Number of Questions asked in Prelims 2018 · 2017 Prelims (last year) cut-off as declared by UPSC Expected cut-off this year ... UPSC 2018 PAPER SET-C Sr. No. Question Answer Key

Number of questions asked from various Subjects

Subjects Questions in Prelims 2018

Current Affairs 21

Indian Polity 13

Economics 13

Modern History 12

Environment and Biodiversity 11

Ancient and Medieval History & Culture 8

Science and Technology 8

Geography 5

International Organisations and Bilateral Relations 5

India after Independence 2

General Science 2

Total 100

21

13 13 12

11

8 8

5 5

2 2

0

5

10

15

20

25

Number of Questions asked in Prelims 2018

How did Cengage-PrepMate series perform?

Questions covered (43 questions statements were ditto as written in the books)= 65

Questions covered partially (one or more statements is covered) = 11

Questions not covered= 24

The break up of questions covered partially is as follows:

Current Affairs – 2

Indian Polity – 1

Modern History – 3

Ancient and Medieval History & Culture – 2

Environment and Biodiversity – 2

Science and Technology – 1

21

13 13 12

11

8 8

5 5

2 2

13 12 12

10

7

4

8

3

5

0

2

0

5

10

15

20

25

No. of Questions Asked Covered By Cengage-PrepMate Series

2017 Prelims (last year) cut-off as declared by UPSC

Expected cut-off this year

Because the paper was tough, the cut off expected this year is less.

Final conclusion

Questions covered (43 questions statements were ditto as written in the books)= 65

Questions covered partially (one or more statements is covered) = 11

Questions not covered= 24

By reading PrepMate-Cengage Book series along with PrepMate Current Affairs (Popularly

called News Juice), one could have scored 65 questions completely and 11 questions

partially.

Way ahead than the expected cut-off…

UPSC 2018 PAPER

SET-C

Sr.

No.

Question Answer

Key

Subject Cengage-

PrepMate Books

Series

1. Consider the following events:

1. The first democratically elected

communist party government formed in a

State in India.

2. India s then largest bank, Imperial Bank

of India , was renamed State Bank of

India .

3. Air India was nationalized and became

the national carrier.

4. Goa became a part of independent India.

Which of the following is the correct

chronological sequence of the above

events?

(a) 4-1-2-3

(b) 3-2-1-4

(c) 4-2-1-3

(d) 3-1-2-4

(B) India After

Independence

2. Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic

part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty.

Which of the following in the Constitution

of India correctly and properly imply the

above statement?

(a) Article 14 and the provisions under the

42nd Amendment to the Constitution

(b) Article 17 and the Directive Principles

of State Policy in Part IV

(c) Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed

in Part III

(d) Article 24 and the provisions under the

44th Amendment of the Constitution

(C) Indian Polity Direct

Chapter 5, Page

31

3. Consider the following:

1. Areca nut

2. Barley

3. Coffee

4. Finger millet

5. Groundnut

6. Sesamum

(B) Economics Indirect

Chapter 8, Page

126

7. Turmeric

The Cabinet Committee on Economic

Affairs has announced the Minimum

Support Price for which of the above?

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 7 only

(b) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only

(c) 1, 3, 4, 5 and 6 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7

4. In which one of the following States is

Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary located?

(a) Arunachal Pradesh

(b) Manipur

(c) Meghalaya

(d) Nagaland

(A) Environment

5. With reference to India's satellite launch

vehicles, consider the following

statements:

1. PSLVs launch the satellite useful for

Earth resources monitoring whereas

GSLVs are designed mainly to launch

communication satellites.

2. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to

remain permanently in the same position

in the sky, as viewed from for particular

location on Earth.

3. GSLV Mk III is a four-staged launch

vehicle with the first and third stages using

solid rocket motor; and the second and

fourth stages using liquid rocket engines.

Which of the statements given above

is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3

(c) 1 and 2

(d) 3 only

(A) Science and

Technology

Direct

Chapter 3, page

49

6. With reference to the governance of public

sector banking in India consider the

following statements:

1. Capital infusion into public sector banks

by the Government of India has steadily

increased in the last decade.

2. To put the public sector banks in order,

the merger of associate banks with the

parent Bank of India has been affected.

(B) Economics

and Current

affairs

Direct

Statement 1 from

page 70, News

juice monthly,

March 2017

edition

Statement 2 from

Economics,

Chapter 16, Page


is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

237

7. Consider the following items:

1. Cereal grains hulled

2. Chicken eggs cooked

3. Fish processed and canned

4. Newspapers containing advertising

material

Which of the above items is/are exempted

under GST (Goods and Services Tax)?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(D) Economics

Direct

Economics,

Chapter 2, Page

33

8. Consider the following statements:

1. The definition of "Critical Wildlife

Habitat" is incorporated in the Forest

Rights Act, 2006.

2. For the first time in India, Baigas have

been given Habitat rights.

3. Union Ministry of Environment, Forest

and Climate Change officially decides and

declares Habitat Rights for Primitive and

Vulnerable tribal groups in any part of

India.


is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

(A) Indian Polity Indirect

Chapter 28, Page

294, 295


1. Birds

2. Dust blowing

3. Rain

4. Wind blowing

Which of the above spread plant diseases?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(D) General

Science and

Current

affairs

Indirect

(b) 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

10. With reference to organic farming in India,

consider the following statements:

1. 'The National Programme for Organic

Production ' (NPOP) is operated under the

guidelines and directions of the Union

Ministry of Rural Development.

2. 'The Agricultural and Processed Food

Products Export Development Authority'

(APEDA) functions as the secretariat for

the implementation of NPOP.

3. Sikkim has become India's first fully

organic State.

Which of the statements given above is are

correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

(B) Current

affairs

Statemnet 1 :

PrepMate

Government

schemes

document

Statement 3:

News Juice 21st

August, 2016

Statement 2 is

not covered.

11. Regarding Money Bill, which of the

following statements is not correct?

1. A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill

if it contains only provisions relating to

imposition, abolition, remission, alteration

or regulation of any tax.

(b) A Money Bill has provisions for the

custody of the Consolidated Fund of India

or the Contingency Fund of India.

(c) A Money Bill is concerned with the

appropriation of moneys out of the

Contingency Fund of India.

(d) A Money Bill deals with the regulation

of borrowing of money or giving of any

guarantee by the Government of India.

(C) Indian Polity Direct

Chapter 8, Page

123

Chapter 8, Page

136

12. With reference to the election of the

President of India, consider the following

statements:

1. The value of the vote of each MLA varies

from State to State.

2. The value of the vote of MPS of the Lok

(A) Indian Polity Direct

Chapter 8, Page

70

Sabha is more than the value of vote of

MPS of the Rajya Sabha.


is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

13. In the Indian context, what is the

implication of ratifying the 'Additional

Protocol' with the 'International Atomic

Energy Agency (IAEA)'?

(a) The civilian nuclear reactors come

under IAEA safeguards.

(b) The military nuclear installations come

under the inspection of IAEA.

(c) The country will have the privilege to

buy uranium from the Nuclear Suppliers

Group (NSG).

(d) The country automatically becomes a

member of the NSG.

(A) International

Organisations

and Bilateral

Relations

Direct

Chapter 12, Page

242

14. Consider the following countries:

1. Australia

2. Canada

3. China

4. India

5. Japan

6. USA

Which of the above are among the 'free-

trade partners' of ASEAN?

(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5

(b) 3, 4, 5 and 6

(c) 1, 3, 4 and 5

(d) 2, 3, 4 and 6

(C) International

Organisations

and Bilateral

Relations

Indirect

Chapter 2, Page

38

15. With reference to the 'Global Alliance for

Climate-Smart Agriculture (GACSA)',

which of the following statements is/are

correct?

1. GACSA is an outcome of the Climate

Summit held in Paris in 2015.

2. Membership of GACSA does not create

any binding obligations.

(B) Environment

and

Biodiversity

Statement 1

Chapter 19, Page

250

Statements 2 and

3 are not covered.

3. India was instrumental in the creation of

GACSA.

Select the correct answer using the code

given below:

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

16. Which of the following is/are the aim/aims

of "Digital India" Plan of the Government

of India?

1. Formation of India's own Internet

companies like China did.

2. Establish a policy framework to

encourage overseas multinational

corporations that collect Big Data to build

their large data centres within our national

geographical boundaries.

3. Connect many of our villages to the

Internet and bring Wi-Fi many of our

schools, public places and major tourist

centres.


given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 to and 3

(B) Economics Direct

Chapter 7, Page

116

17. Consider the following pairs:

Towns sometimes mentioned in news

Country

1.Aleppo - Syria

2.Kirkuk - Yemen

3.Mosul - Palestine

4.Mazar-i-sharif - Afghanistan

Which of the pairs given above are

correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1 and 4

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 3 and 4

(B) Current

Affairs

Direct

Statement 1:

News Juice

Monthly, March

2018 edition,

Page 71

Statements 2 and

3:

News Juice

Monthly,

November 2017

edition, Page 39

Statement 4:

News Juice

Monthly, May

2017 edition,

Page 38

18. In the Federation established by the

Government of India Act of 1935,

residuary powers were given to the

(a) Federal Legislature

(b) Governor General

(c) Provincial Legislature

(d) Provincial Governors

(B) Modern

History


1. The speaker of the Legislative Assembly

shall vacate his/her office if he/she ceases

to be a member of the assembly.

2. Whenever the Legislative Assembly is

dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate his/her

office immediately.


is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

(A) Indian Polity

Direct

Chapter 8, Page

105

20. Which one of the following reflects the

most appropriate relationship between

law and liberty?

(a) If there are more laws, there is less

liberty.

(b) If there are no laws, there is no liberty.

(c) If there is Liberty, laws have to be

made by the people.

(d) If laws are changed too often, liberty is

in danger.

(D) Indian Polity


1. No criminal proceedings shall be

instituted against the Governor of a State

in any Court during his term of office.

2. The emoluments and allowances of the

Governor of a State shall not be diminished

during his term of office.

(C) Indian Polity

Statement 1:

Chapter 24, Page

275

Statement 2 is

not covered.


is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

22. The well-known painting "Bani Thani"

belongs to the

(a) Bundi School

(b) Jaipur School

(c) Kangra School

(d) Kishangarh School

(D) Ancient

History

Direct

Chapter 20, Page

318

23. What is "Terminal High Altitude Area

Defence (THAAD)", sometimes seen in the

news?

(a) An Israeli radar system

(b) India's indigenous anti-missile

program

(c) An American anti-missile system

(d) A defence collaboration between Japan

and South Korea

(C) Current

Affairs

Direct

News Juice

Monthly, March

2017 Edition,

Page 54

24. With reference to cultural history of India,


1. Most of the Tyagaraja Kritis are

devotional songs in praise of Lord Krishna.

2. Tyagaraja created several new ragas.

3. Annamacharya and Tyagaraja are

contemporaries.

4. Annamacharya kirtanas are devotional

songs in praise of Lord Venkateshwara.

Which of the statement given above are

correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 2, 3 and 4

(B) Ancient

History

Statement 4;

Chapter 15, Page

203

Two answer

choices can be

eliminated.

Statements 1, 2

and 3 are not

covered.

25. Which of the following are regarded as the

main features of the "Rule of Law "?

1. Limitation of powers

2. Equality before law

3.People's responsibility to the

(C) Indian Polity Indirect

Chapter 5, Page

27

Government

4. Liberty and civil rights


given below:

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(c) 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

26. Which of the following led to the

introduction of English Education in India?

1. Charter Act of 1813

2. General Committee of Public Instruction,

1823

3. Orientalist and Anglicist Controversy


given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

(D) Modern

History

27. Which one of the following is an artificial

lake?

(a) Kodaikanal (Tamil Nadu)

(b) Kolleru (Andhra Pradesh)

(c) Nainital (Uttarakhand)

(d) Renuka (Himachal Pradesh)

(A) Geography

28. With reference to Pradhan Mantri Kaushal

Vikas Yojana, consider the following state:

1. It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry

of Labour and Employment.

2. It, among other things, will also import

training in soft skills, entrepreneurship,

financial and digital literacy.

3. It aims to align the competencies of the

unregulated workforce of the country to

the National Skill Qualification

Framework.

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

(C) Current

Affairs

Direct

PrepMate

Government

Schemes

document, Page

62

29. In 1920, which of the following changed its

name to "Swarajya Sabha"?

(a) All India Home Rule League

(b) Hindu Mahasabha

(c) South Indian liberal Federation

(d) The Servants of Indian Society

(A) Modern

History

Indirect

Chapter 9, Page

99

30. Which among the following events

happened earliest?

(a) Swami Dayanand established Arya

Samaj

(b) Dinabandhu Mitra wrote Neeldarpan

(c) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote

Anandmath

(d) Satyendranath Tagore became the first

Indian to succeed in the Indian Civil

Services Examination

(B) Modern

History

Direct

Chapter 3, Page

19

Chapter 4, Page

41

Chapter 3, Page

30

31. Which of the following is/are the possible

consequence/s of heavy sand mining in

riverbeds?

1. Decreased salinity of the river

2. Pollution of groundwater

3. Lowering of water-table


given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

(B) Environment

and

Biodiversity

32. With reference to Agricultural soils,

consider the following statement:

1. A high content of organic matter in soil

drastically reducing its water holding

capacity.

2. Soil does not play any role in sulphur

cycle.

3. Irrigation over a period of can

contribute to the salinization of some

agricultural lands.

Which of the statements given above are

correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(B) Environment

and

Biodiversity

Direct

Statement 1:

Explanation to

Practice

Questions, Page

no. 314

Statement 2:

Chapter 2, Page

27

Statement 3:

Chapter 7, Page

116

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

33. The Partnership for Action on Green

Economy (PAGE), UN mechanism to assist

countries transition towards greener and

more inclusive economies, emerged at

(a) The Earth Summit on Sustainable

Development 2002, Johannesburg

(b) The United Nations Conference on

Sustainable Development 2012, Rio de

Janeiro

(c) The United Nations Framework

Convention on Climate Change 2015, Paris

(d) The World Sustainable Development

Summit 2016, New Delhi

(B) Environment, Indirect

Chapter 7, Page

110

34. "3D printing" has applications in which of

the following?

1. Preparation of confectionery items

2. Manufacture of Bionic ears

3. Automotive industry

4. Reconstructive surgery

5. Data processing technologies


given below:

(a) 1, 3 and 4 only

(b) 2, 3 and 5 only

(c) 1 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

(D) Science and

Technology

Indirect

Chapter 12, Page

163


1. The Barren Island volcano is an active

volcano located in the Indian territory.

2. Barren Island lies about 140 km east of

Greater Nicobar .

3. The last time the Barren Island volcano

erupted was in 1991 and it has remained

in active since then.


is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 3 only

(d) 1 and 3

(A) Geography

and Current

affairs

Direct

Statement 1 & 2:

Chapter 8, Page

177

Statement 3:

News Juice

monthly, March

2017 Edition,

Page 123

36. Why is a plant called Prosopis juliflora

often mentioned in news?

(a) Its extract is widely used in cosmetics.

(b) It tends to reduce the biodiversity in

the area in which it grows.

(c) Its extract is used in the synthesis of

pesticides.

(d) None of the above

(B) Current

Affairs


1. Most of the world's coral reefs are in

tropical waters.

2. More than one third of the world's coral

reefs are located in the territories of

Australia, Indonesia and Philippines.

3. Coral reefs host far more number of

animal phyla than those hosted by tropical

rainforests.


is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

(D) Environment

and

Biodiversity

Statement 1 and

2:

Chapter 4, Page

51

Statement 3 is

not covered.

38. "Momentum for Change: Climate Neutral

Now" is an initiative launched by

(a) The Intergovernmental Panel on

Climate Change

(b) The UNEP Secretariat

(c) The UNFCCC secretaiat

(d) The World Meteorological

Organization

(C) Environment

and

Biodiversity

39. With reference to educational institutions

during colonial rule in India, consider the

following pairs:

Institutions Founder

1. Sanskrit college of Benaras -

William Jones

2. Calcutta Madarsa -

Warren Hastings

3. Fort William college -

Arthur Wellesley

(B) Modern

History

Direct

Statement 1:

Chapter 7, Page

59

Statements 2 and

3 are not covered.

Which of the pairs given above is/are

correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 3 only


Regions sometimes mentioned in news

Country

1.Catalonia - Spain

2.Crimea - Hungary

3.Mindanao - Philippines

4.Oromia - Nigeria

Which of the pairs given above are

correctly matched?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 3 and 4 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2 and 4 only

(C) International

Organisations

and Bilateral

Relations

Direct

Chapter 13, Page

304 and 305

41. With reference to the Indian Regional

Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS),


1. IRNSS has three satellites in

geostationary and four satellites in

geosynchronous orbits.

2. IRNSS covers entire India and about

5500 sq. km beyond its borders.

3. India will have its own satellite

navigation system with full global

coverage by the middle of 2019.


is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) None

(A) Science and

Technology

Direct

Chapter 3, Page

51

42. Consider the following phenomena:

1. Light is affected by gravity.

2. The Universe is constantly expanding.

3. Matter warps its surrounding space-

time.

Which of the above is/are the

(C) General

Science

Direct

Statements 1 and

3: News Juice 17

April, 2016

Statement 2:

prediction/predictions of Albert Einstein's

General Theory of Relativity, often

discussed in media?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

General Science,

Chapter 10, Page

95

43. With reference to the Genetically Modified

mustard (GM mustard) developed in India,


1. GM mustard has the genes of a soil

bacterium that give the plant the property

of pest-resistant to a wide variety of pets.

2. GM mustard has the genes that allow the

plant cross-pollination and hybridization.

3. GM mustard has been developed jointly

by the IARI and Punjab Agricultural

University.

Which of the following statements given

above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

(B) Science and

Technology

Direct

Statement 1 and

3: Chapter 1, Page

18

Statement 2:

News Juice

Monthly,

November 2016

Edition, Page 104


Terms sometimes seen in news

Context/Topic

1. Belle II experiment - Artificial

Intelligence

2. Blockchain Technology - Digital/

Cryptocurrency

3. CRISPR - Cas9 -

Particle Physics


correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

(B) Science and

Technology

Direct

Statement 1:

Chapter 10, Page

151

Statement 2:

Chapter 12, Page

177

Statement 3 is

not covered.

45. Which of the following statements best

describes carbon fertilization?

(a) Increased plant growth due to

(A) Environment

and

Biodiversity

increased concentration of carbon dioxide

in the atmosphere

(b) Increased temperature of Earth due to


in the atmosphere

(c) Increased acidity of oceans as a result

of increased concentration of carbon

dioxide in the atmosphere

(d) Adaptation of all living beings on Earth

to the climate change brought about by the


in the atmosphere

46. When the alarm of your Smartphone rang

in the morning, you wake up and tap it to

stop the alarm which causes your geyser

to be switched on automatically. The smart

mirror in your bathroom shows the day's

weather and also indicates the level of

water in your overhead tank. After you

take some groceries from your refrigerator

for making breakfast, it recognizes the

shortage of stock in it and places an order

for the supply of fresh grocery items.

When you step out of your house and lock

the door, all lights, fans, geysers, and AC

machines get switched off automatically.

On your way to office, your car warns you

about traffic congestion ahead and

suggests an alternative route, and if you

are late for a meeting, it sends a message

to your office accordingly.

In the context of emerging communication

technologies, which one of the following

terms best applies to the above scenario?

(a) Border Gateway protocol

(b) Internet of Things

(c) Internet Protocol

(d) Virtual Private Network

(B) Science and

Technology

Direct

Chapter 12, Page

163

47. With reference to solar power production

in India, consider the following statement:

1. India is the third largest in the world in

the manufacture of silicon wafers used in

photovoltaic units.

(D) Current

Affairs

Indirect

News Juice

Monthly, March

2017 Edition,

Page 105

2. The solar power tariffs are determined

by the Solar Energy Corporation of India.


is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

48. The staple commodity of export by the

English East India Company from Bengal

in the middle of the 18th century were

(a) Raw cotton, oil-seeds and opium

(b) Sugar, salt, zinc and lead

(c) Copper, silver, gold, spices and tea

(d) Cotton, silk, saltpetre and opium

(D) Modern

History

Indirect

Chapter 2, Page 8

49. Which one of the following is a very

significant aspect of the Champaran

satyagraha?

(a) Active all-India participation of

lawyers, students and women in the

National Movement

(b) Active involvement of Dalit and Tribal

communities of India in the National

Movement

(c) Joining of peasant unrest to India's

national Movement

(d) Drastic decrease in the cultivation of

plantation crops and commercial crops

(C) Modern

History

Direct

Chapter 10, Page

114

50. Who among the following was the founder

of the

"Hindu Mazdoor Sabha" established in

1948?

(a) B. Krishna Pillai, E.M.S. Namboodiripad

and K.C. George

(b) Jayaprakash Narayan, Deen Dayal

Upadhyay and M.N. Roy

(c) C.P. Ramaswamy Iyer, K. Kamaraj and

Veeresalingam Pantulu

(d) Ashok Mehta, T.S. Ramanujam and G.G.

Mehta

(D) India After

Independence

51. With reference to the religious practices in (B) Culture

India, the "Sthanakavasi" sect belongs to

(a) Buddhism

(b) Jainism

(c) Vaishnavism

(d) Shaivism

52. With reference to the cultural history of

India, consider the following statements:

1. White marble was used in making

Buland Darwaza and Khankah at Fatehpur

Sikri.

2. Red sandstone and marble were used in

making Bara Imambara and Rumi Darwaza

at Lucknow.


is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

(A) Culture

53. Which one of the following foreign

Travellers elaborately discuss about

diamonds and diamond mines of India?

(a) Francois Bernier

(b) Jean-Baptiste Tavernier

(c) Jean de Thevenot

(d) Abbe Barthelemy Carre

(B) Medieval

History

Direct

Chapter 16, Page

219

54. With reference to Indian history, who

among the following is a future Buddha,

yet to come to save the world?

(a) Avalokiteshvara

(b) Lokesvara

(c) Maitreya

(d) Padmapani

(C) Culture

55. Which one of the following statements

does not apply to the system of subsidiary

Alliance introduced by Lord Wellesley?

(a) To maintain a large standing army at

other's expense.

(b) To keep India safe from Napoleonic

danger

(c) To secure a fixed income for the

(C) Modern

History

Chapter 4, Page

49

Option (b) is not

covered.

Company

(d) To establish British paramountcy over

Indian states

56. Which one of the following statements

correctly describe the meaning of legal

tender money?

(a) The money which is tendered in courts

of law to defray the fee of legal cases

(b) The money which a creditor is under

compulsion to accept in settlement of his

claims

(c) The bank money in the form of

cheques, drafts, bills of exchange, etc.

(d) The metallic money in circulation in a

country

(B) Current

Affairs

Indirect

News Juice 9th

November, 2016

57. If a commodity is provided free to the

public by the government, Then

(a) the opportunity cost is zero.

(b) the opportunity cost is ignored.

(c) the opportunity cost is transferred

from the consumer of the product to the

tax-paying public.

(d) the opportunity cost is transferred

from the consumers of the product to the

Government.

(d) Economics Indirect

Chapter 1, Page

21

58. Increase in absolute and per capita real

GNP do not connote a higher level of

economic development, if

(a) industrial output failed to keep pace

with agricultural output.

(b) agricultural output fails to keep pace

with industrial output.

(c) poverty and unemployment increase.

(d) imports grow faster than exports.

(C) Economics Direct

Chapter 1, Page 9


Human capital formation as a concept is

better explained in terms of a process

which enables

1. individuals of a country to accumulate

more capital.

2. increasing the knowledge, skill levels

(B) Economics Indirect

Chapter 1, page

15

and capacities of the people of the country.

3. accumulation of tangible wealth.

4. accumulation of intangible wealth.


is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 4

(d) 1, 3 and 4

60. Despite being a high saving economy,

capital formation may not result in

significant increase in output due to

(a) weak administrative machinery

(b) illiteracy

(c) high population density

(d) high capital-output ratio

(D) Economics Direct

Chapter 1, Page 8

61. After the Santhal Uprising subsided, what

was/were the measure/measures taken by

colonial government?

1. The territories called 'Santhal

Paraganas' were created.

2. It became illegal for a santhal to transfer

land to a non-santhal.


given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

(C) Modern

History

Direct

Statement 1:

Chapter 4, Page

38

Statement 2 is

not covered.

62. Economically, one of the results of the

British rule in India in the 19th century

was the

(a) increase in the export of Indian

handicrafts.

(b) growth in number of Indian owned

factories.

(c) commercialization of Indian

agriculture.

(d) Rapid increase in the Urban

population.

(C) Modern

History

Direct

Chapter 1, Page 8

63. If the President of India exercises his (B) Indian Polity Direct

power as provided under article 356 of the

Constitution in respect of a particular

state, then

(a) the Assembly of the state is

automatically dissolved.

(b) the powers of the Legislature of that

state shall be exercisable by or under the

authority of the Parliament.

(c) article 19 is suspended in that state.

(d) the president can make laws relating

to that state.

Chapter 23, Page

271


Craft Heritage of

1. Puthukkuli shawls - Tamil Nadu

2. Sujni embroidery - Maharashtra

3. Uppada jamdani saris - Karnataka

Which one of the pairs given above is/are

correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(c) 3 only

(d) 2 and 3

(A) Culture

65. In which of the following areas can GPS

technology be used?

1. Mobile phone operation

2. Banking operations

3. Controlling the power grids


given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1,2 and 3

(D) Science and

Technology

Indirect

Chapter 3, Page

51


1. The Reserve Bank of India manages and

services Government of India securities

but not any state government securities.

2. Treasury bills are issued by the

government of India and there are no

treasury bills issued by the state

government.

(C) Economics

3. Treasury bills offer are issued at a

discount from the par value.


is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1,2, and 3


1. The earth magnetic field is reversed

every few hundred thousands years.

2. When the earth was created more than

4000 million years ago, there was 54%

oxygen and no carbon dioxide.

3. When living organisms originated, they

modified the early atmosphere of the

earth.


is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1,2 and 3

(C) Geography

68. The terms 'WannaCry, Petya and

EternalBlue' sometimes mentioned in the

news recently are related to

(a) Exoplanets

(b) Cryptocurrency

(c) Cyber attack

(d) Mini satellites

(C) Science and

Technology

Direct

Chapter 11, Page

161

69. With reference to the circumstances in

Indian agriculture, the concept of

"conservation agriculture" assumes

significance.

Which of the following fall under the

conservation agriculture?

1. Avoiding the monoculture practices

2. Adopting minimum tillage

3. Avoiding the cultivation of plantation

crops

4. Using progressive used to cover soil

surface

(C) Environment Indirect

Chapter 7, Page

112

5. Adopting spatial and temporal crop

Sequencing/crop rotations


given below:

(a) 1,3 and 4

(b) 2,3,4 and 5

(c) 2,4 and 5

(d) 1,2,3 and 5

70. The term "sixth mass extinction/sixth

extinction" even mentioned in the news in

the context of the discussion of

(a) Widespread monoculture practices in

agriculture and large -scale commercial

farming with indiscriminate use of

chemicals in many parts of the world that

may result in the loss of good native

ecosystems.

b) Fears of a possible Commission of a

meteorite with the earth in the near future

in the manner it happened 65 million

years ago that caused the mass extinction

of many species including those of

Dinosaurs.

(c) Large scale cultivation of genetically

modified crops in many parts of the world

and promoting their cultivation in other

parts of the world which may cause the

disappearance of good native crop plants

and the loss of food biodiversity.

(d) Mankind's over-exploitation/misuse of

natural resources, fragmentation/loss of

Natural Habitats, destruction of

ecosystems, pollution and global climate

change.

(D) Current

Affairs


1. Capital adequacy ratio (CAR) is the

amount that banks have to maintain in the

form of their own funds to offset any loss

that banks incur if the account-holders fail

to repay dues.

2. CAR is decided by each individual Bank.


is/are correct?

(A) Economics Direct

Chapter 16, Page

238 and 239

News Juice

Monthly, 2018

January Edition,

Page 114

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

72. The Identity platform 'Aadhaar' provides

open "Application Programming Interfaces

(APIs)". What does it imply?

1. It can be integrated into any electronic

device.

2. Online authentication using iris is

possible.


is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

(D) Current

Affairs

73. Very recently, in which of the following

countries have lakhs of people either

suffered from severe famine/acute

malnutrition or died due to starvation

caused by war/ethnic conflicts?

(a) Angola and Zambia

(b) Morocco and Tunisia

(c) Venezuela and Columbia

(d) Yemen and South Sudan

(D) Current

Affairs

Direct

News Juice

Monthly, January

2018 Edition,

Page 62

74. Regarding wood's dispatch, which of the

following statements are true?

1. Grants-in-Aid system was introduced.

2. Establishment of universities was

recommended.

3. English as a medium of instruction at all

levels of education was recommended.


given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1,2 and 3

(A) Modern

History

Direct

Chapter 7, Page

62

75. With reference to the Parliament of India,

which of the following parliamentary

(B) Indian Polity Indirect

Chapter 8, Page

committees scrutinizes and reports to the

House whether the powers to make

regulations, rules, sub-rules,etc. Conferred

by the constitution or delegated by the

parliament are being properly exercised

by the executive within the scope of search

the delegation.

(a) Committee on Government Assurances

(b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation

(c) Rules Committee

(d) Business Advisory Committee

142


1. As per the Right to education (RTE) Act,

to be eligible for appointment as a teacher

in a state, a person would be required to

possess the minimum qualification laid

down by the concerned state Council of

teacher education.

2. As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary

classes, a candidate is required to pass a

Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in

accordance with the National Council of

Teacher Education guidelines.

3. In India, more than 90% of teacher

education institutions are directly under

the state governments.


is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 3 only

(B) Current

Affairs


Tradition State

1. Chapchar Kut festival - Mizoram

2. Khongjom Parba ballad - Manipur

3. Thang-Ta dance - Sikkim


correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(c) 3 only

(d) 2 and 3

(B) Culture Statement 3:

Direct

Chapter 23, Page

360

Statements 1 and

2 are not covered.


1. The Food Safety and Standards Act,2006

replaced the Prevention of Food

Adulteration Act,1954.

2. The Food Safety and Standards

Authority of India (FSSAI) is under the

charge of Director General of Health

Services in the Union Ministry of Health

and Family Welfare.


is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

(A) Economics Statement 1:

Direct

Chapter 14, Page

213

Statement 2:

News Juice

79. The term "two-state solution" is

sometimes mentioned in the news in the

context of the affairs of

(a) China

(b) Israel

(c) Iraq

(d) Yemen

(B) International

Organisations

and Bilateral

Relations

Direct

Chapter 13, Page

294

80. With reference to the provisions made

under the National Food Security Act,

2013, consider the following statements:

1. The families coming under the category

of 'below poverty line (BPL) only are

eligible to receive subsidised food grains.

2. The eldest women in a household, of age

18 years or above, shall be the head of the

household for the purpose of insurance of

a ration card.

3. Pregnant women and lactating mothers

are entitled to a 'take-home ration' of 1600

calories per day during pregnancy and for

six months thereafter.


is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 3 only

(B) Economics Direct

Chapter 8, Page

131

81. India enacted The Geographical

Indications of Goods (Registration and

Protection) Act, 1999 in order to comply

with the obligations to

(a) ILO

(b) IMF

(c) UNCTAD

(d) WTO

(D) Economics Direct

Chapter 26, Page

335


1. In India, State governments do not have

the power to option non-coal mines.

2. Andhra Pradesh and Jharkhand to not

have gold mines.

3. Rajasthan has iron ore mines.


is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 3 only

(D) Geography Indirect

Statement 1:

News Juice

Monthly, April

2018 Edition,

Page 33

Statement 2:

Geography,

Chapter 17, Page

285

83. With reference to digital payments,


1. BHIM app allows the user to transfer

money to anyone with a UPI- enabled bank

account.

2. While a chip-pin debit card has four

factors of authentication, BHIM app has

only two factors of authentication.


is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

(A) Current

Affairs

Direct

Statement 1:

PrepMate

Government

Schemes, Page 72

Statement 2 is

not covered.

84. Among the following cities, which one lies

on a longitude closest to that of Delhi?

(a) Bengaluru

(b) Hyderabad

(c) Nagpur

(d) Pune

(A) Geography Indirect

Chapter 19, Page

298

85. International Labour organisation's

conventions 138 and 182 are related to

(a) Child labour

(b) Adaptation of agricultural practices to

global climate change

(c) Regulation of food prices and food

security

(d) Gender parity at the workplace

(A) Current

Affairs

Direct

News Juice

Monthly,2017

July Edition, Page

61


1. In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest

party in the opposition was the Swatantra

party.

2. In the Lok Sabha, a leader of the

opposition was recognised for the first

time in 1969.

3. In the Lok Sabha, if the party does not

have a minimum of 75 members, its leader

cannot be recognised as the Leader of the

opposition.


is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1,2 and 3

(B) Indian Polity Direct

Chapter 8, Page

105

87. Which of the following leave modifications

occur(a) in the desert areas to inhibit

water loss?

1. Hard and waxy leaves

2. Tiny leaves

3. Thorns instead of leaves


given below:

(a) 2 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1,2 and 3

(D) Environment

and

Biodiversity

Indirect

Chapter 3, Page

42

88. As per the NSSO 70th Round " Situation

assessment survey of Agricultural

Households", consider the following

statements:

1. Rajasthan has the highest Percentage

(C) Current

Affairs

share of agricultural households among its

rural households.

2. Out of the total agricultural households

in the country, a little over 60% belong to

OBCs.

3. In Kerala, a little over 60% of

agricultural households reported to have

received maximum income from sources

other than agricultural activities.


is/are correct?

(a) 2 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

89. How is the National Green Tribunal(NGT)

different from the Central pollution

control board (CPCB)?

1. The NGT has been established by act

where as the CPCB has been created by an

executive order of the government.

2. The NGT provides environmental justice

and helps reduce the burden of litigation

in the Higher Courts whereas the CPCB

promotes cleanliness of streams and wells,

and aims to improve the quality of air in

the country.


is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

(B) Environment

and

Biodiversity

Direct

NGT: Chapter 20,

Page 265

CPCB: Chapter

20, Page 268


1. The Parliament of India can place a

personal law in the Ninth schedule of the

Constitution of India.

2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth

schedule cannot be examined by any court

and no judgement can be made on it.


is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(A) Indian Polity, Direct

Statement 1:

Chapter 5, Page

42

Statement 2:

Chapter 5, Page

45

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

91. Which of the following best describes the

term "Merchant Discount Rate" sometimes

seen in news?

(a) The incentive given by the bank to a

merchant for accepting payments through

debit cards pertaining to that Bank.

(b) The amount paid by banks to their

customers when they use debit cards for

financial transactions for purchasing

goods or services.

(c) The charge to a merchant by a bank for

accepting payments from his customers

through the bank's debit cards.

(d) The incentive given by the government

for promoting digital payments by their

customers through Point of Sale (PoS)

machines and debit cards.

(C) Current

Affairs

Direct

News Juice

Monthly, January

2017 Edition

92. What is/are the

consequence/consequences of a country

become a member of the 'Nuclear

Suppliers Group'?

1. It will have access to the latest and most

efficient nuclear technologies.

2. It automatically becomes a member of

"The Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of

Nuclear Weapons(NPT)".


is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

(A) International

Organisations

and Bilateral

Relations

Direct

Chapter 3, Page

82

93. With reference to India's decision to levy

an equalization tax of 6% on online

advertisement services offered by non-

resident entities, which of the following

statements is/are correct?

1. It is introduced as a part of the Income

Tax Act.

(A) Current

Affairs

Indirect

News Juice

Monthly, May

2017 edition

2. Non-resident entities that offer

advertisement services in India can claim a

tax credit in their home country under the

"Double taxation avoidance agreements."


given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2


1. The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget

Management (FRBM) Review Committee

Report has recommended a debt to GDP

ratio of 60% for the general (combined)

government by 2023, comprising 40% for

the Central Government and 20% for the

State Governments.

2. The Central government has domestic

liabilities of 21% of GDP as compared to

that of 49% of GDP of the State

governments.

3. As per the constitution of India, it is

mandatory for a state to take the Central

Government's consent for raising any loan

if the former owes any outstanding

liabilities to the latter.


is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

(C) Indian Polity

and Current

affairs

Direct

Statement 1:

News Juice

Monthly, May

2017 Edition

Statement 2:

News Juice

Monthly, March

2017 Edition

Statement 3:

Indian Polity,

Chapter 16, Page

234


1. The quantity of imported edible oils is

more than the domestic production of

edible oils in the last five years.

2. The government does not impose any

customs duty on all the imported edible

oils as a special case.

Which of the statement given above is/are

correct?

(a) 1 only

(A) Current

Affairs

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

96. He wrote biographies of Mazzini,

Garibaldi, Shivaji and Shrikrishna; stayed

in America for some time; and was also

elected to the Central Assembly. He was

(a) Aurobindo Ghosh

(b) Bipin Chandra Pal

(c) Lala Lajpat Rai

(d) Motilal Nehru

(C) Modern

History

Indirect

Chapter 8, Page

88

and Chapter 13,

Page 148


1. Aadhar card can be used as a proof of

citizenship for domicile.

2. Once issued, Aadhar number cannot be

deactivated or omitted by the Issuing

Authority.


is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

(D) Current

Affairs

Direct

News Juice 12th

July, 2016

98. Which of the following has/have shrunk

immensely/ dried up in the recent past

due to human activities?

1. Aral sea

2. Black sea

3. Lake Baikal


given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 2 only

(d) 1 and 3

(A) Current

Affairs

99. " Rule of law index" is released by which of

the following?

(a) Amnesty International

(b) International Court of Justice

(c) The office of UN Commissioner for

human rights

(D) Current

Affairs

(d) World Justice report

100. Which one of the following links all the

ATMs in India?

(a) Indian Banks' Association

(b) National Securities Depository Limited

(c) National Payments Corporation of

India

(d) Reserve Bank of India

(C) Current

Affairs

Indirect

News Juice

21st October,

2016

2018 Prelims Solutions along with source

1. Consider the following events:

1. The first democratically elected communist party government formed in a State in India.

2. India s then largest bank, Imperial Bank of India , was renamed State Bank of India .

3. Air India was nationalized and became the national carrier.

4. Goa became a part of independent India.

Which of the following is the correct chronological sequence of the above events?

(a) 4-1-2-3

(b) 3-2-1-4

(c) 4-2-1-3

(d) 3-1-2-4

Sol. 1 (b) 3-2-1-4

Subject: India After Independence

1. First democratically elected communist party government formed in Kerala in the year

1957.

2. Imperial Bank of India was renamed in 1955 to the State Bank of India.

3. Air India was nationalized in the year 1953.

4. Goa became a part of independent India in the year 1961.

This question is unexpected. However, in this year there have been questions from major

events after independence.

2. Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty.

Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and properly imply the above

statement?

(a) Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution

(b) Article 17 and the Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV

(c) Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part III

(d) Article 24 and the provisions under the 44th Amendment of the Constitution

Sol. 2 (c) Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part III

Source: Indian Polity, Chapter 5, Page 31


1. Areca nut

2. Barley

3. Coffee

4. Finger millet

5. Groundnut

6. Sesamum

7. Turmeric

The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs has announced the Minimum Support Price for

which of the above?

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 7 only

(b) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only

(c) 1, 3, 4, 5 and 6 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7

Sol. 3(b) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only

Source: Economics, Chapter 8, Page 126

This question appears to be difficult but on careful consideration can be answered. MSP is

given for crops which are the most vital ones for our agriculture. All the incorrect choices

have Areca nut (supari) in answer choices. Areca nut has far limited production as

compared to hundreds of other crops.

Moreover, all the incorrect answer choices have coffee as answer choice. It is difficult to

provide minimum support price for costly and volatile crop such as coffee.

Thus, this answer can be deduced from concept of Minimum support price and by

eliminating incorrect answer choices.

For your consideration, here is the list of crops on which MSP is declared:

Kharif Crops Rabi Crops

1 Paddy 15 Wheat

2 Jowar 16 Barley

3 Bajra 17 Gram

4 Maize 18 Masur (Lentil)

5 Ragi 19 Rapeseed/Mustard

6 Arhar(Tur) 20 Safflower

7 Moong 21 Toria

8 Urad Other Crops

9 Cotton 22 Copra

10 Groundnut 23 De-Husked Coconut

11 Sunflower Seed 24 Jute

12 Soyabeen Black 25 Sugarcane

13 Sesamum

14 Nigerseed

4. In which one of the following States is Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary located?

(a) Arunachal Pradesh

(b)Manipur

(c) Meghalaya

(d) Nagaland

Sol.4 (a) Arunachal Pradesh

A not so well known wildlife sanctuary asked in the exam. Earlier, UPSC focused on

Biosphere reserves and National parks. From recent years, questions have been asked even

on wildlife sanctuaries. This one was not even mentioned in current affairs.

Do you know!

There are more than 530 wildlife sanctuaries in India. Wonder, how to learn all of them.

But, yes focus can be kept on those in the North East.

5. With reference to India's satellite launch vehicles, consider the following statements:

1. PSLVs launch the satellite useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are

designed mainly to launch communication satellites.

2. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently in the same position in the

sky, as viewed from for particular location on Earth.

3. GSLV Mk III is a four-staged launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid

rocket motor; and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3

(c) 1 and 2

(d) 3 only

Sol. 5 (a) 1 only

Source: Science and Technology, Chapter 3, Page 49

Statement 1 is correct. PSLVs launch the satellite useful for Earth resources monitoring

whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites.

This is a correct statement.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Satellites launched from PSLV do not appear to be stationery from

earth.

Statement 3 is incorrect statement. GSLV Mk III is a three stage engine.

6. With reference to the governance of public sector banking in India consider the following

statements:

1. Capital infusion into public sector banks by the Government of India has steadily

increased in the last decade.

2. To put the public sector banks in order, the merger of associate banks with the parent

Bank of India has been affected.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Sol. 6 (b) 2 only

Statement 1 is incorrect. Yes, there is a capital infusion in banks. However, there has not

been steady increase in capital infusion.

Source: News juice monthly, March 2017 edition, Page 70

Statement 2 is correct. To put the public sector banks in order, the merger of associate

banks with the parent Bank of India has been affected.


7. Consider the following items:

1. Cereal grains hulled

2. Chicken eggs cooked

3. Fish processed and canned

4. Newspapers containing advertising material

Which of the above items is/are exempted under GST (Goods and Services Tax)?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Sol. 7(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ideally, such a question is not expected. Luckily, we covered it.

Economics, Chapter 2, Page 33


1. The definition of "Critical Wildlife Habitat" is incorporated in the Forest Rights Act, 2006.

2. For the first time in India, Baigas have been given Habitat rights.

3. Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change officially decides and

declares Habitat Rights for Primitive and Vulnerable tribal groups in any part of India.


(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Sol. 8 (a) 1 and 2 only

This question can be attempted in two ways.

Firstly, mark the correct statements (Statement 1 and Statement 2).

Statement 1 is correct.

The Critical Wildlife Habitats are defined in Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest

Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006. This act defines the Critical Wildlife

Habitats (CWH) as the areas of national parks and sanctuaries where it has been

specifically and clearly established, case by case, on the basis of scientific and objective

criteria, that such areas are required to be kept as inviolate for the purposes of wildlife conservation… .

The above definition makes it very clear that the Critical Wildlife Habitats are absolutely

free of human presence. But the same act duly recognizes the traditional rights of the

Forest dwellers.

Statement 2 is also correct. For the first time in India, Baigas have been given Habitat

rights. This statement was difficult to be noticed.

OR

Secondly, eliminate the incorrect statement (which is statement 3). The three options in the

question contain incorrect option.

Statement 3 Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change officially decides

and declares Habitat Rights for Primitive and Vulnerable tribal groups in any part of India.

This statement is clearly incorrect.

Refer to provisions of Schedule 5 and Schedule 6. The State government administers tribal

areas at most under directions from Union government, for regions covered under

Schedule 5 and Schedule 6.

Source: Polity, Chapter 28, Page 294


1. Birds

2. Dust blowing

3. Rain

4. Wind blowing

Which of the above spread plant diseases?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Sol. 9 (d) (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

This question can be easily interpreted.

Nipah virus! Fruit bats are spreading contaminated virus. Thus, it can be interpreted that

birds can spread plant diseases not just to humans but among plants as well.

We know that Birds, Blowing dust, Rain and blowing wind can act as agent of pollination in

plants. Then, easily they can be agents of diseases as well.

This question can be interpreted by reading PrepMate General Science book and from

Current affairs as well. However, there is no direct sentence in our book to claim the

question.

10. With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements:

1. 'The National Programme for Organic Production' (NPOP) is operated under the

guidelines and directions of the Union Ministry of Rural Development.

2. 'The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority' (APEDA)

functions as the secretariat for the implementation of NPOP.

3. Sikkim has become India's first fully organic State.

Which of the statements given above is are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Sol. 10(b) 2 and 3 only

Statement 1 is incorrect: The National Programme for Organic production is operated

under guidelines and directions of the Union Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers welfare.

Source: PrepMate Government Schemes Document

Statement 2 is correct: It is a very tough one to be asked.

Statement 3 is correct: Sikkim has become India's first fully organic State.

Source: News juice - 21st, August, 2016

11. Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statements is not correct?

1. A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions relating to

imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax.

(b) A Money Bill has provisions for the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the


(c) A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of moneys out of the Contingency

Fund of India.

(d) A Money Bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of money or giving of any

guarantee by the Government of India.

Sol. 11 (c) A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of moneys out of the


Appropriation from Contingency fund is under the control of the President of India.


Source: Chapter 8, Page 136

12. With reference to the election of the President of India, consider the following

statements:

1. The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State.

2. The value of the vote of MPS of the Lok Sabha is more than the value of vote of MPS of the

Rajya Sabha.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Sol. 12 (a) 1 only

Statement 1 is correct: The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State because

Value of vote of MLAs of a particular state = 𝑃 𝑖 1971 𝐸 𝐴

As the population and number of elected MLAs vary from state to state, so the value of the

vote of each MLA varies from State to State.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The value of vote of each elected MP of Lok sabha is same as that

of elected MP of Rajya Sabha.

Value of vote of each elected MP = 𝑉 𝐴 𝐸 𝑃

Source : Indian Polity, Chapter 8, Page 70

13. In the Indian context, what is the implication of ratifying the 'Additional Protocol' with

the 'International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)'?

(a) The civilian nuclear reactors come under IAEA safeguards.

(b) The military nuclear installations come under the inspection of IAEA.

(c) The country will have the privilege to buy uranium from the Nuclear Suppliers Group

(NSG).

(d) The country automatically becomes a member of the NSG.

Sol. 13(a) The civilian nuclear reactors come under IAEA safeguards.

Source: International Organizations and Bilateral Relations, Chapter 12, Page 242

14. Consider the following countries:

1. Australia

2. Canada

3. China

4. India

5. Japan

6. USA

Which of the above are among the 'free-trade partners' of ASEAN?

(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5

(b) 3, 4, 5 and 6

(c) 1, 3, 4 and 5

(d) 2, 3, 4 and 6

Sol. 14(c) 1, 3, 4 and 5

This question can be solved by combination of selection and elimination technique.

ASEAN is close to its dialogue partners such as India. It has individual free trade

agreements with six dialogue partners namely Australia, New Zealand, South Korea, Japan,

India and China.

Source: IOBR, Chapter 2, Page 38

The option of Canada can be safely ruled out because Canada –ASEAN relations are

unheard off.

Similarly, All ASEAN nations do not have relations with US. Thus, US has individual

agreements with some ASEAN nations but not with the whole grouping.

15. With reference to the 'Global Alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture (GACSA)', which of

the following statements is/are correct?

1. GACSA is an outcome of the Climate Summit held in Paris in 2015.

2. Membership of GACSA does not create any binding obligations.

3. India was instrumental in the creation of GACSA.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Sol. 15 (b) 2 only

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Global Alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture (GACSA), was

launched on 23 September 2014 at the UN Climate Summit. This statement can be

attempted with the help of elimination technique.

It was not under formed under Paris Agreement.

Source: Environment and Biodiversity, Chapter 19, Page 250

and continues……

Statement 2 is correct: Membership of GACSA does not create any binding obligations. This

statement can be interpreted. The body which is not so heard off, makes sense that its

membership does not create any binding obligations.

Statement 3 is incorrect: India was not instrumental in the creation of GACSA. Had India

been instrumental, it would have been in news like International Solar Alliance; hundreds

of articles in last two years.

16. Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of "Digital India" Plan of the Government of

India?

1. Formation of India's own Internet companies like China did.

2. Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that

collect Big Data to build their large data centres within our national geographical

boundaries.

3. Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi many of our schools, public

places and major tourist centres.


(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 to and 3

Sol. 16 (b) 3 only


Statement 2 and Statement 3 are not specifically mentioned under Digital India Plan.


Towns sometimes mentioned in news Country

1. Aleppo - Syria

2. Kirkuk - Yemen

3. Mosul - Palestine

4. Mazar-i-sharif - Afghanistan

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1 and 4

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 3 and 4

Sol. 17(b) 1 and 4

Statement 1 is correct. Aleppo is in Syria.

Source: News Juice Monthly, March 2018 edition, Page 71

Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect. Both Kirkuk and Mosul are in Iraq.

Source: News Juice Monthly, November 2017 edition, Page 39


Source: News Juice Monthly, May 2017 edition, Page 38

18. In the Federation established by the Government of India Act of 1935, residuary powers

were given to the

(a) Federal Legislature

(b) Governor General

(c) Provincial Legislature

(d) Provincial Governors

Sol. 18 (b) Governor General

The act divided the powers between the Centre and provinces in terms of three list-Federal

List (for Centre, with 59 items), Provincial List (for Provinces, with 54 items), and

Concurrent list (for both, with 36 items). Residuary powers were given to the Governor

General.


1. The speaker of the Legislative Assembly shall vacate his/her office if he/she ceases to be

a member of the assembly.

2. Whenever the Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate his/her office

immediately.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Sol. 19 (a) 1 only

Statement 1 is correct: The speaker of the Legislative Assembly shall vacate his/her office if

he/she ceases to be a member of the assembly.

The position of Speaker in Lok Sabha is similar to that of Speaker in Legislative Assembly.

Source: Indian Polity, Chapter 8, Page no. 105

Statement 2 is incorrect: Whenever the Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker

holds office till next Lok sabha is constituted.

Source: Indian Polity, Chapter 8, Page no. 103

20. Which one of the following reflects the most appropriate relationship between law and

liberty?

(a) Is there are more laws, there is less liberty.

(b) If there are no laws, there is no liberty.

(c) If there is Liberty, laws have to be made by the people.

(d) If laws are changed too often, liberty is in danger.

Sol. 20(d) If laws are changed too often, liberty is in danger.

Let us analyse this question.

Option (a) is incorrect. It does not necessarily mean that laws curtail liberty. Infact, some of

the laws are passed to provide liberty. For instance, The Indian Constitution provides to its

citizen Liberty through Article 21, and a various freedoms including speech and expression,

movement, assembly, profession etc. via Article 19.

Option (b) is incorrect: It is true that laws can be passed to provide liberty. In fact, option

(b) was a statement by Political Thinker John Locke. However, it cannot be said that if there

are no laws, there is no liberty. This is wrong because it is an extreme statement.

Option (c) is also incorrect: It may happen that people pass laws to restrict their liberty, for

instance caste system rules.

Option (d) is correct. If laws are changed too often, liberty is in danger because in such a

case, laws can be amended to restrict liberty.


1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State in any Court


2. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a State shall not be diminished



(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Sol. 21 (c) Both 1 and 2

Statement 1 is correct: No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of

a State in any Court during his term of office.


Statement 2 is correct: Article 158 (4) The emoluments and allowances of the Governor

shall not be diminished during his term of office.

Like President, Governor is required to function in consultation with State Council of

Ministers. His emoluments are determined by Parliament by law and paid by the State

government. To maintain his position, it is important that his emoluments cannot be

reduced.

22. The well-known painting "Bani Thani" belongs to the

(a) Bundi School

(b) Jaipur School

(c) Kangra School

(d) Kishangarh School

Sol. 22(d) Kishangarh School

Source: Ancient History, Chapter 20, Page 318

23. What is "Terminal High Altitude Area Defence (THAAD)", sometimes seen in the news?

(a) An Israeli radar system

(b) India's indigenous anti-missile program

(c) An American anti-missile system

(d) A defence collaboration between Japan and South Korea

Sol. 23 (c) An American anti-missile system

Source: News Juice Monthly, March 2017 Edition, Page 54

24. With reference to cultural history of India, consider the following statements:

1. Most of the Tyagaraja Kritis are devotional songs in praise of Lord Krishna.

2. Tyagaraja created several new ragas.

3. Annamacharya and Tyagaraja are contemporaries.

4. Annamacharya kirtanas are devotional songs in praise of Lord Venkateshwara.

Which of the statement given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 2, 3 and 4

Sol. 24 (b) 2 and 4 only


Kakarla Tyagabrahmam or Saint Tyagaraja (1767 –1847), also known as Tyāgayya in

Telugu, was one of the greatest composers of Carnatic music. Tyagaraja composed

thousands of devotional compositions, most in Telugu and in praise of Lord Rama. Of

special mention are five of his compositions called the Pancharatna Kritis (English: "five

gems").


Subject- Ancient History, Chapter 15, Page 203

Statements 1 and 3 are incorrect.

25. Which of the following are regarded as the main features of the "Rule of Law "?

1. Limitation of powers

2. Equality before law

3. People's responsibility to the Government

4. Liberty and civil rights


https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Carnatic_music

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Telugu_language

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Rama

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pancharatna_Kriti

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(c) 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Sol. 25 (c) 1, 2 and 4 only

Source: Polity, Chapter 5, Page 27.

This question requires lot of interpretation.

Statement 1 is correct

Rule of law directly implies that law is supreme. The law is the highest reference point in

every situation. Thus, there are limitation of powers of each individual because nothing is

beyond law.


Rule of law is related to equality before law. It means that the laws of the land must apply

to every individual equally, irrespective of the person s sex, religion, political inclination,

status in society etc.

Statement 3 is incorrect

It cannot be implied from Rule of Law.


Laws and Rights are complementary to each other. Laws lead to the rights and freedoms of

individuals. The rights are inherent and must not be based on whims and fancies of kings.

26. Which of the following led to the introduction of English Education in India?

1. Charter Act of 1813

2. General Committee of Public Instruction, 1823

3. Orientalist and Anglicist Controversy


(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Sol. 26(d) 1, 2 and 3

The overall British policy was to educate Indians to help Britishers in administration.

Britishers favoured english education over oriental education.

Statement 1 is correct: The Charter Act of 1813 adopted a provision to spend one lakh

rupees per annum for the spread of education in India.

Statement 3 is correct: Britishers were divided into two groups on the issue of

development of education in India. One group, called the Orientalists, advocated the

promotion of oriental subjects through Indian languages. The other group, called the

Anglicists, favoured western sciences and literature along with English medium.

The Chairman of the committee, Lord Macaulay announced his famous Minute advocating

the Anglicist point of view. Consequently, then Governor General Bentinck got the

resolution passed on 7 March 1835. The resolution declared that government funds would

be utilized for the promotion of western literature and science through the medium of

English language.

Answer can be obtained by knowing the validity only of Statementa 1 and 3.

27. Which one of the following is an artificial lake?

(a) Kodaikanal (Tamil Nadu)

(b) Kolleru (Andhra Pradesh)

(c) Nainital (Uttarakhand)

(d) Renuka (Himachal Pradesh)

Sol. 27(a) Kodaikanal (Tamil Nadu)

Kodaikanal (Tamil Nadu) is an artificial lake. Remaining three are natural lakes. Renuka

and Nainital are fresh water natural lakes. Kolleru is a lagoon.

Source: Geography, Chapter 9, Page 192

28. With reference to Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana, consider the following

statements:

1. It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labour and Employment.

2. It, among other things, will also impart training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial

and digital literacy.

3. It aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the

National Skill Qualification Framework.

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Sol. 28(c) 2 and 3 only

Source: PrepMate Government Schemes document, Page 62

Statement 1 is incorrect: PMKVY is a programme of Ministry of Skill Development and

Entrepreneurship.

Statement 3 is correct: PMKVY aims to align the competencies of the unregulated

workforce of the country to the National Skill Qualification Framework.

The question can be attempted by knowing just these two statements.

Statement 2 is also correct: Among other things, PMKVY will also impart training in soft

skills, entrepreneurship, financial and digital literacy.

29. In 1920, which of the following changed its name to "Swarajya Sabha"?

(a) All India Home Rule League

(b) Hindu Mahasabha

(c) South Indian liberal Federation

(d) The Servants of Indian Society

Sol. 29 (a) All India Home Rule League

Source: Modern History, Chapter 9, Page 99

The home rule movement was for home rule or self-rule. Thus, it can be interpreted that its

name was changed to Swarajya Sabha.

30. Which among the following events happened earliest?

(a) Swami Dayanand established Arya Samaj

(b) Dinabandhu Mitra wrote Neeldarpan

(c) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote Anandmath

(d) Satyendranath Tagore became the first Indian to succeed in the Indian Civil Services

Examination

Sol. 30 (b) Dinabandhu Mitra wrote Neeldarpan




31. Which of the following is/are the possible consequence/s of heavy sand mining in

riverbeds?

1. Decreased salinity of the river

2. Pollution of groundwater

3. Lowering of water-table


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Sol. 31(b) 2 and 3 only

Statement 1 is incorrect. Infact, it is the opposite of what actually happens. Due to excessive

sand mining the rocks would be exposed which contain salt phosphates. This would result

in increase in salinity of water.

Statement 2 is correct. There is a layer (sediments) present between riverbeds and the

ground water, which helps in filtering the water before it reaches the ground level.

Excessive mining of sand leads to the reduction of thickness of this filtering layer. Due to

this, the pollutants produced due to mining and other human activities do not get filtered

and the ground water becomes polluted.

Statement 3 is correct. Due to excessive sand mining the riverbeds turn into large and deep

pits and because of that the elevation of stream flow lowers down and as a result

groundwater table drops.

32. With reference to Agricultural soils, consider the following statement:

1. A high content of organic matter in soil drastically reducing its water holding capacity.

2. Soil does not play any role in sulphur cycle.

3. Irrigation over a period of time can contribute to the salinization of some agricultural

lands.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Sol. 32 (b) 3 only

Source: Environment, Explanation to Practice Questions, Page 314

Statement 1 is incorrect. A high content of organic matter in soil increases its water holding

capacity.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Soil does play role in sulphur cycle.

Source: Environment, Chapter 2, Page 27

Statement 3 is correct: Irrigation over a period of time can contribute to the salinization of

some agricultural lands.


33. The Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE), UN mechanism to assist

countries transition towards greener and more inclusive economies, emerged at

(a) The Earth Summit on Sustainable Development 2002, Johannesburg

(b) The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development 2012, Rio de Janeiro

(c) The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change 2015, Paris

(d) The World Sustainable Development Summit 2016, New Delhi

Sol. 33(b) The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development 2012, Rio de Janeiro


The Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE), UN mechanism to assist countries

transition towards greener and more inclusive economies, emerged at the United Nations

Conference on Sustainable Development 2012, Rio de Janeiro. After the UNEP report on

Green economy, PAGE was instituted.

34. "3D printing" has applications in which of the following?

1. Preparation of confectionery items

2. Manufacture of Bionic ears

3. Automotive industry

4. Reconstructive surgery

5. Data processing technologies


(a) 1, 3 and 4 only

(b) 2, 3 and 5 only

(c) 1 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Sol. 34(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5


Any object can be manufactured with the help of 3-D printing. 3-D modeling can also be

used for arrangement and processing of data.


1. The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in the Indian territory.

2. Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Greater Nicobar.

3. The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 1991 and it has remained in

active since then.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 3 only

(d) 1 and 3

Sol. 35 (a) 1 only



Statement 2 is incorrect: It is part of Andaman islands, and not 140 km East of Great

Nicobar.

Geography, Chapter 8, Page 338, Explanation of practice questions

Statement 3 is also incorrect.

Source: News Juice Monthly, March 2017 Edition, Page 123

36. Why is a plant called Prosopis juliflora often mentioned in news?

(a) Its extract is widely used in cosmetics.

(b) It tends to reduce the biodiversity in the area in which it grows.

(c) Its extract is used in the synthesis of pesticides.

(d) None of the above

Sol. 36(b) It tends to reduce the biodiversity in the area in which it grows.

Prosopis juliflora is a shrub or small tree. It is native to Mexico, South America and

the Caribbean. It is as an invasive weed in Africa, Asia, Australia and elsewhere. It is a

contributing factor to continuing transmission of malaria, especially during dry periods

when sugar sources from native plants are largely unavailable to mosquitoes.


1. Most of the world's coral reefs are in tropical waters.

2. More than one third of the world's coral reefs are located in the territories of Australia,

Indonesia and Philippines.

3. Coral reefs host far more number of animal phyla than those hosted by tropical

rainforests.


(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mexico

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/South_America

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Caribbean

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Invasive_weed

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Africa

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Asia

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Australia

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Malaria

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mosquito

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Sol. 37(d) 1, 2 and 3

Statement 1 is correct: Most of the world's coral reefs are in tropical waters.


Statement 2 is correct: More than one third of the world's coral reefs are located in the

territories of Australia, Indonesia and Philippines.

The above screenshot lends some help in interpreting the second statement.

Statement 3 is also correct: Coral reefs host far more number of animal phyla than those

hosted by tropical rainforests.

Coral reefs host 30 animal phyla, while all the terrestrial and freshwater habitats host only

19 phyla. The terrestrial and freshwater habitats cover 29% of the surface of earth, yet the

number of phyla in one 5m2 quadrant on a coral reefs in the oceans is subsequently greater

than all the terrestrial and freshwater habitats (rain forests, savannah, temperate forests,

tropical rainforests, tundra, rivers, lakes, bogs) of the world.

38. "Momentum for Change: Climate Neutral Now" is an initiative launched by

(a) The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change

(b) The UNEP Secretariat

(c) The UNFCCC secretariat

(d) The World Meteorological Organization

Sol. 38 (c) The UNFCCC secretariat

The Paris Climate Change Agreement s central aim is to strengthen the global response to

climate change by keeping a global temperature rise well below 2 degrees Celsius above

pre-industrial levels and to pursue efforts to limit the temperature increase even further to

1.5 degrees Celsius. This can be attained if we achieve a climate neutral world by the

second half of this century.

The UNFCCC secretariat launched its Climate Neutral Now initiative in 2015. The following

year, the secretariat launched a new pillar under its Momentum for Change initiative

focused on Climate Neutral Now, as part of larger efforts to showcase successful climate

action around the world.

39. With reference to educational institutions during colonial rule in India, consider the

following pairs:

Institutions Founder

1. Sanskrit college of Benaras - William Jones

2. Calcutta Madarsa - Warren Hastings

3. Fort William college - Arthur Wellesley

Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 3 only

Sol. 39(b) 2 only

Statement 1 is incorrect: William Jones founded The Asiatic Society of Bengal. Government

Sanskrit College was established in 1791, the first college in Benaras. In 1791, Jonathan

Duncan, the representative of the East India Company proposed the establishment of a

Sanskrit college for development and preservation of the Sanskrit literature. This was

sanctioned by Governor General Lord Cornwallis.


Once you conclude that statement 1 is incorrect, there are only two options {(b) and (d)}

left.

Statement 2 is correct: Calcutta Madarsa was founded in October 1780 by Warren Hastings.

Calcutta Madrasa (later Calcutta Aliya Madrasa) was the earliest of the state-managed

educational institutions under the British rule in India.

Answer can be identified by with these two statements only.


http://climateneutralnow.org/Pages/Home.aspx

http://newsroom.unfccc.int/climate-action/momentum-for-change-climate-neutral-now/

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Benaras

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Jonathan_Duncan_(Governor_of_Bombay)

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Jonathan_Duncan_(Governor_of_Bombay)

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/East_India_Company

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lord_Cornwallis

Regions sometimes mentioned in news Country

1. Catalonia - Spain

2. Crimea - Hungary

3. Mindanao - Philippines

4. Oromia - Nigeria

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) 1 2 and 3

(b) 3 and 4 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2 and 4 only

Sol.40 (c) 1 and 3 only

Statement 1 is correct: Catalonia is part of Spain.

Source: International Organisations and Bilateral Relations, Chapter 13, Page 305

Statement 2 is incorrect: Crimea was part of Ukraine. Options (a) and (d) can be eliminated.

Source: International Organisations and Bilateral Relations, Chapter 13, Page no. 304

Answer can be obtained from just two statements.

Statement 3 is correct and Statement 4 is incorrect.

41. With reference to the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), consider the

following statements:

1. IRNSS has three satellites in geostationary and four satellites in geosynchronous orbits.

2. IRNSS covers entire India and about 5500 sq. km beyond its borders.

3. India will have its own satellite navigation system with full global coverage by the middle

of 2019.


(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) None

Sol. 41(a) 1 only



Statement 2 is incorrect. IRNSS covers entire India and about 1500 sq. km (not 5500 sq.

km) beyond its borders.

Statement 3 is also incorrect. There is no such plan to make IRNSS make global by 2019.

42. Consider the following phenomena:

1. Light is affected by gravity.

2. The Universe is constantly expanding.

3. Matter warps its surrounding space-time.

Which of the above is/are the prediction/predictions of Albert Einstein's General Theory of

Relativity, often discussed in media?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Sol. 42 (c) 1 and 3 only

Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Both the statements mean the same thing.

Source: News Juice

Statement 2 is incorrect: It is well understood that the Universe is constantly expanding.

Red shift phenomenon proves this. Neither this fact requires any prediction nor it is part of

Albert Einstein's General Theory of Relativity.

Source: General Science, Chapter 10, Page 95

43. With reference to the Genetically Modified mustard (GM mustard) developed in India,


1. GM mustard has the genes of a soil bacterium that give the plant the property of pest-

resistant to a wide variety of pets.

2. GM mustard has the genes that allow the plant cross-pollination and hybridization.

3. GM mustard has been developed jointly by the IARI and Punjab Agricultural University.

Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Sol. 43(b) 2 only

Statement 1 is incorrect: Unlike most of GM crops, GM Mustard do not have genes of soil

bacterium. It is produced by cross pollinating Indian mustard with East European mustard.

Statement 3 is also incorrect: GM Mustard has been prepared by researchers of Delhi

University.


Once you have eliminated Statements 1 and 3, you are left with option (b).


News Juice Monthly, November 2016 Edition, Page 104


Terms sometimes seen in news Context/Topic

1. Belle II experiment - Artificial Intelligence

2. Blockchain Technology - Digital/Cryptocurrency

3. CRISPR - Cas9 - Particle Physics

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Sol. 44(b) 2 only

Statement 1 is incorrect. Belle II is a particle accelerator.


Statement 2 is correct: Blockchain technology is related to Crpto-currency.

Science and Technology, Chapter 12, Page 177

Statement 3 is also incorrect. CRISPR - Cas9 is related to genetic sequences that

play a key role in a prokaryotic defense system.

45. Which of the following statements best describes carbon fertilization?

(a) Increased plant growth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the

atmosphere

(b) Increased temperature of Earth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the

atmosphere

(c) Increased acidity of oceans as a result of increased concentration of carbon dioxide in

the atmosphere

(d) Adaptation of all living beings on Earth to the climate change brought about by the

increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere

Sol. 45(a) Increased plant growth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the

atmosphere

The carbon fertilization effect (CFE): the larger amount of carbon dioxide in the

atmosphere that has resulted from rising anthropogenic emissions should help the growth

of plants, which use carbon dioxide during photosynthesis. The effect ought to increase

crop yields.

46. When the alarm of your Smartphone rang in the morning, you wake up and tap it to

stop the alarm which causes your geyser to be switched on automatically. The smart mirror

in your bathroom shows the day's weather and also indicates the level of water in your

overhead tank. After you take some groceries from your refrigerator for making breakfast,

it recognizes the shortage of stock in it and places an order for the supply of fresh grocery

items. When you step out of your house and lock the door, all lights, fans, geysers, and AC

machines get switched off automatically. On your way to office, your car warns you about

traffic congestion ahead and suggests an alternative route, and if you are late for a meeting,

it sends a message to your office accordingly.

In the context of emerging communication technologies, which one of the following terms

best applies to the above scenario?

(a) Border Gateway protocol

(b) Internet of Things

(c) Internet Protocol

(d) Virtual Private Network

Sol.46(b) Internet of Things


47. With reference to solar power production in India, consider the following statement:

1. India is the third largest in the world in the manufacture of silicon wafers used in

photovoltaic units.

2. The solar power tariffs are determined by the Solar Energy Corporation of India.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Sol.47(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Statement 1 is incorrect: India is a significant importer of solar wafers. Government seeks

to encourage production of solar wafers in India under Make in India program. Infact, it is a

major trading issue between India and US. Our solar capacity is far less than many nations

of the world. Thus, it can be concluded that India is not the third largest producer.

Statement 2 is also incorrect: Recently, the rate of solar power bids have gone down. Thus,

the rate is determined through auction and not by Solar Energy Corporation of India.

News Juice Monthly, March 2017 Edition, Page 105

48. The staple commodity of export by the English East India Company from Bengal in the

middle of the 18th century were

(a) Raw cotton, oil-seeds and opium

(b) Sugar, salt, zinc and lead

(c) Copper, silver, gold, spices and tea

(d) Cotton, silk, saltpetre and opium

Sol. 48(d) Cotton, silk, saltpetre and opium


There is confusion in options (a) and (d). Saltpetre was also exported. It was used to make

gunpowder in Britain.

49. Which one of the following is a very significant aspect of the Champaran satyagraha?

(a) Active all-India participation of lawyers, students and women in the National Movement

(b) Active involvement of Dalit and Tribal communities of India in the National Movement

(c) Joining of peasant unrest to India's national Movement

(d) Drastic decrease in the cultivation of plantation crops and commercial crops

Sol. 49(c) Joining of peasant unrest to India's national Movement


50. Who among the following was the founder of the "Hindu Mazdoor Sabha" established in

1948?

(a) B. Krishna Pillai, E.M.S. Namboodiripad and K.C. George

(b) Jayaprakash Narayan, Deen Dayal Upadhyay and M.N. Roy

(c) C.P. Ramaswamy Iyer, K. Kamaraj and Veeresalingam Pantulu

(d) Ashok Mehta, T.S. Ramanujam and G.G. Mehta

Sol. 50(d) Ashok Mehta, T.S. Ramanujam and G.G. Mehta

The HMS was founded in Howrah in west bengal on 29 December 1948, by

socialists, Forward Bloc followers and independent unionists. Its founders

included Basawon Singh (Sinha), Ashok Mehta, R.S. Ruikar, Maniben Kara, Shibnath

Banerjee, R.A. Khedgikar, T.S. Ramanujam, V.S. Mathur, G.G. Mehta. R.S. Ruikar was elected

president and Ashok Mehta general secretary.

51. With reference to the religious practices in India, the "Sthanakavasi" sect belongs to

(a) Buddhism

(b) Jainism

(c) Vaishnavism

(d) Shaivism

Sol. 51(b) Jainism

Jainism splited into Digambara and Svetambara. Around 1500 AD, the Swetambar sect

further divided into three sub-sects: Sthanakvasi, Murtipujak, and Terapanthi.

52. With reference to the cultural history of India, consider the following statements:

1. White marble was used in making Buland Darwaza and Khankah at Fatehpur Sikri.

2. Red sandstone and marble were used in making Bara Imambara and Rumi Darwaza at

Lucknow.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Sol. 52 (a) 1 only

Statement 1 is correct. The Buland Darwaza at Fatehpur Sikri is made up of white marble

and red sandtone.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Imambara is made of brick and lime.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Howrah

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/All_India_Forward_Bloc

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Basawon_Singh_(Sinha)

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ashok_Mehta

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/R.S._Ruikar

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Maniben_Kara

https://en.wikipedia.org/w/index.php?title=Shibnath_Banerjee&action=edit&redlink=1

https://en.wikipedia.org/w/index.php?title=Shibnath_Banerjee&action=edit&redlink=1

https://en.wikipedia.org/w/index.php?title=R.A._Khedgikar&action=edit&redlink=1

https://en.wikipedia.org/w/index.php?title=T.S._Ramanujam&action=edit&redlink=1

https://en.wikipedia.org/w/index.php?title=V.S._Mathur&action=edit&redlink=1

https://en.wikipedia.org/w/index.php?title=G.G._Mehta&action=edit&redlink=1

53. Which one of the following foreign Travellers elaborately discuss about diamonds and

diamond mines of India?

(a) Francois Bernier

(b) Jean-Baptiste Tavernier

(c) Jean de Thevenot

(d) Abbe Barthelemy Carre

Sol. 53(b) Jean-Baptiste Tavernier


54. With reference to Indian history, who among the following is a future Buddha, yet to

come to save the world?

(a) Avalokiteshvara

(b) Lokeswara

(c) Maitreya

(d) Padmapani

Sol. 54(c) Maitreya

Maitreya Buddha is considered as the Future Buddha, who is yet to appear.

55. Which one of the following statements does not apply to the system of subsidiary

Alliance introduced by Lord Wellesley?

(a) To maintain a large standing army at other's expense.

(b) To keep India safe from Napoleonic danger

(c) To secure a fixed income for the Company

(d) To establish British paramountcy over Indian states

Sol. 55(c) To secure a fixed income for the Company

Source: Modern History, Chapter 4, Page no. 49

From the above screenshot, it can be concluded that subsidiary alliance led to options (a)

and (d).

There was one more motive of introducing subsidiary alliance. The power of Napoleon was

rising. The chances of Napoleon invasion were real. Thus, subsidiary alliance was signed to

keep princely states safe from Napoleon. Thus, option (b) can also be ruled out.

56. Which one of the following statements correctly describe the meaning of legal tender

money?

(a) The money which is tendered in courts of law to defray the fee of legal cases

(b) The money which a creditor is under compulsion to accept in settlement of his claims

(c) The bank money in the form of cheques, drafts, bills of exchange, etc.

(d) The metallic money in circulation in a country

Sol. 56(b) The money which a creditor is under compulsion to accept in settlement of his

claims

This is an interesting question. It asks something very basic, which is used in common

parlance but the meaning of which is not clear. Legal tender refers coins or banknotes that

must be accepted if offered in payment of a debt. Among the given choices, option (b) is the

most appropriate answer.

News Juice 9th November, 2016

57. If a commodity is provided free to the public by the government, Then

(a) the opportunity cost is zero.

(b) the opportunity cost is ignored.

(c) the opportunity cost is transferred from the consumer of the product to the tax-paying

public.

(d) the opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to the

Government.

Sol.57(d) the opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to the

Government.

Option (a) is incorrect. A free good is a good with zero opportunity cost. However, one

important distinction is that just because a good is given away for free it doesn t

necessarily mean it is a free good. In this case, if the government wasn t giving away free

commodity to the public, it might be using the same money elsewhere.

Option (b) is incorrect. Everything has a cost. Thus, Opportunity cost cannot be ignored.

https://www.economicshelp.org/blog/2177/economics/opportunity-cost-definition/

Option (c) is incorrect. The tax receipts, once collected, belong to the government. Thus,

their further use involves opportunity cost to the government.

Option (d) is the correct answer. Opportunity cost here is what government gave up in

order to provide free commodities. If the government would not have given free

commodities, then it could have used the same funds in any other manner.


58. Increase in absolute and per capita real GNP do not connote a higher level of economic

development, if

(a) industrial output failed to keep pace with agricultural output.

(b) agricultural output fails to keep pace with industrial output.

(c) poverty and unemployment increase.

(d) imports grow faster than exports.

Sol. 58(c) poverty and unemployment increase.


Economic Development considers not just quantitative indicators such as GNP, GDP but

also qualitative indictors such as standards of living, poverty, unemployment, etc.


Human capital formation as a concept is better explained in terms of a process which

enables

1. individuals of a country to accumulate more capital.

2. increasing the knowledge, skill levels and capacities of the people of the country.

3. accumulation of tangible wealth.

4. accumulation of intangible wealth.


(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 4

(d) 1, 3 and 4

Sol. 59 (b) 2 only

This question is slightly confusing. It talks about the process which explains Human Capital

formation.

Statement 2 is correct. Human Capital formation is the process which enables increasing

the knowledge, skill levels and capacities of the people of the country.


Many people tend to confuse Statement 4 as correct. However, accumulation of intangible

wealth such as copyrights, patents, etc is outcome of Human capital formation and it is the

not the process. Thus, Statement 4 is incorrect.

Similarly, Statements 1 and 3 are also incorrect because they are also outcome of Human

capital formation.

60. Despite being a high saving economy, capital formation may not result in significant

increase in output due to

(a) weak administrative machinery

(b) illiteracy

(c) high population density

(d) high capital-output ratio

Sol.60 (d) high capital-output ratio


61. After the Santhal Uprising subsided, what was/were the measure/measures taken by

colonial government?

1. The territories called ' santhal Paraganas' were created.

2. It became illegal for a santhal to transfer land to a non-santhal.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Sol.61 (c) Both 1 and 2



Statement 2 is also correct. To protect Santhal interests, it was declared illegal to transfer

land to a non-santhal.

62. Economically, one of the results of the British rule in India in the 19th century was the

(a) increase in the export of Indian handicrafts.

(b) growth in number of Indian owned factories.

(c) commercialization of Indian agriculture.

(d) Rapid increase in the Urban population.

Sol. 62(c) commercialization of Indian agriculture.


63. if the President of India exercises his power as provided under article 356 of the

Constitution in respect of a particular state, then

(a) the Assembly of the state is automatically dissolved.

(b) the powers of the Legislature of that state shall be exercisable by or under the


(c) article 19 is suspended in that state.

(d) the president can make laws relating to that state.

Sol. 63(b) The powers of the Legislature of that state shall be exercisable by or under the




Craft Heritage of

1. Puthukkuli shawls - Tamil Nadu

2. Sujni embroidery - Maharashtra

3. Uppada jamdani saris - Karnataka

Which one of the pairs given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(c) 3 only

(d) 2 and 3

Sol. 64(a) 1 only

Statement 1 is correct. Puthukkuli shawls are heritage craft of Tamil Nadu.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Sujani (also known as Sujini) embroidery originated in Bhusura

village of Bihar in India. Today, Sujani embroidery is also practiced in the southern part of

Rajasthan for making patterns on Sarees, dupattas and other clothing and home furnishing.

Statement 3 is also incorrect. Uppada Jamdani Sari is a silk sari style woven in Uppada of

East Godavari district in the state of Andhra Pradesh. It is registered as one of the

geographical indication from Andhra Pradesh.

65. In which of the following areas can GPS technology be used?

1. Mobile phone operation

2. Banking operations

3. Controlling the power grids


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Sol. 65 (d) 1, 2 and 3

GPS technology can be used in all the applications where navigation can be of any use.

Statement 1 is correct: Use of GPS in mobile operations is known to all of us.

Statement 2 is correct: For instance, GPS can be used to track bank branches, cash

movement, bank agents, etc.

Statement 3 is correct: For instance, GPS can be used to track defective power grids.

This question requires interpretation apart from knowing basic concept.




1. The Reserve Bank of India manages and services Government of India securities but not

any state government securities.

2. Treasury bills are issued by the government of India and there are no treasury bills

issued by the state government.

3. Treasury bills offer are issued at a discount from the par value.


(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, and 3


Statement 1 is incorrect: The Reserve Bank of India manages and services Government of

India as well as state government securities. RBI is banker to both Central and State

government.

Statement 2 is correct: Treasury Bills are issued only by the central government in India.

The State governments do not issue any treasury bills.

Statement 3 is correct: Treasury bills are issued at a discount from the par value. They are

redeemable at par value. Thus, the interest earned on treasury bills = Par value – Issued

value.


1. The earth magnetic field is reversed every few hundred thousands years.

2. When the earth was created more than 4000 million years ago, there was 54% oxygen

and no carbon dioxide.

3. When living organisms originated, they modified the early atmosphere of the earth.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Sol.67(c) 1 and 3 only

Statement 1 is correct: The earth magnetic field reverses every few hundred thousand

years.

Statement 2 is incorrect: When Earth was created there was no oxygen in the atmosphere.

Though Oxygen was present in compounds in Earth s interior, atmosphere, and oceans, it

began to accumulate later on in the atmosphere as oxygen gas (O2).

Statement 3 is correct: It can be guessed easily. For instance, we know that living

organisms undertake gaseous exchange through photosynthesis and respiration.

68. The terms 'Wanna Cry, Petya and Eternal Blue' sometimes mentioned in the news

recently are related to

(a) Exoplanets

(b) Cryptocurrency

(c) Cyber attack

(d) Mini satellites6

Sol. 68(c) Cyber attack


Subject – Science and Technology, Chapter 68, Page no. 162

69. With reference to the circumstances in Indian agriculture, the concept of "conservation

agriculture" assumes significance.

Which of the following fall under the conservation agriculture?

1. Avoiding the monoculture practices

2. Adopting minimum tillage

3. Avoiding the cultivation of plantation crops

4. Using crop residues to cover soil surface

5. Adopting spatial and temporal crop Sequencing/crop rotations


(a) 1, 3 and 4

(b) 2, 3, 4 and 5

(c) 2, 4 and 5

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 5

Sol. 69(c) 2, 4 and 5

Conservation agriculture refers to set of soil management practices. Though what it

actually comprises is debatable, it is based on three core principles.

These include: • Maintenance of soil cover using either a previous crop residue or specifically growing a

cover crop for this purpose); • minimum soil disturbance through tillage just enough to get the seed into the ground ; • regular crop rotations to help combat the various biotic constraints;



70. The term "sixth mass extinction/sixth extinction" even mentioned in the news in the

context of the discussion of

(a) Widespread monoculture practices in agriculture and large -scale commercial farming

with indiscriminate use of chemicals in many parts of the world that may result in the loss

of good native ecosystems.

(b) Fears of a possible Commission of a meteorite with the earth in the near future in the

manner it happened 65 million years ago that caused the mass extinction of many species

including those of Dinosaurs.

(c) Large scale cultivation of genetically modified crops in many parts of the world and

promoting their cultivation in other parts of the world which may cause the disappearance

of good native crop plants and the loss of food biodiversity.

(d) Mankind's over-exploitation/misuse of natural resources, fragmentation/loss of

Natural Habitats, destruction of ecosystems, pollution and global climate change.

Sol. 70 (d) Mankind's over-exploitation/misuse of natural resources, fragmentation/loss of

Natural Habitats, destruction of ecosystems, pollution and global climate change.

It is said that Earth is currently in the midst of what is being considered the 6th great mass

extinction. It is also called the Holocene extinction (or the Anthropocene extinction).


1. Capital adequacy ratio (CAR) is the amount that banks have to maintain in the form of

their own funds to offset any loss that banks incur if the account-holders fail to repay dues.

2. CAR is decided by each individual Bank.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither nice 1 nor 2

Sol. 71(a) 1 only

Statement 1 is correct: Capital adequacy ratio (CAR) is the amount that banks have to

maintain in the form of their own funds to offset any loss that banks incur if the account-

holders fail to repay dues.


Source: News Juice Monthly, 2018 January Edition, Page 114

Statement 2 is incorrect: CAR is mandated by RBI


72. The Identity platform 'Aadhaar' provides open "Application Programming Interfaces

(APIs)". What does it imply?

1. It can be integrated into any electronic device.

2. Online authentication using iris is possible.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Sol. 72 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Statement 1 is incorrect: 'Aadhaar' provides open "Application Programming Interfaces

(APIs)" means that other apps and programs can use Aadhar data. For example,

telecommunication companies use Aadhar data to verify identity of a person.

Open API Open application programming interfaces (APIs) means that other applications

can access its data. For example, Google maps data is used by Uber, Ola, Swiggy, Zomato

and numerous other apps. An API is a set of rules or code built into applications to enable

software to communicate with each other.

Statement 2 is also incorrect. Though the statement Online authentication using iris is

possible is correct, but the statement is not appropriate in context of question stem

('Aadhaar' provides open "Application Programming Interfaces (APIs)". What does it

imply?).

It is not an implication of Aadhar being open API enabled.

73. Very recently, in which of the following countries have lakhs of people either suffered

from severe famine/acute malnutrition or died due to starvation caused by war/ethnic

conflicts?

(a) Angola and Zambia

(b) Morocco and Tunisia

(c) Venezuela and Columbia

(d) Yemen and South Sudan

Sol. 73 (d) Yemen and South Sudan

News Juice Monthly, January 2018 Edition, Page 62

Once you zero down to Yemen, you already have the answer.

74. Regarding wood's dispatch, which of the following statements are true?

1. Grants-in-Aid system was introduced.

2. Establishment of universities was recommended.

3. English as a medium of instruction at all levels of education was recommended.


(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Sol. 74(a) 1 and 2 only

Source: Modern History, Chapter 7, Page no. 62

Statement 3 is incorrect. The Wood s dispatch recommended Anglo-vernacular languages

for schools and not just English language.

75. With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following parliamentary

committees scrutinizes and reports to the House whether the powers to make regulations,

rules, sub-rules,etc. Conferred by the constitution or delegated by the parliament are being

properly exercised by the executive within the scope of search the delegation.

(a) Committee on Government Assurances

(b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation

(c) Rules Committee

(d) Business Advisory Committee

Sol. 75(b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation

Subject: Indian Polity, Chapter 8, Page 142

By reading PrepMate polity book, one can eliminate option (a) and (d).

Option(c) is also incorrect. Rules committee makes rules for internal functioning of Lok

Sabha and Rajya Sabha.


1. As per the Right to education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a

state, a person would be required to possess the minimum qualification laid down by the

concerned state Council of teacher education.

2. As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to pass a

Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in accordance with the National Council of Teacher

Education guidelines.

3. In India, more than 90% of teacher education institutions are directly under the state

governments.


(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 3 only

Sol. (b) 2 only

Statement 1 is incorrect: As per Section 23(1) in The Right of Children to Free and

Compulsory Education Act, 2009

(1) Any person possessing such minimum qualifications, as laid down by an academic

authority, authorised by the Central Government, by notification, shall be eligible for

appointment as a teacher.

Statement 2 is correct. The academic authority authorized by the central govt. to prescribe

qualification for teachers is the National Council of Teacher Education (NCTE). According to

notification by NCTE, TET pass is a requirement for teaching primary classes.

Once you know that Statement 1 is incorrect and Statement 2 is correct, the answer is

option (b).


Tradition State

1. Chapchar Kut festival - Mizoram

2. Khongjom Parba ballad - Manipur

3. Thang-Ta dance - Sikkim

Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(c) 3 only

(d) 2 and 3

Sol. 77 (b)

Statement 3 is incorrect: Thang-Ta dance is incorrectly matched to Sikkim.


Statements 1 and 2 are correctly matched.

The Chapchar Kut is a festival of Mizoram, India It is celebrated during March after

completion of their most arduous task of Jhum operation i.e., jungle-clearing (clearing of

the remnants of burning).

Khongjom Parba is a style of ballad singing from Manipur using Dholak (drum) which

depicts stories of heroic battle fought by Manipuris against the mighty British Empire in

1891.


1. The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 replaced the Prevention of Food Adulteration

Act, 1954.

2. The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is under the charge of Director

General of Health Services in the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mizoram

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/India

Sol. 78 (a) 1 only



Statement 2 is incorrect.

Source: News Juice

79. The term "two-state solution" is sometimes mentioned in the news in the context of the

affairs of

(a) China

(b) Israel

(c) Iraq

(d) Yemen

Sol. 79(b) Israel


80. With reference to the provisions made under the National Food Security Act, 2013,


1. The families coming under the category of 'below poverty line (BPL) only are eligible to

receive subsidised food grains.

2. The eldest women in a household, of age 18 years or above, shall be the head of the

household for the purpose of insurance of a ration card.

3. Pregnant women and lactating mothers are entitled to a 'take-home ration' of 1600

calories per day during pregnancy and for six months thereafter.


(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 3 only

Sol.80 (b) 2 only

Statement 1 is incorrect: The act is applicable to 67% of Indian Population.

Statement 2 is correct: The eldest women in a household, of age 18 years or above, shall be

the head of the household for the purpose of issuing ration card.


Once you know that statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct, the answer is

option (b).

81. India enacted The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act,

1999 in order to comply with the obligations to

(a) ILO

(b) IMF

(c) UNCTAD

(d) WTO

Sol. 81(d) WTO

Source: Economics, Chapter, 26, Page 335

Source: Economics, Chapter, 26, Page 346


1. In India, State governments do not have the power to option non-coal mines.

2. Andhra Pradesh and Jharkhand to not have gold mines.

3. Rajasthan has iron ore mines.


(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 3 only

Sol. 82 (d) 3 only

Statement 1 is incorrect: State governments have the power to auction non-coal mines.

Source: News Juice Monthly, April 2018 Edition, Page 33

The screenshot proves that State governments can auction non-coal mines such as iron.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Andhra Pradesh has gold mines. Jharkhand and Andhra Pradesh

have two of the three active gold mines.

Geography, Chapter 17, Page 285

Once you are able to eliminate statements 1 and 2, clearly answer is option (d).

Statement 3 is correct: Rajasthan has iron ore deposit in Bhilwara district.

83. With reference to digital payments, consider the following statements:

1. BHIM app allows the user to transfer money to anyone with a UPI- enabled bank account.

2. While a chip-pin debit card has four factors of authentication, BHIM app has only two

factors of authentication.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Sol.83 (a) 1 only


PrepMate Government Schemes, Page 72

Statement 2 is incorrect: BHIM App has three levels of authentication providing high

degree of security. For one, the app binds with a user's mobile number. Secondly the user

needs to sync whichever bank account (UPI or non UPI enabled) needed to conduct

monetary transactions. Thirdly, when the User sets up the app, they are asked to create a

UPI PIN. This PIN is what is finally needed to complete a transaction. Further, it is needed

every time you need to log into app.

In a chip- pin debit card, there are two levels of authentication: Card details and OTP.

84. Among the following cities, which one lies on a longitude closest to that of Delhi?

(a) Bengaluru

(b) Hyderabad

(c) Nagpur

(d) Pune

Sol. 84 (a) Bengaluru


85. International Labour organisation's conventions 138 and 182 are related to

(a) Child labour

(b) Adaptation of agricultural practices to global climate change

(c) Regulation of food prices and food security

(d) Gender parity at the workplace

Sol. 85(a) Child labour

Source: News Juice Monthly, 2017 July Edition, Page 61


1. In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra party.

2. In the Lok Sabha, a leader of the opposition was recognised for the first time in 1969.

3. In the Lok Sabha, if the party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot

be recognised as the Leader of the opposition.


(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Sol.86 (b) 2 only

Statement 3 is incorrect: In the Lok Sabha, if the party does not have a minimum of 75

members, its leader cannot be recognised as the Leader of the opposition.


This question can be solved by eliminating only Statement 3. Out of four choices, three have

statement 3 in them.

87. Which of the following leave modifications occur(a) in the desert areas to inhibit water

loss?

1. Hard and waxy leaves

2. Tiny leaves

3. Thorns instead of leaves


(a) 2 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Sol. 87(d) 1, 2 and 3

The question is similar to what was asked in the year 2013.


88. As per the NSSO 70th Round "Situation assessment survey of Agricultural Households",


1. Rajasthan has the highest Percentage share of agricultural households among its rural

households.

2. Out of the total agricultural households in the country, a little over 60% belong to OBCs.

3. In Kerala, a little over 60% of agricultural households reported to have received

maximum income from sources other than agricultural activities.


(a) 2 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3


The question is very difficult. The question is based on NSSO 70th Round, although 71st

survey is already complete. The results of 70th round came out through three reports. The

first one on Situation of agricultural households in India was out in December, 2014.

Statement 1 is correct: Among the major States, Rajasthan had highest percentage of

agricultural households (78.4 percent) among its rural households followed by Uttar

Pradesh (74.8 percent) and Madhya Pradesh (70.8 percent).

Statement 2 is incorrect: About 45 percent out of the total agricultural households in the

country belonged to Other Backward Classes (OBC). About 16 percent of agricultural

households were from Scheduled Castes (SC) and 13 percent were from Scheduled Tribes

(ST).

Statement 3 is correct: Agricultural activity (cultivation, livestock and other agricultural

activities) was reported to be the principal source of income for majority of the households

in all the major States, except Kerala where about 61 percent of the agricultural households

reported to have earned maximum income from sources other than agricultural activities.

89. How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) different from the Central pollution control

board (CPCB)?

1. The NGT has been established by act where as the CPCB has been created by an executive

order of the government.

2. The NGT provides environmental justice and helps reduce the burden of litigation in the

Higher Courts whereas the CPCB promotes cleanliness of streams and wells, and aims to

improve the quality of air in the country.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Sol. 89 (b) 2 only

Statement 1 is incorrect: Both NGT and CPCB have been established by an act.

Statement 2 is correct. The NGT provides environmental justice and helps reduce the

burden of litigation in the Higher Courts whereas the CPCB promotes cleanliness of

streams and wells, and aims to improve the quality of air in the country.




1. The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth schedule of the

Constitution of India.

2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth schedule cannot be examined by any court and

no judgement can be made on it.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Sol.90 (a) 1 only

Statement 1 is correct: The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth

schedule of the Constitution of India.

Indian Polity, Chapter 5, Page 42

Statement 2 is incorrect: The validity of a law placed in the Ninth schedule can be examined

courts.


91. Which of the following best describes the term "Merchant Discount Rate" sometimes

seen in news?

(a) The incentive given by the bank to a merchant for accepting payments through debit

cards pertaining to that Bank.

(b) The amount paid by banks to their customers when they use debit cards for financial

transactions for purchasing goods or services.

(c) The charge to a merchant by a bank for accepting payments from his customers through

the bank's debit cards.

(d) The incentive given by the government for promoting digital payments by their

customers through Point of Sale (PoS) machines and debit cards.

Sol.91(c) The charge to a merchant by a bank for accepting payments from his customers

through the bank's debit cards.

Source: News Juice Monthly, January 2017 Edition

92. What is/are the consequence/consequences of a country become a member of the

'Nuclear Suppliers Group'?

1. It will have access to the latest and most efficient nuclear technologies.

2. It automatically becomes a member of "The Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear

Weapons (NPT)".


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Sol. 92 (a) 1 only

Statement 1 is correct: Country will have access to the latest and most efficient nuclear

technologies.


Statement 2 is incorrect: It does not automatically become a member of "The Treaty on the

Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT)".


93. With reference to India's decision to levy an equalization tax of 6% on online

advertisement services offered by non-resident entities, which of the following statements

is/are correct?

1. It is introduced as a part of the Income Tax Act.

2. Non-resident entities that offer advertisement services in India can claim a tax credit in

their home country under the "Double taxation avoidance agreements."


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Sol. (a) 1 only

Statement 1 is correct: Many internet companies are making huge income in India, but they

don t have permanent place of business in India. Equalization levy is to tax such income in

Income. It is nature of presumptive tax of 6 % on total receipts.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Tax credit of what is deducted as equalization levy cannot be

claimed abroad.

Source: News Juice Monthly, May 2017 edition


1. The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Review Committee Report

has recommended a debt to GDP ratio of 60% for the general (combined) government by

2023, comprising 40% for the Central Government and 20% for the State Governments.

2. The Central government has domestic liabilities of 21% of GDP as compared to that of

49% of GDP of the State governments.

3. As per the constitution of India, it is mandatory for a state to take the Central

Government's consent for raising any loan if the former owes any outstanding liabilities to

the latter.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3



Source: News Juice Monthly, May 2017 Edition

Statement 2 is incorrect: Central government debt is approximately 49% of GDP, which is

far higher than that of the collective debt of State Governments.

News Juice Monthly, March 2017 Edition

Statement 3 is correct: As per the constitution of India, it is mandatory for a state to take

the Central Government's consent for raising any loan if the former owes any outstanding

liabilities to the latter.



1. The quantity of important edible oils is more than the domestic production of edible oils

in the last five years.

2. The government does not impose any customs duty on all the imported edible oils as a

special case.

Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Sol.95 (a) 1 only

Statement 1 is correct: India occupies a prominent position in the world oilseeds industry

with contribution of around 10% in worldwide production. But the demand of edible oils

(extracted from oilseeds in addition to palm oil) is significantly higher than the domestic

production, leading to dependence on imports (60% of requirement). In FY2016 India s

total edible oil demand stood at 24 mn tonnes out of which 9 mn tonnes was met from

domestic production and 15 mn tonnes met from imports.

Statement 2 is incorrect: India imposes high duty on imported oils to save domestic

producers from foreign competition.

96. He wrote biographies of Mazzini, Garibaldi, Shivaji and Shrikrishna; stayed in America

for some time; and was also elected to the Central Assembly. He was

(a) Aurobindo Ghosh

(b) Bipin Chandra Pal

(c) Lala Lajpat Rai

(d) Motilal Nehru

Sol. 96(c) Lala Lajpat Rai

Chapter 8, Page 88

Chapter 13, Page 148


1. Aadhar card can be used as a proof of citizenship for domicile.

2. Once issued, Aadhaar number cannot be deactivated or omitted by the Issuing Authority.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Sol. 97 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Aadhaar act has clarified- 'Even if you're holding an Aadhaar,

it does not mean that you have gained Indian citizenship.'

Statement 2 is incorrect: Once issued, Aadhar can be deactivated. Consider the case of

people who have multiple Aadhar or have obtained Aadhar by submitting false information.

Source: News Juice 12th July, 2016

98. Which of the following has/have shrunk immensely/ dried up in the recent past due to

human activities?

1. Aral sea

2. Black sea

3. Lake Baikal


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 2 only

(d) 1 and 3

Sol.98(a) 1 only

Statement 1 is correct: The Aral Sea is shrinking since the 1960s. By 1997, it had declined

to 10% of its original size, splitting into four lakes – the North Aral Sea, the eastern and

western basins of the once far larger South Aral Sea, and one smaller intermediate lake. By

2009, the southeastern lake had disappeared and the southwestern lake had retreated to a

thin strip at the western edge of the former southern sea; in subsequent years, occasional

water flows have led to the southeastern lake sometimes being replenished to a small

degree. Satellite images taken by NASA in August 2014 revealed that for the first time in

modern history the eastern basin of the Aral Sea had completely dried up. The eastern

basin is now called the Aralkum Desert.

There have been news about drying of Aral sea. However, we are not able to locate the

source in News juice.

Caspian sea, then and now

Statement 2 is incorrect. There is no shrinking of water levels of Black Sea.

Statement 2 can be easily eliminated. If you eliminate this statement, you are left with two

options.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The level of Lake Baikal continues to drop. The threshold is 456

meters on the Pacific scale, but now it is 6 cm lower. However, fall of 6 cms cannot be

considered immensely dried up.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/North_Aral_Sea

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/South_Aral_Sea

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Aralkum_Desert

99. " Rule of law index" is released by which of the following?

(a) Amnesty International

(b) International Court of Justice

(c) The office of UN Commissioner for human rights

(d) World Justice Project

Sol.99 (d) World Justice Project

The WJP Rule of Law Index 2017-2018 measures rule of law adherence in 113 countries and

jurisdictions worldwide based on more than 110,000 household and 3,000 expert surveys.

Featuring primary data, the WJP Rule of Law Index measures countries rule of law

performance across eight factors: Constraints on Government Powers, Absence of

Corruption, Open Government, Fundamental Rights, Order and Security, Regulatory

Enforcement, Civil Justice, and Criminal Justice.

100. Which one of the following links all the ATMs in India?

(a) Indian Banks' Association

(b) National Securities Depository Limited

(c) National Payments Corporation of India

(d) Reserve Bank of India

Sol. 100 (c) National Payments Corporation of India

https://prepmate.in/books/

Number of Questions asked in Prelims 2018 · 2017 Prelims (last year) cut-off as declared by UPSC Expected cut-off this year ... UPSC 2018 PAPER SET-C Sr. No. Question Answer Key

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