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SECTION - A
Objective Type Questions
(Muscles)
1. Select the true statement.
(1) A band is present in the middle of sarcomere (2) H zone is present in the middle of A - band
(3) M line is present in the middle of H - zone (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
Z lineA band I band
H zone
Sarcomere
� A band is present in the middle of the sarcomere.
� H-zone is present in the middle of the A-band
� M-line is present in the middle of H-zone.
2. Which one of the following is not a function of white muscles fibres?
(1) Moving of eye balls
(2) Fast and strenuous work for short duration
(3) For sustained work at a slow rate for a prolonged duration
(4) Fast flights as in sparrows
Sol. Answer (3)
White muscle fibres contract very fast and for a shorter duration. So, it is helpful in :
� Movement of eye balls
� Fast and strenuous work for short duration
� Fast flights as in sparrow.
It is not found in the muscles required for contraction at a slow pace and for prolonged duration.
Chapter 7
Locomotion and Movement
Solutions
Level - II
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3. The backward bending of the shank is worked out by
(1) Gluteus maximus (2) Quadriceps femoris
(3) Adductor group of muscles (4) Gastrocnemius and hamstrings
Sol. Answer (4)
� Adductor group of muscles – helps in bending of limbs towards mid-line of body.
� Gluteus maximus – in upper thigh for movement.
� Quadriceps femoris – biggest muscle; present in thigh for extension.
4. Which one is not the character of red skeletal muscle?
(1) Smaller diameter (2) More mitochondria
(3) More sarcoplasmic reticulum (4) More blood capillaries
Sol. Answer (3)
In red muscle fibres, less sarcoplasmic reticulum is found but more mitochondria, blood capillaries and smaller
diameter than white muscle fibres.
5. Which of the following is an example of multiunit smooth muscles?
(1) Smooth muscle in uterine wall (2) Smooth muscle with the intestine
(3) Masseter muscle of the jaw (4) Arrector pili muscle of skin
Sol. Answer (4)
Multiunit smooth muscles fibre : The smooth muscle cells in an organ, behave independently (each cell
contracts and relaxes on its own).
e.g., Vascular smooth muscle
Single unit smooth muscle : Cells are interconnected; all contract as a single unit.
e.g., GI tract
Urinogenital tract.
6. Least blood supply will be present in case of
(1) Skeletal muscle (2) Smooth muscle (3) Cardiac muscle (4) Striated muscles
Sol. Answer (2)
Least blood supply is found in case of smooth muscle fibre while abundant in skeletal muscle fibre as well
as cardiac muscle fibre.
7. Which of the following muscles are not under the voluntary control of nervous system?
(1) Pharynx
(2) Urinary bladder
(3) Anterior end of oesophagus
(4) Tongue
Sol. Answer (2)
In urinary bladder involuntary smooth muscle fibres are present.
Pharynx, oesophagus and tongue are under the voluntary control.
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(Mechanism of Muscle Contraction and Muscle Relaxation)
8. During muscle contraction in a skeletal muscle fibre, Ca2+ combines with
(1) TPT (2) T
PC (3) T
PI (4) Tropomyosin
Sol. Answer (2)
The Ca2+ ions combines with troponin C of the troponin complex and changes the configuration of the complex
resulting in the opening of the myosin binding site of actin.
TpT
TpC TpI
Ca2+
TpTTpC
TpI
9. The contraction of muscle of shortest duration is seen in
(1) Jaws (2) Eye lids
(3) Heart (4) Intestine
Sol. Answer (2)
The contraction is faster and for shorter duration in white muscle fibre.
e.g., eyelids.
10. In a contracted skeletal muscle fibre
(1) M line appears indistinct (2) H-zone elongates
(3) I-band remains constant (4) A-band disappears
Sol. Answer (1)
In a contracted muscle fibre, following happens –
� H-zone shortens
� I-band shortens
� A-band remains constant.
11. Set of ions essential for muscular contraction is
(1) Na+, Ca++ (2) Mg++, Ca++
(3) Mg++, K+ (4) K+, Na+
Sol. Answer (2)
Mg2+, Ca2+ ions are necessary for muscular contraction.
� G - actin 2Mg +
⎯⎯⎯→ F - actin
� Ca2+ binds to the TpC and displaces troponin complexes, making myosin binding site free.
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12. The potential difference across the membrane of a relaxed muscle fibre is called resting potential. It amounts
to about
(1) –70 mV (2) 50 mV (3) 100 mV (4) 50-100 mV
Sol. Answer (1)
The resting membrane potential is –70 mV. Which is due to negative charge inside and positive charge outside
the neuronal membrane.
13. Cori cycle operates in
(1) Liver (2) Muscles (3) Liver and muscles both (4) Brain
Sol. Answer (3)
Cori's cycle involves liver and muscles both as organs which is mediated by blood.
14. The lactic acid generated during muscle contraction is finally converted to glycogen in
(1) Muscle (2) Kidney
(3) Liver (4) Pancreas
Sol. Answer (3)
Muscleglycogen
Musclelactic acid
Bloodlactic acid
BloodGlucose
Liver lactic acid
Liver glycogen(80%)
Energy
20% oxidised to CO + H O2 2
Fig. : Cori's cycle.
15. 80% of the lactic acid is converted to _______ in the liver.
(1) Cellulose (2) Acetyl CoA (3) Glycogen (4) Starch
Sol. Answer (3)
(Skeletal System)
16. Foramen Magnum is associated with which bone?
(1) Frontal (2) Parietal (3) Temporal (4) Occipital
Sol. Answer (4)
Foramen Magnum found in the occipital bone, is a passage through which medulla oblongata connects with
the spinal cord.
17. Tongue bone is
(1) Mandible (2) Hyoid (3) Flat bone (4) Coccyx
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Sol. Answer (2)
Hyoid bone : is also known as tongue bone because tongue is attached to this single bone.
Mandible : Jaw bone
Coccyx : tail bone
18. Number of anterior curves present with human vertebral column is
(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 1
Sol. Answer (1)
In total four curves are present in the vertebral column, out of which 2 are anterior.
Cervical curve
Thoraciccurve
Lumbar curve
Sacral curve
19. The heaviest and largest vertebrae are
(1) Thoracic (2) Lumbar (3) Cervical (4) Sacral
Sol. Answer (2)
The heaviest and largest vertebrae is lumbar vertebrae.
20. Type of vertebrae in case of human is
(1) Amphiplatyan (2) Procoelus (3) Amphicoelus (4) Heterocoelus
Sol. Answer (1)
Humans have amphiplatyan types of vertebrae.
Anterior
Posterior
⎫⎬⎭Amphiplatyan
e.g., fishes, 8 vertebrae of frog
th
Amphicoelus
Dorsal
anterior
Ventral
Dorsal
Posterior
Ventral
e.g., birds
Heterocoelus
Anterior
e.g., typical vertebra of lizard, frog and snake
Procoelus
21. Deltoid ridge is found in which one of the following bones?
(1) Radius (2) Tibia (3) Femur (4) Humerus
Sol. Answer (4)
Deltoid ridge is found in humerus.
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Head of humerusGreater tuberosity
Lesser tuberosity
(Articulates with glenoid cavity)
Deltoid ridge (Deltoidius muscle attached)
Median condyle
Trochlea
Lateral condyle
Coronoid fossa
Median side Lateral side
22. Olecranon fossa is present with
(1) Radius (2) Ulna (3) Humerus (4) Femur
Sol. Answer (3)
Olecranon fossa is present in the humerus.
Olecranon
fossa
Posterior view
of humerus
23 . Phalangeal formula for the hand is
(1) 23333 (2) 33333
(3) 33322 (4) 32333
Sol. Answer (1)
Phalangeal formula of hand is 23333, 2 phalangeal bones in thumb while rest of the fingers contain 3 phalangeal
bones.
24. Obturator foramen is enclosed between
(1) Ilium, ischium and pubis (2) Ischium and pubis
(3) Ilium and ischium (4) Ilium and pubis
Sol. Answer (2)
Obturator foramen is found in the coxal bone, enclosed between ischium and pubis.
Ilium
Acetabulum
Obturator Foramen
Pubis
Ischium
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25. Which of the following are involved in the formation of acetabulum?
a. Ilium
b. Ischium
c. Pubis
(1) a & b only (2) b & c only (3) a & c only (4) a, b & c
Sol. Answer (4)
Acetabulum is formed by ilium, ischium and pubis.
26. Mark the odd one w.r.t. girdle bones
(1) Clavicle (2) Ischium (3) Ileum (4) Pubis
Sol. Answer (3)
Ileum is a part of small intestine.
(Joint and Disorder of Muscular and Skeletal System)
27. Which one of the following is a viral disease that weakens the muscles?
(1) Atrophy (2) Poliomyelitis (3) Dystrophy (4) Muscular hypertrophy
Sol. Answer (2)
Poliomyelitis is caused by poliovirus which weakens the muscles.
Atrophy in a condition in which there is degeneration of muscles, it may occur due to cancer, AIDS, COPD etc.
Dystrophy is due to inability to produce dystrophin and is a genetic disorder.
Muscular hypertrophy is increase in size of the cells. e.g. in case of body builders.
28. Which of the following movements in mammalian skeleton represent the leverage of the third order (force applied
at a point between fulcrum and the point of resistance)?
(1) Biceps muscle flexing arm at elbow
(2) Triceps muscle extending arm at elbow
(3) Gastrocnemius muscle raising weight of body on toes
(4) Movement of the head of femur in the acetabulum of pelvic girdle
Sol. Answer (1)
29. When a bone breaks into more than two pieces, such a fracture is called
(1) Simple fracture (2) Green stick fracture
(3) Comminuted fracture (4) Compound fracture
Sol. Answer (3)
30. Bone formed by the ossification of tendon is called as
(1) Sesamoid (2) Cartilage or replacing bone
(3) Investing or dermal bone (4) Membranous bone
Sol. Answer (1)
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SECTION - B
Previous Years Questions
1. Which of the following muscular disorders is inherited? [NEET-2019]
(1) Tetany (2) Muscular dystrophy
(3) Myasthenia gravis (4) Botulism
Sol. Answer (2)
Progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle mostly due to genetic disorder is muscular dystrophy where as
tetany is muscular spasm due to low calcium in body fluid. Myasthenia gravis is an anto immume disorder
leading to paralysis of skeletal muscles. Botulism is rare and dangerous type of food poisoning caused by
bacterium Clostridium Botulinum.
2. Select the correct option. [NEET-2019]
(1) 8th, 9th and 10th pairs of ribs articulate directly with the sternum.
(2) 11th and 12th pairs of ribs are connected to the sternum with the help of hyaline cartilage.
(3) Each rib is a flat thin bone and all the ribs are connected dorsally to the thoracic vertebrae and ventrally
to the sternum.
(4) There are seven pairs of vertebrosternal, three pairs of vertebrochondral and two pairs of vertebral ribs.
Sol. Answer (4)
� Vertebrosternal ribs are true ribs, dorsally they are attached to the thoracic vertebrae and ventrally
connected to the sternum with the help of hyaline cartilage. First seven pairs of ribs are called true ribs.
� 8th, 9th and 10th pairs of ribs do not articulate directly with the sternum but join the seventh ribs with the
help of hyaline cartilage. These are vertebrochondral or false ribs.
� Last 2 pairs (11 & 12) of ribs are not connected ventrally and are therefore, called floating ribs.
� Only first seven pairs of ribs are ventrally connected to the sternum.
3. The pivot joint between atlas and axis is a type of [NEET-2017]
(1) Fibrous joint (2) Cartilaginous joint (3) Synovial joint (4) Saddle joint
Sol. Answer (3)
Synovial joints are freely movable joint which allow considerable movements. Pivot joint is a type of synovial
joint which provide rotational movement as in between atlas and axis vertebrae of vertebral column.
4. Out of 'X' pairs of ribs in humans only 'Y' pairs are true ribs. Select the option that correctly represents values
of X and Y and provides their explanation [NEET-2017]
(1) X = 12, Y = 7 True ribs are attached dorsally to vertebral column and ventrally to the sternum
(2) X = 12, Y = 5 True ribs are attached dorsally to vertebral column and sternum on the two ends
(3) X = 24, Y = 7 True ribs are dorsally attached to vertebral column but are free on ventral side
(4) X = 24, Y = 12 True ribs are dorsally attached to vertebral column but are free on ventral side
Sol. Answer (1)
In human, 12 pairs of ribs are present in which 7 pairs of ribs (1st to 7th pairs) are attached dorsally to vertebral
column and ventrally to the sternum.
5. Name the ion responsible for unmasking of active sites for myosin for cross-bridge activity during muscle
contraction. [NEET (Phase-2)-2016]
(1) Calcium (2) Magnesium (3) Sodium (4) Potassium
Sol. Answer (1)
Calcium ions bind with TpC unit of troponin which is responsible for unmasking of active sites for myosin for
crossbridge activity during muscles contraction.
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6. Osteoporosis, an age-related disease of skeletal system, may occur due to [NEET (Phase-2)-2016]
(1) Immune disorder affecting neuromuscular junction leading to fatigue
(2) High concentration of Ca++ and Na+
(3) Decreased level of estrogen
(4) Accumulation of uric acid leading to inflammation of joints
Sol. Answer (3)
Osteoporosis in aged female after menopause is due to decreased level of estrogen.
7. Lack of relaxation between successive stimuli in sustained muscle contraction is known as [NEET-2016]
(1) Tonus (2) Spasm
(3) Fatigue (4) Tetanus
Sol. Answer (4)
Sustained muscle contraction due to repeated stimulus is known as tetanus.
8. Which of the following is not a function of the skeletal system? [Re-AIPMT-2015]
(1) Locomotion
(2) Production of erythrocytes
(3) Storage of minerals
(4) Production of body heat
Sol. Answer (4)
Formation of RBC i.e. erythropoiesis occurs in bone marrow.
9. Which of the following joints would allow no movement? [Re-AIPMT-2015]
(1) Ball and Socket joint (2) Fibrous joint
(3) Cartilaginous joint (4) Synovial joint
Sol. Answer (2)
In fibrous joints, bones are firmly fixed together by strong collagen fibres.
10. Sliding filament theory can be best explained as [AIPMT-2015]
(1) When myofilaments slide pass each other, Myosin filaments shorten while Actin filaments do not shorten
(2) When myofilaments slide pass each other Actin filaments shorten, while Myosin filament do not shorten
(3) Actin and Myosin filaments shorten and slide pass each other
(4) Actin and Myosin filaments do not shorten but rather slide pass each other
Sol. Answer (4)
Actin filament slides over thick filament i.e., the myosin filament.
11. Glenoid cavity articulates [AIPMT-2015]
(1) Humerus with scapula (2) Clavicle with acromion
(3) Scapula with acromion (4) Clavicle with scapula
Sol. Answer (1)
Scapula has a shallow articular surface called glenoid cavity. This articulates with the head of the humerus to form
the shoulder joint.
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12. Select the correct matching of the type of the joint with its example in human skeletal system: [AIPMT-2014]
Type of joint Example
(1) Cartilaginous joint – Between frontal and parietal
(2) Pivot joint – Between third and fourth cervical vertebrae
(3) Hinge joint – Between humerus and pectoral girdle
(4) Gliding joint – Between carpals
Sol. Answer (4)
� Fibrous joint : Skull bones
� Cartilangenous : In between adjacent vertebrae
� Ball and socket joint : Shoulder joint
13. Stimulation of a muscle fibre by a motor neuron occurs at [AIPMT-2014]
(1) The neuromuscular junction (2) The transverse tubules
(3) The myofibril (4) The sarcoplasmic reticulum
Sol. Answer (1)
The junction between a motor neuron and the sarcolemma of the muscle fibre is called neuromuscular junction
or motor end plate.
14. The characteristics and an example of a synovial joint in humans is: [NEET-2013]
Characteristics Examples
(1) Fluid filled between two joints, provides cushion Skull bones
(2) Fluid filled synovial cavity between two bones Joint between atlas and axis
(3) Lymph filled between two bones, limited movement Gliding joint between carpals
(4) Fluid cartilage between two bones, limited movements Knee joint
Sol. Answer (2)
Pivot joint present between atlas and axis. It is an example of synovial joint. It is characterised by fluid filled
synovial cavity between articulating surfaces.
15. Select the correct statement with respect to locomotion in humans: [NEET-2013]
(1) Accumulation of uric acid crystals in joints causes their inflammation.
(2) The vertebral column has 10 thoracic vertebrae
(3) The joint between adjacent vertebrae is a fibrous joint
(4) A decreased level of progesterone causes osteoporosis in old people
Sol. Answer (1)
The vertebral column has 12 thoracic vertebrae. The joint between adjacent vertebrae is a cartilaginous joint.
A decreased level of estrogen in female causes osteoporosis.
16. The H-zone in the skeletal muscle fibre is due to [NEET-2013]
(1) The central gap between myosin filaments in the A-band
(2) The central gap between actin filaments extending through myosin filaments in the A-band
(3) Extension of myosin filaments in the central portion of the A-band
(4) The absence of myofibrils in the central portion of A-band
Sol. Answer (2)
At the centre of the dark A-band, a comparatively lighter area called 'H-band' or Hensen's zone is present.
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17. Select the correct statement regarding the specific disorder of muscular or skeletal system
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(1) Myasthenia gravis - Auto immune disorder which inhibits sliding of myosin filaments
(2) Gout - Inflammation of joints due to extra deposition of calcium
(3) Muscular dystrophy - Age related shortening of muscles
(4) Osteoporosis - Decrease in bone mass and higher chances of fractures with advancing age
Sol. Answer (4)
18. Three of the following pairs of the human skeletal parts are correctly matched with their respective inclusive
skeletal category and one pair is not matched. Identify the non-matching pair [AIPMT (Mains)-2011]
Pairs of skeletal parts Category
(1) Humerus and ulna Appendicular skeleton
(2) Malleus and stapes Ear ossicles
(3) Sternum and Ribs Axial skeleton
(4) Clavicle and Glenoid cavity
Pelvic girdle
Sol. Answer (4)
Clavicle and glenoid cavity are part of pectoral girdle.
19. The type of muscles present in our [AIPMT (Mains)-2011]
(1) Thigh are striated and voluntary
(2) Upper arm are smooth muscle fibres fusiform in shape
(3) Heart are involuntary and unstriated smooth muscles
(4) Intestine are striated and involuntary
Sol. Answer (1)
Muscles of limb are striated and voluntary.
Muscles of Heart are striated and Involuntary.
Muscles of intestine are unstriated and involuntary.
20. Low Ca++ in the body fluid may be the cause of [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(1) Gout
(2) Tetany
(3) Anaemia
(4) Angina pectoris
Sol. Answer (2)
Low Ca2+ leads to tetany. Low level of calcium in the extracellular fluid / blood plasma leads to increase in
the excitability of the excitatory cells i.e., muscles and nerves and thus muscle shows sustained contracted
state known as tetany.
Gout : due to accumulation of uric acid.
Anaemia : deficiency of iron.
Angina pectoris : A symptom of acute chest pain appears when not enough oxygen is reaching the heart
muscle.
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21. Which one of the following pairs of structures is correctly matched with their correct description?
[AIPMT (Mains)-2010]
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Structures Description
Tibia and fibula
Cartilage and cornea
Shoulder joint and elbow joint
Premolars and molars
Both form parts of knee joint
No blood supply but do require oxygen for respiratory need
Ball and socket type of joint
20 in all and 3 rooted
–
–
–
Sol. Answer (2)
Cartilage and cornea both are avascular. Elbow joint in an example of hinge joint.
22. Which one of the following is the correct description of a certain part of a normal human skeleton?
[AIPMT (Mains)-2010]
(1) Parietal bone and the temporal bone of the skull are joined by fibrous joint
(2) First vertebra is axis which articulates with the occipital condyles
(3) The 9th and 10th pairs of ribs are called the floating ribs
(4) Glenoid cavity is a depression to which the thigh bone articulates
Sol. Answer (1)
The parietal bone and temporal bones are connected with fibrous joint.
– First vertebra is atlas
– 9th and 10th ribs comes under false ribs
– Glenoid cavity is found in the pectoral girdle.
23. Which one of the following is correct pairing of a body part and the kind of muscle tissue that moves it?
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
(1) Biceps of upper arm – Smooth muscle fibres
(2) Abdominal wall – Smooth muscle
(3) Iris – Involuntary smooth muscle
(4) Heart wall – Involuntary unstriated muscle
Sol. Answer (3)
Biceps of upper arm has skeletal muscle fibre. While heart wall has involuntary striated muscle fibre.
24. Which one of the following is the correct matching of three items and their grouping category?
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
Items Group
(1) Ilium, ischium, pubis – Coxal bones of pelvic girdle
(2) Actin, myosin, rhodopsin – Muscle proteins
(3) Cytosine, uracil, thiamine – Pyrimidines
(4) Malleus, incus, cochlea – Ear ossicles
Sol. Answer (1)
(a) Malleus, incus and stapes are ear ossicles
(b) Cytosine and uracil are pyrimidine and thiamine is vitamine B1.
(c) Actin, myosin are muscle proteins while rhodopsin is an optoproteins.
(d) Malleus and incus ear ossicles while cochlea is the 'internal ear' the membrous structures.
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25. Elbow joint is an example of: [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
(1) Hinge joint (2) Gliding joint (3) Ball and socket joint (4) Pivot joint
Sol. Answer (1)
Elbow joint : is an example of hinge joint which allows movement in only one plane.
Pivot joint : allows movement of bones in one plane e.g. joint below elbow between radius and ulna.
Gliding joint : allows side to side movement e.g. wrist and tarsal.
26. Which one of the following items gives its correct total number? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
(1) Cervical vertebrae in humans - 8 (2) Floating ribs in humans - 4
(3) Amino acids found in proteins - 16 (4) Types of diabetes - 3
Sol. Answer (2)
(a) Cervical vertebra – 7
(b) Amino acids – 20
(c) Types of diabetes Diabetes insipidus
Diabetes mellitus
27. In human body, which one of the following is anatomically correct? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) Cranial nerves - 10 pairs (2) Floating ribs - 2 pairs
(3) Collar bones - 3 pairs (4) Salivary glands - 1 pair
Sol. Answer (2)
Floating ribs – 2 pairs
Collar bones (clavicles) – 1 pair
Salivary gland – 3 pairs
Cranial nerve – 12 pairs.
28. The contractile protein of skeletal muscle involving ATPase activity is [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(1) Tropomyosin (2) Myosin (3) α-Actinin (4) Troponin
Sol. Answer (2)
In thick filament globular head has a site for binding of actin and ATP. The globular head act has an ATPase
enyzme.
29. An acromion process is characteristically found in the : [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) Pelvic girdle of mammals (2) Skull of frog
(3) Pectoral girdle of mammals (4) Sperm of mammals
Sol. Answer (3)
Acromion process is a part of scapula / shoulder blade that articulates with clavicle (collar bone).
30. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched ? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) Cartilaginous joint – Skull bones
(2) Hinge joint – Between vertebrae
(3) Fibrous joint – Between phalanges
(4) Gliding joint – Between zygapophyses of the successive vertebrae
Sol. Answer (4)
Skull joint : fibrous joint
Between adjacent vertebrae : cartilaginous / amphiarthrosis joint
Phalanges : Absence of fibrous / synarthrous joint.
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31. Which of the following are the regulatory protein in the muscle contraction?
(1) Troponin and tropomyosin (2) Troponin and actin
(3) Myosin and tropomyosin (4) Actin and tropomyosin
Sol. Answer (1)
Troponin and tropomyosin are the regulatory proteins of muscle contraction. Tropomyosin, the fibrous protein
inhibits actinmyosin binding.
Troponin TpC : binds with Ca2
TpI : inhibits actin myosin binding
TpT : binds with tropomyosin
32. Source of Ca2+ for muscle contraction is both sarcoplasmic (endoplasmic) reticulum as well as extracellular fluid
in case of
a. Skeletal muscles
b. Smooth muscles
c. Cardiac muscles
(1) a only (2) b and c only
(3) a and c only (4) b only
Sol. Answer (2)
Smooth and cardiac muscles have less amount of SR to sequester Ca2+ inside. So major source of Ca2+ is
extracellular fluid. While in case of skeletal muscle fibre Ca2+ is sequestered by Calsequestrin in the sarcoplasmic
reticulum.
33. Which of the following is not applicable to red muscle fibres when compared to white muscle fibres?
(1) Sustained contraction for long periods (2) Rich in myoglobin
(3) Faster in contraction rate (4) Rich in mitochondria
Sol. Answer (3)
In red muscle fibre, contraction rate is slow and for longer period.
34. What is common between the muscle fibers of extensor muscles of human back and those of flight muscles
of the birds which remain in flight for long periods of time?
a. They are thinner, red colored.
b. They are thicker and light colored.
c. They have abundant mitochondria.
d. They have well developed sarcoplasmic reticulum.
e. They show slow rate of contractions for longer periods.
f. They show fast strenous activity.
g. They do not get fatigued early.
h. They get fatigued quickly.
(1) a, c, e, g, are common (2) b, d, f, h are common
(3) All features are common at different times (4) a, c, f, g are common
33Solutions of Assignment (Level-II) Locomotion and Movement
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Sol. Answer (1)
The muscle fibre of extensor muscles of the back and those of flight muscle has red muscle fibres which have
the following characteristic.
(a) thinner and red coloured (b) have abundant mitochondria
(c) less ER (d) show contraction for longer period
(e) show slow strenous activity (f) they do not get fatigued easily.
35. During muscle contraction, which of the following does not occur?
(1) No change in length of anisotrophic band (2) Decrease in length of isotropic band
(3) No change in length of A band (4) Decrease in length of actin myofilaments
Sol. Asnwer (4)
During muscle contraction, length of actin or myosin myofilaments does not change.
36. What would happen if ATP suddenly were not available after the sarcomere had started to shorten?
(1) Cross bridges would not be able to detach from actin
(2) Muscle would remain in a state of rigidity
(3) Muscle would relax immediately
(4) Both (1) & (2)
Sol. Answer (4)
Requirement of ATP is at the time of cross-bridge formation as well as during detachment of actin and myosin.
37. Select the correct match regarding the specific disorder of muscular or skeletal system
(1) Myasthenia gravis - Auto immune disorder which inhibits sliding of myosin filaments
(2) Gout - inflammation of joints due to extra deposition of calcium
(3) Muscular dystrophy - age related shortening of muscles
(4) Osteoporosis - decrease in bone mass and higher chances of fractures with advancing age
Sol. Answer (4)
Myasthenia gravis : Auto immune disorder which leads to destruction of Ach receptors of the myocytes and
thus there is no nerve transmission. Patients become weak and paralysis occur.
Gout : Accumulation of uric acid leads to pain and inflammation of joint.
Muscular dystrophy : I absence of "dystrophin" protein thus the conduction of nerve impulse from T-tubules
to SR is inhibited.
38. Myasthenia gravis involves weakness of skeletal muscles. Which of the following can act as a primary treatment
of it?
(1) Injection of neurotransmitter acetylcholine (2) Injection of neurotransmitter adrenaline
(3) Injection of acetylcholinesterase inhibitor (4) Taking protein rich diet
Sol. Answer (3)
Injection of acetylcholine esterase inhibitor will lead to inhibition of dissociation of Ach.
39. The clavicle articulates with _____ of scapula.
(1) Acromion process (2) Glenoid cavity
(3) Acetabulum cavity (4) Ball and socket joint
34 Locomotion and Movement Solutions of Assignment (Level-II)
Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph. 011-47623456
Sol. Answer (1)
Clavicle articulates with acromion process of scapula.
Clavicle
Acromion process
Pelvic girdle (scapula)
40. Sternum is connected to ribs by
(1) Bony matter (2) White fibrous cartilage
(3) Hyaline cartilage (4) Areolar
Sol. Answer (3)
Hyaline cartilage connects ribs to sternum.
41. Which of the following components is a part of the pectoral girdle?
(1) Sternum (2) Acetabulum
(3) Glenoid cavity (4) Ilium
Sol. Answer (3)
Glenoid cavity is a part of pectoral girdle. Ilium and acetabulum are part of pelvic girdle.
42. Total number of bones in limb of a man is
(1) 24 (2) 30
(3) 14 (4) 21
Sol. Answer (2)
Each limb contains 30 bones.
43. Bone formed by the ossification of tendon is called
(1) Sesamoid bone (2) Cartilage bone
(3) Investing bone (4) Replacing bone
Sol. Answer (1)
Sesamoid bone : e.g. patella, formed by ossification of tendon
Cartilage / replacing bone : formed by pre-existing cartilage. e.g. humerus, femur
Investing bone : formed in the dermis of skin then fuses to original cartilage.
44. The joint between atlas and axis is called
(1) Angular joint (2) Hinge joint
(3) Pivot joint (4) Saddle joint
Sol. Answer (3)
The joint between altas and axis is called pivot joint. Hence one bone (axis) has a protrusion (odontoid peg)
which fits into depression (fossa) of other atlas.
35Solutions of Assignment (Level-II) Locomotion and Movement
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45. In which of the following fractures, the bone is broken into more than two fragments, with some of the fragments
losing connection with blood circulation?
(1) Compound fracture
(2) Greenstick fracture
(3) Comminuted fracture
(4) Simple fracture
Sol. Answer (3)
Greenstick fracture : bones crack but remain together.
Compound fracture : broken / cracked bone protrude out of the skin.
Simple fracture : The bones break into separate parts.
46. Formation of abnormal granules called pannus are secreted by synovial membrane in case of
(1) Osteoarthritis (2) Rheumatoid arthritis
(3) Gout (4) Osteomyelitis
Sol. Answer (2)
Pannus : are the abnormal granules secreted by the synovial membrane in case of rheumatoid arthritis.
SECTION - C
Assertion-Reason Type Questions
1. A : Maximum movement is possible at the amphiarthroses joint.
R : Such joints are also called synovial joints and have almost frictionless movement due to synovial fluid.
Sol. Answer (4)
Maximum movement is possible at the 'diarthrose joint' which are also known as synovial or free movable joint.
Amphiarthroses have limited movement.
2. A : Ca2+ plays important role in the muscle contraction.
R : Ca2+ combines with troponin chain, displacing tropomyosin allowing the myosin head part to combine with
actin to from actomyosin complex.
Sol. Answer (1)
Ca2+ plays important role in muscle contraction by binding to the TpC of troponin and displacing the troponin
complex to free / expose the actin-myosin binding site.
3. A : On repeated application of stimuli, involuntary striped muscles undergo fatigue.
R : This is due to non-availability of ATP molecules.
Sol. Answer (4)
Muscle fatigue is due to the accumulation of lactic acid during anaerobic oxidation. Striped muscles are
voluntary.
4. A : All muscles follow ‘All or None’ principle.
R : All muscles contract either fully or not contract at all depending upon threshold stimulus availability.
Sol. Answer (4)
A muscle doesn't follow the 'All or None principle'. How much the muscle contracts depends on how many
muscle fibres are stimulated to contract. So, all muscle fibres follow 'All or None' principle.
36 Locomotion and Movement Solutions of Assignment (Level-II)
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5. A : Tibia is stronger than fibula and is present medially whereas fibula is lateral to tibia and slender bone of
lower leg or shank.
R : Tibia has a sharp crest in the shaft and a projection on the inner side of ankle called lateral malleolus.
Sol. Answer (3)
Tibia has median malleolus and fibula has lateral malleolus.
6. A : In case of gout, inflammation of a skeletal joint may immobilize the movements of the joint.
R : Uric acid crystals in the joint cavity and ossicification of articular cartilage lead to this.
Sol. Answer (1)
Due to accumulation of uric acid crystals and ossicification of cartilage. Joints become inflammed, immovable
and painful.
7. A : Sella tursica is located in the skull which lodges the pituitary gland.
R : It is a depression present in sphenoid bone.
Sol. Answer (2)
Sella tursica is a depression in the sphenoid bone and posses the pituitary gland.
8. A : Muscle tetanus is the phenomenon of sustained contraction of a muscle due to succession of nerve
impulse/stimuli being received by it.
R : Many of our daily activities are due to tetanic contraction of muscles like holding the book.
Sol. Answer (2)
9. A : Application of stimuli repeatedly just at the start of relaxation of a muscle fibre shows an increase in the extent
of contraction initially and results in treppe or stair case phenomenon.
R : It can be attributed to the summation effect of the sub threshold stimuli being given again and again.
Sol. Answer (3)
When a muscle starts relaxing and then is stimulated to contract by several identical threshold stimuli that are too
far apart for wave summation to occur, each of the first few contractions is a little stronger than the last. This
phenomenon is known as staircase effect or treppe. After the first few contractions, the muscle reaches its peak
of performance and can undergo its strongest contractions.
10. A : Latent period is the interval between the application of appropriate stimulus and initiation of contraction.
R : Latent period is minimum in cardiac muscle fibres.
Sol. Answer (2)
Cardiac muscle have long refractive period so its latent period is minimum.
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