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PP-02 1B.1 www.TestFunda.com
ANSWER KEY
Q. Ans.
Q. Ans.
Q. Ans.
Q. Ans.
1 2
36 3
71
106 3
2 3
37 4
72 4
107 4
3 4
38 4
73 4
108 1
4 2
39 4
74 2
109 2
5 2
40 4
75 2
110 3
6 1
41 3
76 1
111 4
7 2
42 4
77 2
112 3
8 4
43 4
78 1
113 4
9 1
44 1
79 2
114 1
10 2
45 3
80 4
115 3
11 3
46 1
81 3
116 3
12 1
47 2
82 4
117 2
13 1
48 4
83 3
118 4
14 3
49 3
84 1
119 3
15 3
50 4
85 4
120 1
16 2
51 4
86 4
121 1
17 1
52 2
87 2
122 2
18 4
53 1
88 4
123 3
19 4
54 4
89 1
124 3
20 2
55 1
90 3
125 4
21 4
56 1
91 1
126 2
22 3
57 4
92 3
127 2
23 3
58 3
93 4
128 1
24 3
59 2
94 2
129 2
25 3
60 3
95 4
130 2
26 2
61 4
96 1
131 4
27 1
62 2
97 1
132 2
28 2
63 4
98 4
133 4
29 1
64 4
99 3
134 2
30 3
65 3
100 2
135 2
31 4
66 4
101 1
32 4
67 2
102 1
33 3
68 4
103 3
34 3
69 3
104 4
35 3
70 1
105 4
SOLUTIONS
IIFT 2010 1B
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IIFT 2010
PP-02 1B.2 www.TestFunda.com
Detailed Solutions:
∑
∑
( ) ∑
( ) ∑
∑
∑
( )
…(by definition of exponential series)
∑
( ) ( ) ( )
( ) ∑
( )
( ) ∑
( )
∑
( )
= (e – 1) + (e – 1) + (e – 1) = 3(e – 1)
Hence, option 2.
2. As n has to exceed 6,000,000, the first digit of n can be 6
or 7.
Case (i): The first digit of n is 6. Then the other six digits
are to be chosen from 3, 4, 4, 5, 6, 7.
Case (ii): The first digit of n is 7.
Then the other six digits are to be chosen from
3, 4, 4, 5, 6, 6.
Total number of arrangements = 360 + 180 = 540
Hence, option 3.
3. Profit is directly proportional to the annual output and
the annual output is directly proportional to the number
of machines.
We can say that the profit is directly proportional to
the number of machines.
If 7.14% machines remain closed, the percentage
decrease in profit is also 7.14%.
Hence, option 4.
4. Required probability
Hence, option 2.
(
)
(
)
Marginal Revenue is the change in total fare due to
change in number of people by one unit. It is given by
[ (
) (
)] (
)
(
) (
)
(
)(
)
(
)(
)
(
)(
)
x = 1728 or x = 576
But x ≤ 900
x = 576
Hence, option 2.
6. We evaluate options:
Option (1) Let α = 37.5, β = 52.5, γ = 45.
α + β – γ = 45
( )
√
β + γ – α = 60
( )
√
γ + α – β = 30
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IIFT 2010
PP-02 1B.3 www.TestFunda.com
( )
√
Hence, option 1.
7. Capitals of Shyam, Gopal and Madhur are in the ratio
2 : 4 : 3.
Let the total profit be x .
By conditions,
[
]
x = 9000
Madhur’s share in the profit
Hence, option 2.
8. The words SERIES had one R, one I, two Es and two Ss.
Four letters can be selected and arranged in the
following ways:
Selection Arrangements
2S, 2E
2S, 1R, 1I
2E, 1R, 1I 12 ways
2S, 1R, 1E 12 ways
2S, 1I, 1E 12 ways
2E, 1R, 1S 12 ways
2E, 1I, 1S 12 ways
1S, 1E, 1R, 1I 24 ways
Total number of arrangements = 6 + 12 + 12 + 12 + 12
+ 12 + 12 + 24 = 102
Hence, option 4.
9. If the coordinates of the vertices of a triangle are (x1, y1),
(x2, y2) and (x3, y3) then its area is given by
|
|
If the third vertex of the given triangle is (x, y)
|
|
12 = 1(−1 − y) − 4(1 − y) + x(1 + 1)
12 = −1 – y − 4 + 4y + 2x
2x + 3y = 17 …(i)
But (x, y) also lies on y = x + 5 …(ii)
Solving (i) and (ii)
Hence, option 1.
10. Let p, m and b be the number of pineapple, mango and
black-forest pastries respectively.
p + m + b = 23 … (i)
Each pastry cost as many rupees as there were pastries
of that kind.
p2 + m2 + b2 = 211 … (ii)
Substituting options in (i) and (ii), we find that only
option 2 satisfies both the equations
Hence, option 2.
11. bx2 – 2ax + a = 0
Using the quadratic formula,
√
√
√ ( )
√ √
( √ √ ) ( √ √ )
( √ √ )
( ( ))
( √ √ )
( )
( √ √ )
√ (√ √ )
√
(√ √ )
The best answer is option 3.
Hence, option 3.
12. Let Dr. Gupta take x days to complete the evaluation
work.
Dr. Sharma takes x + 10 days
As Dr. Gupta is 40% more efficient than Dr. Sharma , we
have
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PP-02 1B.4 www.TestFunda.com
x = 25
x + 10 = 35
Also, Dr. Sharma is 20% more efficient than Dr. Singh.
If Dr. Singh takes y days to complete the evaluation
work,
y = 42
Now, let Dr. Singh complete the evaluation work in n
days after Dr. Gupta has worked for 10 days and Dr.
Sharma has worked for 15 days.
n = 7.2
Hence, option 1.
[√ ]
[√ ]
[√ ]
[√ ]
[√ ]
[√ ]
[√ ]
and so on.
[√ ]
where k2 is the greatest perfect square less than or equal
to n.
Also, the difference between two consecutive perfect
squares = (k + 1)2 – k2 = 2k + 1
The required sum is
[∑ ( )
] √
[∑
]
( )( )( )
( )
= 4408
The closest answer is option 1.
Hence, option 1.
(√ √ )
( ) (√ √ )
( ) (√ √ )
( ) (√ √ )
[
(√ √ ) ]
√
√
√
√
√
√
8x = 3x2 + 5
3x2 – 8x + 5 = 0
3x2 – 3x – 5x + 5 = 0
3x(x – 1) – 5(x – 1) = 0
(3x – 5)(x – 1) = 0
√ √
x ≠ 5/3
√
Hence, option 3.
15. Let the pipes work for n hours.
By the given conditions,
( ) [
]
( )
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PP-02 1B.5 www.TestFunda.com
n ≈ 3.05
Hence, option 3.
16. f(x)=3 sinx + 3 cos x
Using the inequality, AM ≥ GM
f(x) will have a minimum
where 3 sinx = 3 cos x
sin x = cos x
√
( )
√
√
(
√ )
Hence, option 2.
17. Let the number of professors, associate professors and
assistant professors be a, b and c respectively and their
average ages be p, q and r respectively.
( )
Also,
( ) ( ) ( )
a + 6b + 7c = 5a + 5b + 5c
b + 2c = 4a
b = 4a – c
Substituting in (i),
a + 4a – 2c + c = 60
5a – c = 60 …(ii)
We find that option 1 satisfies equations (i) and (ii).
Further, the values of p, q and r in option 1 also satisfy
the other equations.
Hence, option 1.
18. Let log5 2 be rational.
( ⁄ )
5m = 2n
However, number 2 raised to any positive integer power
must be even, but 5 raised to any positive integer power
must be odd.
Hence, we have a contradiction.
log5 2 is irrational.
Hence, option 4.
19.
Let the side of isosceles triangle be x.
√
√
√
√
√ √
√
√
√
√
Area of octagon = Area of square – 4 × Area of isosceles
triangle
(
√
√ )
√ ( √ )
√
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Hence, option 4.
20. 7! = 24 × 32 × 5 × 7
The required perfect square should be divisible by 16, 9,
5 and 7.
16 and 9 are already squares. Since 5 and 7 are not
perfect squares, we multiply 7! by 5 and 7 to make it a
perfect square.
So required perfect square =24 × 32 × 52 × 72 = 176400
Hence, option 2.
21.
n(A ⋃ B ⋃ C)= n(A) + n(B) + n(C) – n(A ⋂ B) – n(B ⋂ C) –
n(A ⋂ C) – 2n(A ⋂ B ⋂ C)
100 – 3 = 61 + 46 + 29 –25 – 2(x)
2x = 14
x = 7
Hence, option 4.
22.
2x2 is a power of 2.
Hence, x2 is a power of 2.
Hence, x is a power of 2.
Also by triangle inequality 3x2 > 295
x2 > 98.33
x ≥ 10
Hence, x is a power of 2 which is greater than 10.
We try with x = 16. Then we have,
AB = 256, AC = 512
Perimeter = 256 + 512 +295= 1063, which is there in
the options.
Hence, option 3.
23. Sum of numbers before x = sum of numbers after x
1 + 2 + 3 + … + (x – 1) = (x + 1) + (x + 2) + … + 49
Adding (1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + … + (x – 1) + x) on both sides
2(1 + 2 + 3 + … +(x – 1)) + x = (1 + 2 + 3 + … + 49)
( )
x2 = 49 × 25
x = 7× 5 = 35
Hence, option 3.
24. Let the rate of second lender be y%, then rate of first
lender is (y + 10)%.
When they lend equal amounts
(
)
(
)
(
)
(
)
y = 20%
Now we evaluate options and find that option 3 satisfies
conditions.
(
)
(
)
Hence, option 3.
25. (1 – x6)4 (1 – x)–4
= (1 – 4x6 + 6x12 – 4x18 + x24)(1 – x)–4
To find the coefficient of x12 in the given expression, we
need to find the coefficients of x12, x6 and x0 terms in
(1 – x)–4
We use the Binomial Theorem for negative coefficients.
Coefficient of x12
( )( )( ) ( )
Coefficient of x6
( )( ) ( )
The coefficient of x0 is 1.
The coefficient of x12 is 35 × 13 + (– 4) × 84 + 6
=125
Hence, option 3.
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26.
Let Mukesh take Suresh on his bike till B and leave him
there to walk till C(Mathura). In the meanwhile, Dinesh
keeps walking to reach D, Mukesh comes back picks
Dinesh and then both ride to Mathura.
When Mukesh comes back, let us say he meets Dinesh at
E.
Let AB = x, then BC = 300 – x
Since Dinesh walks at 15 kmph and bike’s speed is 60
kmph, we have AD = x/4.
(
) (
)
4(300 – x)=300 + x/5
Hence, minimum time
Hence, option 2.
27.
Let the height of the cylinder be 5h than that of the
conical part be 3h.
( )
Radius of cone = radius of cylinder = 8
Let radius of hole = r
Now, 1/2(Total volume – Volume of hole) = Volume of
hole
Total volume = 3Volume of hole
(
)
82 × 6 = 8r2
r2 = 8 × 6
√
Hence, option 1.
28. Let initial production cost be 100.
Then cost of A = 10 and cost of B = 20
Selling price = 120
Cost of rest =100 – Cost of A – Cost of B
= 100 – 10 – 20 = 70
New cost = 28 + 12 + 70= 110
(
)
(
)
x 300 - x
A D E B C
(Delhi) (Mathura)
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= 138
≈ 25.5%
Hence, option 2.
29. By the cosine rule, in a ΔABC with ∠ACB = θ and AB = c,
BC = a and AC = b,
Hence, option 1.
30. Total number of subsets = 211
Total number of subsets without any even integer = 26
Hence, required number of subsets
= 211 – 26
= 2048 – 64
= 1984
Hence, option 3.
31. Create a table with three columns – date, day and
competition – as shown below:
Date Day Competition
19 Wed
20 Thu
21 Fri
22 Sat
23 Sun
24 Mon
25 Tue
26 Wed
Since there were 6 competitions and 8 days, and only
one competition was held per day; it means that exactly
2 days were completely free i.e. there was no
competition on that day. It is given that these two days
were Thursday and Sunday.
Now, street play was held on Monday.
Thus, the table becomes:
Date Day Competition
19 Wed
20 Thu n/a
21 Fri
22 Sat
23 Sun n/a
24 Mon Street Play
25 Tue
26 Wed
Flash-p was conducted a day before the debate and there
was a gap of 2 days between the debate and the group
song competition.
Therefore, there are 2 possibilities: GS __ Flash-p Debate
or Flash-p Debate __ __ GS
Now, for flash-p and the debate to be on consecutive
days, only two possibilities exist – Friday and Saturday
or Tuesday and Wednesday.
If the debate is on Wednesday, the group song will have
to be on Sunday, which is not possible.
Therefore, the flash-p competition and debate were on
Friday and Saturday respectively. Therefore, the Group
Song competition has to be on Tuesday.
Since the rock band competition was not held on the last
day, it could have only been conducted on the first day
i.e. October 19.
Therefore, the folk dance competition was held on the
last day i.e. 26 October.
Thus, the final table is as shown below:
Date Day Competition
19 Wed Rock Band
20 Thu n/a
21 Fri Flash-p
22 Sat Debate
23 Sun n/a
24 Mon Street Play
25 Tue Group Song
26 Wed Folk Dance
Thus, the cultural week started with the rock band
competition.
Hence, option 4.
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32. Consider the final table obtained in the solution to the
first question.
The rock band competition and the group song
competition were held on October 19 and October 25
respectively.
Thus, there were five days in between.
Hence, option 4.
33. Consider the final table obtained in the solution to the
first question.
The rock band and folk dance competitions were
conducted on Wednesday.
Hence, option 3.
34. Consider the final table obtained in the solution to the
first question.
The debate competition exactly precedes the street play
competition.
Hence, option 3.
35. Consider the final table obtained in the solution to the
first question.
The flash-p competition follows the rock band
competition.
Hence, option 3.
36. The parking lot can be as shown below:
___ ___ ___
___ ___ ___
Esteem is second to the right of i10.
Therefore, there are 2 possibilities:
___ ___ ___
i10 ___ Esteem
or
Esteem ___ i10
_________ ___ ___
Punto is parked diagonally opposite i10 and Alto is next
to Punto.
Thus, we get:
___ Alto Punto
i10 ___ Esteem
or
Esteem ___ i10
Punto Alto ___
Now, SX4 is to the immediate right of Alto and Swift is
opposite Alto.
Therefore, we get
SX4 Alto Punto
i10 Swift Esteem
or
Esteem Swift i10
Punto Alto SX4
Now, if SX4 and Esteem interchange their position, in
either case, the car next to Esteem will be Alto.
There is no other car next to Esteem.
Hence, option 3.
37. Alto changes position with i10, Punto changes position
with SX4 and Swift shifts one position to the right to
accommodate Beatle.
Therefore, the arrangements are as shown below:
Swift Beatle Alto
SX4 i10 Punto
or
Punto i10 SX4
Alto Beatle Swift
In either case, the cars next to Beatle are Alto and Swift.
Hence, option 4.
38. 4 new cars have entered the car park.
Wagon-R is second to the right of i10, Zen is second to
the left of SX4, Jazz is second to the left of Wagon-R and
Beat is to the right of Alto.
Using these conditions, the arrangement is as shown
below:
Wagon R Swift Jazz
Zen Alto Beat
or
Beat Alto Zen
Jazz Swift Wagon R
Thus, the cars that have gone out are Esteem, i10, Punto
and Sx4.
Alto and Swift have not gone out.
Options 1, 2 and 3 mention either Swift or Alto.
Hence, options 1, 2 and 3 can be eliminated.
Hence, option 4.
39. Construct a table with the names of the graduates,
companies, locations and email providers.
Note that the company and location are given as a pair.
Thus, if one of these two parameters is known for a
person or corresponding to an email provider, the other
is also automatically known.
From (ii), we get: HCL – Noida – Sancharnet and Tisco –
Jamshedpur – Indiatimes.
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Now, consider the information which directly mentions
the location, company or provider for a person.
Rahul works for Telco in Pune and uses Rediffmail.
Kabeer works for Usha Martin in Kolkata and Anup
works for Tisco in Jamshedpur.
Thus, the table is as shown below:
Graduate Company Location Email
Provider
Rahul Telco Pune Rediffmail
Kabeer Usha Martin Kolkata
Anup Tisco Jamshedpur
Raghu
Amit
Alok
Now, since neither Alok nor Raghu work in Noida, Amit
works for HCL in Noida.
Therefore, Amit uses Sancharnet.
Similarly, Anup uses Indiatimes.
Thus, the table becomes:
Graduate Company Location Email
Provider
Rahul Telco Pune Rediffmail
Kabeer Usha
Martin Kolkata
Anup Tisco Jamshedpur Indiatimes
Raghu
Amit HCL Noida Amit
Alok
Since Alok does not work for Mecon, Raghu works for
Mecon and Alok works for Wipro.
Therefore, Alok and Raghu work in Bangalore and
Ranchi respectively.
Since the person who works in Mecon has an account
with Gmail, Raghu has an account with Gmail.
Since the person who works in Wipro does not have a
Yahoo account, Alok has to have a Hotmail account and
Kabeer has to have a Yahoo account.
Thus, the final table is as shown below:
Graduate Company Location Email
Provider
Rahul Telco Pune Rediffmail
Kabeer Usha
Martin Kolkata Yahoo
Anup Tisco Jamshedpur Indiatimes
Raghu Mecon Ranchi Gmail
Amit HCL Noida Sancharnet
Alok Wipro Bangalore Hotmail
Thus, the person who works in Wipro has an e-mail
account with Hotmail.
Hence, option 4.
40. Consider the final table obtained in the solution to the
first question.
It can be seen that only the Raghu-Ranchi-Gmail
combination is correct.
Hence, option 4.
41. Consider the final table obtained in the solution to the
first question.
Among the options, the only statement that is true is that
Kabeer has an email-id with Yahoo.
Hence, option 3.
42. Consider the final table obtained in the solution to the
first question.
The sequence of location for Alok, Kabeer, Anup, Rahul,
Raghu and Amit, in that order, is Bangalore, Kolkata,
Jamshedpur, Pune, Ranchi and Noida.
Hence, option 4.
43. Consider the final table obtained in the solution to the
first question.
The people who have an email account with Indiatimes,
Sancharnet and Yahoo work for Tisco, HCL and Usha
Martin respectively.
Hence, option 4.
44. Consider the given sequence
7090070890702030045703907
There is only one zero that is immediately preceded by a
nine and is not immediately followed by seven.
Hence, option 1.
45. According to the given conditions, the relative position of
each city is as shown in the figure below:
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The shortest route for the truck would be
DC-R3-R1-R6-R7.
Thus, the total distance travelled would be
14 + 11 + 23 + 15 = 63 km
Hence, option 3.
46. The sharpest decline in cost per square feet will be for a
retailer having the maximum slope for the cost line; with
the cost per square feet on the y-axis and years on the x-
axis.
Now, since the change in the x-axis i.e. number of years is
constant for all 4 options i.e. 1 year, the sharpest decline
will be for the retailer having the maximum drop in the
cost per square feet for that particular year.
Decline in cost per square feet for the retailers given in
the options is:
Westside, 2005 : 2411 – 1724 = 687
Pantaloon, 2008 : 2044 – 1656 = 388
S.Stop, 2009 : 2419 – 2197 = 222
Vishal, 2010 : 1659 – 1064 = 595
Hence, the sharpest decline is for Westside in the year
2005.
Hence, option 1.
47. The increase in cost per square feet for the retailers in
the given options is:
S.Stop, 2006 : 2135 – 1889 = 246
S.Stop, 2007 : 2464 – 2135 = 329
Pantaloon, 2006 : 1996 – 1729 = 267
Vishal, 2006 : 1802 – 1832 = 30
Hence, the maximum increase in cost per square feet
among the given options is for S.Stop in 2007.
Hence, option 2.
48. The rate of change for the each retailer in the period
FY07 to FY10E is
For Pantaloons: {(1396 – 2044)/2044 100 = 31.70%
For S. Stop: {(2230 – 2464)/2464} × 100 = – 9.5%
For Vishal: {(1064 – 1751)/1751} × 100 = – 39.23%
For Westside: {(1051 – 1525)/1525} × 100 = –31.08%
Hence, the average rate of change in the cost per square
feet of the retail sector in the period FY07 to FY10E is:
(31.70 + 9.5 + 39.23 + 31.08)/4 i.e. – 27.88%
Hence, option 4.
49. The rate of change from Dec 2009 to March 2010 for U.P.
(E), Bihar, Orissa and Haryana are:
( )
Orissa has shown the maximum rate of change from
Dec 2009 to March 2010.
Hence, option 3.
50. Since R-com has 28% subscribers in the east and
Vodafone has 72% subscribers in the east, these two are
the only operators in the east.
Similarly, Idea and Airtel are the only players in the
south.
Now, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, TN (including
Chennai) and Kerala are in the south.
Hence, the number of subscribers in the south in 2010
= 39.91 + 48.09 + 57.26 + 27.65 = 172.91 million
Now, Idea has 48 % of these subscribers.
Hence, the number of subscribers that Idea had in the
south = 172.91 × 0.48 = 82.99 million
Similarly, the number of subscribers that Airtel had in
the south = 172.91 × 0.52 = 89.91 million
Only option D shows these values for Idea and Airtel.
Hence, option 4.
Alternatively,
As R-com has 28% and Vodafone has 72% of the
subscribers in the east, the number of subscribers for R-
com and Vodafone mentioned in the options must satisfy
this condition. i.e. the number of subscribers mentioned
for R-com must be 28% of the sum of number of
subscribers mentioned for R-com and Vodafone in that
option.
Only option 4 satisfies this condition.
Hence, option 4.
51. Percentage share of R-com, Vodafone and Idea in
Madhya Pradesh and entire UP is given.
However, the percentage breakup of these players in the
other eastern states is not known.
Also, the other operators (if any) in the other eastern
states are not known.
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Hence, a definite conclusion about the percentage share
of these players in the newly formed eastern region is
not possible
Hence, among the given options, only option 4 is feasible.
Hence, option 4.
Note: Since the question does not state explicitly that
data from the previous question can be used, the
percentage break up given in the previous question
cannot be assumed in this question.
52. Find the total number of subscribers in Dec 2009
(in million) and Mar 2010 (in million).
Total number of subscribers in Dec 2009 (in million)
= 562.18
Total number of subscriber in March 2010 (in million)
= 621.30
The required rate of change
( )
Hence, option 2.
53. The points earned by Maheshwari & Co. are as follows:
Points for Company Signage = 10
Points for Company X wall painting in the exterior of the
store = 20
Points for Company X painting in the interior of the store
= 2.5
Points for POP display of company X = 5
Points for stacking of company X goods in the shelves = 0
Thus, total brand building points
= 10 + 20 + 2.5 + 5 + 0 = 37.5
As Maheshwari & Co. has achieved more than 100%
sales target, they will get 15 points for the first 100%
and then additional points on a per unit basis.
Maheshwari & Co. had sold 56241 – 50000 = 6241 extra
units and they will get 0.25 points for each extra unit
sold.
Therefore, they will get 6241 × 0.25 = 1560.25 extra
points.
Hence total points earned
= 37.5 + 15 + 1560.25 = 1612.75
600 points are required to redeem 1 Tupperware set.
Hence, Maheshwari & Co. will be able to redeem only 2
Tupperware sets.
Hence, option 1.
54. The points earned by Bhowmik Brothers are as follows:
Points for company Signage = – 20
Points for company X wall painting in the exterior of the
store = 2.5
Points for company X painting in the interior of the store
= 2.5
Points for POP display of company X = 0
Points for stacking of company X goods in the shelves
= 10
Thus, total brand building points
= – 20 + 2.5 + 2.5 + 0 + 10 = – 5
As Bhowmik Brothers has achieved 75 – 99% of the sales
target, it will get 12 points for sales.
Hence total points = –5 + 12 = 7
For minimum redemption, they should have atleast 40
points (for an umbrella).
Therefore, they need 33 more points.
Hence, option 4.
55. Brand building points of Saha H/W = 85.
Since Saha H/W had achieved more than 100% of the
sales target, they get 15 points for the sales.
Also, they sold 512 extra units and so get
512 × 0.25 = 128 extra points.
Saha H/W will get 85 points again for brand building in
the next quarter.
Also, since Saha H/W will have to sell extra units, it
would have achieved more than 100% of the sales.
Therefore, it will also get 15 points for achieving 100%
sales.
Therefore, excluding the extra points earned next
quarter, the total points for Saha H/W at the end of next
quarter are 85 + 15 + 128 + 85 + 15 = 328
To redeem a Kanjivaram saree, Saha H/W must have
4000 points.
Hence, the extra points that need to be earned in the
second quarter = 4000 ‒ 328 = 3672
For every extra sale, Saha H/W gets 0.25 points.
Therefore, to get 3672 extra points, the extra sales
should be 3672 × 4 = 14688
Hence, option 1.
56. One Nike cap and one umbrella can be redeemed using
40 and 100 points respectively.
Therefore, to redeem 3 Nike caps and 1 Umbrella,
Malling Enterprise used 3 × 100 + 40 = 340 points.
Since Malling Enterprise has exhausted all its points,
they had a total of 340 points.
Now, Malling had achieved more than 100% of the sales
target and so will get 15 points for sales.
Since, they had sold 1000 extra units, they get
1000 × 0.25 = 250 extra points for this.
Therefore, total points through sales = 15 + 250 = 265
The remaining points have to be through brand building.
Hence, brand building points = 340 265 = 75
Hence, option 1.
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57. Srikrishna Trader had 80 brand building points.
Since they have achieved more than 100 % of the sales
target, they get 15 points for achieving the target.
Additionally, they had sold 2000 extra units and so get
2000 × 0.25 = 500 extra points for it.
Hence, total points of Srikrishna Trader
= 500 + 15 + 80 = 595
One Tupperware set requires 600 points for redemption
and so cannot be redeemed using these points.
Observe that options 1, 2 and 3 mention a Tupperware
set and so are not possible.
Therefore, options 1, 2 and 3 get eliminated.
Srikrishna Trader can redeem a Nike cap (100 points)
and a T-shirt (200 points) using their points.
Hence, option 4.
58. The ratio of CO2 emission to per capita income for USA,
China and Japan after two years will be :
Hence, option 3.
59. To bring down the ratio of CO2 emission to per capita
income to meet the standard benchmark of 0.75, US and
China will have to bring down their CO2 emission to
(300 × 0.75) and (270 × 0.75) respectively i.e. 225 and
202.5 million tons respectively.
Hence, the amount of CO2 emission US and China have to
cut down to meet the standard benchmark is (1200 –
225) and (1180 – 202.5) i.e. 975 and 977.5 million tons
respectively.
To reduce 0.5 million tons of CO2 emission, a country has
to purchase 1.25 units of carbon credits.
Therefore, to reduce 1 million tons of CO2 emission 2.5
units of carbon credits need to be purchased.
Hence, to reduce CO2 emission by 975 and 977.5 million
tons, the amount of carbon credits that need to be
purchased by the US and China are (975 × 2.5) and
(977.5 × 2.5) i.e. 2437.5 and 2443.75 respectively.
The number of carbon credits that a country can buy in a
year is 65 (15 + 20 + 20).
Therefore, the number of years that U.S. and China will
respectively take to get the ratio to the required level is
(2437.5/65) i.e. 37.5 years and (2443.75/65) i.e. 37.6.
Hence, in 38 years US and China will be able to bring
down its CO2 emission to per capita income to the world
standard benchmark of 0.75.
Hence, option 2.
60. By selling 0.5 CO2 emissions the energy consortium earns 1.25 carbon credits.
The number of carbon credits earned by any country in the consortium
= (Total CO2 emission saved) × (1.25/0.5)
Total CO2 emission saved by any country in the consortium = 350 – revised CO2 emission by that country.
Revised total CO2 emission per year for each country in the consortium = Revised ratio × revised per capita income per year.
The per capita income increases by 2%, 2.5% and 3.5% in the first, second and third year respectively.
The ratio of CO2 emissions to per capita income becomes half and stays constant for three years after that.
Thus, all the revised values are as shown in the table below:
Country
Revised
CO2
emission
to per
capita
ratio
(r)
Per
capita
income
for year
one
(PC1)
Per capita
income
for year
two
(PC2)
Per
capita
income
for year
three
(PC3)
CO2
emission
for year
one
(C1 = r ×
PC1)
CO2
emission
for year
two
(C2 = r ×
PC2)
CO2
emission
for year
three
(C3 = r ×
PC3)
Saving of
CO2
emission
for year
one
(S1 = 350
– PC1)
Saving of
CO2
emission
for year
two
(S2 = 350
– PC2)
Saving of
CO2
emission
for year
three
(S3 = 350
– PC3)
France 1.41 163.2 167.3 173.1 230.1 235.9 244.1 120 114 106
SA 1.61 142.8 146.4 151.5 229.9 235.6 243.9 120 114 106
Australia 1.06 168.3 172.5 178.5 178.4 182.8 189.2 171 167 161
Ukraine 1.08 188.7 193.4 200.2 203.8 208.9 216.2 146 141 134
Poland 1.02 198.9 203.9 211 202.9 207.9 215.2 147 142 135
Total - - - - - - - 704 678 642
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Therefore, the total CO2 emissions saved by France, SA, Australia, Ukraine and Poland over three years
= S1 + S2 + S3
= 2024 million tons
Hence, the number of carbon credits earned by the energy consortium in three years
= 2024 × (1.25/0.5)
= 5060 units
Hence, option 3.
61. Start with the statement in option 2 as it requires the figures to be used as they are given in the bar graph.
Country CO2 emission/Per capita income
US 4
China 4.37
Russia 4.12
Japan 4.7
India 2.5
Germany 3.46
UK 4.44
Canada 3.16
Italy 2.94
France 2.81
SA 3.21
Australia 2.18
Spain 2.22
Ukraine 2.16
Poland 2.05
From the above table, we can conclude that India stands at the 5th position at the given CO2 emission level and per capita
income of each country (in increasing order).
Hence, the statement in option 2 is true.
Consider option 1. Since 50 is added to the per capita income for each country, the ratio given in the above table decreases
for each country and for India it becomes 2.
This implies that any country having CO2 emission value greater than twice the revised per capita income will have a ratio
greater than India.
Only four countries (Australia, Spain, Ukraine and Poland) have the required ratio less than India.
Hence, India stands at the 5th position in this case also.
Hence, the statement in option 1 is also true.
Consider option 3. Since 200 million tons are deducted from the given CO2 emission value, the ratio given in the above table
decreases for each country and for India it becomes 1.5.
This implies that any country having CO2 emission value greater than one and half times the revised per capita income will
have a ratio greater than India.
Only four countries (Australia, Spain, Ukraine and Poland) have the required ratio less than India.
Hence India stands at the 5th position in this case also.
Hence, the statement in option 3 is also true.
Since the statement in options 1, 2 and 3 is true, the statement in option 4 is false.
Hence, option 4.
62. Note that the units are given in degrees.
Number of units in Bihar ~ Number of units in MP
( )
Hence, option 2.
63. Female population
= (Total population – Male population)
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Therefore, the percentage increase in Female population
in 1996, 1999, 2004 and 2005 is as given below:
Thus, the percentage change in the number of females
over the previous year is the highest in 2005.
Hence, option 4.
64. Number of educated people in 2002 = 545
Therefore, number of educated males in 2002
= (5/9) 545 ≈ 303
and, number of educated females in 2002
= 545 – 303 = 242
Now, number of females in 2002
= Total population – Total male population = 350
Hence, number of uneducated females in 2002
= 350 – 242 = 108
The number of educated males increases by 25% in
2003.
Hence, number of educated males in 2003
= 1.25 303 ≈ 379
Therefore, number of educated females in 2003
= 560 – 379 ≈ 181
Now, number of females in 2003
= Total population ‒ Total male population = 350
Hence, number of uneducated females in 2003
= 350 – 181 ≈ 169
Hence, percentage change in uneducated females
= (169 – 108)/108 100 ≈56%
Hence, option 4.
65. Total population of urban area in 2005
= 0.68 × 600 = 408 million
Total population in 2005 = 900 million
Therefore, population of rural area in 2005
= 900 – 408 = 492 million
Population of rural area in 2010
Therefore, the required ratio = 492/240 = 2.05
Hence, option 3.
66. The passage gives ample data stating how Kodak could
not envisage the pace of change in business happening
around it. Even though it did identify the change coming,
the steps taken did not help the company maintain the
leading position in its core business of photography.
Option 4 encapsulates that.
Options 1 and 2 merely point to one piece of data
presented in the passage and are not the central theme
of the passage.
Option 3 is contrary to the central theme- even if Kodak's
managers were able to predict the flow of digital
technology, they were not able to predict their critical
value drivers.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
67. Statements I and IV have been stated in the passage.
Statements II and III contradict data given in the passage.
Statement II is incorrect as the passage states that
chemically treated photo paper is different from
hormonal agents and cardiovascular drugs; the
customers and delivery channels are also different.
Statement III is incorrect as the passage states that
Kodak committed a mistake by acquiring Sterling in the
first place. It was out of sync with Kodak's business
model. Hence, selling it off (without consideration for the
low price) was the most logical thing to do.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
68. The reason Kodak lost a big piece of its market share was
its inability to move away from print photography and
seize up the digital business opportunity.
The discontinuation of the award winning camera was
an effect rather than a cause for losing market share.
Eliminate statement II.
We have no data in the passage about Carp's tenure with
Kodak or his understanding of technology. Eliminate
statement I.
Statements III and IV are some of the prime reasons that
can be attributed for Kodak's loss of market share.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
69. The correct sequence of events is:
Statement II: Kodak bought Sterling and entered into
chemical business.
Statement IV: It tied up with firms for photo processing.
Statement I: It lost its market share
Statement III: Kodak employed less than one third of its
work force compared to the work force employed two
decades earlier.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.
70. The correct match is:
1. Intel – d. Intel's co-founder Gordon Moore's
prediction of 50% reduced prices of technology
products every year or two.
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2. Fisher – a. preview cameras.
3. AOL – b. tied up with Kodak for developing and
posting online photos.
4. Agfa – c. sold its film and paper business which later
went into bankruptcy.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.
71. The question asks us to identify the statement(s) which
do NOT reflect the true essence of the passage.
Statements I and III can be considered to reflect the
essence of the passage.
Statement II states that ‘investors appropriately discount
the announcements’, which gives the impression that
investors disregard the announcements. This is contrary
to the passage which mentions the ‘almost blind faith
investors place in governmental economic releases’.
Statement IV talks about two reactions being the ‘same’,
whereas ‘statisticians stumbling’ has not been
mentioned in the passage.
Therefore, both statements II and IV do not reflect the
true essence of the passage.
We do not have an answer option with statements II and
IV.
Hence, this question is ambiguous.
72. The question stem asks us to choose the answer option
which does not describe the anomaly mentioned in the
passage.
Psychological pressures do account for anomaly-
according to the passage - along with small sample size
and incorrect government statistics. Therefore statement
I can be eliminated.
Statement III has also been mentioned in the passage-
investors taking shortcuts with small sample sizes and
little particles of information. Therefore, it can be
eliminated.
Statement II is not implied in the passage. Further, it
does not mention any anomaly at all.
Statement IV- subjectively calculated probabilities and
their large distortions have not been mentioned in the
passage at all, nor can they be implied.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
73. Tversky and Kahneman's findings relate to errors made
by taking small sample sizes which are not
representative of the larger population.
Statement I is an extension of this rule and can be
eliminated.
Statement II reiterates the findings.
Statement III has not been mentioned in the passage at
all nor can it be inferred.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
74. Statement I has been mentioned in the passage- refer to
the publicity and large number of new clients that
advisers manage to secure.
Statement III has been explicitly mentioned in the
passage- refer to the second sentence of paragraph 3.
Statement II contradicts the passage. Public opinion polls
are fairly accurate because of large representative
groups and not ‘diminutive representative groups’.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
75. Option 1 can be eliminated because of the word ‘only’.
The passage mentions “usually”.
Option 2 has been mentioned verbatim in the third
sentence of the first paragraph, with ‘not overwhelmed’
(in the passage) substituted by ‘underwhelmed’ (in the
statement).
Option 3 is not true because of ‘always’.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
76. The Instrumental prediction is that the outcome of the
experience affects commitment. Better outcome leads to
more commitment. Therefore, a-1.
According to the passage, from the instrumental
viewpoint, people are concerned about tangible
outcomes. Therefore, a-4.
‘Assimilation’, ‘Group value’ and ‘Institutional’ do not
match with any of the meanings given in the second
column. We can eliminate options 2, 3 and 4.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.
77. Option 1 is incorrect because it limits the summary to
‘legal authorities’. The passage is much broader than
merely legal authorities.
Option 3 is an inference. Secondly, ‘the generally positive
consequences to organisations’ gives us only a partial
view of the passage.
Option 4 is not an effective summary because ‘happiness’
is not the core of the passage.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
78. The passage mentions, “Buffet did this in markets bullish
and bearish and through economies fat and lean, from
the Eisenhower years to Bill Clinton, from the 1950s to
the 1990s, from saddle shoes to Vietnam to junk bonds
and the information age.”
Markets bullish and bearish reflect turbulent stock
markets; economies fat and lean signify turbulent
economic growth; Eisenhower years to Bill Clinton
reflect political changes; saddle shoes and Vietnam
signify fashion and politics; junk bonds and the
information age signify modern market instruments and
new technology. Thus each sector of the polity is being
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expressed through examples. Thus, statement V is
correct.
Option 1 has I and V while option 3 has III and V.
Statement III has not been expressed in the passage.
Nowhere has the passage made a distinction between
modern US population and traditional expatriates.
Therefore, option 3 can be eliminated.
‘Dernier cri and Vietnam war’ symbolise saddle shoes
and Vietnam. In the passage Vietnam has been used to
signify the Vietnam war while Dernier cri - which means
the latest fashion - has been used to imply saddle shoes
(which were the fad in the 1950s). The passage
mentions, “from the 1950s to the 1990s.” Saddle shoes
were popular among girls in the 1950s; the Vietnam war
occurred in the 1960s and 70s; junk bonds were
invented in the 1980s and the information age
corresponds to the 1990s.
Statements I and V are correct.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.
79. Depression occurred in the 1930s, Eisenhower was
President of the United States in the 1950s while
Microsoft is contemporary. Thus, statement I is correct.
California – New York – Omaha is an incorrect sequence.
California has been mentioned after Omaha in the
passage while New York has not been mentioned in the
passage. Statement II is an incorrect sequence.
The passage mentions J. P. Morgan as a predecessor of
Buffet, while Bill Gates is current and contemporary.
They are all business magnates. Therefore, statement III
is correct.
We do not know the order as to the development of
Mutual funds – Hedge funds. Brokers were in existence
long before these modern market instruments. Therefore
statement IV is incorrect sequentially.
Statements I & III are correct.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
80. Statement I is correct. The passage mentions his lack of
reliance on computers or price charts. Further, he lived a
simple lifestyle and his “homespun manner made him a
cult figure”. Therefore, we can infer that he was simple
and outmoded.
We can eliminate statement II because the passage is
totally silent on Buffet's opinions on planned economies
and technologies.
Statement III is correct. The passage mentions, “Even his
children could scarcely recall a time when he broke
through his surface calm and showed some feeling”.
From this we can infer that he was deadpan.
Statement IV is incorrect. The passage mentions his
“tranquility in his inner sanctum”. This contradicts the
assertion made in the statement that he was spiritually
raw.
Statements I and III are correct.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
81. The gist of the sentence is that some issues are extremely
complex and any knee jerk (hasty) reaction will result in
some sort of a loss for the shareholder.
For the first blank we can eliminate ‘unassociated’ and
‘contexed’ since they do not fit in logically. We can
eliminate options 1 and 4. That leaves us with ‘nuanced’
and ‘ambiguous’, both of which are appropriate. For the
second blank, ‘loss of plutocracy for all shareholders’ is
meaningless, since plutocracy means the rule of the
wealthy; while ‘loss of opportunity for all shareholders’
makes eminent sense.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.
82. The gist of the sentence is that growth under this
government has been high and remarkably steady even
during the worst global economic crisis.
‘Impededly’ and ‘obstructedly’ can be eliminated for the
first blank, since they are not in sync with “high”. We can
eliminate options 1 and 3.
Between options 2 and 4 ‘resilient’ is our correct word as
an economy cannot be remarkably ‘intractable’.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
83. The gist of the sentence seems to be that there are
different and conflicting versions of what happened, but
that the dastardly act must be condemned in no
uncertain terms.
‘Dissimilar’, ‘Contrary’ and ‘Conflicting’ are all
appropriate for the first blank, while ‘unique’ is not. We
can eliminate option 4.
For the second blank, ‘unequivocally’ meaning
‘unambiguously and clearly’ best reflects the tone and
tenor of the sentence. ‘Concertedly’ meaning ‘contrived’
and ‘obviously’ are unsuited for the second blank.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.
84. Seats cannot be ‘hinged’, ‘pended’ or ‘retracted’ into
position; they can only be ‘swiveled’ into position. We
can eliminate options 2, 3 and 4.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.
85. For the first blank, only ‘peremptorily’ and ‘arbitrarily’
make logical sense. ‘Complaisantly’ and ‘democratically’
contradict the logical tenor of the sentence. We can
eliminate options 2 and 3.
Between, ‘ascribed’ and ‘unrelated’, ‘unrelated’ fits
logically into the second blank of the sentence. ‘Ascribed’
meaning ‘attributed to’ is logically inconsistent.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
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86. ‘Growth’ and ‘boom’ can be eliminated immediately since
they will contradict the logical tenor required for the
first blank. The first blank needs a word with a negative
connotation as evidenced by ‘lapse into ___’. We can
eliminate options 1 and 2. Both, ‘recession’ and
‘dirigisme’, meaning ‘control by the State of economic
and social matters’ can fit the first blank.
Since serious policy reforms are aimed at increasing or
boosting economic growth, ‘boosted’ is the correct word
for the second blank. ‘Reduced’ contradicts the ‘serious
policy reforms’ part. We can eliminate option 3.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
87. Option 1 has a modifying error. The statement implies
‘Large and experienced firms being better at acquiring
smaller firms but not at acquiring large and
inexperienced firms.’
Options 3 and 4 with a comma after ‘experienced firms’
do not grammatically complete the sentence with the
latter part of the sentence (the non-underlined part).
Moreover, the verb is missing in option 4.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
88. Options 1 and 3 are incorrect with ‘that of the 4
percent....’
Option 2 has an erroneous comma inserted after
‘October-December quarter’.
Option 4 completes the sentence with no flaws.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
89. Options 2 and 3 provide an incorrect construction-
‘...ignoring the advice of Warren Buffet warning that ….’
Option 4 also provides an incorrect construction -
‘...ignoring the advice of Warren Buffet who was
warning that ….’’
Option 1 provides a smooth flow to the sentence without
introducing any ambiguities.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.
90. “Impuissance” means ‘helplessness; lack of effectiveness;
weak’.
“Desecrate” means ‘defile; violate; dishonour’.
“Decrepit” and “effete” mean ‘worn out’. “Bedraggled”
means ‘soiled; untidy; dilapidated’. These words are in
consonance with the first given word.
“Desolate” means ‘devastated; laid waste’. “Sacrilege”
means violation. “Profanity” means irreverence. These
words are in consonance with the second given word.
“Ornery”, meaning ‘ugly; unpleasant; inferior’, and
“Contort”, meaning ‘distort; twist out of shape’, are
completely unrelated to the given pair.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.
91. “Insouciant” means ‘carefree; light hearted’.
“Gossamer” means ‘light, flimsy, delicate’.
“Perfunctory” means ‘superficial; uninterested’.
“Pococurante” means ‘careless; indifferent’. “Nonchalant”
means ‘unconcerned’. These words are in consonance
with “insouciant”.
“Diaphanous” means ‘sheer’. “Pellucid” means
‘translucent’. “Tiffany” is ‘a sheer mesh fabric’. These
words are in consonance with “gossamer”.
“Nymphs” refers to ‘graceful women’ and “Gehenna”
refers to ‘a place of torment’. These words are
completely unrelated to the words in the given pair.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.
92. Dilettante has been incorrectly spelt as diletante.
Reminiscence has been incorrectly spelt as
reminiscience.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.
93. Munificent has been incorrectly spelt as munificient.
Pusillanimous has been incorrectly spelt as
psusillanimous.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
94. Statement II introduces the paragraph with ‘stack’.
Eliminate option 3.
Statement IV takes the idea further and III gives a
detailed description on it. Therefore IV and III are a pair.
We can eliminate options 1 and 4.
Statement I goes on to mention that it is not as simple as
explained in the first three statements. Thus, it can only
fit in as a conclusion.
The sequence is II, IV, III, I.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
95. Statement I introduces the theme- views of a “skeptical
empiricist”. We can eliminate option 2. Statement II
takes it forward and IV, V mention that the author does
not want to focus on specific organs in the brain. Why?
III and VI provide the answer- that we do not observe
brain functions very well.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
96. Statement III does not provide a logical start. Eliminate
option 4.
Statements VI and V also do not provide a logical flow.
Eliminate option 3.
Between options 1 and 2, option 1 has a smooth flow.
The jump from statement V to II in option 1 connects
well compared to a jump from statement V to III in
option 2.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.
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97. Statement III introduces the theme- statisticians. We can
eliminate options 2 and 3.
V connects with I- tend to leave their brains in the
classroom. Therefore, what is the consequence? They
commit the most trivial errors when they are out on the
streets- thus IV and II are a pair. We can eliminate option
4.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.
98. Statement VI is incomplete and cannot be the final
statement of the sentence.
The only option that does not have statement VI at the
end is option 4.
The statements in option 4 have a smooth flow.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
99. Statement II will definitely occur before I in the sentence.
In II the author mentions that he would not have cared
except for the fact that people got all excited (as
mentioned in statement I). We can eliminate options 1
and 2.
Statements II and IV are a pair- the author mentions that
he would not have cared the least about them. Statement
I will follow IV because it gives the reason why the
author had no option but to care. Eliminate option 4.
Statements I, III and VI go together.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.
100. “Omniscient” means ‘complete knowledge’. Therefore,
the relationship in the given pair is a synonymous one,
with the first word being of a greater degree than the
second.
Similarly, “boundless” means ‘without any limit’, and is a
greater degree of “expanse”, which means ‘an
uninterrupted surface of something that spreads or
extends’.
“Saturnine” means ‘sluggish; gloomy’, and is antonymous
to “energy”.
“Inquisitive: science” is unrelated, as is “complete:
retraction”. They do not exhibit a similar relationship to
the capitalized pair.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
101. “Disquietude” is a noun and means ‘a state of anxiety’.
“Anxious” is an adjective.
Similarly, ‘nonplus’ is a noun and means ‘the state of
utter perplexity’. ‘Perplexed’ is an adjective.
The remaining pairs do not express such a relationship.
“Cupidity” means ‘eager to possess something; greed’.
“Bellicose” means ‘ready to fight’.
“Embellishment” means ‘a fictitious addition’.
“Overstated” means ‘stated strongly; exaggerated’.
“Magnitude” means ‘size; extent’. “Unabridged” means
‘complete; not shortened’.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.
102. “Deviate” means ‘to digress’, as from a line of thought or
reasoning. One may deviate from the line of
teaching/thought during a lecture.
Similarly, when going on a ‘drive’, one may ‘meander’, or
wander from the set course.
The remaining options do not show such a relationship.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.
103. “Nebulous” means ‘lacking definite form or shape’.
Therefore, the relationship is that of ‘lacking’.
“Insincere” means ‘not honest in the expression of actual
feeling’. “Misanthrope” is ‘one who hates humankind’.
“Benevolent” means ‘charitable’. “Excellence” means
‘superiority’.
“Composed” means ‘calm’. “Innocence” means ‘free from
moral wrong’.
“Insipid” means ‘lacking taste’. This pair is similar in
relationship to that of the capitalized pair.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.
104. ‘Blunder’ and ‘mistake’ together create an error in
redundancy. Eliminate option 1.
Option 2 should read ‘I have learnt this lesson word for
word.’ Word for word is a phrase, meaning verbatim.
Option 3 is incorrect. The correct sentence is - ‘She does
not know how to swim.’
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
105. Option 1 has a subject-verb agreement error- ‘The
average male investor....he is (not they are) often
disappointed.’
Option 2 has an error in comparison – The people in my
country are compared to other countries. The sentence
can be corrected as - ‘The people in my country are
smarter than those/ the people in other countries’.
Option 3 also has a subject-verb agreement error. ‘The
number....is (not are)’.
Option 4 has no such errors.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.