PCB PRE-FINAL ROUND : 01 · plants and animals based on the similarities and dissimilarities (2) Separate taxonomic keys are required for each taxonomic category, such as family,

This is to certify that, the entries of NEET-2019 Roll No. and Answer Sheet No. have been correctly written and verified.

Candidate’s Signature Invigilator’s Signature

General Instruction01. This questions booklet contains 180 Objective Type Questions (Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

Physics [Question No. : 1-45]; 4 (FOUR) marks for each correct response,1/4th MARKS (ONE MINUS) will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the totalscore will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet.

02. Chemistry [Question No : 46-90]; 4(FOUR) marks for each correct response,1/4 MARKS (ONE MINUS) will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the totalscore will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet.

03. Biology [Question No : 91-180]; 4 (FOUR) marks for each correct response,1/4 MARKS (ONE MINUS) will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the totalscore will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet.

04. The question paper and OMR (Optical Mark Reader) Answer Sheet is issued separately at the start of the examination.05. Choice and sequence for attempting questions will be as per the convenience of the candidate.06. Candidate should carefully read the instructions printed on the Questions Booklet and Answer Sheet and make the correct

entries on the Answer Sheet. As Answer Sheet are designed to suit the OPTICAL MARK READER (OMR) SYSTEM, special careshould be taken to mark the entries correctly. Special care should be taken to fill QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION, SERIAL No.and NEET-2019 Roll no. accurately. The candidate must sign on the Answer Sheet and Question Booklet.

07. Determine the one correct answer from out of the four available options given for each question.08. Fill the appropriate circle completely like this for answering a particular question. Mark with Black ink ball point pen only.09. Use of whitener or any other material to erase/hide the circle once filled is not permitted.10. Avoid overwriting and/or striking of answers once marked.11. Rough work should be done only one the blank space provided on the Question Booklet. Rough work should not be done on the

Answer Sheet.12. Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over Answer sheet is to be returned to the invigilator. Confirm that both the

candidate and invigilator have signed on question booklet and Answer Sheet.13. No candidate is allowed to leave the examination hall till the end of examination.

Roll No. Question Booklet Sr. NoQuestion Booklet Version

(Write this number onyour Answer Sheet)11

Mark720

GroupPCB

Date : 15/03/2020Time : 3 Hours

Biology - 90 Physics - 45Chemistry - 45

PCB PRE-FINAL ROUND : 01NEET 2020

0

Test SyllabusBiology : NCERT Unit - I

Chemistry : Periodic Table + s-Block

Physics : Units and Measurement + Motion in a Straight Line + Motion in a Plane

THINK NEET | THINK IIB

Cont. No. 7304567567, 7304730730, 7261960000, 7972123533, 9421473208, 9156710417

PCB PRE-FINAL ROUND : 01 2 TEST BOOKLET CODE-11

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Section ‘A’ : Biology01. Select the group of animals in which jointed

appandages are found?(1) Limulus, Apis and Laccifer(2) Limulus, Neries and Laccifer(3) Locust, Filarialworm and Snail(4) Apis, Laccifer and Unio

02. Which of the following option is correct regardinganimal kingdom?

Phylum Symmetry Example Characteric property

(1) Cocelentrata Bilateral Hydra Aquatic, Marine

(2) Annelida Bilateral Ancylostama Hooks and Suckers present

(3) Platyhelminthes Bilateral Planaria High regeneration capacity

(4) Mollusca Radial Octopus Aquatic

3

03. Which of the following is correct(1) Macropus - Ear pinna, body hairs, 4 chambered

heart(2) Pavo - Long bones ossified, hind limbs modified

to wings(3) Ichthyophis - Covering on eyelids, Scales present(4) Limulus - Chitinous exoskeleton, tube feet

04. How many characters in the list given below are trueregarding echinodermata.I. Endoskeleton of calcareous ossicles.II. Mostly marine.III. Larva are radially symmetrical.IV. Fertilisation is generally external.V. Mouth is on dorsal side and anus on ventral side.VI. Excretory organ is presentVII. Development is indirect(1) Two (2) Three(3) Four (4) Five

05. The scales found on sharks are known as(1) Placoid scales(2) Ganoid scales(3) Ptenoid scales(4) None of the above : Sharks don’t have scales

06. Organ Phylum Function Parapodia Annelida A

B Ctenophora Locomotion C Mollusca Rasping organ

Malpighian tubules Arthropoda D Cnidoblasts Coelenterata E

From the above table find out the missing organ orfunction - A, B, C, D and E respectively.

(1) A - swimming; B-comb plates; C-radula; D-excretion; E-defense

(2) A-defense; B-radula; C-comb plates; D-excretion;E-swimming

(3) A-defense; B-radula; C-comb plates; D-swimming;E-excretion

(4) A-protection; B-parapodia; C-visceral mass; D-locomotion; E-excretion

07. Identify the given animal and choose the correct option.

(1) The skin is tough, containing minute placoid scales(2) It has four pairs of gills which are covered by air

bladder(3) Fertilisation is external and is oviparous(4) Mouth is located venternal and is oviparous

08. Some animals are given in the list belowAsterias, Pila, Echinus, Antedon, Pinctada,Cucumaria, Octopus, Loligo, Ophiura, Dentalium.How many animals among these are related to thesecond largest phylum of animals?(1) Two (2) Three(3) Four (4) Five

09. Sharks do not have(1) Teeth (2) Claspers(3) Air bladder (4) Ventral mouth

10. Chelone is commonly known as(1) Garden lizard (2) Tortoise(3) Flying lizard (4) Turtle

11. When any plane passing through the central axis ofthe body divides the organism into two identical halves,the organism is called(1) Radially symmetrical(2) Bilaterally symmetrical(3) Asymmetrical(4) Metamerically segmented

12. Flying mammal is(1) Ornithorhynchus(2) Macropus(3) Pteropus(4) Dolphin

13. Birds have bipedal locomotion as it(1) Increases rate of locomotion(2) Spare fore limbs for flight(3) Reduces weight(4) Has no fore limbs

14. Evidence for the reptilian origin of birds is theoccurrence of(1) Scales (2) Beak(3) Feathers (4) Hairs


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15. Column I Column II A. Testudo I. Tortoise B. Calotes II. Garden lizard C. Alligator III. Wall lizard D. Hemidactylus IV. Alligator

The correct matching is(1) A-I; B-II; C-III; D-IV(2) A-I; B-II; C-IV; D-III(3) A-II; B-I; C-III; D-IV(4) A-IV; B-III; C-II; D-I

16. Common trait among reptiles, fishes and amphibia is(1) Gill covered by operculum(2) Scales(3) Laying eggs(4) Aquatic habitat

17. Assertion : Aschelminthes are pseudocoelomates.Reason : Body cavity in these organisms is not linedwith mesoderm(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true, and reason

is the correct explanation of the assertion.(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is

not the correct explanation of the assertion.(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.(4) If Assertion is false but Reason is false.

18. Which of the following is not a true amphibian animal?(1) Salamander (2) Toad(3) Tortoise (4) Frog

19. All vertebrates possess(1) Renal portal system(2) Dorsal hollow central nervous system(3) Four-chambered ventral heart(4) Unpaired Pharyngeal gill slits

20. Which one of the following animals possesses nervecells but no nerves?(1) Hydra (2) Tapeworm(3) Earthworm (4) Frog’s tadpole

21. Point out a non-parasite from the following(1) Tapeworm (2) Mosquito(3) Leech (4) Sea Anemone

22. The special character of coelenterates is(1) Polymorphism (2) Nematocysts(3) Flame cells (4) Hermaphroditism

23. Given below are the four matching of an animal andkind of respiratory organ.A. Ants - TracheaB. Scorpion - Book lungC. Shark - Pharyngeal gillsD. Dolphin - SkinThe correct matchings are(1) C and D (2) A and D(3) A, B and C (4) B and D

24. Pneumatic bones are present in(1) Corvus (2) Neophron(3) Pavo (4) All of these

25. Select the total number of lizards from the following.Chelone, Calotes, Chameleon, Crocodilus,Hemidactylum, Columba, Neophron(1) 2 (2) 3(3) 4 (4) 5

26. Which of the following organism’s growth issynonymous with reproduction?(1) Unicellular algae (2) Amoeba(3) Bacteria (4) All of these

27. Mark the correct statement.(1) The growth in living organisms is from inside(2) Plants grow only up to a certain age(3) Only living organisms grow(4) All of these

28. The growth and reproduction are mutually exclusiveevents in(1) Plants only(2) Animals only(3) Higher animals and plants(4) Lower organisms

29. Which of the following statements is false?(1) All plants, animals, fungi and microbes exhibit

metabolism(2) Interactions among the molecular components of

the organelles results into properties of cellorganelles.

(3) Properties of cellular organelles are present in themolecular constituents of the organelles

(4) Cellular organization of the body is the definingfeature of life forms

30. Which two points are known as the twin characteristicsof growth?(1) Increase in the mass(2) Metabolism(3) Increase in the number(4) Both (1) & (3)

31. Metabolic reactions take place(1) In vitro(2) In vivo(3) Both (1) and (2)(4) Only in unicellular organisms

32. Organisms that can sense and response toenvironmental cues?(1) Eukaryotes only(2) Prokaryotes only(3) Both (1) and (2)(4) Those with a well-developed neuroendocrine

system33. All plants, animals, fungi and microbes exhibit

(1) Reproduction(2) Growth by increase in mass only(3) Metabolism(4) Self-consciousness


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34. In Mangifera indica Linn. The term ‘Linn’ stands for(1) Latin (2) Lower organism(3) Linnaeus (4) Lamarck

35. As we go higher from species to kingdom, the numberof common characteristics goes on ..........(1) Increasing (2) Decreasing(3) Remains same (4) None of these

36. A museum has a collection of(1) Preserved plants(2) Preserved animals(3) Skeleton of animals(4) All of these

37. The keys are based on contrasting characters generallyin pairs called(1) Duplex (2) Couplet(3) Dimer (4) All of these

38. Which of the following is incorrect about keys?(1) Key is a taxonomical aid used for identification of

plants and animals based on the similarities anddissimilarities

(2) Separate taxonomic keys are required for eachtaxonomic category, such as family, genus andspecies for identification purposes

(3) Keys are generally analytical in nature(4) A key is another taxonomical aid used for

nomenclature of plants and animals based on thesimilarities and dissimilarities

39. All living organisms present, past and future are linkedto one another by the sharing of the common ..........but to varying degrees.(1) Morphological features(2) Anatomical features(3) Genetic material(4) All of these

40. Which of the following is less general in characters ascompared to genus?(1) Species (2) Division(3) Class (4) Family

41. Two kingdom classification does not distinguishbetween(1) Eukaryote and prokaryote(2) Unicellular and multicellular organism(3) Photosynthetic (green algae) and non-

photosynthetic (fungi) organism(4) All the above

42. What is/are the criteria not used by Whittaker forclassification?(1) Cell structure(2) Thallus organization(3) Mode of nutrition(4) Mode of reproduction

43. What is common to bacteria, mosses and fungus?(1) Mode of nutrition(2) Presence of cell wall(3) Autotrophic(4) Body organization

44. Kingdom Protista contains(1) Blue green algae(2) Fungi(3) Unicellular eukaryotes(4) All of these

45. Phylogeny refers to(1) Morphology(2) Physiology(3) Reproduction(4) Evolutionary relationship

46. Which of the following statement is incorrect aboutbacteria?A. It is grouped under five categories on the basis of

shape.B. It can live in hot spring, deep ocean, snow and

desert.C. It can live as a parasite.D. It possess simple behaviour and complex structure.(1) A and B only (2) A and D only(3) B and C only (4) C and D only

47. The most extensive metabolic diversity is found in(1) Protozoan (2) Amphibian(3) Bacteria (4) Fungi

48. Which of the following statements is true aboutcyanobacteria?(1) It is found in fresh water only(2) It may be unicellular, colonial or filamentous.(3) They often form bloom in non-polluted fresh water

bodies.(4) The colonies are not surrounded by gelatinous

sheath49. Specialized cell of Nostoc and Anabaena fixing

nitrogen are known as(1) Cyst (2) Heterocyst(3) Oocytes (4) Cholecyst

50. Select the total number of diseases from the thefollowing caused by bacteria.Mumps, Smallpox, Citrus canker, Cholera, Typhoid,Tetanus, Sleeping sickness, Malaria(1) 2 (2) 4(3) 5 (4) 6

51. Which cell organelle is found in mycoplasma?(1) Plastid (2) Mitochondria(3) Ribosome (4) Golgi body

52. Which of the following is true about Gonyaulax?(1) It releases toxin(2) Slow multiplication of them causes red tide.(3) It is heterotrophic(4) All of these

53. The habitat of majority of euglenoids is(1) Fresh river water(2) Fresh stagnant water(3) Marine water(4) All of these


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54. Which of the following statement is incorrect aboutthe given organism in this diagram?

(1) Autotrophic in sunlight(2) Heterotrophic in deprived sunlight(3) Biflagellate(4) They are surrounded by protein rich layer known

as cell wall55. Select the correct statement from the following for

kingdom Fungi.A. They are heterotrophic.B. They show less diversity in morphology and

habitat.C. Yeast is a unicellular fungus.D. They prefer to grow in warm and humid places.(1) A and D only (2) C and D only(3) A, C and D only (4) A and B only

56. If hyphae are continuous tube filled withmultinucleated cytoplasm, then it is known as(1) Septate hyphae(2) Coenocytic hyphae(3) Mycelium(4) All of these

57. Sexual reproduction in fungus occurs in the followingsequential event, choose the correct option that isproperly arranged.A. Fusion of two nuclei called karyogamy.B. Fusion of protoplasm between two motile or non-

motile gametes.C. Meiosis in zygote resulting in haploid spores.(1) A B C (2) B A C(3) C B AA (4) C A B

58. Kingdom Fungi is divided into various classes on thebasis of(1) Morphology of mycelium(2) Made of spore formation(3) Type of fruiting bodies(4) All of these

59. Endogenously produced spores are found in all except(1) Mushroom (2) Mucor(3) Albugo (4) Rhizopus

60. Find the total number of fungus species belonging tothe class ascomycetes.Rhizopus, Penicillium, Yeast, Mucor, Agaricus,Puccinia, Albugo, Claviceps, Neurospora, Alternaria,Trichoderma, Aspergillus, Ustilago, Morels, Truffles,Colletotrichum, Toadstool(1) 5 (2) 7(3) 9 (4) 10

61. Find out the correct matching(1) Ustilago - Smut(2) Puccinia - Rust(3) Agaricus - Mushroom(4) All of these

62. Which of the following are example of insectivorousplants?(1) Bladderwort (2) Venus fly trap(3) Cuscuta (4) Both (1) and (2)

63. Alternation of generation is seen in all except(1) Fucus (2) Sphagnum(3) Equisetum (4) Alternaria

64. Life cycle in plant has generally two distinct phases,such as the .............. sporophytic and the .........gametophytic that alternate with each other. Thisphenomenon is known as alternation of generation.(1) Diploid, Diploid (2) Diploid, Haploid(3) Haploid, Diploid (4) Haploid, Haploid

65. In virus infected plants, which of the followingsymptoms can be observed?(1) Mosaic formation and stunted growth(2) Leaf rolling and curling(3) Yellowing and vein clearing(4) All of these

66. Lichen is the symbiotic association between(1) Algae and bacteria(2) Bacteria and fungus(3) Algae and fungus(4) Fungus and root of higher plants

67. Viruses are no more ‘alive’ than isolated chromosomesbecause(1) Both require the environment of a cell to replicate(2) They require both RNA and DNA(3) They both need food molecules(4) They both require oxygen for respiration

68. Which one of the following statement aboutmycoplasma is wrong?(1) They are pleomorphic(2) They are sensitive to penicillin(3) They cause disease in plants(4) They are also called PPLO

69. Algae possessing both isogamy and anisogamy iscalled(1) Chlamydomonas (2) Volvox(3) Spirogyra (4) Fucus

70. 50% CO2 fixation on earth is carried out by(1) Protista (2) Higher plants(3) Algae (4) None of these

71. Algin is secreted by(1) All kinds of algae(2) Only brown algae(3) Only red algae(4) Both red and brown algae


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72. Carrageen is secreted by(1) All kinds of algae(2) Only brown algae(3) Only red algae(4) Both red and brown algae

73. Agar is commercially obtained from(1) Gelidium and Gracilaria(2) Laminaria and Spirulina(3) Chlorella and Spirulina(4) Chlamydomonas and Spirogyra

74. The dominance fo chlorophyll ‘a’ and ‘b’, pyrenoidsand starch as stored food are found in(1) Members of Chlorophyceae(2) Members of Rhodophyceae(3) Members of Phaeophyceae(4) All of these

75. Pyrenoids are located in(1) Cytoplasm (2) Mitochondria(3) Chloroplast (4) Nucleus

76. The algae that possess chlorophyll a, c, carotenoidsand xenthophylls belongs to(1) Green algae (2) Brown algae(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of these

77. Brown algae very in colour from ....... to various shadesof ......... depending upon the amount of ......... pigmentand ........... present in them.(1) Fucoxanthin, xanthophyll, blue, brown(2) Blue, Brown, fucoxanthin, xanthophyll(3) Yellow, brown, fucoxanthin, xanthophyll(4) Olive green, brown, fucoxanthin, xanthophyll

78. The plant body attached to substratum in brown algaeis(1) Rhizoids (2) Multicellular hair(3) Holdfast (4) Roots

79. The arrangement of flagella in brown algae is(1) One and equally arranged(2) Two unequal and laterally arranged(3) Many flagella arranged anywhere on the body(4) Depends from organism to organism

80. Pyriform gametes mean(1) Pea-shaped gametes(2) Pear-shaped gametes(3) Gametes with one flagella(4) All of these

81. The spores and gametes of red algae are(1) Motile and non-motile(2) Both are motile(3) Both non-motile(4) Motile spores and non-motile gametes

82. Air bladders are shown by(1) Fucus (2) Laminaria(3) Dictyota (4) All of these

83. Identify A, B and C in the below diagram.

(1) A : Fucus; B : Laminaria; C : Dictyota(2) A : Laminaria; B : Dictyota; C : Fucus(3) A : Laminaria; B : Fucus; C : Dictyota(4) A : Dictyota; B : Fucus; C : Laminaria

84. Organisms referred to as the amphibians of plantkingdom are(1) Pteridophytes(2) Bryophytes(3) Angiosperms(4) Gymnosperms

85. The male and female sex organs of pteridophytes arecalled(1) Globule and nucule, respectively(2) Antheridia and archegonia, respectively(3) Spermatangia and oogonia, respectively(4) Testes and ovary, respectively

86. Selaginella belongs to the class(1) Psilopsida(2) Lycopsida(3) Pteropsida(4) Sphenopsida

87. Ovules are not enclosed by the ovary wall in(1) Pteridophytes(2) Angiosperms(3) Gymnosperms(4) All of these

88. Gymnosperms(1) Are naked seed plants(2) Have tap roots(3) Are heterosporous(4) All of these

89. In haplontic life cycle, the zygote divides by(1) Mitosis(2) Meiosis(3) Any of them(4) Amitosis

90. If sporophyte, the dominant, photosynthetic andindependent phase of plant represents(1) Haplontic(2) Diplontic(3) Diplohaplontic life cycle(4) Both (2) and (3)


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Section ‘B’ : Chemistry91. Which of the following factors may be regarded as the

main cause of lanthanide contraction ?1) Greater shielding of 5d-electrons by 4f-electrons2) Poorer shielding of 5d-electrons by 4f-electrons3) Effective shielding of one of 4f-electrons by

another in the subshell4) Poor shielding of one of 4f-electrons by another

in the subshell92. Successive (IE) values of three elements of third period

are give belowElements (IE)t (IE)2 (IE)3X 513 4562 6920Y 738 1451 7733Z 1521 2666 3931

Atomic numbers of X, Y and Z respectively are1) 11, 12, 13 2) 11, 12, 143) 11, 12, 15 4) 11, 12, 18

93. 20N

atoms of X(g) are converted into X+ (g) by energy

01H

20N

atoms of X(g) are converted into X+ (g) and 2

0N

atoms of X(g) are converted into X– (g) by energy02H

Thus, IE and EA of X(g) atomIE) (E1)

1) 01H 0

1H + 02H

2)0

01

NH

0

02

01

NHH

3)012 H 0 0

1 12( )H H

4)0

012

NH

0

01

01 )(2N

HH

94. There is repetition of properties in the periodic tableafter 2, 8, 8, 18, 18 and 32 elements . This sequence isbased on1) Aufbau rule2) Pauli’s exculusion principle3) Hund’s rule4) Avogadro’s low

95. The general electronic configuration of the outermostand penultimate shell for a d-block element is givenby

( n–1) s2p6dxnsy

For a divalent cation of an element with n = 4 , x = 6and y = 2, number of protons is1) 24 2) 253) 26 4) 27

96. Assume total number of 112 elements, then how manyperiods would be required in the periodic table withoutseparate position of lanthanides and actinides, also inthe absence of Aufbau rule ?1) 5 2) 63) 7 4) 8

97. On the basis of given part of periodic table, the incor-rect statement is

1) C is a transuranic element

2) A is an alkaline earth metal

3) atomic number of E is 55

4) atomic number, group number and period numberof D are 72, 4 and VI, respectively

98. Correct order for electrons in outermost shell is1) Ni < Pd < Pt 2) Ni = Pd = Pt

3) Pd > Ni > Pt 4) Pd > Pt > Ni

99. In which of the following both ions are diamagnetic innature ?1) ferrous and ferric

2) cuprous and cupic

3) mercurous and mercuric

4) none of these

100. The value of IE1, IE2, IE3 and IE4 of an atom are 7.5 eV,25.6 eV, 48.6 ev and 170.6 eV, respectively. The elec-tronic configuration of the atom will be1) 1s22s22p63s1 2) 1s22s22p63s23p1

3) 1s22s22p63s2 3p3 4) 1s22s22p63s2

101. Arrange Cl, F, F– and and Cl– in increasing order ofionisation potential1) F Cl Cl F

2) Cl F Cl F

3) Cl F F Cl

4) F Cl F Cl


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102. Arrange N+, O+, N and O increasing order of electronaffinity1) N+ < O+ < N < O 2) N < O < O+ < N+

3) O < N < O+ < N+ 4) O+ < N+ < N < O

103. In which of the following process, least energy is re-quired ?1) ( ) ( )g gF F e 2) ( ) ( )g gP P e

3) ( ) ( )g gS S e 4) ( ) ( )g gCl Cl e

104. 2; egO O H x

2; egS S H y values of x and y are, respectively1) + 800 and + 640 2) +640 and +800

3) – 141 and – 300 4) – 300 and – 141

105. Which of the following metals give inflammable gaswith both acid and base ?1) Na and Zn 2) Mg and Al

3) Mg and Be 4) Zn and Al

106. Which of the following oxide is different than other?1) SO2 2) Cl2O7

3) Pb3O4 4) Mn2O7

107. The atomic number of three elements A, B and C are a,a + 1 and a + 2, C is an alkali metal. In the compoundof A and C, the nature of bonding is1) coordinate 2) covalent

3) ionic 4) metallic

108. Choose the correct order of ionic radius for the fol-lowing species1) Cl– > I–> Te2–>Ar+

2) Te2– > I– > Cl– > Ar+

3) I– > Te2– > Cl– > Ar+

4) I– > Cl– > Ar+ > Te2–

109. Consider the following changes( ) ( )M s M g ............. (i)

2( ) ( ) 2M s M g e .............. (ii)

( ) ( )M g M g e .................(iii)

2( ) ( )M g M g e ................(iv)

2( ) ( ) 2M g M g e .................(v)The second ionisation energy of M could be calculatedfrom the energy values associated with1) i + iii + iv 2) ii – i + iii

3) i + v 4) v – iii

110. The correct order of relative stability of half filled andcompletely filled subshell is1) p3 > d5 < d10 < p6 2) d5 > p5 < d10 < p6

3) d5 > p3 < d10 < p6 4) p3 > d10 < d3 < p6

111. IE2 for an element is invariably higher than IE1 be-cause1) it is difficult to remove electron from cation2) the size of the cation is smaller than its atoms

3) Zeff is more for cation

4) all the above

112. The element with Z = 120 will be an/a

1) Transition metal

2) Inner transition metal

3) Alkaline earth metal

4) Alkali metal

113. Statement–1 : ionisation potential of Sn is less than PbStatement-2 : Ionisation potential is inversely propor-tional to atomic size1) statment-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-

2 is correct explanation for statement-1

2) statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true andstatement-2 is NOT the correct explanation forstatement-1

3) statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false

4) statement-1 is false, statement-2 true

114. The correct option with respect to the Pauling elec-tronegativity values of the elements is1) Ga < Ge 2) Si < Al

3) P > S 4) Te > Se


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115. The correct order of atomic radii is1) Ce > Eu > Ho > N 2) N > Ce > Eu > Ho

3) Eu > Ce > Ho > N 4) Ho > N > Eu > Ce

116. Which elements out of the following do not producehydrogen on treatment with caustic soda ?

A(Zn) ; B(Sn) C(Mg)D(Cu); E(Al)

1) A, E 2) C, D3) D, E 4) B, D

117. Potassium carbonate can not be made by the solvayprocess because :1) Potassium hydrogen carbonate is unstable2) potassium hydrogen carbonate is rather too

soluble in water to be precipitated.3) potassium carbonate is insoluble in water4) potassium carbonate is soluble is water

118. The compound X on heating gives a colourless gas .The residue is dissolved in water to obtain Y. Whenexcess of CO2 is bubbled through aqueous solution ofY, Z is formed which on gentle heating , gives back X.1) CaCO3 2) Na2CO33) CaSO4.2H2O 4) K2CO3

119. When sodium is placed in moist air, if finally changesinto1) NaOH 2) Na2O23) Na2O 4) Na2CO3

120. When powered Be is heated in air, it form A and B.Compound A give C after reductive chlorination. Cproduces white fumes in presence of moisture andforms D . Then A, B, C and D are respectively :1) BeO, Be3N2, BeCl2, Be(OH)22) Be3N2 , BeO, BeCl4

–2, Be(OH)23) BeO, Be(OH)2, Be3N2, BeCl24) BeO, Be3N2, Be, Be(OH)2

121. Select the incorrect choice1) Solubility of alkaline earth metal’s carbonates,

sulphates and chromates decreases from Be toBa.

2) Solubility of alkaline earth metal’s hydroxidesis less than alkali metal hydroxides.

3) KSP of alkaline earth Metal’s oxides decreasesfrom Be to Ba

4) CO2 on passing in lime water turns lime watermilky.

122. Which of the following compound is consumed duringthe preparation of Na2CO3 by Solvay’s Process ?1) NH3 + CaCO3 + NaCl2) NH4Cl + CaO + NaCl3) CaCO3 + NaCl4) NaCl + NH4HCO3

123. Assertion : Carbonate of Be always kept in atmosphereof CO2Reason : BeCO3 has very low thermal stability1) If both Assertion and Reason are True and the

Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion2) If both Assertion and Reason are True and the

Reason is not correct explanation of theAssertion

3) If Assertion is ture but the Reason is false4) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

124. Assertion : BaCO3 is more soluble in HNO3 than inwaterReason : Carbonate is weak base and reacts with H+

from the strong acid, causting the barium salt todissociate1) If both Assertion and Reason are True and

the Reason is a correct explanation of theAssertion

2) If both Assertion and Reason are True and theReason is not correct explanation of theAssertion

3) If Assertion is ture but the Reason is false4) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

125. The alkali halide that is soluble in pyridine is1) NaCl 2) LiCl

3) KCl 4) CsI

126. Assertion (1) Bleaching powder is a mixed saltReason (R) In the presence of CoCl2, bleaching pow-der decomposes to give CaCl2 and O2.1) both A and R are correct and R is the correct

explanation of A

2) both A and R are correct but R is not the correctexplanation of A

3) A is correct but R is incorrect

4) both A and R are incorrect

127. Assertion (1) : Among the alkali metals, lithium, saltsexhibit the least electrical conductance in aqueous so-lutions.Reason (R) : Smaller the radius of the hydrated cation,lower is the electrical conductance in aqueous solu-tions.1) both A and R are correct and R is the correct

explanation of A

2) both A and R are correct but R is not the correctexplanation of A

3) A is correct but R is incorrect

4) both A and R are incorrect


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128. Equimolar solutions of the following were prepared inwater separately. Which one of the solutions will recordthe highest pH?1) SrCl2 2) BaCl2

3) MgCl2 4) CaCl2

129. Select the incorrect statement1) Cyanamide ion isoelectronic and isostructural

with CO22) Mg2C3 reacts with water to form propyne3) CaC2 has NaCl type lattice4) None of these

130. Ca(OH)2 OH

Cl

2

2

A oxidationAuto CaCl2 + B

(dry)Identify B ion the above reaction1) CaOCl2 2) Ca(ClO2)23) Ca(OH)2 4) none

131. Sodium metal can be used for the drying of1) ethanol 2) ammonia

3) dimethyl ether 4) phenol

132. Select the correct order about solubility :1) CaCO3 > KHCO3 > NaHCO3

2) KHCO3 > NaHCO3 > CaCO3

3) NaHCO3 > KHCO3 > CaCO3

4) CaCO3 > NaHCO3 > KHCO3

133. Which of the following gases has least solubility inNaOH aq. solution ?1) CO2 2) SO2

3) H2S 4) NH3

134. As we move down the group covalent character de-creases, solubility increases and thermal stability in-creases for which of the following ?1) fluorides of alkali metal

2) carbonates of alkali metals

3) sulphates of alkali earth metal

4) none of these

135. Which of the following diagrams is correct for chemi-cal change ?

1)

2)

3)

4)


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Section ‘C’ : Physics136. The diameter of earth is 1.28×107 m. The order

of its magnitude is1) 1 2) 83) 7 4) 5

137. Which of the following is not the unit of time ?1) Microsecond 2) Leap year3) Lunar month 4) Parallactic second

138. The temperatures of two bodies measured by athermometer are t1 = 20oC ± 0.5oC andt2 = 50°C ± 0.5oC. The temperature difference witherror limits is1) 30°C ± 1oC 2) 70°C ± 0.5°C3) 30oC ± 0.5°C 4) 70°C ± 1oC

139. The dimensions of 2

0

e4 hc , where e is charge,

0 is electric permittivity, h is Planck’s constantand c is velocity of light in vacuum, are1) [M0L0T0] 2) [M L0T0]3) [M0LT0] 4) [M0L0T]

140. In the radioactive decay law, t0N N e .

The dimensions of are1) M0L0T0 2) M0L0T–1

3) M0L0T 4) ML0T–1

141. Convert 3.0 m s–2 into km h–2

1) 3.9 × 104 2) 3.9 × 106

3) 10.8 4) 0.83142. Convert G = 6.67 × 10–11 N m2 kg–2 into dyne cm2 g–2.

1) 6.67×10–6 2) 6.67×10–7

3) 6.67×10–8 4) 6.67×10–9

143. A calorie is a unit of heat or energy and it equalsabout 4.2 J where 1 J = 1 kg m2 s–2. Suppose weemploy a system of units in which the unit ofmass equals kg, the unit of length equals m,the unit of time is s. Show that a calorie has a

magnitude 1 2 24.2 in terms of the

1) 1 2 24.2 2) 1 2 24.2

3) 1 2 24.2 4) 1 2 24.2 144. Which of the following is the most precise device

for measuring length:1) a vernier callipers with 20 divisions on the

sliding scale2) a screw gauge of pitch 1 mm and 100

divisions on the circular scale3) an optical instrument that can measure

length to within a wavelength of light4) a meter scale with 200 mm in 1 cm

145. Identify the one having least number ofsignificant figures in the following:1) 0.007 m2 2) 2.64 × 1024 kg3) 0.2370 g cm–3 4) 6.032 N m–2

146. A physical quantity P is related to fourobservables a, b, c and d as follows:

3 2p a b / ( c d) The percentage errors ofmeasurement in a, b, c and d are 1%, 3%, 4%and 2%, respectively. What is the maximumpercentage error in the quantity P1) 10% 2) 11%3) 12% 4) 13%

147. A book with many printing errors contains fourdifferent formulas for the displacement y of aparticle undergoing a certain periodic motion(a) y = a sin 2 t /T(b) y = a sin vt(c) y = (a/T) sin t/a

(d) y =(a 2 ) (sin 2 t /T + cos 2 t /T)(a = maximum displacement of the particle,v = speed of the particle. T = time-period of motion.) Find the correct formula having dimensions.

1)2 tT

2) vt

3)ya

4)vty


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148. A famous relation in physics relates ‘moving mass’m to the ‘rest mass’ mo of a particle in terms of itsspeed v and the speed of light, c. (This relationfirst arose as a consequence of special theory ofrelativity due to Albert Einstein). A boy recallsthe relation almost correctly but forgets whereto put the constant c.

He writes: o2 1/2

mm(1 v )

. Guess where to put the

missing c.

1)o2 1/2

mc(1 v ) 2)

o2 2 1/2

m(c v )

3) o2

1 / 22

mv(1 )c

4)

o2 2 1/2

m(1 c v )

149. A man walking briskly in rain with speed v mustslant his umbrella forward making an angle 0with the vertical. A student derives the followingrelation between and v : tan = v and checksthat the relation has a correct limit: as v 0, 0 as expected. (We are assuming there is nostrong wind and that the rain falls vertically fora stationary man). Do you think this relation canbe correct? If not, guess thecorrect relation.

1) tan vu 2)vtanu

3)1tanu

4)vtan1

150. lt is a well known fact that during a total solareclipse the disc of the moon almost completelycovers the disc of the Sun. From this factdetermine the approximate diameter of themoon.Earth-Moon distance = 3.84 × 108 mSun-Earth distance = 1.496 × 1011 mSun’s diameter = 1.39 × 109 m1) 2567 km 2) 35671 km3) 3567 km 4) 356.7 km

151. A body while moving along a straight linecovers one-third of the distance with avelocity v 1, the second one-third of thedistance with a velocity v2 and the remainingdistance with a velocity v3. The averagevelocity is

1) 1 2 3v v v3

2) 1 2 3v v v3

3) 1 2 2 3 3 1v v v v v v3

4)1 2 3

1 2 2 3 3 1

3v v vv v v v v v

152. A particle moving in a straight line covers half thedistance with speed of 3 m/s. The other half of thedistance is covered in two equal time intervalswith speed of 4.5 m/s and 7.5 m/s respectively. Theaverage speed of the particle during this motionis1) 4.0 m/s2) 5.0 m/s3) 5.5 m/s4) 4.8 m/s

153. Three persons P, Q and R of same mass travelwith same speed u along an equilateral triangleof side 'd' such that each one faces the otheralways. After how much time will they meet eachother ?1) d/u seconds2) 2 d/3 u seconds

3) 2d/u 3 seconds

4) d/ 3 u seconds


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154. A particle moves along x-axis in such a way that itscoordinate x varies with time t according to theequation, x = (2 – 5 t + 6 t2) m. The initial velocityof the particle is1) – 5 ms–1 2) – 3 ms–1

3) 6 ms–1 4) 3 ms–1

155. Displacement (x) of a particle is related to time(t) as x = at + bt2 – ct3 where a, b and c areconstants of the motion. The velocity of the particlewhen its acceleration is zero is given by

1)2ba

c 2)

2ba2c

3)2ba

3c 4)

2ba4c

156. An athlete completes one round of a circulartrack of radius r in 30 seconds. What will bethe distance and his displacement at the endof 2 minutes 15 seconds ?1) 8r, zero 2) 9r, 2r3) 9r, 2 r,, 4) 8r, 2 r

157. A drunkard walking in a narrow lane takes5 steps forward and 3 steps backward, followedagain by 5 steps forward and 3 steps backward,and so on. Each step is 1 m long and requires 1 s.How long the drunkard takes to fall in a pit13 m away from the start.1) 32 sec 2) 35 sec3) 37 sec 4) 39 sec

158. A car moving along a straight highway with speedof 126 km h–1 is brought to a stop within a distanceof 200 m. What is the retardation of the car(assumed uniform)1) 4.9 ms–2 2) 3.06 ms–2

3) 3.06 ms–2 4) 3.06 ms–2

159. A player throws a ball upwards with an initialspeed of 29.4 m s–1. What is the direction ofacceleration during the upward motion of theball?1) Zero 2) Horizontal3) Upward 4) Downward

160. Read each statement below carefully for aparticle in one-dimensional motion. Identifythe false statment1) with zero speed at an instant may have

non-zero acceleration at that instant2) with zero speed may have non-zero

velocity,3) with constant speed must have zero

acceleration,4) with positive value of acceleration must be

speeding up.161. A man walks on a straight road from his home

to a market 2.5 km away with a speed of 5 km h–1.Finding the market closed, he instantly turns andwalks back with a speed of 7.5 km h–1. What isthe average speed of the man over the intervalof time 0 to 30 min.1) 6 km h–1 2) 5 km h–1

3) 50 km h–1 4) 60 km h–1

162. Look at the graphs carefully, which of thesecannot possibly represent one-dimensionalmotion of a particle.

1) 2)

3) 4)

163. A wheel of radius 1 m rolls forward half arevolution on a horizontal ground. Themagnitude of the displacement of the pointof the wheel initially in contact with theground is1) 2 m 2) 2 m3) p m 4) 42 m


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164. A three-wheeler starts from rest, acceleratesuniformly with 1 m s–2 on a straight road for 10 s,and then moves with uniform velocity. What doyou expect this plot to be during acceleratedmotion1) straight line 2) parabola3) increasing slope 4) decreasing slope

165. The speed-time graph of a particle moving alonga fixed direction is shown in figure. Obtain thedistance traversed by the particle between t = 2 sto 6 s.

1) 30 m 2) 36 m3) 60 m 4) 72 m

166. A body is projected with an angle . Themaximum height reached is h. If the time offlight is 4s and g = 10 m/s2, then value of h is1) 40 m 2) 20 m3) 5 m 4) 10 m

167. A body is projected with a speed u m/s at an angle with the horizontal. The kinetic energy at the

highest point is 43

th of the initial kinetic energy..

The value of is1) 30o 2) 45o

3) 60o 4) 120o

168. Three particles A, B and C are projected fromthe same point with the same initial speedsmaking angle 30o, 45o, and 60o, respectively, withthe horizontal. Which of the followingstatements is correct?1) A, B, and C have upequal ranges2) Ranges of A and C are equal and less than

that of B.3) Ranges of A and C are equal and greater

than that of B4) A, B and C have equal ranges

169. The equation of trajectory of a projectile is

25y 10x x .9

If we assume g = 10 ms–2 then the

range of projectile (in metre) is1) 36 2) 243) 18 4) 9

170. An aeroplane is flying horizontally with a velocityof 600 km/hr and at a height of 1960 m. When it isvertically above a point A on the ground, a bombis released from it. The bomb strikes the ground atpoint B. The distance AB is1) 1200 m 2) 0.33 km3) 33.3 km 4) 3.33 km

171. Pick out the only vector quantity in the followinglist : temperature, pressure, impulse, time,power, total path length, energy, gravitationalpotential, coefficient of friction, charge.1) temperature2) gravitational potential3) charge4) impulse

172. Three girls skating on a circular ice ground ofradius 200 m start from a point P on the edge ofthe ground and reach a point Q diametricallyopposite to P following different paths as shownin figure. For which girl the magnitude of thedisplacement vector is equal to the actual lengthof path skate ?

1) A 2) B3) C 4) All same


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173. A cyclist starts from the centre O of a circularpark of radius 1 km, reaches the edge P of thepark, then cycles along the circumference, andreturns to the centre along QO as shown infigure. If the round trip takes 10 min, what is theaverage velocity and average speed of thecyclist?

1) 0 , 21.43 km h–1

2) 3.571 km h–1, 03) 21.43 km h–1 , 3.571 km h–1

4) 21.43 km h–1 , 0174. A man can swim with a speed of 4.0 km h–1 in

still water. He crosses a river 1.0 km wide if theriver flows steadily at 3.0 km h–1 and he makeshis strokes normal to the river current? How fardown the river does he go when he reaches theother bank ?1) 750 m 2) 750 km3) 4 km 4) 15 km

175. The ceiling of a long hall is 25 m high. What isthe maximum horizontal distance that a ballthrown with a speed of 40 m s–1 can go withouthitting the ceiling of the hall ?1) 170.5 m 2) 150.5 m3) 120 m 4) 130 m

176. A cricketer can throw a ball to a maximumhorizontal distance of 100 m. How much highabove the ground can the cricketer throw thesame ball?1) 25 m 2) 50 m3) 75 m 4) 80 m

177. Read each statement below carefully and identifythe false statement1) The net acceleration of a particle in circular

motion is always along the radius of thecircle towards the centre.

2) The velocity vector of a particle at a pointis always along the tangent to the path ofthe particle at that point.

3) The acceleration vector of a particle inuniform circular motion averaged over onecycle is a null vector.

4) None of the above

178. i and j are unit vectors along x and y-axisrespectively. What is the magnitude and

direction of the vectors i + j . What are the

components of a vector A = 2 i + 3 j along the

direction of ( i + j )

1) 45o, 5 ˆ ˆ(i j)2

2) 60o, 5 ˆ ˆ(i j)2

3) 45o, 1 ˆ ˆ(i j)2

4) 45o, ( i + j )

179. Which quantity can be associated with vectors1) the length of a wire bent into a loop2) a plane area3) a sphere4) mass of a body

180. A bullet fired at an angle of 30° with thehorizontal hits the ground 3.0 km away. Byadjusting its angle of projection, one hopes tohit a target 5.0 km away. Assume the muzzlespeed to be fixed, and neglecting air resistanceit's maximum range is1) 1.85 m 2) 3.46 m3) 6.24 m 4) 5.18 m

PCB PRE-FINAL ROUND : 01 · plants and animals based on the similarities and dissimilarities (2) Separate taxonomic keys are required for each taxonomic category, such as family,

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