SUMMER BREAK HOME-WORK CLASS XII (2020-21)€¦ · SUMMER BREAK HOME-WORK CLASS XII (2020-21) SUBJECT: ENGLISH I) Answer in 30-40 words each: 1) Give 2 instances to show that the

SUMMER BREAK HOME-WORK

CLASS XII (2020-21) SUBJECT: ENGLISH

I) Answer in 30-40 words each:

1) Give 2 instances to show that the French loved their language.

2) Why do you think M Hamel decided to be dressed in his best finery?

3) Franz received a shock when he reached school. Comment

4) Why did the children want to laugh and cry on hearing old Hauser

5) How does the poet dispel the thought of losing her mother?

6) What did the poet realize with pain and what triggered that pain?

7) What do you understand by the exotic moment?

8) What symbol of nature does the poet invoke to say that there can be life under apparent stillness?

9) What did the iron master and Edla discover when they went home?

10) What was the biggest lesson that the writer learnt during his swimming lessons? II)Answer in 150 words each

1)Bring out the gloomy atmosphere of M Hamel’s last lesson 2)How did Franz’s attitude towards his language undergo a sea change? 3) How did the instructor help Douglas learn swimming? 4) The story ‘The Rat trap’ also focuses on human loneliness and the need to bond with others. Discuss? 5) The poem ‘An Elementary School classroom in a slum’ dwells on squalor but ends on an optimistic note. Explain?

III)

a) You are Shruti / Saurabh, Secretary, Literary Association of Queen Victoria School, Nagpur. Write a notice giving details of the inauguration of the literary association activities.

b) You are Prashant / Purnima of 202, Laxmi Nagar, New Delhi. You lost your briefcase while traveling by bus from Laxmi Nagar to Connaught Place, New Delhi. The briefcase contains some valuable documents, including your Board’s certificate for All India Secondary School Examination. Draft a notification in not more than 50 words to be published in The Indian Express under their column “Lost & Found”. Include all necessary details about the lost briefcase to establish your claim.

c) You are Rakesh / Raveena, Head boy/Head girl of Oasis Public School, Bareilly. Draft a notice in not more than 50 words for the school notice board, asking the students to give their names for taking part in the Inter-class Swimming Competition IV) NOTE MAKING/ Comprehension Passage: Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow-

1. New Delhi : It seems the common house sparrow has disappeared from the city. But ornithologists maintain that while sparrow numbers are dwindling, the bird has not disappeared entirely from the city and only shifted to more inhabitable

parts. Conservationists are now trying to understand why some areas have managed to hold back sparrows and what has driven them away from others.

2. A recent countrywide survey initiative called Citizen Sparrow is now roping in residents who want to report about their experience with sparrows. So far this unique sparrow survey organized by the Bombay National History Society (BNHS) and ministry of environment and forests (MOEF) has received close to 410 responses from Delhi. Of these, 86 have claimed they have not seen any sparrows at all. But the majority seems to have sighted the bird, which gives new hope to conservationists.

3. I have seen lots of sparrows in Ghaziabad, in Sheikh Sarai where I live but hardly any in say the Greater Kailash area. What is different in GK and other parts is still a mystery. But certain factors drawing the birds have become clearer, such as they nest more around old buildings, houses or may be in houses where there are old electricity meters, kitchen gardens, shrubs, says co-in-vestigator, BNHS Citizen Sparrow Project, Koustubh Sharma.

4. Another conservationist and birder, Ananda Banerjee says she has seen lots of sparrows in parts of Lutyens Delhi, Mayur Vihar, parts of old Delhi and parts of Noida. He cites urban landscape to be the reason behind the decline in the sparrow population.

5. "Urban architecture, tall glass buildings that lack nesting spaces for the sparrow, pesticides used in farming that kill the worms that sparrows feed on are some of the reasons. Even our markets have changed. There are not many open markets where they can get grains. But you can see lots of sparrows in Khari Baoli open grain market," he says.

6. But there is no doubt among conservationists that sparrows are fast disappearing. Declining number of sparrows and their complete absence from some parts of the city isn't just about missing the tiny bird. It is an indicator of something much graver.

7. Ecologist and forestry expert, Neeraj Khera, who has been studying the sparrow population in Delhi, feels that sparrows are an important indicator species. "There is always a threshold level. Big changes like an epidemic outbreak for instance will not happen overnight, but when we cross the buffer line then changes take place in our ecosystem. Sparrows as an indicator species is very sensitive to change. So it's obvious that a lot must have changed in our ecology to have driven them away," says Khera.

8. Some of the important factors responsible are air and water pollution, loss of native herbs and shrubs.

9. Another trend being noticed by experts is the increase of rock pigeons in most parts of Delhi. They seem to have almost replaced the sparrows that used to nest in the same places.

10. "Rock pigeons have almost grown out of proportion and taken up the space of sparrows. They can be seen nesting in houses and other buildings. Studies have shown that it is not a welcome change as the excreta of rock pigeon carries a lot bacterial pathogens," said Khera.

11. She says that sparrow population is moderate in places where there are old government buildings, water bodies or green spaces. Saving the sparrow, she says is not a lost cause yet. It is the right time to intervene and check further decline. It will take 'Citizen Sparrow' survey a couple of more months to come up with the preliminary analysis of the results from their – survey and may offer a stronger argument on why the sparrows are disappearing from the city Source : The Times of india A. 2(a) What is Citizens Sparrow and who has initiated it? 2 (b) What has increased the hope of conservationists? 2 (c) According to survey study, which type of house is sparrows first choice of nesting? 2 (d) How use of pesticides in farming responsible for decrease in sparrows population? 2 (e) What did the ecologist Neeraj Khera observe? 1 B. Find out words from the passage which means the same as the following:

(a) becoming less or smaller (Para 1)

(b) secret/observe/impossible to understand (Para 3)

(c) picture of inland scenery (Para 4) C. Prepare notes & summary for the same.

SUBJECT: PHYSICS

INSTRUCTION. Holiday homework has to be done in physics notebook Timely submission is mandatory for all Internal assessment mark will be given on the basis of holiday homework

EXAM PRACTICE CBSE-Class XII

Physics

Important Questions Ray Optics and Optical Instruments

Section A (1 mark each)

Question 1. Write the value of angle of reflection for a ray of light falling normally on a mirror. Question 2. How does the dispersive power of glass prism change when it is dipped in water? Question 3. Light falls from glass to air. Find the angle of incidence for which the angle of deviation is 90°. Question 4. Name the phenomenon due to which one cannot see through fog. Question 5. What is the ratio of sini and sinr in terms of velocities in the given figure.

Question 6. What is the shape of fringes in young’s double slit experiment? Question 7. A equiconcave lens of focal length 15 cm is cut into two equal halves along dotted line as

shown in figure. What will be new focal length of each half.

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Question 8. For the same angle of the incidence the angle of refraction in three media A, B

and C are 15°, 25° and 35° respectively. In which medium would the velocity of light be minimum?

Question 9. What is the phase difference between two points on a cylindrical wave front? Question 10. What is the ‘power’ of plane glass plate? Question 11. Show with the help of diagram, why a beam of white light passing through a

hollow prism does not give spectrum. Question 12. How does focal length of lens change when red light incident on it is replaced

by violet light? Question 13. A myopic person prefers to remove his spectacles while reading a book. Why? Question 14. Lower half of the concave mirror is painted black. What effect will this have on

the image of an object placed in front of the mirror? Ans.: The intensity of the image will be reduced (in this case half) but no change in size of

the image. Question 15. An air bubble is formed inside water. Does it act as converging lens or a

diverging lens? [Diverging lens] Question 16. A water tank is 4 meter deep. A candle flame is kept 6 meter above the level. µ

for water is 4/3. Where will the image of the candle be formed? [6m below the water level].

Section B (2 marks each) Question 1. A near sighted person can clearly see objects up to a distance of 1.5m.

Calculate power of the lens necessary for the remedy of this defect. (P = – 0.67D) Question 2. A person can adjust the power of his eye lens between 50D and 60D. His far

point is infinity. Find the distance between retina and eye lens. Question 3. Calculate the value of θ, for which light incident normally on face AB grazes

along the face BC. Question 4. Name any two characteristics of light which do not change on polarisation. Question 5. Complete the path of light with correct value of angle of emergence.

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Question 6. Define diffraction. What should be the order of the size of the aperture to

observe diffraction. Question 7. Show that maximum intensity in interference pattern is four times the intensity

due to each slit if amplitude of light emerging from slits is same. Question 8. Two poles-one 4m high and the other is 4.5 m high are situated at distance 40m

and 50m respectively from an eye. Which pole will appear taller? Question 9. S1 and S2 are two sources of light separated by a distance d. A detector can

move along S2P perpendicular to S1S2. What should be the minimum and maximum path difference at the detector?

Question 10. If a jogger runs with constant speed towards a vehicle, how fast does the

image of the jogger appear to move in the rear view mirror when the vehicle is stationery the vehicle is moving with constant speed. Question 11. A person looking at a mesh of crossed wire is able to see the vertical wire

more distinctly than the horizontal wire. Which defect he is suffering from? How can this defect be corrected?

Question 12. Is optical density same as mass density? Give an example. Question 13. When does (i) a plane mirror and (ii) a convex mirror produce real image of

objects. Question 14. A virtual image cannot be caught on a screen. Then how do we see it? Question 15. Draw a diagram to show the advance sunrise and delayed sunset due to

atmospheric refraction. Question 16. Define critical angle for total internal reflection. Obtain an expression for

refractive index of the medium in terms of critical angle. Question 17. The image of a small bulb fixed on the wall of a room is to be obtained on the

opposite wall ‘s’ m away by means of a large convex lens. What is the maximum possible local length of the lens required?

Question 18. The angle subtended at the eye by an object is equal to the angle subtended at the eye by the virtual image produced by a magnifying glass. In what sense then does magnifying glass produce angular magnification?

Question 19. Obtain relation between focal length and radius of curvature of (i) concave

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mirror (ii) convex mirror using proper ray diagram. Question 20. Two independent light sources cannot act as coherent sources. Why? Question 21. How is a wave front different from a ray? Draw the geometrical shape of the

wavefronts when. light diverges from a point source, light emerges out of convex lens when a point source is placed at its focus. Question 22. What two main changes in diffraction pattern of single slit will you observe

when the monochromatic source of light is replaced by a source of white light. Question 23. You are provided with four convex lenses of focal length 1cm, 3cm, 10cm and

100 cm. Which two would you prefer for a microscope and which two for a telescope. Question 24. Give reasons for the following Sun looks reddish at sunset clouds are generally white Question 25. Using Huygens Principle draw ray diagram for the following Refraction of a plane wave front incident on a rarer medium Refraction of a plane wave front incident on a denser medium. Question 26. Water (refractive index μ) is poured into a concave mirror of radius of

curvature ‘R’ up to a height h as shown in figure. What should be the value of x so that the image of object ‘O’ is formed on itself?

Question 27. A point source S is placed midway between two concave mirrors having equal focal length f as shown in Figure. Find the value of d for which only one image is formed.

Question 28. A thin double convex lens of focal length f is broken into two equal halves at the axis. The two halves are combined as shown in figure. What is the focal length of combination in (ii) and (iii). Question 29. How much water should be filled in a container 21 cm in height, so that it appears half filled when viewed from the top of the container. (aμω = 4/3)Question 30.

A ray PQ incident on the refracting face BA is refracted in the prism BAC as shown in figure and emerges from the other refracting face AC as RS such that AQ = AR. If the angle, of prism A = 60° and μ of material of prism is √3 then find angle θ.

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Section C (3 marks each) Question 1. Using mirror formula show that virtual image produced by a convex mirror is

always smaller in size and is located between the focus and the pole. Question 2. Obtain the formula for combined focal length of two thin lenses in contact,

taking one divergent and the other convergent. Question 3. Derive snell’s law on the basis of Huygen’s wave theory. Question 4. A microscope is focussed on a dot at the bottom of the beaker. Some oil is

poured into the beaker to a height of ‘b’ cm and it is found that microscope has to raise through vertical distance of ‘a’ cm to bring the dot again into focus. Express refractive index of oil is terms of a and b.

Question 5. Define total internal reflection. State its two conditions. With a ray diagram show how does optical fibres transmit light.

Question 6. A plane wave front is incident on (i) a prism (ii) A convex lens (iii) a concave mirror. Draw the emergent wavefront in each case.

Question 7. Explain with reason, how the resolving power of a compound microscope will change when (i) frequency of the incident light on the objective lens is increased. (ii) focal length of the objective lens is increased. (iii) Aperture of objective lens is increased.

Question 8. Derive Mirror formula for a concave mirror forming real Image. Question 9. Two narrow slits are illuminated by a single monochromatic sources. Draw the intensity pattern and name the phenomenon One of the slits is now completely covered. Draw the intensity pattern now obtained and

name the phenomenon. Question 10. Explain briefly (i) sparkling of diamond (ii) use of optical fibre in

communication. Question 11. Using appropriate ray diagram obtain relation for refractive index of water in

terms of real and apparent depth. Question 12. Complete the ray diagram in the following figure where, n1, is refractive index of medium and n2 is refractive index of material of lensQuestion 13. A converging beam of light is intercepted by a slab of thickness t and refractive index μ. By what distance will the convergence point be shifted? Illustrate the answer.

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Question 14. In double slit experiment SS2 is greater than SS1 by 0.25λ. Calculate the path difference between two interfering beam from S1 and S2 for minima and maxima on the point P as shown in Figure. Section D (5 marks each) Question 1. With the help of ray diagram explain the phenomenon of total internal reflection.

Obtain the relation between critical angle and refractive indices of two media. Draw ray diagram to show how right angled isosceles prism can be used to:

Deviate the ray through 180°. Deviate the ray through 90°. Invert the ray. Question 2. Draw a labelled ray diagram of a compound microscope and explain its working.

Derive an expression for its magnifying power. Question 3. Diagrammatically show the phenomenon of refraction through a prism. Define

angle of deviation in this case. Hence for a small angle of incidence derive the relation δ = (μ – 1) A.

Question 4. Name any three optical defects of eye. Show by ray diagram : Myopic eye and corrected myopic eye. Hypermetropic eye and corrected hypermetropic eye. Question 5. Define diffraction. Deduce an expression for fringe width of the central maxima

of the diffraction pattern, produced by single slit illuminated with monochromatic light source.

Question 6. What is polarisation? How can we detect polarised light? State Brewster’s Law and deduce the expression for polarising angle.

Question 7. Derive lens maker formula for a thin converging lens. Question 8. Derive lens formula a convex lens, a concave lens. Question 9. Describe an astronomical telescope and derive an expression for its magnifying

power using a labelled ray diagram. Question 10. Draw a graph to show the angle of deviation with the angle of incidence i for a

monochromatic ray of light passing through a prison of refracting angle A. Deduce the relation

= Question 11. State the condition under which the phenomenon of diffraction of light takes

place. Derive an expression for the width of the central maximum due to diffraction of light at a single slit. Also draw the intensity pattern with angular position.

NUMERICALS Question 1. An object of length 2.5cm is placed at a distance of 1.5f from a concave mirror

where f is the focal length of the mirror. The length of object is perpendicular to principal axis. Find the size of image. Is the image erect or inverted?

Question 2. Find the size of image formed in the situation shown in figure.

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Question 3. A ray of light passes through an equilateral prism in such a manner that the angle of incidence is equal to angle of emergence and each of these angles is equal to 3/4 of angle of prism. Find angle of deviation. [Ans.: 300] Question 4. Critical angle for a certain wavelength of light in glass is 30°. Calculate the

polarising angle and the angle of refraction in glass corresponding to this. Question 5. A light ray passes from air into a liquid as shown in figure. Find refractive index

of liquid. Question 6. At what angle with the water surface does fish in figure see the setting sun? Question 7. In the following diagram, find the focal length of lens L2. [40 cm] Question 8. A hypermetropic person whose near point is at 100 cm wants to read a book.

Find the nature and power of the lens needed.

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Question 9. For a man shortest distance of distinct vision is 20 cm. What will be the type and power of lens which would enable him to read a book at a distance of 60 cm?

Question 10. Using the data given below, state which two of the given lenses will be preferred to construct a (i) telescope (ii) Microscope. Also indicate which is to be used as objective and as eyepiece in each case.

Question 11. Two thin converging lens of focal lengths 15 cm and 30 cm respectively are held in contact with each other. Calculate power and focal length of the combination. Value Based Questions Question 1. A child is observing a thin film such as a layer of oil on water show beautiful

colours when illuminated by while light. He feels happy and surprised to see this. His teacher explains him the reason behind it. The child then gives an example of spreading of kerosene oil on water to prevent malaria and dengue.

What value was displayed by his teacher? Name the phenomenon involved? Question 2. Ravi is using yellow light in a single silt diffraction experiment with sit width of

0.6 mm. The teacher has replaces yellow light by x-rays. Now he is not able to observe the diffraction pattern. He feels sad. Again the teacher replaces x-rays by yellow light and the differaction patter appears again.

Which value is displayed by the teacher? Give the necessary condition for the diffraction.

SUBJECT: CHEMISTRY Q1) Solve the following questions of ch-2 solutions in your assignment/classwork notebook.

2007

1)State the condition resulting in reverse osmosis?

2) A 0.1539 molal aqueous solution of cane sugar (mol. Mass = 342 g mol-1) has a freezing point of 271 K while the freezing point of pure water is 273.15 K. What will be the freezing point of a aqueous solution containing 5 g of glucose ( mol mass = 180 g mol-1) per 100 g of solution?

2008

1)State Raoult’s law for solutions of volatile liquid components. Taking a suitable example, explain positive deviation from Raoult’s law. 2) A solution containing 8g of a substance in 100g of diethyl ether boils at 36.86oc, whereas pure ether boils at 35.60oc. Determine the molecular mass of the solute.( For ether, Kb= 2.02 K kg /mol.) 3) State the law co-relating the pressure of a gas and its solubility in a liquid. State an application of this law. 4) Define the term ‘osmotic pressure’ . Describe how the molecular mass of a substance can be determined on the basis of osmotic pressure measurement. 5) Calculate the temperature at which a solution containing 54 g glucose in 250 g water will freeze. (Kf for water is 1.86 K Kg mol-1)

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2009

1)Define: a) Mole fraction b) van’t Hoff factor 2)100mg of a protein is dissolved in enough water to make 10.0ml of a solution. If this solution has an osmotic pressure of 13.3mm Hg at 25oc, what is the molar mass of the protein?( R=0.0821 L atm K-1mol-1 and 760mm Hg= 1 atm.) 3) What is meant by : a) Colligative properties b) Molality of a solution 4. What conc of nitrogen should be present in a glass of water at room temp? Assume a temp of 250C , a total pressure of 1 atmosphere and mol fraction of nitrogen in air of 0.78 ( KH for nitrogen = 8.42 × 10-7 M / mm Hg)

2010

1)Define osmosis and osmotic pressure? What is the advantage of using osmotic pressure over other colligative properties. 2)What mass of NaCl (58.5 g/mol) must be dissolved in 65g water to lower the freezing point by 7.5oC? Kf=1.86 K Kg/mol and I for Na Cl =1.86 3) Differentiate between molarity and molality of a solution. 4) 15 g of an unknown molecular substance was dissolved in 450 g of water. The resulting solution freezes at -0.340C . What is the molar mass of the substance? ( Kf = 1.86 K Kg mol-1) 5) What mass of ethylene glycol ( molar mass = 62.0 g mol-1) must be added to 5.50 Kg of water to lower the freezing point of water from 00C to -10.00C ? ( Kf = 1.86 K Kg mol-1)

011

1)State: i)Raoult’s law in its general form in reference to solutions. ii)Henry’s law about partial pressure of a gas in a mixture. 2)A solution is prepared by dissolving 8.95mg of a gene fragment in 35ml of water has an osmotic pressure of 0.335 torr at 25oC. Calculate its molar mass if it is a non electrolyte. 3)What is reverse osmosis? 4)Difference between molarity and molality values for a solution. What is the effect of change in temperature on molarity and molality values. 5) What mass of NaCl (58.5 g/mol) must be dissolved in 65g water to lower the freezing point by 7.5oC? Kf=1.86 K Kg/mol and I for Na Cl =1.86

2012

1) Define the following terms: (i) Mole fraction (ii) Ideal Solution 2) 15 g of an unknown molecular substance was dissolved in 450 g of water. The resulting solution freezes at -0.340C . What is the molar mass of the substance? ( Kf = 1.86 K Kg mol-1) 3) Explain the following : (i) Henry’s Law about dissolution of gas in liquid (ii) Boilling point elevation constant for a solvent 4) A solution of glycerol (C3H8O3) in water was prepared by dissolving some glycerol in 500 g of water. This solution has a boiling point of 100.420C . What mass of glycerol was dissolved to make this solution? ( Kb for water = 0.512 K Kg mol-1)

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2013

(a) State Raoult’s law for a solution containing volatile components. How does Raoult’s law become a special case of Henry’s law ? (b) 1.00 g of a non-electrolyte solute dissolved in 50 g of benzene lowered the freezing point of benzene by 0.40 K. Find the molar mass of the solute. (Kf for benzene = 5.12 K kg mol–1) (c ) Define the following terms : (i) Ideal solution (ii) Azeotrope (iii) Osmotic pressure (d) A solution of glucose (C6H12O6) in water is labelled as 10% by weight. What would be the molality of the solution ? (Molar mass of glucose = 180 g mol–1)

2014

1) a) Define the following terms: i) Molarity ii) Molal elevation constant (Kb) b) A solution containing 15 g urea (molar mass= 60 g/mol) per litre of solution in water has the same osmotic pressure (isotonic) as a solution of glucose (molar mass= 180 g/mol) in water. Calculate the mass of glucose present in one litre of its solution. Or a) What type of deviation is shown by mixture of ethanol and acetone? Give reason. b) A solution of glucose (molar mass = 180g/mol) in water is labelled as 10% (by mass). What would be the molality and molarity of the solution? (Density of solution + 1.2 g/mL)

2015

(i) On mixing liquid X and liquid Y , the volume of the resulting solution increases. What type of deviation from Raoult’s law is shown by the resulting solution? What change in temperature would you observe after mixing liquids X and Y ?

(ii) How can the direction of osmosis be reversed ? Write one use of reverse osmosis.

(iii) A solution is prepared by dissolving 5 g of non volatile solute in 95 g of water. It has a vapour pressure of 23.375 mm Hg at 250C. Calculate the molar mass of the solute. ( Vapour pressure of pure water at 250C is 23.75 mm Hg)

2016

(i) Write two differences between a solution showing positive deviation and a solution showing negative deviation from Raoult’s law. (ii) Calculate the freezing point of a solution when 3 g of CaCl2 ( M = 111 g mol-1) was dissolved in 100 g of water, assuming CaCl2 undergoes complete ionization. ( Kf for water = 1.86 K kg mol-1)

2017

(i) A 10% solution (by mass) of sucrose in water has a freezing point of 269.15 K. Calculate the freezing point of 10% glucose in water if the) b) Abnormal molar mass (iii) 30 g of urea ( M = 60 g mol-1 ) is dissolved in 846 g of water. Calculate the vapour pressure of water for this solution if vapour pressure of pure water at 298 K is 23.8 mm Hg. ( iv) Write two differences between ideal and non ideal solutions.

2018

(i) Calculate the freezing point of a solution containing 60 g of glucose (Molar mass = 180 g mol–1) in 250 g of water.(Kf of water = 1.86 K kg mol–1)

(ii) Give reasons for the following: (a) Measurement of osmotic pressure method is preferred for the determination of molar masses of macromolecules such as proteins and polymers. (b) Aquatic animals are more comfortable in cold water than in warm water. (c) Elevation of boiling point of 1 M KCl solution is nearly double than that of 1 M sugar solution.

2019

1.- State Raoult’s law for a solution containing volatile components. Write two characteristics of the solution which obeys Raoult’s law at all concentrations. 2.- A 4% solution(w/w) of sucrose (M = 342 g mol–1) in water has a freezing point of 271.15 K. Calculate the freezing point of 5% glucose (M = 180 g mol–1) in water. (Given: Freezing point of pure water = 273.15 K)

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2020

1. (a) A solution contains 5.85 g NaCl (Molar mass =58.5 g/mol) per liter of solution. It has an osmotic pressure of4.75 atm at 27 0C. Calculate the degree of dissociation of NaCl in this solution. (Given : R= 0.082 L atm K-1 mol-1) (b) State Henry’s law. Why is air diluted with helium in the tank used by scuba divers? 2. (a) When 19.5 g of F-CH2COOH (Molar mass = 78 g/mol) is dissolved in 500 g of water the depression in freezing point is observed to be 10C. Calculate the degree of dissociation of F-CH2COOH. (Given Kf for water = 1.86 K kg mol-1) (b) Give reasons : (i) 0.1 M KCl has higher boiling point than 0.1 M Glucose. (ii) Meat is preserved for long time by salting.

Q2. Use A4 size coloured pages one side blank and one side ruled to write your project(already selected) which should include the following headings:

First page(includes name class board roll no, subject, aim), Acknowledgement, Certificate, Index, Introduction (of the topic), Aim, Material required , Chemical required, Theory, Procedure, observation (table/pie-chart/bar graph/readings: to be done on left side of page), Result, Conclusion and Bibliography. (If any pictures to be pasted : paste them on left side of page) Note: If readings or experiment to be taken in lab leave the data to be filled but complete the rest of the work of project file

SUBJECT: MATHEMATICS

Q:1 Write the range of f(x) = |𝑥−1 |

𝑥−1 , x ≠1

Q:2. A is a matrix of order 3 X 3 . If | A | = 4 , find | A-1|

Q:3 Write the Principal value of sin-1 ( sin 2𝜋

3 )

Q:4. Write the range of one branch of cos-1x , other than Principal branch.

Q:5 Simplify tan-1 ( 𝑥

𝑦 ) - tan-1 (

𝑥−𝑦

𝑥+ 𝑦 )

Q:6 Given A = (2 −3

−4 7) , compute A-1and show that 2A-1 = 9 I –A .

Q:7 Using the properties of determinants and without expanding, prove that |0 𝑎 −𝑏

−𝑎 0 −𝑐𝑏 𝑐 0

| = 0

Q:8 Discuss the differentiability and continuity of greatest integer function [x] at x = 3

Q:9 Prove that cos-1x + cos-1 ( 𝑥

2 +

√3−3𝑥2

2 ) =

𝜋

3

Q:10 Solve tan-12x + tan-13x = 𝜋

4

Q:11 Using the properties of determinants prove that :

|1 1 1 + 3𝑥

1 + 3𝑦 1 11 1 + 3𝑧 1

| = 9(3xyz+ xy + yz+zx)

Q:12 If A = (𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑥 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥

−𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑥) then prove that An = (

𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝑛𝑥 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑛𝑥−𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑛𝑥 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝑛𝑥

) , n∈ N

Q:13 If x = a( cost + t sint ) and y = a( sint – tcost) , find 𝑑2𝑥

𝑑𝑡2 𝑑2𝑦

𝑑𝑡2 and 𝑑2𝑦

𝑑𝑥2

Q:14 Two school decided to award prizes to their teachers for three qualities , knowledge (x) , guidance (y) and motivation (z) . School A decided to award a total of ` 8,700 for three values to 4 , 5 and 2 teachers resp. while school B decided to award a total of ` 8,500 for three values to 3, 4 and 5 teachers resp . If all the three prizes together amount to ` 2,200 then

(i) represent the above situation by matrix equation and form linear equation using matrix multiplication ,

(ii) is it possible to solve the system of equations so obtained using matrix ?

Q:15 Verify Rolle’s theorem for the function f(x ) = log 𝑥2+ 𝑎𝑏

𝑥(𝑎+𝑏) in [a,b ] , 0 < a <b

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PROJECT WORK IN YOUR ACTICTIVITY FILE WRITE THE ACTIVITY LAGRANGE’S MEAN VALUE THEOREM

SUBJECT: BIOLOGY Answer the following questions in home assignment notebook Q.1 Explain the causes, inheritance patterns and symptoms of any two Mendelian genetic disorders. Q.2 Mendel published his work on inheritance of characters in 1865, but it remained unrecognized

till 1900. Give three reasons for the delay in accepting his work. Q.3 Write the scientific name of fruit fly. Why did Morgan prefer to work with fruitflies for his

experiments? State any three reasons. Q.4 Linkage and crossing over of genes are alternatives of each other. Justify with the help of a

example. Q.5 How does the gene ‘I’ control ABO blood groups in humans? Write the effect the gene has on

the structure of Red Blood Cell. Q.6 Write the type of sex determination mechanism the following crosses show. Give an example of

each types: i. Female XX with Male XO ii. Female ZW with Male ZZ

Q.7 How many linkages groups are found in females of human and drosophila? Q.8 A hemophilic son was born to normal parents. Give the genotype of the parents. Q.9 With the help of one example explain the phenomenon of codominance and multiple allelism in

human population? Q.10 A normal visioned woman whose father is colour blind, marries a normal visioned man. What

would be the probability of her (a) sons (b) daughters to be colour blind? Explain with the help of pedigree chart.

Q.11 What does spermatogenesis occur in human testes? Describe the process of spermatogenesis upto the formation of spermatozoa.

Q.12 Describe the changes that occur in ovaries and uterus in hyman females during the reproductive cycle.

Q.13 (a) Explain the development of female gametophyte from a megaspore mother cell in an angiosperm.

(b) Draw a labelled diagram of a fully-developed embryo sac. Q.14 (a) Explain any two ways by which apomictic seed can develop.

(a) List one advantage and one disadvantage of a apomictic crop. (b) Why do farmers find production of hybrid seeds costly?

Q.15 Explain the zygote intra-fallopian transfer technique (ZIFT). How is intrauterine transfer technique (IUT) different from it?

Project Work- Prepare a project report on techniques used to diagnose Covid-19 global pandemic disease.

Note: It is preferred to use A4 size sheet to prepare your project, however, if the same is not available you may use any other sheet.

SUBJECT: COMPUTER SCIENCE

Answer the following questions in your Class Notebook -

1. Write a Python program to read an entire text file. ...

2. Write a Python program to read first n lines of a file. ...

3. Write a Python program to append text to a file and display the text. ...

4. Write a Python program to read last n lines of a file. ...

5. Write a Python program to read a file line by line and store it into a list

6. Write a Python program to read an entire text file line by line and store it in a list.

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7. Write a Python program to write a list to a file

8. Write a Python program to create a file where all letters of English alphabet are listed by specified number of letters on each line.

9. Write a Python program to generate 26 text files named A.txt, B.txt, and so on up to Z.txt.

10. Write a Python program that takes a text file as input and returns the number of words of a given text file.

11. Write a Python program to remove newline characters from a file.

12. Write a Python program to combine each line from first file with the corresponding line in second file.

13. Write a Python function to calculate the factorial of a number (a non-negative integer). The function accepts the number as an argument.

14. Write a Python program to reverse a string

15. Write a Python function that accepts a string and calculate the number of upper case letters and lower case letters.

SUBJECT: PHYSICAL EDUCATION GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:-

1. Use A-4 size coloured sheets. 2. Coloured pens can be used 3. Pile up your all work in a file. 4. Internal assessment marks will be given based on this work. 5. Relevant Pictures should be pasted in each work.

Q1.PRACTICAL FILE * Basketball, Football, Kabaddi, Kho-Kho, Volleyball, Handball, Hockey, Cricket, Bocce & Unified Basketball [CWSN (Children with Special Needs - Divyang)] **Record File shall include: (PASTE THE RELVENT PICTURES IN EACH PRACTICAL)

• Practical-1: Fitness tests administration for all items.

• Practical-2: Procedure for Asanas, Benefits & Contraindication for any two Asanas for each lifestyle Disease.

• Practical-3: Procedure for administering Senior Citizen Fitness Test for 5 elderly family members.

• Practical-4: Any one game of your choice out of the list above. (SUGGESTED GAME-VOLLEYBALL)

❖ History of the Game ❖ Labelled diagram of field & equipment ❖ General Rules and latest rules ❖ Fundamental Skills of the Game ❖ Important Terminologies ❖ Important national and international tournaments of the game ❖ Important Personalities

• Practical-5: National Sports Award (Rajiv Gandhi khel Ratan Award,Arjuna Award,Dronacharya Award, Life Time Achievement Award)

Q2. PROJECT

• Rio Olympic

• Introduction of any 5 Indian sports personality

• Diet Plan of an Adolescent Q3. SYLLABUS COVERED

• Learn all the covered chapters.

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• Complete your notebook as well.

SUBJECT: PSYCHOLOGY Write answers to all these questions in your notebook. Unit 1

1. How do psychologists characterize and define intelligence? 2. Explain case study method of assessment? 3. What is situationalism? 4. Differentiate between psychometric and information processing approaches to intelligence. 5. Calculate mental age of a girl with chronological age 12 and intelligence score of 130, explain the characteristics also. 6. Describe the development of values. 7. Differentiate between culturally fair and biased test. 8. Mention the characteristics of emotionally intelligent people. 9. How is creativity related to intelligence? 10. What are the stages and barriers of Creative Thinking? 11. How has Guildford classified Creative Thinking? 12. Calculate the age of mental efficiency of an adolescent girl with average intelligence. 13. Which of the two IQ or EQ, do you think would be more related to success in life and why? 14. What is the role of NLEPT and NCERT? 15. What are the misuses of intelligence test? Copy the notes of chapter 2 from the pdf that has been sent. Chapter 2 1. Define self and personality. 2. According to humanistic approach who is a healthy person? 3. Differentiate between personal and social identity. 4. Explain techniques for self-regulation. 5. What is meant by self-actualization? 6. Explain the views of self in different cultures. 7. What are defense mechanism? Explain regression. 8. State the characteristics of individuals with type’s personality as proposed by Rosenman. 9. Explain how projective techniques assess personality? Which test are widely used by psychologists?

SUBJCT: BUSINESS STUDIES TASK – 1

INSTRUCTIONS FOR TASK - 1:

• Questions given for chapters 1,2 and 3 will be done in the Business Studies notebook only.

• There is no need of making a separate notebook for HHW.

• Print out of the questions can be taken and pasted in the notebook. In case of non-availability of print out, questions can be written in the notebook.

CH – 1 NATURE AND SIGNIFICANCE OF MANAGEMENT 1. Define Management. 2. Explain the term effectiveness and efficiency with example. 3. Discuss characteristics/features of Management.

4. Discuss the functions of Management .

5. Explain objectives of Management.

6. What is importance of Management in business?

7. Name the levels of Management.

8. Discuss functions of different levels of Management.

https://drive.google.com/file/d/0ByIErKS8bKirU1d2NGRScnZiaFk/view?usp=sharing

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9. Name designations of different levels of Management.

10. Discuss management as an Art.

11. Discuss management as a Science.

12. Discuss management as a Profession.

13. Define Co-ordination.

14. Discuss nature/features of Co-ordination.

15. Discuss need and importance of Co-ordination.

16. Why Co-ordination is considered as essence of management.

17. To be successful, an organisation must change its goals according to the needs of the environment. Which characteristics of management are highlighted in this statement?

18. Name that intangible force which creates productive relationships among resources of an organisation.

19. Production manager tries to produce goods with minimum costs. Name the concept which is being focused by management?

20. Coordination is the responsibility of all managers. How?

21. To meet the objectives of the firm, management of Angora Ltd. offers employment to physically challenged persons. Identify the organisational objective it is trying to achieve.

22. “Management has been defined as a process of getting things done with the aim of achieving goals effectively and efficiently.” Explain briefly the three important terms used in this definition of management—process, effectiveness and efficiency.

23. “For management, it is important to be both effective and efficient. Effectiveness and efficiency are two sides of the same coin.” Comment.

24. “In the absence of management, the productive resources will remain resources and shall never become production.” Explain the importance of management in the light of the above statement

25. “Lack of proper management results in wastage of time, money and efforts.” Do you agree with this statement? Give reasons in support of your answer.

26. “Management is regarded as fully developed profession.” Do you agree? Give reasons. 27. “Management regarded as a perfect Science.” Do you agree? Give reasons 28. “Management is neither as precise nor as comprehensive as the natural and pure sciences are.”

Why? Explain. 29. Your grandfather has retired as the Director of a manufacturing company. At what level of

management was he working? What functions do you think he was performing at that level? State any four functions.

30. Your uncle is employed in Deepti Ltd., as a production manager. At what level of management is he working? State any three functions that he might be performing at that level.

31. Miss Amita is associated with Fortune Ltd. She told you that her workers have good relations with her. At what level of management is she? What may be her functions?

32. An enterprise does not have any pre-set objectives. It worked well for some years. However, now it finds difficult to survive. What could be the way to turn it into a successful venture?

33. Successful organisations do not achieve their goals by chance but by following a process. Name the process.

34. Success of Dabbawallas (who carries tiffin to offices) of Mumbai is an example of which aspect of management?

35. X ltd. manufactures tea. The production department produces more tea than required and sales department is not able to sell the total production. What quality of Management do you think the company is lacking?

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36. What distinguishes a successful manager from less successful manager is ability to put the principles and methods of management into practice. What feature of management is being highlighted here.

37. Management is an art and Science. They are not mutually exclusive but complimentary. How?

38. Without effective management the resources will remain as resources cannot be converted into productive utilities. “Do you agree”? Give reasons.

39. “Success of an organization largely depends upon its management.” Explain

any five reasons to justify the above statement.

CH – 2 PRINCIPLES OF MANAGEMENT

1. Define Management Principles

2. What is main difference between Management Principles and principles of science?

3. How are Management Principles derived?

4. Discuss Nature/Features of Management Principles

5. Discuss Significance/Importance of Management Principles

6. Write brief note on Henry Fayol (Birthplace, profession, major contribution)

7. Explain Fayol’s Principles of Management (Explanation, positive effects and adverse effects on violation)

8. Write brief note on F.W. Taylor (Birthplace, profession, major contribution)

9. Define Scientific Management.

10. Explain Principles of Scientific Management.

11. Explain Techniques of Scientific Management.

12. Give Distinction between Taylor’s Scientific Management and Henry Fayol’s Principles of Management.

13. Workers should be encouraged to develop and carry out their plans for improvements.” Identify the principle of management formulated by Fayol.

14. The production manager of Bharat Ltd. instructs a salesman to go slow in selling the product, whereas the marketing manager is insisting on fast selling to achieve the target. Which principle of management is being violated in this case? State the consequences of violation of this principle.

15. Hina and Harish are typists in a company having same educational qualifications. Hina is getting Rs. 3,000 per month and Harish Rs. 4,000 per month as salary for the same working hours. Which principle of management is violated in this case? Name and explain the principle.

16. Which principle of management envisages that each group of activities having the same objectives must have one head and one plan? Explain the principle with a suitable example.

17. If an organisation does not provide the right place for physical and human resources in the organisation, which principle is violated? What are its consequences?

18. Name and explain the technique of Taylor which is the strongest motivator for a worker to reach standard performance.

19. The production manager of an automobile company asked the foreman to achieve a target production of 200 units (scooters) per day. But he did not give him the authority to requisition tools and materials from the stores department. Can the production manager blame the foreman if he is not able to achieve the desired target? Explain briefly the principle relating to the situation.

20. A principle of management states that the work should be divided into small tasks as it leads to specialisation and increased output. Name and explain the principle with an example. State two adverse effects if this principle is not followed.

21. The directors of Bhupender Ltd., an organisation manufacturing computers, want to double the sales and have given this responsibility to their sales manager. The sales manager has no authority either to increase the sales expenses or appoint new salesmen. Hence, he could not achieve this target. Is the

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sales manager responsible for not achieving the target? Explain, in brief, the relevant principle in support of your answer.

22. It has been observed that the prevailing situation in an organization is due to the violations of the principle of ‘order’. What might have been your observation?

23. Identify the technique of scientific management which are described by the statement given below:-

i. When specialists supervise each worker

ii. Change in the attitude of workers and management towards one another, from competition to co-operation

iii. When uniformity is introduced in materials. Machine, tools, method of works and working conditions after, due research.

24. Taylor’s techniques of management are universally applicable. Do you agree? Give reasons in support of your answer.

25. One of technique given by F.W. Taylor violates principle given by Henry Fayol. Identify that and explain.

26. One of technique given by F.W. Taylor is extension of principle given by Henry Fayol. Identify that and explain

27. Name two new management techniques developed on the basis of Principles of Management 28. Why it is said that management principles are evolutionary in nature?

CH – 3 BUSINESS ENVIRONMENT 1. What is business environment? 2. Differentiate between general and specific environment. 3. What are the features or nature of business environment? 4. Discuss the importance of business environment. 5. What do you understand by the term ‘environment scanning’? 6. What do you mean by threats and opportunities, give example also? 7. Discuss dimensions of Business Environment with 2 examples each. 8. What changes were made in the industrial policy in the recent past? 9. What do you mean by disinvestment? 10. Explain the terms liberalization, globalization and privatization. 11. Discuss the impact of change in government policy on business and industry 12. What are managerial responses to changes in Business Environment? 13. What do you mean by Demonetization ?

14. Why is it important to understand the environment in shaping the future of business? 15. What are the benefits of understanding the business environment? 16. Shifts in the presence of women in the workforce come under which environment? Explain that

environment. 17. "Business environment is easy to understand in parts separately but it is difficult to understand in

totality.” Identify feature of Business environment from this statement and explain other features. 18. Identify dimension of business environment related to following situations:

i) It is common now to see CD-ROM’s, computerized information kiosks, and Internet/ World Wide Web multimedia pages highlighting the virtues of products.

ii) Demand to reserve jobs for minorities and women iii) Advertisements, including packets of cigarettes carry the statutory warning ‘Cigarette smoking

is injurious to health’. iv) Money supply in the economy v) The health-and-fitness trend has harmed business in other industries like dairy processing,

tobacco and liquor

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vi) High inflation rates generally result in constraints on business enterprises as they increase the various costs of business such as the purchase of raw materials or machinery and payment of wages and salaries

vii) The government in Hyderabad is taking keen interest in boosting IT industry as a result the state is most commonly known as Cyberabad instead of Hyderabad

19. Out of liberalization, privatization & globalization, which one is associated with .

(a) NDPL & BSES instead of Delhi Vidyut Board (b) Easy movement of information and technology with rest of world (c ) No restriction on expansion and contraction of business activities (d) Free flow of goods and services across nations

20.Explain briefly five ways in which Indian managers are responding to changes in the business environment.

---------------------------------------------------END OF TASK – 1----------------------------------------- TASK – 2

1. Select any one topic from Ch-1 and depict that topic in the form of a chart. Use your imagination

and creativity to explain the topic. It can be a simple chart or a working chart. 2. Read Ch - 1 to Ch – 3 from NCERT.

---------------------------------------------------END OF TASK – 2----------------------------------------- NOTE: Click on the link given below for curriculum – Business Studies (2020-21) http://cbseacademic.nic.in/web_material/CurriculumMain21/SrSecondary/BusinessStudies_Sr.Sec_2020-21.pdf

SUBJECT: ACCOUNTANCY

Q.1 In the absence of Partnership Deed, what are the rules related to :

(a) Salaries of partners,

(b) Interest on partners’ capitals

(c) Interest on partners’ loan

(d) Division of profit, and

(e) Interest on partners’ drawings

Q.2 X andY are partners in a firm.X is entitled to a salary of ₹ 10,000 per month and commission of 10% of the net profit after partners’ salaries but before charging commission.Y is entitled to a salary of ₹ 25,000 p.a. and commission of 10% of the net profit after charging all commission and partners’ salaries. Net profit before providing for partners’ salaries and commission for the year ended 31st March, 2019 was ₹ 4,20,000. Show distribution of profit.

Q.3 A and B are partners sharing profits equally. A drew regularly ₹ 4,000 in the beginning of every month for six months ended 30th September, 2019. Calculate interest on drawings @ 5% p.a. for a period of six months.

Q.4 Moli and Bholi contribute ₹ 20,000 and ₹ 10,000 respectively towards capital. They decide to allow interest on capital @ 6% p.a. Their respective share of profits is 2 : 3 and the net profit for the year is ₹ 1,500. Show distribution of profits:

(i) when there is no agreement except for interest on capitals; and

(ii) when there is an agreement that the interest on capital as a charge.

http://cbseacademic.nic.in/web_material/CurriculumMain21/SrSecondary/BusinessStudies_Sr.Sec_2020-21.pdf

http://cbseacademic.nic.in/web_material/CurriculumMain21/SrSecondary/BusinessStudies_Sr.Sec_2020-21.pdf

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Q.5 Simrat and Bir are partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3 : 2. On 31st March, 2019 after closing the books of account, their Capital Accounts stood at ₹ 4,80,000 and ₹ 6,00,000 respectively. On 1st May, 2018, Simrat introduced an additional capital of ₹ 1,20,000 and Bir withdrew ₹ 60,000 from his capital.On 1st October, 2018, Simrat withdrew ₹ 2,40,000 from her capital and Bir introduced ₹ 3,00,000. Interest on capital is allowed at 6% p.a. Subsequently, it was noticed that interest on capital @ 6% p.a. had been omitted. Profit for the year ended 31st March, 2019 amounted to ₹ 2,40,000 and the partners’ drawings had been: Simrat – ₹ 1,20,000 and Bir – ₹ 60,000. Compute the interest on capital if the capitals are (a) fixed, and (b) fluctuating.

Q.6 Sajal and Kajal are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 2 : 1. On 1st April, 2018 their Capitals were: Sajal – ₹ 50,000 and Kajal – ₹ 40,000. Prepare Profit and Loss Appropriation Account and the Partners’ Capital Accounts at the end of the year after considering the following items:

(a) Interest on Capital is to be allowed @ 5% p.a.

(b) Interest on the loan advanced by Kajal for the whole year, the amount of loan being ₹ 30,000.

(c) Interest on partners’ drawings @ 6% p.a. Drawings: Sajal ₹ 10,000 and Kajal ₹ 8,000.

(d) 10% of the divisible profit is to be transferred to Reserve. Net profit for the year ended 31st March, 2019 is ₹ 68,460. Q.7 Amal, Bimal and Kamal are three partners. On 1st April, 2018, their Capitals stood as: Amal ₹ 40,000, Bimal ₹ 30,000 and Kamal ₹ 25,000. It was decided that:

(a) they would receive interest on Capital @ 5% p.a.,

(b) Amal would get a salary of ₹ 250 per month,

(c) Bimal would receive commission @ 4% on net profit after deducting commission, interest on capital and salary, and

(d) After deducting all of these 10% of the profit should be transferred to the General Reserve. Before the above items were taken into account, net profit for the year ended 31st March, 2019 was ₹ 33,360. Prepare Profit and Loss Appropriation Account and the Capital Accounts of the Partners. Q.8 Following is the Balance Sheet of P and Q as on 31st March,2017 who share profits equally.

Liabilities ₹ Assets ₹

P’s Capital 1,00,000 Sundry Assets 1,80,000

Q’s Capital 70,000 P’s Drawings 20,000

Profit & loss A/c(2016- 17)

30,000

2,00,000 2,00,000

During 2016-17, Q’s drawings were ₹ 15,000 and profits during 2016-17 was ₹ 50,000. While finalizing accounts for 2016-17, interest on capital @ 5% p.a. and drawings @ 12% p.a. were inadvertently ignored. Pass the necessary adjustment entry for the above. Q. 9 Bharat and Bhushan are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 3 : 2. They decided to admit Manu as a partner from 1st April, 2019 on the following terms:

(i) Manu will be given 2/5th share of the profit.

(ii) Goodwill of the firm will be valued at two years’ purchase of three years’ normal average profit of the firm.

Profits of the previous three years ended 31st March, were: 2019 – Profit ₹ 30,000 (after debiting loss of stock by fire ₹ 40,000). 2018 – Loss ₹ 80,000 (includes voluntary retirement compensation paid ₹ 1,10,000). 2017 – Profit ₹ 1,10,000 (including a gain (profit) of ₹ 30,000 on the sale of fixed assets). Calculate the value of goodwill.

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Q.10 Calculate the goodwill of a firm on the basis of three years’ purchase of the Weighted Average Profit of the last four years. The profits of the last four financial years ended 31st March, were: 2016 − ₹ 25,000; 2017 − ₹ 27,000; 2018 − ₹ 46,900 and 2019 − ₹ 53,810. The weights assigned to each year are 2016 − 1; 2017 − 2; 2018 − 3; 2019 − 4. You are supplied the following information:

(i) On 1st April, 2016, a major plant repair was undertaken for ₹ 10,000 which was charged to revenue. The said sum is to be capitalised for goodwill calculation subject to adjustment of depreciation of 10% on Reducing Balance Method.

(ii) The Closing Stock for the years ended 31st March, 2017 and 2018 were overvalued by ₹ 1,000 and ₹ 2,000 respectively.

(iii) To cover management costs an annual charge of ₹ 5,000 should be made for the purpose of goodwill valuation.

Q. 11 A business earned an average profit of ₹ 8,00,000 during the last few years. The normal rate of profit in the similar type of business is 10%. The total value of assets and liabilities of the business were ₹ 22,00,000 and ₹ 5,60,000 respectively. Calculate the value of goodwill of the firm by super profit method if it is valued at 2.5 years’ purchase of super profits.

Q.12 J and K are partners in a firm. Their capitals are : J ₹ 3,00,000 and K Rs 2,00,000. During the year ended 30.03.2010 the firm earned a profit of ₹ 1,50,000. Assuming that the normal rate of return is 20%, calculate the value of goodwill of the firm:

（i) By Capitalisation Method and

（ii) Super Profit Method if the goodwill is valued at 2 years' purchase of super profit. 13 Calculate goodwill in the following cases:

(i) The goodwill of a firm is to be worked out at three years’ purchase of the average profits of the last five years which are as follows:

Year 2012 2013 2014 2015 2016

Profits (₹) 10,000 15,000 4,000 5,000 (loss) 6,000

(ii) The capital employed of the firm is ₹ 1,00,000 and normal rate of return is 8%, the average profits for last five years are ₹ 12,000 and goodwill is to be worked out at 3 years’ purchase of super profits.

(iii) Rama Brothers earn an average profit of ₹ 30,000 with a capital of ₹ 2,00,000. The normal rate of return in the business is 10%. Using capitalization of super profits method, work out the value of the goodwill of the firm.

Q.14 Find New Profit-sharing Ratio and Sacrificing Ratio:

(i) R and T are partners in a firm sharing profits in the ratio of 3 : 2. S joins the firm. R surrenders 1/4th of his share and T 1/5th of his share in favour of S.

(ii) A and B are partners. They admit C for 1/4th share. In the future, the ratio between A and B would be 2 : 1.

(iii) A and B are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3 : 2. They admit C for 1/5th share in the profit. C acquires 1/5th of his share from A and 4/5th share from B.

(iv) X, Y and Z are partners in the ratio of 3 : 2 : 1. W joins the firm as a new partner for 1/6th share in profits. Z would retain his original share.

(v) A and B are equal partners. They admit C and D as partners with 1/5th and 1/6th share respectively.

(vi) A and B are partners sharing profits/losses in the ratio of 3 : 2 . C is admitted for 1/4th share. A and B decide to share equally in future.

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Q.15 X and Y were partners sharing profits in the ratio of 3 : 2. They admitted P and Q as new partners. X surrendered 1/3rd of his share in favour of P and Y surrendered 1/4th of his share in favour of Q. Calculate new profit-sharing ratio of X, Y, P and Q.

Q.16 A and B are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 3:2. They admit C into the company for 1/4th share in profit which he takes 1/6th from A and 1/12th from B. However, C brings ₹50,000 as goodwill out of his share of ₹90,000. No goodwill account appears in the books of the company. Pass necessary journal entries to record this arrangement.

Q.17 A and B are partners sharing profits equally. They admit C into partnership, C paying only ₹60,000 for premium out of his share of a premium of ₹1,80,000 for a 1/4th share of profit. Goodwill account appears in the book at ₹3,00,000. Give the necessary journal entries.

Q.18 A and B are partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3:2. They admit C into partnership for 1/5 th share C brings ₹ 30,000 as capital and ₹ 10,000 as goodwill. At the time of admission of a new partner C , goodwill appeared in the Balance Sheet of A and B at ₹ 3,000.New profit sharing ratio of the partners will be 5:3;2. Pass necessary journal entry.

Q.19 A and B are partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3:2. They admit C into partnership for 1/5 th share C brings ₹ 30,000 as capital but unable to bring ₹ 10,000 as goodwill. At the time of admission of a new partner C , goodwill appeared in the Balance Sheet of A and B at ₹ 3,000.which the partners decide to carry forward.New profit sharing ratio of the partners will be 5:3;2. Pass necessary journal entry.

Q.20 Madan and Gopal are patners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3:2. They admit Sooraj for 1/3 rd share in profits. They also decide to share future profits equally. Goodwill of the firm valued at ₹ 5,50,000. Goodwill appears in the books of account at ₹ 1,00,000. Pass the necessary journal entries in the following cases:

(i) Sooraj brings his share of goodwill and existing goodwill is to be written off.

(ii) Sooraj unable to bring his share of goodwill and existing goodwill is to be carried forward. PROJECT WORK : COMPREHENSIVE PROBLEM

SUBJECT ECONOMICS Assignment

1. In 1950, the ______________ was set up with the _____________ as its chairperson. 2. After independence, India envisaged an economic system which combines the best features of

socialism and capitalism in the ______________ model. 3. In India, all the economic planning has been formulated through _____________ 4. The common goals of the five year plans in India are: growth, modernisation, _____________ and

______ 5. All the five- year plans have given equal importance to the goals of growth, modernize, equity.

True/ False? Give reason 6. One of the common goals of the five year plans is growth. What does the growth' imply?

a. A larger stock of productive capital b. A larger size of supporting services like transport and banking c. An increase in the efficiency of productive capital and services d. All of the above

7. Which of the following is not a common goal of five year plans? a. Increase in the country's capacity to produce the output of goods and services. b. Adoption of new technology in the production of goods and services to increase the output c. Increase in foreign exchange reserves of the country d. Reduction in inequality in the distribution of income and wealth

8. A good indicator of ___________ is steady increase in the Gross Domestic Product (GDP).

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9. The contribution made by each of the sectors of the economy, namely the agricultural sector, the industrial sector and the service sector, makes up the _____________ of the economy.

10. Disguised unemployment is also known as_____________________ 11. The maximum size of land an individual could have is known as ___________________ 12. Long term plan is also termed as__________________. 13. Green revolution is also known as_____________. 14. Chairman of planning commission of India was __________________. 15. Large increase in production of food grains resulting from the use of HYV seeds is

called____________. 16. Short period objective and plans are for the period of_______________ 17. Directive planning is a system where planning is introduced to direct the forces of

_____________and______________ 18. Comprehensive planning is pursued under __________and________ economy. 19. HYV seeds is known as____________ 20. When a farmer produces just for his self-consumption and not for commercial purpose is known

as_________________ 21. The system under which a set of targets is defined by the central authority of the government is

called____________ 22. The portion of agricultural produce which is sold by the farmers in the market after meeting their own

requirement is called__________. 23. Agrarian reforms cover ___________ and ___________reforms in agriculture 24. When more persons are engaged in farming than what is required to get the maximum output is a

situation of____________ 25. ___________ensures the availability of food grains at cheap and subsidized rates to the consumers 26. A program which focused on enhancing agricultural productivity is _____________.

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Project Work in Economics

The objectives of the project work are to enable learners to:

• probe deeper into theoretical concepts learnt in class XII

• analyse and evaluate real world economic scenarios using theoretical constructs and arguments

• demonstrate the learning of economic theory

• follow up aspects of economics in which learners have interest

• develop the communication skills to argue logically The expectations of the project work are that:

• learners will complete only ONE project in each academic session

• project should be of 3,500-4,000 words (excluding diagrams & graphs), to be hand-written

• it will be an independent, self-directed piece of study

Name Topic Name Topic

AAKRITI Government Budget & its Components

ARK ARYA Role of RBI in Control of Credit

AAKRITI AHUJA

Exchange Rate determination – Methods and Techniques AVISHI

Sarwa Siksha Abhiyan – Cost Ratio

Benefits

ABHINAV GUPTA Health Policies of India BHUMI Alternate fuel – types and importance

ARYAN CHAUHAN

Trends in Credit availability in India

CHANCHAL Organic Farming – Back to the Nature

ARYAN WADHWA

Role of RBI in Control of Credit

DEEPANSHI

Exchange Rate determination –

Methods and Techniques

CHIRAG SINGLA Alternate fuel – types and importance

DEEPSHIKHA Balance of Payments

DAKSH DUA

Sarwa Siksha Abhiyan – Cost Ratio Benefits

DHIRENDRA

SHUKLA


DEEPAK BHATT Organic Farming – Back to the Nature

DHRUV Health Policies of India

DEEPIKA

Balance of Payments

EKTA GUPTA


Benefits

DIKSHANT KASHYAP

Government Budget & its Components

ISHIKA

CHHABRA


DIVYANSH KATYAL

Sustainable Development ISHEETA

GUPTA

Alternate Employment Opportunities- A

Ray of Hope of Rural Development

GAURI WADHWA Health Policies of India MOHIT KUMAR Sustainable Development

HARLEEN GANGWANI

Exchange Rate determination – Methods and Techniques

MUSKAN

SINGHAL


HEMANSHI PATHANIA

Organic Farming – Back to the Nature

NIKITA Balance of Payments

ISHANT TIWARI


NISHITA

SHARMA


Benefits

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ISHITA SINGLA Alternate fuel – types and importance

PARTH MAHOR Health Policies of India

KAMAL BHARDWAJ

Sustainable Development RIYA KHATANA Organic Farming – Back to the Nature

KASHIKA KUKREJA


SWATI

Exchange Rate determination –

Methods and Techniques

MAHAK BANSAL Balance of Payments TANYA Sustainable Development

MAHEK GOEL

Alternate Employment Opportunities- A Ray of Hope of Rural Development

UMESH

SHARMA

Alternate fuel – types and importance

MOHIT GOYAL


VAIBHAV

PARASHAR


PRANAY KHANDELWAL

Health Policies of India VANSHIKA Role of RBI in Control of Credit

RAHUL NAGPAL Trends in Credit availability in India JAI GUPTA


RISHABH JAIN Alternate fuel – types and importance JIYA MUTNEJA


ROHAN MITTAL Sarwa Siksha Abhiyan – Cost Ratio Benefits KHUSHI GARG

Balance of Payments

SHOBHITA SEHGAL


MRIDUL PARASHAR


SRISHTI GUPTA Exchange Rate determination – Methods and Techniques

MUDIT SHANDILYA

Health Policies of India

TANISH Balance of Payments NEHAL AHMED Role of RBI in Control of Credit

TUSHAR GUPTA Government Budget & its Components

SAKSHAM GUPTA

Alternate fuel – types and importance

VISHAL SINGHAL Trends in Credit availability in India SAMEER KHAN

Sarwa Siksha Abhiyan – Cost Ratio Benefits

VISHESH SHARMA

Sustainable Development SIDDHARTH JAIN

Balance of Payments

YASH DADHEECH

Role of RBI in Control of Credit VISHAL KHANDELWAL

Exchange Rate determination – Methods and Techniques

YASH GUPTA Sustainable Development YASH GOYAL

AKSHAT DALMIA Health Policies of India AYUSH

MINHAS Sustainable Development

ANIKA RAJPUT Sarwa Siksha Abhiyan – Cost Ratio Benefits

BHUVAN ARORA


ANSHUL KATYAL Alternate fuel – types and importance

DIVYANSH VALECHA


ASHMIT GUPTA Exchange Rate determination – Methods and Techniques ISHA GUPTA


ASHWINI KUMAR Organic Farming – Back to the Nature

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SUBJECT: POLITICAL SCIENCE General Instructions: Do the following assignment in notebook.

(Ch-1 The Cold War Era)

Q1. Which conference was held in 1972 by the United Nations?

a. United Nations conference on trade and development

b. United Nations conference on investment

c. United Nations conference on education

d. United Nations conference on trade and defence

Q2. When and why did India sign the twenty years ‘Treaty of Peace and Friendship’ with the Soviet

Union?

Q3. When and where the first NAM Summit was held?

Q4. Why the NATO was also called Western Alliance?

Q5. Which ideologies were represented by the Western alliance and the Eastern alliance respectively?

Q6. What was the Cuban Missile Crisis?

Q7. Name any two founders of Non-aligned Movement. The first NAM summit was the culmination of

which three factors?

Q8. Study the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:

The two superpowers were keen on expanding their spheres of influence in different parts of the world.

In a world sharply divided between the two alliance systems, a state was supposed to remain tied to its

protective superpower to limit the influence of the other superpower and its allies. Most countries of

Western Europe sided with the U.S. and those of Eastern Europe joined the Soviet camp

Questions:

A.Name the two superpowers.

B. Why did the allies want to remain tied with one of the superpowers?

C.Why did the superpowers want to bring other countries into their camps?

D. What were the reasons behind the conflict in both groups?

Chapter- 9 (Globalisation)

Q1. Where did the seventh meeting of world social forum take place?

a. Porto Alegre

b. Nairobi

c. London

d. New york

Q2. Mention the main function of the World Trade Organisation (WTO).

Q3. When was new economic policy adopted?

Q. What are the causes of globalisation?

Q5. Study the passage given below carefully and answer the questions that follow:

During the colonial period, as a consequence of Britain’s imperial ambitions, India became an exporter

of primary goods and raw materials and a consumer of finished goods. After independence, because of

this experience with the British, we decided to make things ourselves rather than relying on others. We

also decided not to allow others to export to us so that our own producers could learn to make things.

This ‘protectionism’ generated its own problems. While some advances were made in certain areas,

critical sectors such as health, housing and primary education did not receive the attention they deserved.

India had a fairly sluggish rate of economic growth.

Questions:

A. After independence, India decided to produce articles of daily use on its own. Give reasons.

B. Why did India not allow others to export to us?

C. Why had India a fairly sluggish rate of economic growth?

Q6. Define globalisation. Describe any three economic implications of globalisation.

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Chapter-8 (Environment and Natural Resources)

Q1. What do you mean by ‘global North’ and ‘global South’?

Q2. Why should the ‘environmental concerns’ be part of contemporary global politics?

Q3. At the Rio Summit which difference became clear between the First World and the Third World

countries?

Q4. What was Brundtland Report?

Q5. What is UNEP? What does the UNEP stand for?

Q6. Cooperation over the global commons is not easy. Explain.

Q7. Identify the most important outcome of the Rio summit.

Q8. Explain India’s stand on environmental issues.

9. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:

This summit was attended by 170 states, thousands of NGOs and many multinational corporations. Five

years earlier, the 1987 Brundtland Report, Our Common Future, had warned that traditional patterns of

economic growth were not sustainable in the long term, especially in view of the demands of the South

for further industrial development. What was obvious at this Summit was that the rich and developed

countries of the First World, called the ‘global North’, were pursuing a different environmental agenda

than the poor and developing countries of the Third World, called the ‘global South’. Whereas the

Northern states were concerned with ozone depletion and global warming, the Southern states were

anxious to address the relationship between economic development and environmental management.

Questions:

A. Which summit has been referred to in the passage given above?

B. Name two countries each from the First World and the Third World.

C. Why were the traditional patterns of economic growth not considered to be sustainable in

the long term?

Map Skill:

Q. On a political outline map of world locate and label the following and symbolise them as indicate.

Questions:

1. A landlocked country with multi-party competition.

2. Centrally located and shares borders with most South Asian Countries.

3. Earlier the island had Sultan as head, now it’s a republic.

4. A landlocked country with a monarchy. Country, where military has prevailed over

democracy

General Instructions:

Prepare a project file with following guidelines:

1. The total length of the project report should not be more than 15 written pages of foolscap size (A-4

size) sheet.

2. The project report should be handwritten and credit will be awarded to original drawings, illustrations

and creative use of eco-friendly material. It should be well researched based on facts and figures,

newspaper clippings and pictures.

3. The project report should be presented in a neatly bound simple folder.

4. The project report should be developed and presented in this order:

a) Cover page showing project title, student information, school and year.

b) List of contents with page numbers.

c) Certificate page

d) Acknowledgements (acknowledging the institution, offices and libraries visited and persons who have

helped).

e) Chapters with relevant headings.

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f) Summary and conclusions based on findings.

g) Bibliography: should have the Title, author, publisher and if a website the name of the website

1. Nikita and Deepanshi

Topic: Globalisation

• Introduction

• Meaning

• Causes of Globalisation

• Positive & Negative impact

•Consequences of Globalisation: Political, Economic and Cultural.

•Conclusion

2. Dhruv Dahiya and Umesh

Topic: Recent developments in Indian politics from 2014 to 2020

• How BJP emerged

• Ideology

• Prominent members

• Strategies

• Major steps

• How it impacted people

• Conclusion

3. Tanya and Vaibhav

Topic: Developed countries make expensive weapons & complicated treaties to save developing

countries in the name of security. Do you agree? Emphasis this statement in context of Syria

Crisis.

• The beginning & roots of the conflicts

• The various parties involved

• Russian & American intervention

• Statistics quoting the devastation & displacement

• Mass migration to other countries

• Casualties over the year

• UN efforts

• Recent developments

4. Jatin and Esha

Topic: India & its Neighbouring countries and their relations with each other.

• Pakistan

• Nepal

• Bangladesh

• Sri Lanka

• Maldives.

• Bhutan

• Conclusion

5. Avishi and Riya

Topic: Gun Control in the western world.

• Introduction

• Causes of gun violence

• Consequences of gun violence

• Case study 1: USA

• Social movements: for Example, march for our lives

• Case study 2: New Zealand

• Other countries laws

• India’s gun control

• A comparison: India & US measures to prevent Gun Violence

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• UN efforts

• Conclusion

6. Khushi Wahi and Khushi Rana

Topic: NAM (Non-Aligned Movement)

•What is NAM?

•Founders of NAM

• Origin

• Benefits

• Limitations

• Relevance in the present world

• Conclusion

7. Janvi and Deepika

Topic: The process behind reorganisation of Indian states.

• Introduction

• State reorganisation commission

• SRC: implementation & controversies

• State reorganisation act 1956

• Political integration after independence

• Movement for linguistic states

• Related changes by other legislation

• Effect after changes

• Conclusion

8. Deepshikha and Vanshika

Topic: Trade war between US & China

• Introduction

• US-China Trade Relations

• The US Merchandise Exports to China

• Major US Merchandise Imports from China

• China as a Major Centre for Global Supply Chains

• Adverse Effect on US Business Interests

• Job Opportunities

• Rise of China

• View from China

• Effect on other countries

• China joined WTO

• Stock market

• Domestic politics

• Case study impact of trade war on India

• Conclusion

9. Ark and Mohit

Topic: Operation Blue Star

• Introduction

• Social composition

• Creation of Punjab

• Akali dal

• Demand for autonomy

• Cycle of violence: extremist movement

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• 1984 Operation began

• After effects

• Consequences

• Conclusion

10. Kunj and Muskan

Topic: Imposition of Emergency in India (1975)

• Background

• Introduction

• Causes for emergency

• Consequences

• Controversies regarding emergency

• Lessons of the emergency

• Resistance to emergency

• Conclusion

11. Dhirendra and Keshav

Topic: Emergence of BRICS as an economic bloc.

• Introduction

• Background

• History

• Geography

• Members.

• Objectives

• Summits

• Recent developments

• Conclusion

12. Parth and Prerna

Topic: SAARC

• What is SAARC?

• Members of SAARC

• Origin

• Benefits

• Limitations

• Relevance in the present world

• Conclusion

13. Rahul and Sarthak.

Topic: UNO and its organs

• Evolution of the UN

• UN Secretaries General

• Security Council

• General Assembly

• Economic & Social Council

• International Court of Justice

• Secretariat

• Trusteeship Council (Suspended on November 1, 1994)

• Reform of UN after the Cold War

• Conclusion

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14. Sumit and Dev.

Topic: Environment and Natural Resources.

• Environmental concerns in Global Politics.

• Rio Summit.

• The protection of Global Commons.

• Common but differentiated responsibilities

• India’s stand on Environmental issues.

• Environmental Movements.

• Conclusion.

15. Dhruv Singla and Uday.

Topic: Soviet Union

• What was the Soviet System?

• Leaders of the Soviet Union.

• Gorbachev and the disintegration.

• Why do Soviet Union disintegrate?

• Consequences of disintegration.

16. Firdosh and Rishank.

Topic: NITI AAYOG

• What is NITI AAYOG?

• Evolution of NITI AAYOG.

• Functions of NITI AAYOG.

• Objectives of NITI AAYOG.

• 7 pillars of effective governance envisaged by NITI AAYOG.

• Composition of NITI AAYOG.

• Difference between NITI AAYOG and Planning Commission.

17. Vishnu and Vansh.

Topic: Rise of popular movements.

• Chipko Movement.

• Anti – Arrack Movement

• Narmada Bachao Aandolan.

• Lessons from popular movements.

18. Surender and Sujal.

Topic: Challenges of Nation Building.

• Challenges for the new nation.

• Three Challenges.

• Partition: displacement and rehabilitation.

• Process of partition.

• Consequences of Partition.

• Integration of princely states. .

• India before and after Partition

• Conclusion

SUBJECT: GEOGRAPHY

1. ‘Almost equal birth and death rates’ is a characteristic feature of which of the following country’s population? a. Nigeria b. India c. Sri Lanka d. Australia

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2.Which of the following countries attained a top rank in terms of its Human Development Index Value? a. Norway b. Denmark c. Netherlands d. Ireland

3. Which of the following is the meaning of development?

a. Negative as well as positive

b. Qualitative change which is always value positive

c. When there is quantitative change, development takes place

d. None of the above

4. Which of the following states performs much better in human development despite having lower per capita income?

a. Punjab b. Haryana c. Kerala d. Tamil Nadu

5. The first urban settlement to reach a population of one million was the city of----------.

a. Paris b. London c. Mumbai d. Shanghai

6. Which of the following criteria is taken into consideration by most of the countries to mark an urban place?

a. Size of population b. Location c. Occupational structure d. Administrative set

7. Which of the following towns is classified as a planned town? a. Canberra b. Kolkata c. Allahabad 8. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?

d. Tehran

Scholar Approach

(A)Friedrich Ratzel Determinism

(B)Ellen C. Semple Welfare

(C)Griffith Taylor Neo Determinism

(D)Vidal de la Blache Possibilism

9. The theme of human geography is based on –

(A) The study of nature

(B) The study of human beings and their activities

(C) The relationship between man and his natural environment

(D) The study of phenomenon occurred on the surface of the earth

10. Which factors affect the mortality rate of a region? a. Demographic Structure b. Social advancement

c. Level of its economic development d. All the above

11. Consider the following statements and choose the correct option from the given options-

1. Population grew rapidly during the sixteenth and seventeenth century.

2. Expansion of world trade during the sixteenth and seventeenth century is an important cause of it. a. Only 1 is correct. b. Only 2 is correct c. Both the statements are incorrect

d. Both statements are correct and statement 2 correctly explains the statement 1.

12. Which one of the following figures represents the working age group of the population? a. 15 to 65 years b. 15 to 64 years c. 15 to 66 years d. 15 to 59 years

13. Describe the rural-urban composition of population.

14. What is sex ratio? why is sex ratio unfavourable to women in some countries of the world?

15. Explain the three major areas that decide the ranks of the Human Development Index in the world.

16. “The knowledge of nature is extremely important to develop Technology” Support statement by giving three examples.

17.What are the three components of population change? Explain.

18. List the factors that affect the location of rural settlements of the world and explain them.

19. How is Possibilism different from Environmental Determinism? Explain with suitable examples. 20.What is human development? Explain with example the four pillars of human development in the world?

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21.What is human development? What are the different approaches or ways of looking at the problem of Human Development?

22. Explain any five major problems of rural settlement in the developing countries of the world?

23. What does the Figure given below donate? What does the shape reflect?

24. What are the factors affecting mining activities and explain its methods. 24. Differentiate between nomadic herding and commercial livestock rearing. 22. On the outline map of World mark and indicate the following features:

A. Which country is having the highest sex ratio in the world?

B. Name the country which measures its progress By gross national happiness.

C. Which country has the largest population in the world?

D. Which country has the highest HDI rank in the world?

E. Which country is largest in terms of area?

F. megacities 1.Saopaulo 2. Addis Ababa 3. Mumbai 4.Delhi 5. Shanghai 6.Tokyo 7. Canberra

G. Different grasslands in the world

SUB: HOME SCIENCE

1.Modification of normal diet to soft diet for elderly person.

2.Development and preparation of supplementary foods for nutrition programme.

3.Planning a menu for a school canteen or mid-day meal in school for a week.

4.Design, prepare and evaluate a processed food product.

5.Qualitative test for food adulteration in: pure ghee, tea leaves, whole black pepper, turmeric powder, milk, asafoetida. 6.Preparation and use of any one teaching aid to communicate socially relevant messages for children/ adolescents /adults in the community.

OR Preparation of any one toy for children (age appropriate) using locally available and indigenous material 7.Application of quality control techniques in garment industry(any one readymade garment)-

a) Fabric inspection

b) Quality of seams and fasteners/notions

c) Size labels 8. Remove different types of stains from white cotton cloth –Ball pen, curry, grease, ink, lipstick, tea and coffee.

9.Evaluate any one advertisement for any job position.

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10.Develop a leaflet/pamphlet for Consumer Education and Protection on any one of the following-

a) Consumer Protection Act (CPA)

b) Consumer responsibilities

c) Consumer organization

d) Consumer Problems ASSIGNMENT

Q1 Fill in the blanks:

1 In India……………… and …………. Are examples of preserved products.

2 Addition of dietary nutrients to a food stuff is called………………………………..

3 A broad discipline concerned with all technical aspects of food is…………………………….

4 A technique used to transform raw ingredients into finished and semi-finished products is called……………………….

5 ………………… uses food science and food engineering used to produce varied foods.

6 Mass production of food products using principles of food technology is……………………….

7 ………………….is the largest manufacturing industries in the present times.

8 …………………….is an old method of food processing.

9 An example of manufactured foods is…………………………

10 Biscuits are an example of……………………….foods .

11 ……………………. Institute in Mysore offers courses in food processing and technology.

Answer the following

Q2 List the advantages of food processing.

Q3 What knowledge should professionals in food processing possess?

Q4 What are the principles of food preservation?

Q5 What are the factors that cause food spoilage?

Q6 Classify foods with example according to shelf life.

Q7 How can we prevent food spoilage?

Q8 Classify foods on the basis of extent and type of processing.

Q9 List the three categories of food production.

Q10 Discuss the scope of food technologists.

Q11 Define the following:

A Food processing

B Food Technology

C Food preservation

D Food Science

E Food Spoilage

F Food Product Development.

Q12 What are the factors influencing microbial growth?

SUBJECT: INFORMATICS PRACTICES

Answer the following questions in your Class Notebook - 1. What is a database ? 2. What is a database system? 3. List out the limitations of a traditional file-processing system. 4. Write the advantages of DBMS. 5. How the problem of data redundancy is solved through a DBMS? 6. What is structured query language?

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7. What is MySQL? 8. What are the 2 main classifications of SQL statements? Explain with example. 9. What is a data type? Name some commonly used data types of MySQL. 10. Differentiate char and varchar with example. 11. Write short notes on

a.) Relation b) Domain c) tuple d) attribute e)degree f) cardinality g) primary key h) candidate key i) alternate key j) foreign key

12. What is referential integrity? 12. What is a constraint? Explain with the help of an example. 12. When a table is called as a primary table or parent table and when a table is called as child table? Explain through example. 12. Write the difference between Unique and Primary Key.

SUMMER BREAK HOME-WORK CLASS XII (2020-21)€¦ · SUMMER BREAK HOME-WORK CLASS XII (2020-21) SUBJECT: ENGLISH I) Answer in 30-40 words each: 1) Give 2 instances to show that the

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