ucfstudyunion.files.wordpress.com · Web viewPCB 3063-Genetics Final Review Study Union 2020 Sunday, December 6th 10:30 a.m.-12:30 p.m. Unit 1: Modules 1-4 True or False: Chromatin

PCB 3063-Genetics Final Review

Study Union 2020Sunday, December 6th

10:30 a.m.-12:30 p.m.

Unit 1: Modules 1-4

1. True or False: Chromatin are fibers of condensed DNA chromosomes and are observed during the divisional phases of the cell cycle.

a. True b. False

2. True or False: Homologous chromosomes are the same in length, have the same centromere location, and identical DNA sequences.

a. True b. False

3. In preparation for cell division and following DNA replication, chromosomes consist of what?

a. Chromatinb. Homologous chromosomesc. Centromeresd. Two sister chromatids

4. During what phase of mitosis does the cell replicate the centrosome for the formation of mitotic spindle?

a. Prophaseb. Metaphasec. Anaphased. Telophase

5. During what phase of mitosis does the mitotic spindle pull apart the chromatids?a. Prophaseb. Metaphase c. Anaphased. Telophase

6. True or False: The nuclear envelope breaks down in all eukaryotes during the prometaphase phase of mitosis.

a. True b. False

7. What phase of mitosis does the following illustration depict?

a. Prophaseb. Metaphasec. Anaphased. Telophase

8. During what phase of mitosis do the chromatids segregate and their DNA decondenses? a. Prophaseb. Metaphasec. Anaphased. Telophase

9. During what substage of prophase I does crossing over occur?a. Leptoteneb. Zygotenec. Pachytened. Diplotenee. Diakinesis

10. Please refer to the following diagram below.

Which of the phases of meiosis does the diagram above represent?

a. Late Prophase Ib. Metaphase I c. Metaphase IId. Anaphase II

11. Which of the following phases of meiosis does the diagram above indicate?a. Prophaseb. Metaphasec. Metaphase Id. Metaphase II

12. What is the final outcome of meiosis?a. 2 haploid cellsb. 4 haploid cellsc. 2 diploid cellsd. 4 diploid cells

13. True or False: Seedless watermelons are an example of a triploid (3n), but they remain fertile enough to reproduce.

a. Trueb. False

14. Fill in the blank: A monohybrid cross is the experimental mating of two individuals with contrasting forms of a _______.

15. Fill in the blank: In a dihybrid cross ______ independent character(s) are studied at the same time.

16. Which of the following is NOT an example of a test-cross? Select all that apply. a. Yy x yyb. YY x yyc. Yy x Yyd. yy x yy

17. Fill in the blanks. a. ____units of inheritance or Mendel’s unit factors b. ____ alternatives versions of a gene (contrasting traits for a character) c. _____ an exact location of a chromosome

Questions 18-20 were written by Dr. Sotero and taken from Problem Set 1.

18. Fill in the blank: List the types of gametes produced by the following individual: AaBb

19. In guinea pigs, rough coat (R) is dominant over smooth coat (r). A rough coated guinea pig is bred to a smooth one giving eight rough and seven smooths in the F1 generation.

a. What are the genotypes of the parents and their offspring?

b. If one of the rough F1 animals is mated to its rough parent, what offspring would you expect?

20. Color blindness is a X-linked recessive trait. Both John and Cathy have normal color vision. After 10 years of marriage to John, Cathy gave birth to a color-blind daughter. John filed for divorce claiming that he is not the father of the child. Is John justified in his claim of non-paternity?

a. Yesb. No

21. For the following cross, what fraction of the progeny will be wrinkled, green seeds? P1: RrYy x RrYy

a. 9/16b. 3/16c. 4/16d. 1/16

22. How many Barr bodies does the following individual have? 48, XXXYa. 1b. 2c. 3d. 4

23. Which of the following modes of chromosomal sex determination excludes the Y chromosome?

a. Lygaeus mode b. Protenor modec. Pseudoautosomal regiond. Bipotential gonads

24. For snapdragon plants, the R1 allele for a red color is neither dominant nor recessive to the R2 allele for a white color. When a red snapdragon and a white snapdragon are crossed, they yield pink snapdragons. This is an example of what?

a. Complementationb. Incomplete dominancec. Wild typed. Null allele

25. Loch ness monster males are XY. The b allele is X-linked recessive lethal. Heterozygous individuals have blue skin instead of wild type gray skin. What percent of the offspring will die if a wild type male and a blue skinned female are crossed?

a. 25%b. 50%

c. 75%d. 100%

26. What will be the phenotype for an individual with the following ABO blood group genotype? IAIO

a. Ab. Bc. ABd. O

27. For Labrador Retrievers, what fraction of the offspring will be brown for the following cross? BbEe x bbee

a. 9/16b. 3/16c. 8/16d. 1/4

28. For the following cross, what fraction of the offspring will express blood type O? HhIAIB x hhIAIA

a. 1/4b. 2/4c. 3/4d. 4/4

Unit 2: Modules 5-8

For questions 29-30, please refer to the following premise.

Magical ability is a dominant trait controlled by two independently segregating loci. The Grangers are expecting their first daughter—Hermione Granger. Mr. and Mrs. Granger are wondering if Hermione will be a magical being. Consider the following cross: AAbb x aaBB

29. What are the phenotypes of Mr. and Mrs. Granger?a. Magical b. Nonmagical

30. Using the cross mentioned above, determine what fraction of the progeny will be magical. Use a Punnett square to support your answer.

a. 1/4b. 2/4c. 3/4d. 4/4

31. Determine the most likely mode of inheritance of the Pedigree diagram below.

a. Autosomal dominantb. Autosomal recessivec. X-linked recessived. X-linked dominant

32. The following pedigree illustrates the inheritance of red-green color blindness (b), an X-linked genetic condition in which affected individuals cannot distinguish shades of red and green. (Note: the “carrier” symbol is not used in this pedigree).

What is the genotype of III-9?a. XbYb. XBYc. XBXb

d. XbXb

33. Determine the most likely mode of inheritance of the Pedigree diagram below.

a. Autosomal dominantb. Autosomal recessivec. X-linked recessived. X-linked dominant

34. Fill in the blanks for the following:a. _________ is the exchange of chromosomal material between homologous

chromosomes by breakage and reunion. b. ________ gametes occur with higher frequency. c. The _____two loci are from each other, the higher the frequency of recombinant

gametes.

Questions 36-38 were written by Dr. Sotero and taken from Problem Set 2.

Waxy, endosperm (wx), shrunken endosperm (sh), and yellow seedling (y) are autosomally linked in corn. A testcross produced the following results:

Wild type 3030

Yellow 560

Yellow, waxy 6954

Yellow, waxy, shrunken 3062

Shrunken 6960

Yellow, shrunken 174

Waxy, shrunken 584

Waxy 188

35. What is the configuration of alleles in heterozygous parents?

36. Construct a linkage map showing map distances.

37. Calculate the coefficient of coincidence and the interference.

38. Fill in the blanks: a. _______ the transfer of genetic information from one cell to another through a

sex pilus. b. _____ are extrachromosomal circular DNA molecules that may carry beneficial

genes and replicate _____ from the host bacterial chromosome.

39. Match the following terms to their corresponding definition.a. Bacterial DNA transfer mediated by phages.b. The phage DNA becomes incorporated into the host cell’s DNA and becomes a

prophagec. A phage injects its DNA into the host cell, degrades the host bacterial DNA, the

phage DNA replicates to synthesize expression of viral genes, mature phages are released when the host cell lyses.

d. Heritable change in a cell or organism brought about by exogenous DNA. e. Viruses that infect bacteria.

__ Transformation __Bacteriophages __Lytic cycle__Lysogenic cycle__Transduction

40. For transformation to occur in a cell, which of the following of these sources may provide transforming DNA?

a. Another cellb. The environmentc. A virusd. All of the above

Unit 3: Modules 9-12

41. Which of the following statements if FALSE regarding the Griffith experiments?a. A mouse injected with a mixture of type IIR bacteria and heat-killed type IIIS

bacteria will die. b. A mouse injected with type IIR bacteria will survive. c. A mouse injected with type IIIS bacteria will die. d. Frederick Griffith successfully identified and purified the transforming principle. e. None of the above

42. True or False: For the Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty experiments, after treating type IIS cultures with DNase, the lysate was still capable of changing type IIR bacteria.

a. True

b. False

43. Based on the Hershey-Chase experiments, which of the following is true about the genetic material inside phages? Select all that apply.

a. Phage infected bacteria incorporate radioactivity only if they are infected with 35S-labeled phages.

b. If the phages are 35S -labeled, the radioactivity stays outside the cell.c. The genetic material in bacteriophages is composed of proteins.d. The genetic material in bacteriophages is composed of DNA.

44. True or False: According to Chargaff’s rules, the proportion of adenines equal that of guanines, and the proportion of cytosines equals that of thymines.

a. Trueb. False

45. True or False: According to Chargaff’s rules, the proportion of C + G does not necessarily equal that of A + T.

a. Trueb. False

46. Which of the following are structural differences between ribonucleotides and deoxynucleotides?

a. On a DNA molecule, a hydroxyl group is absent from the 2’ carbonb. The charge on the phosphate groupsc. Attachment of the phosphate groups to a sugar ring d. RNA generally contains uracil instead of thymine

47. What type of molecular interactions hold two DNA strands together?a. Covalent bondingb. Ionic bonding c. Hydrogen bonding d. A and C

48. For a phosphodiester bond between two nucleotides, the phosphate group joins which carbons through two ester linkages?

a. C-3’ to C-5’b. C-1’ to C-5’c. C-3’ to C-4’ d. None of the above

49. Which of the following is NOT correct in regard to the Meselson-Stahl experiment? Select all that apply.

a. The sample collected from generation 0 contained only one band of DNA at the bottom of the tube.

b. The sample collected from generation 2 contained only one band of DNA at the bottom of the tube.

c. The sample collected from generation 1 contained only one band of DNA. The band was of intermediate density.

d. The sample collected from generation 2 contained two bands of DNA. One of the bands was of light density and the other band was of intermediate density.

50. True or False: When DNA replication occurs, nucleotides are added to the new growing chain from the 3’ to 5’ direction.

a. Trueb. False

51. Which of the following prokaryotic DNA polymerases has the ability to initiate chain synthesis without the use of a primer?

a. DNA polymerase Ib. DNA polymerase IIc. DNA polymerase IIId. None of the above

52. Why is the 3’ to 5’ exonuclease activity important for the synthesis of DNA in bacteria?a. Allows for the hydrolysis of the phosphoanhydride bond to release energyb. Extends DNA from an RNA polymer c. Allows for the removal of the primerd. It can stop incorrectly placed nucleotides and then resume DNA polymerization

53. Fill in the blank: a. ______ unwinds supercoiled DNA ahead of the replication fork by making single

strand cuts. b. _______ prevents polymerases from “falling off” c. ______separates the two strands d. _____ Stabilize the open conformation of DNA

54. For the transcription unit, is the promotor region part of the functional gene product?a. Yesb. No

55. True or False: For transcription, RNA polymerase cannot initiate the process using NTPs without the help of a primer.

a. Trueb. False

56. Please refer to the following illustration.

Two nucleoside triphosphates shown in the illustration above react through a nucleophilic attack of the 3’OH group of one of the sugars. Which step of transcription is shown?

a. Initiationb. Elongationc. Terminationd. A and Be. Neither of the above

57. The termination step for transcription in bacteria depends on the formation of a hairpin loop at the terminator site. The formation of the hairpin loop destabilizes the DNA-RNA pairing, and transcription ends. Which of the following proteins uses helicase activity to unwind the DNA-RNA hybrid to help terminate transcription?

a. DNA helicaseb. Gyrasec. SSBPsd. Rhoe. RNA polymerase

58. What’s the purpose of the addition of a 5’ cap? Select all that apply.a. Facilitates binding of the ribosome to 5’ end of mRNAb. Removes noncoding introns from pre-mRNAc. Alters nucleotide sequence of mRNAd. Increases mRNA stability

59. Fill in the blank: Through polyadenylation, 200-250 adenine nucleotides are added to the 3’ end of the mRNA forming the ____ which is important for mRNA stability and mRNA binding to the ribosome.

60. For the splicing of group I introns, during the first transfer a free 3’-OH of a free guanosine nucleotide cofactor attacks ____.

5’ ------exon 1-----NpX---intron---YpZ---exon 2 --- 3a. Nb. Xc. Yd. Z

61. For the splicing of group I introns, during the second transfer a free 3’-OH of exon 1 attacks ____. The linear intron is released, and the exons are joined.

a. Nb. Xc. Yd. Z

Unit 4: Modules 13-16

62. Fill in the blanks for the properties of the genetic code:

a. ________each of the 61 triplets code for only one of the 20 amino acids b. _________most amino acids are encoded by more than one codon c. ________ most living organisms use the same code, but exceptions exist d. _______ there are no breaks between the codons in a reading framee. _______ the triplets in a reading frame are in a tandem sequence and do not

overlap

For the following questions, please refer to the template DNA strand below.

 5’ TAC GGG CTA CAA CTT AAC AGA CCA ATC 3’

63. If the original DNA sequence mutated to the sequence below, what type of mutation occurred?

5’ TAC GGG CTA CAA CTT ATC AGA CCA ATC 3’

a. Silent b. Missensec. Nonsensed. None of the above

64. Will the mutation that occurred in the question above likely disrupt the integrity of the original polypeptide’s function?

a. Yesb. No

65. While charging a tRNA, an amino acid is converted to an aminoacyl adenylic acid (AA-AMP). The aminoacyl adenylic acid loses the AMP, and the amino acid is transferred to what end of the tRNA molecule?

a. 3’ endb. 5’ end

66. Which of the following are required for initiation of translation? Select all that apply. a. GTPb. IFsc. EF-tud. E site

67. Which of the following are required for elongation of translation? Select all that apply. a. GTPb. IFsc. EF-tud. E site

68. A stop codon moves to the A site for termination of translation, and RF1 binds to the stop codon. What helps catalyze the dissociation of mRNA, the ribosome, and the peptide?

a. RF3b. ATP

c. Rhod. Shine-Dalgarno sequence

69. Which sugar molecule does the cell prefer to utilize for harvesting energy?a. Lactoseb. Glucose

70. Which of the following best describes beta-galactosidase? Select all that apply.a. Breaks down lactose into galactose and glucoseb. May be involved in the removal of byproducts from lactose digestion c. Membrane transporter of lactosed. Isomerizes lactose into allolactose

71. Which of the following best describes permease? Select all that apply.a. Breaks down lactose into galactose and glucoseb. May be involved in the removal of byproducts from lactose digestion c. Membrane transporter of lactosed. Isomerizes lactose into allolactose

72. True or False: If glucose is available, then cAMP will bind and activate CAP. This facilitates the binding of RNA polymerase to the promoter.

a. True b. False

73. If glucose is not available and the repressor protein binds to the operator, then the lac operon will be:

a. ONb. OFF

74. If glucose is available and the repressor protein does not bind to the operator, then the lac operon will be:

a. ONb. OFF

75. If glucose is not available and the repressor protein does not bind to the operator, then the lac operon will be:

a. ONb. OFF

76. True or False: In the absence of tryptophan, the repressor protein will activate allowing RNA polymerase to bind to the promoter and initiate transcription of biosynthetic proteins.

a. Trueb. False

77. What enzyme transcribes all mRNA-coding genes?a. RNA polymerase IIb. DNA polymerase II

c. RNA polymerase IIId. DNA polymerase III

78. For a transcription regulatory region, the promoter is recognized by the transcription initiation complex or the basal transcription apparatus. Without the right enhancers, transcription will occur at a very ______ rate.

a. Low to undetectable b. High

79. True or False: Enhancers can be distant upstream, downstream, or an inverted position on the same chromosome on a transcription regulatory region and still stimulate transcription to a biologically significant level.

a. Trueb. False

80. Using the Xgal blue-white assay to identify E. coli cells that took up a plasmid with an inserted foreign DNA fragment, which of the following is NOT true? Select all that apply.

a. Bacteria with an original plasmid will not produce B-galactosidase, so it will make the colonies blue

b. Bacteria with an original plasmid will produce B-galactosidase, so it will make the colonies blue

c. Bacteria with a recombinant plasmid do not synthesize B-galactosidase, so colonies will remain white

d. Bacteria with a recombinant plasmid synthesize B-galactosidase, so colonies will remain white

81. Fill in the blank: _____ loci contain variable numbers of repeats of microsatellites that vary among individuals.

82. The larger the number of repeats of microsatellites, the _____ the PCR fragment generated.

a. Largerb. Smaller

83. Refer to the diagram above. An analysis of a single PCR locus (CA)n was conducted.

The serial killer is suspected to have only 2 repeats of the CA microsatellite sequence, while the victim has 8 repeats of the CA microsatellite sequence. Which of the following lanes most likely contains a DNA sample from the serial killer?

a. Ab. B