Project Quality mcq

Subject: Project Quality

Objective Question

Q.1- Contracting project work has long been the norm in the _______ industry

Telecommunications

Financial

Insurance

Construction

Correct Answer : Construction

Q.2- Advantages of outsourcing project work may likely include all of the following

except?

Shortened project completion

Reduced costs

Higher level of expertise

Reduced conflict

Correct Answer : Reduced conflict

Q.3- Key practices in partnering relationships include:

Single project contracting

Goals and objectives are similar

Access to each other\'s organizational resources

Both B and C are correct

Correct Answer : Access to each other\'s organizational resources

Q.4- Which of the following is part of the traditional project process?

Structured communications

Long-term commitment

Total company involvement

Both A and B are correct

Correct Answer : Structured communications

Q.5- Which of the following did the state of Ohio do before starting a bond-financed

school construction project?

Create a specific RFP (request for proposal)

Have a dress rehearsal

Reviews the performance of contractors on past projects

Both A and C are correct

Correct Answer : Have a dress rehearsal

Q.6- In the Snapshot from Practice "Strategies for Communicating with Outsourcers,"

which of the following was not one of the suggested strategies?

Recognize cultural differences

Use a translator to make sure everyone understands

Choose the right words

Confirm your requirements

Correct Answer : Use a translator to make sure everyone understands

Q.7- The result of teambuilding among the project's participants is a:

Signed contract

Legal partnership agreement

Project plan

Partnering charter

Correct Answer : Partnering charter

Q.8- Among the many advantages for establishing long-term partnerships are:

Reduced administrative costs

Improved performance

Improved communication

all of the above

Correct Answer : all of the above

Q.9- Teambuilding between partners should:

Include engineers, architects, lawyers, specialists and other staff

Be facilitated by an outside consultant

Not take more than one day

A and B are both correct

Correct Answer : A and B are both correct

Q.10- In the Snapshot from Practice dealing with the Value Engineering Awards

program, which branch of the U.S. government was involved?

Department of Defense

Department of Commerce

Department of Transportation

N.A)S.A

Correct Answer : Department of Defense

Q.11- Customer satisfaction can be quantified by:

Perceived performance divided by actual performance

Actual performance divided by expected performance

Perceived performance divided by expected performance

Actual performance divided by perceived performance

Correct Answer : Perceived performance divided by expected

performance

Q.12- In the research highlight on IT project managers, which of the following was

not one of the roles taken by project managers?

Entrepreneur

Politician

Friend

Auditor

Correct Answer : Auditor

Q.13- Which of the following is not one of the elements of good negotiation?

Be hard on the problem, soft on the people

Conflict on a project can be good

Negotiation is not a contest

All of these are elements of good negotiation

Correct Answer : All of these are elements of good negotiation

Q.14- Which of the following is reflected in the saying "Let anger fly out the

window"?

Separate people from the problem

Be honest

Focus on interests, not positions

Invent options for mutual gain

Correct Answer : Separate people from the problem

Q.15- The dovetailing technique is used in which of the following keys to good

negotiation?

Separate people from the problem

Be honest

Focus on interests, not positions

Invent options for mutual gain

Correct Answer : Invent options for mutual gain

Q.16- A project monitoring system involves all of the following except:

Determining what date to collect

Determining how, when, and who will collect the data

Adjusting the data

Analysis of the data

Correct Answer : Adjusting the data

Q.17- Adequate project controls have the advantage(s) of:

Holding people accountable

Prevents small problems from getting large

Keeping focus

A, B, and C are all correct

Correct Answer : A, B, and C are all correct

Q.18- The second step in the project control process of the measurement and

evaluation of project performance is to:

Review the baseline plan with top management

Analyze inputs to control system

Compare plan against actual

Measure progress and performance

Correct Answer : Measure progress and performance

Q.19- In monitoring project time (schedule) performance actual performance should

be compared to:

Budgets for the current year

Top management\'s targets

Project network schedule derived from the WBS/OBS

Progress on similar past projects

Correct Answer : Project network schedule derived from the WBS/OBS

Q.20- An Earned Value System used to monitor project progress includes comparison

of

Actual costs versus budget

Schedule progress versus plan

Quality progress versus plan


Correct Answer : Both A and B are correct

Q.21- The cost variance for a project is calculated by:

EV-AC

AC-SV

PV-EV

CU-EV

Correct Answer : EV-AC

Q.22- Baseline project budgets are derived from:

The organization\'s overall budget

Time-phasing the work packages

Top management directions


Correct Answer : Time-phasing the work packages

Q.23- Generally the method for measuring accomplishments centers on comparing

Earned value with the expected schedule value

Earned value with the actual costs

Actual costs with budgeted costs


Correct Answer : Both A and B are correct

Q.24- Which of the following are required to assess the current status of a project

using the earned-value cost/schedule system?

BAC, EAC, and ETC

VAC, EAC, and BAC

CV, SU, and BAC

PV, EV, and AC

Correct Answer : PV, EV, and AC

Q.25- Which of the following methods will measure the scheduling efficiency of the

work accomplished to date?

SV/CV

EV/PV

EV/AC

AC/SV

Correct Answer : EV/PV

Q.26- Scope creep affects:

The organization

The project team

The project suppliers

all of the above

Correct Answer : all of the above

Q.27- Small refinements that eventually build to be major changes are known as:

Project erosion

Scope creep

Specification adjustments

Specification refinements

Correct Answer : Scope creep

Q.28- The percent complete index that looks at percent complete in terms of actual

amounts is calculated by which of the following?

EV/BAC

(EV-PV)/BAC

AC/EAC

(EV-AC)/BAC

Correct Answer : AC/EAC

Q.29- Which of the following is not true regarding scope creep?

It is common late in projects

It is frequently unnoticed until time delays or cost overruns are observed

It wears down team motivation and cohesiveness

Project suppliers resent frequent changes

Correct Answer : It is common late in projects

Q.30- The content of the final report typically includes the following topics:

Lessons learned

Review and analysis

Recommendations

All the above are correct

Correct Answer : All the above are correct

Q.31- Many projects will fail because of circumstances beyond the control of the

project team is called:

Normal

Premature

Perpetual

Failed Project

Correct Answer : Failed Project

Q.32- In the Snapshot from Practice, New Balls Goes Flat in NBA, is an example of a

project gone wrong when the _______ is/are not consulted.

Manufacturer

Equipment and facilities managers

End-users

Project manager

Correct Answer : End-users

Q.33- Information on the project type, size, number of staff, and technology level

would be included in which section of the audit report?

Analysis

Recommendations

Classification of project

Lessons learned

Correct Answer : Classification of project

Q.34- Project mission and objectives, procedures and systems used, and organization

resources used typically appear in the _____ section of the final project report.

Analysis

Recommendations


Lessons learned

Correct Answer : Analysis

Q.35- The section of the final project report that new project teams are likely to find

most useful is the:

Analysis

Recommendations


Lessons learned

Correct Answer : Lessons learned

Q.36- Corrective actions that should take place (such as shifting to more resilient

building material) would typically appear in the _____ section of the final project

report.

Analysis

Recommendations


Lessons learned

Correct Answer : Recommendations

Q.37- The most common circumstance for project closure is:

Premature completion with some features eliminated

Project completion meeting costs, schedule, and quality

Project completion after modification of costs, schedule, or quality

Project termination due to technical difficulties

Correct Answer : Project completion after modification of costs, schedule,

or quality

Q.38- Project closures can fall into all of the following categories except:

Premature

Perpetual

Failed

All of these are categories for project closure

Correct Answer : All of these are categories for project closure

Q.39- In the Research Highlight, Chaos: Software Projects, the criterion which was

deemed the most important for project success was

Realistic expectations

Hard-working, focused staff

User involvement

Proper planning

Correct Answer : Proper planning

Q.40- ____________ begins with a review of the strategic intent of the project,

selection criteria, project charter, project objectives, project scope, and acceptance

criteriA)

Process Review

Project Overview

Analysis

Recommendations

Correct Answer : Process Review

Q.41- More and more companies are discarding the traditional superior-subordinate

performance feedback process and replacing it with:

Critical incidences review

Management by objectives

The 360-degree feedback

Both B and C are correct

Correct Answer : Critical incidences review

Q.42- In organizations where projects are managed within a ____________, the team

member's area manager, not the project manager, is responsible for assessing

performance.

Functional organization

Matrix organization

Flat organization


Correct Answer : Functional organization

Q.43- Performance evaluations of project teams should:

Provide the basis for individual development

Provide the basis for participation on future projects

Provide the basis for salary increases


Correct Answer : Both A and C are correct

Q.44- McDonald's is creating a multinational distribution system for all of its foreign

and domestic subsidiaries. The project manager is from the corporate headquarters

and he manages teams from each of the countries involved. The project would be

classified as

Global

Overseas

Local

Domestic

Correct Answer : Global

Q.45- The major issues dealing with international project management include all of

the following except:

Selection and training of personnel for international projects

Foreign currency exchange rates

Location of international expansion

Environmental factors

Correct Answer : Foreign currency exchange rates

Q.46- The growing presence of the Russian Mafia has discouraged many foreign

firms from setting up operations in the former Soviet Union. This is an example of

which of the following environmental factors?

Security

Economic

Cultural

Legal/political

Correct Answer : Security

Q.47- An information systems specialist reported that his performance on a project in

Northern Sweden declined due to sleep deprivation during the summer months in

which there was 20 hours of daylight each day. This is an example of which of the

following environmental factors

Cultural

Legal/political

Geographic

Economic

Correct Answer : Geographic

Q.48- Needs for a project could include telecommunications, transportation, power,

and availability of technically skilled talent. This is an example of which of the

following environmental factors?

Geographic

Infrastructure

Economic

Legal/political

Correct Answer : Infrastructure

Q.49- Which of the following can help a project manager to digest, clarify, and

understand the factors leading to the selection of a specific project?

Risk matrix

Priority matrix

Responsibility matrix

Gantt chart

Correct Answer : Risk matrix

Q.50- American project managers have earned a reputation abroad for being very

good at understanding technology but not good at understanding:

Cultures

People

Local traditions

Local business practices

Correct Answer : People

Q.51- Kluckhohn -Strodtbeck's cross-cultural framework includes all of the following

except

Perception of God

Relation to nature

Time orientation

Basic nature of people

Correct Answer : Perception of God

Q.52- The Hofstede framework includes all of the following dimensions except:

Masculinity-feminity

Uncertainty avoidance

Power distance

All of these are included in the Hofstede framework

Correct Answer : All of these are included in the Hofstede framework

Q.53- The significance of personal relationships has created a system in which

Mexicans are obligated to give preference to relatives and friends when hiring,

contracting, procuring, and sharing business opportunities. This system is referred to

as:

Manana

Gringo

Compadre

Quid pro quo

Correct Answer : Compadre

Q.54- Which of the following is not contained in the Assessment Matrix Project Site

Selection?

Political stability

Worker skill, supply

Infrastructure

Utilities

Correct Answer : Utilities

Q.55- Which of the following is not true for French values?

They value punctuality

Great importance is placed on neatness and taste

The French are easy to negotiate with

French managers see work as an intellectual exercise

Correct Answer : The French are easy to negotiate with

Q.56- A sense of frustration in not being understood is typical of which of the

following stages of culture shock?

Honeymoon

Gradual adjustment

Irritability and hostility

Repatriation

Correct Answer : Honeymoon

Q.57- When you begin to lose confidence in your abilities to communicate and work

effectively in the different culture, you are in which of the following stages of culture

shock?

Honeymoon

Gradual adjustment

Irritability and hostility

Repatriation

Correct Answer : Irritability and hostility

Q.58- Which film project was reviewed in a Snapshot from Practice?

The Godfather

Star Wars

Hearts of Darkness

Apocalypse Now

Correct Answer : Apocalypse Now

Q.59- A Project office ______________.

Consists of all the personnel who work for the project.

Consists of the entire project team.

Is intended to assist the project manager in carrying out his duties.

Consist of a part of the project team only.

Correct Answer : Is intended to assist the project manager in carrying out

his duties.

Q.60- Replacing worn out with new equipment to reduce operating costs, increase the

yield, and improve quality is _________________.

Mandatory Investment

Replacement Investment

Expansion Investment

Diversification Investment

Correct Answer : Replacement Investment

Q.61- A capital expenditure required to comply with statutory requirement is known

as________.





Correct Answer : Mandatory Investment

Q.62- Aiming at producing new product or services or entering into new geographical

areas is ______________.





Correct Answer : Diversification Investment

Q.63- The amount of time an activity can be delayed and yet not delay the project is

termed

Total slack

Free slack

Critical float

Float pad

Correct Answer : Total slack

Q.64- An item on a project network is Design Software Completed. This is best

described as a(n)

Event

Path

Activity

Node

Correct Answer : Event

Q.65- Which of the following represents an activity on an AON project network?

An arrow

A line

A node


Correct Answer : A node

Q.66- Project costs are typically viewed from all of the following except:

Scheduled

Sunk

Actual

Committed

Correct Answer : Sunk

Q.67- Increasing the capacity to cater to a growing demand is known as

____________.





Correct Answer : Expansion Investment

Q.68- Developing new products and processes which would sharpen the technological

edge of the firm is__________.


R&D Investments



Correct Answer : R&D Investments

Q.69- _______________ represents a catch-all category that includes items like

interior decoration, recreational facilities, and landscaped gardens.


R&D Investments

Miscellaneous Investment


Correct Answer : Miscellaneous Investment

Q.70- Analyzing the aggregate demand for the proposed product and the market share

of the product is known as ___________.

Technical Analysis

Market Analysis

Financial Analysis

Economic Analysis

Correct Answer : Market Analysis

Q.71- Analyzing the technical and engineering aspects of a project is

______________.

Technical Analysis

Market Analysis

Financial Analysis

Economic Analysis

Correct Answer : Technical Analysis

Q.72- Analyzing whether the project will meet the servicing debt and satisfy the

return expectations of those who provide the capital is known as ___________.

Technical Analysis

Market Analysis

Financial Analysis

Economic Analysis

Correct Answer : Financial Analysis

Q.73- ____________ is referred to as social cost and benefits of a project.

Technical Analysis

Market Analysis

Financial Analysis

Economic Analysis

Correct Answer : Economic Analysis

Q.74- Analyzing the likely damage caused by the project to the environment is called

as ______________.

Technical Analysis

Market Analysis

Financial Analysis

Ecological Analysis

Correct Answer : Ecological Analysis

Q.75- Capital budgeting is a complex process which may be divided into six broad

phases as follows.

Planning, Analysis, Selection, Financing, Implementation and Review

Financing, Planning, Analysis, Selection, Implementation and Review

Selection, Planning, Analysis, Financing, Implementation and Review

Implementation, Planning, Analysis, Selection, Financing and Review

Correct Answer : Planning, Analysis, Selection, Financing,

Implementation and Review

Q.76- A detergent manufacturer gets into soap business. This is a ___________.

Concentration

Vertical Integration

Concentric Diversification

Conglomerate Diversification

Correct Answer : Concentric Diversification

Q.77- A firm gets into a new business which is unrelated to its existing business. This

is a _____________.

Concentration

Vertical Integration



Correct Answer : Conglomerate Diversification

Q.78- The sale of a business unit or plant of one firm to another is known as

________.

Concentration

Divestiture



Correct Answer : Divestiture

Q.79- When a business is consistently under-performing and there is no hope of

reviving or rehabilitating it within a reasonable period, then the best option available

with the business is ____________.

Concentration

Liquidation



Correct Answer : Liquidation

Q.80- Entering a new business that is different from the current business is _______.

Concentration

Divestiture

Diversification

Liquidation

Correct Answer : Diversification

Q.81- A shortage of well trained man power is one of the limitations of

____________.

Product Market

Capital Market

Labour Market

Consumer Market

Correct Answer : Labour Market

Q.82- Venture Capital mechanisms are weak and inadequate in the

_________________ in developing countries.

Product Market

Capital Market

Labour Market

Consumer Market

Correct Answer : Capital Market

Q.83- The technology and or the product is relatively new in the __________ stage of

the Product Life Cycle.

Decline stage

Rapid Growth stage

Pioneering Stage

Maturity Stage

Correct Answer : Pioneering Stage

Q.84- Under the stage __________________, the industry is more or less fully

developed, its growth rate is comparable to that of the economy as a whole

Decline stage

Growth stage

Pioneering Stage

Maturity Stage

Correct Answer : Maturity Stage

Q.85- With the satisfaction of demand, encroachment of new products, and changes in

consumer preferences, the product eventually enters into _______________.

Decline stage

Growth stage

Pioneering Stage

Maturity Stage.

Correct Answer : Decline stage

Q.86- Investment in the ___________ is likely to earn a high return and generate a

positive NPV

Decline stage

Growth stage

Pioneering Stage

Maturity Stage

Correct Answer : Growth stage

Q.87- Investment in the ___________ may earn average return and the NPV is neutral

Decline stage

Growth stage

Pioneering Stage

Maturity Stage

Correct Answer : Maturity Stage

Q.88- A decennial publication of the Government of India which provides information

on population, demographic characteristics, family size is __________.

Census of India

National Sample Survey Reports

Plan Reports

Statistical Abstract of the Indian Union

Correct Answer : Census of India

Q.89- ______________ is issued by the Cabinet Secretariat, Government of India, on

economic and social aspects like patterns of consumption, distribution of households

by the size of consumer expenditure, distribution of industries and the characteristics

of the economically active population.

Census of India


Plan Reports


Correct Answer : National Sample Survey Reports

Q.90- ___________ is issued by the Planning Commission on the wealth information

of plan proposals, targets, actual outlays, accomplishments etc.

Census of India


Plan Reports


Correct Answer : Plan Reports

Q.91- ________________ is an annual publication of the Central Statistical

Organisation, providing the demographic information, estimates of national income,

and agricultural and industrial statistics.

Census of India


Plan Reports


Correct Answer : Statistical Abstract of the Indian Union

Q.92- An annual Publication of the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting, it

provides a wide range of information on economic and other aspects is known as

_______________.

Annual Survey of Industries

Economic Survey

Statistical Year Book

India Year Book

Correct Answer : India Year Book

Q.93- An annual publication of the United Nations which provides world statistics

relating to various aspects like population, demography, gross domestic production,

international trade etc is_____________.


Economic Survey


India Year Book

Correct Answer : Statistical Year Book

Q.94- ____________ is an annual publication of the ministry of finance, providing the

latest data on industrial production, wholesale prices, exports, agricultural production,

national income etc


Economic Survey


India Year Book

Correct Answer : Economic Survey

Q.95- _________ is an annual publication of the Central Statistical Organisation

which provides various aspects of industry like number of units, state wise

distribution, average number of working days, employment, materials consumption,

quantity of products etc.


Economic Survey


India Year Book

Correct Answer : Annual Survey of Industries

Q.96- ___________ is an annual publication which gives a detailed review of

industries and provides information about new items manufactured for the first time in

India and the list of protected industries.

Annual Reports of the Development Wing, Ministry of Commerce and Industry

Annual Bulletin of Statistics of Exports and Imports

Techno-Economic Surveys

Industry Potential Surveys

Correct Answer : Annual Reports of the Development Wing, Ministry of

Commerce and Industry

Q.97- ____________ is an annual publication of Ministry of Commerce which

provides data on imports and exports for a very large number of items and as per

international classification





Correct Answer : Annual Bulletin of Statistics of Exports and Imports

Q.98- ______________ is conducted by The National Council of Applied Economic

Research for various states.





Correct Answer : Techno-Economic Surveys

Q.99- ___________ is conducted and published by Industrial Development Bank of

India in consortium with other financial institutions.





Correct Answer : Industry Potential Surveys

Q.100- __________ is published by Bombay Stock Exchange which provides a ten-

year picture of performance and financial statements for all listed companies

The Stock Exchange Directory

Monthly Studies of Production of Selected Industries

Monthly Bulletin of Reserve Bank of India

Publication of Advertising Agencies

Correct Answer : The Stock Exchange Directory

Q.101- _____________ is a monthly publication of Central Statistical Organization

which provides All-India data on production, number of units installed, capacity,

state-wise break-up, stock level etc, for several selected industries.




Publication of Advertising Agencies

Correct Answer : Monthly Studies of Production of Selected Industries

Q.102- ____________ provides information on production indices, prices, balance of

payment position, exchange rates, etc.




Year Book of Fishery Statistics

Correct Answer : Monthly Bulletin of Reserve Bank of India

Q.103- ____________ is an annual publication of FAO, United Nations Organisation




Year Book of Fishery Statistics

Correct Answer : Year Book of Fishery Statistics

Q.104- _____________ involves soliciting the opinions of a group of managers on

expected future sales and combining them into sales estimate

Jury of Executing Opinion Method

Delphi Method

Trend Projection Method

Exponential Smoothing Method

Correct Answer : Jury of Executing Opinion Method

Q.105- __________ is used for eliciting the opinions of a group of experts with the

help of a mail survey.


Delphi Method



Correct Answer : Delphi Method

Q.106- ____________ involves determining the trend of consumption by analysing

past consumption statistics and projecting future consumption by extrapolating the

trend.


Delphi Method



Correct Answer : Trend Projection Method

Q.107- Under ___________ , forecasts are modified in the light of observed errors.


Delphi Method



Correct Answer : Exponential Smoothing Method

Q.108- Under this ___________, the potential sales of a product may be estimated by

applying a series of factors to a measure of aggregate demand.

Chain Ratio Method

Consumption Level Method

Leading Indicator Method

Econometric Method

Correct Answer : Chain Ratio Method

Q.109- ___________ is useful for a product to estimate consumption level on the

basis of elasticity coefficients.

Chain Ratio Method



Econometric Method

Correct Answer : Consumption Level Method

Q.110- ___________ is a mathematical representation of economic relationships

derived from economic theory

Chain Ratio Method



Econometric Method

Correct Answer : Econometric Method

Q.111- ___________ is developed by Frank Bass, which seeks to estimate the pattern

of sales growth for new products in terms of two factors such as the coefficient of

innovation and the coefficient of imitation

Chain Ratio Method

Consumption Level Metho

Base Diffusion Model

Econometric Method

Correct Answer : Base Diffusion Model

Q.112- ___________ is suitable for estimating the demand for intermediate products

which is also called as the consumption coefficient method.

Chain Ratio Method


End Use Method

Econometric Method

Correct Answer : End Use Method

Q.113- _________ shows the general relationship between equipments, buildings, and

civil works.

General functional layout

Utility consumption layout

Organisational layout

Plant layout

Correct Answer : General functional layout

Q.114- __________ shows the principal consumption points of utilities and their

required quantities and qualities.




Plant layout

Correct Answer : Utility consumption layout

Q.115- ____________ shows the organisational set up of the project along with

information on personnel required for various departments and their inter-

relationships




Plant layout

Correct Answer : Organisational layout

Q.116- _________ is concerned with the physical layout of the factory.




Plant layout

Correct Answer : Plant layout

Q.117- ___________ shows the flow of materials, utilities, intermediate products,

final products, by-products, and emissions.



Material Flow Diagram

Plant layout

Correct Answer : Material Flow Diagram

Q.118- ____________ show how the production would progress along with the main

equipments




Production Line Diagrams

Correct Answer : Production Line Diagrams

Q.119- _______ shows the distances and means of transport outside the production

line



Transport layout


Correct Answer : Transport layout

Q.120- ________ shows how the various parts of the project will be connected with

telephone, intercom, etc.


Communication layout



Correct Answer : Communication layout

Q.121- The contribution made by the equity share holders is known as ____________

Deferred credit

Debenture capital

Preference capital

Equity capital

Correct Answer : Equity capital

Q.122- The contribution made by the preference shareholders is known as _________.

Deferred credit

Debenture capital

Preference capital

Equity capital

Correct Answer : Preference capital

Q.123- The funds raised by way of issuing debentures is known as __________.

Deferred credit

Debenture capital

Preference capital

Equity capital

Correct Answer : Debenture capital

Q.124- The deferred payment facility offered by the supplied of fixed assets is known

as ___________.

Deferred credit

Debenture capital

Preference capital

Equity capital

Correct Answer : Deferred credit

Q.125- The amount invested in fixed assets is __________.

Working capital

Fixed capital

Share capital

Borrowed capital

Correct Answer : Fixed capital

Q.126- The amount invested in total current assets is ___________.

Gross Working capital

Fixed capital

Share capital

Net Working capital

Correct Answer : Gross Working capital

Q.127- The excess of current assets over current liabilities is known as _________.

Gross Working capital

Fixed capital

Share capital

Net Working capital

Correct Answer : Net Working capital

Q.128- ____________ is the length of time required to recover the initial cash outlay

of the project

Payback period

Net present value

Accounting rate of return

Internal rate of return

Correct Answer : Payback period

Q.129- Internal rate of return

Discounted Payback period

Net present value

Accounting rate of return

Internal rate of return

Correct Answer : Discounted Payback period

Q.130- Working capital can be calculated as ____________.

Total of all current assets

Total assets less total liabilities

Current assets less current liabilities

Fixed assets less current assets

Correct Answer : Current assets less current liabilities

Q.131- The excess of current assets over current liability is known as __________.

Debts

Investment

Capital

Net working capital

Correct Answer : Net working capital

Q.132- The assets which can be converted into cash with in a period of one year is

known as ____________.

Current assets

Fixed assets

Fictitious assets

Leased assets

Correct Answer : Current assets

Q.133- The liabilities which are payable with in a period of one year is known as

____________.

Current liabilities

Fixed liabilities

Net liabilities

Contingent liabilities

Correct Answer : Net liabilities

Q.134- Which one of the following discipline reveals the interrelationship between

human biological factors and the natural environment

Endomology.

Andrology.

Entomology.

Ecology.

Correct Answer : Ecology.

Q.135- Primary treatment of effluents is aimed at removing the _______________.

Proteins, carbohydrates, and fats by using suitable mechnical devices

Undesirable inorganic or organic matter by suitable mechanical devices

Organic matter using chemical precipitation method

None of the above

Correct Answer : Organic matter using chemical precipitation method

Q.136- A moving average is __________.

An example of time series model.

An example of cause and effect model.

when the variable being studied is expected to exhibit a steady trend over time

Both a.) and B) above

Correct Answer : Both a.) and B) above

Q.137- Dual economies are countries _________________.

with double capital and labor

with a modern manufacturing sector as well as traditional agriculture sector

that specialize in labor-intensive products more than capital-intensive products

with foreign-owned and domestically-owned capital

Correct Answer : with a modern manufacturing sector as well as

traditional agriculture sector

Q.138- Macbride report was also known as _____________.

One voice

Many voices

Many voices one world

One voice one world

Correct Answer : Many voices one world

Q.139- If a company wants the advantage of no ad competition within the same

medium when picking a media form for advertising, they would choose direct mail.

True

False

Correct Answer : True

Q.140- Good Public Relation indicates:

Improved marketing skills

Improved brand image

Improved customer service

All of these

Correct Answer : All of these

Q.141- Effective Public Relations introduces the management function dealing with:

Putting a positive \"spin\" on bad news.

Altering perceptions and manufacturing consent.

Professional subterfuge and deception.

Relationships between organizations and stakeholders.

Correct Answer : Relationships between organizations and stakeholders.

Q.142- One of the functions of advertising is to head off unfavorable rumors, stories,

and events that might negatively impact a firm and its goods and services.

True

False

Correct Answer : False

Q.143- Public relations are often described as a marketing stepchild because of its

limited and scattered use.

True

False

Correct Answer : True

Q.144- According to the text, what is the major difference between publicity and

advertising?

Publicity identifies the source, thus the term \"good publicity\"

The practitioner controls advertising but not publicity

Publicity targets multiple publics while advertising targets only consumers

Advertising supports marketing while publicity supports public relations

Correct Answer : The practitioner controls advertising but not publicity

Q.145- The specialized part of corporate public relations that interacts with

shareholders and the financial community is which of the following?

Accounting

Issues management

Investor relations

Public affairs

Correct Answer : Investor relations

Q.146- Top management tends to leave public relations in the hands of the

__________ and assumes a relatively passive role, often so they can "get back to

business."

Expert prescriber

Communication technician

Communication facilitator

Problem - solving process facilitator

Correct Answer : Expert prescriber

Project Quality mcq

Documents

correct correct answer

conflict correct answer

charter correct answer

requirements correct

performance of contractors

project managers

single project

school construction