SARTHI – DELHI UPSC – CET - 2019 ANSWER KEY AND EXPLANATION FOR PAPER- 1 (GS): Sr.no. Ans Sr.no. Ans Sr.no. Ans Sr.no. Ans 1 d 26 a 51 b 76 b 2 d 27 b 52 c 77 c 3 b 28 c 53 a 78 c 4 a 29 d 54 d 79 d 5 b 30 d 55 b 80 c 6 c 31 b 56 c 81 b 7 a 32 c 57 a 82 d 8 b 33 c 58 c 83 c 9 a 34 b 59 b 84 a 10 c 35 b 60 a 85 b 11 a 36 a 61 a 86 a 12 d 37 d 62 b 87 b 13 b 38 b 63 d 88 d 14 d 39 a 64 c 89 a 15 d 40 d 65 a 90 d 16 c 41 a 66 c 91 c 17 b 42 a 67 d 92 d 18 a 43 c 68 a 93 a 19 a 44 b 69 c 94 a 20 d 45 d 70 d 95 b 21 c 46 a 71 b 96 a 22 d 47 a 72 d 97 b 23 a 48 c 73 b 98 c 24 d 49 b 74 d 99 b 25 b 50 b 75 b 100 c 1
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SARTHI – DELHI UPSC – CET - 2019
ANSWER KEY AND EXPLANATION FOR PAPER- 1 (GS):
Sr.no. Ans Sr.no. Ans Sr.no. Ans Sr.no. Ans
1 d 26 a 51 b 76 b
2 d 27 b 52 c 77 c
3 b 28 c 53 a 78 c
4 a 29 d 54 d 79 d
5 b 30 d 55 b 80 c
6 c 31 b 56 c 81 b
7 a 32 c 57 a 82 d
8 b 33 c 58 c 83 c
9 a 34 b 59 b 84 a
10 c 35 b 60 a 85 b
11 a 36 a 61 a 86 a
12 d 37 d 62 b 87 b
13 b 38 b 63 d 88 d
14 d 39 a 64 c 89 a
15 d 40 d 65 a 90 d
16 c 41 a 66 c 91 c
17 b 42 a 67 d 92 d
18 a 43 c 68 a 93 a
19 a 44 b 69 c 94 a
20 d 45 d 70 d 95 b
21 c 46 a 71 b 96 a
22 d 47 a 72 d 97 b
23 a 48 c 73 b 98 c
24 d 49 b 74 d 99 b
25 b 50 b 75 b 100 c
1
1. d
The government of India has launched various initiatives for skill development, training and for
better employment opportunities.
National career service is a national level online portal developed primarily to connect the
opportunities with the aspirations of youth. This portal facilitates registration of job seekers, job
providers, skill providers, career counsellors, etc. These facilities will be delivered by the portal
through multiple channels like career centres, mobile devices, CSCs, etc. It meets the varied
demands and requirements of the youth for information on education, employment and training will
be supported by a multilingual call centre. Hence option I is correct.
Digital Employment Exchange is an online job portal launched by the office of the development
commissioner, Ministry of micro, small and medium scale enterprises in June 2015. It enables
industrial units to find suitable manpower and job seekers to find suitable jobs. it is conceptually
similar to the traditional employment exchanges but caters to mainly the micro and small and
medium scale Enterprises (MSME) which generally employ less than 25 people. Hence option II is
correct.
Swayamsidha scheme was launched in the year 2001 dedicated to women's empowerment. it is a
self-help groups-based program with emphasis on convergence activities. the objective is to ensure
that self-help groups members avail the benefit of all schemes and services in an integrated and
Holistic manner. Through SHG formation, they create many employment opportunities for
themselves and others. Hence option III is correct.
2. d
Dumping refers to a situation when goods are exported to another country at a price which is less
than what it is sold for in the home country or when the export price is less than the cost of
production in the home country. for example, the price of the China made table in China is 10 USD.
However, it is exported to India and is being sold at 5 USD. such a situation is referred to as
dumping. Hence option d is the correct answer. The department of Commerce in the union Ministry
of Commerce and industry has an anti-dumping unit which investigates cases where the domestic
industry (domestic producers) provide evidence that dumping has taken place by producers abroad.
They also defend cases where allegations of dumping are brought against Indian exporters by
foreign governments.
3. b
GST is an indirect tax which has replaced many indirect taxes in India. it was passed by the Indian
Parliament and it came into effect on 1st July 2017. it is a comprehensive, multistage, destination-
based tax that is levied on every value addition.
statement I is not correct. indirect taxes can be either origin based or destination based. origin based
tax (also known as production tax) is levied where goods or services are produced. destination based
tax (consumption tax) is levied where goods and services are consumed. GST is a destination based
indirect tax which is levied where the goods and services are consumed.
statement II is correct. cascading effect refers to the tax charged on another tax. GST amalgamates
various taxes into a single tax and thus, mitigates cascading or double taxation in a major way.
2
4. a
Dearness allowance is the cost of living adjustment allowance which the government pays to the
employees of the public sector as well as pensioners of the same. the dearness allowance is paid by
the government to its employees and pensioners in a bid to award the impact of inflation. Hence
statement I is correct.
Dearness allowance can be basically understood as a component of salary which is some fixed
percentage of the basic salary, aimed at hedging the impact of inflation. since DA is directly related
to the cost of living, the DA component is different for different employees based on their location.
this means DA is different for employees in the urban sector, semi-urban sector or the rural sector.
Consumer price index for industrial workers (CPI-IW) is used to determine dearness allowance (DA).
Hence statement II is not correct.
5. b
statement I is not correct. the marginal cost of funds-based lending rate (MCLR) refers to the
minimum interest rate of a bank below which it cannot lend, except in some cases allowed by the
RBI. it is an internal benchmark or reference rate for the bank. MCLR actually Describe the method
by which the minimum interest rate for loans is determined by a bank on the basis of marginal cost
or the additional or incremental cost of arranging one more rupee to the prospective borrower.
Statement II is correct. the MCLR methodology for fixing interest rates for advances was introduced
by the Reserve Bank of India with effect from April 1st 2016. this new methodology replaces the
base rate system introduced in July 2010. On other words, all rupee loans sanctioned and credit
limits renewed w e f April 1st, 2016 would be priced with reference to the marginal cost of funds-
based lending rate (MCLR) which will be the internal benchmark (means a reference rate determine
internally by the bank) for such purposes.
6. c
There are two types of open market operations: Outright and Repo.
Outright open market operation is permanent in nature. when the central bank buys these securities
(thus injecting money into the system), it is without any promise to sell them later. similarly, when
the central bank sells these securities (thus withdrawing money from the system), it is without any
promise to buy them later. as a result, the injection/absorption of the money is of permanent
nature.
However, there is another type of operation in which when the central bank buys the security, this
agreement of purchase also has specification about date and price of resale of this security. this type
of agreement is called a repurchase agreement or repo. the interest rate at which the money is lent
in this way is called the repo rate. Similarly, instead of outright sale of securities the central bank
may sell the securities through an agreement which has a specification about the date and price at
which it will be repurchased. this type of agreement is called a reverse repurchase agreement or
reverse repo. the rate at which the money is withdrawn in this manner is called the reverse repo
rate.
7. a
3
Treasury bills or T-bills which are money market instrument, are short term debt instruments are
issued by the GOI and are presently issued in three tenors namely, 91 days, 182 days, and 364 days.
Treasury bills are zero coupon securities and pay no interest. They are issued at a discount and
redeemed at the face value at maturity. For example, a 91 days treasury bill of Rs.100 may be issued
at say Rs.98.20 that is at a discount of say Rs.1.80 and would be redeemed at the face value of
Rs.100. the return to the investors is the difference between the maturity value or the face value i.e.
Rs.100 and the issue price.
Treasury bills are issued only by the central GOI. The state govt do not issue any treasury bills.
Interest on the treasury bill is determine by the market forces. Treasury bill are available for a min
amount of Rs. 25000 and in multiple of 25000.
8. b
In order to improve efficiency, infuse professionalism and enable them to compete more effectively
in the liberalised global environment, the govt identifies PSEs and declare them as maharatnas,
navratnas, and miniratnas. They were given greater managerial and operational autonomy in taking
various decision to run the company efficiently and thus increase their profits. Greater operational,
financial and managerial autonomy has also been granted to profit making enterprises referred to as
miniratnas.
Maharatnas CPSEs
Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL)
Coal India Limited
Gas Authority of India Limited (GAIL)
Indian Oil Corporation Limited (IOCL)
National Thermal Power Corporation Limited (NTPC)
Oil and Natural Gas Corporation Limited (ONGC)
Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL)
Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited.
9. a
The SDR is an international reserve asset created by the IMF in 1969 to supplements its member
countries official reserves. So far SDR 204.2 billion have been allocated to members including SDR
182.6 billion allocated in 2009 in the wake of the global financial crisis. The value of the SDR is based
on a basket of five currencies- the U.S. dollar, the Euro, the Chinese renminbi, the Japanese yen, and
the British pound sterling.
10. c
BHIM is a UPI based payment interface which allows real time fund transfer using a single identity
like your mobile number or name. BHIM is not a wallet. It is a payment application which allows
users to make instant bank transfers. One can use BHIM outside India to send and collect money for
your local accounts. But NRI/NRE accounts cannot be used for the same. A virtual payment address
(VPA) is a unique identifier which is used to send and receive money on UPI. Once a UPI address is
created and mapped against existing bank account one can simply share their UPI address with the
4
payer. Once the payer enters the UPI and send the money, it will be directly credited into receivers
bank account.
11. a
# Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY) aims at supporting sustainable production in
agriculture sector by way of –
Providing financial support to farmers suffering crop loss/damage arising out of unforeseen events.
Stabilizing the income of farmers to ensure their continuance in farming. Hence statement I is
correct.
Encouraging farmers to adopt innovative and modern agricultural practices.
# Government modifies operational guidelines for PMFBY. The farmers will be paid 12% interest by
insurance companies for the delay in settlement claims beyond two months of prescribed cut of
date. State Govt will have to pay 12% interest for the delay in release of State share of subsidy
beyond three months of prescribed cut of date submission of requisition by insurance companies.
The Govt has also decided to include perennial horticultural crops under the ambit of PMFBY on a
pilot basis.
# Apart from food crops (Cereals, Millets, Pulses), Oilseeds and Annual Commercial/Annual
Horticultural crops are also included in the crop insurance. Hence statement II is not correct.
# The scheme, as per the new operational guidelines provides add on coverage for crop loss due to
attack of wild animals, which will be implemented on a pilot basis; along with post-harvest losses
arising due to hail storms, unseasonal and cyclonic rainfalls. Hence statements III is correct.
12. d
Micro Units Development and Refinance Agency Ltd. (MUDRA) is an NBFC supporting development
of micro enterprise sector in the country. MUDRA provides refinance supports to banks/ Micro
finance institutions for lending to micro units having loan requirement up to 10 lakhs.
MUDRA provides Credit guarantee to loans under the Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana (PMMY). The
other offerings/products are for development supports to the sector which includes- Sectoral
development, Skill development, Entrepreneurship development, Financial Literacy and Institution
development.
Hence option d is correct.
13. b
Statement I is not correct: Goods and Service Tax Council is a constitutional body for making
recommendations to the Union and State Govt on issues related to Goods and Service Tax. It is
chaired by the Union Finance Minister. The Members of the Council choose one amongst themselves
to be the Vice-chairperson of the Council for such period as they may decide.
Statement II is correct: The Goods and Service Tax Council shall make recommendation to the Union
and the States on:
- the taxes, cesses and surcharges levied by the Union, the States and the local bodies which may be
subsumed in the Goods and Service Tax.
- the goods and services that may be subjected to or exempted from the goods and service tax.
- modal goods and service tax laws, principles of levy, apportionment of goods and service tax levied
on supplies in the course of inter-state trade or commerce under article 269A and the principles that
govern the place of supply,
- the threshold limit of turnover below which goods and services may be exempted from goods and
service tax.
5
- the rates including floor rates with bands of goods and services tax.
- any special rate and rates for a specified period, to raise additional resources during any natural
calamity or disaster.
– special provision with respect to the states of Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Jammu and Kashmir,
Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim, Tripura, Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand.
Statement III is not correct: Every decision of the goods and service tax council is taken by the
majority of not less than three-fourths of the weighted votes of the members presents and voting in
accordance with the following principles, namely
- the vote of the central govt shall have the weightage of one third of the total vote cast and
- the votes of all the state govt taken together shall have a weightage of two-thirds of the total votes
cast, in that meaning.
14. d
Ocean currents are large masses of surface water that circulates in regular pattern around the
ocean. Following are the factors that influence the movements of ocean currents:
The planetary winds, Temperature, Salinity, The earths rotation, land
15. d
Kochi port, situated at the head of Vembanad Kayal, popularly known as the “Queen of the Arabian
Sea” is also a natural herbal. This port has an advantageous location being close to the Suez-
Colombo route. It caters to the needs of Kerala, Southern Karnataka and Southern Tamil Nadu.
16. c
Temperature deciduous forest are found in British type of climate. They shed leaves in cold season.
It is an adaptation for protecting themselves against winter snow and frost. They are a source of
hardwood. Some of the common species are oak, birch, poplar etc. Trees occur in pure stands
enabling commercial lumbering. Pure stands mean that such forests re uniform in composition so it
is not difficult to select the desirable species for timber. These forests are also not dense which also
makes lumbering activities easier.
17. b
The important nuclear projects in India are
Tarapur (Maharashtra)
Rawatbhata near Kota (Rajasthan)
Kalpakkam (Tamil Nadu)
Kaiga (Karnataka)
Kakarapara (Gujrat)
Kudankulam (Tamil Nadu)
Jaitapur (Maharashtra)
Hence, option b is the correct answer.
18. a
6
There are four types of Iron ore qualities – Haematite, Magnetite, Limonite, Siderite.
Haematite- It is reddish and have more than 70% of metallic content.
Magnetite- It is black in colour with 60-70% of metallic content. It acts as a natural magnet.
Limonite- It is yellowish in colour with 40-60% of metal.
Siderite- It has less than 40% of metal content.
19. a
The major tributaries of the river can be classified as the left bank tributaries which include the
Purna, Pranhita, Indravati and Shabari river covering nearly 59.7% of the total catchment area of the
basin and the right bank tributaries Pravara, Manjira, Manair together contributing 16.1% of the
basin.
Pranhita is the largest tributary covering about 34% of its drainage basin. Though the river proper
flows only for 113 km, by virtue of its extensive tributaries Wardha, Wainganga, Penganga, the sub-
basin drains all of Vidarbha region as weii as the southern slopes of the Satpura Ranges. Indravati is
the second largest tributary known as the ‘lifeline’ of the Kalahandi, Nabarangapur of Odisha and
Bastar district of Chhattisgarh. Due to their enormous sub-basins both Indravati and Pranhita are
considered rivers in their own right. Manjira is the longest tributary and holds the Nizam Sagar
reservoir. Purna is a prime river in the water scares Marathwada region of Maharashtra.
20. d
The transformation of water vapour into water is called condensation. It is caused by the loss of
heat. When moist air is cooled it may reach a level when its capacity to hold water vapour ceases.
Then the excess water vapour condenses into liquid form. Condensation is influenced by the volume
of air, temperature, pressure and humidity. Condensation takes place when the temp of the air is
reduced to dew point with its volume remaining constant. When both the volume and the temp are
reduced. When moisture is added to the air through evaporation. However, the most favourable
condition for condensation is the decrease in air temp. After condensation the water vapour or the
moisture in the atmosphere takes one of the following forms- dew, frost, fog and clouds. Forms of
condensation can be classified on the basis of temp and location. Condensation takes place when
the dew point is lower than the freezing point as well as higher than the freezing point.
21. c
According to Article 51A, it shall be the duty of every citizen of India.
To abode by the constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National flag and the
National Anthem.
To cherish and follow the noble ideals that inspired the national struggle for freedom.
To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.
To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so.
7
To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India
transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities and to renounce practices
derogatory to the dignity of woman.
To value and preserve the rich heritage of the country’s composite culture.
To protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife and to
have compassion for leaving creatures to develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of
inquiry and reform.
To safeguard public property and to abjure violence.
To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity so that the nation
constantly rises to higher levels of endeavour and achievement and
To provide opportunities for education to his child or ward between the age of six and fourteen
years. This duty was added by the 86th constitutional Amendment Act, 2002.
22. d
Federal Govt Unitary Govt
1. Dual govt (i.e. National Govt and regional Govt)
Single govt i.e. the national govt which may create regional govt.
2. Written constitution Constitution may be written (France) or unwritten (Britain)
3. Division of powers between the national and regional govt
No division of power. All powers are vested in the national govt
4. Supremacy of the constitution Constitution may be supreme (Japan) or may not be supreme (Britain)
5. Rigid constitution Constitution may be rigid (France) or flexible (Britain)
6. Independent judiciary Judiciary may be independent or may not be independent
7. Bicameral legislature Legislature may be Bicameral (Britain) or unicameral (China)
23. a
The constitution of India provides for an independent office of the Comptroller and Auditor General
of India. He is the Head of the Indian Audit and Accounts departments. He is the guardian of the
public purse and controls the entire financial system of the country at both the levels – centre and
state. Hence statement I is correct.
He holds office for a period of six years or up to the age of 65 years whichever is earlier. Hence
statement II is not correct.
No minister can represent the CAG in parliament and no minister can be called upon to take any
responsibility for any actions done by him. Hence, statement III is not correct.
24. d
Third Schedule forms of Oaths or Affirmations for:
1.The Union Ministers
8
2. The candidates for election to the Parliament
3. The members of Parliament
4. The judges of the Supreme Court
5. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India
6. The state Minister
7. The candidates for election to the state legislature
8. The members of the state legislature
9. The judges of the High Court
Fourth Schedule: Allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the states and the Union Territories
Second Schedule: Provisions relating to the emoluments, allowances, privileges of President,
Governor etc.
Ninth Schedule: Acts and Regulations of the state legislatures dealing with land reforms and
abolition of the zamindari system and of the Parliament dealing with other matters. This schedule
was added by the 1st Amendment (1951) to protect the laws included in it from judicial scrutiny on
the ground of violation of fundamental rights. However, in 2007, the Supreme Court ruled that the
laws included in this schedule after April 24, 1973 are now open to judicial review.
Fifth Schedule: Administration and control of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes.
Tenth Schedule: Provisions relating to disqualification of the members of Parliament and State
Legislatures on the ground of defection. This schedule was added by the 52nd Amendment Act of
1985, also known as Anti-defection laws.
25. b
The speaker appoints the chairman of all the parliamentary committees of the Lok Sabha and
supervises their functioning. He himself is the chairman of the Business Advisory Committee, the
rules committee and the general-purpose committee. Hence, the answer is b.
Public Accounts Committee: The function of the committee is to examine the annual audit reports of
the comptroller and auditor general of India (CAG) which are laid before the Parliament by the
President. The CAG submits three audit reports to the President namely, audit report on
appropriation accounts, audit reports on finance accounts and audit report on public undertakings.
At present, it consists of 22 members (15-Lok Sabha and 7-Rajya Sabha). The members are elected
by the Parliament every year from amongst its members according to the principles of proportional
representation by means of the single transferable votes. Conventionally, chairman of the
committee is selected from the opposition and appointed by the Speaker.
Business Advisory Committee: It regulates the programmes and time table of the house. It allocates
time for the transactions of legislative and other business brought before the house by the govt. The
Lok Sabha Committee consist of 15 members including the Speaker as its chairman. In the Rajya
Sabha it has 11 members including the chairman as its ex-oficio chairman.
9
Ethics Committee: It was constituted in Rajya Sabha in 1997 and in Lok Sabha in 2000. It enforces the
code of conduct of members of Parliament. It examines the cases of misconduct and recommends
appropriate action. Thus, it is engaged in maintaining discipline and decorum in Parliament.
Rules Committee: It considers the matters of procedure and conduct of business in the house and
recommends necessary amendments or addition to the Rules of the House. The Lok Sabha
Committee consists of 15 members including the Speaker as its ex-officio chairman. In Rajya Sabha it
consists of 16 members including the chairman as its ex-oficio chairman.
General Purpose Committee: It considers and advises on matters concerning affairs of the house,
which do not fall within the jurisdiction of any other Parliamentary committee. In each house the
committee consists of the presiding officer as its ex-oficio chairman, Deputy Speaker (deputy
chairman in the case of Rajya Sabha), members of panel of chairpersons (panel of vice-chairpersons
in the case of Rajya Sabha), chairpersons of all the departmental standing committees of the house,
leaders of recognised parties and groups in the house and such other members as nominated by the
presiding officer.
26. a
The Rajya Sabha is a continuing chamber i.e. it is a permanent body and not subject to dissolution.
Hence, statement I is correct.
The constitution has not fixed the term of office of members of the Rajya Sabha and left it to the
Parliament. Accordingly, the parliament in the representation of the people act 1951, provided that
the term of office of a member of the Rajya Sabha shall be six years. Hence, statements II is not
correct.
27. b
In January 1957, the GOI appointed a committee to examine the working of the Community
Development Programme (1952) and the National Extension Service (1953) and to suggest measures
for their better working. The chairman of this committee was Balwant Rai G Mehta. The committee
submitted its report in November 1957 and recommended the establishment of the scheme of
“democratic decentralisation”, which ultimately came to be known as a Panchayati Raj. It
recommended establishment of a three- tier Panchayati Raj system- Gram Panchayat at the village
level, Panchayat samiti at the block level and Zila Parishad at the district level.
Rajasthan was the first state to establish Panchayati Raj. The scheme was inaugurated by the Prime
Minister on October 2nd,1959, in Nagaur district. Rajasthan was followed by Andhra Pradesh, which
also adopted the system in 1959. Thereafter, most of the states adopted the system.
73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 which came into force on 24th April 1993 gave a
constitutional status to the Panchayati Raj institutions. It has brought them under the purview of the
justiciable part of the constitution. In other words, the state govt are under constitutional, obligation
to adopt the new Panchayati Raj system in accordance with the provisions of the act consequently,
neither the formation of Panchayats nor the holding of elections at regular intervals depend on the
will of the state govt any more.
Hence, only statement II is correct.
28. c
10
The primary function of Parliament is to make laws for the governance of the country. It has
exclusive power to make laws on the subjects enumerated in the union list and on the residuary
subjects (i.e. subjects not enumerated in any of the three lists). With regard to the concurrent list,
the Parliament has over riding powers, i.e. the law of Parliament prevails over the law of the state
legislature in case of a conflict between the two.
The constitution also empowers the Parliament to make laws on the subjects enumerated in the
state list under the following five abnormal circumstances:
a) When Rajya Sabha passes a resolution to that effect.
b) When a Proclamation of national emergency is in operation.
c) When two or more states make a joint request to the Parliament.
d) When necessary to give effect to international agreements, treaties and conventions.
e) When Presidents rule is in operation in the state.
29. d
Article 19: Right to Freedom
Under article 19 (1) ALL Citizen shall have the right-
To freedom of speech and expression
To assemble peaceably and without arms
To form associations or unions
To move freely through out the territory of the India
To reside and settle in any part of the territory of the India
To practice and profession or to carry on any occupation, trade or business
30. d
Various features of the constitution borrowed from different sources are as fallows
A GOI act 1935: federal scheme, office of governor, judiciary, public service commission, emergency
provisions, administrative details etc
British constitution: parliamentary govt, rule of law, legislative procedure, single citizenship, cabinet
Note: 1. There is Negative marking of 1/3rd of total marks for every wrong answer for Q1 to 76. 2. There is no negative marking for Q77 to Q80. Q77 to Q80 may have two answers. For first best answer 2.5 marks will be given and for the second best answer 2 marks will be given3. Each question is of equal marks. Total Marks is 200
35
1. (d)
In the second paragraph it is written that education in society is indispensable which means we cannot
quantify the value of education. Thus, (1) and (3) are incorrect or in other words author will not agree
with these statements. There cannot be any limitation to knowledge as per the theme of the passage.
(2) is incorrect as well. Hence, (d) is the correct answer.
2. (c)
Author associated education with self-empowerment. Following the rules of society, questioning the
government and becoming an active participant of governance are too specific to be considered as
significance of education. Hence, (c) is the correct option.
3. (d)
Knowing the unknown is no where mentioned, author also did not linked education with acceptable
social behaviour. Thus, (a) and (b) are incorrect, (c) is too idealistic. Last few lines of the passage say that
education help us understand ourself better which will eventually help society as well. Hence, (d) is the
correct answer.
4. (b)
'Eternal Education' means continuous education and for a lifetime. Socially acceptable behaviour is too
specific and rigid. (1), (2) and (4) all are directly involved. Hence, (b) is the correct option.
5. (a)
Example of China talks about administrative capacities for crucial rural reforms and that include
promotion of agricultural growth as well. Thus (1) and (2) are correct. To say that growth of an economy
first starts with rural economy would be incorrect. Hence, (a) is the correct option.
6. (a)
According to author, economic growth models do not establish an explicit causal-effect relationship
between a country's rate of economic growth and poverty reduction. Thus, (a) is correct. (b), (c) and (d)
all are false as they are contrary to what passage has suggested. Hence, (a) is the correct option.
7. (d)
Towards the end of passage, author talks about addressing socio-cultural barriers for 'pro-poor' growth.
2nd paragraph also consider 'pro-poor' growth with removing inequality. Thus, (1) and (2) are correct.
Passage is referring to agricultural growth for absorbing unskilled labour. Therefore, we cannot say
anything about acquiring new skills. Hence, (d) is the correct option.
8. (a)
Option (b) and (c) are irrelevant as they are linking inclusive growth with growth of poor only. Passage
refers to inclusive growth as benefit for all. Hence, (a) is the correct option.
9. (a)
Number of digit 2 = 2
36
Number of digit 3 = 3 Number of digit 4 = 4
Case-I:
If 3 is in the first place, i.e., thousands place,
Total number of numbers that can be formed
= 3 × 3 × 3 = 27
But 3333 and 3222 are not possible because numbers of 3 is only three and numbers of 2 is only two.
So, numbers = 27 – 2 = 25
Case-II:
If 4 is in the first place; i.e., thousands place,
Total number of numbers that can be formed
= 3 × 3 × 3 = 27
But 4222 is not possible because numbers of 2 is only two.
So, numbers = 27 – 1 = 26
Required numbers = 25 + 26 = 51
Hence, the correct option is (a).
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For Question 10–12:
38
Hence, the correct option is (d).
[From statement I, II and option]
Hence, the correct option is (d).
Hence, the correct option is (d).
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13. (a)
Krishna is sister of Devika's husband, i.e., sister-in-law.
Hence, the correct option is (a).
14. (d)
Anuj and Romila are cousins.
Hence, the correct option is (d).
15. (c)
The correct option is (c).
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18. (b)
M and C cannot be selected together. Hence, (b) is correct option.
19. (b)
M C cannot be possible if M is working then O can work as well. Hence, (b) is correct option.
20. (c)
C cannot with M. Hence, (c) is the correct option.
21. (a)
2 ↔ 3
5 ↔ 4
1 ↔ 6
Hence, the correct option is (a).
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22. (b)
In circle I : 6 + 7 = 13 and 6 × 7 = 42
In circle II : 4 + 9 = 13 and 4 × 9 = 36
In circle III : 8 + 3 = 11 and 8 × 3 = 24
Hence, the correct option is (b).
OR
From option (a),
26 is not possible because 26 is an even number and eggs sold to after third customer, remaining an half
egg, who is not possible.
From option (b), eggs = 31
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Eggs given to first customer = 15.5 + 0.5 = 16; Remaining = 15
To second customer = 7.5 + 0.5 = 8; Remaining = 15 – 8 = 7
To third customer = 3.5 + 0.5 = 4; Remaining = 7 – 4 = 3
Hence, the correct option is (b).
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25. (c)
n(A∪B∪C) = 5%
Hence, the correct option is (c).
26. (d)
27. (a)
Required percentage = 11 + 6 + 5 + 4 + 5 + 9 = 40
Hence, the correct option is (a).
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32. (d)
In the first paragraph itself, passage is suggesting that pesticides increased the crop yield but it has some
hidden or implicit hazards as well, risking our farmers and agricultural fields. Thus, (1), (2) and (3) all are
correct. Hence, (d) is the correct option.
33. (b)
Since, epidemiological datas are limited about the health effects of pesticides. Thus, (2) can be the point
of contention. Level of toxicity or who will get affected is not questionable as it is comprehensively
mentioned in the passage. Thus, (1) and (3) are incorrect. Hence, (b) is the correct option.
34. (a)
Throughout the passage, author is referring to pesticides application as the one which is hazardous to our
agricultural fields, though scientific proofs are limited. Thus, (a) is correct. (b) and (c) are outside the
context of the passage. Hence, (a) is the correct option.
35. (b)
Over production, toxicity in environment, biological impact all are exaggerated. Thus, (a), (c), (d) are
incorrect. (b) is more accurate as per the theme. Hence, (b) is correct option.
36. (c)
First few lines of the last paragraph clearly suggest that biodiversity is a source of human development
and survival. Thus, (c) is correct. (b) is rigid as this cannot be the only reason for survival. (a) and (d) are
outside the theme of the passage. Hence, (c) is the correct option.
37. (a)
Biodiversity resisting climate change is incorrect. Infact, biodiversity allows organisms to fight climate
change. Thus, (1) and (2) are correct and (3) is incorrect. Hence, (a) is the correct option.
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38. (b)
Last few lines says "This has helped people manage change" which means biodiversity helps human
beings to have an evolutionary perspective on development and survival. Hence, (b) is the correct
option.
39. (c)
Example of 'wheat' was put forward by the author to show that altering and creating new varieties by
crossing genetic lines can boost productivity. Thus, (1) is correct. Example of wheat production in North
America and Asia shows its adapting nature. Hence, (c) is the correct option.
40. (c)
In 1 hour 30 – 20 = 10 feet
⇒ In (1 × 9) hrs. 10 × 9 = 90 feet
∴ In 10th hrs. 90 + 30 = 120 feet
Required time = 8:00 am + 10 hrs.
= 6 pm
Hence, the correct option is (c).
41. (a)
Let the number of cards Ramesh have = x
the number of cards Suresh have = y
and the certain number of cards = n
According to question,
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By option,
Ramesh have 31 cards. Hence, the correct option is (a).
43. (d)
Let the weight of filled bottle = 100 units
Weight of bottle = 100 × 20% = 20 unit
Weight of liquid = 100 – 20 = 80 unit
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44. (b)
Let the cost price of spirit = Rs 1
Selling price = 120% of C.P.
Hence, the correct option is (b).
45. (d)
In the principle is it written that precautions can be taken only against reasonable foreseeable mishaps
and in the situation it is written that standard precautions were taken. Now the runner suffered an injury
due to an unfortunate accident. Thus, he will not able to recover his damages.
Hence, (d) is the correct option.
46. (b)
According to principle, a person can use reasonable force for self-defence alone. Vinay fired to those
criminals who were not attacking but fleeing from the spot which result in injuring a neigbour. Thus,
Vinay is defintely liable.
Hence, (b) is the correct option.
47. (b)
A company is liable if something wrong is done by company or company's official (with full
acknowledgement of company). Now, Ketan is duping his neighbours not the company, thus there can be
a care of criminality against Ketan but not against company.
Hence, (b) is the correct answer.
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48. (d)
"Men are seldom honest" means men are sometimes honest but not always.
OR
Now, conclusion says plane triangle is not possible this can only be said when Pythagoras was right
which means Euclid cannot be right or plane triangle cannot be possible. Thus, from the venn digrram if
Euclid is right, Pythagoras is wrong.
Hence, (c) is the correct option.
50. (c)
Healthy society, strong government cannot be inferred. Thus, (a) and (b) are incorrect. Law is
indispensable for the society would be slightly exaggerated.
Hence, (c) is the correct option.
51. (a)
Passage is co-relating production with consumption or saying it to us that production should depend upon
consumption as excessive consumption is pointless. Now, if we have to contradict this we have to give an
argument that prosperity comes only through production for which consumption is also necessary.
Hence, (a) is correct option.
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52. (c)
→ Difference between 7 and 1 = 6 [6 is represented by 6 dots on 6 lines of snowflake number '7']
→ Difference between 19 and 7 = 12 [12 is represented by 12 dots on 6 lines of snowflake number '19' (2
each on 6 line)]
→ Difference between 37 and 19 = 18 [18 is represented by 18 dots on 6 lines of snowflake number '37' (3
each on 6 line)]
→ Similarly, difference between 61 and 37 = 24 [24 will be represented by 24 dots on 6 lines of snowflake
number '61' (3 each on 6 lines)]
24 dots on 6 lines + 1 dot on centre = 25 dots.
61 – 25 = 36 [Four dots will be represented on 6 cross-section.]
Hence, (c) is the correct option.
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56. (d)
Given:
A + B > C + D ...(i)
B + C > A + D ...(ii)
By adding (i) & (ii)
A + 2B + C > A + 2D + C
⇒ 2B > 2D
⇒ B > D
Hence, the correct option is (d).
OR,
Number of square of (4 × 4) dimension = 1
Number of squares of (3 × 3) dimension = 4
Number of squares of (2 × 2) dimension = 9
Required number = 1 + 4 + 9 = 14
Hence, the correct option is (d).
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OR,
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62. (d)
Two new sides are added in every next figure. Hence, the correct option is (d).
63. (d)
The whole figure rotate by 90° anticlock wise and bottom symbol is replaced with a new symbol.
Hence, the correct option is (d).
64. (a)
It would be wrong assumption to say that there are only two types of nations or republican nations do not
have a royal family. Since citizen of monarchic nations pay more tax which means there is an assumption
that monarchic nations do impose tax and decide a certain rate per it. Hence, (a) is the correct option.
65. (b)
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According to statement President failed as unemployment remains prevalent. Thus, we can easily assume
that unemployment is an indicator of depression. To say that no. of citizens who were out of work before
depression were less compared to now is incorrect as it can be possible that earlier it was more than now,
and unemployment reduces but no vanish. Thus, President failed in his promise. Therefore (2) is
incorrect. (3) is correct assumption as statement is saying that President has failed since he did not kept
his promises. Hence, (b) is the correct option.
66. (a)
R > P, Q > S > T ⇒ Q > S > T > R > P
Hence, the correct option is (a).
67. (c)
Last paragraph is suggesting that revival of agrarian economy can play a vital role in the inclusive growth
of the country, food security and in reducing poverty. And as first paragraph puts up agriculture sector
contributed maximum to the GDP. Therefore, all (1), (2) and (3) are correct.
Hence, (c) is the correct option.
68. (b)
Under the colonial regime food crops suffered from neglect and after independence import of food crops
has to be done as productivity was lowered in the food crop sector. Hence, (b) is the correct option.
69. (d)
Throughout the passage author talks about the hidden potential of agriculture sector and how it can
naturally improve the overall growth prospects of the country. Hence, (d) is the correct option.
70. (b)
Last paragraph is clearly mentioning the possibility of revival of Public Enterprises through autonomy
and accountability. Thus, (1) and (2) are correct. (3) is not correct as passage is not referring to arbitrary
spending of Public Enterprises as the main problem of their deterioration.
Hence, (b) is the correct option.
71. (b)
As the first paragraph refers to, public enterprise performance has lately come in for sharp criticism as
their contribution do not match the expectation, as they are gobbling up national resources.
Hence, (b) is the correct option.
72. (d)
A non-functional public enterprise can eat the national resources, can increase the external debt as it is
anticipated that public enterprise can do wonders for the socio-economic development but if they fail so
the anticipated change factor associated with public sector enterprise. Thus, (1), (2) and (3) all are correct.
Hence, (d) is the correct option.
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73. (d)
It can be easily concluded that if a company outsourcing its operations then there must be some benefits
related to it. Thus, (1) and (2) are correct. (3) is incorrect as saving money cannot be equated with profit.
Hence, (d) is the correct option.
74. (b)
As statement is saying that predictions are rarely accurate. Therefore we cannot predict whether record
can be broken or not. To say that July is usually dry is not correct as per the periphery of the statement.
Since Rainfall in July 2014 broke all records therefore it must have broken July 2013 record as well.
Hence, (b) is the correct option.
75. (c)
T > R > Q > P
Hence, the correct option is (c).
Following points are on the graph: (1, 1), (–1, 1), (2, 4), (–2, 4) and so on.
Hence, the correct option is (c).
77. (c-2.5, b-2)
Problem in this situation: Few female colleagues are still adamant to work with a male employee who has
been acquitted of the false charge of sexual harassment.
Appropriate course of action: It would be wise if those female colleagues are taken into confidence so
that routine work should not get affected. Sukhwinder has already made his point in front of
investigation team and since he has been given clean chit there is no point for him to give a separate
explanation to someone else. Hence, (c) is the only correct option.
78. (d-2.5, a-2)
Problem in this situation: An introvert employee not getting enough recognition in the department
though deserve it all.
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Effective solution in this situation: Leadership also means that an individual should come forward for
the organisations goals, should take more interest in achieving it, should contribute more. Therefore,
Arunima should start showing more pro-activeness in the department day to day affairs. As a result,
people will start taking her more seriously. Hence, (d) is the only best option.
79. (c-2.5, b-2)
Problem in this situation: A young police officer has lost interest in his work as he think he was not meant
for this job or it is a situation where professional expectations is not fulfilled by the current role.
Appropriate solution in this situation: Since, he has lost interest it's a loss for both the young officer and
for the police department as well. Therefore, it makes sense to advice him to take a decision and come
out with this dilemma as it would be beneficial for both young officer and for the department as well.
Hence, (c) is the only correct option.
80. (b-2.5)
Problem in this situation: An experienced professinoal been quetion marked because of his last fes
failures and not there are certain whether a new project should be delegated to him or not.
Appropriate solution in this situation: Though not successful previously but if his efforts are fine and
experienced gained is vital. Then he can be given one more chance. Rejecting someone purely on the
basis of his last few failure would be very tough benchmarking of someone's ability. Thus, (a) and (c) are
incorrect. And even to say that experience alone can make you triumphed would be a myopic view.