TIBCO Designer

1 What are the three options available to define the engine persistence mode at an AppSpace level? (Choose three.)

memory

cache

datastore

file

group

exclusive

2 When configuring bwagents, which two options are available for setting the persistence and the transport provider? (Choose two.)

ActiveSpaces

EMS

DBEMS

TCP

NFS

3 Your company requests that you set up managed fault tolerance for applications deployed on AppSpace A1.

How should you configure the engine persistence modes and requirements in order to fulfill the request?

Engine persistence mode must be set to memory, and TIBCO Enterprise Message Service must be configured to let AppNodes communicate between them.

Engine persistence mode must be set to datastore, and TIBCO ActiveSpaces must be configured to let AppNodes communicate between them.

Engine persistence mode must be set to group, TIBCO Enterprise Message Service must be configured to let AppNodes communicate between them, and a database is required for persistence.

Engine persistence mode must be set to TIBCO ActiveSpaces, TIBCO Enterprise Message Service must be configured to let AppNodes communicate between them, and a database is required for persistence.

4 What does degraded state indicate for an AppSpace?

The config file for the AppSpace has incorrect values.

The AppSpace does not have the minimum specified AppNodes.

The AppSpace is opened in an earlier version of TIBCO ActiveMatrix BusinessWorks.

The domain was moved from local to enterprise mode.

5 You need to define a process that can only be invoked by other processes that are a part of the same package.

Which modifier should the process have?

public

static

private

protected

6 You need to create a RESTful service in TIBCO ActiveMatrix BusinessWorks for an employee resource that has the following fields: ID, FirstName, LastName, Salary.

How should you configure the Resource Service Path for a service that returns the employee resource by ID?

/employee/[id]

/employee/{id}

/employee/(id)

/employee/id

7 You are developing a process that needs to invoke a SOAP service. During development, the endpoint that hosts the service is located at http://development.example.org. During production, the endpoint that hosts the service is located at http://production.example.org.

How do you ensure that the endpoint you are accessing is configurable?

Use the SetEPR activity in the process and have a module property that references the endpoint.

Associate an HTTP Client with the transport configuration in the component bindings, and set the endpoint in the HTTP Client.

Set the endpoint in the advanced section of the Invoke activity, and use a module property that references the endpoint.

Create a module property called soapServiceEndpoint., and use that to set the correct endpoint.

8 Which three Shared Resources does this process use? (Choose three.)

JDBC Connection

ODBC Connection

JMS Connection

HTTP Connector

HTTP Client

RESTFul Connector

9 A large data set needs to be passed from a parent to multiple inline child processes. The variable has to be visible to processes across different modules.

Which variable is correct to use in this situation?

substitution variables

module shared variables

application shared variable

job shared variables

10 Where can a fault handler be attached in a process? (Choose two.)

Service Binding Level

Process Level

Scope Level

Reference Binding Level

Application Module Level

11 Which activity allows you to collect multiple transition flows to resume a single flow of execution in the process?

Empty activity

Null activity

Exit activity

Scope activity

12 You are using a Mapper activity in your process design.

Which three can be used as inputs in the Mapper Input tab? (Choose three.)

Primitive Datatype

Database Resultset

DTD File

Inline Schema

Complex Datatype

CLOB

13 You are migrating an application, which includes some custom XPath functions.

Which runtime task is needed to make the custom function available?

Include the custom XPath function plug-ins into the Host repository.

Export the XPath function as a zip, and import it through BusinessStudio.

Export the XPath function as a jar, and update the bwagent path.

Include the XPath function plug-ins in your application.

14 While debugging an application inside TIBCO BusinessStudio, when is the job data visible in the job data view?

after selecting an activity in a job

after selecting an activity in completed jobs only

a Process Definition that implements the operations of the service

after selecting a completed job

after selecting the job data view

2 Correlation data must always be associated with which two process objects? (Choose two.)

Catch message event

Receive task

Start message event

Send task

Catch signal event

3 Which of the following can be created by importing an XSD?

Business Object Model

Process interface

Database service task

Form

4 Which three actions are classed as 'Non-Destructive Changes' when upgrading a Case Data Model? (Choose three.)

Change multiplicity lower bounds to a lower value.

Add a new class.

Change multiplicity from 1..1 to 1..*

On an attribute, change a pattern that is applied to the attribute.

Add a mandatory attribute to a class.

On an attribute, make it searchable or not searchable.

5 How can you implement a consistent form experience for a common subset of data across multiple tasks and forms, while minimizing the number of places where changes must be made?

Make a form pane read-only.

Use embedded forms.

Copy and paste a form section into other forms.

Use a pageflow.

6 You need to interactively debug a business process application to check the data values of a local business object data field at key points as you step through the execution of a process instance.

Which three steps should be followed? (Choose three.)

Add an emulation file to define the data you wish to check.

Add breakpoints to the process.

Set Studio preferences to enable debug mode.

Set up a debug configuration and connect to the pageflow engine.

Set up a debug configuration and connect to the BPM engine.

Configure Test Points to indicate the data you wish to monitor.

7 Which two deployment options are available from TIBCO Business Studio? (Choose two.)

Zip file

DAA file loaded through ActiveMatrix Administrator

Deployment Wizard

Scripted Deployment

XML file

8 How can you revert an allocated work item to the original distribution pool?

Skip work item.

Re-allocate to world.

Re-offer selected work item.

Allocate work item to pool.

9 When using the Organization Browser, resources can be mapped to which two entities? (Choose two.)

Participants

Organization Units

Positions

Roles

Groups

10 How is work offered or allocated through instantiations of a dynamic organization?

Mapping the correct identification process data to the relevant dynamic organization identifier.

Using an LDAP query in a Performer field.

Using a Performer field that contains the dynamic organization identifier.

Referencing the dynamic organization identifier from RQL.

1 Which two issues can occur when too many operators are used in a message selector? (Choose two.)

message store overflow

stack overflow

selector truncation

recursive selector evaluation

2 What is the result of a message producer sending messages with the JMSDeliveryMode set to NON_PERSISTENT?

If authorization is disabled on the server, the server sends a confirmation to the message producer by default.

If authorization is enabled on the server, the server sends a confirmation to the message producer by default.

If authorization is disabled on the server, the server sends a confirmation to the message producer only if the npsend_check_mode is set to temp_dest.

If authorization is disabled on the server, the server sends a confirmation to the message producer only if the npsend_check_mode is set to auth.

3 Refer to the following scenario when a route is established between two Enterprise Message Service servers:

routes.conf on Server-A:

[Server-B]

url=tcp://hostA:7022

zone_name=Z1

zone_type=1hop

routes.conf on Server-B is empty.

Which two statements are true in this situation? (Choose two.)

Server-B actively initiates the connection to Server-A.

Server-A actively initiates the connection to Server-B.

The route between Server-A and Server-B can be promoted to active-active.

The route between Server-A and Server-B cannot be promoted to active-active.

4 What is the result of setting the processor_ids property in the tibemsd.conf file?

The affinity for the tibemsd process is set to these processors.

The affinity of the network related threads is set to these processors.

The affinity of the data store related threads is set to these processors.

The affinity of the processing threads is set to these processors.

5 Refer to the following scenario:

create topic > secure

create topic foo.>

grant topic foo.> user=user1 publish

grant topic foo.bar user=user1 subscribe

Which two statements are true about user1? (Choose two.)

user1 can use selectors for topic foo.bar.

user1 can use durables for topic foo.bar.

user1 can publish messages to foo.test.

user1 cannot publish messages to foo.test.

6 Which two statements correctly describe the behavior when a destination inherits the prefetch property from multiple parent destinations? (Choose two.)

When all parent destinations set the value to none, the child destination uses the value none.

When all parent destinations set the value to none, the child destination uses the default value.

When none of the parent destinations sets a non-zero value, the child destination uses the default value.

When none of the parent destinations sets a non-zero value, the child destination uses the value none.

7 With multicast feature enabled at server side, which class contains the methods to disable the multicast feature at client side?

Connection

Session

TibjmsConnectionFactory

ConnectionFactory

8 flow_control in tibemsd.conf is enabled with the following configuration:

setprop queue myQueue

maxmsgs=1000,overflowPolicy=rejectIncoming,flowControl=100MB

Which two statements are true about this configuration? (Choose two.)

When the total size of pending messages exceeds the value of flowControl(100MB), new messages to myQueue are rejected.

When the number of pending messages exceeds the value of maxmsgs(1000), the server will generate errors back to the producer.

When the total size of pending messages exceeds the value of flowControl(100MB), the server will generate errors back to the producer.

When the number of pending messages exceeds the value of maxmsgs(1000), new messages to myQueue are rejected.

9 What are three situations when a configuration deployment by the Central Administration server could fail? (Choose three.)

deploying to multiple servers simultaneously

inadequate user permissions to deploy to the server

invalid settings in the new server configuration

failure to lock the server

failure to connect to the server

10 Which two elements enable message tracing on an Enterprise Message Service server? (Choose two.)

on a consumer

on a destination

on a producer

on a message

10 An Enterprise Message Service server is configured with the following trace options:

log_trace=DEFAULT,-LIMITS

What will the logs contain?

messages regarding connection errors,destination overflow, route, and no messages regarding ACL violations

messages regarding ACL, route, connection errors, and no messages regarding destination limits

messages regarding destination overflow, ACL, connection errors, and no messages regarding routing limits

messages regarding route, ACL, destination overflow errors, and no messages regarding connection limits

1 Which TIBCO product must be pre-installed in the same TIBCO_HOME as ActiveMatrix BusinessWorks?

TIBCO Enterprise Message Service

TIBCO Runtime Agent

TIBCO Business Events

TIBCO Business Studio

2 Where is the Domain Utility run when adding a machine to a domain?

on any other machine in the domain

on the machine where the Administrator is installed

on the machine you want to add to the domain

use the Administrator GUI to add the machine

3 Which statement is true about changing the log-level of an engine?

It is changed by restarting the engine with a different -debugLevel argument.

It is changed from the TIBCO Administrator by re-deployment of the engine.

It is changed by modifying the bwengine.xml file, which is periodically re-read by the engine.

It is changed from the TIBCO Administrator by selecting the appropriate role(s).

4 Which processes are recovered when an ActiveMatrix BusinessWorks engine is gracefully stopped and restarted?

all processes that have passed a Checkpoint activity but did not complete

all processes that were paged by the engine during their execution

all processes that are marked "persistent" during deployment

all processes that were in progress when the shutdown was initiated

5 To which state is a process instance re-instantiated when using a database to store process engine information?

the last database update

the last checkpoint

the last received message

the Administrator backup

6 Which two levels of tracing are provided for tracing process resources? (Choose two.)

BusinessWorks engine input XML and output XML

only Write to Log activities

only Service Agents

any process starters

8 A called sub-process has a Generate Error activity. There are no error transitions in any of the involved processes.

What happens when the Generate Error activity is executed?

The uncaught exception causes the engine to exit.

The process instance terminates.

The job interface transitions into an error state.

The sub-process restarts processing with its start activity.

9 The Assign activity is used to assign a value to which type of variable?

Global Variable

Instance Variable

Process Variable

Shared Variable

10 Which two types of activities have transactional capabilities in ActiveMatrix BusinessWorks? (Choose two.)

Java activities

JMS activities

Rendezvous activities

SOAP activities

JDBC activities

11. How are Critical section groups used?

to synchronize process instances across multiple process engines

to ensure activities within the group will execute at least once

to group multiple activities into a higher priority

to create a set of activities with a common error transition

12 Which two transport types are supported by the ActiveEnterprise Adapter palette? (Choose two.)

JMS Topic transport

HTTP transport

JMS Route transport

Tibrv Reliable transport

Tibrv Network transport

14 Which three items must be supplied when specifying an ActiveMatrix BusinessWorks Service Resource? (Choose three.)

a WSDL file that defines the interface for the service

fault messages that can be sent by the service

a Process Definition that implements the operations of the service

SOAP headers that you want to pass to the messages of the service

a Context Resource for the incoming request

endpoint bindings of the service

15 When implementing a service, which activity must match the SOAP reply message schema?

Start activity

Process Starter activity

End activity

Partner Link activity

1 With TIBCO Rendezvous messaging, which protocol does the Rendezvous daemon (RVD) use to communicate with other RVDs?

SSL

TCP

UDP

HTTP

2 What does Rendezvous Daemon Manager (RVDM) manage?

the behavior of all clients connected to a daemon process

all Rendezvous clients in a network from a centralized location

Rendezvous daemons in a network from a centralized location

connections to the browser administration interface of a daemon process

3 Two Rendezvous applications are publishing messages from Hosts A and B.

Host A: publisher 1: network: ";224.1.1.1,224.1.1.2;224.2.1.1" service 8500

Host B: publisher 2: network: ";224.2.1.1;224.2.1.2" service 8500

Host C: listener: network: ";224.2.1.2;224.2.1.1" service 8500

All applications are using the same subject and all the machines are in the same subnet. Which statement is correct?

Machine C will not receive any messages.

Machine C will receive messages only from machine A.

Machine C will receive messages only from machine B.

Machine C will receive messages from machines A and B.

4 Which three statements are correct about the Rendezvous distributed queue (RVCMQ) feature of TIBCO Rendezvous? (Choose three.)

From outside, the group appears to be a single transport object.

Senders can either use reliable or RVCM protocol to send messages.

To orchestrate load balancing, senders are distributed group members.

It is best suited for one-of-n delivery, in order to balance the load across the servers.

5 Which two statements are correct about the Rendezvous fault-tolerant member parameters? (Choose two.)

Rank determines member weight.

Weight determines member rank.

Rank determines which member is active.

Weight determines which member is active.

6 Which three statements are correct about TIBCO Rendezvous? (Choose three.)

Rendezvous reliable delivery (TRDP) is built on top of the UDP protocol.

RVFT is specifically designed for high-speed network interface cards.

RVDM is built on top of the TCP layer for point-to-point communication.

RVCM is implemented in the API layer for guaranteed message delivery.

Rendezvous distributed queue (RVCMQ) is 1-of-n delivery for load balancing among cooperating processes.

7 What can a DATALOSS advisory indicate? (Choose three.)

The network is overloaded.

Some hardware component is experiencing intermittent failures.

A Rendezvous daemon (RVD) process is starved for CPU cycles.

The receiving daemon has lost data and the sending daemon should retransmit the lost data.

8 On a host, you start a tibrvlisten using tibrvlisten -daemon tcp:7500 -service 8500 A.B.

Which two tibrvsend commands on the same host will successfully send "HELLO" message to tibrvlisten? (Choose two.)

tibrvsend -service 8500 A.B HELLO

tibrvsend -daemon 7500 -service 8500 A.B HELLO

tibrvsend -daemon 8500 -service 8500 A.B HELLO

tibrvsend -daemon 7500 -service 7500 A.B HELLO

9 Which three statements are correct about Rendezvous secure daemon (RVSD)? (Choose three.)

During RVSD startup, you need to specify the store file, which contains the security parameters that configure RVSD.

The Rendezvous daemon (RVD) can start either automatically or by explicit command. In contrast, administrators must start RVSD by explicit command.

The RVSD startup is exactly same as RVD without using any store file. However, RVSD supports secure transport connections defined through API calls.

The Rendezvous daemon (RVD) can be stopped automatically by configuration after an interval in which it has no clients. In contrast, RVSD does not stop automatically.

10 Which three statements are correct about Rendezvous Daemon Manager (RVDM) configurations? (Choose three.)

When administrators modify the configuration in RVDM, the server pushes the new configuration to all managed daemons.

Each managed daemon receives and installs the updated configuration from RVDM and confirms receipt to the RVDM server.

All the configurations required for the managed daemons are saved in local configuration files on the host where the managed daemon is running.

If there are pre-RV8.x release Rendezvous daemons running in the same network as RVDM, then RVDM is prevented from starting successfully.

When an inactive managed daemon becomes active again, the server ensures that the daemon receives and confirms the configuration update.

11 What are two documented options available for Rendezvous log file rotation? (Choose two.)

-log-min-size parameter

-log-max-size parameter

-log-min-rotations parameter

-log-max-rotations parameter

12 Which three field names are found on the Outbound Packet Total on the Service Information page of the Rendezvous daemon (RVD) HTTP Administrator interface? (Choose three.)

lost MC

bad pkts

lost PTP

shed MC

missed MC

suppressed MC

14 Which three Rendezvous tools are available to check connectivity between two machines after Rendezvous has been installed? (Choose three.)

Rvtest

rvperf

rvsend

rvtrace

rvlisten

tibrvsend

tibrvlisten

1 Which two statements are true about the Block Data Visibility Data Pattern? (Choose two.)

It is able to define data elements, which are accessible by each of the components of the corresponding sub-process.

It is specific to a process instance or case. They can be accessed by all components of the process during the execution of the case.

It exists in the external operating environment, able to be accessed by components of processes during execution.

It can be defined by tasks, which are accessible only within the context of individual execution instances of that task.

2 Which action occurs when a user cancels out of a Pageflow process?

An audit trail entry is created to record the fact that the Pageflow was cancelled.

The Pageflow exits and any data that the user had entered is lost.

The current state at the point at which the Pageflow was cancelled is saved so that it can be resumed later.

The Pageflow is saved to the work list so that the user can access it later.

3 Which two statements are true about forms? (Choose two.)

One form can be called from more than one User task.

One form cannot be called from more than one User task.

If a User task does not have a form or Pageflow linked to it, then it will create a default form at deployment.

If a User task does not have a form or Pageflow linked to it, then it will indicate an error at deployment.

4 Which three statements are true about deploying ActiveMatrix BPM applications to an ActiveMatrix BPM server node? (Choose three.)

If a new project references an artifact contained in another project, the referenced project must be deployed first for the new project to deploy successfully.

Users can verify whether their deployment was successful by using the Administrator Explorer View, expanding the Application node.

If a project references an Organization Model but not a Business Object Model, the deployment will fail.

A project or a previously exported DAA file can be deployed by dragging it to the deployment server and dropping it.

If a new project references an artifact contained in another project, the new project will always deploy but will not run until the referenced project is deployed.

Before a deployment server can be created, users must make sure they can log into Workspace and start process instances.

5 Which two statements are true about process versions? (Choose two.)

Only major and minor versions numbers can be changed.

The qualifier can be hardcoded.

The qualifier is a date / time stamp format.

The major.minor.micro versions can be changed.

6 A business process splits from a single path into five parallel branches and later joins into a single path. The business requirement states that two of the parallel branches must be completed before the single path that follows the join can progress. When the remaining parallel paths complete, they are discarded.

Which Workflow Pattern should be employed to meet this requirement?

Cancelling Partial Join

Structured Partial Join

Structured Synchronizing Merge

Multi-Merge

Structured Discriminator

7 Which statement is true about the Organization Modeler?

It produces an organization chart of your enterprise's organization structure.

It identifies named individuals within your enterprise's organization structure.

It is used to map resources from an LDAP directory to your enterprise's organization structure.

It allows you to maintain an abstract model of your enterprise's organization structure.

8 Using the TIBCO General Interface and Google Web Toolkit Preview tabs in TIBCO Business Studio, how are forms tested?

by displaying the forms as they will appear at runtime allowing the designer to input data to see how the form behaves

by displaying the code that is generated by the forms functionality and can be stepped through with the debugger

by connecting to the ActiveMatrix BPM server node so that the Workspace and Openspace client interfaces can be used from within TIBCO Business Studio to debug the forms

by deploying the forms to the ActiveMatrix BPM server node in order to execute and test them

9 What are three requirements when using Emulation to test business processes? (Choose three.)

an Emulation file

a BPM node in a running state

a debug breakpoint file

a deployed business process

10 What must be done before deleting a BPM application from an application environment?

delete the Application Template from the Software Management section

unmap the BPM application from the nodes in the Distribution section for the DAA

undeploy the BPM application from the environment to which it is deployed

update the BPM application to be marked for undeployment and deletion

11 A Pageflow process is used to collect information and then start a BPM process. The Pageflow process contains a Service task, which updates an external database. The Pageflow is deployed as a Business Service. A user selects to run this Business Service. However, the user cancels the operation after the Service task runs, before the Pageflow completes.

Which two statements are true about the Pageflow? (Choose two.)

It is cancelled and BPM retains no history of the interaction.

It is cancelled and the external database update is rolled back.

It is cancelled and the external database update is not rolled back.

It is cancelled and BPM retains an Event Log tracking the Pageflow.

12 When filtering on text attributes, what would "s*s" return?

only text of three characters beginning or ending with upper or lower case "s"

anything beginning with "s" and ending with "s"

anything beginning and ending with upper or lower case "s"

only text of three characters beginning with "s" and ending with "s"

13 Which two are Iteration Patterns? (Choose two.)

Arbitrary Cycles

Structured Loop

Interleaved Routing

Multi-Choice

1 Which two statements are true about local channel destinations? (Choose two.)

Local channel destinations may use preprocessors.

Local channel destinations must have a default event.

Local channel destinations do not have a default event.

Sending an event to a local destination is equivalent to asserting it to the working memory.

2 An event was defined with Time to Live equal to 10 minutes. An instance of that event arrived from a JMS destination configured with EXPLICIT_CLIENT_ACKNOWLEDGE mode and was consumed in the preprocessor.

When will the JMS message corresponding to this event be acknowledged?

after 10 minutes

immediately after the Event.consumeEvent call

after the preprocessor finishes

during the post RTC phase

3 Which three resources allow breakpoints in TIBCO BusinessEvents Debugger? (Choose three.)

rule actions section

preprocessor body

channel destination

rule function body

rule conditions section

4 What is the effect of using the Agent.<AgentClassName>.checkDuplicates property at the agent class level?

applies to all <AgentClassName> agents in the cluster

applies to any <AgentClassName> agents deployed in the specified Processing Unit

applies to any <AgentClassName> agents used in any Processing Unit

applies to any <AgentClassName> agents in the project

5 When will a conflict resolution cycle begin?

when an external action causes changes to the RETE network

when a rule action agenda is built or refreshed

when a rule action is executed (or the agenda is empty)

when a run to completion cycle has ended

6 Which two statements are true about TIBCO BusinessEvents agents? (Choose two.)

Multiple Inference agents can be run in a single Processing Unit.

Inference agents and Cache agents can co-exist in a Processing Unit.

A Processing Unit containing a Cache agent acts as a cache server.

A rule in one Processing Unit cannot trigger a rule in a different Processing Unit.

7 Which two statements are true about a site topology file? (Choose two.)

It contains deployment information, mapping Processing Units to machines.

It contains deployment information, such as JVM parameters and thread settings.

It can only be edited in TIBCO BusinessEvents Studio.

It can be edited in TIBCO BusinessEvents Studio or a Text Editor.

8 Event A and Event B are in scope. Event A has property ZZ and Event B has property YY. Both properties belong to the same data type. Using Decision Manager, you drag property ZZ to a condition column. For a new rule, you specify a value of b.YY in its cell.

What is the intended action?

to compare the value of property ZZ with the value of property YY

to set the property YY to the value of ZZ

to set the property of ZZ to the value of YY

to overwrite the property ZZ with property YY

9 Which two methods are used to create and update metrics in TIBCO BusinessEvents Views? (Choose two.)

compute() function

create() and update() functions

XSLT mapper

XPath mapper

10 Which two statements are true about transitions in a State Model? (Choose two.)

When a transition crosses the boundary of one or more nested states, the entry or exit actions of those states are executed.

When a transition crosses the boundary of one or more nested states, only exit actions of those states are executed./li>

Composite states can optionally use boundary transitions but Concurrent states must use them./li>

Concurrent states can optionally use boundary transitions but Composite states must use them.

1 Which statement is true about installing TIBCO MDM in a clustered environment?

CIM instances in the cluster must run on the same JVM version.

Load-balancer is required when CIM instances must be clustered.

Load balancer is always required to handle HTTP requests to multiple application servers.

Each application server can run on a different JVM version.

2 Which two must you specify when using a datapool as the delivery entity when configuring synchronization profile? (Choose two.)

repository listing

output map

delivery mechanism

zip file storage location

input map

3 Which two Record permissions should be denied to prohibit a user from adding new records? (Choose two.)

Copy

Modify

Create

Compare

Full Control

4 Which activity must be used to send an e-mail message?

SendProtocolMessage

HandleMessaging

ProcessServiceMessage

Send

5 What are three special transitions for the purpose of processing exceptions? (Choose three.)

Format

Timeout

Error

Cancel

Condition

6 Which two statements are true about workitems? (Choose two.)

All approval workitems must be ASYNCHR in execution mode.

Another workitem must be created for users who have already had a workitem in a particular event.

The number of workitems that need to be completed can be configured in the workflow.

The default action of the ManageWorkitem activity is to CLOSE a workitem.

7 Which action is used to pass rulebase changes to other records?

clone

replicate

refresh

propagate

8 What is used to group a set of related attributes together in a repository?

output maps

attribute groups

input maps

classification schemes

9 Copy metadata allows you to export or import which four objects? (Choose four.)

Output Map

Relatonship Definition

Synchronization Format

BusinessProcess Rules

Repository

10 What can be used to retrieve all records that match a value across all repositories?

Event Search

Text Search

Subset Rules

Record Search

11 When a Record Add workitem is rejected and sent for correction, which Business Process Rule must be set to create a new workitem?

Record Edit Approval

New Record Introduction Edit

Data Custodian

Conflict Resolution

12 What are two accurate descriptions of a record that has conflict? (Choose two.)

A record has three versions and the same attribute in all versions has the same value in only two of the versions.

A record has two versions and the same attribute in one version has a null/empty value and the attribute in the other version has a value.

A record has three versions and the same attribute in all versions has different values.

A record has two versions and the same attribute in both versions has different values.

QUESTION NO: 1

The workflow activities that support parallel processing can be tuned for performance. This can be achieved by configuring a parameter for the activity RecordPerAsyncCall. What is the default value for this parameter?

A. 10

B. 20

C. 50

D. 100

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 2

Which TIBCO CIM utility is used to apply a hot fix?

A. tibcoUtil

B. hotfixUtil

C. migrateUtil

D. customUtil

E. tibcoCIMUtil

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 3

The following sample section of a rulebase will result in the displaying of which alerts on the

UI?

A. Warning Only

B. Information Only

C. Severe Error Only

D. No alerts will be presented

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 4

To enable text search continuous indexing, the Text Indexing Enabled property is set to which option?

A. Online

B. Offline

C. Discrete

D. Continuous

E. User Enabled

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 5

Which three statements are true about context variables for a rulebase? (Choose three.)

A. The SESSION object requires explicit declaration in the rulebase.

B. Previous confirmed and unconfirmed version records can be accessed.

C. Attribute access can be restricted to certain roles using context variables.

D. RECORD_ACTION is a special variable and can be directly used for operation.

Answer: B,C,D

QUESTION NO: 6

Which two statements are true about Subflow and SpawnWorkflow activities? (Choose two.)

A. Both Subflows and SpawnWorkflows can be nested.

B. Subflows can be nested, but SpawnWorkflows can not.

C. Both execution modes are supported by both activities.

D. SpawnWorkflow is ASYNCHR and Subflow is SYNCHR. E. Subflow is ASYNCHR and SpawnWorkflow is SYNCHR.

Answer: A,C

QUESTION NO: 7

Which two configurable settings are related to workflow in TIBCO CIM Configurator? (Choose two.)

A. Workflow Cache Size

B. Workflow Timeout Value

C. Workflow Restart Attempts

D. Workflow Manager Directory

E. Workflow File Extension Default

Answer: C,D

QUESTION NO: 8

Which three statements are true about the catalogs when used for extracting the data from a repository? (Choose three.)

A. You can choose which attributes are to be extracted.

B. You can choose which record status should be included.

C. You can choose subset rules defined on a different master catalog.

D. You can choose any rulebase if there are any transformation rules to be applied.

Answer: A,B,D

QUESTION NO: 9

What can be used to retrieve all records that match a value across all repositories?

A. Text Search

B. Event Search

C. Subset Rules

D. Record Search

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 10

Which activity must be used to send an e-mail message?

A. Send

B. HandleMessaging

C. SendProtocolMessage

D. ProcessServiceMessage

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 11

You delete the log files in the MQ_COMMON_DIR/Work directory. What is affected?

A. Elink log

B. Event log

C. Record History

D. Repository History

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 12

A string type attribute that is set to 0 length will default to what actual length?

A. 32 characters

B. 512 characters

C. 256 characters

D. 1000 characters

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 13

Which three ProgrammingOperators are supported while defining new conditions and actions for

Business Process Rules? (Choose three.)

A. equals

B. lessThan

C. notEqualTo

D. greaterThanEqual

Answer: A,B,D

QUESTION NO: 14

Which of the following parameters are required to retrieve a deleted record using a web service query?

A. RECORD_ID and ACTIVE

B. RECORD_STATE and ACTIVE

C. RECORD_VERSION and ACTIVE

D. RECORD_ID and RECORD_STATE

E. No parameters settings are required

F. RECORD_VERSION and RECORD_ID

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 15

What are six types of command qualifiers supported by MasterCatalogRecord web services? (Choose six.)

A. Add

B. Modify

C. Delete

D. MetaData

E. ValidValues

F. ValidValuesInit

G. Validate/Process

Answer: A,B,D,E,F,G

QUESTION NO: 16

Which two values can be set for a user via the User Accounts Administration page? (Choose two.)

A. Date Format

B. Default Repository

C. Activate Delegation

D. Activate Auto-Approval

E. Default Catalog Format

F. Activate Out-Of-Office Notification

Answer: A,C

QUESTION NO: 17

Which three are supported command types for the MasterCatalogRecord web services? (Choose three.)

A. Add

B. Copy

C. Query

D. Modify

E. Compare

Answer: A,C,D

QUESTION NO: 1

The following is the declaration of secure daemon in Rendezvous C API: tibrv_status tibrvSecureDaemon_SetUserCertWithKey( const char* userCertWithKey, const char* password); Which two statements are correct about this function? (Choose two.)

A. The password parameter is used to decrypt the private key.

B. The password parameter is used for the password for this user.

C. The userCertWithKey parameter is used to register user certificate with a private key. The text of this certificate must be in PEM encoding.

D. The userCertWithKey parameter is used to register user certificate with a private key. The text of this certificate may be in PEM or PK12 encoding.

Answer: A,C

QUESTION NO: 2

Which statement is correct about Rendezvous fault-tolerant groups (RVFTs)?

A. RVFT is an election protocol that tells an application when it is active or inactive. B. RVFT can only be utilized for message producers, not for message consumers.

C. For reliable consumers bound to an RVFT transport, the RVFT transport automatically disables subscriptions if the fault-tolerant group member becomes inactive.

D. For certified consumers bound to an RVFT transport, the RVFT transport automatically confirms messages if the fault-tolerant group member becomes inactive.

E. For certified consumers bound to an RVFT transport, the RVFT transport automatically cancels the certified agreement if the fault-tolerant group member becomes inactive.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 3

Which advisory message does a Rendezvous fault-tolerant member present when other group members use parameters that do not match its corresponding parameters?

A. _RV.ERROR.RVFT.PARAM_MISMATCH.group

B. _RV.ERROR.RVFT.PARAM_COLLISION.group

C. _RV.ERROR.RVFT.MEMBER_UNAVAILABLE.group

D. _RV.ERROR.RVFT.MEMBER_PARAM_MISMATCH.group

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 4

Which three activities can be configured through the Rendezvous routing daemon (RVRD) HTTP interface to be routinely output to the RVRD log file? (Choose three.)

A. Subject Data: to log all messages that this routing daemon forwards to its neighbors or receives from its neighbors

B. Connections: to log connection activity whenever this routing daemon establishes or closes a connection to a neighbor

C. Client: to log RVRD local client connection activity whenever a client application establishes or closes a connection to the routing daemon

D. Subject interest: to log all subscription requests (notification of listening) that this routing daemon sends to its neighbors or receives from its neighbors

E. Remote: to log RVRD remote client connection activity whenever a remote client application establishes or closes a connection to the routing daemon

Answer: A,B,D

QUESTION NO: 5

Which two situations can trigger the presentation of a SCHEDULER.OVERFLOW advisory? (Choose two.)

A. Scheduler has set a task backlog limit.

B. Scheduler has not set a task backlog limit.

C. Scheduler is accepting new tasks, but discarding old ones on a FIFO basis.

D. The Scheduler backlog limit has been reached and new tasks are being discarded.

Answer: A,D

QUESTION NO: 6

With TIBCO Rendezvous messaging, which networking protocol does the client application use to connect to the Rendezvous daemon (RVD)?

A. SSL

B. TCP

C. UDP

D. HTTP

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 7

Which two statement are correct about certified delivery confirmation? (Choose two.)

A. Explicit confirmation of message delivery by the listening program is the default behavior.

B. When confirmation reaches the certified sender, the transport presents a

DELIVERY.CONFIRM advisory.

C. Automatic confirmation of message delivery upon return from the callback function is the default behavior.

D. When confirmation reaches the certified listener, the transport presents a

DELIVERY.CONFIRM advisory.

E. When confirmation reaches the certified sender, the transport presents a

DELIVERY.COMPLETE advisory.

Answer: B,C

QUESTION NO: 8

When programming a TIBCO Rendezvous fault-tolerant application, it is a documented best practice to associate fault-tolerant member events with …………

A. a low-priority queue

B. a high-priority queue

C. a system event queue

D. the default event queue

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 9

You plan to test a network to ensure that it meets the following requirements: 100,000 point-to- point messages to be published by a single source in batch mode with ten messages per batch with an interval gap of 10 milliseconds. What is the correct rvperfm command to start a test run?

A. rvperfm -service 7501 -daemon 7500 -inbox -messages 100000 -interval 10 -batch 10

B. rvperfm -service 7500 -daemon 7500 -inbox -messages 100000 -interval 0.01 -batch 10

C. rvperfm -service 7500 -daemon 7500 -subject PTP -messages 100000 -interval 10 -batch 10

D. rvperfm -service 7501 -daemon 7500 -subject _INBOX -messages 100000 -interval 10 -batch

10

E. rvperfm -service 7501 -daemon 7500 -subject _PTP -messages 100000 -interval 0.01 -batch

10

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 11

tibrvlisten is started with the following settings: -network ";224.2.2.2;224.6.6.6" "mytest" tibrvsend is started with the following settings: -network ";224.6.6.6;224.2.2.2" "mytest". "message #1" What is the expected result?

A. The listener receives "message #1" only when run on a different host than the sender.

B. The listener does not receive "message #1" when run on a different host than the sender.

C. The listener will receive the message only if both the listener and sender run on the same host.

D. The listener will receive the message only if both the listener and sender connect remotely to the same daemon.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 12

Your back-end processing supports multi-threading and you plan to leverage this capability in the context of a Rendezvous distributed queue (RVCMQ) subscriber by running five concurrent threads. Which statement is correct?

A. RVCMQ scales by multiple program instances (horizontally), not by multi-threading (vertically).

B. Each distributed queue member receives as many messages as specified by the scheduler configuration (the scheduler tasks parameter must be set to 5 or greater).

C. Each distributed queue member receives as many messages as specified by the worker tasks parameter (the worker tasks parameter of each queue member must be equal to or greater than 5).

D. Each distributed queue member receives as many messages as it dispatches (nothing needs to be done from a RVCMQ standpoint as it is a matter of the multi-threaded message dispatching).

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 13

A publisher application uses a transport with UDP port number 8600 and multicast group 239.1.1.1. Which two sets of transport parameters enable a subscriber application to receive messages from the publisher? (Choose two.)

A. Service 6800, Network ";239.1.1.0;239.1.1.1"

B. Service 8600, Network ";239.1.1.0;239.1.1.1"

C. Service 8600, Network ";239.1.1.1,239.1.1.0"

D. Service 8600, Network ";239.1.1.0,239.1.1.1;239.1.1.1"

Answer: C,D

QUESTION NO: 14

Which statement is correct about the _RV.INFO.RVCM.DELIVERY.CONFIRM.subject advisory?

A. A listener sends this advisory to confirm receipt of a certified message.

B. The sender presents this advisory after deleting the message from its ledger.

C. A sender presents this advisory whenever a registered listener confirms receipt of a certified message.

D. A sender presents this advisory when all registered listeners have either confirmed delivery of a certified message, or canceled interest in receiving it.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 15

Which two statements are correct about fault-tolerant groups? (Choose two.)

A. Members of a fault-tolerant group are ranked by means of the specified member weight.

B. Fault-tolerant groups implement a K of N active strategy (K member of a group is activewhile N-K members are passive).

C. Members of a fault-tolerant group are ranked by means of the specified member weight, which must be a unique value within the fault-tolerant group.

D. Members of a fault-tolerant group are ranked by means of the specified member weight. Members with equal weight are ranked by the time they joined the fault-tolerant group.

E. The members of a fault-tolerant group are ranked by means of the specified member weight. Members with equal weight are ranked by non-deterministic means opaque to programs.

Answer: B,E

QUESTION NO: 1

You are a supervisor of a group of analysts at your company. Your business analysts do not have sufficient experience to understand the configuration of web services and integration components. How would you hide the technical implementation details from your business analysts?

A. use the Window > Show View menu option to disable the technical details

B. select the Enable/Disable Technical Details icon and de-select the Technical Details option

C. use the Diagram > Enable/Disable Technical Details menu option to disable technical details

D. select the Enable/Disable Business Studio Capabilities icon and de-select the Solution Design option

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 2

What is a valid TIBCO iProcess script file function call to delete a file?

A. IPEFileUtil.FILEDELETE(C:\Temp\myfile.txt)

B. IPEFileUtil.FILEDELETE("C:\Temp\myfile.txt")

C. IPEFileUtil.FILEDELETE(C:\\Temp\\myfile.txt)

D. IPEFileUtil.FILEDELETE("C:\\Temp\\myfile.txt")

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 3

While modeling a Service Task, and configuring it to use TIBCO BusinessWorks, the user needs to ensure that the endpoint name matches the JMS destination that was created in TIBCO iProcess Engine, renaming the System Participant if necessary. Which two options support this? (Choose two.)

A. Use local

B. Use JMS

C. Use BW

D. Use remote

E. Use LiveLink

Answer: A,E

QUESTION NO: 4

When configuring a Database Service Task, what is the only valid option for the TIBCO iProcess Engine for the Operation?

A. Alter

B. Select

C. Delete

D. Update

E. Stored Procedure

Answer: E

QUESTION NO: 5

You want to prioritize work items in a queue so that users process high-priority work items first. These items should appear at the top of the list. How is this accomplished?

A. sort the Work Item List by priority ascending

B. sort the Work Item List by priority descending

C. select the Sort By Priority flag in the View menu

D. display the Priority column in the iProcess Workspace (Browser) Client

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 6

What are two valid advanced properties on the process level? (Choose two.)

A. Ignore Case Suspend

B. Enable Case Prediction

C. Priority Value Expression

D. Ignore Blank Addressees

E. Use Deadline For Task Duration

Answer: B,D

QUESTION NO: 8

Which key combination is used to display Content Assist for a function used in a script?

A. Ctrl + C

B. Ctrl + F1

C. Ctrl + Space

D. Ctrl + Alt + Space

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 9

What is the default Button Type property value of the Submit button on a TIBCO Business Studio Form?

A. apply

B. close

C. submit

D. primary

E. peripheral

F. associative

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 10

Which two statements are true about Task scripts? (Choose two.)

A. Task Close Scripts will affect central case data.

B. Task Submit Scripts will affect central case data.

C. Task Close Scripts can be used to remove tasks from queues.

D. Task Open Scripts can be used to pre-load values into data fields prior to a task being opened.

E. Task Open Scripts can be used to manipulate field data prior to the task being delivered to a queue.

Answer: B,D

QUESTION NO: 11

What are four TIBCO Business Studio basic data types? (Choose four.)

A. Float

B. Date

C. Long

D. Boolean

E. Date Time

F. Integer Number

Answer: B,D,E,F

QUESTION NO: 12

A connection to a TIBCO iProcess Engine deployment server has failed with a connection error. What should be verified in order to solve the problem? (Choose two.)

A. The web server is running

B. The destination server is running.

C. The Hawk Agent service is running.

D. The connecting user is a domain administrator.

E. The username and password in the destination properties match an iProcess user credential.

Answer: B,E

QUESTION NO: 14

During the testing of a process through the TIBCO iProcess Workspace (Browser) Client, you notice that some data fields are not being populated in the TIBCO iProcess Engine. Which two steps can be used to debug the form? (Choose two.)

A. ensure that the data fields' types are supported by the iProcess engine

B. use the form preview to test if all the parameters are being posted by the form

C. ensure that the fields are configured to be an output type under the data model of the form

D. ensure that all the form fields are mapped correctly on the field properties page of the form

Answer: B,C

QUESTION NO: 15

Which type of data field corresponds to a dynamically addressed participant?

A. String

B. Boolean

C. Performer

D. Participant

E. Integer Number

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 1

A deployed TIBCO ActiveMatrix BusinessWorks process archive contains mission-critical processes. If the process fails, it should be restarted. If it fails a second time, or more, an operator needs to be notified by email so they can evaluate the situation and take appropriate action. Which three Custom Event components must be configured to meet these requirements? (Choose three.)

A. Send Email

B. Generate Alert

C. Execute Hawk Method

D. Event Type = First Failure

E. Event Type = Second Failure

F. Event Type = Subsequent Failure

Answer: A,D,F

QUESTION NO: 2

Which file is used to specify custom engine properties and enable the display of those properties on the Advanced tab of the deployment configuration in TIBCO Administrator?

A. BW_HOME\bin\bwengine.tra

B. BW_HOME\bin\bwengine.xml

C. BW_HOME\lib\com\tibco\deployment\bwengine.tra

D. BW_HOME\lib\com\tibco\deployment\bwengine.xml

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 3

Domain D1 contains two machines, M1 and M2, and is configured to use TIBCO Rendezvous as the messaging transport.

M1 will host:

• the Primary Domain Server PDS1

• one TIBCO Hawk Agent HA1

• one TIBCO ActiveMatrix BusinessWorks Engine BWE1

M2 will host:

• one TIBCO ActiveMatrix Adapter for Database ADB2

• one TIBCO Hawk Agent HA2

• one TIBCO EMS Server

Which two communication scenarios are valid? (Choose two.)

A. PDS1 communicating with HA1 using EMS

B. BWE1 communicating with ADB2 using EMS

C. HA1 communicating with ADB2 using TIBCO Rendezvous

D. PDS1 communicating with HA2 using TIBCO Rendezvous

Answer: B,D

QUESTION NO: 4

Which three are valid archives in TIBCO ActiveMatrix BusinessWorks? (Choose three.)

A. Hawk Archive

B. Event Archive

C. Adapter Archive

D. Process Archive

E. Enterprise Archive

Answer: A,B,E

QUESTION NO: 5

Your TIBCO ActiveMatrix BusinessWorks process starts by receiving a JMS queue message using the JMS Queue Receiver activity. The message body consists of name/value pairs. Which Message Type should be selected?

A. Map

B. Object

C. Simple

D. XML Text

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 6

You are designing a TIBCO ActiveMatrix BusinessWorks process that makes use of a subprocess to execute an update operation in a legacy system. The legacy operation usually takes two seconds to finish. In total, you are making three updates by using three sequential Call Process activities. It takes at least six seconds for each ActiveMatrix BusinessWorks job to finish. You are looking for improvement strategies to reduce the execution time for your process. You can improve the throughput of this process by calling the subprocess three times in an iteration group with the ____________

A. Group Action set to Transaction

B. Spawn Process option checked

C. Group Action set to Critical Section

D. Call Dynamic Process option checked

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 7

Two machines, M1 and M2, belong to the same domain. A TIBCO ActiveMatrix BusinessWorks engine is deployed on M1, and a TIBCO Adapter is deployed on M2. The TIBCO Administrator server is hosted on M1. What is the most likely reason for the TIBCO Adapter status being "Unknown" and the ActiveMatrix BusinessWorks engine status being "OK" in the TIBCO Administrator console?

A. The TIBCO Adapter is down.

B. On M2, the TIBCO Hawk Agent is down.

C. On M1, the TIBCO Hawk Agent is down.

D. The TIBCO Administrator server is down.

E. The domain's messaging transport is down.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 8

In a mapping, you want to copy a node from the input tree without any of the children this node might have. Which statement should you use to accomplish this?

A. Copy

B. Copy of

C. Copy All Except

D. Copy Contents of

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 9

Which two resources must be configured to invoke an external Web service using Service Palette activities? (Choose two.)

A. Get Context

B. Invoke Partner

C. SOAP Request Reply

D. Partner Link Configuration

Answer: B,D

QUESTION NO: 10

Your company is about to implement a new integration project with a Human Resources application that deals with sensitive information. All interactions with this information must be secured. Your security team has determined that Transport Layer Security (TLS) will meet the privacy requirements for securing the JMS transport between integration endpoints. Which two components are required to implement TLS within your TIBCO ActiveMatrix BusinessWorks project? (Choose two.)

A. Trusted Certificates Folder

B. JNDI-based JMS connection

C. identity resource with Type = Identity File

D. identity resource with Type = Username/Password

Answer: A,C

QUESTION NO: 11

Which two input parameters are mandatory for the BuildEAR Utility? (Choose two.)

A. the output directory for the EAR file

B. the location of the Global Variables file

C. the location of the TIBCO Designer project

D. the project path of the Enterprise Archive Resource

Answer: C,D

QUESTION NO: 12

Your company is supporting an integration project between two home-grown database applications running on Microsoft and Oracle databases. These applications support 24/7 operations. For the integration project, you are using TIBCO ActiveMatrix BusinessWorks and the TIBCO ActiveMatrix ActiveDatabase Adapter. The project includes: ?Several ActiveMatrix BusinessWorks processes contained in two process archives (PAR1 and PAR2) ?One ActiveMatrix ActiveDatabase Adapter for each respective database, each contained in a separate adapter archive (AARM and AARO) Given two servers (A and B), what is the correct domain architecture?

A. Server A: primary TIBCO Administrator, secondary PAR1, secondary AARM, Master

AARO, Master PAR2

Server B: secondary PAR1, Master AARM, secondary AARO, secondary PAR2, secondary

TIBCO Administrator

B. Server A: primary TIBCO Administrator, secondary PAR1, secondary AARM, Master

AARO, Master PAR2

Server B: Master PAR1, Master AARM, secondary AARM, secondary PAR2, secondary TIBCO Administrator

C. Server A: primary TIBCO Administrator, secondary PAR1, secondary AARM, Master

AARO, Master PAR2

Server B: Master PAR1, Master AARM, secondary AARO, secondary PAR2, primary TIBCO Administrator

D. Server A: primary TIBCO Administrator, secondary PAR1, secondary AARM, Master

AARO, Master PAR2

Server B: Master PAR1, Master AARM, secondary AARO, secondary PAR2, secondary TIBCO Administrator

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 13

You want a process definition that will call one of three available subprocesses (SP1, SP2, and SP3), depending on the data being received by its starter. Which three actions must be taken to achieve this? (Choose three.)

A. define a template and use it to implement SP1, SP2, and SP3

B. have SP1, SP2, and SP3 use the same input, output, and error schemas

C. set one of the three subprocesses as the process name in the Call Process activity

D. use a Call Dynamic Process activity and select SP1, SP2, and SP3 as the alternatives

E. set an XPATH expression in the Call Process activity to determine at run-time the name of the subprocess to call

Answer: B,C,E

QUESTION NO: 14

Which two statements are true about importing an XSD file using the Schema Importer Tool from the TIBCO Designer menu? (Choose two.)

A. The tool cannot resolve references to other resources within the imported resources.

B. The tool stores imported resources in a temporary holding area called Location resources.

C. The tool automatically imports any referenced resources along with the specified resource.

D. The tool does not automatically import any referenced resources along with the specified resource.

Answer: A,D

QUESTION NO: 15

Which three statements are true about debugging a process using the TIBCO Designer Tester Utility? (Choose three.)

A. Step Into and Step Out of a subprocess can be used.

B. The process definition can be changed while debugging.

C. The current process instance can be paused during testing.

D. Input data can be supplied via an xml file to the process starter.

E. Breakpoint can be set in the process definition before the Start activity.

Answer: A,C,D

QUESTION NO: 16

Which two statements are true about enabling the Hawk Microagent for a TIBCO ActiveMatrix

BusinessWorks process engine in its respective property file? (Choose two.)

A. You must always change the Hawk.Service, Hawk.Network, and Hawk.Daemon properties.

B. Only instrumentation that does not require memory and processor overhead can be enabled.

C. You can enable instrumentation for a specific process definition with the Instrumentation.processName property.

D. You change the Hawk.Service, Hawk.Network, and Hawk.Daemon properties only if these parameters are non-default.

Answer: C,D

QUESTION NO: 17

Your corporate SOA infrastructure must invoke several notification services. You are able to use the Receive Partner Notification activity of the Service Palette to accomplish this. What is the correct messaging configuration to use for these services?

A. SOAP over JMS

B. SOAP over HTTP

C. JMS Topic Publisher

D. Rendezvous Publisher

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 1

What are two functions of a TIBCO ActiveMatrix BusinessWorks Critical Section Group? (Choose two.)

A. controls concurrent accesses to shared resources

B. escalates the execution priority of the grouped activities

C. isolates resource-intensive activities for performance tuning

D. synchronizes process instances so that only one executes the grouped activities at a time

Answer: A,D

QUESTION NO: 2

As a TIBCO recommended best practice, what is the preferred method for indicating backwards- compatible changes to a service?

A. update the point release number in the WSDL filename

B. update the major release number in the WSDL filename

C. update the point release number in the WSDL namespace name

D. update the major release number in the WSDL namespace name

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 3

Which of the following statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. Fine-grained services are best suited for user interactions

B. Coarse-grained services are best suited for system-to-system interactions

C. Fine-grained services are suitable for both user and system-to-system interactions

D. Coarse-grained services are suitable for both user and system-to-system interactions

Answer: A,B

QUESTION NO: 4

Which two of the following should be considered when specifying a service? (Choose two.)

A. The rate at which the service will be invoked

B. The platform on which the service will be deployed

C. The information passed as parameters to the service

D. The platform from which the service will be accessed

Answer: B,D

QUESTION NO: 5

What is the primary purpose of a service specification?

A. to ensure that the service appropriately utilizes other services

B. to ensure that the resulting service is suitable for its intended uses

C. to ensure that the design of the service follows established best practices

D. to ensure that the service can be built within the given cost and schedule guidelines

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 6

Which of the following is the most appropriate structure for naming service operations?

A. <IndustryName>.<ServiceName>.<OperationName>

B. <CompanyName>.<LineOfBusiness>.<FunctionalArea>.<OperatonName>

C. <CompanyName>.<DivisionName>.<ApplicationName>.<OperationName>

D.<IndustryName>.<CompanyName>.<LineOfBusiness>.<ApplicationName>.<OperationName>

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 7

What are three characteristics of service virtualization? (Choose three.)

A. The service provider can be one of several providers.

B. The application decides which service implementation to use.

C. It decouples the service transport from its business implementation.

D. It allows the service to be load balanced and fault tolerant in a transparent manner to service consumers.

Answer: A,C,D

QUESTION NO: 8

Service X is available 80% of the time, and Service Y is available 90% of the time. Service Z calls Services X and Y. What is the highest expected availability for Service Z?

A. 72%

B. 80%

C. 8%

D. 90%

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 9

When creating a TIBCO ActiveMatrix environment to support the deployment of SOA solutions by multiple business units, which two components are optional? (Choose two.)

A. a database

B. TIBCO ActiveMatrix Policy Manager

C. TIBCO Enterprise Message Service

D. TIBCO ActiveMatrix Lifecycle Governance Framework

Answer: B,D

QUESTION NO: 10

A global trading firm is kick-starting its SOA initiative with a pilot project implementing an enterprise trading platform. The platform requires integrating multiple frontend .NET applications at its New York business unit (with its own data center) with multiple Java-based backend applications developed/managed by its Hong Kong business unit (with its own data center). The SOA Competency Center team is working with the Enterprise Architecture team to decide how to deploy the TIBCO ActiveMatrix Service Grid to best enable the implementation. What would be a recommended approach to setting up ActiveMatrix Service Grid for the firm?

A. The information provided is insufficient to determine a solution.

B. set up one ActiveMatrix cluster at each site, and use standard SOAP/HTTPS or SOAP/JMS to integrate the two sites

C. since most clients are based in the U.S., use the TIBCO ActiveMatrix cluster at the U.S. site to set up a single worldwide ActiveMatrix Service

Grid, with environments spanning the U.S. and Hong Kong sites

D. since most backend systems are in Hong Kong, use the TIBCO ActiveMatrix cluster at the Hong Kong site to set up a single worldwide

ActiveMatrix Service Grid, with environments spanning the U.S. and Hong Kong sites

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 11

What are two characteristics of a service? (Choose two.)

A. A service provides a set of operations that can be used in multiple contexts.

B. Services use WSIL, an XML format for defining the IP address and port of a service.

C. Services use WSDL, an XSD format for describing network services as a set of endpoints.

D. The operation interfaces of a service isolate the consumer from the implementation details of the service provider.

Answer: A,D

QUESTION NO: 12

When is it appropriate to use a compensating transaction?

A. when one of the participants is incapable of performing a compensating transaction and that participant is last in the transaction

B. when one of the participants is incapable of performing a compensating transaction and that participant is first in the transaction

C. when multiple participants are each incapable of performing a compensating transaction and each participant is not separated by any stateless activities

D. when multiple participants are each incapable of performing a compensating transaction and each participant is separated by at least one stateless activity

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 13

A bank built a DebitAccount Service and a CreditAccount Service, both exposed as standard Web Services (SOAP/HTTPS) in the enterprise. The bank now wants to build a FundTransfer Service that

debits an input amount from one account and credits it to another account. The FundTransfer Service must be able to throw and handle all errors as SOAP Faults. Which two TIBCO ActiveMatrix products are capable of enabling the implementation of this FundTransfer Service? (Choose two.)

A. TIBCO ActiveMatrix Service Grid

B. TIBCO ActiveMatrix Policy Manager

C. TIBCO ActiveMatrix BusinessWorks

D. TIBCO ActiveMatrix Service Performance Manager

Answer: A,C

QUESTION NO: 14

Which three artifact types are default options when requesting service consumption in the TIBCO ActiveMatrix Lifecycle Governance Framework? (Choose three.)

A. the operations to be consumed

B. the application consuming the service

C. the organizational unit of the provider of the service

D. the organizational unit of the consumer of the service Answer: A,B,D

QUESTION NO: 15

In modeling Common Business Objects and Data Models, a flexible and extensible XML Schema representation is a must. What are three recommended approaches in XML Schema design to enable a flexible SOA implementation? (Choose three.)

A. use choices

B. use type extensions

C. use substitution groups

D. use one global namespace

Answer: A,B,C

QUESTION NO: 1

Which two statements are true about JMS local transactions? (Choose two.)

A. Closing a transacted session commits its transaction.

B. Session interface provides commit and rollback methods.

C. Consumed messages are acknowledged upon session.commit.

D. Consumed messages are recovered and redelivered upon session.commit.

Answer: B,C

QUESTION NO: 2

What action is taken when the command purge all queues foo.* is sent on the TIBCO EMS Administrator

Tool?

A. All messages in all queues are deleted.

B. All messages present in the queue called foo.* are deleted.

C. All user-created queues whose names match the pattern foo.* are deleted.

D. All messages present in all the queues whose names matched the pattern foo.* are deleted.

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 3

A TIBCO EMS Server has the following configuration in the stores.conf and queues.conf files:

stores.conf

[filestore-1] type=file file=filestore1.db mode=async

[filestore-2] type=file file=filestore2.db mode=sync queues.conf > store=filestore-1 queue1 store=filestore-2 Message swapping is enabled.

What happens when NON_PERSISTENT messages are published on queue1?

A. All the published messages are stored in filestore-2.

B. All the published messages are stored in filestore-1.

C. Messages are moved to filestore-1 when the server reaches certain memory limits.

D. Messages are moved to filestore-2 when the server reaches certain memory limits.

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 5

What are two allowed connection factory types with TIBCO EMS?

A. both

B. xaboth

C. generic

D. xageneric

Answer: C,D

QUESTION NO: 6

Which two sets of commands successfully create a queue connection factory called fact with the URL

pointing to localhost:7222 on the TIBCO EMS Server? (Choose two.)

A. create factory fact queue

addprop factory fact url=tcp://7222

setprop factory fact url

B. create factory fact queue url=tcp://7222

C. create factory queue fact

setprop factory fact url=tcp://localhost7222

D. create factory fact queue

addprop factory fact url=tcp://localhost:7222

E. create factory fact queue

addprop factory fact url=tcp://localhost:7222

setprop factory fact url

Answer: B,D

QUESTION NO: 7

Which two statements are true about access control and bridges? (Choose two.)

A. A bridge automatically has permission to send to its target destination(s).

B. Message producers must have access to a destination to send messages to that destination.

C. ACLs must be added to the bridges.conf file if the access control is enabled for any bridged destination.

D. A message producer sending messages to a bridged destination must also have access to the target destination(s) defined on the bridge.

Answer: A,B

QUESTION NO: 8

Given the configuration in the acl.conf file: TOPIC=topic.sample1 USER=Bob PERM=subscribe TOPIC=topic.* Group=engineering PERM=publish,subscribe Which statement is true if Bob is a member of the engineering group?

A. Bob can only subscribe to topic.sample1.

B. Bob can publish and subscribe to only topic.sample1.

C. Bob can publish and subscribe to both topic.sample1 and topic.sample2.

D. Bob can publish to only topic.sample2 but can subscribe to both topic.sample1 and topic.sample2.

E. Bob can publish to only topic.sample1 but can subscribe to both topic.sample1 and topic.sample2. Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 9

Server R defines a global queue named Q1. R is also the owner of Q1. Servers P and S define routed queues Q1@R. The servers P, R, and S are connected by routes. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. When a message is sent from server P to queue Q1, P forwards the message to the home queue on server R.

B. Messages are available to local and remote consumers even before the message reaches the home queue.

C. If Server P or the route connection from P to R fails, a consumer application of server P will not be able to receive messages from Q1 until the

servers resume communication.

D. When a message is sent from server S to Q1 and the route is not connected, the message is not delivered, and the client application receives

the exception DESTINATION_NOT_AVAILABLE.

Answer: A,C

QUESTION NO: 10

Given the following set of values: ?sess is a Session object ?dest is a Destination object ?nolocal is a boolean variable What is the correct way to create a message consumer with a selector?

A. String selector = " JMSCorrelationID=3";

MessageConsumer consumer = sess.createConsumer(dest,selector,nolocal);

B. String selector = " JMSCorrelationID='3'";

MessageConsumer consumer = sess.createConsumer(dest,selector,nolocal);

C. String selector = " JMSCorrelationID='3'";

MessageConsumer consumer = sess.createConsumer(dest, nolocal, selector);

D. String selector = " 'JMSCorrelationID'='3'";

MessageConsumer consumer = sess.createConsumer(dest, selector, nolocal);

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 11

What are two valid TIBCO EMS Administrator Tool commands? (Choose two.)

A. set server ft=enabled

B. set server routing=enabled

C. set server authorization=enabled

D. set server detailed_statistics=NONE

Answer: C,D

QUESTION NO: 12

The mismatched bandwidth between a message producer and consumer can be solved by setting which property in the TIBCO EMS configuration?

A. multicast

B. flow_control

C. msg_swapping

D. max_msg_memory

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 13

Which two statements are true about a fault-tolerant configuration of TIBCO EMS where the primary server heartbeat has stopped? (Choose two.)

A. The backup server waits for its activation interval.

B. The backup server tries to retrieve the information from shared storage.

C. The backup server assumes control if the ft_weight parameter is equal to 1.

D. If ft_activation = ft_heartbeat x 5, the backup server becomes the primary server.

E. The server_timeout_server_connection parameter is used by the backup server before attempting a switchover.

Answer: A,B

QUESTION NO: 14

A TIBCO EMS Server (mystore) has the following configuration in the stores.conf and queues.conf files: stores.conf [mystore] type=file file=mystore.db mode=sync [mystore] type=dbstore dbstore_driver_url=jdbc:sqlserver://sqlsrv_1:3415;databaseName=sysmeta dbstore_driver_username=admin dbstore_driver_password=admin123 queues.conf queue1 store=mystore Which statement is true when PERSISTENT messages are published to queue1?

A. The server decides at runtime which store to use.

B. The server picks the mystore of file type because it was configured first.

C. The server fails to start because there are two stores configured with the same name.

D. The server picks the mystore of database type because that overrides the previously configured filestore.

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 15

Which two mappings of JMS header fields to TIBCO Rendezvous data types are correct? (Choose two.)

A. JMSType to TIBRVMSG_U8

B. JMSTimestamp to TIBRVMSG_U64

C. JMSDeliveryMode to TIBRVMSG_U8

D. JMSRedelivered to TIBRVMSG_STRING

Answer: A,D

QUESTION NO: 1

Which TIBCO product must be installed before ActiveMatrix BusinessWorks?

A. TIBCO EMS

B. TIBCO ActiveMatrix Adapter for Database

C. TIBCO Runtime Agent

D. TIBCO FTL

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 2

A TIBCO Administrator domain is needed to meet the following requirements: A BusinessWorks process must be deployed that receives input from an EMS topic and publishes data to an EMS queue. The topic and queue names must contain a token used for migrating between testing and production environments. The system administrator must be able to purge the topic and queue from within the TIBCO Administrator. Which two actions should be taken to meet these requirements? (Choose two.)

A. use the Designer to change the BusinessWorks domain when migrating between environmentsbr/>

B. create queues and topics as failsafe

C. use the Domain Utility to add the EMS server to the domain

D. configure the topic and queue as global

E. use a BusinessWorks global variable for migrating between environments

Answer: C,E

QUESTION NO: 3

What are two requirements for deleting a domain? (Choose two.)

A. stop any LDAP server used by the domain

B. undeploy all deployed applications

C. delete all administrators associated with the domain

D. use TIBCO Domain Utility to delete all secondary servers

Answer: B,D

QUESTION NO: 4

Which two actions must be taken when the transport parameters for a TIBCO Administrator domain are changed? (Choose two.)

A. restart Domain Hawk Agents on each machine in the domain

B. rebuild the EAR file with the new transport parameters

C. redeploy all applications deployed in the domain

D. restart the Administrator Server and any secondary servers

Answer: A,D

QUESTION NO: 5

In which two filesystem locations is domain information stored? (Choose two.)

A. $TIBCO_HOME\repository

B. $TIBCO_HOME\administrator\domain

C. $TIBCO_HOME\tra\domain

D. $TIBCO_HOME\domain

Answer: B,C

QUESTION NO: 6

What should you use to add a third-party database driver to TIBCO Runtime Agent?

A. TIBCO Configuration Tool

B. traDBConfig

C. Domain Utility

D. TIBCO Administrator GUI

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 7

What is the default HTTP server implementation in ActiveMatrix BusinessWorks?

A. JBOSS

B. IIS

C. TOMCAT

D. Pramati

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 8

Which two actions should be performed if the JVM crashes when the installer starts? (Choose two.)

A. verify network access to sun.java.com

B. verify that the javahome directory contains bin/java.exe or bin/java

C. run the installer with parameter -update JVM

D. run the installer using another JVM version

Answer: B,D

QUESTION NO: 9

Which two TIBCO products must be installed to manage ActiveMatrix BusinessWorks resources? (Choose two.)

A. TIBCO Runtime Agent

B. TIBCO Repository Adapter

C. TIBCO Administrator

D. TIBCO Enterprise Message Service

Answer: A,C

QUESTION NO: 10

Which two files represent the installation registry? (Choose two.)

A. install.xmi

B. TIBCOInstallationHistory.xml<systemName>

C. vpd.properties.tibco.<systemName>

D. machine.xmi

E. vpd.properties

F. TIBCOInstallationProperties.xml

Answer: C,E

QUESTION NO: 11

Which three options are available when starting TIBCO Designer? (Choose three.)

A. Test Current Project

B. New Empty Project

C. Deploy Project

D. Delete Project

E. New Project From Template

Answer: B,D,E

QUESTION NO: 12

In TIBCO Designer, which menu is used to add an activity to an ActiveMatrix BusinessWorks process?

A. Edit menu

B. Tools menu

C. Resources menu

D. Project menu

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 13

In which format does TIBCO Designer store project trusted certificates?

A. PKCS12

B. PKCS7

C. KeyStore

D. PEM

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 14

With which two sources can TIBCO Designer create web services? (Choose two.)

A. Process Definition

B. HTTP Receiver

C. JMS Queue Subscriber

D. WSDL

E. SOAP RetrieveResource

Answer: A,D

QUESTION NO: 15

What does the Load Full Project option in TIBCO Designer do?

A. loads and validates the entire project in memory

B. loads only the referenced parts of the project in memory

C. loads the entire project in memory without validation

D. loads only the referenced parts of the project in memory

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 16

What can be modified from the TIBCO Designer Startup Panel Administration tab?

A. domain membership

B. user directory

C. deployment target machine

D. transition line mode

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 19

Which three activities can have transitions out to other activities? (Choose three.)

A. Rethrow

B. Catch

C. Generate Error

D. Set Shared Variable

E. Inspector

Answer: B,D,E

QUESTION NO: 20

A JMS Local Transaction Group has: two JMS Queue Sender activities configured with a JMS Shared Connection1 one JMS Topic Publisher activities configured with JMS Shared Connection2 one Wait For JMS Queue Message activity How many transactions will be created for a single job for this transaction group?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 21

The Accumulate Output feature for loops accumulates the output for which activities?

A. the last executed activity in the loop

B. any map activity in the loop

C. a selected activity in the loop

D. all activities in the loop

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 26

Which two encryption types are supported by Policy Palette activities? (Choose two.)

A. 3DES

B. MD5

C. SHA1

D. X.509

E. AES-256

Answer: A,E

QUESTION NO: 27

Which activity is used to expose multiple operations for a SOAP service in ActiveMatrix BusinessWorks?

A. SOAP Event Source

B. Service Resource

C. SOAP HTTP Receiver

D. SOAP Request Reply

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 28

What is required before exposing a process as a web service?

A. create an abstract WSDL

B. use a SOAP Event Sources activity

C. create an HTTP transport shared resource

D. use an HTTP Receiver activity

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 29

Which three resources can be retrieved using the Retrieve Resources activity? (Choose three.)

A. XSD

B. WSDL

C. MTOM

D. WSIL

E. MIME

Answer: A,B,D

QUESTION NO: 30

Which two statements are true about using a Service Resource for implementing web services? (Choose two.)

A. A Service Resource can only be used for a single operation or endpoint.

B. A Service Resource is added automatically to the PAR.

C. A Service Resource must be added manually to the PAR.

D. A Service Resource can be used for multiple operations or endpoints.

Answer: C,D

QUESTION NO: 32

You are asked to implement a solution that implements different integration logic, based on an object-type. For example, depending on the object type, different external systems and interfaces must be called. The system currently has more than 50 object types. What is the appropriate design for this problem?

A. a Java activity and implement the solution by means of object-oriented principles

B. the Bind Object-type field in the Dispatch activity

C. a tree-like cascading set of Null activities to implement a nested if-condition

D. the Process Dynamic Override in the Call Process activity

Answer: D