TEQ - CPL ATG_FW - 2011

8/18/2019 TEQ - CPL ATG_FW - 2011

1/25

REVISION QUESTIONS: CPL ATG PAGE 1573-3

ATG REVISION QUESTIONS

1. The principles on which the production of lift are based onarea. Boyle's Lawb. Bernoulli's Theoremc. Reynolds Number

2. When considering aerodynamic forces, the effect of size isrelated toa. Joule's Lawb. Bernoulli's Theorem

c. Reynolds Number

3. Newton's first Law of Motion, generally termed the Law ofInertia statesa. to every action there is an equal and opposite reactionb. force is proportional to the product of mass and

accelerationc. every body persists in a state of rest, or of motion in a

straight line, unless acted upon by an externalunbalanced force.

4. The angle between the chord line of the wing and thelongitudinal axis of the aeroplane is known as the angle ofa. incidenceb. dihedralc. attack

5. In order to maintain altitude while decreasing airspeed:

a. increase angle of attack to compensate for decreasinglift,

b. increase angle of attack to produce more lift than drag,c. decrease angle of attack to compensate for increasing

drag.

6. If the angle of attack and other factors remain constant andthe airspeed is doubled, the lift produced at a higher speedwill be:a. twice than that at a lower speed,b. three times more than that at the lower speed,c. four times more than that at the lower speed

7. A wing designed to produce lift resulting from relatively :a. high air pressure below and above the wing surface,b. low pressure below and high pressure above the wing

surface,c. high pressure below and low pressure above the wing

surface.

8. The changes in aircraft control which must be made tomaintain altitude while airspeed is decreasing are toa. increase angle of attack to produce more lift than

weightb. maintain a constant angle of attack until the desired

airspeed is reached, then increase angle of attackc. to increase angle of attack to compensate for

decreasing lift

9. The point of an aerofoil through which lift acts is thea. centre of pressureb. centre of gravityc. centre of rotation

10. Lift on a wing is most properly defined as the:

a. differential pressure acting perpendicular to the chordof the wing,

b. force produced perpendicular to the relative flow,c. reduced pressure resulting from a smooth flow of air

over a curved surface.

11. On a wing, the lift force acts perpendicular to and the dragforce acts parallel to the:a. chordline,b. longitudinal axis,c. flight path

12. During flight at zero angle of attack, the pressure along theupper surface of the wing would be:a. less than atmospheric pressure,b. equal to atmospheric pressure,c. greater than atmospheric pressure.

13. The angle of attack of a wing directly controls the:a. amount of airflow above and below the wing,b. point at which the CG is located,c. distribution of high and low pressure acting on the wing.

14. In the lift formula, V² is:a. IASb. EASc. TAS

15. In the lift formula, ½ρV² is:a. EASb. TASc. Static energy

16. One of the main functions of flaps during the approach andlanding is to:a. permit a touchdown at a higher indicated airspeed;b. increase the angle of descent without increasing

airspeed;c. decrease lift, thus enabling a steeper than normal

approach to be made.

17. It is true to say concerning the use of flaps during approachand landing thata. flaps decrease lift which increases the stall speed,b. flaps provide an increase in lift,c. a steeper than normal approach is necessary because

of increase in stall speed.

18. It is true to say regarding the use of flaps during level turnsthat:a. using a constant flap setting and varying bank has no

effect on stall speed,b. the addition of flaps increases the stall speed,c. the addition of flaps decreases the stall speed.

19. The maximum allowable airspeed with flaps extended islower than cruising speed because:a. the additional lift and drag created would overload the

wing structure at higher speeds,b. the flaps will retract automatically at higher speeds,c. too much drag is induced.

20. When gliding for range, the speed at which the glide isconducted is:a. Minimum L/D ratio.b. Minimum drag to minimum lift ratio.c. Maximum L/D ratio.

21. When gliding into a head wind the best glide angle will beachieved ata. an IAS which produces the best lift/drag ratiob. an IAS which is higher than that for best lift/drag ratioc. an IAS which is lower than that for best lift/drag ratio,

but which is higher than that required for bestendurance

22. If airspeed doubles while the angle of attack remains thesame, the drag will:a. remain the same,b. double,c. be four times greater.

23. As airspeed increases in level flight, total drag of an aircraftbecomes greater than the total drag produced at themaximum L/D speed because of the:a. increase in induced dragb. increase in profile dragc. decrease in profile drag

8/18/2019 TEQ - CPL ATG_FW - 2011

2/25


24. Changing the angle of attack of a wing, enables control ofthe:a. lift, gross weight and drag,b. lift airspeed and drag,c. airspeed, weight and drag.

25. As airspeed decreases in level flight, total drag of the aircraftbecomes greater than the total drag produced at themaximum L/D speed because of thea. increase in induced drag,b. increase in parasite drag,c. decrease in induced drag.

26. Regarding the angle of attack, it is true to say that:a. a decrease in angle of attack will increase impact

pressure below the wing and decrease drag,b. an increase in angle of attack will decrease impact

pressure below the wing and decrease drag,c. an increase in angle of attack will increase impact

pressure below the wing and increase drag,

27. An aircraft at 100 mph produces 1,000 lb. of drag. If angleof attack remains the same but airspeed is doubled, totaldrag would increase to:a. 2 000 lbs.,b. 3 000 lbs.,c. 4 000 lbs.

28. In comparison with a low aspect ratio wing, a high aspect

ratio wing in a constant airflow velocity will have:a. decreased drag, especially at high angles of attack,b. increased drag, especially at high angles of attack,c. increased drag, especially at low angles of attack.

29. In comparison with a high aspect ratio wing, a low aspectratio wing in a constant airflow velocity will have,a. decreased drag, especially at low angles of attack.b. decreased drag, especially at high angles of attack,c. increased drag, especially at high angles of attack.

30. If an aircraft is stable, this means that:a. it is in a state of balance;b. if it is displaced it will return to its original position

without any correction by the pilot;c. if it is displaced it must be returned to its original

position by the pilot operating the controls.

31. For an aircraft which is neutrally stable in roll, following awing drop:a. the wing would tend to return to the level position;b. the wing would continue to drop;c. the wing would remain in its displaced position.

32. After a disturbance in pitch an aircraft oscillates in pitch withincreasing amplitude. It is:a. statically and dynamically unstable;b. statically stable but dynamically unstable;c. statically unstable but dynamically stable.

33. Longitudinal stability is given by:a. the fin;b. the wing dihedral;c. the horizontal tailplane.

34. An aircraft is constructed with dihedral to provide:a. lateral stability about the longitudinal axis;b. longitudinal stability about the lateral axis;c. lateral stability about the normal axis.

35. Lateral stability is given by:a. the ailerons;b. the wing dihedral;c. the horizontal tailplane.

36. Stability about the lateral axis is given by:a. the elevatorsb. wing dihedral;c. the horizontal tailplane;d. the ailerons.

37. Stability about the longitudinal axis is given by:a. elevators;b. ailerons;c. wing dihedral

38. Moving the centre of gravity aft will:a. reduce longitudinal stability;b. increase longitudinal stability;c. have no effect on longitudinal stability.

39. If the aircraft has a nose-up pitch displacement, the effectiveangle of attack of the tailplane:a. remains the same;b. changes and causes the tailplane to apply a restoring

moment;c. will not change if the pitch up was due to elevator

selection.

40. The longitudinal static stability of an aircraft:a. is reduced by the effects of wing downwash;b. is increased by the effects of wing downwash;c. is not affected by wing downwash.

41. To ensure longitudinal stability in flight, the position of the C

of G:a. must always coincide with the C of P;b. must be forward of the Neutral Point;c. must be aft of the Neutral Point.

42. Wing dihedral gives a stabilising rolling moment by causingan increase in lift:a. on the down-going wing when the aircraft rolls;b. on the lower wing when the aircraft sideslips;c. on the lower wing whenever the aircraft is in a banked

altitude.

43. A high wing configuration gives:a. more lateral stability than a low wing;b. less lateral stability than a low wing;c. the same lateral stability as a low wing.

44. After a disturbance in pitch an aircraft oscillates for a long

time with only small reductions of amplitude on eachoscillation. It would be said to have:a. low damping;b. high damping;c. negative damping.

45. The presence of the fuselage in an aircraft with a high wingduring a sideslip:a. increases the lift on the lower wing and decreases the

lift on the upper wing thus creating a stabilisingmoment;

b. increases the lift on both wings thus creating astabilising moment;

c. decreases the lift on the lower wing and, increases thelift on the upper wing thus creating a destabilisingmoment.

46. Sweepback of the wings will:a. increase lateral stability;b. decrease lateral stability;c. not affect the lateral stability.

47. If an aircraft is yawed to a large angle of sideslip:a. directional stability will be lost;b. if the sideslip angle is too large the fin may stall and

directional stability will be decreased;c. the rudder will always have to be used to return the

aircraft to its original position.

8/18/2019 TEQ - CPL ATG_FW - 2011

3/25


48. The fin gives:a. directional stability about the longitudinal axisb. directional stability about the normal axis;c. longitudinal stability about the lateral axis.

49. Increasing the size of the fin:a. reduces lateral stability;b. increases longitudinal stability and directional control;c. increases the size of the keel surface giving increased

directional stability.

50. Pendulum stability is a property possessed by:a. aircraft with swept back wings;b. aircraft with high wing configuration;c. aircraft with low wing configuration.

51. An aircraft with a ̀ Dutch roll' instability will:a. go into a spiral dive following a lateral disturbance;b. experience simultaneous oscillations in roll and yaw;c. experience oscillations in pitch.

52. Dutch roll may be prevented by:a. having the wings swept back;b. reducing the size of the fin;c. fitting yaw dampers.

53. An aircraft is yawed to starboard and the rudder is thencentralized. If it then yaws to port it is:a. directionally neutrally stable;b. directionally statically stable;

c. directionally dynamically stable.

54. Increasing the size of the fin will:a. increase lateral stabilityb. decrease lateral stabilityc. not affect lateral stability.

55. After a disturbance in pitch an aircraft oscillates withincreasing amplitude. It is:a. dynamically neutralb. dynamically stable but statically unstablec. dynamically unstable longitudinally.

56. To ensure longitudinal stability in flight, the position of the Cof G:a. should not be forward of the neutral pointb. should not be aft of the neutral pointc. should coincide with the neutral point.

57. Moving the centre of gravity aft will:a. increase longitudinal stabilityb. reduce longitudinal stabilityc. have no effect on longitudinal stability.

58. After a disturbance in pitch, an aircraft continues to oscillateat a constant amplitude. It is:a. longitudinally neutrally stableb. laterally unstablec. longitudinally unstable.

59. Dutch roll is:a. A type of slow rollb. primarily a pitching instabilityc. a combined rolling and yawing motion.

60. When the C of G is close to the forward limit:a. very small forces are required on the control column toproduce pitch

b. longitudinal stability is reducedc. larger stick forces are required to pitch because the

aircraft is very stable.

61. Stability of an aircraft about its lateral axis is normallyprovided by the:a. tailplaneb. aileronsc. elevators.

62. The aircraft nose initially tends to return to the originalposition after the elevator is pressed forward and released,the aircraft displays:a. negative stability,b. positive static stabilityc. negative dynamic stability.

63. Rotation about the lateral axis is known as:a. pitching and is controlled with the elevator,b. rolling and is controlled with the ailerons,c. yawing and is controlled with the ailerons.

64. If an aircraft is loaded to the rear of the CG range, it will tendto be:a. unstable about the lateral axis,b. sluggish in aileron control,c. unstable about the longitudinal axis.

65. A high wing aircraft has the thrust line above the drag line.When the landing gear is lowered, the force required on thetailplane to maintain straight and level flight is:a. Reduced force.b. No force.c. Increased force.

66. The angle of climb is proportional to:a. the amount by which the lift exceeds the weightb. the amount by which the thrust exceeds the dragc. the angle of attack of the wing.

67. As altitude increases the excess thrust at a given IAS:a. decreases because drag increases and thrust

decreasesb. increases because drag decreases and thrust is

constantc. decreases because thrust decreases and drag is

constant.

68. As altitude increases the excess power available:a. decreases because the power available decreases and

power required is constantb. increases because the power required decreases and

power available is constantc. decreases because the power available decreases and

power required increases.

69. To cover the greatest distance when gliding, the glidingspeed must be:

a. near to the stalling speedb. as high as possible within VNE limitsc. the one that gives the highest L/D ratio.

70. If weight is increased the maximum gliding range of anaircraft:a. decreasesb. increasesc. remains the same.

71. As bank angle is increased in a level turn at a constant IAS,the load factor will:a. remain the sameb. increasec. decrease.

72. In a level turn at a constant IAS:

a. the drag will be greater than in level flight because ofthe increased induced dragb. the drag will be the same as in level flight because the

IAS is the samec. the drag will be less than in level flight because the lift

is less.

73. For a level turn at a constant IAS if the radius of turn isdecreased the bank angle and load factor will:a. increaseb. decreasec. remain the same.

8/18/2019 TEQ - CPL ATG_FW - 2011

4/25


74. A stall warning must be set to operate:a. at a speed just below stalling speedb. at a speed above stalling speedc. at the stalling speed.

75. In a steady turn an aircraft experiences 3g, the stalling speedwill be:a. above the normal stalling speedb. below the normal stalling speedc. the same as the normal stalling speed.

76. At altitudes above sea level the IAS stalling speed will be:a. the same as at sea levelb. less than at sea levelc. greater than at sea level

77. An aircraft wing stalls at:a. a constant true airspeedb. a constant angle of attackc. a constant indicated airspeed

78. A typical stalling angle of attack is:a. 30b. 15c. 5

79. With engine power on, an aircraft will stall:a. at the same speed as with power offb. at a lower speed than with power offc. at a higher speed than with power off

80. If the aircraft weight changes by 6% the stalling speed willchange by approximately:a. 3%b. 12%c. 6%

81. A fixed spoiler on the leading edge of the wing at the rootwill:a. prevent a root stallb. induce a root stallc. give a shorter landing run.

82. At angles of attack above the stalling angle:a. the lift decreases and the drag decreasesb. the lift decreases and the drag increasesc. the lift increases and the drag increases.

83. A leading edge slat is a device for:a. increasing the stalling angle of the wingb. decreasing the drag of the wingc. decreasing the stalling angle of the wing.

84. Wing tip staIling may be prevented:a. wash out on the wingb. wash in on the wingc. giving the tip a sharp leading edge.

85. Increasing aircraft weight will:a. decrease the stalling speedb. not effect the stalling speedc. increase the stalling speed.

86. A stick shaker is:a. a high Mach number warning device

b. an artificial stability devicec. a device to vibrate the control column to give a stallwarning.

87. The stalling speed is determined by:a. the maximum value of CLb. the CL for zero liftc. the CL for maximum L/D ratio.

88. A stick pusher is a device for:a. assisting the pilot to move the controls against high air

loadsb. preventing the aircraft from getting into a stallc. automatically compensating pitch changes at high

speeds.

89. Wing tip stalling may be prevented by:a. giving the tip a sharp leading edgeb. wash-in on the wingc. wash-out on the wing.

90. if weight is increased the stalling angle of attack is:a. increasedb. decreasedc. the same.

91. With the C of G on the forward limit, the stalling speed wouldbe:a. lower than with the C of G on the aft limitb. higher than the C of G on the aft limitc. the same as with the C of G on the aft limit.

92. In an aircraft just after take-off, weight, altitude andtemperature are of most importance. This WAT limit is mostcritical at:a. Second stage of climb.b. Third stage of climb.c. Final stage of climb.

93. If an aircraft is flying close to the stall, and ailerons areoperated:a. a stall could occur on the wing with the down aileronb. a stall could occur on the wing with the up aileronc. there would be no effect on stalling.

94. On a highly tapered wing without wing twist the stall willcommence:a. at the tipb. at the centre of the spanc. At the root.

95. The indicated stalling speed of an aircraft at a given weight:a. increase with altitude increaseb. is constant at all altitudesc. decreases with altitude increase.

96. The separation point of the boundary layer:

a. moves forward with increased angle of attackb. moves aft with increased angle of attackc. remains constant up to the stalling angle.

97. To produce the desired effect, trim tabs must be adjusted:a. in the same direction as the primary control surfaces

they affect,b. in the opposite direction to the primary control surfaces

they affect,c. depending upon the design of the trim tab controls.

98. Flight manoeuvres are generally divided into four flightfundamentals:a. aircraft power, pitch, bank and trim,b. straight and level flight, turns, climbs and descents,c. take-offs, slow flight, fast flight and stalls.

99. If the aircraft is in an unusual flight attitude and the attitudeindicator has exceeded limits, the instruments to rely on firstto determine pitch attitude before starting recovery area. turn indicator and VSIb. ASI and altimeterc. Turn indicator and ASI

100. The most important function of a rudder during coordinatedflight is that:a. it prevents skid,b. properly applied, it helps to overcome adverse yaw,c. applying rudder overcomes the asymmetrical thrust of

the propeller as the turn is ini tiated.

8/18/2019 TEQ - CPL ATG_FW - 2011

5/25


101. Application of aileron alone when rolling into a turn will resultin unbalanced flight for the duration of the aileron input andwill result ina. sideslipb. skidc. either of the above may be correct depending on the

direction of the turn

102. What procedure is recommended for an engine out approachand landing?a. The flightpath and procedures should be almost

identical to a normal approach and landing.b. The altitude and airspeed should be considerably

higher than normal throughout the approach.c. A normal approach, except do not extend the landing

gear or flaps until over the runway threshold.

103. What criteria determines which engine is the ‘critical’ engineof a twin-engine airplane?a. The one with the centre of thrust closest to the

centreline of the fuselage.b. The one designated by the manufacturer which

develops most usable thrust.c. The one with centre of thrust farthest from the

centreline of the fuselage.

104. What effect, if any, does altitude have on Vmc for an airplanewith un-supercharged engines?a. Noneb. Increases with altitude

c. Decreases with altitude.

105. Under what condition should stalls never be practiced in atwin-engine airplane?a. With one engine inoperative.b. With climb power on.c. With full flaps and gear extended.

106. In a light, twin-engine airplane with one engine inoperative,when is it acceptable to allow the ball of a slip-skid indicatorto be deflected outside the reference lines?a. While manoeuvering at minimum controllable airspeed

to avoid overbankingb. When operating at any airspeed greater than Vmc.c. When practicing imminent stalls in a banked attitude

107. What is the safest and most efficient takeoff and initial climbprocedure in a light, twin-engine airplane? ACCELERATE

TO-a. Best engine-out rate-of-climb airspeed while on the

ground, then lift off and climb at that speed.b. Vmc, then lift off at that speed and climb at maximum

angle-of-climb airspeed.c. An airspeed slightly above Vmc, then lift off and climb

at the best rate-of-climb airspeed.

108. What performance should a pilot of a light , twin-engineairplane be able to maintain at Vmc?a. Heading.b. Heading and altitude.c. Heading, altitude and ability to climb 50 ft/min.

109. What does the blue radial line on the airspeed indicator of alight, twin-engine airplane represent?a. Maximum single-engine rate of climb

b. Maximum single-engine angle of climb.c. Minimum controllable airspeed for single-engineoperation.

110. At what Mach range does the subsonic flight range normallyoccur?a. Below .75 Mach.b. From .75 to 1.20 Mach.c. From 1.20 to 250 Mach.

111. What is the highest speed possible without supersonic flowover the wing?a. Initial buffet speed.b. Critical Mach number.c. Transonic index.

112. What is the free stream Mach number which produces firstevidence of local sonic flow?a. Supersonic Mach number.b. Transonic Mach number.c. Critical Mach number

113. What is the result of a shock-induced separation of airflowoccurring symmetrically near the wing root of a swept wingaircraft?a. A high-speed stall and sudden pitch up.b. A severe moment or ‘tuck under’.c. Severe porpoising.

114. What is the movement of the centre of pressure when thewingtips of a swept wing airplane are shock-stalled first?.a. Inward and aft.b. Inward and forward.c. Outward and forward.

115. What is the principal advantage of a sweepback design wingover a straight wing design?a. The critical Mach number will increase significantly.b. Sweepback will increase changes in the magnitude of

force coefficients due to compressibility.

c. Sweepback will accelerate the onset of compressibilityeffect.

116. What is one disadvantage of a swept wing design?a. The wing root stalls prior to the wingtip section.b. The wingtip section stalls prior to the wing root.c. Severe pitch down movement when the centre of

pressure shift forward.

117. What is the condition known as when gusts cause a sweptwing-type airplane to roll in one direction while yawing in theother?a. Porpoise.b. Wingover.c. Dutch roll.

118. A wing with marked sweep-backa. has a low induced drag coefficient throughout the

speed rangeb. has a high induce drag coefficient throughout the speed

rangec. has a reduced induced drag coefficient at the high

speed range

119. Aircraft icing in flight is due to:a. Ice crystals.b. Snow flakes.c. Supercooled water droplets.

120. DTD 585, hydraulic fluid is:a. blueb. light strawc. red.

121. A mineral based hydraulic fluid will require all components to

be fitted with:a. natural rubber sealsb. butyl rubber sealsc. synthetic rubber seals.

122. In a hydraulic system, when the engine is at idle RPM, thesystem pressure fails to rise above two thirds maximumnormal working pressure, the probable fault is:a. accumulator charge pressure is too lowb. the engine RPM is too lowc. a pressure relief valve is stuck slightly open.

8/18/2019 TEQ - CPL ATG_FW - 2011

6/25


123. The purpose of an accumulator is to:a. prevent cavitation at the pumpb. provide, in an emergency, a supply of fluid for the pumpc. assist in damping out system pressure fluctuations.

124. A one-way restrictor valve may be fitted to:a. a flap circuit to reduce the rate of movement in both

directionsb. an undercarriage circuit to reduce the speed of

operation on loweringc. a speed brake to ensure it moves out quickly and

moves in slowly.

125. A visco-static fluid is one which:a. maintains a constant viscosity at all working

temperaturesb. maintains a constant viscosity at a specific working

temperaturec. will not form sludge or thicken when it is stationary in

the system.

126. A variable volume pump:a. maintains a constant volume of fluid to the circuits at all

timesb. maintain a constant pressure in the system.c. maintain a constant temperature throughout the

system.

127. Excessive pressure due to thermal expansion in a closedcircuit may be relieved by a:

a. Flow control valveb. Pressure reducing valvec. Pressure relief valve.

128. Excessive system pressure fluctuations may be due to:a. high accumulator charge pressureb. low accumulator system pressurec. low accumulator charge pressure.

129. Most modern hydraulic reservoirs are pressurised to:a. eliminate cavitation in the pump supplyb. to provide pressure for emergency usec. to eliminate hydraulic hammering.

130. The hand pump in a hydraulic system is used toa. pump hydraulic fluid from the accumulator into the

reservoirb. maintain system pressure in flight

c. provide an alternative, in an emergency to the enginedriven pump

131. The component in a hydraulic system that will be set to thehighest pressure is thea. pressure relief valveb. accumulatorc. non-return valve

132. A lower than specified accumulator gas pressure maya. allow fluid pressures to become excessiveb. reduce the emergency source of hydraulic powerc. reduce the amount of fluid stored in the accumulator

133. Whilst operating a hydraulic system, the hydraulic pressuredropped abnormally low, but slowly returned to normal afteractivation of the system was completed. The most likely

cause of this would bea. low accumulator gas pressureb. a leak in the component actuatorc. low fluid level

134. If fully extended hydraulic flaps start to re tract when theaircraft is below Vfe, a likely cause isa. a leak in the flap actuating cylinderb. low hydraulic fluid levelc. expansion of hydraulic fluid due to high temperature

135. In a wheelbrake circuit, the hydraulic accumulator will providean increase in the number of brake applications in anemergency:a. if the initial charge pressure is increasedb. if the initial charge pressure is reducedc. if the initial charge pressure is exhausted

136. Excessive brake travel could be due toa. air in the systemb. a weak return springc. a fluid leak in the master cylinder

137. If air has leaked into the lines of a foot operated hydraulicbrake systema. the brake pedal will experience no resistance as it

travels to the floorb. the brakes will feel spongyc. application of light foot pressure will cause the brakes

to grab

138. The purpose of a shimmey damper is toa. eliminate vibration of the tailwheelb. eliminate vibration of the main wheelsc. reduce nosewheel vibration during ground operations

139. What is the worst condition to land regarding hydroplaning?a. Snow.b. Slush.c. Standing water.

140. With reference to aeroplane operating manuals, the term Vlerefers toa. the maximum speed at which the undercarriage may be

loweredb. the maximum speed at which the aeroplane may be

flown with the undercarriage extendedc. the maximum speed of the aeroplane in the landing

configuration

141. To measure the rate of climb of the cabin in a pressurisedaircraft, the cabin VSI uses:a. static pressure measured at the aircraft altitudeb. cabin differential pressurec. static pressure measured inside the cockpit

142. After a flight in a pressurised aircraft, none of the doors areable to be opened. This could be caused bya. the safety valve failing to operate due to faulty weight

switchesb. the negative relief valve opening one landingc. the use of incorrect door opening procedures

143. During a climb, the pilot notices that the cabin altimeter andVSI are reading the same as the aircraft altimeter and VSI. Apossible cause isa. the negative relief valve is stuck closedb. the aircraft is not above 10,000 ft yetc. the safety valve has opened

144. On a given aircraft’s pressurisation panel the cabin altitudehas been set to 8000 ft and cabin rate of change is set tomaximum (2000 fpm). If after take-off from sea level theaircraft climbs at 1000 fpm, the cabin pressure would initiallya. remain the same as outside pressure up to 8000 ftb. decrease at twice the rate of the outside pressure

c. decrease at half the rate of the out side pressure

145. Oils and greases should not be used on joints in oxygen linesbecausea. they can clog the linesb. they may start a firec. they will cause the connections to oxidise (rust)

8/18/2019 TEQ - CPL ATG_FW - 2011

7/25


146. The use of supplemental oxygen by a pilot in a pressurizedaircraft is mandatorya. at all times for a flight planned above 10,000 ftb. at all times when the aircraft is above 10,000 ft for

longer than 60 minsc. at all times when the cabin altitude is above 10,000 ft

for longer than 60 mins

147. For cruise in an unpressurised aircraft at FL270 a diluterdemand oxygen systema. is not suitable for prolonged operationsb. would deliver oxygen under pressurec. need not supply 100% oxygen

148. Continuous flow oxygen systemsa. are suitable for prolonged use up to 25,000 ftb. are suitable for prolonged use up to 33,000 ftc. are suitable for prolonged use up to 40,000 ft

149. Which statement is incorrect regarding autopilot operation?a. Many autopilots should not be engaged above certain

limiting IAS valuesb. Autopilots should always be off for take-off and landingc. Autopilots are designed to maintain attitude and so

should be used during flight through turbulence

150. When disengaging an autopilot a pilot’s main concern shouldbe toa. guard against sudden changes in aircraft attitudeb. maintain straight and level flight

c. maintain a rate one turn

151. Which of the following ice protection systems is designed tobe used only for de-icing?a. Alcohol sprayb. Hot airc. Pneumatic system

152. The APU is normally:a. Only used on the groundb. Only used in flightc. Only used in an emergency

153. A bleed air heating system obtains a supply of hot air from:a. The turbine stage of a gas turbine engineb. The exhaust shroud of a piston enginec. The compressor stage of a gas turbine engine

154. On a modern aircraft the APU isa. A small gas turbine engineb. A petrol driven enginec. An electrically driven starter motor

155. A weight of Basic Operating Empty Mass plus payload isknown as:a. MRWb. MZFWc. MLW

156. Humidity is controlled ata. 50%b. 30%c. 85%

157. Combustion heating is normally provided by

a. The exhaust system of a piston engineb. The heat exchangersc. A special heater with its own fuel supply

158. A typical engine bleed air system used on a turbojet aircraftis also known asa. A jockstrap systemb. A bootstrap systemc. A girthstrap system

159. In the event a booster pump fails in the engine fuel system:a. fuel will be drawn through the pump by-passb. the fuel in that tank will become isolatedc. ram air vent pressure will maintain supply to the engine

cylinders.

160. Vapour locks in fuel system pipelines are prevented by:a. the main engine pumpb. booster pumpsc. fuel tank vents.

161. Fuel system booster pumps are normally:a. engine drivenb. electrically operatedc. air operated.

162. Why is it desirable to leave an aircraft with full fuel tanks ifparking it overnight?a. Prevention of condensation of water in the tanksb. Prevention of drying out and cracking of fuel linesc. Ensure correct grade of fuel has been loaded

163. The octane rating of fuel is an indication of itsa. calorific valueb. volatilityc. resistance to detonation

164. The volatility of a fuel is itsa. anti-detonation resistanceb. mass per unit volume

c. vapour forming tendency

165. If fuel of the specified octane rating cannot be attained it ispermissible to usea. fuel of the next lower octane ratingb. fuel of the next higher octane ratingc. a mixture of the next lowest and the next highest grade

166. AVGAS l00LL is coloureda. clearb. bluec. green

167. AVGAS 100/130 is coloureda. clearb. bluec. green

168. A fuel has a rating of 100/130. The 100 indicatesa. the proportion of iso-octane and neoheptane blended in

the fuelb. the percentage of maximum manifold pressure that can

be used in lean mixturec. the anti-detonation rating of the fuel in lean mixture

169. The purpose of an electric boost pump is toa. provide extra power at take-offb. transfer fuel from one tank to anotherc. guard against vapour locking

170. Cross feeding in a fuel system is primarily fora. allowing an engine to draw from either tankb. to balance the fuel, with equal amounts in each tankc. to allow the auxiliary tanks to top up the main tanks as

fuel is drawn from the mains

171. Fuel vapourisation would most likely be caused bya. a high rate of climb on a cold dayb. a high rate of climb on a hot dayc. a low rate of climb on a cold day

172. If forward facing fuel tank vents are bent backwardsa. increased fuel pressure may damage the boost pumpsb. reduced tank pressure may cause tuel starvation or

vapourisationc. increased tank pressure may cause fuel tank rupture

8/18/2019 TEQ - CPL ATG_FW - 2011

8/25


173. The use of a lower than specified grade of fuel in an engineis likely toa. cause lead fouling of the spark plugsb. result in an over-lean mixturec. result in detonation

174. Aircraft heaters which draw on hot air from around theexhaust manifolda. are used only in twin-engined aircraftb. may cause carbon monoxide poisoningc. are unlikely to cause carbon monoxide (ie poisoning as

exhaust gases are easily detected by smell

175. When is tyre heating most likely to occur, at:a. Low taxi speed, high tyre pressure.b. High taxi speed, high tyre pressure.c. Low taxi speed, low tyre pressure.

176. A transformer which halves the voltage will have:a. Half as many turns on the secondary coil as on the

primary coil.b. Twice as many turns on the secondary as on the

primary.c. Four times as many turns on the secondary as on the

primary.

177. The moving part of the AC generator is:a. The rotor.b. The stator.c. The exciter.

178. Output from an AC generator is taken from:a. The exciter.b. The stator windings.c. The rotor windings.

179. The voltage of an AC generator:a. Rises to a maximum in one direction, falls to zero, and

then rises in the same direction to a maximum and fallsto zero.

b. Rises to a maximum in one direction and then remainsconstant.

c. Rises to a maximum in one direction, falls to zero andthen rises to a maximum in the opposite direction andfalls to zero.

180. An alternator is:a. A static inverter.

b. A rotary switch for a de-icing system.c. An AC generator.

181. Impedance is:a. Volt/Wattsb. Volt/Ampsc. Volts/Frequency

182. If the frequency is increased in an inductive circuit:a. Impedence will decrease.b. Impedence will increase.c. Impedence will remain constant.

183. In an a.c. circuit which is mainly inductive:a. Current will lead voltage.b. Current and voltage will be 'in phase'.c. Current will lag voltage.

184. If frequency increases capacitive reactance will:a. Increase.b. Not change.c. Decrease.

185. Power factor is:a. Real load / Apparent loadb. Apparent load / Real loadc. Real load / Wattless load

186. In a non paralleled constant frequency AC system thegenerator loadmeters will normally measure.a. KVA or Amps.b. KVA and power factor.c. KVAR and KW.

187. A 400 Hz supply has:a. A capacity of 400 000 watts.b. An impedance of 400 ohms.c. A frequency of 400 cycles per second.

188. One advantage of a main a.c. supply system is:a. Easy, and almost lossless stepping up or down of

voltage.b. Voltage does not need to be changed.c. Batteries are not needed.

189. One of the advantages of three phase generation over singlephase generation is:a. That most aircraft services require three phase supply.b. That there is a more efficient conversion of mechanical

energy to electrical energy.c. That it gives lower cable weights and more compact

generators.

190. In a typical aircraft constant frequency paralleled AC systemthe line voltage is:a. 115 volts.b. 208 volts.c. 200 volts.

191. In an A.C. generator, voltage regulation:a. Is by varying the drive rpmb. Is by varying the excitation current.c. Is by the insertion of variable resistors into the circuit.

192. In a constant speed A.C. "generation system which isparalleled"a. All generators are run off the same engine.b. All engines are run at the same rpm.c. A generator has its own constant speed drive.

193. A low reactive load on one generator is compensated for in aparalleled system:a. through the excitation circuit of the generator.b. By altering the rotor speed.c. By increasing the real load on the other generators.

194. To increase the real load taken by a paralleled AC generator,the:a. Generator drive torque is increased.b. Generator excitation is increased.c. Generator drive torque and excitation are increased.

195. The frequency of aircraft constant frequency systems ismaintained:a. Between 380 and 420 Hz.b. Between 350 and 450 Hz.c. Between 395 and 495 Hz.

196. Frequency is controlled by:a. Excitation voltage.b. Speed of rotation.c. Excitation current.

197. Load sharing circuits are necessary:a. Whenever generators are operating in series.b. Whenever generators are operating independentlyc. Whenever generators are operating in parallel.

198. Paralleled AC generators will have:a. One load meter to measure total system loadb. One volt meter for each generator.c. One load meter for each generator.

8/18/2019 TEQ - CPL ATG_FW - 2011

9/25


199. If an A.C. generator control relay tripped the:a. Generator circuit breaker for that generator will have

opened.b. Generator circuit breaker for that generator will close.c. Generator circuit breaker for that generator trips and

busbar tie breaker trips

200. On an aircraft A.C. generator, the output is usually takenfrom:a. The stator windings.b. The rotor.c. The excitor.

201. The CSD functions:a. To maintain a constant ratio between engine speed and

generator speed.b. To vary the generator speed in proportion to load.c. To maintain constant generator speed.

202. If the CSD disconnect switch is used, the drive can be:a. Only reinstated when the aircraft is on the ground.b. Re-instated in flight from the electrical supply

compartment.c. Re-instated in flight from the flight deck.

203. In the event of a mechanical failure occurring in thegenerator the CSD is protected by:a. A hydraulic clutch.b. A universal joint.c. Quill drive.

204. An APU is driven:a. By its own dedicated gas turbine.b. By an hydraulic motor.c. By a ram air turbine.

205. An auto-transformer:a. Varies the turns ratio automatically to maintain a

constant output voltage with varying input voltage.b. Has only one coil which is used as both primary and

secondary.c. Will maintain a constant output frequency with a

varying supply frequency.

206. As the torque load increases on an induction motor it will:a. Slow down.b. Maintain RPM.c. Speed up.

207. When a fuse is “popped” or “blown”, it is:a. The fuse detatching from the panel.b. The fuse wire melting.c. Due to a minimum load.

208. When a generator is on line:a. it is at correct RPMb. the battery indicates a dischargec. it is connected to the bus-bar.

209. A short circuit:a. has high resistanceb. has low currentc. allows excessive current.

210. The capacity of a battery is rated in

a. voltsb. wattsc. ampere-hours.

211. To prevent a circuit overheating:a. ram air is directed over major componentsb. fuses are fittedc. capacitors are fitted.

212. Circuit breakers are fitted:a. in parallel with the loadb. in series with the loadc. in parallel with the fuses.

213. Battery state of charge must be checked every:a. six monthsb. three monthsc. year.

214. D.C. generators are normally:a. initially excited by direct current from the battery bus-

barb. initially excited by residual magnetismc. initially excited by ground power.

215. An earth return circuit is one which:a. uses the aircraft structure as the returnb. has a common earth return lead for all circuitsc. has a return lead for that circuit.

216. Load shedding will cause the:a. current to increaseb. voltage to increasec. current to reduce.

217. A ruptured red disc on the nacelle skin of a gas turbineengine bay fire extinguisher indicates:a. The extinguisher is overcharged and therefore over

pressurised.b. That excess pressure has been released to return it to

safe limits.c. The extinguisher has discharged due to excess

pressure.

218. What is the colour of a hand held fire extinguisher?a. Black.b. Red.c. Green.

219. The type of fire extinguisher that would be used for anelectrical fire is:

a. CO2 fire extinguisher.

b. Any fire extinguisher coloured red.c. An extinguisher used for Class C fires.

220. A common type of fire extinuigshant in use is:a. Methyl Bromide.b. Sodium Chloride.c. Barium Oxide.

221. Fireproof bulkheads not having the benefit of cooling air aremanufactured from:a. Light Allloyb. Titaniumc. Magnesium

222. Which type of fire extinguishant may be also be found on gasturbine aircraft?a. Freonb. Argonc. Krypton

223. The valves of a four stroke piston engine will each:a. open twice during the normal "Otto" cycle.b. open once during the normal "Otto" cycle.c. open four times during the normal "Otto" cycle

224. The camshaft of a piston engine normally rotates:a. at twice the speed of the crankshaft.

b. at half the speed of the crankshaft.c. at the same speed as the crankshaft.

225. Tappet and rocker arm clearance is essential:a. to allow lubrication between the contact surface.b. to allow for valve operation by the cam.c. to allow for expansion throughout the working

temperature range of the engine.

8/18/2019 TEQ - CPL ATG_FW - 2011

10/25


226. Valve "Dwell" is:a. the period a valve remains open.b. the period a valve remains closed.c. the period taken by the rocker to take up the clearance

gap before operating the valve.

227. Valve overlap occurs:a. at the end of the power stroke.b. at the end of the exhaust stroke.c. at the end of the induction stroke.

228. The weight of charge induced into a piston engine cylinderduring normal operation:a. is increased by closing the exhaust valve before TDC.b. is reduced by closing the inlet valve after BDC.c. is increased by delaying the closing of the inlet valve.

229. The exhaust valve of a piston engine:a. normally has a hollow stem partially filled with sodium.b. is normally manufactured from metallic sodium to assist

with cooling.c. normally has a hollow head filled with sodium.

230. Valve springs are primarily duplicated to:a. to ensure a gas tight seal when the valve is closed.b. to prevent the valve dropping into the cylinder in the

event a spring breaks.c. to reduce valve bounce.

231. When the piston of a four stroke piston engine is towards the

end of the power stroke:a. the gas temperature will be at its highest.b. the gas temperature will be reducing.c. the gas temperature will remain constant until BDC.

232. The compression ratio of a piston engine is the:a. ratio of the cylinder volume when the piston is at BDC

to the cylinder volume when at TDC.b. difference in pressure generated when the piston is at

BDC to that generated at TDC.c. variation between the volume of the combustion

chamber and the swept volume.

233. The majority of aircraft piston engine lubrication systems areof the:a. self lubricating type.b. wet sump type.c. dry sump type.

234. A dry sump lubrication system:a. maintains a reserve of oil in a separate tank.b. maintains a reserve of oil in the sump.c. requires no reserve of oil.

235. The pressure pump of a dry sump lubrication system:a. has a greater capacity than the scavenge pump.b. has less capacity than the scavenge pump.c. is driven on a common shaft and has the same

capacity as the scavenge pump.

236. The pressure filter in a dry sump lubrication system is:a. located between the pressure pump and tank.b. located after the pressure pump.c. located between the scavenge pump and the tank.

237. The by-pass valve of a dry sump lubrication system is:a. normally activated during low temperature enginestarting.

b. normally activated during high temperature enginestarting.

c. is a relief valve excess oil pressure.

238. Normally on most piston engines the lubrication oil of a drysump system is cooled:a. on leaving the pressure pump.b. before returning to the oil tank.c. before returning to the sump.

239. The reserve of lubricating oil of a wet sump piston engine isstored in:a. the sump.b. a separate tank.c. the pipe system.

240. The oil tank of a dry sump lubrication system has a spaceabove the oil to provide for:a. jack ram displacement.b. pressurisation.c. expansion of the oil and frothing.

241. The oil cooler of a dry sump lubrication system is normallycooled by:a. water.b. compressor oil.c. ram air.

242. The magnetic field in a magneto is provided by:a. battery current.b. an excitation field circuit.c. a permanent magnet.

243. Excessive arcing across the contact breaker points of amagneto when the points are open is prevented by:a. a diode being fitted.b. a condenser being fitted.c. insulation of the contacts.

244. On a four stroke engine the ignition spark will occur:

a. once each revolution of the engine.b. once every fourth revolution of the engine.c. once every two revolutions of the engine.

245. On engine start up, the generator warning light fails toextinguish, this will result in:a. the engine stopping when the battery is totally

discharged.b. failure of the initial excitation of the magneto.c. the engine continuing to run normally.

246. The distributor rotor on a four stroke engine rotates at:a. the same speed as the engine.b. twice the speed of the engine.c. half the speed of the engine.

247. With increase of engine speed, ignition timing:a. will advance.

b. will retard.c. will remain constant.

248. Fuel pumps:a. should not be run when the fuel system is dry.b. of all types are lubricated by the fuel that passes

through them.c. are normally electrically operated.

249. Booster pumps are:a. normally driven by the engine.b. electrically operated.c. normally used for priming the engine only.

250. If the fuel pressure warning light comes on in flight the:a. booster pumps must be isolated.b. main fuel pump must be isolated.

c. booster pumps must be switched on.

251. In the event of booster pump failure, the:a. fuel will continue to be drawn through the booster pump

bypass by the engine driven pump.b. pump must be isolated and the remaining fuel in the

tank transferred by the transfer pumps.c. fuel will be isolated in the tank.

252. Fuel pump delivery is normally:a. supplied at a constant flow rate to the engine.b. supplied at a constant pressure, controlled by a

pressure relief valve.c. supplied at a constant volume.

8/18/2019 TEQ - CPL ATG_FW - 2011

11/25


253. In an air-cooled piston engine:a. fins are incorporated to increase the cylinder and head

surface areas.b. air is ducted through drillings in the cylinder head walls.c. air is used to cool the cooling oil.

254. Air is directed over the cylinder wall fins by:a. cowl gills.b. baffles.c. air deflection plates.

255. Engine temperature is normally indicated by:a. cylinder head temperature gauge.b. the engine master temperature gauge.c. the engine lubrication system temperature gauge.

256. Cooling air is normally provided by:a. airflow from a supercharger.b. airflow from a compressor bleed.c. ram air.

257. In a liquid cooled engine cooling system:a. temperature is controlled by a thermostat.b. temperature is controlled by a master pump.c. fuel is used to cool the coolant.

258. An alternative name sometimes given to the choke is the:a. butterfly.b. venturi.

c. intake controller.

259. To prevent fuel starvation due to sudden opening of thethrottle:a. the enrichment jet is fitted.b. the pressure balance duct is fitted.c. the accelerator pump is fitted.

260. When an aircraft is inverted in flight, fuel starvation of theengine may be prevented by:a. the carburettor balance duct.b. the power jet.c. a stand tube.

261. Carburettor anti-icing is normally provided by:a. hot air from the cooling system.b. hot oil from the engine lubrication system.c. spray mat heater elements.

262. The supercharger is normally positioned:a. in the exhaust manifold.b. before the carburettor.c. between the carburettor and the inlet manifold.

263. The impeller of a supercharger rotates:a. twice the speed of the engine.b. half the speed of the engine crankshaft.c. nine to ten times the speed of the engine crankshaft.

264. The supercharger is normally located:a. at the side of the engine.b. at the rear of the engine.c. at the front of the engine.

265. Manifold boost pressure is:

a. the indicated pressure in the inlet manifold between theimpeller and the inlet valves.b. the indicated pressure in the inlet prior to the

carburettor.c. the pressure indicated in the supercharger.

266. The turbocharger impeller is situated:a. prior to the fuel injector.b. after the carburettor.c. in the exhaust system.

267. Turbocharger main bearings are lubricated by:a. the engine hydraulic system.b. the engine lubrication system.c. grease packs.

268. The turbocharger impeller is:a. driven by intake ram air.b. driven by exhaust gases.c. mounted on the same shaft as the turbine.

269. During the power stroke of a piston engine, as the pistondescends the cylinder the temperature will:a. increaseb. decreasec. remain relatively constant.

270. The camshaft of a piston engine normally rotates at:a. half the speed of the crankshaftb. the same speed as the crankshaftc. twice the speed of the crankshaft.

271. Piston engine valve 'dwell' is the:a. period a valve remains openb. period between valve overlapc. period when both inlet and exhaust valves are closed.

272. The purpose of valve springs are to:a. ensure the valves closeb. obtain a close fit with the cam facec. ensure a gas tight seal when the valves are closed.

273. An over-rich mixture on starting a piston engine may be dueto:a. boost reversalb. the hand priming pump plunger in the out positionc. the timing being retarded.

274. Piston engine hydraulicing is caused by:a. excessive oil pressure in the engine lubrication systemb. oil leaking into the combustion chambers when the

engine is staticc. oil leaking into the combustion chambers when the

engine is running.

275. At low engine RPM, black smoke from the exhaust of apiston engine may indicate:a. oil leaking past the piston ringsb. contaminated fuel

c. a rich mixture.

276. Piston engine hydraulicing:a. can be ignored on inverted enginesb. must be checked at idle RPMc. must be checked before attempting to start the engine.

277. As a supercharged engine climbs to high altitude, thecylinder head temperature will:a. reduce due to the reduction in ambient temperatureb. remain approximately the samec. increase due to the increased weight of charge.

278. A supercharger normally rotates at:a. twice the crankshaft RPMb. four times the engine RPMc. ten times engine crankshaft RPM.

279. The supercharger main bearings are lubricated by:a. the engine lubrication systemb. grease packsc. a self contained oil system.

280. A slight increase of power of a supercharged engine up to itsrated altitude is due to:a. a slight increase in the volume of charge, due to the

reduction in temperature, entering the cyl indersb. a reduction in air density resulting in a richer mixturec. an increase in the weight of charge entering the

cylinders due to temperature reduction.

8/18/2019 TEQ - CPL ATG_FW - 2011

12/25


281. When a supercharged engine reaches its rated altitude withthe throttle valve fully open, any further opening of thethrottle in the cockpit will:a. increase RPM allowing further altitude to be gainedb. increase boostc. be lost motion.

282. On a supercharged engine, on start up the boost pressurewilla. fallb. remain constantc. rise.

283. When engine starting is initiated the waste gate of a turbo-charger will be:a. fully openb. partially openc. fully closed.

284. If a leak occurs in the exhaust system of a turbo-chargedpiston engine prior to the turbine:a. critical height will be increasedb. the waste gate will fail to close as altitude is increasedc. the waste gate will close normally as altitude increases.

285. The wastegate of a turbo-charger is:a. opened by spring pressureb. opened by oil pressurec. opened by electric actuator.

286. A supercharger's output is normally controlled by:a. the waste gateb. boost control leverc. the throttle valve.

287. A turbo-charger's main bearings are lubricated by:a. the engine lubrication systemb. a self contained lubrication systemc. the aircraft hydraulic system.

288. The helix angle is:a. Equal to the angle of attack plus the angle of advance.b. Equal to the angle of advance plus the incidence angle.c. The angle of advance.

289. The blade angle is:a. Equal to the angle of attack plus the angle of advance.b. Equal to the angle of advance plus the helix angle.

c. Equal to the angle of attack plus blade incidence angle.

290. A variable pitch constant speed propeller is designedprimarily to:a. Maintain the engine at a constant RPM.b. Maintain the propeller at a constant thrust.c. Maintain the propeller at a constant RPM.

291. A variable pitch constant speed propeller:a. Eliminates the need for constant adjustment to engine

RPM.b. Eliminates the need for constant adjustment to

propeller pitch.c. Eliminates the need for constant changes to mixture

setting.

292. The pitch is controlled on a constant speed variable pitch

propeller:a. By the RPM lever.b. By the throttle.c. By the C.S.U.

293. Prior to engine starting:a. Coarse pitch is selected to give maximum cooling

airflow.b. Extra fine pitch is selected to reduce the load on the

engine.c. Extra fine pitch is selected to increase cooling airflow to

the engine.

294. In the feathered position:a. The leading edge of the blade faces forward.b. The trailing edge of the blade faces forward.c. The thrust face faces forward.

295. When flying in low temperatures conditions:a. The C.S.U. is heated to prevent congealing of the oil.b. The C.S.U operation should be kept to a minimum.c. The C.S.U should be exercised periodically to prevent

the oil congealing.

296. Overspeeding of the propeller in flight may be the result of:a. Excessive oil pressure in the C.S.U.b. Loss of oil pressure in the C.S.U.c. RPM lever set to high.

297. Synchronizing of propellers is based on:a. All propellers are set to the same pitch angle.b. All rotate at the same speed.c. All propellers develop the same thrust.

298. When piston-engined V.P propeller is to be feathered:a. The ignition of the engine should be switched off first.b. The throttle of the engine should be fully closed first.c. The feathering switch should be first operated.

299. The angle of advance of a propeller is:a. The same as the helix angle.b. The same as the blade angle.c. The same as the angle of attack.

300. A propeller’s ability to absorb power may be improved by:a. Decrease the solidity.b. Increase the solidity.c. Decrease the diameter.

301. The use of counter-rotating propellers has the effect of:a. Cancelling out the gyroscopic and toque effect.b. Cancelling out the gyroscopic effect and increasing the

torque.c. Increasing the gyroscopic effect and the torque.

302. With an increase in temperature, the service ceiling would:a. Increase.b. Decrease.c. Remain unaffected.

303. In the choke tube area of the fuel nozzle:

a. An area of high pressure is found.b. An area of low pressure is found.c. There is no difference in pressure.

304. As air density decreases, density altitude will:a. Increase.b. Decrease.c. Remain unaffected.

305. If the atmospheric pressure and temperature remain thesame, an increase in humidity would:a. Shorten the take-off distance because the air is less

dense.b. Lengthen the take off distance because the air is more

dense.c. Lengthen the take off distance because the air is less

dense.

306. The airspeed that a pilot would be unable to identify by thecolour coding of an ASI is:a. The maximum landing gear extended speed.b. The maximum flap operating speed.c. The never exceed speed.

307. If the landing gear of an aeroplane moves forward duringretraction the:a. Total moments will decrease.b. Total moments will remain the same.c. Total moments will increase.

8/18/2019 TEQ - CPL ATG_FW - 2011

13/25


308. The tendency of an aircraft to develop forces which restore itto its original condition, when disturbed from a condition ofsteady flight, is know as:a. Controllability.b. Manoeuvrability.c. Stability.

309. When carburettor heating is used, it:a. Richens the mixture.b. Leans the mixture.c. Puts more air into the mixture.

310. Differential ailerons are installed to:a. Improve lateral stability.b. Prevent spiral instability.c. Reduce adverse aileron yaw.

311. The “blow-out” process on turbine engines is:a. Used to get rid of excess fuel after an aborted start.b. When the turbine section explodes after overspeeding.c. Timing the run-down to check for structural failure.

312. The angle of attack is increased during a turn:a. To compensate for increased aeroplane drag.b. To compensate for the reduced horizontal lift

component.c. To compensate for the reduced vertical lift component.

313. A magneto obtains its current from:a. A battery.

b. E.M.F. (generators).c. Magnets.

314. Aircraft A has a span of 50 ft and a chord of 6 ft. Aircraft Bhas a span of 80 ft and a chord of 10 ft. Aircraft C has a spanof 48 ft and a chord of 4 ft. Which aircraft has the highestaspect ratio and which aircraft has the lowest aspect ratio?a. A and B.b. B and C.c. C and B.

315. Refer to the previous question. Which of the aircraftmentioned has the highest stalling angle?a. A.b. B.c. C.

316. A tailwheel aircraft with a propeller turning clockwise as

viewed from the cockpit, tends to turn the aircraft:a. Left around the vertical axis and left around the

longitudinal axis.b. Right around the vertical axis and left around the

longitudinal axis.c. Left around the vertical axis and right around the

longitudinal axis.

317. At sea level, the Manifold Pressure Gauge will read:a. 29.92”.b. 1013.25 hPa.c. Static pressure.

318. The correct method of increasing power on an aircraft fittedwith a constant speed propeller is:a. Throttle, RPM, mixture.b. RPM, mixture, throttle.

c. Mixture, RPM, throttle.

319. When the weight of the aircraft is increased the stallingspeed will:a. Increaseb. Decrease.c. Remain the same.

320. The system used to supply an aircraft instrument thatoperates on alternating current is:a. An alternator that is mechanically driven by the engine.b. An inverter.c. A transformer.

321. A crankshaft with counter balances can be damaged by:a. Carburettor icing.b. Closing and opening the throttle in rapid succession.c. Operating the engine with too rich a mixture.

322. When flying for endurance an aircraft must be flown at:a. Minimum power speed.b. Full throttle height.c. Minimum drag speed.

323. What is the reason for the twist in the propeller?a. To keep the propeller flying at the most efficient angle

at all sections.b. To cancel out the effect of the high speed near the tips.c. Design requirement to keep the centrifugal twist axis in

the centre.

324. Electrical power of a battery is measured by:a. Amp/hr.b. The number of cells in the battery.c. The voltage.

325. Pneumatic boots that are used for de-icing are:a. Fitted on the leading edge of the wing.b. Fitted around the propeller intakes.c. Fitted on the leading edge of the wing and stabilisers.

326. The use of fuel with an incorrect octane rating may lead to:a. Detonation.b. Pre-ignition.

c. A higher manifold pressure.

327. Propeller efficiency is defined as:a. The ratio of shaft horsepower to brake horsepower.b. The ratio of brake horsepower to thrust horsepower.c. The ratio of thrust horsepower to brake horsepower.

328. When the aircraft exhaust smoke is blue, it means theaircraft:a. Has a too rich a mixture.b. Is burning oil.c. Has incorrect timing.

329. Carburettor icing occurs at:a. The engine air intake.b. The venturi, butterfly valve and manifold.c. The intake manifold only.

330. The breather pipe on an engine is used to:a. Blow out excess oil.b. Vent excess temperature.c. Relieve excess sump pressure.

331. The purpose of the reverse current cut-out switch in theelectrical system is:a. To prevent the battery from losing its charge by driving

the generator.b. To switch off the generator.c. To prevent the battery from being overcharged.

332. Circuit breakers are installed in aircraft:a. To switch systems on and off.b. To prevent overloading of a system.c. To see how much power a system requires.

333. The SG of AVGAS is 0.7. How much does 100 Imp Gal offuel weigh?a. 700 lbs.b. 70 lbs.c. 7000 lbs.

334. The load capacity of a battery is measured in:a. Volts.b. Amps/hr.c. Ohm.

8/18/2019 TEQ - CPL ATG_FW - 2011

14/25


335. The most electrical power is supplied by:a. AC generator.b. DC generator.c. AC/DC generator with TR unit.

336. Carburettor icing on an engine with a variable pitch propellercan be noticed by:a. Drop in RPM.b. Drop in Manifold Pressure.c. Drop in RPM AND Manifold Pressure.

337. On an EGT gauge the mixture is set at lean when:a. The temperature and RPM peaks.b. The temperature and RPM have peaked and then 2

units richer.c. The temperature only peaks.

338. A suction pump supplies vacuum to:a. ASI, Turn indicator and DI.b. AH and DI.c. VSI, DI and Turn Indicator.

339. On the power available/power required versus TAS graph,the lowest value would indicate:a. Minimum drag.b. Speed for endurance.c. Speed for range.

340. The absolute ceiling is:a. The level beyond which the aircraft cannot climb.

b. The level at which the aircraft can only climb at 100ft/min.

c. The maximum level an aircraft can attain full throttle.

341. At the absolute ceiling the:a. Minimum speed is less than the maximum speed.b. Minimum speed is more than the maximum speed.c. Minimum speed I equal to the maximum speed.

342. Too low an octane rating (anti-clock value) can cause:a. Pre-ignition.b. Detonation.c. Overheating.

343. In level flight the balance of forces is affected by:a. Mass of the aircraft.b. Height of the aircraft.c. Fuel burn rate.

344. On a turbocharged aircraft the turbocharger is powered by:a. The engine.b. The electrical motor.c. Exhaust gases.

345. With reference to aircraft fitted with constant speedpropellers, when the MP is reduced:a. The blade angle increases.b. The blade angle decreases.c. The blade angle remains the same.

346. A battery rated for 40 amps/hr means it will operate for:a. At 40 amps for 10 hours.b. At 10 amps for 40 hours.c. At 4 amps for 10 hours.

347. Conditions favourable for the formation of icing:a. High temperature and low humidity.b. High temperature and high humidity.c. High humidity and low temperature.

348. Choose the correct statement:a. An increase in temperature will cause an increase in

density.b. An increase in humidity will cause a decrease in

density.c. An increase in humidity will cause an increase in

density.

349. Density is measured in:a. Kgs/cu metre.b. Pounds per square metre.c. Hectopascals.

350. The main load carrying part of the wing structure is:a. The leading edge.b. The spar.c. The rib.

351. The strength of the wing structure will have to be greater:a. With large variations of the position of the centre of

pressure.b. The centre of pressure has no effect on wing strength.c. With small movements of the centre of pressure.

352. A twenty-four volt lead acid battery would have:a. Six cells.b. Twelve cells.c. Twenty-four cells.

353. A twenty-four volt Nicad battery would probably have:a. Twelve cells.b. Twenty-four cells.c. Nineteen cells.

354. Combustion in a gas turbine engine occurs at:a. Constant volume.b. Constant pressure.c. Constant velocity.

355. The velocity of the gases through the turbine can be veryhigh:a. Because of the high temperature and speed of sound.b. Because they are supersonic.c. Because of the speed of sound being low.

356. In relation to a generator an alternator will:a. Provide less electrical power.b. Provide more power at lower rpm.c. Weigh more and be bigger.

357. An aircraft magneto depends on the following to generateelectrical power:a. The battery.b. The generator.c. Magnets.

358. The most likely immediate effect of using fuel of too low anoctane rating is:a. Pre-ignition.b. Detonation.c. A cool running engine.

359. The operation of an oleo leg is based on:a. Steel springs.b. Rubber blocks or bunjees.c. Oil and air.

360. Absorption of water into aviation fuel is more likely:a. With cold fuel.b. In hot fuel.c. The temperature of the fuel has no effect.

361. To eliminate the risk of fire when refuelling:

a. You should use plastic containers.b. Bond the aircraft to the fuel nozzle.c. Have an earth lead between ground, fuel truck, fuel

nozzle and the aircraft.

362. Operation of the mixture control to the lean position controls:a. The amount of fuel entering the inlet manifold is

reduced.b. The amount of air entering the inlet manifold is

increased.c. The amount of air entering the inlet manifold is reduced

8/18/2019 TEQ - CPL ATG_FW - 2011

15/25


363. A breakage or disconnection of the magneto earth wire willhave the effect of:a. Stopping the engine.b. Causing the engine to run roughly.c. Make it impossible to stop the engine by switching off

ignition.

364. An ignition system in which spark can be lethal is used on:a. Piston engines and turbine engines.b. Turbine engines only.c. Piston engines only.

365. During a climb in an aircraft with a fixed pitch propeller,detonation is suspected. The correct procedure would be to:a. Increase rate of climb.b. Reduce RPM.c. Reduce speed.

366. To obtain best efficiency and effective fuel consumption witha constant speed propeller the best setting would be:a. Low r.p.m. (high pitch) when cruising.b. High r.p.m. (course pitch) for take-off.c. Low r.p.m. (fine pitch) for take-off.

367. When establishing climb power after take-off the correctsequence:a. Throttle – mixture – r.p.m.b. Throttle – r.p.m. – mixture.c. Mixture – r.p.m. – throttle.

368. Entering a climb from cruise flight the correct sequence is:a. Throttle – r.p.m. – mixture.b. R.p.m. – throttle – mixture.c. Mixture – r.p.m. – throttle.

369. If the cylinder head temperature and oil temperature areunusually high, the probable cause would be:a. Using fuel of too low an octane value.b. Using fuel of too high an octane rating.c. Using too rich a mixture.

370. After about 20 minutes flight with full tanks the engine stopsbut restarts immediately after selection of another tank:a. The possible cause was a blocked fuel tank vent.b. Detonation.c. Pre-ignition.

371. During operation of a reciprocating engine the piston is

travelling upa. During the induction stroke.b. During the power stroke.c. During the exhaust stroke.

372. In a piston engine ignition occurs during:a. The power stroke.b. The compression strokec. The exhaust stroke.

373. Valve overlap occurs between:a. The induction stroke and the power stroke.b. The compression stroke and the power stroke.c. The exhaust stroke and induction stroke.

374. High pressure oil is required in a piston engine:a. For lubricating the accessory gearbox.

b. For lubricating the cylinder walls.c. For lubricating the big end and main bearings.

375. The oil pump which has greater the capacity is:a. The Scavenge pump.b. The Pressure pump.c. The Scavenge and Pressure pumps must have the

same capacity.

376. The flow of fuel from the tank to the carburettor is controlledby:a. The float and diffuser.b. The needle valve and float.c. The accelerator pump.

377. Mass balance on an aileron is used:a. To assist the pilot in moving the controls.b. To eliminate flutter.c. To prevent aileron drag.

378. Aileron reversal is most likely to occur:a. At very low speeds.b. At large angles of attack.c. At very high speeds.

379. The speed at which full deflection of the flight controls can bemade is:a. Va.b. Vmd.c. Vso.

380. In a pressurized aircraft you are cruising at Flight Level 290and are at Maximum Differential. You wish to climb to FlightLevel 300. You must:a. Decrease the cabin altitude by at least 4000 ft.b. Increase the cabin altitude by at least 4000 ft.c. Increase the cabin altitude.

381. The type of reciprocating aero-engine which could use a wetsump would be:a. A horizontally opposed engine.b. A radial engine.c. An inverted in-line engine.

382. The part of the valve gear which absorbs the wear from thecam is:a. The tappet.b. The push rod.c. The rocker arm.

383. In a piston engine the spark would occur:a. About 20° after T.D.C.

b. About 20° before T.D.C.

c. 20° after T.D.C.

384. To avoid wake turbulence when taking off behind a heavyaircraft it is best to:a. Lift off before his rotate point and stay upwind of his

flight path.b. Lift off before his lift off point and stay downwind of his

flight path.c. Lift off after his lift off point and stay below his flight

path.

385. A loss of power when opening the throttle from Idle to 1500r.p.m. would be prevented by:a. The enrichment jet.b. The main jet.c. A rich idling mixture.

386. Comparing a carburettor engine to a fuel injection engine:a. Only the fuel injection engine is affected by impact

icing.b. Both are affected by impact icing.c. Only the fuel injection engine is affected by fuel

evaporation icing.

387. Aircraft ignition systems have the following characteristics:a. The H.T. system requires only a light harness.

b. The L.T. system uses a light harness and a transformercoil.

c. The L.T. system requires suppressors and is morelikely to cause radio interference.

388. The jet engine compressor which provides the biggest frontalareas is:a. The axial flow.b. The axial flow first stage and a centrifugal second

stage.c. A centrifugal first stage and an axial flow second stage.

8/18/2019 TEQ - CPL ATG_FW - 2011

16/25


389. When a jet engine starts normally but fails to accelerateabove 30% r.p.m. it is called:a. A hung start.b. A hot start.c. A wet start.

390. The most suitable property for a metal used to constructfairings would be:a. Its toughness.b. Its malleability.c. Its brittleness.

391. The lubricating system of a piston engine normally uses thefollowing type of pump:a. A diaphragm type pump.b. A vane type of pump.c. A gear type of pump.

392. The hydraulic service usually provided by the accumulator is:a. Emergency gear operation.b. Emergency brakes.c. Emergency flap operation.

393. The unit which is usually used in a hydraulic system tooperate the various services is called:a. A Hydraulic jack.b. An accumulator.c. A reservoir.

394. The best way to determine the pro-charge pressure in an

hydraulic accumulator is to operate the following service untilthe pressure drops:a. The toe brakes.b. The undercarriage.c. The flaps.

395. When operating the wheel brake system when stoppingdistance is important, the best way to use the brakes wouldbe:a. Wait until the speed has dropped to below 100kts and

then use maximum braking.b. Pump the brakes to allow cooling periods.c. Use maximum braking as soon as possible after touch

down.

396. The most modern fire detection system uses:a. A bi-metal lie type switch.b. A fire wire or live wire system

c. A thermo-couple warning system.

397. Fires originating in electrically powered equipment areclassified as:a. Class A fires.b. Class B fires.c. Class C fires.

398. The main longitudinal member in a Truss type of fuselageconstruction would be:a. A stringer.b. A longeron.c. A former

399. Manual reversion is possible on:a. A hydraulically assisted control system.b. A hydraulically operated control system.

c. A cable operated control system.

400. In a modern automatic pilot system if one of the modes wereinoperative, the pilot would be prevented from engaging by:a. The rate-rate system.b. The manual reversion system.c. The interlock system.

401. During flight, if a change is made in pitch attitude, an aircraftwill rotate around its:a. Centre of pressure.b. Centre of lift.c. Centre of gravity.

402. During a change in pitch attitude, an aircraft will rotatearound its:a. Centre of gravity and longitudinal axis.b. Centre of pressure and lateral axis.c. Centre of gravity and lateral axis.

403. Rotation about the lateral axis is known as:a. Yawing and is controlled with rudder.b. Rolling and is controlled with the ailerons.c. Pitching and is controlled with the elevator.

404. During a change in bank, an aircraft will rotate around its:a. Centre of gravity and longitudinal axis.b. Centre of gravity and lateral axis.c. Centre of pressure and longitudinal axis.

405. Rotation about the longitudinal axis is known as:a. Yawing and is controlled with the rudder.b. Rolling and is controlled with the ailerons.c. Rolling and is controlled with the rudder.

406. The three axis of the aircraft intersect at the:a. Centre of pressure.b. Centre of gravity.c. Midpoint of the datum line.

407. Aspect ratio of the wing is defined as:a. Wingspan to the wing root.b. Square of the chord to the wingspan.c. Wingspan to the mean aerodynamic chord.

408. The angle between the chord line of a wing and thelongitudinal axis of the aircraft is known as the angle of:a. Dihedral.b. Incidence.c. Attack.

409. The angle between the chord of an airfoil and its direction ofmotion relative to the air is known as:a. The dihedral angle.b. The angle of attack.c. The angle of incidence.

410. The angle between the chord line of an airfoil and the relativeairflow is known as the angle of:a. Attack.b. Incidence.c. Longitudinal dihedral.

411. Lift on a wing is most properly defined as the:a. Force produced perpendicular to the longitudinal axis.b. Reduced pressure resulting from a smooth flow of air

over a curved surface and acting perpendicular to themean surface.

c. Force produced perpendicular to the relative airflow.

412. The lift produced by an airfoil is the force produced:a. Halfway between the chord line and the relative airflow.b. Opposite to the relative airflow.c. Perpendicular to the airflow.

413. During flight with a zero angle of attack, the pressure alongthe upper surface of the wing should be:a. Less than atmospheric pressure.b. Equal to atmospheric pressure.

c. Greater than atmospheric pressure.

414. With reference to angle of attack:a. An increase in angle of attack will increase impact

pressure below the wing, and decrease drag.b. An increase in angle of attack will increase impact

pressure below the wing, and increase drag.c. A decrease in angle of attack will increase impact

pressure below the wing, and increase drag.

8/18/2019 TEQ - CPL ATG_FW - 2011

17/25


415. In order to maintain altitude whilst decreasing speed the pilotshould:a. Increase the angle of attack to compensate for

decreasing lift.b. Maintain a constant angle of attack until the desired

airspeed is reached, then increase the angle of attack.c. Increase the angle of attack to produce more lift than

weight.

416. The point on the aerofoil through which lift acts is called the:a. Centre of pressure.b. Centre of gravity.c. Aerodynamic centre..

417. When the angle of attack of an airfoil is increased from 1º to8º the centre of pressure will:a. Remain unaffected.b. Move forward.c. Move aft.

418. Both lift and drag of an aerofoil are:a. Proportional to the square of the velocity (V²) of the

relative airflow.b. Proportional to the increases and decreases in the

velocity of the relative airflow.c. Inversely proportional to the area of the wing.

419. If the airspeed of an aircraft is doubled but the angle of attackis held constant, th eparasite drag will:a. Remain the same.

b. Be four times greater.c. Double.

420. Assume the aircraft is cruising at 100 mph and creating1000 lb of drag. If the angle of attack remains the same butthe airspeed is doubled, the total drag would be increased to:a. 4000 lbb. 3000 lbc. 2000 lb

421. Which of the following statements generally describes therelationship of the forces acting on an aircraft that is c limbingat a constant airspeed and at a constant power:a. Thrust is greater than drag, lift is greater than weight.b. Thrust is greater than drag, lift is greater equal to

weight.c. Total thrust is equal to total drag, total lift is equal to

total weight.

422. The reason a light general aviation aeroplane tends to nosedown during power reductions, is that the:a. Thrust line acts horizontally and above the force of

drag.b. Centre of gravity is located forward of the centre of

pressure.c. Centre of pressure is located forward of the centre of

gravity.

423. Frost on an aircraft’s wings will have the effect on anaircraft’s performance of:a. Decreasing the lift and decreasing the drag.b. Increasing the lift and decreasing the drag.c. Decreasing the lift and increasing the drag.

424. Frost covering the upper surface of an aerofoil will usually

cause:a. The aircraft to stall at an angle of attack that is lowerthan normal.

b. The aircraft to stall at an angle of attack that is higherthan normal.

c. No problem for pilots of light aircraft.

425. What determines the angle of attack at which an aircraftstalls:a. Design of the wing.b. Load factor.c. True airspeed.

426. In all aircraft stalls are caused by:a. A loss of airspeed.b. Exceeding the critical angle of pitch.c. Exceeding the critical angle of attack.

427. For a given aerofoil, the angle of attack which results in astall:a. Remains constant regardless of bank, load factor or

airspeed.b. Varies directly with the degree of bank.c. Varies with the speed of airflow around the airfoil.

428. The angle of attack at which the aircraft stalls:a. Is dependant upon the speed of the airflow over the

wings.b. Is a function of speed and density altitude.c. Will remain constant regardless of gross weight.

429. Which statement is true relating to factors which producestalls:a. The stalling angle of attack depends upon the speed of

the airflow over the wings.b. Is a function of speed and density altitude.c. Will remain constant regardless of gross weight.

430. Indicated stall speed is affected by:a. Angle of attack, weight, and air density.b. Weight, load factor, and power.c. Load factor, angle of attack, and power.

431. An aircraft in a steep-banked turn stalls at a higher IAS thanit does with the wings level, because in the turn:a. The critical angle of attack has decreased.b. The critical angle of attack is reached at a higher IAS.c. Total lift has decreased.

432. Turbulent air causes an increase in stall speed because:a. The TAS is abruptly increased.b. The load factor is suddenly decreased.c. The angle of attack is increased.

433. To produce the desired effect, trim tabs must be adjusted:a. In such a direction as to remain flush with the primary

control surfaces they affect.b. In the same direction as the primary control surfaces

they affect.c. In the opposite direction to the primary control surfaces

they affect.

434. Regarding the use of rudder in conventional aircraft tocompensate for the effects of torque:a. If airspeed is decreased (power constant), right rudder

pressure must be added.b. If power is reduced (airspeed constant), right rudder

pressure must be added.c. If power is increased (airspeed constant), left rudder

pressure must be added.

435. The primary function of rudder, while entering a turn fromstraight and level flight, is to:a. Overcome the yaw caused by the lowered aileron on

the higher wing.b. Overcome the yaw caused by the lowered aileron on

the lower wing.c. Overcome the yaw caused by the raised aileron on the

higher wing.

436. When entering a turn, the primary function of rudder is to:a. Control yawing about the vertical axis.b. Allow the aircraft to pitch about its lateral axis.c. Prevent the aircraft from rolling about the longitudinal

axis.

437. The hazardous vortex turbulence that might be encounteredbehind large aircraft is created only when that aircraft is:a. Using high power settings.b. Operating at high airspeeds.c. Developing lift.

8/18/2019 TEQ - CPL ATG_FW - 2011

18/25


438. Choose the correct statement regarding wake turbulence:a. The primary hazard is loss of control because of

induced lift.b. Vortex operation begins with the initiation of the take-off

roll.c. Vortices tend to remain level for a period of time.

439. If wake turbulence is encountered, the probability of inducedroll increases when the encountering aircraft’s:a. Airspeed is slower than that of the generating aircraft.b. Attitude is higher than that of the generating aircraft.c. Heading is aligned with the flight path of the generating

aircraft.

440. Aerodynamically, propeller thrust is the result of the:a. Angle of incidence of the blade.b. Decreased pressure on the flat side of the blade and

increased pressure on the curved side.c. Shape and angle of attack of the blade.

441. Air deflection produced by a rotating propeller causesdynamic pressure on the engine side of the propeller to begreater than atmospheric pressure, thus generating:a. Torque.b. Drag.c. Thrust.

442. During take-off, when maximum power and thrust arerequired, the constant speed propeller should be set at apropeller blade angle which:

a. Will produce a low slipstream velocity.b. Will produce a small angle of attack with respect to its

relative airflow.c. Will produce a large angle of attack with respect to its

relative airflow.

443. To develop maximum power and thrust, a constant speedpropeller should be set to a blade angle which will produce a:a. Large angle of attack and low RPM.b. Small angle of attack and high RPM.c. Large angle of attack and high RPM.

444. To establish a climb after take-off in an aircraft equipped witha constant speed propeller, the output of the engine isreduced to climb power by decreasing manifold pressureand:a. Increasing RPM by increasing propeller blade angle.b. Decreasing RPM by decreasing propeller blade angle.

c. Decreasing RPM by increasing propeller blade angle.

445. With a CSU, if speed is increased and the power setting isconstant, the propeller blade angle will:a. Low pitch blade angle.b. Coarsen the blade angle.c. Fine the blade angle.

446. In relation to an aerofoil the propeller provides:a. More thrust and less torque than lift and drag.b. Less thrust and more torque than lift and drag.c. More torque than lift and less thrust than drag.

447. Which is correct of the following statements:a. Blade angle consists of helix angle and angle of attack.b. Helix angle consists of blade angle and angle of attack.c. Angle of attack equals helix angle.

448. The blade angle of a propeller will:a. Be greater at the tip.b. Be greater at 70% radius.c. Be greatest at the root.

449. The force tending to twist a propeller blade of a constantspeed propeller to fine pitch is:a. Torque.b. Centrifugal twisting moment.c. Aerodynamic twisting moment.

450. When establishing a climb, the proper sequence of enginecontrol adjustment is to increase:a. Mixture, followed by RPM and then manifold pressure.b. Manifold pressure, followed by RPM and then mixture.c. RPM, mixture and then manifold pressure.

451. The use of flaps will produce:a. Increased lift and decreased drag.b. Increased lift and increased drag.c. Decreased lift and increased drag.

452. The primary function of flap is to:a. Provide steeper gliding angle.b. Increase control-effectiveness at slow airspeeds.c. Permit a safer take-off over high obstructions.

453. Lowering the flaps during a landing approach will:a. Increase the angle of descent with increasing airspeed.b. Decrease the angle of descent with increasing power.c. Permits approaches in aircraft with a good L/D ratio.

454. Which statement is true regarding the use of flaps duringturns:a. The addition of flaps decreases the stall speed.b. The addition of flaps increases the stall speed.c. Using a constant flap setting and varying the b

TEQ - CPL ATG_FW - 2011

Documents