(c) गांधी शांवत प्रवतष्ठान
(d) यनेूस्को
15. ईटं बनाने के वलए वनम्न में स ेवकस वमट्टी का उपयोग वकया
जाता ह ै\
(a) पीटी और काबोवनक वमट्टी
(b) नमकीन वमट्टी
(c) लेटराइट वमट्टी
(d) लाल-पीली वमट्टी
16.वनम्नवलवखत में स ेवकस ेभमूध्य सागर के प्रकाश स्तंभ के
रूप में जाना जाता ह ै\
(a) वसवसली के स्रोमबोली
(b) माउंट पेले
(c) मेवक्सको का पररकटीन
(d) इटली का वेसवुवयस
17.संयिु राष्ट्र के कौन स ेवशखर सम्मेलन को ^पथृ्वी वशखर
सम्मेलन* के रूप में जाना जाता ह ै\
(a) 2005 में सयंिु राष्ट्र महासभा की बैठक ।
(b) पयाणवरण और ववकास पर सयंिु राष्ट्र सम्मेलन 1992
(c) व्यापार और ववकास पर सयंिु राष्ट्र सम्मेलन 1994
(d) मानव पयाणवरण पर सयंिु राष्ट्र सम्मेलन 1972
18. भारत में नतृ्य] सगंीत और रंगमंच को बढावा िनेे की
वजम्मेिारी वनम्नवलवखत में स ेवकसकी ह ै\
(a) सावहत्य अकािमी
(b) राष्ट्रीय नाट्य ववद्यालय
(c) सगंीत नाटक अकािमी
(d) लवलत कला अकािमी
19. वनम्नवलवखत में स ेकौन सा लोक नतृ्य जम्म ूऔर कश्मीर
स ेजडुा ह ै\
(a) >ksjk (b) fof/k
(c) रऊि
(d) lqbfluh
20. वसंहभमू fdlds वलए प्रवसद्ध ह-ै
(a) कोयला (b) लोहा
(c) तांबा (d) ,Y;wehfu;e
21. ’फैराड प्रति मीटर’ की इकाई है (a) pkydrk
(b) धाररिा (c) fo|qr”khyrk
(d) izsjdRo
22. गेंद को ऊपर की ओर फें किे समय तिम्िलिखिि में से कौि स्थिर रहिा है ?
(a) विथिापि (b) गतिज ऊजाा (c) त्िरण (d) िेग
23. एक गोिाकार fudk; dh त्रिज्या (r) के एक ितृ्िाकार पि के चारों ओर एक समाि कोणीय िेग 𝜔 के साि चििा है। तिम्िलिखिि में से कौि सा किि सही है ? (a) पि के कें द्र से दरू fudk; में एक रेडडयि
त्िरण 2/5 × 𝜔2 r है। (b) पि के कें द्र की ओर fudk; में एक रेडडयि
त्िरण 2 𝜔2r है। (c) fudk; में अपिे पि के लिए त्िरण थपर्ारेिा
है। (d) fudk; का कोई त्िरण िहीीं है।
24. एक झूििे पेंडुिम dk अधधकिम त्िरण होिा है- (a) झूिे के िीचे (b) झूिे के दोuksa छोरksa ij। (c) झूिे ds हर त्र ींद ुij। (d) पेंडुिम का कोई विरे्ष भाग िहीीं।
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25. If a ship moves from freshwater into seawater, it will (a) Sink Completely (b) Sink a little bit (c) Rise a little higher (d) Remain unaffected
26. The Circular motion of a particle with
constant speed is- (a) Simple harmonic but not periodic (b) Periodic but not simple harmonic. (c) Periodic and simple harmonic. (d) Neither periodic nor simple harmonic.
27. Consider the following statements: 1. The objects appear to be heavier when submerged in water then they are in air. 2. A needle place carefully on the surface of water may float, whereas a ball of the same material always sink. Which of the statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 Only (b) 2 Only (c) 1 and 2 both (d) None
28. Consider the following statements: 1. Light year is the unit of time. 2. Luminous intensity is a derived unit. 3. Standard kilogram is defined as the mass
of particular solid cylinder of polonium iridium alloy.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 Only (b) 2 and 3 Only (c) All of these (d) None of these
29. With reference to projectile motion, consider the following statements: 1. Two particles of different mass, projected
with same velocity at same angles. The maximum height attained by both the particles will be same.
2. The maximum height of projectile is dependent on particles mass.
Which of the statement (s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 Only
(b) 2 Only (c) 1 and 2 Both (d) Neither 1 nor 2
30. Consider the following statements: 1. Gravitational force is the strongest force in
nature. 2. Nuclear forces are short ranged attractive
or repulsive in nature. Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
31. Consider the following statements- 1. Jim Corbett National Park is the oldest
National park of India. 2. It was one of the nine Tiger Reserves created
at the launch of the Project Tiger in 1973. 3. Initially it was named as ‘Hailey National Park’. Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only
32. Match List-1 with List-2 and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List-1 (Item) List-2
(Toxic substance) A CFL Lamp 1 Nitrogen Oxides B Automobile
Battery 2 Phthalates
C Polymer 3 Lead D Diesel Engine 4 Mercury
Codes: A B C D (a) 4 2 3 1 (b) 4 3 2 1 (c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 1 3 2 4
33. Which one of the following chemicals is commonly used by farmers to destroy weeds?
(a) DDT (b) Malathion (c) Methyl Bromide (d) 2, 4-D
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25. यदद कोई जहाज मीठे पािी से समुद्री जि में चििा है, िो D;k होगा (a) पूरा डू ेगा (b) िोड़ा सा डू ेगा (c) िोड़ा ऊपर mBsxkA (d) अप्रभाविि रहेगा
26. स्थिर गति िािे कण की पररपि गति है- (a) सरि हामोतिक िेककि आिधधक िहीीं (b) आिधधक िेककि सरि हामोतिक िहीीं। (c) आिधधक और सरि हामोतिक। (d) ि िो आिधधक और ि ही सरि हामोतिक।
27. तिम्िलिखिि कििों पर विचार करें: 1. िथिुएीं ि अधधक भारी प्रिीि होिी हैं ज पािी में
डू जािी हैं ि िे हिा में होिी हैं। 2. पािी की सिह पर सािधािी से एक lqbZ िैर सकिी है, ज कक एक ही inkFkZ की एक गेंद हमेर्ा डू िी है। कौि सा किि सही है / हैं ?
(a) dsoy 1 (b) dsoy 2 (c) 1 और 2 दोिों (d) कोई िहीीं
28. तिम्िलिखिि कििों पर विचार करें: 1. प्रकार् िषा समय की इ Zकाई है। 2. izdk”k izcyrk ,d O;qRiUu bdkbZ gksrh gSA
3. मािक ककिोग्राम को पोिोतियम इररडडयम लमश्र धािु के विरे्ष ठोस लसिेंडर के द्रव्यमाि के रूप में पररभावषि ककया गया है।
ऊपर ददए गए कौि से किि सही हैं ? (a) केिि 1 और 2 (b) 2 और 3 केिि (c) ये सभी (d) इिमे से कोई िहीीं
29. प्रक्षेप्य गति के सींदभा में, तिम्िलिखिि कििों पर विचार करें:
1. अिग-अिग द्रव्यमाि के दो कण, समाि कोण पर समाि िेग के साि प्रक्षेवपि होिे हैं। दोिों कणों द्िारा प्राप्ि अधधकिम ऊीं चाई समाि होगी।
2. प्रक्षेप्य की अधधकिम ऊीं चाई कणों के द्रव्यमाि पर तिभार gksrh है।
उपयुाक्ि में से कौि सा/ls किि सही है / हैं ? (a) dsoy 1 (b) dsoy 2
(c) 1 और 2 दोिों (d) ि िो 1 और ि ही 2
30. तिम्िलिखिि कििों पर विचार करें: 1. गुरुत्िाकषाण ि प्रकृति esa स से मज ूि ि है। 2. िालभकीय ि प्रकृति में FkksM+h nwjh के आकषाक या
प्रतिकारक gksrs हैं। उपरोक्ि में से कौि सा किि सही है/हैं?
(a) केिि 1 (b) केिि 2 (c) दोिों 1 और 2 (d) ि िो 1 और ि ही 2
31- fuम्नवलवखत कथनों पर ववचार करें & 1. वजम कॉबेट नेशनल पाकण भारत का सबसे परुाना नेशनल
पाकण ह ै।
2. यह 1973 में प्रोजेक्ट टाइगर के लॉन्च पर बनाए गए
नौ टाइगर ररज़वण में स ेएक था ।
3. शरुुआत में इस े^हलैी नेशनल पाकण * नाम विया गया था
ऊपर विए गए कौन स ेकथन सही हैं \
(a) केवल 1 और 2 (b) 1] 2 और 3 (c) केवल 2 और 3 (d) केवल 1 और 3
32. सचूी&2 के साथ सचूी&1 का वमलान करें और सवूचयों
के नीचे विए गए कोि का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चनुें%
सूची वस्तु सूची
जहरीला पदार्थ
A सीएिएल लैंप 1 नाइरोजन आक्साइि
B ऑटोमोबाइल बैटरी 2 FkSysV
C पॉवलमर 3 लीि
D िीजल इजंन 4 पारा
कोड
A B C D (a) 4 2 3 1 (b) 4 3 2 1 (c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 1 3 2 4
33. वनम्नवलवखत में स ेकौन सा रसायन आमतौर पर वकसानों
द्वारा खरपतवार को नष्ट करने के वलए उपयोग वकया जाता
ह ै\
(a) िीिीटी (b) मालावथयन (c) वमथाइल ब्रोमाइि (d) 2] 4&D
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34. Which one of the following is the central theme of the Chipko Movement, started by Sunderlal Bahuguna in 1973?
(a) Conservation of river water (b) Protection of birds (c) Protection of Cheetahs (d) Conservation of forests
35. Which one of the following statements on
biosphere reserves is not correct? (a) In 1973, UNESCO launched a worldwide
programme on man and biosphere. (b) Biosphere reserves promote research on
ecological conservation. (c) Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve is located in
Madhya Pradesh. (d) Biosphere reserves are multipurpose
protected area to preserve the genetic diversity in ecosystems.
36. Match List-1 with List-2 and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists
List-1 (Sphere of the earth)
List-2 (Main Constituent of the sphere)
A Lithosphere 1 Living objects B Hydrosphere 2 Mixture of gases C Atmosphere 3 Water D Biosphere 4 Soil
Codes: A B C D (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 2 3 1 (c) 1 3 2 4 (d) 4 3 2 1
37. The concept of sustainable development relates to (a) Consumption levels (b) Exhaustible resources (c) Social Equity (d) Intergeneration equity
38. Consider the following statements: UNESCO’s World Heritage mission is to:
1. Take over the management, maintenance and preservation of world Heritage sites.
2. Encourage State parties to the Convention concerning the Protection of the world Cultural and Natural Heritage to nominate
sites within their national territory for inclusion on the world Heritage list.
3. Provide emergency assistance for World Heritage sites in immediate danger.
Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 2 and 3 only
39. The outcome of ‘devaluation of Currency’ is –
(a) Increased export and improvement in
balance of payment.
(b) Increased export and foreign reserve
deficiency.
(c) Increased import and improvement in
balance of payment.
(d) Increased export and import.
40. A country’s balance of trade is unfavourable
when –
(a) Export exceed imports
(b) Imports exceed exports
(c) Terms of trade become unfavourable
(d) None of the above
41. With reference to geothermal energy, consider the following statements: 1. It is the heat energy stored in the interior of
the earth which is released only through geysers and hot springs.
2. It can only be used for cooking purposes and cannot be converted into electricity.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 Nor 2
42. With reference to migration in India, consider the following statements: 1. In India, Intra-state migration is more
dominant then Inter-state migration. 2. Within Intra-state migration, rural urban is
the most dominant type of migration observed.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 Nor 2
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34. 1973 में सुिंरलाल बहगुुणा द्वारा शरुू वकए
गए वचपको आंिोलन का कें द्रीय ववषय वनम्नवलवखत में स े
कौन सा ह ै\
(a) निी के पानी का सरंक्षण (b) पवक्षयों का सरंक्षण (c) चीतों का सरंक्षण (d) वनों का सरंक्षण
35. बायोस्िीयर ररजवण पर वनम्नवलवखत में से कौन सा कथन
सही नहीं ह\ै
(a) 1973 में] यनेूस्को ने मनषु्ट्य और जीवमंिल पर एक
ववश्वव्यापी कायणक्रम शरुू वकया ।
(b) बायोस्िीयर ररजवण पाररवस्थवतक सरंक्षण पर अनसुधंान
को बढावा ितेे हैं ।
(c) नंिा िवेी बायोस्िीयर ररजवण मध्य प्रिेश में वस्थत ह ै।
(d) बायोस्िीयर ररजवण पाररवस्थवतक तंत्रों में आनवुंवशक
ववववधता को सरंवक्षत करने के वलए बहुउद्देशीय सरंवक्षत
क्षेत्र हैं ।
36. सचूी&2 के साथ सचूी&1 का वमलान करें और सवूचयों के नीचे विए गए कोि का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चनुें
सूची
पृथ्वी का के्षत्र
सूची
के्षत्र का मुख्य संववधान
A स्थलमंिल 1 जीववत वस्तएँु
B हीड्रास्िीयर 2 गैसों का वमश्रण
C वायमुंिल 3 पानी
D बीओवस्िअर 4 वमट्टी
कोड:
A B C D (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 2 3 1 (c) 1 3 2 4 (d) 4 3 2 1
37. सतत ववकास की अवधारणा स ेसबंंवधत ह ै
(a) खपत स्तर (b) अवतररि संसाधन (c) सामावजक समानता (d) अंतरजनपिीय इवक्वटी
38. वनम्नवलवखत कथनों पर ववचार करें%
यनेूस्को का ववश्व धरोहर वमशन ह%ै
1. ववश्व धरोहर स्थलों के प्रबंधन] रखरखाव और सरंक्षण
का वजम्मा laHkkyuk ।
2. ववश्व धरोहर सचूी में शावमल करने के वलए अपने
राष्ट्रीय क्षेत्र के भीतर साइटों को नावमत करने के वलए
ववश्व सांस्कृवतक और प्राकृवतक ववरासत के सरंक्षण स े
सबंंवधत कन्वेंशन के वलए राज्य िलों को प्रोत्सावहत
djuk ।
3. तत्काल खतरे में ववश्व धरोहर स्थलों के वलए
आपातकालीन सहायता प्रिान djuk ।
ऊपर विए गए कौन स ेकथन सही हैं \
(a) 1] 2 और 3 (b) केवल 1 और 3 (c) केवल 1 और 2 (d) केवल 2 और 3
39- ^मदु्रा के अवमलू्यन* का पररणाम ह ै-
(a) वनयाणत में ववृद्ध और भगुतान सतंलुन में सधुार ।
(b) वनयाणत में ववृद्ध और वविशेी ररजवण की कमी ।
(c) आयात और भगुतान सतंलुन में सधुार ।
(d) वनयाणत और आयात esa of̀) ।
40. िशे का व्यापार सतंलुन कब प्रवतकूल ह ै&
(a) वनयाणत, आयात स ेअवधक gks
(b) आयात, वनयाणत स ेअवधक gks
(c) व्यापार की शतें प्रवतकूल हो
(d) इनमे स ेकोई भी नहीं
41. भतूापीय ऊजाण के सिंभण में] वनम्नवलवखत कथनों पर ववचार
करें %
1. यह पथृ्वी के आंतररक भाग में सगं्रवहत ऊष्ट्मा ऊजाण ह ै
वजसे केवल गीजर और हॉट वस्पं्रग्स के माध्यम स ेछोडा
जाता ह ै।
2. इसका उपयोग केवल खाना पकाने के वलए वकया जा
सकता ह ैऔर इस ेवबजली में पररववतणत नहीं वकया जा
सकता ह ै।
ऊपर वदए गए कर्नों में से कौन सा सही है@हैं \
(a) केवल 1 (b) केवल 2
(c) 1 और 2 िोनों (d) न तो 1 न gh 2 42. भारत में प्रवास के सिंभण में] वनम्नवलवखत कथनों पर ववचार
करें %
1. भारत में] अंतर&राज्य प्रवासन अंतर&राज्य प्रवासन
अवधक प्रभावी ह ै।
2. अंतर&राज्य माइगे्रशन के भीतर] ग्रामीण शहरी सबसे
प्रभावी प्रकार का माइगे्रशन ह ै।
ऊपर वदए गए कर्नों में से कौन सा सही है हैं
(a) केवल 1 (b) केवल 2
(c) 1 और 2 िोनों (d) न तो 1 न gh 2
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43. With reference to ‘Hamleted Settlements’ in India, consider the following statements: 1. They involved merging of several
settlements into one unit. 2. They are found in the middle and lower
Ganga plain. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 and 2
44. In India which of the following agencies are involved in exportation & resources? 1. Geological survey of India. 2. National Mineral Development Corporation. 3. Oil and Natural Gas Commission. 4. Mineral Exploration Corporation Ltd. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 4 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 2 only
45. Consider the following pairs: Iron and steel plant Location
1. Rourkela steel plant Odisha 2. Bhilai Steel Plant West Bengal 3. Durgapur Steel Plant Chhattisgarh Which of the pairs given above is/are correct matched? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 only (c) 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
46. With reference to modern industry, the term ‘Quaternary activities’ refer to: (a) Activities related to research and
development and services involving specialized knowledge and technical skills.
(b) Activities involving highest level of decision and policy making.
(c) Activities involving shifting agriculture. (d) Activities relating to mining activities
especially in highly areas.
47. “These are the posts which originally develop as calling points on main sea routes where ships used to anchor for refueling matering and taking food items. Water on, they developed into commercial posts”. The above passage best describes which of the following posts?
(a) Out posts (b) Entre pot posts (c) Ferry posts (d) Posts of call
48. Which of the oldest University?
(a) Gandhara
(b) Kanauj
(c) Nalanda
(d) Vaishali
49. Gupta Dynasty was famous for-
(a) Art and architecture
(b) Imperialism
(c) Revenue and land reform
(d) None of these
50. Who was called India’s Napoleon because of
his victories?
(a) Skandagupta
(b) Chandragupta
(c) Brahmagupta
(d) Samudragupta
51. Who was the regent of Akbar in his early days?
(a) Abul Fazl (b) Bairam Khan
(c) Tansen (d) Todarmal
52. Who among the following attacked the Somnath
temple?
(a) Mahmud of Ghazni
(b) Muhammad Ghori
(c) Iltutmish
(d) Qutbuddin Aibak
53. Who among the following rulers abolished
Jiziya?
(a) Aurangzeb (b) Balban
(c) Akbar (d) Jahangir
54. Chhatrapati Shivaji Terminus station was
designed by
(a) Frederick William Stevens
(b) Santiago Calatrava
(c) Fazlur Rahman Khan
(d) Frei Otto
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43. भारत में ^हमेलटेेि बवस्तयों* के संिभण में] वनम्नवलवखत कथनों
पर ववचार करें %
1. व ेएक इकाई में कई बवस्तयों के ववलय में शावमल थ े।
2. व ेमध्य और वनचल ेगंगा मैिान में पाए जाते हैं ।
ऊपर वदए गए कर्नों में से कौन सा सही है हैं
(a) केवल 1 (b) केवल 2
(c) 1 और 2 िोनों (d) न तो 1 न gh 2
44. भारत में वनम्नवलवखत में स ेकौन सी एजेंवसया ंवनयाणत और संसाधनों में
शावमल हैं \
1. भारत का भूवजै्ञावनक सवके्षण ।
2. राष्ट्रीय खवनज ववकास वनगम ।
3. तेल और प्राकृवतक गैस आयोग ।
4. खवनज अन्वषेण वनगम वल ।
नीचे वदए गए कोड का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें ।
(a) केवल 1 और 4 (b) केवल 2] 3 और 4
(c) 1] 2] 3 और 4 (d) केवल 1 और 2
45. वनम्नवलवखत जोडे पर ववचार करें %
लौह और इस्पात संयंत्र स्र्ान
1. राउरकेला इस्पात संयंत्र ओविशा
2. वभलाई इस्पात संयंत्र पविम बंगाल
3. िगुाणपुर स्टील पलांट छत्तीसगढ
ऊपर दी गई कौन सी जोडी सही मेल खाती है हैं
(a) केवल 1 और 2 (b) केवल 1
(c) केवल 3 (d) केवल 2 और 3
46. आधवुनक उद्योग के संिभण में] ^चतुभुणज गवतवववधयों* शब्ि का
संिभण
(a) ववशषे ज्ञान और तकनीकी कौशल स ेजुडे अनुसंधान और ववकास और सेवाओ ंस ेसंबंवधत गवतवववधयाँ ।
(b) वनणणय और नीवत वनमाणण के उच्चतम स्तर स ेसंबंवधत गवतवववधयाँ
(c) कृवष को स्थानांतररत करन ेवाली गवतवववधयाँ ।
(d) ववशषे रूप स ेउच्च क्षते्रों में खनन गवतवववधयों स ेसंबंवधत गवतवववधयाँ ।
47- ^ये व ेपि हैं जो मूल रूप स ेमुख्य समुद्री मागों पर कॉवलगं
पॉइटं के रूप में ववकवसत होते हैं जहां जहाज भोजन को विर
स ेभरन ेऔर खाद्य पिाथों को लनेे के वलए लगंर िालते थे ।
पानी पर] वे वावणवज्यक पिों में ववकवसत हुए”।
उपरोक्त गद्ांश वनम्नवलवखत में से वकस पद का वर्थन
करता है \
(a) आउट पोस्ट (b) एंरपॉट पोस्ट
(c) िेरी पोस्ट (d) कॉल के पोस्ट
48- lcls iqjkuk fo”o fo|ky; dkSu&lk gS \
(a) xka/kkj (b) dUukSt (c) ukyank (d) oS”kkyh
49- xqIr oa”k fdlds fy, izfl) Fkk \
(a) dyk vkSj okLrqdyk
(b) lkezkT;okn
(c) jktLo vkSj Hkwfe lq/kkj
(d) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
50- mudh thr ds dkj.k fdls Hkkjr dk usiksfy;u
dgk x;k \
(a) LdUnxqIr (b) panzxqIr
(c) czãxqIr (d) leqnzxqIr
51. अपने शुरुआती विनों में अकबर का राज-प्रवतवनवध कौन था ?
(a) अबलु िजल
(b) बैरम खान
(c) तानसने
(d) VksM+jey
52. वनम्नवलवखत में स ेवकसने सोमनाथ मंविर पर हमला वकया ?
(a) महमिू गजनी
(b) महुम्मि गोरी
(c) इल्ततुवमश
(d) कुतबुदु्दीन ऐबक
53. वनम्नवलवखत शासकों में स ेfdlus जवजया को समाप्त fd;k
ह?ै
(a) औरंगजेब (b) बलबन
(c) अकबर (d) जहाँगीर
54. छत्रपवत वशवाजी टवमणनस स्टेशन, विजाइन वकया गया था
(a) फे्रिररक वववलयम स्टीवंस
(b) सैंवटयागो कैलात्रा
(c) िजलरु रहमान खान
(d) फ़्री ओटो
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55. Chhatrapati Sambhaji (1680-1688AD) was
the ruler of which dynasty?
(a) Maratha (b) Nanda
(c) Haryanka (d) Maurya
56. Which of the following Eurpean Colonisers
did not have a settlement on the Eastern
Coast of India? (a) French (b) Portuguese
(c) Dutch (d) Danish
57. During colonial period, British capital was
mainly invested in:
(a) Infrastructure (b) Industry
(c) Agriculture
(d) Services
58. Which of the following languages is not mentioned in 8th schedule of the Constitution?
(a) Sanskrit (b) Sindhi
(c) English (d) Nepali
59. Which of these is not a language in India?
(a) Sindhi (b) Sikh
(c) Kannada (d) Konkani
60. Which schedule of Constitution of India contains special provisions for the
administration and control of Scheduled Area
in several states?
(a) Third (b) Fifth (c) Seventh (d) Ninth
61. The Preventive Detention Act curtailed.
(a) Right to Freedom
(b) Right to Equality
(c) Right to Property
(d) Educational Right
62. What is the basis of recognition of minorities
in Indian Constitution?
(a) Religion
(b) Caste
(c) Ratio of the community to total
population
(d) Colour
63. Article 31B of the Indian Constitution
“Validation of certain Acts and Regulations”
deals with the-
(a) State Government (b) Union Government
(c) Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) Fundamental rights of the Indian Citizen
64. What is the main function of judiciary?
(a) to make law
(b) Execution of law
(c) Adjudication of law (d) To apply law
65. What is the meaning of “Judicial Review” of Supreme Court?
(a) Review of its own verdict
(b) Review of the functioning of judiciary in country
(c) Review of Constitutional validity of laws (d) Timely review of Constitution
66. Under which of the following articles,
President can make the proclamation of
emergency in failure of Constitutional
machinery in any state? (a) 352 (b) 356
(c) 360 (d) 350
67. A Financial Emergency can be declared by
applying-
(a) Article-360
(b) Article-361
(c) Article-370
(d) Article-371
68. What is the incident of movement of landmass and rock-falls?
(a) Erosion (b) Contraction
(c) Attrition (d) Abrasion
69. The flower bud which is used as spice, is
obtained from?
(a) Cinnamon (b) Cardamom (c) Clove (d) Coriander
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55. छत्रपवत सभंाजी (1680-1688AD) वकस वंश के शासक थे?
(a) मराठा (b) नंिा
(c) हरयाणा (d) मौयण
56. वनम्नवलवखत में स ेवकस यरूवपयन कॉलोनाइजसण का भारत के पवूी तट पर कोई समझौता नहीं था ?
(a) फ्रें च (b) पतुणगाली
(c) िच (d) िेवनश
57. औपवनवेवशक काल के िौरान, मखु्य रूप स ेवब्रवटश राजधानी में
वनवेश वकया गया था:
(a) vk/kkfjr lajpuk
(b) उद्योग
(c) कृवष
(d) सवेाएं
58. सवंवधान की 8 वीं अनसुचूी में वनम्नवलवखत में स ेवकस भाषा का
उल्लेख नहीं ह ै?
(a) ससं्कृत (b) वसधंी
(c) अंगे्रजी (d) नेपाली
59. भारत में इनमें स ेकौन सी भाषा नहीं ह ै?
(a) वसधंी (b) वसख
(c) कन्नड (d) कोंकणी
60. भारत के सवंवधान की वकस अनसुचूी में कई राज्यों में अनसुवूचत
क्षेत्र के प्रशासन और वनयंत्रण के वलए ववशेष प्रावधान हैं ?
(a) तीसरा (b) पांचवा ं
(c) सातवk (d) नौवीं
61. fuokjd utjcanh vf/kfu;e esa ls अंकुश लगा ।
(a) स्वतंत्रता का अवधकार
(b) समानता का अवधकार
(c) सपंवत्त का अवधकार
(d) शैवक्षक अवधकार
62. भारतीय सवंवधान में अल्पसखं्यकों की मान्यता का आधार क्या
ह ै?
(a) धमण
(b) जावत
(c) समिुाय की कुल जनसखं्या का अनपुात
(d) रंग
63. भारतीय सवंवधान का अनचु्छेि 31B "कुछ अवधवनयमों और
वववनयमों का सत्यापन" से संबंवधत ह-ै
(a) राज्य सरकार
(b) सघं सरकार
(c) राज्य नीवत के वनिशेक वसद्धांत
(d) भारतीय नागररक के मौवलक अवधकार
64. न्यायपावलका का मखु्य कायण क्या ह ै?
(a) काननू बनाने के वलए
(b) काननू का वनष्ट्पािन
(c) काननू का पालन
(d) काननू लाग ूकरने के वलए
65. सपु्रीम कोटण की “न्यावयक समीक्षा” का क्या अथण ह ै?
(a) अपने िैसले की समीक्षा करें
(b) िशे में न्यायपावलका के कामकाज की समीक्षा
(c) काननूों की सवंैधावनक वैधता की समीक्षा
(d) सवंवधान की समयबद्ध समीक्षा
66. वनम्नवलवखत में स ेवकस अनचु्छेि के तहत, राष्ट्रपवत वकसी भी
राज्य में सवंैधावनक मशीनरी की वविलता में आपातकाल की
घोषणा कर सकते हैं ?
(a) 352 (b) 356
(c) 360 (d) 350
67. एक ववत्तीय आपातकाल घोवषत वकया जा सकता है-
(a) अनचु्छेि 360
(b) अनचु्छेि 361
(c) अनचु्छेि 370
(d) अनचु्छेि-371
68. भ-ूभाग और रॉक-फॉल के सचंलन की घटना क्या ह ै?
(a) कटाव (b) सकुंचन
(c) आकषणण (d) घषणण
69. िूल की कली वजसे मसाले के रूप में प्रयोग वकया जाता है,
उसस ेप्राप्त की जाती है?
(a) िालचीनी (b) इलायची
(c) लौंग (d) धवनया
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70. The Simon Commission was formed to review- (a) Legislature in India. (b) Fitness of India for furture reforms (c) The position of the viceroy (d) A constitution for India.
70. साइमन कमीशन की समीक्षा के वलए गवठत वकया गया था-
(a) भारत में ववधानमंिल ।
(b) भारत के स्वास्थ्य में सधुार के वलए
(c) वाइसराय की वस्थवत
(d) भारत के वलए एक सवंवधान ।
Read the following Passages and answer
Passage 1There are a instances of diseases that have laid waste huge tracts of forests throughout India. Caused mainly by pathogens and pests, these diseases are deadly and are capable of wiping out entire forests and plantations, causing immense economic as well as ecological loss. Meanwhile, forest pathologists and entomologists are grappling with new maladies that are surfacing almost every year. But with meagre resources and just a few experts working on the issue, things are heading virtually towards a cul-de-sac. Moreover, no assessment has been made so far to quantify the devastation. While large chunks of forests fall prey to maladies, it is also an opportunity for some politicians and timber merchants to cash in on it. Research and documentation on forest disease, particularly on forest pathology, began in India way back in 1929, by pioneering pathologists KD Bagchi and BK Bagchi. Although it has been eight decades since then, not much headway has been made in this direction. The forestry sector today is ailing due to its misplaced priorities, resource crunch, and mismanagement. “Forest management lacks scientific approach,’ says
Surendra Kumar, director of the Himalayan Forest Research Institute (HFRI), Shimla. The scientific community involved with forest diseases is today a dispirited lot. With only a few stalwarts left in this field, forest disease is a neglected area of research. Moreover, bureaucracy is increasingly taking over the scientific institutions and scientists in most of these institutes are a marginalised group. To top it all, there are no institutions dedicated to forest diseases. Although the ministry of environment and forests is the facilitator for such research, it is not paying enough attention to promote scientific research on forest diseases. In fact, the government’s lackadaisical approach came to the fore with the Sal borer epidemic in Madhya Pradesh in 1998. While forest bureaucracy slept, the beetles merrily continued to wipe out entire tracts of precious Sal forests. Eventually, with no solution in sight, thousands of valuable trees were hacked. There were also allegations that the Sal tragedy was a chance for the timber mafia in the state to cash in on timber through the legal loophole, with the nexus of politicians. Today, things haven’t changed one bit. India’s forest department and research institutes
have yet to formulate contingency plans to face any assault of similar dimensions. Forest diseases are elusive. Although experts claim that they know quite a lot about forest diseases, there are still aspects of the maladies that are not completely understood. Says RS Bhandari, entomologist in the Forest Research Institute (FRI), Dehradun, “We know about all the important pests and insects, their life cycles and their development. But there are a
few diseases which remain an enigma.” According to Jamaluddin, head of the pathology department in the Tropical Forest Research Institute (TERI), Jabalpur, “Due to micro climatic changes, we are discovering new aspects of the same disease every year. Diseases have also increased manifold.” Another FRI scientist points out that although forest diseases are increasing, there is no
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study to estimate the economic and ecological damage caused by these pests and pathogens. Varying with different geophysical regions and climatic conditions, pathogens and pests are essentially responsible for the tree maladies and then mortality. When the pristine, natural and mixed forests existed, forest diseases acted as a natural control measure to check the proliferation of a particular species that could threaten the balance of the ecosystem. Perhaps, this is why forest diseases paled into insignificance in the past. But today, with shrinking forests and increasing monoculture plantations, any outbreak of disease takes on a virulent form. To top this, changed climatic and forest patterns and environmental pollution have given rise to newer forms of forest diseases. While trees are forced to take an additional load of human-induced environmental changes, the introduction of mono culture has substantially increased the problems. Whatever little we know about forest diseases today comes primarily through mycology, the study of forest pathogens. Mycology explains that the prime pathological reasons for forest disease are fungi, bacteria and viruses. “Among these, fungi playa major role, while the other two are relatively less significant. There are 150 to 200 major pathological infections in central India. Out of these, only five per cent are bacterial. The rest are fungal,” says Jamaluddin. Most of these pathogens stay close to a tree waiting for a chance to infiltrate. Their entry points are small openings or wounds in the tree. However, invasion is not always easy. Like human beings, trees also have antibodies that fight anything alien. In case of invasion from the trunk of a tree, the sapwood acts as a shield and secretes enzymes to fight pathogens. But when attacked and conquered, there are tell-tale signs in the form of knotty growths of fruit bodies that are extensions of the fungi in the tree.
71. Which of the following is the author most
likely to agree with ?
(a) The ministry responsible should take a
more serious view towards research in
forest diseases.
(b) There is a likelihood of another forest
disease epidemic, similar to the Sal
Borer epidemic, spreading in the
country.
(c) There needs to be a more coordinated
effort towards dealing with forest
diseases in India.
(d) All of the above.
72. Which of these incidents discourages the
government to formulate any kind of
concrete plans?
(a) India lacks specialists in this area of
forestry
(b) The government is not able to work in
concomitance with specialists, like
entomologists and pathogenists
(c) The prevalence of malpractices, such as
the alleged nexus of politicians with
some of the forest officials
(d) None of the above
73. Which of these statements cannot be
inferred from the passage?
(a) With the variation of different climatic
conditions, pests responsible for forest
tree degradation, disappear
(b) There are hardly any committed
institutions in India, for the promotion
of research in forest diseases in India
(c) It is possible that the timber mafias
could spread their network with help
from vested interests in the political
and bureaucratic brass
(d) None of the above
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74. The discussion on the present condition of
forest diseases proves that
(a) There must be a cooperative
endeavour by scientists, government
officials and politicians to weed out the
possibilities of forest diseases
(b) A lot more needs to be done by the
government for sustaining the
ecological balance
(c) Hitherto forestry has been a neglected
area of research
(d) None of the above
Passage 2
For years, the contents of a child’s sandbox
have confounded some of the nation’s top
physicists. Sand and other granular materials,
such as powders, seeds, nuts, soils, and
detergent, behave in ways that seem to
undermine natural laws and cost industries
ranging from pharmaceuticals to agri-business
and mining, billions of dollars.
Just shaking a can of mixed nuts can show you
how problematic granular material can be. The
nuts do not ‘mix’; they ‘unmix’ and sort
themselves out, with the larger Brazil nuts on
top and the smaller peanuts at the bottom. In
this activity and others, granular matter’s
behaviour apparently goes counter to the
second law of thermodynamics, which states
that entropy, or disorder, tends to increase in
any natural system.
Mimicking the mixed-nut conundrum with a
jar containing many small beads and one large
bead, one group of physicists claimed that
vibrations causing the beads to percolate open
up small gaps rather than larger ones. Thus,
when a Brazil nut becomes slightly airborne,
the peanuts rush in underneath and gradually
nudge it to the top. Another group of physicists
colour coded layers of beads to track their
circulation in a container and achieved a
different result. Vibrations, they found, drive
the beads in circles up the centre and down the
sides of the container. Yet downward currents,
similar to convection currents in air or water,
are too narrow to accommodate the larger
bead, stranding it on top.
One industrial engineer who has studied the
problem says that both the ‘percolation’ and
‘convection current’ theories can be right,
depending upon the material, and that
percolation is the major factor with nuts. Given
the inability of scientists to come up with a
single equation explaining unmixing, you can
see why industrial engineers who must
manage granular materials go a little, ‘well,
nuts’! Take Pharmaceuticals for instance.
There may be six types of powders with
different-sized grains in a single medicine
tablet. Mixing them at some speeds might sort
them, while mixing at other speeds will make
them thoroughly amalgamated. One aspirin
company still relies on an experienced
employee wearing a latex glove who pinches
some powder in the giant mixing drum to see if
it ‘feels right’.
Granular material at test can be equally
frustrating to physicists and engineers. Take a
tall cylinder of sand. Unlike a liquid, in which
pressure exerted at the bottom increases in
direct proportion to the liquid’s height,
pressure at the base of the sand cylinder
doesn’t increase indefinitely. Instead, it
reaches a maximum value and stays there. This
quality allows sand to trickle at a nearly
constant rate through the narrow opening
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separating the two glass bulbs of an hourglass,
thus measuring the passage of time.
Physicists have also found that forces are not
distributed evenly throughout granular
material. It is this characteristic that may
account for the frequent rupturing of silos in
which grain is stored. In a silo, for instance, the
column’s weight is carried from grain to grain
along jagged chains. As a result the container’s
walls carry more of the weight than its base,
and the force is significantly larger at some
points of contact than at others. Coming up
with equations to explain, much less predict,
the distribution of these force chains is
extremely difficult.
Again, using beads, physicists developed a
simple theoretical model in which they assume
that a given bead transmits the load it bears
unequally and randomly onto the three beads
on which it rests. While the model agrees well
with experimental results, it does not take into
account all of the mechanisms of force
transmission between grains of sand or wheat.
In the struggle to understand granular
materials, sand-studying physicists have at
least one thing in their favour. Unlike particle
physicists who must secure billions of dollars
in government funding for the building of
super-colliders in which to accelerate and view
infinitesimal particles, they can conduct
experiments using such low-cost, low-tech
materials as sand, beads, marbles, and seeds. It
is hoped that more low-tech experiments and
computer simulations will lead to equations
that explain the unwieldy stuff and reduce
some of the wastage, guesswork, and accidents
that occur in the various industries that handle
it.
75. The percolation theory of unmixing is
best illustrated by which of the following
examples?
(a) Contents settling in a bag of potato
chips so that the package appears less
full after handling
(b) Currents of small beads blocking the
upward movement of large beads in a
shaken container
(c) Larger rocks rising to the surface in a
garden ‘after a period of frost
(d) Large nuts blocking the upward
movement of small nuts in a shaken
container
76. In saying that the percolation and
convection current theories may both be
right, the industrial engineer means that
(a) Though the theories have different
names, they describe same physical
mechanism
(b) Both theories are still unproven, as
they have not been tested on a variety
of materials.
(c) Neither theory is supported by an
adequate mathematical basis
(d) The mechanism causing unmixing
varies depending upon the type of
granular material
77. Which of the following appears to be the
best solution for combating the
‘unmixing’ problem faced by
pharmaceutical manufacturers that must
prepare large quantities of powders?
(a) To mix all the powders together at the
same speed
(b) To craft powders
(c) To craft powders so that all the grains
have similar sizes and shapes
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(d) To hire engineers who have years of
experience in powder mixing
78. The passage implies that if the top bulb of
an hourglass were filled with water instead
of sand the pressure pushing the water
through the opening would
(a) Remain constant as water trickles
through the opening
(b) Decrease as water trickles through the
opening
(c) Increase as water trickles through the
opening
(d) Be directed at the walls of the
container rather than the base
Passage 3
After President George W. Bush signed the
United States-India Nuclear Cooperation Bill,
he called up Prime Minister Manmohan Singh
to tell him how pleased he was at this
development. While welcoming this event, the
Prime Minister took the opportunity to tell the
President that there remained areas of concern
that needed to be addressed during the
negotiation of the bilateral agreement (called
the 123 agreement, after the relevant clause
number in the US Atomic Energy Act, 1954).
The US has entered into some twenty-five 123
agreements with various countries, including
the one concerning Tarapur. The Tarapur
agreement concluded in 1963 was unique in
that it guaranteed supplies of enriched
uranium fuel from the US for running the
Tarapur reactors for their entire life. However,
after 1978 the US did not supply fuel saying its
domestic legislation (under the Nuclear Non-
Proliferation Act) prevented it from doing so.
India argued that Tarapur was an inter-
governmental agreement and hence it had to
be honoured by the US. But to no avail.
However, later the US allowed France to supply
fuel to India. Subsequently, the USSR (now
Russia) and even China supplied fuel for
Tarapur. The lesson from the Tarapur episode
is that US breached with impunity even a cast-
iron guarantee it had furnished. Considerable
bitterness grew between the US and India and
extended to many other areas beyond the
nuclear one. When India agreed, reluctantly, in
March 2006 to put imported reactors under
“safeguards in perpetuity”, the US consented to
the Indian insistence on assurances of fuel
supply. This meant India could build up a
stockpile of fuel to tide over disruption in
supply and the US would agree to work with
other countries, namely Russia, France, and
Britain, to arrange alternate supplies. The US
legislation, based on the Hyde Bill, forbids
India building up a stockpile of nuclear fuel. It
also obligates the US administration to work
with other Nuclear Supplier Group countries to
get them to suspend supplies to India, if the US
has done so under some provision of the Hyde
Bill. It is not evident how the US can address
the legitimate concerns of India on continued
fuel supply, given the boundaries set by the
Hyde Bill. With regard to future nuclear tests,
the Prime Minister has said, India is only
committed to a voluntary moratorium. A
moratorium is only a temporary holding off of
an activity, conditioned by specific
circumstances that obtained at the time when
such a declaration was made. It cannot be
construed as a permanent ban. The Hyde Bill
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has sought to make the moratorium into a
permanent ban. However, there is no such
restraint imposed on the US, China, Pakistan or
any other country. In bringing up this issue, I
do not wish to suggest that, I favour a
resumption of tests by India. But India cannot
prevent other countries from carrying out
tests. It is, therefore, unacceptable that India
forfeits its right to test for all time to come
under the agreement with the US. Even if the
123 agreement is silent on the issue, Indian
negotiators must put this issue on the table.
The Hyde Bill calls for suspension of all
cooperation and fuel supplies and even calls
for return of all equipment and materials
supplied earlier in the event of a test. It baffles
one how India can return reactor installations
that might have been operated a few years,
were such a contingency to arise in future. The
differences over the definition of “full civilian
nuclear cooperation” have been discussed in
the media. The Indian understanding was that
reprocessing of spent fuel, enrichment of
uranium, and production of heavy water also
formed part of the term “full civilian nuclear
cooperation.” In the congressional debate, it
has been noted that these were construed by
the US to be in the nature of military activities
and not civilian. India’s future plans for
Thorium utilisation for civil nuclear power
depend crucially on reprocessing. Similarly,
civil nuclear power units using natural
uranium require heavy water as reactor
coolant and moderator. Equally, if India were
to embark on a sizeable light water reactor
programme, it may like to have control on
supply of enriched uranium for economic and
supply security reasons. India has technologies
of its own in these areas and will develop them
further in the years ahead. If the Indo-US
agreement moves ahead in the manner its
sponsors have speculated, in a few decades
from now some 90 per cent of the nuclear
installations in India would be open to
International Atomic Energy Agency
inspections. In that scenario, how can India
reconcile to the embargo from nuclear
advanced countries on the export of
enrichment, reprocessing, and heavy water
technologies? Even if the issue were to be
papered over now, it will then look from India’s
point of view to have been a very bad bargain.
79. What is the Indian understanding of the
definition of “full civilian nuclear coop
ration”?
(a) Enrichment of uranium
(b) Reprocessing of spent fuel
(c) Production of heavy water
(d) All of the above
80. With reference to the passage, select which
of the following statements is/are
incorrect?
1. US did not supply fuel to India after
1987.
2. The Hyde Bill calls for suspension of all
cooperation and fuel supplies.
3. India can prevent other countries from
carrying out the test.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
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81. Seven People, namely A, B, C, D, E, F and G
stand in the same order in a row.
Everyone is wearing a cap of different
color, e.g. violet, purple, blue, green,
yellow, orange and red. D could see green
and red cap in front of him but not violet.
E could see violet and yellow but not red.
G could see all the caps except orange. If E
is wearing purple cap, then what color of
cap F have?
(a) Blue (b) Violet
(c) Red (d) Orange
82. Examine the following statements:
1. George has been present in the music
class on Monday.
2. He has been present in the mathematics
class on Wednesday.
3. He has no literature class on Friday.
4. He has been in history classes next day
after mathematics classes.
5. On Tuesday he has been present in sports classes.
If he has to attend a single class in a day and Sunday is his holiday then which other day will be his holiday? (a) Monday (b) Thursday
(c) Saturday (d) Friday
83. Three persons A, B and C wore shirts of
black, blue and orange colours (not
necessarily in that order) and pants of
green, yellow and orange colours (not
necessarily in that order). No person wore
shirt and pants of the same colors. Further,
it is given that:
1. A did not wear shirt of black colour.
2. B did not wear shirt of blue colour.
3. C did not wear shirt of orange colour.
4. A did not wear pants of green colour.
5. B were pants of orange colours.
What were the colours of the pants and
shirt worn by C, respectively?
(a) Orange and black
(b) Green and blue
(c) Yellow and blue
(d) Yellow and black
84. Four political Parties W, X, Y and Z decided to set up a joint candidate for the coming parliamentary elections. The Formula agreed by them was the acceptance of a candidate by most of the parties. Four aspiring candidates, A, B, C and D approached the parties for their tickets. 1. A was acceptable to W but not to Z. 2. B was acceptable to Y but not to X. 3. C was acceptable to W and Y. 4. D was acceptalbe to W and X. When candidate B was preferred by W and Z, candidate C was preferred by X and Z, and candidate A was acceptable to X but not to Y; who got the ticket? (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
85. Six books are labelled A, B, C, D, E and F and
are placed side by side. Books B, C, E, and F
have green covers while others have yellow
covers. Books A, B and D are new while the
rest are old volumes. Books A, B and C are
law reports while the rest are medical
extracts. Which two books are old medical
extracts and have green covers?
(a) B and C (b) E and F
(c) C and E (d) C and F
86. In a parking 36 vehicles are parked in a
row. After the first car there is one scooter,
after the second car there are two scooter,
after the third car there are three scooter
and ahead of them vehicles in the same
order are parked. How many scooters are
parked in the second half of the row?
(a) 10 (b) 12
(c) 15 (d) 17
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81. A, B, C, D, E, F +vkSj G lkr O;fDr gS tks blh Øe
esa iafDr esa [kMs+ gSa] izR;sd fHkUu jax dh Vksih igus
gS] tSls cSxuh] tkequh] uhyh] gjh] ihyh] ukjaxh vkSj
ykyA D vius lkeus gjh vkSj uhyh rks ns[k ikrk
gS ij cSaxuh ughaA E cSaxuh vkSj ihyh ns[k ikrk gS
ij yky dks ughaA G ukjaxh dks NksM+dj lHkh jaxksa
dh Vksfi;k¡ ns[k ldrk gSA ;fn E tkequh jax dh
Vksih igus gS rks F dh Vksih dk jax D;k gS \
(a) uhyh (b) cSaxuh
(c) yky (d) ukjaxh
82. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa dh tk¡p dhft, & 1- tkWtZ lkseokj dks laxhr dh d{kk esa mifLFkr
gksrk gSA
2- og cq/kokj dks xf.kr dh d{kk esa mifLFkr gksrk gSA
3- mldh lkfgR; dh d{kk “kqØokj dks ugh gksrhA
4- og xf.kr dh d{kkvksa ds nwljs fnu bfrgkl
dh d{kkvksa esa mifLFkr gksrk gSA
5- eaxyokj dks og [ksydwn dh d{kkvksa esa
mifLFkr gksrk gSA
;fn og ,d fnu esa ,d d{kk esa tkrk gS vkSj
jfookj dks mldh NqV~Vh jgrh gks rks vU; fdl
fnu dks Hkh mldh NqV~Vh jgsxh \
(a) lkseokj (b) xq#okj
(c) “kfuokj (d) “kqØokj
83. rhu O;fDr;ksa A, B vkSj C us dkys] uhys rFkk
ukjaxh jax ¼vfuok;Zr% blh Øe esa ugh½ dh deht
rFkk gjs] ihys rFkk ukjaxh jax ¼vfuok;Zr% blh Øe
esa ugha½ dh iSaV iguh FkhA fdlh Hkh O;fDr us
leku jax dh deht rFkk iSaV ugha iguhA iqu”p
fn;k x;k gS fd 1- A us dkys jax dh deht ugha iguhA
2- B us uhys jax dh dehts ugha iguhA
3- C us ukajxh jax dh deht ugha iguhA 4- A us gjs jax dh iSaV ugha iguhA
5- B us ukjaxh jax dh iSaV iguhA
C us Øe”k% dkSu&ls j ax dh iSaV rFkk deht iguh Fkh
(a) ukjaxh rFkk dkyk (b) gjk rFkk uhyk
(c) ihyk rFkk uhyk (d) ihyk rFkk dkyk
84. W, X, Y ,oa Z pkj jktuhfrd nyksa us vxkeh lalnh; pqukoksa ds fy, la;qDr mEehnokj [kM+k
djus dk fu.kZ; fy;k gSA fdlh Hkh mEehnokj dk
lcls vf/kd nyksa }kjk Lohdkj fd;k tkuk gh
mEehnokj ds p;u dk vk/kkj gSA A, B, C ,oa D
pkj izkFkhZ mEehnokj bu nyksa ds ikl fVdV ikus
ds fy, vkrs gSA 1. A mEehnokj W dks Lohdk;Z gS fdarq Z dks
ugh gSA 2. B mEehnokj Y dks Lohdk;Z gS fdarq X dks ugh
gSA 3. C mEehnokj W ,oa Y dks Lohdk;Z gSA 4. D mEehnokj W ,oa X dks Lohdk;Z gSA tc B mEehnokj dks W ,oa Z us ilan fd;k] C
mEehnokj dks X ,oa Z us ilan fd;k vkSj A
mEehnokj X dks Lohdk;Z Fkk fdarq Y dks ugha Fkk%
rks fVdV fdls feyh \
(a) A (b) B
(c) C (d) D
85. Ng iqLrdksa dks A, B, C, D, E vkSj F ls vafdr
dj ,d ds cxy esa ,d j[k fn;k tkrk gSA B,
C, E vkSj F iqLrdksa ds gjsa vkoj.k gSa tcfd vU;
iqLrdksa ds vkoj.k ihys gSaA A, B vkSj D iqLrdsa
ubZ gS tcfd “ks’k iqjkuh iqLrdsa gSaA A, B vkSj C
iqLrdsa fof/k fjiksVsZa gSa tcfd “ks’k iqLrds
vk;qfoZKku ds m)j.kksa dh gjs vkoj.kksa okyh
iqLrdsa gSa \
(a) B vkSj C (b) E vkSj F
(c) C vkSj E (d) C vkSj F
86- ,d drkj esa 36 xkfM+;k¡ ikfdZax esa [kM+h gSA igyh
dkj ds ckn ,d LdwVj] nwljh dkj ds ckn nks
LdwVj] rhljh dkj ds ckn rhu LdwVj vkSj vkxs
Hkh blh Øe esa xkfM+;k¡ [kM+h gSaA drkj ds nwljs
gkQ esa fdrus LdwVj [kM+s gSa \
(a) 10 (b) 12
(c) 15 (d) 17
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87 Among successful students in a class Nita is
on the 22nd position from the top and
Kalyan is down 5 positions from Nita and
on 34th Position from the last position. All
the students of the class appeared in the
exam. If the ratio of successful and failed
students is 4:1; how many students are
there in the class?
(a) 60 (b) 75
(c) 90 (d) None of these
88. What will come in place of the question
mark (?)?
CDF, DEG, EFH, ?
(a) FGI (b) FGH
(c) FHG (d) EFI
89. In a class of 53 students Jaya’s rank is 5th;
what will be her rank from the bottom?
(a) 49th (b) 48th
(c) 47th (d) 50th
90. In a queue of students Jaya is 12th from the
left and Rekha is 20th from the right. It they
change their place reciprocally then Jaya
comes to 22nd from the left. How many
students were there in the queue?
(a) 30 (b) 31
(c) 41 (d) 34
91. Find the square root of (0.064−0.008)(0.16−0.04)
(0.16+0.08+0.04)(0.4+0.2)3
(a) 2
3 (b)
1
3
(c) 3 (d) 3
2
92. The value of [(.87)2 + (0.13)2 + (0.87 ×
(0.26)]2013 (a) 0 (b) 1
(c) -1 (d) 2013
93. In an exam the sum of the scores of A and B
is 120, that of B and C is 130 and that of C
and A is 140. Then the score of C is:
(a) 70 (b) 75
(c) 60 (d) 65
94.. Two numbers are in ratio 5:8, If their
difference is 48, then the smaller number is
(a) 64 (b) 80
(c) 96 (d) 128
95. The weight of a container completely filled
with water is 2.25 kg. The container weights
0.77 kg when its 0.2 part is filled with water.
The weight (in kg) of the container when 0.4
part of its is filled with water, is
(a) 0.40 (b) 1.14
(c) 0.74 (d) 1.88
96. In a farm there are cows and hens. If heads are
counted there are 180, if legs are counted
there are 420. The number of cows in the
farm is
(a) 130 (b) 50
(c) 150 (d) 30
97. If 120 is 20% of a number, then 120% of that number will be:
(a) 20 (b) 120
(c) 480 (d) 720
98. If a+b = 10 and ab = 21 , then the value of (a-
b)2 is
(a) 15 (b) 16
(c) 17 (d) 18
99. If the square root of 841 is 29, then square root
of 0.00000841 is equal to:
(a) 0.029 (b) 0.0029
(c) 0.00029 (d) 0.29
100. The greatest number among √23
, √3, √53
and
1.5 is:
(a) √23
(b) √25
(c) √3 (d) 1.5
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87- d{kk esa mRrh.kZ fo|kfFkZ;ksa esa uhrk VkWi ls 22osa LFkku
ij gS vkSj dY;k.k uhrk ls 5 LFkkku uhps vkSj vafre
LFkku ls 34osa LFkku ij gSA d{kk ds lHkh fo|kFkhZ
ijh{kk esa lfEefyr gksrs gSA ;fn mRrh.kZ vkSj vuqRrh.kZ
gq, fo|kfFkZ;ksa dk vuqikr 4 % 1 gS] Kkr djsa d{kk esa
fdrus fo|kFkhZ gSa \
(a) 60 (b) 75
(c) 90 (d) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
88- iz”ufpà ¼ \ ½ ds LFkku ij D;k vk,xk \
CDF, DEG, EFH, ?
(a) FGI (b) FGH
(c) FHG (d) EFI
89-53 fo|kfFkZ;ksa dh ,d d{kk esa fot; dh jSad 14oha gS]
uhps ls fot; dh jSad D;k gksxh \
(a) 49oha (b) 48oha
(c) 47oha (d) 50oha
90- fo|kfFkZ;ksa dh ,d drkj esa ck;sa ls 12osa LFkku ij
t;k vkSj nk;sa ls 20osa LFkku ij js[kk gSaA ;fn ;g
nksuksa vkil esa LFkku cny ysrh gSa] rc t;k ck;sa ls
22osa LFkku ij vk tkrh gSA drkj esa fdrus fo|kFkhZ
Fks \
(a) 30 (b) 31
(c) 41 (d) 3
91. (0.064−0.008)(0.16−0.04)
(0.16+0.08+0