DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO T.B.C. : B-BRO-M-HTA Test Booklet Series Serial No. UPSC TEST SERIES TEST BOOKLET GENERAL STUDIES Paper – I TEST – 20 MODEL TEST – III Time Allowed : 2 Hours Maximum Marks : 200 INSTRUCTIONS 1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET. 2. Please not that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll Number and Test Booklet Series A,B,C or D carefully and without any omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any omission / discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection. 3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet. 4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed both in Hindi and English. Each item comprises four response (answers). You will select the response which you to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item. 5. You have to mark all you responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet. 6. All items carry equal marks. 7. Before you processed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate. 8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded you should hand over to the invigilator only the Answer sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet. 9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end. 10. Penalty for wrong answers : THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS. (i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one – third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. (ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question. (iii) If a question is left blank i.e. no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO www.vetriias.com A
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DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO
T.B.C. : B-BRO-M-HTA Test Booklet Series
Serial No. UPSC TEST SERIES
TEST BOOKLET
GENERAL STUDIES
Paper – I
TEST – 20 MODEL TEST – III
Time Allowed : 2 Hours Maximum Marks : 200
INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK
THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES
OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. Please not that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll Number and Test
Booklet Series A,B,C or D carefully and without any omission or discrepancy at the appropriate
places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any omission / discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet liable for
rejection.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the
Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the
Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed both in Hindi and English. Each
item comprises four response (answers). You will select the response which you to mark on the Answer
Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which consider the
best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all you responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the
Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you processed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you
have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission
Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has
concluded you should hand over to the invigilator only the Answer sheet. You are permitted to take away
with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers :
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong
answer has been given by the candidate, one – third of the marks assigned to that question will be
deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given
answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank i.e. no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that
question
DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO
www.vetriias.com
A
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1. The Nayankara System of administration that gave
land grants and a privileged status in society to its
prominent commanders was established by which of
the following Medieval Indian dynasties?
(a) Vijayanagara Empire
(b) Chola Empire
(c) Kakatiyas of Warangal
(d) Mabar Sultanate of Madurai
2. Which of the following statements regarding soil
is/are correct?
1. Alluvial soils are rich in nitrogen content.
2. Black soils are rich in iron and lime but
deficient in nitrogen.
3. Laterite soils are rich in iron and aluminium but
deficient in nitrogen and potassium.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Which of the following statements is/are true about
Radio broadcasting?
(a) It is a unidirectional wireless transmission over
radio waves intended to reach a wide audience.
(b) AM radio is a mode of broadcasting by varying
the amplitude of the carrier signal in response to
the amplitude of the signal to be transmitted.
(c) In India All India Radio is the national public
broadcaster and a divison of Prasar Bharati.
(d) All of the above.
4. Which of these statement best describes Dree
Festival?
(a) The Dree Festival is an Apatani Tribe‘s
agricultural rite.
(b) The Dree Festival is Bru Tribe‘s agricultural
rite.
(c) It is a Festival of Lushais, celebrated in the
month of December.
(d) None of the above
5. Which of the following is tasked with the preparation
of the Union budget?
(a) Department of Revenue, Ministry of finance
(b) Department of Economic affairs, Ministry of
finance
(c) Cabinet committee on Economic affairs
(d) Department of Expenditure, Ministry of finance
6. Consider the following statements in the context of
Electoral Bond introduced in Budget 2017-18:
1. These bonds will be issued by the Election
Commission of India.
2. Donors can redeem these bonds from any
notified banks.
3. This will make donations anonymous for the
political party, which will not know the source of
money.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) None of these
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7. Which one of the following statements is not correct
concerning Iqta system?
(a) It was a transferable revenue assignment by
which members of the ruling class obtained
their income from a territory
(b) Kharaj – was a land tax contained within the
Iqta system
(c) The Sultan did not collect Kharaj in the Khalisa
(Crown) lands
(d) Iqta system was introduced in India during
Iltumish period
8. Consider the following statements regarding Savanna
type region:
1. It is located between 50 to 200 degree latitudes
on either side of the equator.
2. The annual range of temperature in this region is
less than in the equatorial climate.
3. Its biome is dominated by grasses.
Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
9. Choose the correct facts about GUaRDIAN project
1. It is to explore potential translational
applications of genomic technologies.
2. It is a large-scale collaborative network of
clinicians from around India trying to use
genomics in clinical practice.
3. It aims at using cutting-edge genomics
technology to enable identification of genetic
variations in diseases and enable clinicians arrive
at precise diagnosis for rare genetic disease.
4. It is funded by CSIR.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) All the above
10. Which of the following microbes can be used as
insecticide?
1. Bacteria
2. Fungi
3. Virus
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
11. Which of the following statements best describes
Udaipur Declaration?
(a) A meeting of SAARC ministers on Disaster
Management
(b) A meeting of BRICS ministers on Disaster
Management
(c) A meeting of SAARC ministers on Deeper
Integration for Peace and Prosperity
(d) A meeting of BRICS ministers on Deeper
Integration for Peace and Prosperity
12. Consider the following
1. Effective revenue Deficit = Revenue Deficit -
grants for the creation of capital assets
2. The Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) is the
weighted average of a country's currency relative
to an index or basket of other major currencies,
adjusted for the effects of inflation
Which of the above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
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13. The Rajya Sabha in the Indian Parliamentary system
has an important role to play. Which of the following
power is NOT available to it?
(a) It can authorise the Parliament to make a law on
a subject enumerated in the State List.
(b) It can pass a resolution for the discontinuance of
the national emergency.
(c) It can authorise the Parliament to create new All-
India Services.
(d) It can either reject or amend a Finance Bill
14. Which one of the following statements is not correct
concerning military history of Delhi Sultanate and
Mughal Empire?
(a) The Sultan to start the practice of maintaining a
regular standing army was Alauddin Khilji.
(b) The army of the Delhi Sultanate was generally a
mercenary body without a nationalist character.
(c) The Mansabdari system of a Akbar fixed salary,
status, number of horses and troppers.
(d) Aurangzeb was the only Mughal Emperor not to
make good use of artillery in his army
15. Which of the following are the most important
climate factors that regulate decomposition?
1. Temperature
2. Soil moisture
3. Wind
Select the correct answer from the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
16. Recently SAAW was in news. It is related to
(a) Education
(b) Defence
(c) Water Conservation
(d) Air and Water Pollution
17. Which one of the following cities is not in Syria?
(a) Alleppo
(b) Mosul
(c) Raqqa
(d) Palmyra
18. Apart from Bitcoins which among the following can
be called as Cryptocurrencies which is seen in news
frequently?
1. Ethereum
2. Ripple
3. NEM
4. Litecoin
Select the correct answer from the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
19. Which of the following recommendations with regard
to No Confidence Motion‘ are made by the Sarkaria
Commission?
1. The issue of majority support should be
allowed/directed to be tested only on the floor
of the House and nowhere else
2. In the matter of summoning and proroguing the
Legislative Assembly, the Governor must
normally go by the advice of the President.
3. Where a no confidence motion is moved and
the Chief Minister advises proroguing the
Assembly, the Governor should accept it
straightaway.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 2 only
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20. Which is the latest country to sign civil nuclear deal
with India?
(a) Japan
(b) Vietnam
(c) Australia
(d) South Korea
21. Consider the following statements.
1. Women attended the tribal assemblies Sabha
and Vidatha during the Rig Vedic period.
2. The Rig Veda does not mention any officer for
administering justice
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
22. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer
using the code given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Geographic feature) (Country)
A. Great Victoria Desert 1. Australia
B. Grand Canyon 2. Canada
C. Lake Winnipeg 3. New Zealand
D. Southern Alps 4. USA
Code:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 1 4 2 3
(c) 3 2 4 1
(d) 3 4 2 1
23. India's first fully digital tribal colony located in?
(a) Kerala
(b) Karnataka
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) None of the above
24. Which of the following is/are indicator species?
1. Sparrow
2. Tubifex
3. River otter
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
25. Consider the following statements with regard to
Google tax/Equalization levy?
1. It refers to the taxation of income accrued to a
non-resident foreign ecommerce company. It
comes into effect from 1 June, 2017
2. As of now the services covered by the tax
include online advertising, provision of digital
advertising space and any other service as
notified by the government
Which of the above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
26. The latest country to abolish Kafala labour system is-
(a) Qatar
(b) Saudi Arabia
(c) Bahrain
(d) Dubai
27. Consider the following statements.
1. The Harappan civilization city of Dholavira has
been configured like a large parallelogram
outlined by massive walls.
2. The Harappan residents of Dholavira excelled
in water harvesting with the use of dams, drain,
reservoirs and storm water management with
strong engineering skill.
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Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
28. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly
matched?
Dance form State(s) of origin
1. Thang Ta : Manipur
2. Ghoomar : Rajasthan
3. Sattriya : Assam
4. Gaudiya Nritya : Gujarat
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
29. With reference to the International Union for
Conservation of Nature (IUCN), which of the
following statements is/are correct?
1. It includes both government and nongovernment
organisations as its members.
2. It has Observer Status at the United Nations
(UN).
Select the correct answer using code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
30. Which of the following statements is/are true about
the recently passed Maternity Benefit (Amendment)
Bill, 2016?
1. Maternity leave available to the working
women to be increased from 12 weeks to 26
weeks for any number of children.
2. It fails to make any provision for adopting
mothers and commissioning mothers.
3. Every establishment with more than 50
employees has to provide for crèche facilities
for working mothers.
Codes:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) All
31. Which of the following brings out the Global
Financial Literacy Survey report?
(a) Standard and Poor’s rating services
(b) World Economic Forum
(c) Moddy’s Analytics
(d) World Bank
32. Arrange these African countries from North to South.
1. Chad
2. Libya
3. Angola
4. Namibia
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 2, 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 2, 1, 4 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 4 and 3 only
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33. Which one of the following statements is not correct
concerning Indo-Greek coins introduced in India?
(a) Use of legends and portraits was introduced in
their coins.
(b) Such portrait coinage was popularly copied and
replicated by several other regional dynasties
across other parts of India during Post-Mauryan
and Gupta periods.
(c) Indo-Greeks introduced gold coins in India.
(d) Indo-Greeks coins include depictions of Indian
goddesses and yakshi figures.
34. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
answer:
List-I List-II (Reasons)
(Climatic conditions)
A. Madras is warmer 1.North-east
than Calcutta monsoon
B. Snowfall in Himalayas 2. Altitude
C. Rainfall decreases from 3. Western
West Bengal to Punjab depressions
D. Sutlej-Ganga plain 4. Distance from
some rain in winter the sea
5.Latitude
Code:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 4 5
(b) 4 5 1 3
(c) 5 2 4 3
(d) 5 1 3 4
35. Which of the following facts of Neutrinos are
correct?
1. They do not carry electric charge.
2. They are affected only by a weak subatomic
force of shorter range than electromagnetism.
3. They will not pass through matter.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
36. Consider the following statements.
1. Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership
is a grouping with 16 countries as members.
2. USA is not a member of this grouping
Which of the above statements/s is correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
37. With reference to 'Microplastics', consider the
following statements:
1. Their sources include cosmetics, clothing and
industrial processes.
2. They could not persist in the marine and aquatic
ecosystems.
3. They make up the bulk of the 'Great Pacific
Garbage Patch'.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
38. Consider the following statements with respect to
Redistributive Resource transfers.
1. Redistributive Resource Transfer to a state (from
the Centre) is defined as gross devolution to the
state adjusted for the respective state’s revenue
deficit.
2. Annual per capita RRT flows for all north-eastern
states (except Assam) and Jammu & Kashmir is
below the annual per-capita consumption
expenditure that defines the all-India poverty
lines, especially the rural line.
3. Larger RRT flows seem to negatively affect fiscal
effort of the states.
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Choose the correct answer from the options given
below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only
39. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
Literary work Author/King
(a) Nagananda - Harshavardhana
(b) Kavirajamarga - Amoghavarsha
(c) Mattavilasanaprahasana - Mahendravarma I
(d) Mudrarakshasa - Mihira Bhoja I
40. Consider the following statements with respect to
Krishna River.
1. It is the 3rd
largest river in India after Ganga and
Godavari.
2. The river originates in Maharashtra and flows
through Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Odisha and
Karnataka.
3. Bhima, Dindi, Peddavagu, Panchganga,
Dudhganga, Tungabhadra are some of its left
bank tributaries.
Choose the incorrect option from the options given
below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
41. Choose the correct statement about Bose Einstein
Condensate(BEC)
1. A state of matter of a dilute gas of bosons
cooled to absolute zero temperature.
2. It is formed by a gas of extremely high density.
Choose the correct option from the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
42. Low Carbon Technology Partnerships Initiative is :
(a) An inter-governmental panel created by
UNFCCC to create a common platform for
combating climate change.
(b) A collaborative platform for private companies to
accelerate the development of low carbon
technologies.
(c) An initiative of the tropical countries to harvest
solar energy.
(d) None of the above
43. Who among the following can operate White label
ATMs?
1. Nationalized Banks
2. Scheduled Commercial Banks
Choose the correct option from the codes given
below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
44. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) The Swaraj party was founded by Motilal Nehru
and C.R.Das
(b) The primary goal of Swaraj party was to contest
the elections to the Central Legislative
Assembly in 1923.
(c) Their idea was to conduct antigovernment
agitation within the council chambers and
disrupt the official policies of the British
government in India.
(d) The Swaraj Party opposed the ‘Poorna Swaraj’
resolution at the Lahore Congress session in
1929.
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45. Which of the following statement is/are true?
1. Rotation of earth and its tilted axis is
responsible for changes in season.
2. Cloudiness means more insolation for earth.
3. More the green house gases more will be the
insolation.
Choose the correct option from the codes given
below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) None of the above
46. Consider the following matches:
1. Agni-III : The two stage, solid propelled
surface-to-surface missile
2. Prahaar : Beyond Visual Range Air-to-Air
Missile (BVRAAM) being Developed for the
Indian Airforce
3. Astra : Surface to surface guided short range
tactical ballistic missile
Which among the above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) All of the above
47. The term Iron fertilization, recently seen in news,
refers to
(a) Introduction of iron to the upper ocean to
stimulate a phytoplankton bloom.
(b) Increasing iron content in crops through bio-
fortification.
(c) Improve iron content in soil by introduction of
microorganisms.
(d) Decomposition of e-wastes using
microorganisms.
48. Which one of the following statements is not correct
concerning Subhas Chandra Bose?
(a) He was under the political tutelage of C.R. Das
(b) He participated in the Non-Co-operation
Movement lead by Gandhi in 1920s.
(c) He was the elected as President of the Indian
National Congress in 1938.
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru was his primary and bitter
rival in the Congress party in the 1920s and
1930s.
49. Which of the following statements is/are true
regarding the Himalayan Fold Mountains?
1. They are the oldest mountain ranges in the
world.
2. They are located in the regions of high seismic
activity and divergent plate boundary.
3. They are formed generally by the sedimentary
rocks and contain fossils which are marine is
nature.
Choose the correct option from the codes given
below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) None of the above
50. Which of the following reports/indexes and their