1 Raju Poulose Kuwait Airways Module 11 Module 11A TURBINE AEROPLANE AERODYNAMICS, STRUCTURES AND SYSTEMS
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Raju Poulose Kuwait Airways Module 11
Module 11A
TURBINE AEROPLANE AERODYNAMICS,
STRUCTURES AND SYSTEMS
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Theory of Flight - Aeroplane Aerodynamics and Flight Controls
1. Slats are used to
change the wing camber
decrease the stalling angle
ensure the boundary layer does not separate from the wing surface too soon
2. As a subsonic aircraft speeds-up, its Centre of Pressure
moves forward
is unaffected
moves aft
3. Wing spoilers, when used asymmetrically, are associated with
ailerons
elevators
rudder
4. Which tab's movement is directly from the control column?
Balance tab
Servo tab
Anti-balance tab
5. Deploying a secondary flight control surface will
not affect the angle of attack
decrease the angle of attack of the aerofoil
increase the angle of attack of the aerofoil
6. If an aircraft is yawing to the left, where would you position the trim tab on the rudder to correct?
To the right
To the centre
To the left
7. A plain flap
when retracted forms the lower surface of the wing
when extended provides a slot between the wing and the flap
when extended rotates on a simple hinge as if to bend the trailing edge of the wing down
8. If an aircraft is flying with a left wing low, where would you move the left aileron trim tab to correct?
Assuming that the aircraft is to remain at constant altitude, it must reduce its angle of attack as it speeds-up. This alone will move the CofP rearwards, in accordance with the sub-sonic angle of attack change theory.
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Up
Moving the aileron trim tab will not correct the situation
Down
9. When a leading edge flap is fully extended, what is the slot in the wing for?
To allow the flap to retract into it when it retracts
To increase the lift
To re-energise the boundary layer
10. Sweepback on the wing will
cause stall to occur at lower angles of attack
reduce tendency to tip stall
increase tendency to tip stall
11. A wing has a span of 50 feet and an area of 200 square feet. Its mean chord would be
7.5 feet
10 feet
4 feet
12. With respect to differential aileron control, which of the following is true?
The up-going and down-going ailerons both deflect to the same angle
The up-going aileron moves through a smaller angle than the down-going aileron
The down-going aileron moves through a smaller angle than the up-going aileron
13. The aeroplane fin is of symmetrical aerofoil section and will therefore provide a side-load
only if a suitable angle of attack develops due to yaw
only when the rudder is moved
if a suitable angle of attack develops due either yaw or rudder movement
14. An aircraft left wing is flying low. The aileron trimmer control to the left aileron trim tab in the cockpit would be
moved-down causing the left aileron to move down
moved-up causing the left aileron to move up
moved-up causing the left aileron to move down
15. What is true regarding deployment of Slats / Krueger flaps?
Krueger flaps increase the critical angle of attack, Slats do not
Slats form a slot, Krueger flaps do not
Slats increase the critical angle of attack, Krueger flaps do not
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16. On a swept back wing, in which of the following locations would Krueger Flaps be fitted?
Outboard leading edge
Inboard leading edge
The trailing edge
17. An aeroplane performs a straight and level horizontal flight at the same angle of attack at two different altitudes: (all other factors of importance being constant, assume ISA conditions and no compressibility effects)
the TAS at the higher altitude is higher
the TAS at the higher altitude is lower
the TAS at both altitudes is the same
18. Extending the flaps while maintaining a constant angle of attack (all other factors constant)
the aircraft will climb
the aircraft will yaw
the aircraft will sink suddenly
19. What pitching moment will be generated when Fowler flaps are deployed on an aircraft with a high mounted (T-tail) tailplane?
An aircraft nose down pitching moment
The nose up pitching moment will be balanced by the nose down pitching moment
An aircraft nose up pitching moment
20. An increase in aspect ratio will
cause VMD to be increased
cause induced drag to increase
cause VMD to be reduced
21. Geometric washout means that
the tip of the wing has more angle of attack than the root
there is an airflow along the wing that keeps it clean
the tip of the wing has less angle of attack than the root
22. The purpose of a slot in a wing is to
speed up the airflow and increase lift
provide housing for the slat
act as venturi, accelerate the air and re-energise boundary layer
23. Large flap deployment
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has no effect on spanwise flow
causes increased spanwise flow towards tips on wing lower surface
causes increased spanwise flow towards tips on wing upper surface
24. How do vortex generators work?
Reduce the adverse pressure gradient
Take energy from free stream and introduce it into the boundary layer
Re-direct slantwise flow
25. Winglets
decrease the static lateral stability
create an elliptical lift distribution
decrease the induced drag
26. Which part of the wing of a swept-wing aircraft stalls first?
Both stall together
Root stalls first
Tip stalls first
27. A function of vortex generators in the transonic regime is to
reduce boundary layer separation drag when shockwaves form
prevent the rearward shift of CP on swept wing stalls
reduce wing root compression effects
28. During flight, an aircraft is yawing to the right. The aircraft would have a tendency to fly
right wing low
left wing low
nose up
29. During acceleration in level flight
the transition point on the wing moves forward
the lift coefficient reduces
the wing stagnation point moves aft
30. As altitude increases, the equivalent airspeed at which an aeroplane stalls in a particular configuration will
remain the same regardless of altitude
remain equal to the calibrated airspeed
decrease as the true airspeed decreases
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31. With a drop in ambient temperature, an aircraft service ceiling will
not be affected
lower
rise
32. When an aeroplane is flying at an airspeed which is 1.3 times its basic stalling speed, the coefficient of lift as a percentage of the maximum lift coefficient (CLmax) would be
59%
130%
77%
33. To maintain level flight, if the angle of attack is increased the speed must be
increased in the same ratio as the lift/drag ratio decreases
reduced
increased
34. Flap selection at constant IAS in straight and level flight will increase the
maximum lift coefficient (CLmax) and the drag
lift and the drag
lift coefficient and the drag
35. In straight and level flight, if airspeed ... the angle of attack ... and the incidence angle...
increases; decreases; decreases
increases; increases; decreases
decreases; increases; remains constant
36. What must happen to the CL when flaps are deployed while maintaining a constant IAS in straight and level flight?
Remain constant
Decrease
Increase
37. If VS is 100 kt in straight and level flight, during a 45 bank turn VS will be
119 kts
100 kts
140 kts
38. What is the effect on TAS if altitude is increased to 35,000 ft while flying at a constant Mach number?
Remain the same
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Increase then remain constant
Decrease
39. If IAS is doubled, by which of the following factors should the original CL be multiplied to maintain level flight?
4.0
0.5
0.25
40. When an aircraft is in a steady climb, how will the wing stalling angle be affected?
The stalling angle will remain the same, regardless of altitude
The stalling angle will increase with increasing altitude
The stalling angle will reduce with increasing altitude
41. The centre of pressure is in its most forward position
when the angle of attack is equal to the stalling angle of attack
when the angle of attack exceeds the stalling angle of attack
when the angle of attack is smaller than the stalling angle of attack
42. The angle of attack at which an aircraft stalls
increases with an increase in gross weight
remains constant regardless of gross weight
varies with gross weight and density altitude
43. The following factors increase stall speed:
A higher weight, selecting a higher flap setting, a forward c .g. shift
An increase in load factor, a forward c.g. shift, decrease in thrust
A lower weight, decreasing bank angle, a smaller flap setting
44. Stall speed in a turn is proportional to
weight
the square root of the load factor
lift
45. An aeroplane has a stalling speed of 100 kt in a steady level flight. When the aeroplane is flying a level turn with a load factor of 1.5, the stalling speed is
122 kt
141 kt
82 kt
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46. A wing stalling angle is
decreased in a turn
unaffected by a turn
increased in a turn
47. What effect does an increased load have on an aircraft?
The aircraft will suffer immediate structural failure
The aircraft will have a tendency to roll and yaw
The aircraft will stall at a higher speed
48. Which stall has the greatest angle of attack?
Deep stall
Low speed stall
High speed stall (shock stall)
49. A jet aeroplane cruises buffet free at high constant altitude in significant turbulence. Which type of stall can occur if this aeroplane decelerates?
Shock stall
Low speed stall
Accelerated stall
50. On a swept wing aeroplane at low airspeed, the pitch-up phenomenon
is caused by wingtip stall
never occurs, since a swept wing is a remedy to pitch up
is caused by extension of trailing edge lift augmentation devices
51. Which of the following statements about stall speed is correct?
Increasing the angle of sweep of the wing will decrease the stall speed
Use of a T-tail will decrease the stall speed
Decreasing the angle of sweep of the wing will decrease the stall speed
52. How are the wing stalling angle and the lift coefficient affected when altitude increases and EAS is held constant?
The lift coefficient remains constant and the wing stalling angle will reduce
The lift coefficient and the wing stalling angle both decrease
The lift coefficient and the wing stalling angle both remain constant
53. The stall speed
does not depend on weight
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increases with an increased weight
decreases with an increased weight
54. Increase of wing loading will
decrease the minimum gliding angle
increase the stall speed
decrease take off speeds
55. The most common stall sensing devices are normally located
on the upper surface of the wing
at or near the wing leading edge
on the lower surface of the wing
56. If angle of attack is increased beyond the critical angle of attack, the lift coefficient ... and the stagnation point moves...
decreases; rearward
increases; rearward
decreases; forward
57. In a turn, the wing stalling angle
remains unchanged
decreases
increases
58. As the angle of attack of a wing is increased, the centre of pressure will reach its most forward position on the wing
just before the wing stalls
when the aircraft is stalling
after stall recovery
59. Which kind of boundary layer has the strongest change in velocity close to the surface?
Turbulent boundary layer
No difference
Laminar boundary layer
60. One disadvantage of the swept back wing is it is stalling characteristics. At the stall
tip stall will occur first, which produces a nose-down moment
tip stall will occur first, which produces a pitch-up moment
wing root stall will occur first, which produces a rolling moment
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61. Which of the following aircraft designs would be most prone to super stall?
T-tail
Swept forward wing
Swept back wing
62. The stall speed in a 60° banked turn increases by the following factor
1
1.41
2.00
63. The speed range between high and low speed buffet
increases during descent at a constant IAS
decreases during a descent at a constant Mach number
increases during climb
64. The boundary layer of a wing is caused by
a layer on the wing in which the stream velocity is lower than the free stream velocity, due to friction
suction at the upper wing side
a turbulent stream pattern around the wing
65. The stalling speed in IAS will change according to the following factors?
May increase with altitude, especially high altitude, will increase during icing conditions and will increase when the c.g. moves forward
Will increase in a turn, higher temperature and will increase when the c.g. moves aft.
Will increase with increased load factor, more flaps and increased bank angle in a turn
66. The pitch-up effect of an aeroplane with swept wing in a stall is due to the
forward movement of the centre of gravity
wing root stalling first
wing tip stalling first
67. When an aircraft with a typical aerofoil is in level flight at low speed and high angle of attack, the normal axis is
horizontal from side to side
nearly vertical
vertica
68. An aeroplane has a stall speed of 78 KCAS at its gross weight of 6.850 lbs. What is the stall speed when the weight is 5.000 lbs?
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67 KCAS
91 KCAS
78 KCAS
69. What causes a swept wing aircraft to pitch-up at the stall?
Rearward movement of the CP
Spanwise flow
Separated airflow at the root
70. Load factors has the following meaning:
The ratio of a specified load to the weight of the aircraft, the former being expressed in terms of aerodynamic forces, inertia forces and ground reactions
The ratio of a specified load to the mass of the aircraft, the former being expressed in terms of aerodynamic forces, inertia forces and ground reactions
The ratio of a specified load to the mass or the aircraft the former being expressed in terms of aerodynamic and inertia forces
71. When all other factors of importance are constant, the stall speed increases when
spoilers are retracted
pulling out of a dive
weight decreases
72. Which of the following is the correct order of configuration to give an increasing critical angle of attack?
Trailing edge flaps extended, clean wing, slats extended
Slats extended, clean wing, trailing edge flaps extended
Clean wing, trailing edge flaps extended, slats extended
73. What is the percentage increase in stall speed in a 45o bank turn
19%
10%
45%
74. When an aircraft wing stalls
a wing which is not swept back will stall from the root and the CP will move forwards
a swept back wing will stall from the tip and the CP will move forward
a swept back wing will stall from the root and the CP will move aft
75. At the same weight, with the CG at its forward limit
VS is higher, the stalling angle is unchanged
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VS is lower, the stalling angle is unchanged
VS is higher, the stalling angle is greater
76. Two identical aeroplanes A and B are flying horizontal steady turns. Further data is: A: W=1500 kg Bank= 20° TAS= 130 kt, B: W= 1500 kg Bank= 20° TAS= 200 kt. Which of the following statements is correct?
The rate of turn A is larger than the rate of turn B
The turn radius A is larger than the turn radius B
The load factor A is larger than the load factor B
77. Which of the following situations leads to a decreasing stall speed (IAS)?
Increasing air density
Increasing load factor
Decreasing weight
78. The purpose of a fixed spoiler on the leading edge of a wing at the root is to
ensure that the root of the wing stalls before the tip does
prevent the wing from stalling at the root
reduce the landing distance required
79. In a level turn with 60° lateral bank, the load factor is 2.0 and the stall speed increases by
10 %
50 %
40 %
80. The critical angle of attack
increases if the CG is moved forward
changes with an increase in gross weight
remains unchanged regardless of gross weight
81. An aeroplane has been loaded in such a manner that the centre of gravity is located behind the aft centre of gravity limit. One undesirable flight characteristic a pilot might experience with this aeroplane would be
difficulty in recovering from a stalled condition
a longer takeoff run
stalling at higher-than-normal airspeed
82. Vso is defined as the
stalling speed or minimum takeoff safety speed
stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in a specified configuration
stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration
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83. The stalling speed in IAS will change according to the following factors:
Decrease in a forward c.g. location, higher altitude and due to the slip stream from a propeller on an engine located forward of the wing
Increase with increased load factor, icing conditions and an aft c.g. location
Increase during turn, increased mass and forward c.g. location
84. With the centre of gravity on the forward limit, the stalling speed would be
lower than with the centre of gravity on the aft limit
the same as with the centre of gravity on the aft limit
higher than with the centre of gravity on the aft limit
85. The following takes place at the transition point on a wing:
The airflow separates completely from the wing surface
The boundary layer makes the transition from laminar flow to the turbulent boundary layer
The total dynamic and static pressure comes to a standstill
86. A low wing loading (aircraft weight has been reduced)
decreases stalling speed and landing speed
increases take-off run, stalling speed and landing speed
increases stalling speed
87. Stalling speed in a 15° bank level turn is 60kt. The stalling speed in a 45° bank level turn will be
60 kts
70 kts
50 kts
88. How does stalling speed (IAS) vary with altitude?
It remains constant at lower altitudes but decreases at higher altitudes due to compressibility effects
It remains constant
It increases with increasing altitude, because the density decreases
89. Extending a leading edge slat will have what effect on the angle of attack of a wing?
Decrease the angle of attack
No effect on angle of attack
Increase the angle of attack
90. As the centre of gravity is changed, recovery from a stall becomes progressively
becomes progressively more difficult as the centre of gravity moves aft.
is unaffected by centre of gravity position
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becomes progressively more difficult as the centre of gravity moves forward
91. To ensure that a wing stalls at the root first, stall wedges are
installed at the wing trailing edge at the wing root
installed on the wing leading edge at the wing root
installed on the wing leading edge at the wing tip
92. Which of the following statements about boundary layers is correct?
The turbulent boundary layer gives a lower skin friction than the laminar boundary layer
The turbulent boundary layer is thinner than the laminar boundary layer
The turbulent boundary layer has more kinetic energy than the laminar boundary layer
93. The angle of attack at which a wing stalls will
remain the same regardless of centre of gravity position
increase if the centre of gravity is moved aft
increase if the centre of gravity is moved forward
94. Entering the stall the centre of pressure of a straight (1) wing and of a strongly swept back wing (2) will
(1) move aft, (2) move forward
(1) not move (2) move forward
(1) move aft, (2) not move
95. Compared with stalling airspeed (VS) in a given configuration, the airspeed at which stick shaker will be triggered is
greater than VS
VS
less than VS
96. A boundary layer fence on a swept wing will
increase the critical Mach Number
improve the low speed characteristics
improve the high speed characteristics
97. If the straight and level stall speed is 100 kt, what will be the stall speed in a 1.5g turn?
81 kts
122 kts
150 kts
98. How does stalling speed vary with load factor?
It increases proportionally with the square root of the load factor
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It decreases inversely with the load factor
It decreases inversely with the square root of the load factor
99. When entering a stall, the CG of a straight wing will (i) and of a strongly swept wing will (ii)
(i) move aft, (ii) move aft
(i) not move, (ii) not move
(i) move aft, (ii) not move
100. After the transition point between the laminar and turbulent boundary layer
the mean speed increases and the friction drag decreases
the boundary layer gets thicker and the speed decreases
the mean speed and friction drag increases
101. The wing of an aeroplane will never stall at low subsonic speeds as long as
there is a nose-down attitude
the IAS exceeds the power-on stall speed
the angle of attack is smaller than the value at which the stall occurs
102. The load factor is
the ratio of thrust to weight
the ratio of lift to weight
the ratio of lift to drag
103. Which type of stall has the largest associated angle of attack?
Deep stall
Shock stall
Low speed stall
104. Which statement is correct about the laminar and turbulent boundary layer?
Friction drag is lower in the laminar layer
Friction drag is lower in the turbulent layer
Separation point will occur earlier in the turbulent layer
105. A slotted flap will increase the CLmax by
increasing only the camber of the aerofoil
increasing the critical angle of attack
increasing the camber of the aerofoil and improving the boundary layer
106. When a trailing edge flap is lowered fully
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the C of P moves to the rear and lift/drag ratio is unaffected
the C of P moves to the rear and lift/drag ratio is decreased
the C of P moves to the rear and lift/drag ratio is increased
107. Which statement is correct?
Extension of flaps will increase (CL/CD)max, causing the minimum rate of descent to decrease
Extension of flaps causes a reduction of the stall speed, the maximum glide distance also reduces
Spoiler extension decreases the stall speed and the minimum rate of descent, but increases the minimum descent angle
108. When the angle of attack of an aircraft is progressively increased, the wing centre of pressure will reach its most forward position
when the aircraft has stalled
at the optimum angle of attack of the wing
at the maximum lift coefficient (Clmax)
109. What is the most effective flap system?
Split flap
Single slotted flap
Fowler flap
110. An aeroplane with swept back wings is equipped with slats and/or leading edge (L.E.) flaps. One possible efficient way to arrange the leading edge devices on the wings is
Wing roots: L.E. flaps Wing tips: no devices
Wing roots: L.E. flaps Wing tips: slats
Wing roots: slats Wing tips: L.E. flaps
111. Which of the following statements about the difference between Krueger flaps and slats is correct?
Deploying a slat will form a slot deploying a Krueger flap does not
Deploying a Krueger flap will increase critical angle of attack, deploying a slat does not
Deploying a slat will increase critical angle of attack, deploying a Krueger flap does not
112. Vortex generators
change the turbulent boundary layer into a laminar boundary layer
reduce the span wise flow on swept wing
transfer energy from the free airflow into the boundary layer
113. When vortex generators are fitted they will normally be found
towards the wing trailing edge
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towards the wing root to act as a stall inducer
near the wing leading edge in front of control surfaces
114. During the extension of the flaps at a constant angle of attack the aeroplane starts to: (all other factors of importance being constant)
bank
sink suddenly.
climb
115. Deploying a Fowler flap, the flap will
turn down, then move aft
move aft, then turn down
just move aft
116. An aeroplane has the following flap settings: 0°, 15°, 30° and 45°. Slats can be selected too. Which of the above selections will produce the greatest negative influence on the CL/CD ratio?
Flaps from 0° to 15°
Flaps from 30° to 45°
Flaps from 15° to 30°
177. The effect of Winglets is
reduction in induced drag
elliptical pressure distribution increases
decrease in stall speed
118. When flaps are extended in a straight and level flight at constant IAS, the lift coefficient will eventually
increase
decrease
remain the same
119. When spoilers are used as speed brakes
they do not affect wheel braking action during landing
at same angle of attack, CD is increased and CL is decreased
at same angle of attack, CL remains unaffected
120. When a trailing edge flap is lowered during flight from take-off position to fully down position, one will experience
a large increase in lift and a small increase in drag
a small increase in lift and a large increase in drag
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a large increase in lift and a large increase in drag
121. What is the purpose of an auto-slat system?
Extend automatically when a certain value of angle of attack is exceeded
Provide automatically slat IN selection after take-off
Ensures that the slats are always extended when the ground/flight system is in the ground position
122. Which of the following series of configurations has an increasing critical angle of attack?
flaps only extended, clean wing, slats only extended
slats only extended, flaps only extended, clean wing
clean wing, flaps only extended, slats only extended
123. Where on the surface of a typical aerofoil will flow separation normally start at high angles of attack?
upper side leading edge
lower side leading edge
upper side trailing edge
124. If the flaps are lowered but the airspeed is kept constant, to maintain level flight
the nose must be pitched down
the altitude must be held constant
the nose must be pitched up
125. The effects of leading edge slats
increase camber, increase suction peak on main wing, increase effective angle of attack and move CLmax to higher angle of attack
increase boundary layer energy, increase suction peak on main wing section, move CLmax to a higher angle of attack
increase boundary layer energy, move suction peak on to slat and increase CLmax angle of attack
126. Flaps are used in order to
increase max lift coefficient by increasing max angle of attack
increase max L/D
decrease stalling speed and reduce max angle of attack thereby achieving a more nose down attitude near and at stalling speed
127. Deflection of leading edge flaps will
increase critical angle of attack
decrease CLmax
decrease drag
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128. During flap down selection in a continuous straight and level flight at constant IAS and weight
the lift coefficient and the drag coefficient increase
the stall speed increases
the centre of pressure moves aft
129. CLmax may be increased by the use of
both flaps and slats
flaps
slats
130. Compared with the flap up configuration the maximum angle of attack for the flaps down configuration is
unchanged
larger
smaller
131. Compared with the flap down configuration the maximum angle of attack for the flaps up configuration is
smaller
larger
unchanged
132. How is the pitching moment affected if flaps are deployed in straight and level flight?
Depends on wing position
Pitch up
Pitch down
133. What is the effect of lowering leading edge and trailing edge flaps in flight?
Cl decreases, Cd increases and the stalling angle of attack reduces
Cl increases, Cd increases and the stalling angle of attack increases
Cl increases, Cd remains the same and the stalling angle of attack increases.
134. Lowering the inboard flaps causes the wing Centre of Pressure
to move outboard towards the wing tips
to move forward
to move inboard towards the wing root
135. Slats
re-energise the boundary layer thereby increasing the stalling angle of attack
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re-energise the boundary layer thereby decreasing the stalling angle of attack
de-energise the boundary layer, thereby decreasing the stalling angle of attack
136. When deploying the flaps the effective angle of attack
remains the same
increases
decreases
137. Vortex generators mounted on the upper wing surface will
increase the interference drag of the trailing edge flaps
decrease the shock wave induced separation
decrease the stalling speed by increase of the tangential velocity of the swept wing
138. Vortex generators mounted on the upper wing surface will
decrease the stalling speed by increase of the tangential velocity of the swept wing
increase the shock wave induced separation
decrease the interference drag of the trailing edge flaps
139. It is possible to reduce the span wise airflow over swept wings, due to adverse pressure gradients, by
wing fences
trailing edge vortex generators
increased anhedral
140. After take-off the slats (when installed) are always retracted later than the flaps. Why?
Because SLATS EXTENDED provides a better view from the cockpit than FLAPS EXTENDED
Because SLATS EXTENDED gives a large decrease in stall speed with relatively less drag
Because FLAPS EXTENDED gives a large decrease in stall speed with relatively less drag
141. In order to maintain straight and level flight at a constant airspeed, whilst the flaps are being retracted, the angle of attack will
remain constant
decrease
increase
142. If flaps are deployed at constant IAS in straight and level flight, the magnitude of tip vortices will eventually: (flap span less than wing span)
increase
remain the same
decrease
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143. The trailing edge flaps, when extended
worsen the best angle of glide
significantly increase the angle of attack for maximum lift
improve the best angle of glide
144. One of the main purposes of using flaps during approach and landing is to
increase the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed
shift the centre of gravity aft
decrease the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed
145. The use of a slot in the leading edge of the wing enables the aeroplane to fly at a slower speed because
the laminar part of the boundary layer gets thicker
it delays the stall to a higher angle of attack
it changes the camber of the wing
146. What is the effect of deploying leading edge flaps?
Decrease the critical angle of attack
Not affect the critical angle of attack
Increase the critical angle of attack
147. The lift coefficient CL of a wing at a given angle of attack
is increased by the use of high lift devices
is constant and not affected by high lift devices
is dependent on the surface area of the wing
148. The optimum angle of attack for a typical aerofoil is about______________, and the actual angle of attack will be close to this optimum angle during________________________
4°, cruise
4°, a stall
16°, a stall
149. Upon extension of a spoiler on a wing
CD is increased and CL is decreased
CL is increased, while CD remains unaffected
only CL is decreased (CD remains unaffected)
150. If the weight of an aircraft is increased, the maximum lift-to-drag ratio will
increase
not be affected
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decrease
151. With reference to differential aileron control
drag decreases on the outer wing
drag increases on the outer wing
drag increases on the inner wing
152. Why are vortex generators often fitted on aircraft with straight wings?
To delay boundary layer separation
To reduce span wise airflow towards the wing root on the intrados
To reduce span wise airflow towards the wing tips on the extrados
153. The boundary layer of a body in a moving airstream is
a layer of air over the surface where the airspeed is changing from free stream velocity to zero velocity
a layer of air which is moving at free stream speed
a thin layer of air over the surface where the air is stationary
154. The transition point located on the wing is the point where
the boundary layer changes from laminar flow to turbulent flow
airflow starts separating from the wing
the airflow changes from subsonic to supersonic flow
155. The boundary layer is considered to be turbulent
between the transition and separation points
just in front of the transition point
just aft of the separation point
156. The advantage of a turbulent boundary layer over a laminar boundary layer is
thinner
less tendency to separate
decreases energy
157. A laminar boundary layer is_______________ and has______________drag than a turbulent layer.
thicker; more
thinner; less
thicker; less
158. When pulling out of a dive (e.g. looping) the angle of attack
remains the same
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increases
decreases
159. Dutch roll is movement in
yaw and roll
pitch and roll
yaw and pitch
160. If an aircraft is aerodynamically stable
aircraft returns to trimmed attitude
aircraft becomes too sensitive
C of P moves back
161. Ailerons control the aircraft in the
longitudinal plane
lateral plane
directional plane
162. An anti-balance tab is used
to relieve stick loads
to give more feel to the controls
for trimming the aircraft
163. Slats
keep the boundary layer from separating for longer
increase the overall surface area and lift effect of wing
act as an air brake
164. Due to the change of lift forces resulting from the extension of flaps in flight
nose should be raised, increasing AoA
nose should be lowered, reducing AoA
nose should remain in the same position, maintaining same AoA
165. Flight spoilers
can be deployed on the down going wing in a turn to increase lift on that wing
can be used to decrease lift to allow controlled descent without reduction of airspeed
can be used with differential ailerons to reduce adverse yaw in a turn
166. If the aircraft is flying nose heavy, which direction would you move the elevator trim tab?
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Up to move elevator down
Up to move elevator up
Down to move elevator up
167. Wing tip vortices are strongest when
flying slowly at high angles of attack
flying high speed straight and level flight
flying into a headwind
168. An example of a secondary flight control is a
flap
elevator
spoiler
169. A balance tab
assists the pilot to move the controls
effectively increases the area of the control surface
is used to trim the appropriate axis of the aircraft
170. Which wing increases drag when the ailerons are moved?
Both wings have an equal increase in drag
Both wings increase drag but the wing with the down-going aileron increases more
Both wings increase drag but the wing with the up-going aileron increases more
171. Which flap will increase wing area and camber?
Slot
Split
Fowler
172. An automatic slat will lift by itself when the angle of attack is
high
high or low
low
173. On aircraft fitted with spoilers for lateral control, roll to the right is caused by
left spoilers extending, right spoilers remaining retracted
left and right spoilers extending
right spoilers extending, left spoilers remaining retracted
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174. A split flap increases lift by increasing
the camber of the top surface
the surface area
the angle of attachment of the lower hinged portion
175. When the trailing edge flaps are lowered, the aircraft will
sink
pitch nose up
pitch nose down
176. Dutch roll is
a combined yawing and rolling motion
primarily a pitching instability
a type of slow roll
177. On an aircraft with an all-moving tailplane, pitch up is caused by
decreasing tailplane incidence
increasing tailplane incidence
up movement of the elevator trim tab
178. A leading edge slat is a device for
decreasing the stalling angle of the wing
increasing the stalling angle of the wing
decreasing wing drag
179. A Krueger flap is
a leading edge slat which extends forward
a leading edge flap which hinges forward
a flap which extends rearwards but does not lower
180. The layer of air over the surface of an aerofoil which is slower moving, in relation to the rest of the airflow, is known as
camber layer
boundary layer
none of the above are correct
181. When airflow velocity over an upper cambered surface of an aerofoil decreases, what takes place?
Pressure decreases, lift increases
Pressure increases, lift decreases
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Pressure increases, lift increases
182. What is a controlling factor of turbulence and skin friction?
Aspect ratio
Fineness ratio
Countersunk rivets used on skin exterior
183. Changes in aircraft weight
will only affect total drag if the lift is kept constant
will not affect total drag since it is dependant only upon speed
cause corresponding changes in total drag due to the associated lift change
184. When an aircraft stalls
lift decreases and drag increases
lift increases and drag decreases
lift and drag increase
185. The aircraft stalling speed will
only change if the MTWA were changed
be unaffected by aircraft weight changes since it is dependant upon the angle of attack
increase with an increase in weight
186. In a bank and turn
extra lift is required
extra lift is not required
extra lift is not required if thrust is increased
187. The angle of attack at which stall occurs
cannot be varied, it is always constant
depends on the weight of the aircraft
can be varied by using flaps and slats
188. The primary function of a flap is
to trim the aircraft longitudinally
to alter the position of the centre of gravity
to alter the lift of an aerofoil
189. The stalling speed of an aircraft
is increased when it is lighter
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does not change
is increased when it is heavier
190. A wing flap which has 'dropped' or partially extended on one wing in flight will lead to
a pitching moment which would be corrected by used of the elevators
a fixed banked attitude which would be corrected by use of the rudder
a steady rolling tendency which would be corrected by use of the ailerons
191. With an increase in the amount of flap deployment, the stalling angle of a wing
decreases
remains the same
increases
192. Downward displacement of an aileron
has no effect on its wing stalling angle, it only affects the stalling speed on that wing
decreases the angle at which its wing will stall
increases the angle at which its wing stalls
193. Due to the tailplane angle of attack change, the flap-induced downwash on the tailplane
will tend to cause an aircraft nose down pitch
may cause a nose-down or nose-up pitch depending upon the initial tailplane load
will tend to cause an aircraft nose-up pitch
194. Due to the change in lift coefficient accompanying extension of the flaps, to maintain the lift constant it would be necessary to
keep the pitch attitude constant
raise the nose
lower the nose
195. Which leading edge device improves the laminar flow over the wing?
Flap
Flap and slat
Slat
196. The tropopause exists at about
36,000 ft.
30,000 ft.
18,000 ft.
197. Induced drag curve characteristics of a slender delta wing are such that there is
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decrease in gradient with wing speed
an increase in gradient with wing speed
no change in gradient with wing speed
198. If an aircraft is yawing left, to correct, the trim tab on the rudder would need to be positioned
to the left, moving the rudder right
to the centre
to the right, moving the rudder left
199. Instability giving roll and yaw
is longitudinal stability
is lateral stability
is dutch roll
200. Vortex generators are fitted to
move transition point rearwards
advance the onset of flow separation
move transition point forwards
201. Leading edge flaps
increase stalling angle of the wing
decrease stalling angle of the wing
do not change the stalling angle
202. Krueger flaps are on
either the leading or training edge
the trailing edge
the leading edge
203. Sweepback will
decrease lateral stability
increase lateral stability
not affect lateral stability
204. A plain flap
is attached to the leading edge of the wing
forms part of lower trailing edge
does not increase the wing area on deployment
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205. A split flap, when deployed
is used only on high speed aircraft
increases drag with little lift coefficient increase, from intermediate to fully down
increases lift without a corresponding increase in drag
Theory of Flight - High Speed Flight
1. Air above approximately Mach 0.7 is
compressible
compressible only when above the speed of sound
incompressible
2. Supersonic air passing through a divergent duct causes the
pressure to increase, velocity to increase
pressure to increase, velocity to decrease
pressure to decrease, velocity to increase
3. An aircraft flying below the tropopause descends at a constant True Airspeed. Its Mach. No. will
not change
increase
decrease
4. Mach trim operation is enabled by
an autopilot trim motor
an electric Motor
a mach trim actuator
5. A shock wave is a very thin region in which there is a sudden decrease of
pressure
temperature
velocity
6. For a wing of low thickness-chord ratio the critical mach number will be
higher than wing of high thickness-chord ratio
the same as a wing of high thickness-chord ratio
lower than wing of high thickness-chord ratio
7. High speed buffet is caused by
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airflow being detached by shock wave and flow striking the tail
high speed airflow striking the leading edge
the shock wave striking the tail
8. A nose down change of trim (tuck-under) occurs due to shock induced
tip stall on a straight wing aircraft
tip stall on a delta wing aircraft
root stall on a delta wing aircraft
9. A symmetrical aerofoil is accelerating through Mach 1 with an angle of attack of 0°. A shock wave will form
on the upper surface only and move aft
on the upper and lower surface and will move aft until the point of maximum camber
on the upper and lower surface and will move aft
10. At speeds greater than mach 1, airflow in the boundary layer is
supersonic
subsonic
stationary
11. Total Drag at high Mach numbers is a combination of
profile drag, form drag, induced drag and wave drag
wave drag, interference drag, form drag, and induced drag
induced drag, wave drag, form drag, skin friction drag and interference drag
12. What is a high speed stall?
Separation of the airflow due to shockwave formation
A stall caused by increasing the load factor (g) during a manoeuvre
A stall due to exceeding the critical angle of attack at high speed during a manoeuvre
13. Before an aircraft reaches critical mach
the nose pitches down because the CP moves rear
the nose pitches up because the CP moves Forward
the aircraft buffets because the CP moves to the shock wave
14. On a standard day, at which altitude will the speed of sound be the greatest?
Sea level
10,000 ft
20,000 ft
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15. Which of the following will increase the Critical Mach Number of an aerofoil?
Increasing the aspect ratio of the wings
Using a thin airfoil and sweeping the wings back
Decreasing the fineness ratio of the wings
16. As an aircraft accelerates through the transonic region, the centre of pressure tends to
move forward
turn into a shock wave
move rearward
17. Supersonic air going through an incipient shock wave will decrease its speed and
increase temperature and decrease density
decrease temperature and increase density
increase temperature and increase density
18. On an aircraft travelling at speeds greater than Mach 1 the boundary layer is
stationary
thicker than if the aircraft were travelling slower than Mach 1
supersonic
19. At speeds above Mach 1, shockwaves will form above and below the wing
at the leading edge
at the trailing edge
at both the leading edge and the trailing edge
20. A high speed aircraft with MACH warning will
warn when Mach 1 has been exceeded
warn when coming to limits of upper envelope
warn when Mcrit is reached
21. Above the critical mach number, the drag coefficient
decreases
remains the same
increases
22. At high Mach Numbers above Mach 2.2, some aircraft metals
such as aluminium, become brittle
lose their strength due to the kinetic heating effect
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will shrink due to the extreme pressures involved
23. Mach trim operates
along the longitudinal axis
along the lateral axis
to reduce Dutch roll
24. To increase critical mach number
the wings are swept
elevons are fitted
tailerons are fitted
25. An aircraft experiences a large loss of lift and a big increase in drag in straight and level flight, what would be the most probable cause?
Severe head winds
Atmospheric conditions
Aircraft reached its critical mach number
26. A Mach Trimmer is a device which
switches out trim control to prevent damage in the transonic speed range
prevents the aircraft from exceeding its critical Mach No
automatically compensates for trim changes in the transonic region
27. Critical Mach No. may be increased by
using more powerful engines
sweeping back the wing
using a higher thickness/chord ratio wing
28. Airflow either side of a normal shock wave is
sonic upstream and downstream
subsonic upstream, sonic downstream
sonic upstream, subsonic downstream
29. Mach Number is defined as
IAS divided by the local speed of sound
TAS divided by local speed of sound
speed of sound at sea level divided by local speed of sound
30. The reason for sharp leading edged wings on high speed aircraft is to
enable the shockwave to be accurately positioned
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decrease wave drag
decrease boundary layer
31. Critical Mach Number is defined as
that number at which the airflow becomes supersonic
that free-stream Mach Number at which some part of the airflow over the aircraft becomes sonic
the minimum mach number at which the aircraft can go supersonic
32. The transonic region is a region of
all subsonic
mixed airflow
all supersonic
33. Immediately downstream of an oblique shockwave is always
subsonic
the same as upstream
supersonic
34. Wave drag
increases in the supersonic region
increases in the transonic region
increases at the low speed stall
35. For increased Mcrit
decrease sweepback
decrease thickness/chord ratio
decrease true airspeed
36. Symptoms of shock stall are
compressibility effects, buffet and loss of control
buffet, loss of control, and instability
decrease in speed, buffet and movement of the centre of pressure
37. Sweepback increases Mcrit by
decreasing the amount of airflow over the highest point on the aerofoil section
increasing the amount of airflow over the highest point on the aerofoil section
decreasing the amount of airflow over the lowest point on the aerofoil section
38. Mach number is
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the ratio of the aircraft's TAS to the speed of sound at sea level
the ratio of the aircraft's IAS to the speed of sound at the same atmospheric conditions
the ratio of the aircraft's TAS to the speed of sound at the same atmospheric conditions
39. The critical Mach number is
the Mach No. when the aircraft reaches the speed of sound
the Mach No. when a shock wave forms at the leading edge
the aircraft Mach. No. when the airflow reaches the speed of sound at some point on the aircraft
40. Above the Critical Mach No. the drag coefficient will
start to increase
remain the same
start to decrease
41. A wing of low thickness/chord ratio, the Critical Mach No. will be
lower than a wing of high thickness/chord ratio
higher than a wing of high thickness/chord ratio
the same as a wing of high thickness/chord ratio
42. An aeroplane flying above the Critical Mach No. will usually experience
an oscillation in pitch
a nose up pitch
a nose down pitch
43. Tuck-under can be counteracted by
trim tabs
mach trim
aileron reversal
44. What causes tuck‑under?
Aileron reversal
Flap‑back effect
Shock stall
45. When does a shock stall occur?
When the aircraft forward speed is above Mach One
At the critical Mach number of the aeroplane
When the aircraft reaches speed of sound in a dive
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46. With an increase in altitude under I.S.A. conditions, the temperature in the troposphere
decreases
remains constant
increases
47. Air either side of an oblique shockwave is generally
subsonic
sonic
supersonic
48. Downstream of a normal shock wave
pressure decreases temperature increases
pressure and temperature increase
pressure and temperature decrease
49. Speed of sound varies with
pressure
altitude
temperature
50. Immediately downstream of a normal shockwave, air is always
the same as upstream
supersonic
subsonic
51. Increased sweepback
raises Mcrit
decreases stability
improves tip stall characteristics
52. Aerodynamic heating
increases with skin friction
increases as a function of airspeed
decreases with altitude
53. To overcome ineffective control surface problems in the transonic region
Frise ailerons may be used
hydraulic powered elevators may be used
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an all moving tailplane may be used
54. An aircraft flying below the tropopause descends at a constant True Airspeed, its Mach. No. will
decrease
increase
remain the same
55. To counter the effect of a shift of centre of pressure as an aircraft flies through the transonic region, fuel is pumped
backwards
forwards
sideways
56. To make flying controls more effective at high speed
vortex generators are used
area rule is used
wing fences are used
57. An aircraft flying above the tropopause descends at a constant True Airspeed, its Mach. No. will
increase
remain the same
decrease
58. The velocity of sound with an increase in altitude will
decrease
remain constant
increase
59. Mach number equals the ratio of
altitude to airspeed
true airspeed to local sonic speed
sonic speed to indicated airspeed
60. Tuck-under is caused by
tip stall on a swept wing aircraft
root stall on a swept wing aircraft
tip stall on a straight wing aircraft
61. The purpose of sweepback on an aerofoil is to
decrease drag
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increase Mcrit
decrease Mcrit
62. As the airspeed over a cambered wing is increased, a shock wave will appear initially
near the point of maximum curvature
at the leading edge
at the trailing edge
63. In the transonic speed range
the position of the wing centre of pressure remains constant
the centre of pressure movement may become oscillatory
the centre of pressure initially moves forward, then back
Airframe Structures - General Concepts
1. ATA zone 500 is the
engine
right wing
left wing
2. ATA zone 330 is the
right horizontal stabiliser
vertical stabiliser
left horizontal stabiliser
3. A structure which, if it failed, would cause aircraft to crash is
primary
integral
essential
4. The method used on a work card to indicate the approximate location of a component is
stations
datum
zones
5. A loss of strength resulting from cyclic loading is known as
metal fatigue
age hardening
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fail safe
6. Zone 320 under the ATA system is
vertical stabiliser
central fuselage
horizontal stabiliser
7. When doing a bonding check the maximum resistance between component and earth is
0.005ohms
1/50 ohms
50 milliohms
8. The fuel drain of a combustion heater must be protected from
ice build-up
lightning strike
accidental damage
9. Engine mounts provide for
longitudinal movement
torsional movement
lateral movement
10. Dyna engine mounts
reduce vibration from engine to airframe
prevent all vibration from engine to airframe
are constructed from plastic
11. How is damage to the nose cone of an aircraft prevented during a lightning strike?
Earthing Strap
Bonding Strip
Special paint
12. Tension is the stress of
elongating or stretch
crush or compression
twisting
13. A Fuselage Station is a
lateral point on aircraft fuse
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longitudinal point on the aircraft fuselage
lateral point on aircraft wing
14. Composite materials are bonded by
special paint
copper wire
aluminium wire
15. ATA Zone 100 is
upper fuselage
lower fuselage
left-hand wing
16. The bonding lead to a remote aircraft component must be
0.25 in wide and 22 AWG
22 AWG
0.5 in wide
17. What force is an I-Beam subjected to?
Tension
Bending
Shear
18. A radome is protected from static electricity build-up by
special conductive grease
conductive paint
bonding strips
19. Precise points are located on an aircraft by a system of
frame stations, vertical lines and lateral lines
frame stations, water lines and buttock lines
longitudinal, vertical and lateral lines
20. Which of the following is an example of a fail safe structure?
Longeron
Stringer
Spar
21. Damage tolerant design
An I beam is subject to Bending, although different parts of it are subject to tension (upper boom) and shear (the web)
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is applied only to secondary structure
allows for certain damage to the structure to go un-repaired between scheduled maintenance
allows for damage to structure by distributing loads to other structure
22. In the ATA 100 zonal system the passenger entry door will have a designation of
400
800
600
23. Which area of the aircraft is subject to hoop stress?
Wings
Pressure cabin
Control surfaces
24. Shear stress is described as
compressing forces
pulling forces
slip away under the action of forces
25. The ground cable must be
single strand copper wire 0.5 in. cross sectional area
single strand 18 AWG
copper stranded 0.5 in. cross sectional area
26. Where on the aircraft is FS245, RWS45?
245 inches from the nose of the aircraft and 45 inches from the centreline of the right wing
245 inches from the datum line of the aircraft and 45 inches from the centreline of the right wing
245 inches from the nose of the aircraft and 45 inches from the tip of the right wing
27. How is the radome protected from lightning strike?
Special paint
Special grease on the hinges
Diverter strips
28. If you short the two prongs with the single prong of a bonding tester together, what would the gauge read?
Centre scale
Zero
Full scale deflection
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29. A condition after which a permanent deformation of a material is caused, is known as
strain
shear
bending
30. Semi-monocoque construction
is used only for the fuselage
utilizes the safe-life design concept
offers good damage resistance
31. Most radio aerials are
not bonded
bonded
insulated from the fuselage
32. Secondary bonding is usually provided with
18 AWG
single strand 0.25 inch
stranded copper 0.25 inch
33. Water Lines (WLs) are measured points on a
wing line
horizontal line
vertical line
34. The various parts of the aircraft airframe are maintained at the same potential by
earthing
bonding
static wicks
35. The cross sectional area of a secondary conductor must be not less than
22 SWG x 0.5
22 SWG x 0.25
18 SWG for a single wire
36. What governs the ultimate fatigue life of an aircraft?
Landings
Flying Hours
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Pressure Cycles
37. The main forces on an aircraft structure are
tension, compression, torsion and shear
tension, compression, twisting and shear
tension, compression, torsion and strain
38. The life of the structure is counted by
flying hours
landings
pressurization cycle
39. What are buttock lines?
Vertical measurement lines
Horizontal measurement lines
Measurements from the centre line
40. Aircraft fibreglass panels are protected against lightning strikes, partially by
conductive paint
non-conductive paint
bonding
41. A member taking a compression load is called a
beam
strut
cable
42. Stringers are used in which of the following types of aircraft fuselage construction?
Semi-monocoque
Truss type
Monocoque
43. Wing stations are measured
outboard from the wing root
inboard from the wing upper surface
outboard from the fuselage centreline
44. What load is a tie rod designed to accept?
Bending
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Tensile
Torsion
45. If a colour is used to identify primary structure, it will be
yellow
green
red
46. Which of the following is primary structure?
Stringer
Frame
Skin
47. Fuselage station numbers are measured from the front of the aircraft in
inches
feet
feet and inches
48. Which parts of the aircraft are classified secondary structures?
These parts of the airframe are highly stressed but if damaged will not cause failure of the aircraft
These parts of the airframe are highly stressed and if damaged may cause failure of the aircraft and loss of life
These are lightly stressed parts such as fairings, wheel shields and minor component brackets etc.
49. Structure with built‑in redundancy is called
failsafe
double safe
safe life
50. Stress
is the load per unit area acting on a material
is the deformation of a material caused by applied load
is the property of a material to resist fracture
51. A piece of structure which must be replaced at a specified number of cycles, flying hours or years, regardless of its physical condition is what type of item?
Fail-safe
Safe-life
Condition monitored
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52. If you are unable to identify a structure 'classification' as either Primary or Secondary, what action should you adopt?
Grade it as secondary
Upgrade it to primary
Paint it red and stamp it as 'tertiary'
53. Safe-life is
the sharing of loads between adjacent members
the maximum number of flying hours that should elapse before a major structural failure occurs
the minimum number of flying hours that should elapse before a major structural failure occurs
54. Bending stresses are a combination of
tension and compression stresses
torsional and compression stresses
tension and shear stresses
55. The Airworthiness Notice that refers to structural surveys is
Notice 65
Notice 89
Notice 79
56. Structural survey inspections are normally called up by the
maintenance engineer
manufacturer
operator
57. Where are wing stations measured from?
Butt Line (BL)
Zone Line (ZL)
Water Line (WL)
58. Where is Zone 323?
Between rear spar and trailing edge
Tip of vertical stabiliser
Between front and rear spar
59. To prevent a system being affected by high current flows after a lightning strike to a composite aircraft, electricity is discharged through
electrically connected primary conductors
Airbus A320 AMM 06-20-00-00 shows zone 323 as between the front and rear spar of the vertical stab. Zone 324 is the tip of the vertical stab.
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a sprayed coat of non-conductive paint
a sprayed coat of conductive paint
60. A structural member intended to resist compression is a
strut
tie
web
61. An aircraft structure, having multiple load paths, is known as a
fail-safe design
monocoque design
safe-life design
62. Wrinkling of the skin on the upper surface of the fuselage indicates
sagging
shedding
hogging
63. If a redundant structure fails it becomes
fatigued
safe-life
failsafe
64. A redundant structure is
on-condition structure
a safe-life structure
a failsafe structure
65. The measurement of the fuselage perpendicular to horizontal plane measured in inches from bottom of the fuselage is
water line
fuselage station
butt line
66. What are the four stresses to be considered when building an aircraft?
Compression, Torsion, Tension, Shear
Compression, Tension, Torsion, Stress
Compression, Torsion, Stress, Strain
67. A structure that has a high designed reserve strength would be classified as
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primary
secondary
tertiary
68. An example of primary stress is
shear
tension
bending
69. What is the water line?
The datum from which vertical locations refer
The zero datum from which all lateral locations are measured
A line below which redux bonding can not be used
70. Lateral stations have station zero at the
centreline
left wing-tip
nose
71. Airworthiness requirements for large aircraft are found in
ANO 25
CS 25
JAR 25
72. An Anthropomorphic Test Dummy (ATD) is strapped into a large aircraft forward facing seat. It is put through a series of crash tests. This is to
to measure the amount of force applied to the abdomen of the ATD to ensure it is not above 236 kg.
test the aircraft structure and seating mount points for structural integrity
to determine whether or not the ATD's head comes into contact with any structure or seat, and if so to measure the force applied to the head in line with a specific Head Injury Criterion (HIC)
73. Diffusion bonding and superplastic forming provides
high stiffness and high ductility
high strength and high ductility
high strength and high stiffness
Airframe Structures - General Concepts II
1. When applying a doubler plate, what else could you use for extra strength?
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Thicker material
A waffle plate
A tripler plate
2. Hi-lok fastener installation requires that
an interference fit hole is drilled
the shank is lubricated
the fastener is accurately torqued
3. Stringers
are attached to the frame
do not pass through bulkheads
run the full length on all aircraft
4. Contact between titanium and phosphate ester fluid should be avoided because
there is no effect
it makes the titanium soft
it makes the titanium brittle
5. The optimum atmospheric conditions for painting aircraft is
between 65oF and 75oF with less than 75% relative humidity
between 65oC and 75oC with more than 75% relative humidity
between 60oF and 77oF with less than 75% relative humidity
6. What kind of seal is used on firewall bulkheads?
None is required
Fire-proof grommets
Soft rubber
7. To remove a rivet you should
drill it all the way through
drill to the depth of the head
drill half way through
8. The two stages in a good adhesive bond are
wetting and Setting
wetting and gripping
spreading and setting
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9. Prior to aluminium alloy bonding, we use
acid etch
alkaline etch
solvent etch
10. The purpose of a primer is to
help bonding of the topcoat
provide shiny surface for the topcoat
provide flexible surface for the top coat
11. In semi-monocoque construction, compression loads are taken by
frames
bulkheads
stringers
12. Most large transport aircraft skins are
7075
2024
5056
13. Which of the following statements is correct, in relation to PLI washers used in critical bolted joints?
PLI washers can be affected by thread or nut friction or by lubrication
PLI washers can only be used with self locking nuts and the washers should be used once
PLI washers can be used more than once, providing they are used in critical bolted joints
14. What opposes buckling in a semi-monocoque structure?
Stringers
Bulkheads
Frames
15. In a monocoque structure, which component carries the majority of the loads?
Stringers
Skin
Longerons
16. Which anti-corrosive treatment is found on alloy steels?
Zinc plating
Nickel plating
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Cadmium plating
17. What material can be chromated as a protection against corrosion?
Alluminium alloys
Magnesium alloys
Ferros alloys
18. When carrying out a symmetry check on a large aircraft, what method of measurement is normally used?
Steel tape and spring balance
Longitudinal alignment method
Lateral alignment method
19. Paint remover substances
should only be used once
are not damaging to any aircraft parts
are damaging to some aircraft parts
20. Kevlar should be stored
horizontally
in moisture proof bags
vertically
21. To remove a rivet
chisel off the rivet head, and remove the shank with a metal punch
drill the head with a drill bit the same size as the rivet shank, chisel off the rivet head, and remove the shank with a metal punch
drill the head with a drill bit slightly smaller than the rivet shank, chisel off the rivet head, and remove the shank with a metal punch
22. Battery trays are
absorbent to soak up electrolyte
metal with PVC coating and anti corrosive paint
metal for earthing purposes
23. The primary purpose of sealant in use in pressurised aircraft is
to prevent corrosion
to provide external streamlining
to seal the cabin
24. When installing a 'Hi-lock' bolt, it is necessary to
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simply fit the bolt as they are prelubricated
lubricate the collar
lubricate the shank and threads
25. Sealant or levelling compound is installed during structure repair:
according to separate manufacturer's documentations such as BAC
according to SB instructions
according to AMM and SRM chapter 51
26. A bonded waffle doubler, as well as acting as a skin strengthener, also acts as a
jury strut
tear stopper
shear tie
27. What are the faying surfaces of a repair?
Edges of repair metal
Middle of repair
Material under repair
28. Dissimilar metal fusion bonding is best for
low strength high toughness
high strength high toughness
high strength high stiffness
29. The ideal conditions for paint spraying an aircraft are
20°C to 30°C and humidity below 70%
15°C to 25°C and humidity below 75%
15°C to 25°C and humidity above 60%
30. What are the types of true bonded joints?
Mechanical and specific
Mechanical and cemented
Cemented and specific
31. Why is a joggle joint used?
To add strength
To provide a flush fit
To provide a smooth contour to surface
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32. When both sides of a structural repair are not easily reached, which type of fastener would you use?
Hi lock bolt
Pop rivet
Blind rivet
33. With regard to extraneous spilt fluids
they may be harmful to the aircraft structure
they should only be cleaned up if they are on the external surface of the aircraft
they can be ignored, they provide extra protection
34. Skin panels may be strengthened by
struts
cleats
stringers
35. What is the normal form of construction of a spar?
One boom mounted under a web
Two webs separated by a boom
Two booms separated by a web
36. A crack stopper is fitted
before a crack starts, to slow its rate of propagation
before a crack starts, to prevent its initiation
after a crack starts, to slow its rate of propagation
37. Which of the following should be accomplished before jacking an aircraft?
Determine the fuel tanks are empty
Install critical stress panels or plates
Remove all optional equipment
38. Synthetic resins are made from nylon, vinyl and
asphalt
cellulose
acrylics
39. One of the advantages of the semi-monocoque construction is that it
is easier to manufacture
shares the loads
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takes all the loads in the skin
40. In a fully monocoque fuselage, all the loads are carried by the
skin
frames
longerons
41. Intercostals are
longitudinal fuselage members attached at each end to adjacent frames
vertical struts joining the upper and lower wings of a biplane
compression ribs in cantilever wings
42. Joints that are designed to stop the propagation of cracks are known as
secondary joints
failsafe joints
crack limiting joints
43. If an aircraft has alkaline batteries, the battery compartment drain pipes will be
aluminium alloy
plastic
stainless steel
44. An overweight landing is one in which the aircraft has
a misplaced centre of gravity on landing
an excessive fuel load on take-off
too much kinetic energy on landing
45. Symmetry checks should be carried out
in the hanger with the aircraft on jacks
in the hangar with the aircraft on its wheels
on the ramp with the aircraft on its wheels
46. The purpose of a wash primer and primer is to
provide more aerodynamic finish for top-coat
provide a flexible surface for top-coat
help bonding for top-coat
47. Dents are generally not permitted in a tubular member
if the major axis of the dent is parallel to the tube axis irrespective of the location
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if they are located in the middle third of the length of the member
if they are located in the end thirds of the length of the member
48. When an item is cocooned, the visual indicator will indicate
toxic gases
humidity
temperature
49. The maximum permissible bow in a steel tube is
1 in 400
1 in 200
1 in 600
50. Buckling in a semi-monocoque structure is prevented by
bulkheads
stringers
longerons
51. Which loads do longerons resist?
Bending, compression and tensile
Torsional only
Bending, compression, tensile and torsion
Airframe Structures - Aeroplanes – Fuselage
1. Blowout panels are fitted to floors of pressurised aircraft to
provide access for pressurising the cargo bays
provide access for pressurising the cabin
provide venting should a differential pressure build up across the floor
2. What are passenger windows normally made from?
Glass
Acrylic
Acrylic/glass laminate
3. A firewall bulkhead is usually made from
tungsten
titanium
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steel
4. Acrylic windows must be able to flex in-situ because they have
slight shrinkage due to age
smaller coefficient of expansion than surrounding structure
larger coefficient of expansion than surrounding structure
5. A cargo bay must have signs stating
maximum loadings
maximum dimensions
no hazardous cargo
6. Zone D Cargo compartment windows
are made from fire retardant Perspex
must be blanked off
must have blinds pulled down
7. A fire zone in which a crew member could enter to fight a fire is
class B
class E
class A
8. Windscreen delamination is
separation of the glass from the vinyl interlayer
bubbling of the glass due to overheat
windscreen peeling away from the airframe
9. What is the ideal storage temperature for windscreen panels?
50°C to 70°C
30°C to 50°C
50°F to 70°F
10. What is the maximum temperature of warm water which is used to clean dirty aircraft acrylic panels?
104°F
125°F
40°F
11. How are passenger door pressure loads transmitted to the fuselage structure?
By door stops
Acrylic has a thermal expansion approximately 8x that of aluminium alloy
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By the pressure seal
Through the latching mechanism
12. Passenger cabin windows are constructed with two panes and a seal between them. Under normal flight conditions which pane(s) take the differential pressure loads?
Inner
Both
Outer
13. How are passenger seats secured to the floor?
By the front legs while the back attachment provides anti rattle.
By both front and back legs
By the back legs while the front attachment provides anti rattle
14. A material commonly used for pressure bulkhead sealing is
soft rubber
aluminium
PTFE
15. When acrylic and sheet metal is joined together, allowance should be made for
galvanic corrosion of the metal
expansion of the acrylic due to heat
expansion of the metal due to heat
16. Which of the following is Perspex resistant to?
Acetone
MEK
Kerosene
17. In a pressurised aircraft cabin window, the differential pressure can be taken by
the scratch panel
the inner pane only
both main panes
18. The purpose of the vinyl interlayer in window construction is
to increase static strength
to improve on brittle behaviour
to enable inclusion of heater film
19. On passenger aircraft of two or more zones
Answer now changed in club,before it was outer and now Both. The inner panel has a small hole in it to let the pressure through to the outer panel
The back legs are secured as they have the upward load during a sudden stop.
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there should be at least one exit per zone
the seat backs fold forward at over wing emergency exits
the emergency exits are to be clearly signed
20. Class D cargo bay windows require
double acrylic panels
the blind down for flight
fire proof coatings
21. Cargo bay panels are normally constructed from
monolithic Nomex
Fibreglass and resin
Kevlar
22. The fatigue life of a pressure hull is based on
the total number of pressurizations
the number of explosive decompressions
the number of negative differential pressure applications
23. In pressurized aircraft, undercarriage bays
are unpressurised
may be pressurized or unpressurised
are pressurized
24. The main longitudinal members in a fuselage are called
spars
frames
longerons
25. A partition within the aircraft's structure is called a
bulkhead
cleat
frame
26. When inspecting stowage doors, special attention should be given to the
catches
light microswitches
trim
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27. Seat track cutouts provide for various seat spacings, usually in
half inch increments
one foot increments
one inch increments
28. Wall mounted flight attendant seats are fixed to
tracks
stanchions
rails
29. Windshields are heated to
maintain strength and toughness only
demist, ant-ice and maintain strength and toughness
prevent misting and icing only
30. The internal doors of an aircraft
only carry pressure loads when the aircraft is at cruise altitude
carry pressure loads
never carry pressure loads
31. A pressure door warning light illuminates only when the door is
not locked
locked
not fully opened
32. If an electrically operated cargo door lifting actuator fails, it may be operated
be electrical ground power
by alternate actuators
manually by winding
33. After installation of an acrylic window panel, protective paper and adhesive remaining on the panel may be removed by use of soap and water and
Cellulose thinners
Methylated spirits
MEK
34. If heat is applied to the vinyl interlayer of an aircraft windscreen, its ability to withstand impact will
increase
decrease
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not change
35. When fitting a transparent plastic panel (acrylic) to a metal frame, provision must be made for the relative movement of the panel and the frame for the reason of
the known slight shrinkage of the panel due to ageing
the lower coefficient of expansion of the transparent panel when compared with the frame
the higher coefficient of expansion of the transparent panel when compared with the frame
36. Perspex is resistant to
Paraffin
C.T.C.
Acetone
37. Moisture drain valves in a pressurised fuselage
are open all the time to ensure the bilge areas are well drained
are open when the cabin is depressurised
are open when the cabin is pressurised
38. Wide body transport aircraft have cabin floor vents
to equalise pressures above and below the floor after the loss of a cargo compartment door
to ensure adequate ventilation of the underfloor areas
to provide access to class A cargo compartments in the event of fire
39. On an inspection, you are aware of vinyl bubbling. What action is required?
Replace the defective window
Only replace the window if the 'bubbling' affects vision
No action is required with this defect
40. Passenger windows in jet transport aircraft normally have
two structural panes
one structural pane
three structural panes
41. A plug type window is fitted
from the outside
from the inside
from either side
42. Air is used to seal the cabin door in pressure cabins. The source of this air is usually
cabin pressurised air
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from storage bottles
ambient pressurised air
43. Drain valves are normally closed by
rubber strips
cabin air pressure
spring pressure
44. Drain holes in unpressurised areas are
always closed
always open
either open or closed
45. A cargo compartment in which there is a separate approved smoke or fire detector system to give warning and means to shut off the ventilating airflow to the compartment is a
Class 'E' compartment
Class 'B' compartment
Class 'C' compartment
46. Aircraft frames are constructed of
'U' section
'I' section
'Z' section
47. The life of a fuselage depends on
the pressurisation cycles excluding maximum differential
the pressurisation cycles not including ground cycles
all pressurisation cycles
48. Passenger cabin seat rails form part of the
longerons
stringers
frames
Airframe Structures - Aeroplanes – Wings
1. A false rib is usually used to
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support and give aerodynamic shape to the wing leading edge
lose a torsion box structure
allow the fitment of aileron control tubes through a wing
2. The main undercarriage is attached to the
rear main spar
front main spar
aircraft structure
3. An aspect ratio of 8 could mean
mean chord 64 ft., span 8 ft.
span squared 64 ft., chord 8 ft.
span 64 ft., mean chord 8 ft.
4. A spar web will take loads in
shear
bending
tension
5. One purpose of a rib is to
maintain the correct contour of an aerofoils covering
support the bending loads on a fuselage
form the main lateral member in an aerofoil
6. What is a cantilever wing?
One that has external supporting struts
One that has no external supporting struts
One that folds for access to limited space
7. A wing's leading edge would have provisions and linkages for slats and
leading edge flaps
slots
trailing edge flaps
8. A spar web is
an area between two spar caps
a rib/spar joint
a member between the spar and wing/fuselage connection
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9. A leading edge slat is attached to the
slat track
wing upper skin
front spar
10. A spar is tapered from root to tip because
shear forces are greatest at the root
bending moment is greatest at the root
centre of lift occurs close to the root
11. On a mono-spar wing, what gives the wing its profile contour?
Ribs
Milled stringers
The position of the spars
12. A cantilever wing is a
swept-back wing
usual airliner wing
top wing of a biplane
13. Aileron reversal is caused by a structure that has a low stiffness in
torsion
bending
shear
14. The final coat of sealing in a integral fuel tank is called
interfay
fillet
brush coat
15. The mid-spar is fitted in large aircraft to
provide redundant design
support fitting the engine mount & landing gear mount
assist the main spar with operational loads
16. Wing bending and shear loads are taken by
main spar
skin
B737 ANN 28-11-00 page 811, the 3 coats of sealant for repair fuel tanks leak are termed as fillet, injection and prepack. Fillet seal is the first coat
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spar cap
17. The principle load bearing members of the wing are
struts
ribs
spars
18. Wing skin on a large transport aircraft is made from
7118
2024
7075
Airframe Structures - Aeroplanes – Stabilisers
1. On an aircraft with a variable incidence trimming tailplane, the tailplane incidence changes
if the trim wheel is turned back or forward
if the control column is moved back or forward
automatically if the elevator moves
2. Variable incidence tailplanes
move rapidly when trimming the aircraft during the landing approach and slowly at all other times
move rapidly when trimming the aircraft during climb out and landing approach and slowly during cruise
always move slowly
3. To correct for nose heaviness on an aircraft fitted with a variable incidence tailplane, the incidence of the tailplane would be
increased, which is done by lowering the leading edge
decreased, which is done by lowering the trailing edge
decreased, which is done by lowering the leading edge
4. An upward elevator deflection on the reverse camber tailplane
will increase tailplane download
may increase or decrease download depending upon the aircraft C of G position
will decrease tailplane download
5. The direction of travel of an electrically operated variable incidence tailplane is determined by
direction of rotation of the electric motor
solenoid operated clutches
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a gearbox
6. The four main structural items making up a horizontal stabiliser are
spar, rib, stringers, skin panels
spar, rib, longerons, skin panels
spar, rib, bulkheads, skin panels
7. The web of an 'I' beam takes mainly which type of load?
Shear
Bending
Tension
8. The term 'empennage' incorporates
rudder, ailerons, spoilers
elevators, stabiliser, ailerons
elevators, stabiliser, rudder
Airframe Structures - Aeroplanes - Flight Control Surfaces
1. A 'frise' aileron is incorporated to
provide aerodynamic balancing so assisting the pilot to move the control
ensure aileron control is retained at high angles of attack
equalize aileron drag in a turn
2. Control surface flutter may be caused by
incorrect angular movement of trim tabs
high static friction in trim tab control tabs
excessive play in trim tab attachments
3. The outboard ailerons on some large aircraft
are isolated at high speeds
are isolated to improve sensitivity
are isolated at low speeds
4. The balance tab is an auxiliary surface fitted to a main control surface
operating automatically to assist the pilot in moving the controls
operated independently at which point in the length of cable the tensiometer is applied
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operating automatically to provide 'feel' to the controls
5. An elevator controls the aircraft motion in
pitch
roll
yaw
6. Aerodynamic balance
will cause CP to move towards the trailing edge and cause instability
will reduce aerodynamic loading
will cause CP to move forward of hinge and cause overbalance
7. The extension to the rudder (shaded portion shown on the diagram), is provided to
make the pilot aware of the aerodynamic forces encountered when moving the control
provide aerodynamic assistance for the pilot when moving the rudder
prevent control surface flutter
8. Aerodynamic balancing of flight controls is achieved by
providing a portion of the control surface ahead of the hinge point
placing a weight ahead of the hinge point
placing a weight in the leading edge of the control surface
9. A horn balance is
a projection of the outer edge of the control surface forward of the hinge line
a rod projecting forward from the control surface with a weight on the end
a rod projecting upward from the main control surface to which the control cables are attached
10. A control surface is mass balanced by
the attachment of weights acting forward of the hinge line
the attachment of weights acting on the hinge line
fitting a balance tab
11. An excess of aerodynamic balance would move the control surface centre of pressure
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rearwards, resulting in loss of assistance
forwards, resulting in an unstable overbalance
rearwards, resulting in too much assistance
12. Aerodynamic balance is used to
prevent flutter of the flying controls
reduce the control load to zero
make the flying controls easier to move
13. What is attached to the rear of the vertical stabilizer?
Elevator
Rudder
Aileron
14. A flying control mass balance weight
keeps the control surface C of G as close to the trailing edge as possible
tends to move the control surface C of G close to the hinge line
tends to move the control surface C of G forward of the hinge line
15. The method employed to mass balance control surfaces is to
attach weights forward of the hinge line
fit bias strips to the trailing edge of the surfaces
allow the leading edge of the surface to project into the airflow
16. A control surface is provided with aerodynamic balancing to
decrease the drag when the control is deflected
increase stability
assist the pilot in moving the control
17. Construction such as horn balance and inset hinge balance installed on control surface assembly
is meant to trim CG of control surfaces
serves as a 'servo' system of balance
has same effect of the balance tab
18. Flutter can be reduced by using
mass balancing
servo tabs
a horn balance
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19. The fin helps to give
directional stability about the longitudinal axis
directional stability about the normal axis
longitudinal stability about the normal axis
20. An elevator provides control about the
longitudinal axis
lateral axis
horizontal stabilizer
21. A flying control mass balance weight
tends to move the control surface C of G close to the hinge line
keeps the control surface C of G as close to the trailing edge as possible
ensures that the C of G always acts to aid the pilot thus relieving control column load
22. The purpose of anti-balance tabs is to
trim the aircraft
relieve stick loads
give more feel to the control column
23. Aerodynamic balance of a control surface may be achieved
by weights added to the control surface aft of the hinge line
by a horn at the extremity of the surface forward of the hinge line
by a trimming strip at the trailing edge of the surface
24. Which of the following are primary control surfaces?
Elevators, ailerons, rudder
Roll spoilers, elevators, tabs
Elevators, roll spoilers, tabs
Airframe Structures - Aeroplanes - Nacelles/Pylons
1. A pylon structural member supports the
empennage
engine
centre section
2. ATA chapter for Nacelles/Pylons is
54
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55
53
3. Wing mounted podded engines and integral fuel tanks
reduce tailplane download
provide increased safety if the undercarriage collapses on landing
provide wing bending relief
4. The mounting bolts are tightened so the engine can move
fore and aft
laterally, longitudinally, vertically
torsionally
5. Jet engines are usually mounted by
welded steel tubing
forged mounts and bolted to aircraft forged structure
aluminium castings
Air Conditioning and Cabin Pressurisation (ATA 21) - Air Supply
1. What is the minimum cabin air mass flow?
1 lbs per minute per person
0.5 lbs per minute per person
10 lbs per minute per person
2. Which of the following can be used on the ground?
Turbo fan
Turbo brake
Turbo compressor
3. The function of the mass airflow control valve is to
ensure system operating pressure is not exceeded
maintain a reasonable mass flow of air into the cabin irrespective of aircraft altitude
ensure that constant airflow out of the cabin is dictated by cabin altitude
4. Air supplied for pressurisation and conditioning is
hottest from a compressor driven by an engine gear box
the same for both the above sources
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hottest from an engine compressor bleed
5. In most pressurization systems, the amount of compressed air delivered to the cabin is
variable, depending on the amount selected by the cabin rate of change selector
reasonably constant irrespective of altitude
constant at any particular altitude but varies for different altitudes
6. In a Bleed Air air-conditioning system, the warm air supply is provided by
the compressor of the gas turbine engine
the engine exhaust heat
the gas turbine exhaust
7. How much air is required for the Flight Deck?
10 cubic feet/minute
Whatever the captain sets
10 lbs/minute
8. The function of an air mass flow control valve is to
control the airflow out of the cabin
ensure that system differential pressure is not exceeded
maintain a reasonably constant air mass flow into the cabin at all altitudes
9. The function of spill valves is to control
the rate of pressurisation
cabin pressure differential
air supply to the cabin
10. The purpose of a mass flow controller is to
ensure the cabin altitude remains constant during cruise at all altitudes
allow pilot to select the desired cabin altitude
ensure that a constant mass of air is delivered to cabin at all times
11. The purpose of a 'Spill' valve in a cabin air supply system is
to relieve the pressure in the air supply ducting to atmosphere
to spill overboard excess air delivered at S.L. and lower altitudes
to give a heating effect
12. The mass flow delivery from engine driven blowers is controlled by
engine speed variations
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automatic control devices
spill valves
13. A spill valve opens
to prevent an excessive pressure difference
to control the flow to the cabin
to control the air from the cabin to outside
14. A pack valve controls
air flow
air temperature
trim air
Air Conditioning and Cabin Pressurisation (ATA 21) - Air Conditioning
1. In large air conditioning systems, the main fan is activated to
ensure conditioned air is distributed
ensure conditioned air is distributed and maintain positive duct pressure
ensure positive duct pressure is maintained
2. If a reduction in pack outlet temp is demanded, the temperature of the air at the outlet of the ACM compressor will
rise
fall
remain the same
3. Cockpit ventilation is required to be
10 litres per crew member per minute
10 cu/ft per crew member per minute
selected by the crew
4. A large aircraft air conditioning system's cabin temperature control
is selectable for each zone individually from the flight station
involves modulating the pack valve
all zone temperatures are controlled from one master switch
5. An advantage of using air cycle system over the vapour cycle system in aircraft is
both air conditioning and pressurization are obtained
Pack outlet temperature is determined by bypassing engine bleed air around the ACM (trim air). The ACM is unaffected
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weight reduction by avoiding big tanks carrying freon gas
less hazardous than vapour cycle system
6. What is the maximum allowable concentration (by volume) of carbon monoxide in occupied aircraft compartment?
0.005% (50 p.p.m)
0.02 % (200 p.p.m)
0.01 % (100 p.p.m)
7. The first component that the charged air enters from the IP compressor is
the bleed valve
the check valve
the pre-cooler
8. The thermostatic valve sensing bulb is located just before
the evaporator
the compressor
the condenser
9. A refrigerant is used in which of the following?
Vapour cycle
Pneumatic pump
Air cycle machine
10. A water separator is located
upstream of the turbine
downstream of turbine
downstream of heat exchanger
11. The velocity of air from the cabin ventilation system should not exceed
120 feet per minute
40 feet per minute
20 feet per minute
12. In typical vapour cycle system, the sub-cooler
is a heat exchanger to superheat the vapour
cools the vapour further to prevent slugging
delivers extra cooling effect when the aircraft is on ground
13. In an air conditioning system, heat is added to air by
Best answer we can get to a bad question. Heat is added by varying the amount of compressor inlet air that bypasses the heat exchanger (Trim Air).
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restricting compressor inlet
restricting compressor outlet
restricting duct outlets
14. Air conditioning systems
increase the temperature of air
decrease the temperature of air
increase and decrease the temperature of air
15. An air cycle machine turbine
drives compressor to decrease temperature
drives compressor to pressurise aircraft
drives compressor to increase temperature
16. Air exiting the compressor side of an ACM
will have decreased pressure and temperature
no change in temperature or pressure as it is a centrifugal compressor
will have increased pressure and temperature
17. Where is the water trap located in a bootstrap compressor?
At the inlet of the compressor
At the inlet of the turbine
At the outlet of the compressor
18. Where is the silencer located in a 'blower' air conditioning system?
At the inlet to the cabin
At the outlet of the blower
At the inlet of the blower
19. When does a 'blower' air conditioning system produce the most air?
At low altitudes
It is not affected by altitude
At high altitudes
20. In an air conditioning system, before distribution, the air goes through the
flow control valve
TCV and mixer valve
TCV
The source of air is usually the engine bleed, which is always far too hot to feed directly into the cabin, so the air conditioning system always cools, even if the 'trim air' bypasses a little more hot air around the ACM/refrigeration unit, the end result is still cooler than the input.
The compressor is to INCREASE the temperature to increase the rate at which heat energy can be extracted.
CAIP AL/3-24 para 4.2.2 mentions pre-cooled air is compressed by action of compressor impeller and diffuser assembly. Hence increase in pressure. Pressure laws says Temperature is proportional to Pressure.
b737-400 amm ref 21-00-00 para 5b mentions TCV is located before distribution for pack temperature control for amount of hot air bypassing the Air Cycle Machine. b737-300 name the same valve as mixer valve
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21. In a cabin air recirculation system, recirculated air and fresh air are supplied in the proportions
50% of fresh air, 50% of recirculated air
60% of fresh air, 40% of recirculated air
40% of fresh air, 60% of recirculated air
22. An air-to-air heat exchanger is provided to
increase the air supply temperature
provide an emergency ram air supply
reduce the air supply temperature
23. Temperature control of cabin air is achieved by
varying the ambient airflow to the heat exchanger
controlling the water vapour in the supply
regulating the amount of air by-passing the cooling system
24. In pressurized aircraft, temperature conditioning is mainly achieved by
adding heat to the pressurising air
extracting heat from the pressurising air
varying cabin pressure
25. If pressurisation air supplies come from an engine compressor, an internal oil leak will
not affect the issue as it is automatically detected and vented overboard
not contaminate the air
contaminate the air
26. A cold air unit produces a drop in temperature by
driving the unit's compressor
reducing pressure
reducing pressure and driving the unit's compressor
27. Heating for pressure cabins is obtained from
driving the units compressor
air supply heated by the pressurising process
only by adding heat electrically to the air supplies
28. A cold air unit allows for cabin temperatures to be
lower than ambient air temperature despite compression heating
same as ambient temperature, despite compression heating
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a little more than ambient air temperature
29. A cold air unit produces a drop in temperature by
directing compressed air into a heat exchanger
air supply to the cabin
expanding hot air across a turbine which is driving a compressor
30. When a 'muff' or air ducting is built around the engine exhaust system and air is directed around inside the muffler, this is an
thermal heater
exhaust heater
combustion heater
31. In a turbo fan cold air system, the heat exchanger cooling air is
ram air from ambient conditions
air bled directly from engine or through blower
bled from cabin air supply duct
32. Conditioned air is
temperature and pressure adjusted
moisture removed
oxygen added
33. Which of the following sometimes inhibits an air conditioning pack?
Flap position switches
Undercarriage switches
Throttle switches
34. When carrying out a ground pressure test, you should use
a G.P.U. and A.P.U. combination
ground trolley and clean air
the aircraft engines because you can test the whole system
35. The ventilation air in the aircraft cabin must have a minimum humidity of
60 percent
30 percent
20 percent
36. In a Boot-Strap Air Conditioning supply system the source of compressed air is from
gas turbine compressor bleed air
The ground pressure test is typically known as confidence check of airplane ability to maintain cabin pressure in flight on single pack operation for boeing term. The test involve both left and right engine. Ref AMM 21-00-05 page 201
B737 has the config where the air-conditioning air supply is taken from the pneumatic system which draw air from the 5th or 9th compressor stage of the gas turbine engine. Ref AMM 21-00-00 page 8
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gas turbine intake ram air
ram air at the wing leading edge
37. The temperature within the cabin of the aircraft is normally maintained at
20ºC to 24ºC
18ºC to 24ºC
12ºC to 18ºC
38. In a 'bootstrap' cooling system the supply of air is first
passed across an expansion turbine, then compressed and passed through a heat exchanger
compressed then passed through a heat exchanger and across an expansion turbine
passes across an expansion turbine, then directly to the heat exchanger
39. The humidity within a passenger cabin should
not be less than 60%
be between 30% and 70%
not be greater than 40%
40. One of the principles of cooling employed in an air cycle system is
by surface heat exchange in the C.A.U.
by compression of ambient air across a turbine
conversion of heat energy to mechanical energy in the C.A.U.
41. Before filling a vapour cycle cooling system
pre-heat the system to 100°F
flush the system with a solvent
apply suction to remove air and moisture
42. The rate of flow of air from the punkha louvers should not be less than
25 ft/min.
300 ft/min.
200 ft/min.
43. An aircraft cabin is air conditioned and pressurized in order to
ensure that the pressure within the fuselage is always less than the ambient pressure, thus increasing the fatigue life of the fuselage
ensure that the air density within the cabin is maintained at a lower figure than outside the cabin in order to prevent moisture precipitation during rapid decompression
maintain human efficiency and comfort during flights at high altitudes
B737-400 AMM ref 21-61-00 page 11, the selectable range of temperature is between 18 and 29 deg C. For alternate operation when all selectors to OFF, the Left Pack operate at 24deg C and Right Pack at 18deg C.
CAIP AL/3-24 para 9.7(b) says, 'before charging a newly installed system, or recharging a system which has been partly disconnected, all air should be evacuated IAW MM.
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44. In the case of a vapour cycle cooling, system heat is removed from the charge air by
changing a liquid into a vapour
reducing the pressure of a vapour
changing a vapour into a liquid
45. Subsequent to passing through the primary heat exchanger, the supply air in a turbo-fan cold air system flows to the
inter cooler or secondary heat exchanger
fan
turbine
46. The heat exchanger in a turbo-fan system is cooled by
air bled from the main cabin supply duct
ambient ram air
engine bleed air or blower ai
47. The effective temperature of a cabin is given by
temperature and humidity
temperature only
temperature, humidity, thermal inertia and heat load
48. When the refrigerant dissipates heat in a vapour cycle system
the vapour converts to a liquid
the liquid converts to a vapour
the liquid sublimates
49. International markings for air conditioning pipelines are
triangles
rectangles
dots
50. A cabin humidifier is operated
on the ground
at high altitudes
at low altitudes
51. A turbo fan CAU used for air cycle cooling will
not affect the charge air pressure
decrease pressure and temperature of the charge air
'Fan' is sometimes used to describe the compressor. CAIP AL/3-24 figure 2
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increase the pressure but decrease the temperature
Air Conditioning and Cabin Pressurisation (ATA 21) - Pressurisation
1. Pressurisation system operation may be inhibited by
air/ground microswitches
throttle microswitches
flap microswitches
2. Cabin outflow valves provide
outflow of cabin pressure and pressure warning
outflow of cabin pressure and ventilation
cabin positive pressure and negative (suction) pressure
3. On the ramp, the pre-cooler obtains its cooling action by
fan inducement
gas expansion
ram air
4. The electrical spill-valve operates on signals from
the venturi metering duct
the latching solenoid
the pressure controller
5. During taxiing, the cabin pressure in a large aircraft is
below atmospheric pressure
above atmospheric pressure
at atmospheric pressure
6. Cabin pressure is normally controlled by the rate of
air discharge
climb or decent
air supply
7. As an aircraft descends from cruising altitude (34,000ft), the cabin altitude must
increase
stay the same
decrease
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8. The signal line between the controller and discharge valve is leaking. This will cause
the cabin pressure to decrease
it will not effect on cabin pressure
the cabin pressure to increase
9. The basic system of cabin pressurisation is to arrange a constant
outlet and vary the inlet
inlet and vary the outlet
inlet and outlet
10. The purpose of the differential capsule in a pressure controller is to control
the rate of pressurisation
cabin differential pressure
cabin air flow
11. With a pressurised aircraft at maximum differential pressure and a cabin pressure increase occurs, the differential capsule in the pressure controller will
let pressurisation to be switched off until leaks cause a drop in pressure
have a constant mass flow
let all pressurising air to be spilled overboard
12. A comfortable rate of cabin altitude climb for passengers is
500 ft. per min.
100 ft. per min.
300 ft. per min.
13. Before carrying out a ground pressure check,
turn on all instruments
check all pitot and static lines are fitted
set altimeter to QNH
14. On touch-down of aircraft
the outflow valve will be shut
the cabin pressure will be zero
the outflow valve will be fully open
15. When pressurising the aircraft on the ground for test purposes, internal doors, cupboards etc. must be
all open
removed
The discharge valve is opened by vacuum in the signal line. If line leaks , valve will close, and cabin pressure will increase.
B737 Pressurization system senses the air-ground sw and the toggle sw FLT-GRD in the cockpit control. Before touch down, at GRD position, controller commands signal to close the discharge valve to 200ft below landing field elevation. Upon touch down, controller drives discharge fully open. Purpose to prevent rapid pressure bump
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all closed
16. Prior to conducting a ground pressurisation test, it is necessary to
reset/disable the pressure controller
disconnect the emergency pressure relief valve
set QFE
17. In the flightdeck of an unpressurised aircraft, there is a gauge that shows
aircraft altitude
cabin differential pressure
cabin pressure altitude
18. Cabin differential pressure is the pressure difference between
sea level air pressure and indicated dynamic pressure in the cabin
8,000ft and standard barometric pressure
the pressure inside the aircraft and the ambient air pressure
19. If the pressure controller is set to 0 ft.
maximum differential is reached immediately after take-off
cabin will not pressurise
cabin remains at sea level until maximum differential
20. During a pressurisation check at maximum differential, if the engines are shut-down
cabin ROC indicator gives indication of cabin seal efficiency
aircraft remains pressurised until the dump valve opens
outflow valve opens immediately
21. Cabin pressure is maintained by
controlling the output of the compressor
controlling the supply of air to the cabin
controlling the amount of air discharged from the cabi
22. Control of rate of change of cabin pressure is
equally important in descent and ascent
most important in descent
most important in ascent
23. Cabin rate of climb is shown by
warning lights
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a special instrument
a double scale on the aircraft
24. During normal pressurized climb following take-off
the cabin R.O.C. is more than ambient R.O.C.
the cabin R.O.C. is less than ambient R.O.C.
the differential pressure is constant
25. Cabin differential pressure is the difference between
8,000 ft and sea level
cabin pressure and ambient pressure
I.S.A. conditions and aircraft altitude
26. Cabin altitude in pressurized flight is the
pressure altitude of the cabin as corrected to mean sea level I.S.A. conditions
altitude at which cabin altitude equals outside air pressure
altitude corresponding to cabin pressure irrespective of the altitude for the aircraft
27. When an aircraft has reached max. diff. and is at constant level (altitude) the system allows for
constant mass flow
all pressurising air to be spilled overboard
pressurisation to be switched off until leaks cause a drop in pressure
28. The control of ventilating and pressurising air released to atmosphere is achieved by a
pressure controller/dump valve combination
discharge valve/inwards relief valve combination
pressure controller/discharge valve combination
29. Rate of change of cabin pressure is most noticeably shown on a
cabin pressure gauge
cabin altimeter
cabin V.S.I
30. Pressurisation control ensures that
the cabin is always maintained at sea level
pressurisation does not start before aircraft is above 8,000 ft.
at operational altitude the cabin altitude is below 10,000 ft
31. 'Pitot' and 'Static' lines during a cabin pressure test should be
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cross connected
connected
disconnected
32. If the cabin pressure fails to reach its maximum cabin pressure differential the
discharge valve should be adjusted
outward relief valve is inoperative
pressure controller should be adjusted
33. When the aircraft has reached its maximum cabin pressure differential the
discharge valve opens
mass flow ceases through the cabin
discharge valve closes
34. Would you operate the flying controls during a cabin pressure ground test?
Yes
Occasionally
No
35. Which component must be isolated when carrying out a ground cabin pressure test?
Pressure relief valve
Pressure discharge valve
Pressure regulator controller
36. A cabin pressure air leak from the front of the fuselage is
not effective in any way
most desirable because it increases the air-flow
most undesirable because of the drag created
37. The principle of cabin pressurisation is
cabin altitude climbs eventually to that of the aircraft
whilst the aircraft climbs to altitude, the cabin climbs to a lower altitude
cabin altitude will always maintain a constant differential to that of aircraft altitude
38. When the cabin differential pressure has reached the required value and the height is maintained
the pressure system ceases to function until the cabin pressure is reduced
constant mass airflow is permitted through the cabin
all pressurized air is spilled to atmosphere
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39. Cabin pressure controller maintains a pre-set cabin altitude by
regulating the position of the outflow valve
regulating the position of the inward relief valve
regulating the mass flow into the cabin
40. If cabin height is set lower than airfield height when the aircraft is on the ground with squat switches overridden, then the outflow valve will normally
not operate
remain closed
open
41. The cabin altitude is
the difference between cabin pressure and atmospheric pressure
the equivalent height of the aircraft above sea level
the actual height of the aircraft above sea level
42. The cabin differential pressure is
the equivalent height of the aircraft above sea level
the difference between cabin pressure and atmospheric pressure
the actual height of the aircraft above sea level
43. The outflow of air from the cabin is regulated by
the outflow valves
the dump control valves
the vent valves
44. When air is pressurized, the oxygen content
increases
remains constant
decreases
45. If an altitude of 8000 feet is selected on the cabin pressure controller and provided maximum cabin pressure differential is not exceeded
sea level cabin conditions will be maintained to 8000 feet aircraft altitude
8000 feet cabin conditions will be maintained at aircraft altitudes above 8000 feet
8000 feet cabin conditions will be maintained at all aircraft altitudes from sea level
46. If cabin pressure is increasing, the cabin rate of change indicator will show
zero, provided the rate of change is within the normally accepted limits
Oxygen content increases as mass per unit volume, but NOT as a percentage of the other gases in air. Your interpretation of the question may differ.
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a rate of climb
a rate of descent
47. During a normal climb from aerodrome level with the pressurization system 'ON'
the pressurization system does not control pressure until 10,000 ft is reached
the cabin differential pressure is maintained constant
the atmospheric pressure decreases more quickly than the cabin pressure
48. Rate of change of cabin pressure is
selected by the pilot and controlled by the pressure controller
automatic
selected by the pilot and controlled by the spill valve
49. An aircraft has a maximum differential pressure of 8.5 PSI at cruising altitude. If the ambient pressure is 2.9 PSI, the pressure inside the cabin at cruising altitude would be
8.5 PSI
11.4 PSI
5.6 PSI
50. Cabin differential is determined only by
the height at which the aircraft is flying
the selected cabin height
the height at which the aircraft is flying and by the selected cabin height
51. If the pilot selected a cabin height of 8000 ft. whilst taxiing and activated the pressurization system, the cabin pressure would
decrease to a pressure equivalent to about 500 ft.
remain at ground level pressure
decrease to a pressure equivalent to 8000 ft.
52. A silencer is installed in a pressurization system to reduce
engine noise coming through the ventilators
the noise from the high speed of airflow within the system
the noise from the blowers and/or compressors in the system
53. To avoid discomfort, the rate of change of pressure should be low, particularly
when cabin pressure is decreasing
during descent
during ascent
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54. If an aircraft is operating at 40,000 ft. the pressurization ensures that
sea level pressure is maintained in the cabin
the cabin pressure is progressively increased until the operational height is reached
the cabin pressure is equivalent to an altitude of less than 10,000 ft.
55. The pressure controller activates
the spill valve
the blower or compressor
the cabin discharge valve
56. When cruising near the operational ceiling, the flight altitude set on the pressurization control panel may be 500 ft. more than the actual flight altitude so as to prevent
inward relief valve operation
pressure controller hunting
safety valve operation
57. The cabin rate of climb is shown
on a specific indicator
as being inside or outside limits by green and red lights, a gauge being used
by a differential scale on the aircraft rate of climb indicator
58. A water separator would be installed in a pressurization system to
collect any rain accompanying the ram air
extract surplus water from the charge air
extract water from the cabin air before it is discharged to atmosphere
59. Cabin pressure controller maintains a particular cabin altitude by control of
cabin mass air flow
inward relief valve position
outflow valve position
60. Ditching control is used for
closing all valves and inlets
rapid aircraft depressurisation
deploying life rafts
Air Conditioning and Cabin Pressurisation (ATA 21) - Safety and warning devices
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1. Inwards relief valves usually open at a negative differential pressure not exceeding
0.16 p.s.i.
1.2 p.s.i.
0.5 p.s.i.
2. Failure of the normal maximum differential pressure control is catered for by
inwards relief valve
cabin safety relief valves
spill valves
3. A negative differential pressure is prevented by
a blow off valve
an inward relief valve
a spill valve
4. On an aircraft employing a heater system on the air conditioning system, after an overheat, how is the heater reset?
After cooling below 300°C it auto resets
On ground only by engineer
After it cools the pilot resets
5. Ditching control is used to
maintain cabin pressure at sea level
close the outflow valves
achieve rapid depressurisation
6. A safety valve will normally relieve at
lower differential pressure than the discharge valve
higher differential pressure than the discharge valve
negative differential pressure
7. Inward vent valves will operate when
depressurising after descent
cabin altitude exceeds aircraft altitude
aircraft altitude exceeds cabin altitude
8. An inward relief valve will operate
after an aircraft has landed, to restore ground level conditions is the cabin
when cabin pressure is lower than ambient pressure
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when climbing with pressurization 'OFF'
9. Inward vent valves are fitted to
limit positive differentials
increase ventilation
limit negative differentials
10. An inward relief valve is installed in a pressurization system to ensure that the pressure hull of an aircraft is not subjected to
too high an internal pressure
forces which would cause the aircraft to explode
a high negative differential pressure
11. Failure of the normal maximum pressure differential control is allowed for by fitting
inwards relief valves
airport altitude selectors
safety relief valve
12. A cabin altitude is protected against reaching an altitude of 13,000 ft. by
altitude sensor
cabin over pressure relief valve
bellows in the outflow valve
13. To what position is the inward relief valve spring loaded?
Open
Both position
Closed
14. If the cabin altitude increases above the normal maximum
an inward relief valve opens
a warning light comes on in the cockpit
compressor delivery is automatically boosted
15. Inward relief valves are interconnected in pressurized aircraft
to achieve maximum pressure differential
to relieve cabin pressure and allow outside pressure to be greater
to allow controlled pressure during descent
16. The inward relief valve is usually set to operate at a cabin differential of
-0.5 PSI
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+0.5 PSI
+9.25 PSI
Instruments/Avionic Systems - Instrument Systems (ATA 31)
1. Which of these barometric instruments uses a restrictor to compute its output?
VSI
Machmeter
ASI
2. A standby ADI uses
a vertical gyro
an earth gyro
a space gyro
3. Indicator glasses are 'bloomed' to
reduce reflections
minimise parallex error
render dust unable to settle
4. Slat asymmetry may be monitored by using
position pick-offs
spring actuators
torque sensors
5. A standby compass has a pair of magnets for adjustment. They are initially placed
parallel with each other
90 degrees to each other
45 degrees to each other
6. Component P affects
coefficient B
coefficient A
coefficient C
7. A vacuum mercury gauge reads 5 in. This pressure is
above zero pressure
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below ambient pressure
above ambient pressure
8. A gyro spinning on a vertical axis will detect the aircraft's
yaw and pitch
yaw only
roll and pitch
9. An artificial horizon uses
a directional gyro
a vertical gyro
a rate gyro
10. Vibration levels are indicated to the flight crew in
relative amplitude
phons
db
11. The rigging of a non magnetic proximity sensor requires
checking the target clearance in the FAR position against reference figures
checking the target clearance in the NEAR position against reference figures
ensuring the target contacts the sensor
12. How do you detect and locate a leak in a pitot-static system?
Isolate the component and perform a systematic check, starting from the instrument
Pressurize the system and use the soap bubble detection method
Disconnect each line in turn and perform a pressure leak test
13. Following replacement of a separately mounted compass corrector box, a compass calibration swing will be required
without exception
only if initial variation is greater than 5 degrees
onlyif the correctors are not matched to the ones being removed
14. A +/. symbol on a compass system indicates
magnetic deviation and compass card are in alignment
compass card and directional gyro are being synchronised
failure of the compass system
15. During climb the pressure in the VSI capsule will be
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equal to the pressure in the case
greater than the pressure in the case
lower than the pressure in the case
16. Corrections to a mechanical ASI are for
square law and temperature
square law
square law error and temperature
17. Two fundamental properties of a gyro are
wander and rigidity
rigidity and precession
precession and wander
18. Vertical gyros are limited to 85 degrees movement in pitch to prevent
gyro topple
gimbal lock
pitch overshoot
19. A tacho generator pointer is moved by
a drag cup coupling
an AC servo motor
a torque synchro receiver
20. An altimeter in a pressurised aircraft at altitude has a case leak. The altimeter will
over read
not be affected
under read
21. Under what condition is indicated altitude the same as true altitude?
Never
At sea level in standard conditions (ISA)
When at 18,000 feet MSL with the altimeter set at 29.92
22. The earth's magnetic dip affects a standby compass
above its pivot only
equally above and below its pivot
below its pivot only
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23. An electrical gyro has usually a speed of
10,000 RPM
5,000 RPM
20,000 RPM
24. A flux valve is used to
align the directional gyro with the earth's magnetic field
align the standby compass with the earth's magnetic field
drive the HSI
25. The decision height light will illuminate when
the decision height is selected
the aircraft's indicated altitude is below decision height
the aircraft's indicated altitude is above decision height
26. In a Central Air Data Computer (CADC) system, Mach information is derived from
indicated air speed and total air temperature
indicated airspeed and altitude
pitot and static pressures
27. What instrument connects to pitot pressure?
Both the airspeed indicator and the vertical speed indicator
The vertical speed indicator
The airspeed indicator
28. In a Central Air Data Computer (ADC), the rate of climb of an aircraft is produced in the
Altitude Module
Mach Module
Indicated Airspeed Module
29. In a Central Air Data Computer, altitude is produced from
static air pressure
pitot air pressure
pitot air pressure and total air temperature
30. In a Central Air Data Computer (ADC), Indicated Air Speed (IAS) is produced from
pitot pressure only
static pressure only
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pitot and static air pressure
31. The Tx and Rx rotors of a control synchro are 90 degrees shifted. The output is
zero
high
low
32. In a Central Air Data Computer (CADC) system, True Air Speed (TAS) is derived from the Mach information and
Static Air Pressure
Pitot Air Pressure
Total Air Temperature
33. Track altitude in a radio altimeter system begins at
2 500 ft radio alt.
10 000 ft radio alt.
1 000 ft radio alt.
34. On the HSI, the heading is 'valid' when the HDG flag is
in view
green
out of view
35. When testing using a thermocouple test set
no power is required
a serviceable battery is required
a 28 VDC supply is required
36. What is the maximum radio altimeter track altitude?
10,000 ft
2,500 ft
500 ft
37. A positive coefficient A adjustment of a compass will give a heading
increase on East/West headings
increase on all headings
decrease on all headings
38. A tacho generator has
its own independent electric system
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28 V applied
115 V applied
39. What could cause fluctuations in instruments?
Water in static line
Static blocked
Pitot blocked
40. A Compass swing would be required after replacing a
compass Amplifier
H.S.I.
compass sensing unit
41. On a turn and slip indicator, the needle points to the right, and the ball is to the left. The aircraft is
over-banked, slipping into the turn
over-banked, slipping out of the turn
under-banked, skidding out of the turn
42. True airspeed computed from IAS takes into account
radar altitude
temperature only
temperature and altitude
43. For a given IAS, with an increase in altitude, TAS will
increase
decrease
remain the same
44. Where is the attitude director gyro stator situated?
Inside the rotor
Underneath the rotor
Around the rotor
45. What is the error in the lubber line called?
Coefficiant B
Coefficiant P
Index error
46. An ECAM system is tested under the following conditions:-
The Lubber line is the vertical white line painted on the front of the compass. If there is an error in that, there is an error in the compass mounting position.
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Aircraft on the ground with parking brake set/on
Aircraft in the air with both engines running
Aircraft on the ground with one engine running
47. Millibar is used to express what kind of pressure?
Pitot pressure
Ambient pressure
Barometric pressure
48. The maximum deviation on a standby magnetic compass must not be more than
5°
3°
1°
49. Compass base classification Class 2 is periodically re-surveyed every
1 year
5 years
2 years
50. The aircraft heading is 270°. The magnetic compass deviation is -1°. The pilot should fly
271°
270°
269°
51. Which instrument are most likely to damage if you have a rapid drop in pressure, when carrying out a pitot-static leak check?
Air speed indicator
Altimeter
vertical speed indicator
52. The operation of the Angle of Attack indicator is used to detect airflow direction relative to
the angle of attack of the aircraft
the pitch angle of the aircraft
the longitudinal axis of the aircraft
53. The runway heading is
QFU
QDM
QDR
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54. Apparent drift of a vertical gyro is a function of
sin of latitude
cos of latitude
tan of latitude
55. A machmeter works
always except on the ground
above 10,000 ft
always
56. Radio marker information is displayed on
ADI
EICAS
HSI
57. Angle of Attack alarm is sounding too close to stall. Rectification is to
move probe down
move probe laterally
move probe up
58. Where is alpha angle used?
Accelerometer
IRS
Angle of attack
59. Where is the spinup/rundown brake on a gyro instrument?
Inner gimbal
Rotating vane
Outer gimbal
60. On replacing a pre-indexed flux valve you would
fit the serviceable pre indexed flux valve into the same position as the unserviceable pre-indexed flux valve was removed from
carry out a check swing after fitment
align the aircraft onto its 'A' coefficient so that no error is induced
61. In Airways flying, what is the barometric scale of the altimeter set to?
1013.25
QFE
Move probe up, closer to the Leading Edge stagnation point, so it operates sooner
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QNH
62. Vibration monitoring signals are sent
via a signal conditioner to the gauge
via a half-wave rectifier to the gauge
direct to the gauge
63. The vacuum system gauge reads 5 inches of mercury. This is from
ambient and minus
zero and positive
zero and minu
64. A direct reading Bourdon gauge has a restriction in the inlet. This is to
prevent FOD ingestion
dampen sudden pressure changes
allow for calibration
65. The hot junction of thermocouple is
in the combustion chamber
aft of combustion chamber
in the instrument
66. When a rad. alt. reaches 2,500 ft. what happens to the display?
Rad. alt. goes out of view
Error warning in view
Rad. alt. flag in view
67. Pitot tubes are heated
by kinetic heating
by compressed bleed air
electrically
68. The suction gauge reads 5 inches of mercury. This is
above ambient pressure
below ambient pressure
above zero pressure
69. What are the primary colours for use in CRT displays?
Red, blue, yellow
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Yellow, cyan, magenta
Red, blue, green
70. Alpha vane signal could be fed to _________________ ________________ when close to stall.
thrust levers
flap position
fast/slow switch
71. When performing maintenance operations on an aircraft equipped with RVSM system, and a quick release disconnect connection is disturbed
a full test of the system should be carried out
the allowances for the system should be halved
a full test of the system should be carried out only if the aircraft manufacturer recommends to do so
72. For aircraft certificated after 1997 and with RVSM, the maximum tolerance for the system would be
+/- 500 feet for the system overall
+/- 300 feet plus +/- 50 feet for instrument errors
+/- 200 feet plus +/- 50 feet for instrument error
73. The HSI provides information on
VOR, plan, map, ILS, radar
VOR, ILS, plan, attitude
VOR, ILS, map, radar, attitude
74. The sensing element of the flux valve
remains in the same position attached to the aircraft structure
aligns itself to the new heading as the aircraft turns
aligns itself to the new heading of the aircraft after it has stabilised
75. In a compass swing: North error -2 degrees, South error - 2 degrees. The coefficient C is
+2 degrees
0 degrees
-2 degrees
76. When aligning an aircraft for a compass swing, the maximum allowable error is
1 degrees
3 degrees
5 degrees
77. The pitot head is fitted on the aircraft. The alignment of pitot head is carried out with
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spirit level
an inclinometer
micrometer
78. What kind of gyro is a rate gyro?
Displacement
Tied down
Space
79. A radio altimeter system can be self tested
on the ground only
both on the ground only and in the air
in the air only
80. The apparent wander for directional gyros is
dependant on longitude
maximum at the pole
compensated by applying a constant torque
81. The Directional Gyro is checked every 15 minutes for
drift
toppling
erection
82. Random drift of a gyro is caused by
gyro friction and unbalance
error in roll when aircraft is turning
aircraft turning with an error in roll
83. Standby Compass adjusting magnets (Flinders Bars) exert the most amount of influence
when 90 degrees apart
when parallel to each other
when 45 degrees apart
84. With engine static and engine blanks fitted, EPR gauge reads just above 1.
Transmitter is unserviceable
This is normal
Gauge requires re-calibration
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85. Coefficient A is adjusted
at 360 degrees
at 270 degrees
on any heading
86. With an aircraft which has more than one compass system
both are adjusted on each heading
master and slave adjusted, correction card for master only
master adjusted, slave adjusted, each having a corrected compass card
87. A DC electrical cable must be positioned how far away from a compass?
So as to give no more than 2 degrees deflection of compass
20 inches
24 inches
88. Which pitot probe provides information to the captains instruments?
Lower
Upper
Both
89. On the CWP, what does amber indicate?
Present status
Warning
Cautionary info
90. Which instrument shows Decision Height?
ECAM
ADI
HSI
91. Where does the HSI receive GND speed information from?
INS
EICAS
Pitot static probes
92. When power is switched off, the gimbal brake
stops outer gimbal
restricts outer gimbal
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restricts inner gimbal
93. On an EADI the command bars show the
required flight path compared with horizon
required flight path compared with aircraft position
required flight path compared to planned flight path
94. The airdata computer inputs to
mach meter, standby altimeter, ASI
altimeter, FMC, secondary radar
cabin rate sensors, mach-meters, ASI, altimeter
95. What deviation is indicated by 2 dots in a VOR system?
2.5°
6°
10°
96. How may the basic principle of the radio altimeter be described?
As a comparison of radio altitude against a barometric altitude referenced to ISA sea level (1013.25mb)
As a series of radio pulses to the ground their frequency depending on the expansion or contraction of an evacuated capsule and the deflection of an E and I bar transducer
As a measure of the time between a RF pulse transmission and the reception of its echo from the ground directly below the aircraft
97. In a compass system, what senses the horizontal component of the earths magnetic field and where is it normally fitted?
A precession device mounted on the yaw axis of the aircraft
Flux detectors fitted in the wing tips
Directional gyro mounted on the roll axis of the aircraft
98. An RMI has inputs from VOR and
a remote compass input
an azimuth gyro
no other sources
99. In a modern HSI, the displays are
course and direction
direction and attitude
course and attitude
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100. At what height does the rising runway appear?
300 ft.
200 ft.
500 ft
101. An H on the EHSI indicates
DME hold
VOR hold
ILS approach
102. Compared to air driven gyros, the electric gyro runs
slower
same speed
faster
103. A pneumatic indicator takes its indications from
compressor outlet
compressor inlet
reservoir
104. What is apparent drift due to?
Errors when aircraft banking
Earths rotation
Gyro pivot friction
105. An aircraft airspeed indicator has
pitot to the capsule
pitot to the capsule and static to the out side of the capsule
static to the capsule
106. Above 2500 ft. the rad. alt.
pointer is hidden behind a mask with off flag out of view
pointer goes to zero to show system is being monitored
continues to indicate but with a warning flag
107. How does a machmeter work?
True airspeed / indicated airspeed
True airspeed and speed of sound
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Indicated airspeed / temperature
108. When changing a pitot static instrument with quick release couplings
a leak check is always required
a leak check is not required
a leak check is only required if stated by manufacturer
109. The flux detector element
changes heading with the heading of the aircraft
changes it position after the aircraft heading is changed
gives heading with respect to magnetic north
110. If rate feedback in a flight director goes open circuit, position indication will
oscillate
be sluggish
go hard over
111. The needle of a resolver is connected to
two coils and an electromagnet
two coils only
two coils and a permanent magnet
112. If the compass fluid has bubbles at low altitude
this has no influence on compass readings
this is due to excessive high cabin altitude flying
this is due to insufficient de-aeration
113. A remote compass compensator unit is replaced. Which of the following is correct?
No swing is required if the new heading is within 5 degrees of the old
A compass swing must be performed
The swing can be performed at a later date
114. A compass has a residual deviation of +1 degree. To fly a heading of 180 degrees the pilot must steer
181 degrees
180 degrees
179 degrees
115. How is a leading edge flap position indicated in the cockpit?
Servomotor
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A measuring device
Torque synchro
116. In a Machmeter, what type of compensation is there?
Compensation is not required
Hair spring
Square-Law compensation
117. What effect on the rate of precession will a change of gyro rotor speed have?
No effect
Increase the rotor speed, decrease the rate of precession
Decrease the rotor speed, decrease the rate of precession
118. A gyroscopic body has its rigidity increased by
increasing the rotor speed
decreasing the mass of the rotor
decreasing the rotor speed
119. If a constant torque is applied to a gyroscope, the rate of precession
increases with a lower rotor speed
increases with a higher rotor speed
is unaffected by changes in rotor speed
120. Random drift of a gyro is caused by
unbalance and bearing friction in the gyro
aircraft turning with an error in roll
rotation of the earth
121. A pendulous vane type erection system fitted to a gyro horizon works on the principle of
increased reaction of the air from a bisected port
increased reaction of the air from a fully open port
decreased reaction of the air from a fully open port
122. During the normal straight and level flight, the gyro of an electrical artificial horizon is kept erect in pitch by a
mercury switch in the fore and aft axis controlling a torque motor fitted between the inner and outer gimbal rings
torque motor fitted between the outer gimbal ring and the case controlled by a mercury switch in the fore and aft axis
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torque motor fitted between the outer gimbal ring and the case controlled by a mercury switch in the athwartships axis
123. The normal erection supply to the mercury switches of the artificial horizon is disconnected
when the fast erection button is pressed
during turns
for the first 40 seconds after initially switching 'ON'
124. The pitch/bank erection system is used in an electrical gyro horizon to
give full erection control to the roll switch during a turn
give full erection control to the pitch switch during a turn
to prevent the pitch switch giving a false indication due to centrifugal effects during a turn
125. The fast erection push on an electrical gyro horizon must not be used for a set period after switching on because
overheating of the gyro rotor windings will occur
the normal erection switch contact will burn out
excessive hunting will take place
126. Apparent drift of a directional gyro is due to
bearing friction
unbalance of the gimbals
the effect of the earth's rotation
127. The erection system on a directional gyroscope has
a switch on the inner gimbal controlling a motor on the outer gimbal
a switch on the outer gimbal controlling a motor on the inner gimbal
a switch on the inner gimbal controlling a motor on the inner gimbal
128. In a rate gyro used to detect movements about a vertical axis, the amount the gimbal ring moves would be increased if the
spring tension was increased
rotor speed decreases
angle through which the gyro moves in azimuth increases
129. The Turn and Slip indicator employs
an azimuth gyro
a vertical gyro
a rate gyro
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130. In a Turn and Slip indicator, the effect of increasing the rotor speed would be
it would have no effect
it would under read
it would over read
131. How is the information on a directional gyro outer gimbal taken off?
By a flux take-off device
By a switch on the outer gimbal
By a switch on the inner gimbal
132. Why is a directional gyro inner gimbal restricted to +/- 85º?
To prevent outer gimbal rotating
To prevent gyro going into gimbal lock
To ensure outer gimbal erection system works correctly
133. The speed of the rotor in a Turn and Slip indicator is approximately
2,400 rpm
22,500 rpm
4,200 rpm
134. In a directional gyro, the inner/outer gimbal is corrected to
15 sine longitude
15 cosine latitude
15 sine latitude
135. The electrolyte switches used in gyro systems rely upon
change in inductance to operate
change in voltage applied to operate
change in resistance to operate
136. Precession of a gyro depends on
both moment of inertia AND angular velocity of the rotor
moment of inertia of the rotor only
angular velocity of the rotor only
137. Angular momentum of a gyro rotor depends on
angular velocity of the rotor
moment of inertia of the rotor
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moment of inertia and angular velocity of the rotor
138. Air driven gyros, compared to electric gyros, generally rotate
faster
the same speed
slower
139. Gyro rigidity is proportional to
mass, and radius of mass from spin axis
mass and speed
mass, speed and radius of mass from spin axis
140. Gyro precessional force is
inversely proportional to the applied force
proportional to the square of the applied force
directly proportional to applied force
141. The speed of a vacuum driven gyro horizon rotor is approximately
15,000 rpm
4,200 rpm
22,000 rpm
142. A V.S.I. is connected to
vacuum
static pressure
pitot pressure
143. With a V.S.I. pointer at position 1 on the upper half of the scale it indicates
100 ft/minute rate of climb
1,000 ft/minute rate of climb
1,000 ft/minute rate of descent
144. After disconnecting the supply to an electrically operated gyro instrument it is recommended that, to allow the gyro rotor to stop, before moving the instrument
three minutes should elapse
fifteen minutes should elapse
seven minutes should elapse
145. The Port and Starboard static vents on an aircraft are inter-connected to
cancel errors caused in the static system when the aircraft yaws
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reduce compressibility error
minimize errors caused by leaks in the system
146. Which of the following would cause a displacement gyro to topple?
Running gyro at high speed
Running gyro at low speed
Inverting the gyro
147. In level flight, a V.S.I. will indicate
horizontal to left
vertically up
vertically down
148. On descent, the pressure in a V.S.I. capsule
lags the case pressure
leads the case pressure
is the same as case pressure
149. A small constant leak in the case of V.S.I. fitted in a pressurized aircraft would, during level flight, cause the instrument to indicate
zero
a rate of descent
a rate of climb
150. When a force is applied to a horizontal gyro, the precession of the rotor will continue until
plane of rotation is in line with the precessional force
plane of rotation is in line with the plane of the applied force
as long as the force is applied
151. An artificial horizon has
the inner gimbal pivoted longitudinally
the inner gimbal pivoted laterally
the inner gimbal pivoted vertically
152. A pressure of one atmosphere is equal to
1 inch Hg
14.7 PSI
100 millibar
153. In the directional gyro
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the outer gimbal is pivoted longitudinally
the outer gimbal is pivoted vertically
the outer gimbal is pivoted laterally
154. The millibar is a unit of
atmospheric temperature
pressure altitude
barometric pressure
155. In the Turn and Slip indicator
the spin axis is longitudinal
the spin axis is vertical
the spin axis is lateral
156. In an altimeter, the
capsule is evacuated and sealed
capsule and case are connected via a calibrated choke
inside of the capsule is connected to static pressure
157. The units on the calibrated scale of a V.S.I. are expressed in
hundreds of feet per minute
miles per hour (mph)
knots (kts)
158. A standby air supply for gyro operation could be obtained from
a pitot head
a tapping from the induction manifold
a venturi
159. A rate two turn is
180 degrees per minute
360 degrees per minute
90 degrees per minute
160. The rate of turn information from a turn coordinator (compared to a Turn and Slip) is
less accurate
more accurate
more instantaneous
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161. Temperature correction in a sensitive altimeter mechanism is provided by a
U-spring acting on the capsule
bi-metal U-spring acting on the capsule
balance weight
162. The capsule in a vertical speed indicator will be expanded when the aircraft is
in level flight
climbing
descending
163. After replacing an instrument of the pitot-static group, it is necessary to
blow through the lines with a clean low pressure air supply
carry out a leak test on the appropriate system(s)
calibrate the instrument concerned
164. If the pitot and static pipe lines were cross connected at the instrument panel connection, application of pressure to the pitot head would cause the
altimeter reading to decrease, vertical speed indicator to indicate descent
altimeter reading to decrease, vertical speed indicator to indicate climb
altimeter reading to increase, vertical speed indicator to indicate descent
165. A constant force applied to the inner gimbal of a vertical gyro would cause
a pitch error and gyro topple
a continual precession in roll
a roll error and gyro topple
166. A rate of turn indicator dial marked '2 minutes' refers to a
rate 2 turn
rate 1 turn
rate 3 turn
167. A pitot or static leak check is carried out
whenever the pitot or static systems are disturbed
only when an instrument is changed
only when a leak is suspected
168. The temperature of boiling water at standard pressure on the Fahrenheit and Centigrade scale is
212 deg. and 100 deg. respectively
180 deg. and 100 deg. respectively
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100 deg. and 32 deg. respectively
169. A temperature of 59°F is equivalent to
32°C
15°C
14.69°C
170. Aircraft heading (HDG) is
the angle between True North and the longitudinal axis of the aircraft
the angle between True North and the actual track
the angle between True North and the desired track
171. Wind angle is the direction of the wind measured
in degrees from the aircraft's heading
in degrees from the desired track
in degrees from True North
172. Limit stops are fitted in an artificial horizon to
reduce gimbal nutation
prevent gimbal lock
limit the outer gimbal movemen
173. The electrical output from a remote gyro to an attitude director indicator is
by a control synchro
by a differential synchro
by a torque synchro
174. Agonic lines link places of
equal variation
different variation
zero variation
175. Position error is caused by
pitot head position
instrument location in the instrument panel
mechanical imperfections in an instrument
176. To convert degrees Centigrade to degrees Kelvin
add 273 degrees
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add 112 degrees
use the formula (deg C x 9/5) + 32
177. Damping on a RATE GYRO can be either
eddy current, variable spring or moving iron
viscous, eddy current or air dash pot
viscous, eddy current or variable spring
178. Electrical driven gyros are
rotated faster than air driven gyros
rotated at the same speed as air driven gyros
rotated slower than air driven gyros
179. In a ratiometer temperature indicating circuit, there is a break in the circuit to the bulb. This will give
full scale deflection
no scale deflection
mid scale deflection
180. With the gyro at normal running speed, a torque applied to the inner gimbal ring of a vertical gyro will cause the
inner ring to move
outer ring to move
outer and inner ring to move
181. When an aircraft is descending, the pressure in the altimeter case
will cause the aneroid capsule to contract
will cause the aneroid capsule to expand
will not affect the aneroid capsule
182. The supply of Desynn indicating system
is alternating current at 400 c/s
is alternating current at 50 c/s
is direct current
183. A sensitive altimeter reading 100 ft. when the millibar scale is set to the atmospheric pressure at airfield level (QFE)
indicates that the instrument is unserviceable
indicates that the aircraft is in a region of high pressure and the reading must be corrected to I.S.A. standards
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indicates that the airfield is 100 ft. above sea leve
184. After using a pitot-static test set the pressure in the aircraft static system should be released to the atmosphere by
venting the static system via an internal bleed in the test set
removing the static connector from its static vent
removing the static connector from its static vent after waiting for a period of three minutes
185. An altimeter is operated
by the vacuum system
by the static system
by the pitot system
186. What is the purpose of the bimetallic strip in the altimeter?
Corrects for capsule elasticity
Compensates for non-linear tension in the hairspring
Compensates for change in density
187. Which axis does the directional gyro spin on?
Vertical
Horizontal
Both vertical and horizontal
188. The capsule in an altimeter responds to
differential pressure
gauge pressure
absolute pressure
189. The aeroplane monitor on the artificial horizon is fitted to the
inner gimbal
rotor
instrument case
190. True airspeed in an Air Data Computer is a function of
airspeed and temperature
airspeed and altitude
mach number and temperature
191. The advantage of an instantaneous V.S.I. over a conventional one is
it does not require pitot/static pressure
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it has an accelerometer which prevents the lag of a conventional one
it does not require warming up
192. For a particular I.A.S. as the density decreases with altitude, the T.A.S.
remains the same
increases
decreases
193. The type of gyro used in a gyro compass is a
directional gyro
rate gyro
vertical gyro
194. A desiccant used in the storage of instruments
is sodium-bicarbonate
is silica-gel
is anti-freeze oil
195. What effect on the rate of precession will a change of gyro rotor speed have?
No effect
Increase the rotor speed, decrease the rate of precession
Decrease the rotor speed, decrease the rate of precession
196. Bourdon Tubes have
toroidal cross section
circular cross section
oval cross section
197. In a Bourdon tube
one end is sealed and the other end open to atmosphere
both ends sealed
one end is sealed and the other end open to the pressure source
198. Pressure gauge calibrators (Dead Weight Testers) use the
Boyle's Law
Brahm's press principle
Charle's Law
199. The fluid suitable for use in a Dead Weight Tester is
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anti-freeze oil
kerosene
castor-oil
200. The distance readout on an HSI is
dialled in by the pilot
from the aircraft ATC system
from the aircraft DME system
201. A gyroscope having one plane of freedom at right angles to the plane of rotation, and its gimbal restrained either electrically or by a spring, is known as
a rate gyro
a tied gyro
an earth gyro
202. Pressure may be expressed in
force per unit area
force per unit volume
weight or mass
203. What is the purpose of the hair spring in a Bourdon tube pressure gauge?
To reduce 'backlash'
To act a controlling force
To return the pointer to zero
204. The ADIs attitude information is normally obtained from the aircraft's
attitude rate gyros
directional gyros
vertical gyros
205. One dot VOR deviation represents
5°
1¼°
2 miles
206. An instrument used for measuring negative pressures
has the Bourdon tube reversed within the case
cannot be of the Bourdon tube type
has anti-clockwise pointer movement if Bourdon tube operated
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207. An absolute pressure gauge measures
the applied pressure referred to atmospheric pressure
pressures extremely accurately
the applied pressure referred to a perfect vacuum
208. Gauge pressure as indicated on a direct reading Bourdon Tube pressure gauge is equal to
absolute pressure plus atmospheric pressure
absolute pressure minus atmospheric pressure
atmospheric pressure minus absolute pressure
209. The to/from indicator on an HSI informs the pilot of which direction he is tracking relative to
an ILS station
a VOR station
an ADF station
210. A pressure gauge, such as a hydraulic brake pressure gauge, indicates 1,000 p.s.i. In terms of absolute pressure, this represents
1,014.7 p.s.i.
1,000 p.s.i.
985.3 p.s.i.
211. To fill a Dead Weight Tester
screw in hand wheel and fill reservoir
remove platform and fill cylinder
screw out hand wheel and fill reservoir
212. With an aircraft on the ground and QNH set on the millibar scale of the altimeter, the altimeter will read
the airfield height
off scale
zero
213. When checking a sensitive altimeter on a pre-flight inspection
the ambient air pressure is set on the millibar scale
the standard sea level barometric pressure is always set on the millibar scale
the ambient air pressure corrected for temperature is set on the millibar scale
214. The HSI compass card is positioned by the
compass system
heading select knob
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aircraft ADF system
215. The applied pressure to an A.S.I. varies with the
cube root of the speed
square root of the speed
square of the speed
216. The supply to an A.S.I.
is static pressure only
is pitot pressure only
are pitot and static pressure
217. The capsule for an A.S.I. will be expanding when the aircraft is
accelerating
climbing
decelerating
218. The deflection of the ADI command bars when flying a localiser approach is proportional to
the difference between the amplitudes on the two modulations
the difference in amplitude of the two r.f. carriers
the sum of the amplitude of the two modulations
219. If an aircraft is flying straight and level in still air, airspeed will be
equal to the ground speed
greater than the ground speed
less than the ground speed
220. If an aircraft flying in still air at 400 knots, encounters a head wind of 50 knots, its ground speed is
450 knots
350 knots
400 knots
221. To provide a linear scale on an A.S.I., a
ranging bar and screws are fitted
bi-metal corrector is employed
10 to 1 gearing is used
222. A machmeter is an instrument which indicates the speed of
sound relative to the aircraft's altitude
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the aircraft relative to the local sonic speed
the aircraft relative to the speed of sound at ground level
223. The moving element of a ratiometer has
one coil
three coils
two coils
224. When carrying out a pressure leak test on an altimeter, you are checking for leaks in the
instrument case
pressure chamber
capsule stack
225. If an altimeter millibar scale was set to 1013.25 and the barometric pressure at that time was 1020, the altimeter should read
positive altitude
below zero feet (negative altitude)
zero feet
226. An aircraft flying towards a VOR station shows indications of 120° and 'TO'. After passing over the station, on the same course, the indications will be
300° and TO
120° and FROM
300° and FROM
227. The command bars in a flight director system indicate
the required path with respect to actual path
true horizon
the actual path with respect to required path
228. When changing a windscreen panel which has a standby magnetic compass located in the vicinity
The attachment bolts should be tightened in an anti-clockwise direction around the window
precautions should be taken that the bonding tag is attached to the correct attachment bolt
precautions must be taken to ensure that the attachment bolts are of the specified type
229. On a conventional RMI the angle between the compass datum and the radio pointer arrow is
the magnetic bearing
the complimentary bearing
the relative bearing
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230. A compass is made aperiodic by
using fluid
tying it to the case
locking
231. Isogonal lines link places of
different variation
equal variation
zero variation
232. In an artificial horizon Pendulosity Error is caused by
displacement of erection control device
bottom lightness of inner gimbals
bottom heaviness of inner gimbals
233. If True Airspeed is 470 knots, what is the Equivalent Air speed?
662 knots
550 knots
278 knots
234. If the Airspeed Indicator reading is 300 Knots, what is the Calibrated Airspeed?
293 knots
296 knots
304 knots
235. In an Artificial Horizon, Erection Error is caused by
displacement of erection control device
bottom lightness of inner gimbals
bottom heaviness of inner gimbals
236. A Vertical Speed indicator Metering Unit Consist of
an orifice
both an orifice and a capillary
a capillary
237. Flux Valve senses angle of horizontal component with respect to the aircraft's
both lateral and longitudinal axis
lateral axis
True airspeed is always higher than EAS (or IAS) at any altitude above Sea Level
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longitudinal axis
238. The manual VOR input is for
the radio magnetic indicator
the course deviation bar
the ADI
239. After correction of the north-south heading reading on a compass swing, the resultant correction is known as
correct heading
residual deviation
magnetic heading
240. Apparent drift on directional gyro is corrected by
mercury switch on outer ring
series of balance holes drilled in gyro rotor
an adjustment nut on inner ring
241. If a micro adjuster is replaced in a compass system, you would
carry out a new compass swing
set it up the same as the one removed
set it to zero datum
242. In a compass swing: North error -2 degrees, South error + 2 degrees. The coefficient C is
-2 degrees
0 degrees
+2 degrees
243. Purpose of Altitude Alerting is to warn the pilot of
approach to or deviation from selected altitude
altitude information
selection of altitude
244. Aircraft certified before 1997 with RVSM, maximum tolerance for the system is
+/- 500ft system tolerance
+/- 200ft system, +/-50ft for instrument error
+/- 300ft system, +/-50ft for instrument error
245. Machmeters work on
static
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pitot and static
pitot
246. An aircraft with Mach warning will warn
when Mcrit is reached
when Mach 1 is exceeded
when envelope limit is reached
247. An HSI provides what information?
VOR, plan, ILS, map, radar
VOR, map, attitude, ILS
VOR, ILS, plan, attitude
248. Compressibility error in a pitot head is caused by
misalignment of pitot head
compression of air in the tube at high speed
blockage in the pitot tube
249. The earth's magnetic field is
horizontal across the earth
vertical at the poles, horizontal at the magnetic equator
vertical across the earth
250. The magnets in a compass corrector micro-adjuster are
adjusted for coefficient A
always set to the neutral position
adjusted to obtain the neutral position
251. There is an air bubble in the compass:
The fluid is not aerated properly
It is due to high altitude
It is required, to compensate for expansion of the fluid
252. A flux detector output is a
A.C. voltage at the same frequency as the excitation voltage
rectified D.C. voltage
A.C. voltage at twice the frequency of the excitation voltage
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Instruments/Avionic Systems - Avionic Systems
1. Primary Radar is
reflected signal from aircraft's own radar
for ground use only
interrogation of aircraft's transponder
2. The general function of the ATC is to
interrogate other aircraft which reply with an identification signal
interrogate the ground station which replies with an identification
reply with an identification signal after being interrogated by a ground station
3. ACARS is primarily used for communicating with
maintenance base
other aircraft
air traffic control
4. SELCAL is used to
alert ground stations
alert other aircraft
monitor ground signals
5. HF communication frequency is in the range
23 - 30 kHz
3-30 MHz
108 - 118 MHz
6. The polythene sleeving over a HF antenna is to stop
lightning strike
precipitation static
moisture ingress and corrosion
7. the term HIRF means
High Interference Radiated Fields
High Intensity Radiated Fields
High Intensity Radio Fields
8. When an autopilot is Fail Passive,
the aircraft reverts to fail operational autopilot
ATC is ground use, but the Wxr and TCAS are also 'primary radar'
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the pilot must resume control and land the aircraft
the autoland can continue
9. The fundamental theory of operation of a ranging radar is
frequency of returns
percentage of emitted signal returned
time taken to receive returns
10. On an aircraft communication system, HIRF interference is most prominent
during transmissions only
at specific frequencies
across the whole frequency spectrum
11. What clock is used in a GPS satellite?
Clock with battery
Atomic
Quartz
12. With Control Wheel Steering (CWS), if the flight path is disturbed by the pilot, the course will be corrected by the
autopilot panel
flight director input
normal flight control
13. An HF coupling is used to match the
receiver
boom-set (headphones and mic)
aerial
14. On an aircraft's navigation display, distance measuring equipment gives
slant range to beacon
height and range to beacon
ground range to beacon
15. On a modern aircraft flight instrument display system, radio deviation is shown on the
EHSI
EADI
EHSI & EADI
16. On a flight management system, the database is updated every
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1 Month
2 Months
3 Months
17. In a GPS system what type of clock is in the receiver?
Atomic
Quartz
Battery
18. What is the purpose of the autopilot?
To relieve the flight crew of their duties during long haul flights
To reduce the flight crew's workload
To enable the aircraft to land in bad weather
19. On the ATC radio readability scale, what is satisfactory reception?
3
5
1
20. An ADF system includes
a sense antenna
both a sense and loop antenna
a loop antenna
21. A category 2 landing RVR is
400 m
200 m
800 m
22. Autopilot servo brake is energised
to actuate on
to actuate off
at the same time as the clutch
23. Frequencies used for a Microwave Landing System are
5 - 5.1 KHz
5 - 5.1 GHz
5 - 5.1 MHz
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24. Where is the antenna located for watching TV?
In the stabiliser tip
On the fuselage roof
Near the wingtips, away from the cabin
25. Which category are hand mikes considered essential?
Light aircraft
Aerial work aircraft
Heavy passenger aircraft
26. Emergency frequency is
121.5 MHz
123.5 MHz
125.5 MHz
27. In a servo loop, an LVDT provides
rate feedback
either rate or position feedback
position feedback
28. 121.5 MHz is what frequency?
ILS
VHF
VOR
29. Transmitter aerials radiate
electromagnetic energy only
electrostatic and electromagnetic energy
electrostatic energy only
30. 112.1 MHz is what frequency?
UHF
ILS
VOR
31. When turbulence mode is selected, which other mode will not be available?
Heading Hold
VOR
ANO Schedule 4 Scale N and Article 47, prohibit them on Transport Category aircraft. However, no direct reference to them being 'essential' on light aircraft is found
112-118 MHz is VOR frequency. Less than 112 MHz odd decimals are ILS.
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ALT Hold
32. Priority messages in an aircraft centralised warning system, go in order of (lowest to highest):
TCAS, GPWS, windshear
GPWS, windshear, TCAS
TCAS, windshear, GPWS
33. On a fibreglass aerial, what paint should be used?
Polyurethane
Not cellulose
Cellulose only
34. Full scale deflection of the glideslope pointer from the centreline is
0.5o
2.5 o
3 o
35. 111.2 MHz is
VHF
VOR
ILS
36. IRS obtains basic position information by
integrating the accelerometer output
integrating twice the accelerometer output
differentiating the accelerometer output
37. TCAS antenna is a
omnidirectional blade type L-band
phased-array L-band
directional antenna
38. MLS frequency is
6000-6100 MHz
5050-6050 MHz
5000-6000 MHz
39. Which colour on the weather radar screen does the pilot avoid fly-through in order not to encounter strong thunderstorm and heavy rain?
Magenta
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Yellow
Blue
40. GPWS is
W-band
L-band
X-band
41. When painting a neoprene coated radio antenna
do not use cellulose paint
use cellulose paint
use any paint
42. To minimize cross cable interference
place filter in power supply
run radiating and affected cables as separate bundles
run cables as single bundle
43. Which 30Hz signal from a VOR ground station is frequency modulated?
The reference signal, which is constant
The ident tone
The variable signal
44. How is the the glideslope frequency chosen on the navigation control panel?
It is not manually chosen. It is paired with the VOR frequency
Via the G/S selector knob
It is not manually chosen. It is paired with the localizer frequency
45. How many times does the INS (inertial navigation system) integrate the acceleration signal it receives from the accelerometers to get the distance the aircraft has flown?
Twice
Three times
Once
46. Radar altimeter uses what frequency?
1200 MHz
2300 MHz
4000 MHz
47. Alert and Decision Heights differ in that
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the Alert height is based on ILS equipment and Decision height is based on the RVR
the Decision height is based on ILS equipment and Alert height is based on the RVR
the Alert height is based on aircraft characteristics and Decision height is based on the airport facilities
48. DME compares what for measurement of slant distance?
Pulse transmission and return echo
Pulse pairs
Aircraft range and height
49. A TCAS blade aerial is
a 1-band omnidirectional array
unidirectional
a 1-band directional array
50. FM improvements affect what system?
VHF, VOR and ILS
ADF, VOR and ILS
ADF, VHF and ILS
51. How many axis does the aircraft autopilot control?
Three
Four
Two
52. Digital weather radar is on map mode. What happens?
Display alters
Switches antennas
Antenna tilts down
53. ACARs sends information from base to aircraft via
printer
FMS
voice
54. What does 7700 indicate on an ATC control panel?
Hijack
Emergency
Radio Failure
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55. The number of VHF frequency channels is
360
720
760
56. In VHF comms, with 8.33 kHz spacing, how many channels are used?
720
350
2280
57. In an INS, vertical acceleration is calculated by
an accelerometer and laser gyro
an accelerometer
a laser gyro
58. The autopilot is instructed by the
GPS
FMC
Flight Director
59. Inertia is
the result of a gyro running at normal speed
the plane of rotation of a gyro
the property that resists any force that tends to change the plane of rotation of a gyro
60. VOR signals are sent to the
Roll channel
Pitch channel
Yaw channel
61. ILS marker beacon lights are
blue, amber, white
green, blue, amber
blue, white, green
62. 111.1 MHz is
a VOR frequency
a HF frequency
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an ILS frequency
63. An autopilot PFCU servo brake is
energised at the same time as the clutch
energised on
energised off
64. The aviation distress frequency is
121.5 MHz
121.5 kHZ
122.5 MHz
65. A radar altimeter in track mode is effective to
100 ft.
2000 ft.
2500 ft.
66. 112.1 MHz is
a VOR frequency
an ADF frequency
an ILS frequency
67. What does a Decca Navigation system operate on?
Low Frequency
High Frequency
Very High Frequency
68. Which of the following has a hyperbolic curve?
VOR
DME
Loran C
69. A GPS satellite will come into view
10° above the horizon with respect to the viewer
20° above the horizon with respect to the viewer
15° above the horizon with respect to the viewer
70. Restrictions to the use of hand held microphones apply to
private aircraft
Loran C is a type of LF Navigation
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aerial work and transport category aircraft
transport category aircraft only
71. The purpose of the clutch in an autothrottle servo is
to allow the pilot to override
to protect the servo motor in the event of inadvertent runaway
to limit the range of control movement
72. Track mode of an RA is operational
from 0 to 2,500 feet
from 1.0 to 100 feet
above 10,000 feet
73. How many aerials are there in a TCAS system?
3
2
1
74. Wavelength of X band radar is
5 cm
3 cm
10 m
75. Precipitation static is caused by
HF radiation
skin to air particle collisions
lightning strikes
76. HF aerials have weak points designed at
both ends
the back end
the front end
77. What is the reply frequency of an aircraft transponder?
1030 MHz
1090 MHz
1000 MHz
78. CAT 2 RVR limit is
CAT II ILS Runway Visual Range (RVR) is 'not less than 1200ft'.
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1200 ft
10,000 ft
1000 ft
79. With autopilot engaged, which control surface is inhibited?
Ailerons
THS
Elevators
80. When flaps are lowered, the automatic trim system will
not adjust the THS angle of incidence, it will remains the same
increase the angle of incidence of the THS
decrease the angle of incidence of the THS
81. In autopilot, the control column
moves in pitch and roll
does not move
moves in pitch
82. A 'hyperbolic' system is
ILS
LORAN C
VOR
83. When is autothrottle disengaged?
On landing
On selection of thrust reverse
After thrust reverser has deployed beyond 90% so that TO/GA can be selected in case of emergency
84. In aircraft with an autopilot and an auto trim, a pitch command input will cause
column to move and trim system to move
column will not move and trim system will move
column to move but trim system not to move
85. In regard to the aircraft transponder, what is the pulse frequency?
Amount of times reply signal is sent per second
Amount of times interrogating signal is sent per second
Number of pulses per signal
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86. CAT 2 RVR limit is
800 m
200 m
400 m
87. How many programs can a FMC store?
Two. One active and one standby
Two. Both active
One current
88. EPR and speed for autothrottle is activated at
cruise
take off
approach
89. How does an IRS calculate velocity?
Differentiation of laser gyro
Integration of accelerometers
Double integration of accelerometers
90. In an autopilot, what controls pitch mode?
Localizer
Glideslope
VOR
91. Glideslope controls autopilot in
pitch
yaw
roll
92. Static dischargers help eliminate radio interference by dissipating static electricity into the atmosphere at
high voltage levels
low current levels
all voltage levels
93. What is B-RNAV?
Indicates bearing and airspeed until next active waypoint
Ability to store 6 waypoints
CAT II ILS Runway Visual Range (RVR) is 'not less than 1200ft'. 1200 ft = 400m
If the aircraft is equipped with static dischargers, the static discharge occurs at lower current and more frequently'.
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Indicates true airspeed
94. An Automatic Flight Control System receives inputs from the following ground based transmitters
DME, ILS, ADF
VOR, ILS
RA, ADF, ILS
95. What is the wavelength of C band radar?
3 cm
17 m
7 cm
96. What is primary radar?
Land based
Radar that gives height and position
Radar that sends out pulse and receives reflected pulse
97. What is ILS marker beacon frequency?
50 MHz
75 MHz
100 MHz
98. TCAS is selected
by a switch, by pilot on selector panel
automatically
not available in cruise
99. The manual VOR input is for
course deviation bar
glideslope
RMI
100. The mach trim is initiated by
the autopilot motor
a PCU
an electric motor
101. What is the colour of the middle marker beacon?
White
C Band is 4 - 8 cm. Most aircraft systems use about 5.6cm.
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Blue
Amber
102. A GPS system is formed from
satellites, processing unit, display unit
receiver, processing unit, interactive console
space, control, user
103. For aircraft with dual CMCs, when only one CMC is available, it
must be connected to the right side
can be connected to either side
must be connected to the left side
104. Laser gyros are
aligned to the aircraft structure
aligned to the true north
aligned to the magnetic north
105. Laser gyros
have rotational parts
do not have rotational parts
have no movable parts
106. A radio coupled approach is
localiser first, followed by glideslope
glideslope first, followed by localiser
in any order
107. Aileron signal is fed to the rudder channel
for turn command back-up
for turn coordination
for yaw damping compensation
108. The rate of G/S warning in GPWS
changes with radio altitude
does not change
changes with barometric altitude
109. What frequency are VOR and ILS?
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VHF
HF
UHF
110. A radio frequency of 16 MHz would be used for
marker beacons
HF communications
weather radar
111. An aircraft lands in autoland. After touch down and thrust reversers are deployed. What happens to autothrottle?
Advances throttles
Stays armed for go around in an emergency
Automatically switches off
112. Pilot's instinctive cut-out buttons are positioned
on right side of control wheel
on left side of control wheel
on side of control wheel furthest from throttles
113. ILS and VOR operate in which range
UHF
VHF
HF
114. FMC secondary flight-plan is selected
in the air by the pilot
by calendar date monthly
on the ground by the pilot
115. GPWS operating in mode 1 and 2 when close to ground will give
amber warning
red caption and aural 'whoop whoop pull up'
red caption and aural 'pull up, undercarriage, flaps, throttle'
116. The components of an ILS are
a localizer and a glide slope
a localizer, a glide slope and the marker beacons
a localizer and the marker beacons
FMC has a primary (active) and a secondary (alternative) stored flight plan
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117. In ILS, the glideslope provides
lateral steering
vertical steering
distance checks
118. If the 90 Hz tone modulation in a localizer receiver predominates, the deviation indicator will show
fly left
fly right
the flag
119. Autopilot will operate above what altitude?
500 ft.
1000 ft.
750 ft.
120. A radio coupled autopilot in pitch uses
glideslope
VOR
ADF
121. EPR and thrust modes in autothrottle are the only modes that can be selected in
take off
cruise
approach
122. An inertial navigation unit uses pin programming for
location
magnetic orientation
aircraft type
123. How can it be verified if FMC update is correct?
Dataplate on the FMC
BITE
FMC via CDU
124. GPWS will show a fault if the following fails:
Air speed indicator
Radio altimeter
Pin programming for IRU`s and INU`s are carried out on the aircraft rack mounted side. The purpose being to tell the installed unit which position it is serving within the aircraft i.e left, ctr or right side! The unit is universal for all
Of the three, GPWS has only connection to the RA. It does use barometric vertical speed however.
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Pressure altimeter
125. INS has mercury switches on
all gimbals
inner gimbal
outer gimbal
126. If the runway picture in the EADI moves down during an ILS approach, the aircraft must fly
down
nowhere - this is normal on an ILS approach
up
127. What modulation is used for the beams of a localiser in an ILS?
150 Hz right of runway centerline, 90 Hz left of runway centreline
90 Hz below the glide path, 150 Hz above the glide path
150 Hz left of runway centerline, 90 Hz right of runway centreline
128. In what frequency range does the automatic direction finding (ADF) system operate?
108.00 - 117.95 MHz
190 - 1759 KHz
1025 - 1150 KHz
129. How does an aircraft distinguish its own Distance Measuring Equipment reply from those for other aircraft?
By changing at random the time delay between the pulse pairs of the interrogation signal
By using an alternate frequency
By modulation of an audio tone
130. From where is bearing information received for display on the digital-distance radio-magnetic indicator (DDRMI)?
From ADF only
From VOR only
From VOR and ADF systems
131. Which frequency is used to achieve line of sight radio communication?
VHF and UHF
VHF
HF
132. Why is an aerial tuning unit used in a high frequency (HF) communication system?
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To select the transmission/reception frequency in the HF band
To electrically lengthen or shorten the aerial for optimum matching of impedance
To extend or retract the aerial and so vary its physical length
133. What would be the purpose of an input from an inertial reference system being connected to a weather radar?
To place the weather radar target in azimuth and distance for the display
To ensure that there is no radar transmission with aircraft on ground
To provide stabilisation for the radar antenna
134. Which systems provide envelope modulation information for a Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS)
Flaps/undercarriage
Rudder/ailerons
Autothrottle
135. The Time Reference Scanning Beam (TRSB) corresponds to ILS localiser and glidepath. How does it operate?
It operates in conjunction with DME at lower frequencies than ILS
It operates in the same manner as ILS but utilises higher frequencies
Azimuth and elevation transmitters produce a narrow beam which is rapidly scanned TO and FRO or UP and DOWN
136. The FMS navigation database is updated
after a B or C check has been completed
every 28 days
daily
137. In an IRS system you would expect to find
ring laser gyros
three strap down accelerometers
an azimuth gyro system
138. In an INS system the accelerometer is a mass
a remotely mounted mass on the airframe
a mass suspended in free air
suspended between two springs in a tube
139. In a modern aircraft the ACARS system is used primarily for
as part of the passenger telephone system
Assuming they mean a strapdown system. (Note: it is the system which is strapdown, not the accelerometers, azimuth gyro is not the only type of gyro involved).
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communications between the aircraft and base
reporting defects on the aircraft automatically
140. What are the main areas of the autopilot?
Error, correction , demand, resolved
Error, correction, follow up, command
Error, correction, follow up, demand
141. VHF frequency is
108 - 112 MHz
108 - 136 MHz
108 - 118 MHz
142. The call system for the captain will have the audio signal of a
hi tone chime
horn
two tone chime
143. Channel 3 on a CVR records
first officer
flightdeck
captain
144. DME works on the frequency of
HF
VHF
UHF
145. A radial is referenced
from a beacon
to a VOR
on a compass
146. ADF works by using
both loop and sense aerial
loop aerial
sense aerial
147. How is the next database on the FMC activated?
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Automatically by due date
Manually in the air
Manually, on the ground
148. What GPWS mode gives a 'Whoop Whoop, Pull-up' command?
Mode 2
Mode 6
Mode 3
149. A transponder that is compatible for use with a TCAS system would be
Mode C
Mode A
Mode S
150. GPS
uses 24 satellites equally spaced around 6 orbits
uses 18 satellites equally spaced around 6 orbits
uses 21 satellites equally spaced around 7 orbits
151. Random precession of the inner gimbal ring is detected by placing mercury switches
on inner gimbal ring
on outer gimbal ring
on both gimbal rings
152. The IRS laser gyro is a
rate gyro
displaced gyro
displacement gyro
153. What manoeuvre does TCAS II advise the pilot to make?
RA
either RA or TA
TA
154. What are the shapes of traffic shown on a TCAS display ?
White circles, red diamonds and amber squares
White squares, red diamonds and amber circles
White diamonds, red squares and amber circles
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155. The laser ring gyro
does not have a gimbal
has a stabilized platform
does not have a gimbal but does have rotating parts
156. 3 autopilot computers are considered
Fail resistant
Fail Passive
Fail Operable
157. In autopilot with THS in motion, the
Mach trim is inhibited
elevator is inhibited
Auto Trim is inhibited
158. How can a pilot over-ride the auto-throttle?
It is not possible
Manually through a clutch on the throttle levers
By deselecting auto-throttle first
159. Where is the autothrottle disconnect switch?
Within reach of the Captain
Within reach of both pilots
Within reach of the First Officer
160. Decca navigation uses
HF
LF
VHF
161. There are two FMS installed on the aircraft. If one FMS fails during flight
the whole FMS system is unserviceable until the pilot switches over to standby
the failed FMS has a blank screen
it has no effect, because the second FMS was in the stand-by mode, now it is active.
162. Which of the following has priority over TCAS warnings?
Stall warning
Gear position warning
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Resolution Advisories
163. The ILS marker beacon operates at a frequency of
75 MHz
50 MHz
100 MHz
164. The manual input for the VOR course corrector is related to
the CDI offset bar
the ILS system
the RMI
165. A flat plate antenna is a
parabolic antenna
a series of slots and wave guides
a Doppler antenna
166. To obtain an accurate GPS fix, the GPS receiver must be in line of sight of
4 satellites
3 satellites
6 satellites
167. Which of the following systems is inhibited when a test is performed of the rad. alt. system?
GPWS
TCAS
altitude alert
168. The GPS satellite system consists of
20 satellites and 5 standby satellite
21 satellites and 3 standby satellites
24 satellites and 1 standby satellites
169. A Mode C transponder gives the following info:
Altitude and interrogation
Altitude
Interrogation
170. The autothrottle system at touchdown will
go to idle
4 satellites are required to provide height information as well as position.
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apply reverse thrust
go to idle and disconnect
171. When will the decision height aural warning sound?
At decision height
Before decision height
After decision height
172. FMCS Pin Programming is allowed
for the database of aircraft landing altitudes
to compensate for FMC position on the aircraft
under CAA Rules
173. Before the aeroplane is moved from the loading pier, the pilot must
set the altitude to be fed into the INS
insert the latitude and longitude of the pier into the INS
insert the latitude and longitude of the first waypoint into the INS
174. A 'strap-down' inertial navigation system has
accelerometers and gyros fixed to the airframe
accelerometers on a stable platform and gyros fixed to the airframe
accelerometers fixed to the airframe and gyros on a stable platform
175. A force re-balance accelerometer in an IN system has the acceleration force balanced by a
constant force
non-linear force
linear force
176. An accelerometer in an IN system must be able to detect accelerations down to
10-6 g
10-3 g
10-2 g
177. A laser gyro output is
directly proportional to angular turning rate
directly proportional to frequency addition
inversely proportional to angular turning rate
178. In an IN system, Coriolis effect is the result of
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gyro wander
platform misalignment
the effect of the earth's rotation on a stable platform
179. The Inertial Navigation System computes distance from acceleration by
two successive integrations
a differential followed by an integration
a single integration
180. Coriolis effect is corrected for by
re-aligning the stable platform
adding a correction term to the accelerometer outputs
torquing the gyros
181. In an IN system, the output of the accelerometer is linear because of a
linear spring
force balance system
pendulous suspension
182. The three accelerometers on a stable platform are mounted
parallel to each other
120 degrees apart
orthogonally
183. In an IN system, the purpose of the stable platform is to
stop the gyros from toppling
provide attitude reference
prevent unwanted acceleration affecting the accelerometers
184. The type of gyro generally used in an IN system is a
rate integrating gyro
rate gyro
displacement gyro
185. Earth rate is approximately
5 degrees per hour
84 degrees per hour
15 degrees per hour
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186. In a gimbal system, the stable platform is the
azimuth gimbal
pitch gimbal
roll gimbal
187. To prevent gimbal lock on the stable platform it is normal to use
three gimbals
four gimbals
a pitch gimbal
188. When the inertial platform is torqued to perform like a Schuler pendulum
the platform rotates with respect to the aircraft
the platform remains fixed with respect to the local vertical
the platform oscillates with respect to the local vertical
189. A Schuler pendulum has a period of oscillation of
84.4 seconds
8.4 minutes
84.4 minutes
190. An IN system requires data from the
Doppler system
airdata computer
satellites
191. When in manual mode, the C.D.U. alert lamp of the IN system will flash
thirty seconds before a track change is required
when an error is detected
two minutes before the next waypoint
192. XTK (cross track) is the
angle in degrees that aircraft track is left or right of desired track
perpendicular distance from the desired track
actual track across the earth's surface
193. The output of an INS can be fed to
attitude indicators
altimeters
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vertical speed indicators
194. The three accelerometers on a strapdown platform are mounted
90º to each other
parallel to each other
120º apart
195. A basic I.N.S. platform has
3 axis accelerometer
3 accelerometers and 2 gyros (pitch and roll)
2 accelerometers and 3 gyros
196. Using I.N.S. an aircraft flies
great circle arc
rhumb line
course directed by ground station
197. What must be entered in to the I.N.S. before the aircraft moves?
Waypoints
E.T.A.
Present position
198. Selection of the INS Mode Selector Unit (MSU) to ATT REF is made
to feed information to the Captain and 1st Officers ADI displays
when attitude information is lost
when navigation information is lost
199. For the INS, the Battery Unit provides
standby power when airborne, switched by weight-off switches in the undercarriage
both when airborne and on the ground
standby power only when on the ground, to maintain the alignment phase
200. Control Display Unit (CDU) selection of TKE displays
distance perpendicular from the selected track
difference in degrees that the aircraft track is to the right or left of the desired track
difference in degrees from True North in a clockwise direction from the desired track
201. The Earth Rate Compensation for an INU is computed from
the earth's rotational rate (15°/hour) times the sine of the longitude
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the earth's rotational rate (15°/hour) times the cosine of the latitude
the earth's rotational rate (15°/hour) times the sine of the latitude
202. INS wind speed is calculated from
the vectorial addition of IAS and TAS
the vectorial addition of TAS and GS
the vectorial addition of IAS and GS
203. Centripetal error compensation is achieved by
allowing the platform to oscillate at a fixed rate
an additional signal is added to the N/S accelerometer to cancel the centripetal error
the platform is torqued to align the N/S accelerometer along its insensitive axis
204. Transport Rate compensation is achieved by
an additional signal added to the N/S accelerometer output depending on heading
allowing the platform to oscillate at a fixed rate
the platform being torqued by a computed torquing signal
205. If the battery fails on the ground (INS System)
an amber light appears on the MSU and a horn sounds
a red warning light appears on the MSU and a horn sounds
a red light appears on the CDU and a horn sounds
206. An IRS alignment
takes 10 minutes and present position must be entered before alignment
takes 10 minutes and present position can be entered any time during the alignment
takes 10 minutes and the previous flight shut down present position is used for the alignment
207. For an IRS system to pass the 'Alignment System Performance Test' the
the No. 1 and No.2 must both have the same latitude and longitude present position entered
entered present latitude and longitude must agree with the latitude and longitude at the last power own
latitude entered must be within given limits of the latitude computed by IRU
208. A laser gyro dither mechanism ensures that
the contra-rotating beams are synchronised together
optical 'backscatter' does not cause the contra-rotating beams to lock together
that the two contra-rotating beams each operate at different frequencies
209. The localiser deviation signal for the flight director comes from the
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VHF nav system
VHF comm system
flight director compute
210. The heading error signal used in the heading select mode
is the difference between the desired heading and the actual heading
is the difference between the desired course and the actual course
comes direct from the compass system
211. The crab angle of the aircraft during VOR or LOC modes is displayed by the
difference between the course arrow and aircraft heading
difference between the selected heading and aircraft heading
selected course counter
212. VOR left-right deviation signals come from the
DME system
VLF nav system
VHF nav set
213. Above the glideslope, the ILS glideslope signal modulation is
90 Hz
150 Hz
90 KHZ
214. The localiser modulation signal to the left of the localiser centre line, as seen from the localiser transmitter, is
90 Hz
90 KHz
150 Hz
215. The correct sense demand generated for a selected heading 180°, when the aircraft heading is 150° is
turn left
straight ahead
turn right
216. When an aircraft is flying along the extended centre line of the runway it is in the
150 Hz modulation sector
90 Hz modulation sector
equi-signal sector
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217. The localiser system offers approach guidance to the runway in terms of
the vertical plane
the horizontal plane
distance to touch down
218. The glideslope transmitter is located
at the end opposite to the approach end of the runway
adjacent to the touch-down point of the runway
at the approach end of the runway
219. The glideslope and localiser frequencies
are fixed and common to all runways therefore frequency selection is not necessary
have to be selected separately
are paired and one frequency selector suffices for both
220. The glideslope system offers approach guidance to runways in terms of
distance to touchdown
the vertical plane
the horizontal plane
221. The glideslope equipment operates in the
VHF band
UHF band
HF band
222. The localiser equipment operates in the
HF band
VHF band
UHF band
223. The aircraft equipment determines the bearing of a ground station by comparing
the amplitude of two 30 Hz modulations
the phase of two 30 Hz modulations
the phase of one 30 Hz modulation with that of a 9960 Hz modulation
224. The number of different radials provided by a ground station is
infinite
180 per quadrant, i.e. 720 in 360°
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360
225. Which of the following frequencies is allocated to VOR?
114.3 MHz
127.2 MHz
103.9 MHz
226. Aerial masts may be damaged by
water
killfrost anti-icing fluid
Skydrol hydraulic fluids
227. Most radio aerial masts are
not bonded
bonded
insulated from the fuselage
228. When an aircraft is heading due north (magnetic) towards a VOR station the reference and variable signals will be
270° out of phase
in phase
180° out of phase
229. The middle marker modulation is keyed with
alternate dots and dashes
dashes
dots
230. The modulation of the outer marker is
3000 Hz
400 Hz
1300 Hz
231. The approximate distance of the middle marker from the runway threshold is
7 miles
3 miles
3500 ft.
232. Marker information is usually provided to the pilot
aurally
All frequencies between 112.00 and 117.95 MHz (High Power VORs) and all odd frequencies between 108.00 and 111.95 MHz (Terminal VORs)
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both visually and aurally
visually
233. An over station sensor (OSS) detects
the rapid rate of the VOR signal over the cone of confusion
radio deviation signals proportional to distance from a localiser transmitter
radio deviation signals proportional to distance from a VOR transmitter
234. Incompatible Flight Director modes are
altitude hold and ILS
VRU and compass
VOR and glidepath
235. The VOR system comprises
reference phase signal
variable and reference phase signals
variable phase signal
236. The most sensitive system between ILS and VOR is
they both have the same sensitivity
ILS
VOR
237. If an aircraft is flying on a heading of 000 away from a VOR station, the TO/FROM indicator would show
to
from
no indication
238. How does the flight director computer differentiate between VOR and ILS frequencies?
Frequency discriminator in receiver
Trigger pulse from ground station
Discriminator on control panel
239. The glideslope transmitter operates on
the VHF band
frequencies of 108 to 118 MHZ
the UHF band
240. The pilots instinctive autopilot disengage button is on the
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left of the control column
right of the control column
side of the controls away from the throttles
241. If the autopilot automatically disconnects in the autoland mode, the audible warning
switches off after a time interval
is switched off by the instinctive cut-out button
can only be switched off by re-engaging the autopilot
242. A category 3B aircraft using fail operational automatic landing equipment will have
a decision height depending on RVR
a decision height of 50ft
no decision height
243. For an aircraft to be certified for automatic landing, an autothrottle system is
mandatory
a matter of choice for the operator
dependent on the operation of the aircraft at slow speeds
244. With autothrottle engaged, the application of reverse thrust will
drive the throttles to the minimum thrust position
drive the throttles to the reverse thrust position
disconnect the autothrottle
245. During ATC transponder operation, side lobe suppression acts to
mute the DME operation during transmit phase
mute coms transmission during transponder operation
supply altitude readout
246. During operation of a twin HF radio system transceiver
#1 HF system operation is inhibited during #2 operation
both systems can be operated simultaneously
#1 HF system can transmit but not receive
247. Which L band frequency is not used by DME for transmitting?
2210 MHz
1090 MHz
4133 MHz
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248. Function of ADF & VOR and DME in navigation system with reference to aircraft and beacon is;
the first provides distance between aircraft and beacon and latter provides bearing line from aircraft to beacon
the first provides bearing line from aircraft to beacon and latter provides distance between aircraft and beacon
None of above
249. Which two frequencies are paired?
DME and Glideslope
Glideslope and localizer
Localizer and DME
250. Localizer beam width is the angle where the two edges of beam are apart at the runway threshold by
7 ft
700 ft
70 ft
251. What happens if frequency decreases without altering the physical length of aerial?
The aerial becomes inductively capacitive
The aerial becomes capacitively reactive
The aerial becomes inductively reactive
252. What happens if frequency increases without altering the physical length of aerial?
The aerial becomes inductively reactive
The aerial becomes capacitively reactive
The aerial becomes inductively capacitive
253. Aerials provide optimum output at one particular frequency, when its load is purely
resistive
capacitive
inductive
254. The torque pre-set in an autopilot system is
to stop the motor overheating
to give control surface feel
to allow it to be overridden at a certain force
255. Most aerials are
not bonded
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bonded
made from non-conductive material
256. The Middle Marker beacon is what colour?
Amber
White
Blue
257. Laser gyros have
no rotating parts
moving parts
a spinning rotor
258. Laser gyros are aligned to
magnetic north
true north
aircraft structure
259. Triplex autopilot is
fail passive
fail soft
fail operational
260. Flight management control system (FMCS) utilises
ILS, VOR, ADF
ILS, DME, ADC,
VOR, ADF, DME
261. ACARS is
a navigation system
a satellite communication system
a way of reporting defects to maintenance base in flight
262. Where is an ATC transponder mode 'A' selected ON?
The airspeed indicator
The ATC control panel
The altimeter
263. How many data bases are required in an FMS system?
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2
1
3 (one is used for redundancy)
264. What channel of the autopilot does the glideslope control?
Pitch
Yaw
Roll
265. What is secondary radar?
Signal returned from a transponder
A backup radar on an airfield
Reflected radar bounce from an aircraft
266. In an autothrottle system, when is EPR or thrust mode used?
Approach
Cruise
Take-off
267. What is Mode 1 & 2 of GPWS used for?
Excessive descent rate, unsafe terrain clearance
Excessive descent rate, excessive terrain closure rate
Excessive terrain closure rate, altitude loss after take-off
268. For radio communication over a distance of over 250 miles we use
VHF
VLF
HF
269. Autopilot, when on approach to landing, how many axis are used?
3
2
4
Electrical Power
1. A lead-acid battery is considered to be fully charged when the
cells begin to gas freely
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SG reaches 1.180
SG and voltage remain constant for specified period
2. A diode across a contactor
reduces contact bounce
enables it to be connected to either an AC or DC circuit
reduces contact arcing
3. The preferred method of battery charging a Ni-Cad battery is constant
voltage
power
current
4. A battery in situ on an aircraft
charges at a fairly constant rate because generator voltage remains constant
may charged at an excessive rate if initial battery voltage is low
may charge slowly if initial battery voltage is low
5. To parallel an alternating current generator with one or more other generators, phase A must be
90 degrees out-of-phase and ABC
in-phase with other generators and CBA only
in-phase with other generators and ABC
6. On an unparalleled twin generator alternating current system, the phase of the second generator to be brought on line
must be in-phase prior to paralleling
is unimportant
is important if the first generator fails
7. The power supply for aircraft is
28VDC, 115VAC, 400Hz
28VDC, 220VAC, 400Hz
28VDC, 115VAC, 200Hz
8. On the direct current short shunt generator circuit shown, output voltage at the load is 200V. What is the voltage across the shunt winding?
AC generators are paralleled for phase, voltage, frequency, load and phase rotation.
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206V
200V
212V
9. On a Direct Current circuit, Current Limiters
prevent overheating by limiting current to load
limit generator field excitation
limit current to field circuit
10. On a direct current circuit, current limiters
allow excessive current to the load circuit
prevent excessive current to the load circuit
prevent excessive current to the field circuit
11. When a current transformer is disconnected from its load
a resistor should be placed across the terminals
the terminals should be shorted together
the terminals should be left disconnected
12. Ram Air Turbines have variable fan blades to
maintain a constant speed
provide a constant flow rate
produce maximun hydraulic pressure required by the system
13. On a direct current twin generator system, the paralleling relay contacts close when the oncoming generators voltage is
below bus voltage
the same as bus voltage
above bus voltage
14. Where is a commutator found?
An AC generator
The 100 ohm shunt, 0.06 ohm and the 0.04 ohm are the field windings. The generator output is split between the 0.06 ohm and the 100 ohm load, but only by 0.06/100 x 200V = 0.12V (across the 0.06 ohm). So the voltage across the shunt winding is closer to 200V than the other two answers
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A DC generator
A DC alternator
15. Calculate the battery terminal voltage of a NiCad battery with 15 cells
18 V
15 V
30 V
16. Reactive electrical loads are adjusted by
adjustment of generator speed
adjustment of the regulator output
varying the frequency circuit
17. IDG oil is used for
internal hydraulic functions only
cooling, lubrication and internal hydraulic functions
cooling and lubrication only
18. A silver oxide cell has a voltage of
1.55 V
1.8 V
1.2 V
19. Lithium cells
are very efficient
have an unlimited re-charge cycle capacity
are not rechargeable
20. On a split bus electrical system, the bus tie breakers are
always closed in flight
always open in flight
only closed in an emergency
21. Parallel electrical system bus tie breakers are
closed in flight and open on ground
closed on ground and open in flight
always closed in flight
22. Whilst synchronising generators, frequency bias is adjusted on
15 x 1.2V = 18V
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the on-line generator
all generators
the on-coming generator
23. The GCR will trip during over-voltage
based upon a fixed time delay circuit
based upon the amplitude of the over-voltage
immediately
24. In a constant voltage AC generator, the voltage is regulated by
a 3-phase transformer
varying field voltage
varying field current
25. A vibrator type voltage regulator regulates field current by
just a pair of contact breaker points
a resistor in parallel with a pair of contact breaker points
a resistor in series with a pair of contact breaker points
26. When a current transformer is disconnected, what should be done?
Resistor placed across terminals
Left open circuit
Terminals shorted
27. What does the differential sensing coil sense?
Volts
Power
Current
28. Where does the GCU gets its power?
RAT
PMG
Battery
29. Galley loads are wired in
either series or parallel depending on the design
series
parallel so load shedding will lower current consumption All loads on an aircraft are wired in parallel
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30. In a merz-price protection system of a single phase, if, when a fault occurs, only one relay contactor opens,
only the relay on the side which has the fault will energise
then it is probable that one of the relays has failed short circuit
then it is probable that one of the coils has failed open circuit
31. A fuse-type current limiter
can be used as a radio suppressor
limits current flow to a load
opens a circuit after a time/current condition has been exceeded
32. When a load is shed from a busbar, the
busbar voltage decreases
current consumption from the bar decreases
busbar voltage increases
33. In unparalleled AC generation systems, the phase rotation of one generator in relation to the others
must be synchronised prior to paralleling
is unimportant
must be BCA
34. In a multi-generator system, the generator which takes more than its reactive power share is protected by
over-voltage and under-voltage protection circuits
over-excitation and under-excitation protection circuits
over-current and under-current protection circuits
35. In a pulsed width modulating type voltage regulator, the generator output voltage is increased by
increasing the voltage sensed by the voltage regulator
increasing the mark to space ratio
decreasing the mark to space ratio
36. Sharing of electrical loads by paralleled DC generators is controlled by
automatic load shedding
equalising circuits which control the field excitation of the generators
equalising circuits which control the speed of the generators
37. Excessive commutator sparking can be caused by
rotating field diode failure
weak spring tension
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brushes positioned on MNA
38. Before checking the SG of a battery recently removed from an aircraft
take the temperature of the electrolyte
carry out a capacity test
allow to stabilise for one hour
39. On an AC external power plug, the interlock circuit is controlled by pins
E and F
A and B
C and D
40. Over-voltage protection circuits are activated
after a fixed time delay
dependent on the magnitude of the overvoltage
before the over voltage limit is exceeded
41. A diode connected across a coil will
prevent the coil being fitted the wrong way
prevent back EMF and allow faster switching
suppress arcing when relay is opening and closing
42. Which fault does not always trip the GCR?
Over-frequency and under-frequency
Under-frequency and under-volts
Over-frequency and over-volts
43. Differential protection in a generating system
detects current difference between source and load
uses the volts coil to trip the GCR
detects voltage difference between source and load
44. Open phase sensing on a current transformer
is detected on generator neutral circuit
is detected using all phases
is detected using any phase
45. If the battery is switched off in flight, the
battery is disconnected from bus
Under-frequency and undervolts are caused by engine shutdown.
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captain's instruments will be powered from the standby bus
generator voltage falls to zero
46. To flash a generator field the
generator is on line and producing a voltage less than the flashing voltage
generator must be stationary
generator rotates but is not on line
47. Voltage is controlled by
the constant speed drive
the voltage regulator
the swashplate
48. Distilled water should be added to a ni-cad battery
only in the battery workshop
when fully charged
at any time
49. Overflowing electrolyte in a ni-cad battery indicates
not enough charging current
low electrolyte temperature
excessive charging current
50. During a normal engine shutdown, generator tripping is initiated by
underfrequency
undervoltage
overcurrent
51. What would you use to neutralise nicad battery spillage?
Boric acid
Distilled water
Bicarbonate of soda
52. Before operating generators in parallel, their voltages should be matched to prevent
overloading the generator drive and shearing of splines
voltage spikes of sufficient magnitude to trigger GCU overvoltage circuits
large circulating currents developing
53. Consumer loads are connected to a busbar
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in series so when loads are shed voltage is reduced
in series so when loads are shed current is reduced
in parallel so when loads are shed current is reduced
54. A current transformer connected on the neutral star point of a generator is for
overload protection
differential current protection
negative sequence protection
55. Differential protection as applied to AC generation systems compares
ambient pressure to cabin pressure
generator voltage to busbar voltage
generator current to busbar current
56. In an AC generation system, the frequency and phase rotation
is of no consequence after paralleling
must be synchronised prior to paralleling
must be out of phase prior to paralleling
57. Diodes are placed across a contactor to
prevent contact bounce
ensure smooth contactor operation
speed up operation by reducing back EMF
58. Placing the battery master switch to off during flight will
shut down the APU
isolate the battery from the main busbar
disconnect all power to the main busbar
59. Whilst operating paralleled AC constant frequency generators, it is important to maintain generator outputs at the same voltage
to prevent a circulating current of considerable magnitude developing between two or more generators
to prevent a circulating current developing between two or more TRUs
to prevent CSD shock loading
60. A voltage regulator installed in series with a generator field
uses a current coil in parallel with generator output
uses a voltage coil in parallel with generator output
uses a voltage coil in series with generator output
The Battery master switch simply connects the battery to the main busbar, allowing it to be charged from the generator(s).
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61. CSD warning lights on the flight deck normally indicate
low oil pressure, low oil temperature
high oil pressure, low oil temperature
low oil pressure, high oil temperature
62. The output frequency of a hydraulically driven standby generator is controlled by
an IDG
a CSD
an hydraulically actuated swash plate
63. An AC generator used with a CSD
does not need a voltage controller because current is kept constant
does not need a voltage controller because voltage is kept constant
needs a voltage controller to maintain voltage with increasing load
64. Power to a GCU is supplied
initially by a 'field tickling' supply and then PMG output
by the battery bus or rectified generator output
by the generator output only
65. Trip signals for a GCR are
underfrequency and overcurrent
overfrequency and undervoltage
differential protection and undervoltage
66. Abnormal CSD operation is monitored on the flight deck by observing indications of
high oil temperature / low oil pressure
low oil quantity / low oil temperature
High oil temperature / low oil quantity
67. Wires in hot temperature areas should be bound with
PVC
Teflon
Nomex
68. A heat gun should be operated at
100°C below the specified
the specified temperature A heat gun should be operated at the specified temperature, or 100°C (approx) above the heatshrink temperature.
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100°C above the specified
69. High voltages on a generator in a parallel system should be prevented because
it will cause high circulating current in the bus / other generators
it will damage the drive shaft
it will trip the GCR
70. Over-voltage condition trips the generator. The time taken to trip the GCU depends on
time delay circuit
closing of fuel and hydraulic valves
amplitude of voltage
71. Speed of an HMG is controlled by a
ID unit
CSD unit
swashplate
72. A permanent magnet should have
high retentivity, low coercivity
low retentivity, high coercivity
low retentivity, low coercivity
73. What will happen if the aircraft battery becomes overheated?
The power supply to the battery charger will be interrupted
The hot battery bus will be disconnected from the battery
The battery charger will switch to trickle charge mode
74. When the temperature increases in a lead acid battery, the SG will
increase
decrease
remain the same
75. On testing a generator it is found to require adjusting, where would you adjust it?
By means of a remote trimmer
On the GCU
In the cockpit on the flight engineers panel
76. Control of hydraulically powered emergency electrical generator frequency is
by angle of swash plate
Inverse time delay - could also be considered correct
A permanent magnet should have a low coercivity (so it is easy to magnetise) and high retentivity (so it is difficult to demagnetise)
Since volume increases, but mass remains constant, with temperature, density decreases
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by IDG
by CSU
77. When a ni-cad battery is fully charged
the electrolyte level is lower than normal
the electrolyte level is higher level than normal
the electrolyte level stays the same
78. Electrical load on aircraft is controlled by
a GCU
a BPCU
an IRS
79. A 4:1 step-up transformer receives 120VAC in its primary and has 1600 Ohms resistance in its secondary. What is the current drawn from the source?
3 A
1.2 A
0.3 A
80. After engine start using a Ni-Cad battery, the pilot observes on the battery charger indicator, an initial high current draw followed by a rapid decrease in current
no cause for concern
the battery is faulty
there is a problem with the charging circuit and he must shut-down the engines
81. Topping up a Ni-Cad battery in situ
is permitted
is not allowed
is only allowed in the shop
82. In a lead-acid battery after numerous checks, one cell has low reading.
It is defective
It must be replaced
It needs topping up
83. A short range passenger aircraft has complete electrical failure. What time duration would the battery be expected to power essential equipment?
60 minutes
Forever
B767 MM 42-41-00 quote: 'The BPCU shares status information with the GCU's. The BPCU controls all electrical buses and controls load shedding.'
Find current in secondary I = V/R = 480/1600 = 3/10A. Next find current in Primary = 4 x 3/10 = 12/10 = 1.2A
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30 minute
84. An external power plug has two short pins. These are used for
a guide for correct alignment of the plug in the socket
the interlock circuit
ground handling bus
85. The purpose of a synchronising bus bar is
to enable two propeller systems to be synchronised
to allow monitoring and trimming from the flight deck
to monitor total current load
86. To confirm the state of charge of a ni-cad battery
subject the battery to load and check the voltage
measure the discharge time
subject the battery to load, check voltage and check the SG of each cell
87. Circulating currents are associated with
AC generators in parallel
DC generators in parallel
AC and DC generators in parallel
88. Generator brush bedding
can be done on the aircraft
should only be done if 50% of the width and 80% of the length is already being done
should not be done on the aircraft
89. What is the amperage at point 'X' to the nearest amp?
102 Amps
101 Amps
100 Amps
100 volts accross far right load, therefore 100 volts also accross 100ohm load (parallel circuit theory)
I = V/R = 100/100 = 1A through 100 ohm load. (Ohms Law)
Total current at 'X' is 100 + 1 = 101 Amps. (Kirkchoff's Law)
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90. Pitot tubes are heated by
AC
AC or DC
DC
91. Paralleling is used for
DC electrical generators only
AC electrical generators only
AC and DC electrical generators
92. Battery charging procedures can be found in ATA
Chapter 24 Section 21
Chapter 31 Section 21
Chapter 24 Section 31
93. In a carbon pile regulator, the resistive element is
in parallel with the field and changes resistance with changing length
in series with the field and changes resistance with changing length
in series with the field and changes resistance with surface area contact
94. Maximum battery temperature on charging before protection circuit starts is
144 degrees C
71 degrees F
144 degrees F
95. If an aircraft has no battery charger, the battery is charged by
constant current until a predetermined limit when it automatically switches to constant voltage
constant current
constant voltage
96. The output of a carbon pile regulator with no variation of loading is
stationary
pulse width modulating
fluctuating
97. In a transistor voltage regulator, the voltage output is controlled by
zeners and transistors
diodes and transformers
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transformers and transistors
98. A paralleled relay for a DC system is energised and connected by
voltage and current coil
current coil
voltage coil
99. Increasing the real load primarily
increases output voltage and increases frequency
decreases output voltage
decreases frequency
100. Inductive reactive load causes
increase in torque only
no effect on torque but produces extra heat dissipated
increase in torque and increase in heat dissipated
101. The power factor of an AC generator identifies the proportion of
apparent power from the generator that does work
real power from the generator that does work
reactive power from the generator that does work
102. Differential protection in an AC system protects against
a reverse current flowing from the battery
line-line, line-line-line, line-earth faults
short circuits
103. When resetting the CSD on the ground, the engine should be
rotating at idle
stationary
rotating at Nsync
104. One of the main purposes of a CSD is to
enable generators to be paralleled
maintain constant load on the generator
prevent engine overload
105. In an undervolt condition in an AC generator system, the most likely consequence is
activation of the time delay circuit
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deactivation of the field regulatory TRs
energise the bus tie relay
106. If voltage and frequency of the generator drop to zero in flight, it would be an indication that the
bus tie interlock is inoperative
phase sequence detection circuit has operated
CSD driveshaft had sheared
107. Assuming all systems are operating normally, as aircraft electrical load increases, generator output voltage will
decrease and amperage output increases
increases and amperage output increases
remain constant and amperage output increases
108. When installing multiple batteries on aircraft, they are connected in
either parallel or series and switched between as an option
series
parallel
109. What is the small pin on the DC ground power connector?
Ground or earth
Positive to battery relay
Positive to external power relay
110. How is RAT driven?
Airstream
Compressor
Fan
111. How is an aircraft battery rated?
Ampere hours
Watts
Joules
112. A reduction in field strength of a DC shunt motor driving a constant load will result in
reduced torque and increased speed
increased torque and speed
increased torque and reduced speed
113. What are the 2 short prongs on an AC plug for?
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Using AC current to pull on interlock circuit
To prevent arcing during plug connection / disconnection
To help plug location/fit
114. A vibration contact voltage regulator consists of a shunt winding and a
current regulation coil in series
voltage regulating coil in parallel
voltage regulating coil in series
115. What is the purpose of diode in a power GCR?
To allow flow in the event of failure of the relay
To speed up the operation
To prevent back-flow of current in the EMF coil
116. Eddy currents are
caused by heating effect of the coil
caused by resistance of the coil
circulating currents
117. The small pins in the power connector plug are
neutral
negative
positive
118. When an overvolt is present on an AC generator system, the tripping circuit
trips at a set level
trips after a time delay inversely proportional to overvolt amplitude
trips after a time delay
119. In an AC distribution system, the purpose of the synchronising bus-bar is to
provide a means of monitoring the load
provide interconnection between the generator load busbars
supply essential services
120. Vibrating contact voltage regulator sensing coil is
in parallel with the field windings
across the generator output
in series with the field windings
The diode is to prevent the high current flow in the coil due to induction as the relay switches off
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121. A current transformer connected across the neutral of a 3 phase generator is for
differential protection
load monitoring
phase sequence monitoring
122. Zener diodes are for
voltage regulation
voltage stabilisation
rectification
123. AC generator output indications are measured in
KW & KVAR
KW
KVA & KW
124. Load shedding allows
more voltage to the busbar
less current to the busbar
more current to the busbar
125. How may the output of a transistorised voltage regulator be described?
Variable AC
Pulse width modulated DC
Slightly variable DC
126. In the event of complete AC generator failure in an AC split bus-bar generation system, how is power maintained to the essential AC bus-bar?
By power fed from static inverter only
By power fed from a battery supplied static inverter
By power fed from a hot battery bus-bar only
127. Which components within a generator control unit connects the output of the field power supply to the generator exciter?
Generator control relay
Generator line contactor
Generator power pilot relay
128. In what units are static inverters rated?
kVAR
A voltage regulator has two outputs, one to the generator field (pulse width modulated on a transistorised regulator) and one to the busbar (constant voltage but variable current depending on load).
Load shedding is carried out to reduce current (voltage is constant).
An AC generator is rated in KVA and KW (or KVA and power factor, from which KW can be calculated). However, flightdeck indications are KVAR and KW.
Although Zener diodes can be used (back-to-back) to protect equipment from voltage spikes (voltage stabilisation) they are more commonly associated with voltage regulation.
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kVA
kW
129. In a generator system, a stability winding is used
to control output current
in series with the field to prevent oscillations
to prevent voltage overshoot
130. On engine shutdown, what prevents GCR being tripped?
Under-current
Under-frequency
Under-volt
131. How is real and reactive load sharing achieved in an AC parallel generator system?
Real load by control of the constant speed drives, reactive load by adjustment of generator fields
Real load by control of generator fields, Reactive loads by adjustment of the constant speed drives
Real and reactive loads by control of the constant speed drives only. Output voltage is controlled by adjustment of generator fields
132. Other than when there is a fault in an aircraft battery or its charging system, when is the charger switched off automatically?
When there is a failure of one alternator in a split-bus bar system
When the battery is used for excessively high discharge currents such as in starting
When the alternators are fully loaded
133. The trimmer resister in a carbon pile volts regulator is
in parallel with the generator volts coil
in series with the generator field
in series with the generator volts coil
134. When a field relay trips the generator off-line, it can be reset
after the fault has been cleared
on the ground only
by cycling the generator switch
135. In a paralleled AC generator system both A phases must be in synchronisation and
CBA must equal ABC
phase rotation does not matter
CBA must equal CBA
Boeing opps manual states that you are allowed to attempt to reset the field after checking all parameters are now normal, as it may have been a transient fault Boe 747 classic 10.20.02
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136. When loads are shed from a busbar automatically
bus bar voltage rises
bus bar current rises
bus bar current decreases
137. What controls output from the generator?
BPCU
ELCU
GCU
138. Specific Gravity in a lead acid battery should give an indication of
charge
electrolyte temperature
electrolyte level
139. During normal engine shut-down, the generator
breaker and control relay are both tripped
control relay is tripped only
breaker is tripped only
140. The generator warning light will come on when
voltage is too high
voltage is above battery voltage
voltage is below battery voltage
141. When replacing a current transformer
it can only be fitted one way round
it can be fitted any way round
voltage/current selection must be made prior to fitting
142. The economy coil on a relay
reduces current required to hold closed
reduces current required to close
makes it cheaper to make
143. What is the function of the generator control relay?
Bring the generator on-line
Connect the generator to the busbar
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Control output voltage
144. The current consumed by a DC starter motor will
decrease as the engine speed increases
remain constant
increase as the engine speed increases
145. A neutralising agent for sulphuric acid is
sodium bicarbonate
citric acid
borax powder
146. In a split bus power distribution system
each generator supplies its own bus and distribution system in normal operation
power is split between 115V AC and 28V DC
generators are paralleled on connection to the tie bus
147. Flashing a generator field
restores magnetism
increases resistance
decreases resistance
148. When checking SG of electrolyte of lead acid battery, what should be taken into account?
Battery charge
Electrolyte temperature
Ambient temperature
149. How do you check condition of Ni-Cad battery in situ?
By voltmeter in the cockpit when battery is off load
By voltmeter connected to the battery terminal
By voltmeter in the cockpit, when battery is on load
150. The reactive load circuit in a multi-engined AC generator system
modifies generator field excitation current
modifies generator field excitation voltage
modifies generator drive speed
151. A vibrating type voltage regulator uses a volts coil
in parallel with the generator output
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in series with the generator output
in series with the current coil
152. The purpose of the economy contacts in a relay is to
reduce the current required to hold the contacts closed
close the auxiliary contacts before the main contacts
prevent contact pitting and burning
153. A vibrating contact voltage regulator has
a volts coil in parallel with the points
a resistor in series with the points
a resister in parallel with the points
154. Brush bedding-in on a starter generator can be carried out
when 80 percent of the brush area has been previously bedded in, on the bench
only off the aircraft
during flight
155. What would be the cause of a low electrolyte level in a nicad battery?
Evaporation
Over charging current
Undercharging current
156. An AC generator connected to a CSD requires
no voltage regulator as the CSD will control the voltage
no voltage regulator as the CSD will control generator frequency
a separate voltage regulator
157. If electrolyte from a lead-acid battery is spilled in the battery compartment, which procedure should be followed?
Apply sodium bicarbonate solution to the affected area followed by a water rinse
Rinse the affected area thoroughly with clean water
Apply boric acid solution to the affected area followed by a water rinse
158. Which statement regarding the hydrometer reading of a lead-acid storage battery electrolyte is true?
The hydrometer reading will give a true indication of the capacity of the battery regardless of the electrolyte temperature
The hydrometer reading does not require a temperature correction if the electrolyte temperature is 60°F
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A specific gravity correction should be subtracted from the hydrometer reading if the electrolyte temperature is above 20°C
159. An increase in the speed of a DC generator will cause the voltage to rise with the following resultant action in the voltage regulator:-
The volts coil to exert less pull thus increasing the resistance of the carbon pile
The volts coil to exert more pull thus increasing the current in the generator field
The volts coil to increase its magnetic field thus decreasing the field excitation
160. The equalizing coils on voltage regulators will
have current passing through them from the higher loaded generator to the lower
have current passing through them only when the generators are not paralleled
be connected to each other when the generators are paralleled
161. A fully charged lead-acid battery will not freeze until extremely low temperatures are reached because
the acid is in the plates, thereby increasing the specific gravity of the solution
increased internal resistance generates sufficient heat to prevent freezing
most of the acid is in the solution
162. What determines the amount of current which will flow through a battery while it is being charged by a constant voltage source?
The ampere-hour capacity of the battery
The total plate area of the battery
The state-of-charge of the battery
163. The method used to rapidly charge a nickel-cadmium battery utilizes
constant current and varying voltage
constant voltage and varying current
constant current and constant voltage
164. The presence of small amounts of potassium carbonate deposits on the top of nickel-cadmium battery cells that have been in service for time is an indication of
excessive gassing
normal operation
excessive plate sulphation
165. The servicing and charging of nickel-cadmium and lead-acid batteries together in the same service area is likely to result in
normal battery service life
increased explosion and/or fire hazard
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contamination of both types of batteries
166. If the current drawn from No.1 generator of a twin generator DC system is less than that drawn from No.2 generator, the current in the No.2 generator equalizing coil will flow
in the same direction as the current flow in the voltage coil, reducing the output of No.2 generator
in the opposite direction to the current flow in the voltage coil, reducing the output of No.2 generator
in the same direction as the current flow in the voltage coil, increasing the output of No.2 generator
167. On a C.S. driven generator, operation of the Disconnect Solenoid will disconnect the generator drive and
it can only be reset when all loads are switched off
it will automatically reset itself when the fault is rectified
resetting can only be carried out on the ground
168. In a constant frequency AC system, real load sharing is achieved by regulating the
voltage regulator
generator drive torque
generator speed
169. A constant speed drive unit has a warning light indication
for low speed
for low oil pressure
for when it is disconnected from the generator
170. The electrolyte of a nickel-cadmium battery is the lowest when the battery is
being charged
in a discharged condition
under load condition
171. Nickel-cadmium batteries which are stored for a long period of time will show a low fluid level because the
fluid level was not periodically replenished
fluid evaporates through vents
electrolyte becomes absorbed in the plates
172. The purpose of 'field flashing' is to
change the polarity of residual magnetism in a field winding
test the insulation resistance of a field winding with a 1000V supply
measure the residual magnetism in a field winding 24 hours after the field supply is removed
173. How can the state-of-charge of a nickel-cadmium battery be determined?
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By measuring discharge
By the level of the electrolyte
By measuring the specific gravity of the electrolyt
174. What may result if water is added to a nickel-cadmium battery when it is not fully charged?
No adverse results since water may be added anytime
The cell temperature will run too low for proper output
Excessive spewing will occur during the charging cycle
175. In nickel-cadmium batteries, a rise in cell temperature
causes an increase in internal resistance
causes a decrease in internal resistance
increases cell voltage
176. When a charging current is applied to a nickel-cadmium battery, the cells emit gas only
if they are defective
when the electrolyte level is low
toward the end of the charging cycle
177. The equalising coil in the carbon pile regulator
is connected in series with the carbon pile
becomes inoperative when the undervolt relay energises
modifies the effect of the voltage sensing coil
178. In a constant frequency AC system, reactive load sharing is achieved by regulating the
voltage regulator
generator drive torque
generator speed
179. Under-frequency in an AC supply would cause
overspeeding of AC motors
overheating of inductive devices
overvoltage of capacitive devices
180. The electrolyte in a lead-acid battery contains
sulphuric acid
nitric acid
hydrochloric acid
Inductive devices will pass more current if it is lower frequency
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181. In the procedure to be followed after spillage of battery acid, neutralizing may be carried out
by washing with distilled water
by applying a coating of petroleum jelly
with a dilute solution of sodium bicarbonate
182. Frequency (Hz) is the number of cycles per
minute
second
revolution
183. The three voltages of a three phase generator are
90 degrees apart
120 degrees apart
180 degrees apart
184. To restore the level of electrolyte which has been lost due to normal gassing during battery charging
sulphuric acid must be added
distilled water must be added
electrolyte of the same specific gravity as that contained in the battery must be added
185. A 12 volt lead-acid battery
has 24 cells
has 6 cells
has 12 cells
186. The active component of an A.C. circuit is 4 amps and the reactive is 3 amps. Ammeter reading will be
5 amps
7 amps
3.4 amps
187. In a delta connected generator
phase volts equals 1.73 line volts
line volts equals 1.73 phase volts
line volts equals phase volts
188. The only practical method of maintaining a constant voltage output from an aircraft generator under varying conditions of speed and load is to vary the
strength of the magnetic field
number of conductors in the armature
Total current is the vector sum of active (real) and reactive currents. 3, 4, 5 triangle in this case
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speed at which the armature rotates
189. As the generator load is increased (within its rated capacity), the voltage will
remain constant and the amperage output will increase
remain constant and the amperage output will decrease
decrease and the amperage output will increase
190. When checking the specific gravity of the electrolyte in a battery
one cell only need be checked as the remainder will read the same
only the end cells need be checked as they contain the terminals
each cell should be checked as the readings may differ
191. A lead-acid battery is considered to be fully charged when the
cells begin to gas freely
S.G. reaches 1.180
S.G. and voltage remain constant for specified period
192. Which aircraft circuit would be most likely to use frequency wild 200V AC?
Hydraulic pump
Standby compass
Windscreen heating
193. To prevent corrosion at the terminals of a lead-acid battery
copper connectors are used
the connectors may be painted
petroleum jelly may be applied to the connections
194. Before taking S.G. readings of a lead-acid battery recently removed from an aircraft
the battery must be charged at the 10 hour rate for one hour
a period of 1 hour should have elapsed to allow the S.G. to stabilize
the electrolyte temperature must be noted
195. The output of a DC generator is controlled by varying the
engine speed
field current
armature current
196. A generator rated at 30 kVA power factor 0.8 has a maximum continuous power output of
37.5 kW
Assuming no voltage regulator is considered, otherwise 'remain constant and the amperage output will increase' is the answer
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24 kW
30 kW
197. The specific gravity of the electrolyte in a lead-acid battery
remains constant with changes in the state of charge but is a useful guide to the amount of acid contained in the electrolyte
changes with the state of charge and is therefore a measure of the state of charge
remains substantially constant regardless of the state of charge and is not therefore a guide to the state of charge
198. A battery which is assumed to be 100% efficient and to have a capacity of 60 ampere-hours at the 10 hour rate will deliver
60 amps for 10 hours
60 amps for 10 hours or 6 amps for 10 hours depending upon the rate of demand
6 amps for 10 hours
199. Two 12V 25 ampere batteries connected in series will produce
12V with 25 ampere hour capacity
12V with 50 ampere hour capacity
24V with 25 ampere hour capacity
200. As an installed battery becomes fully charged by the aircraft generator
the battery contactor isolates the battery from the generator
the battery voltage nears its nominal level so the charging current decreases
the generator voltage decreases to supply the steadily decreasing current
201. On a DC shunt generator without a voltage regulator, if the load increases the generator output voltage will
decrease
increase
remain constant
202. For battery charging, the electrical supply connected to the battery must be
AC at 50 c.p.s.
DC
AC at 400 c.p.s
203. When using A.C. power on the bus bar you require 28V D.C. for battery charging
an A.C. transformer and rectifier would be required
a D.C. transformer and rectifier would be required
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an A.C. inverter would be required
204. Two similar 12V batteries connected in parallel will produce
12V e.m.f. with twice the capacity of each battery
24V e.m.f. with the same capacity as each battery
24V e.m.f. with twice the capacity of each battery
205. If a nicad battery overheats, it is an indication of
the generator voltage regulator setting is too low
thermal runaway
the generator is not connected to the bus bar
206. When checking a nicad battery in situ for serviceability
a hydrometer must be used
a load is applied to the battery and the voltmeter reading noted
the electrical circuits must be isolated before installing shorting strips
207. The output from an AC generator is taken from
connections on the stator
slip rings
slip rings via commutator
208. Load sharing on a DC generation system is achieved by
circulating currents affecting the carbon pile for voltage trimming
the load differences causing torque signals to vary the engine speed
tachogenerators varying the generators outputs as the engine speed varies
209. If a nickel cadmium aircraft battery is not required for immediate service, it should be stored
in the fully discharged condition
in a totally dry condition
in the fully charged condition
210. The correct way to determine the state of charge of a nickel-cadmium battery is
by checking the specific gravity of each cell
by a complete discharge and a measured recharge
by checking the voltage of each cell under load
211. A DC generator will be connected to the busbar after the RCCO contacts close due to
increasing battery voltage
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increasing generator voltage
a differential voltage of 0.5V battery voltage higher than generator
212. Spillage of a lead acid electrolyte is detected by
indicating paper that turns blue
litmus paper that turns black
indicating paper that turns red
213. To restore electrolyte after spillage
add distilled water only
add a mixture of acid and water of the same s.g. as that in the battery
add acid only
214. When a DC generator fails, the pilot will receive the following indications:-
Zero current on the ammeter and a red PFWL
Rising voltage and current discharge with a red PFWL
An audio bell and red PFWL
215. The purpose of an inverter is to convert
DC to AC
AC to a higher frequency AC
AC to DC
216. With a vibrating-contact type voltage regulator the adjustment of generator voltage is carried out by
adjustment of voltage coil resistance
alteration of the field resistance
alteration of contact spring tension
217. Battery SG is measured using a
hygrometer
hydrometer
hypsometer
218. A battery for use on aircraft must have a capacity of
90%
80%
50%
219. When connecting aircraft batteries, the last lead to connect is the
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positive earth
positive
negative
220. Polarization in a cell is
the fact that hydrogen bubbles form on the -ve plate
the fact that as a battery discharges, the -ve plate's potential approaches that of the +ve plate's
the establishing of a potential across the cell
221. Battery capacity is checked by
discharging at a constant current and checking the time taken to reach the discharged state
measuring the terminal voltage whilst on load and multiplying by the current drawn
discharging while maintaining the voltage constant by varying a resistor in the circuit and checking the time to be discharged
222. The frequency of an AC generator is dependant on the
field strength and the speed of the generator
number of pairs of poles and the speed of the rotor
number of conductors and the field strength
223. To adjust the voltage output of an AC generator, whilst maintaining constant frequency, it is necessary to
alter the driving speed
alter the field current
alter the reactance of the stator winding circuit
224. In a paralleled AC generation system load sharing is for
reactive load only
real load only
real and reactive load
225. Single phase components in a 3 phase system may be connected between
any phase and earth or between any two phases
phases A and B only
the phase and earth only
226. A frequency wild supply would be suitable for
deicing loads
3-phase torque motors
instruments and navigation systems
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227. Three 12V, 40Ah accumulators in series would give
36V 40Ah
12V 120Ah
36V 120Ah
228. Three 12V, 40Ah accumulators in parallel would give
36V 120Ah
12V 120Ah
12V 40Ah
229. An inverter can be an AC generator driven by
a DC motor
an AC motor
either an AC or DC motor
230. When mixing electrolyte for lead acid batteries
add water to acid
the method of mixing is unimportant
add acid to water
231. The RPM of a 6 pole, 400 Hz alternator is
6000
8000
4000
232. The ratio between apparent power and true power is the
power rating
efficiency
power factor
233. Apparent power is measured in
Volt Amps
Kilovolts
Watts
234. A Ni-Cad battery consists of 19, 1.2 volt cells. What will be the nominal battery output?
24V
22V
400/3 x 60
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20V
235. The preferred method of battery charging a Ni-Cad battery is constant
voltage
speed
current
236. When operating two AC generators unparalleled, the phase of each
must be in opposition to one another
is unimportant
must be synchronized
237. When the GPU is connected to the aircraft
it is not paralleled with the aircraft generator
it is paralleled with the aircraft generator
it supplies essential services
238. A lead-acid battery with 12 cells connected in series (no-load voltage = 2.1 volts per cell) furnishes 10 amperes to a load of 2 ohms resistance. The internal resistance of the battery in this instance is
5.0 ohms
0.52 ohms
2.52 ohms
239. The rating of an aircraft alternator is 40 KVA at PF 0.8 lagging.
The maximum load under all conditions is 40KW.
The maximum load under all conditions is 40KVA.
The maximum load permitted is 32KW
240. An I.D.G (integrated drive generator)
incorporates the alternator and CSD as one unit
has separate CSDU
does not require a CSDU
241. A P.M.G (Permanent Magnet Generator) is a small built in generator which
provides initial excitation
only rotates during starting
only rotates after starting
242. To parallel an alternator with another alternator the alternators must have the same
frequency, RPM and phase relationship
OCV = 2.1 x 12 = 25.2 CCV = 10 x 2 = 20. Internal voltage drop = 5.2 V. Internal R=V/I = 5.2/10 = 0.52
PF = TP/AP 0.8 = TP/40 AP = 40 x 0.8 = 32 KW
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frequency, voltage and phase relationship
frequency, RPM and speed
243. Speed of an alternator may be controlled by
keeping engine rpm constant
varying the field current
CSDU (constant speed drive unit)
244. 'Frequency wild' alternators supply
resistive circuits
inductive circuits
capacitive circuits
245. The real load of an alternator is directly related to
output shaft rpm
output voltage
output shaft torque
246. How is initial voltage build-up ensured in a brushless generating system, before full output is available from the voltage regulator?
Permanent magnets are mounted between the exciter field poles
A switch must be operated by the crew to provide excitation form the dc busbar to bring generator on line
Excitation from the DC busbars is automatically provided during the start sequence
247. Insulation resistance of electrical machines is
normally lower when the machine is hot
not affected by change of temperature of machine
normally higher when the machine is hot
248. The purpose of a thermistor in a brushless AC generator is to
keep the resistance of the rectifiers nearly constant at varying temperatures
compensate for temperature changes in the main AC stator windings
keep the exciter field resistance nearly constant at varying temperatures
249. The term 'random paralleling' means the incoming alternator's output voltage frequency and phase relationship is
the outputs are constant
the same
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not the same
250. One lamp is connected across corresponding phases of two alternators. They will be synchronised when
the lamp is extinguished
the lamp is either at maximum brightness or is extinguished
the lamp is maximum brightness
251. Automatic synchronising means that the incoming alternator's voltage and frequency
can be synchronised using the two lamps provided at the system's panel
can be checked at the system's electrical panel by selecting the relevant alternator
cannot be checked
252. The danger of random paralleling is the possibility of
ground power disconnection
disconnection of the other alternators
crash engagement
253. What is monitored in a constant speed drive?
High oil temperature and low oil press
Low oil press and CSD speed
Low oil temperature and low oil press
254. The CSD or IDG speed governor setting
is not allowed to be adjusted
is adjusted with the engine stationary
is adjusted with the engine running
255. An external ground power supply can be used for
only the emergency busbar services
all normal services required by flight and ground crew
only the ground handling busbar services
256. The APU generator can normally be
connected in parallel with the aircraft's main generators
used during flight as a back up supply if the main aircraft supply fails
connected in parallel with the ground power supply
257. The impedance on a run of co-axial cable is
inversely proportional to the length of cable
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proportional to the length of cable
not affected by length of cable
258. Galley loads are supplied from the
main bus bar
ground service bus
battery bus bar
259. A ni-cad battery is stored in the
dry condition
fully charged condition
fully discharged condition
260. A 6-diode Transformer Rectifier Unit (TRU) changes
single phase AC to direct current
direct current to AC
three phase AC to direct current
261. A frequency wild AC generator is used for
deicing loads
fluorescent lights
instruments
262. What should you do if the electrolyte is found to be low in one cell of a lead acid battery?
Replace the defective cell
Top-up the individual cell with distilled water
Cell is defective, replace the battery
263. What is the purpose of the diode on a contactor?
Prevent spikes
Prevent bounce
To prevent current going the wrong way
Equipment and Furnishings (ATA 25)
1. Megaphones must be stowed so they can withstand an inertia force of
9g
15g
It is known as a 'flywheel diode'
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12g
2. The cylinder in a life jacket is inflated using
compressed air
CO2
nitrogen
3. Toilets must have a smoke detection system
that gives a warning light in the cockpit
connected to a pump to pump the smoke out
that gives a warning light in the cockpit and an aural warning in the main cabin
4. If seat belt stitching is worn, where are the replacement stitches placed?
Over the originals
Diagonally
Alongside the original
5. Type and Quantity of emergency equipment to be carried is specified in which document?
Schedule 4 of the ANO
CAAIPs Leaflet 5-7
Airworthiness Notice 79
6. Life jackets are inflated with cylinders of
Nitrogen
air
CO2
7. After a successful ditching, the liferafts deployment will
have detailed instructions in a booklet in a seat pocket
be briefed by the cabin crew
be rapid and obvious with easily and readily displayed instructions adjacent to the liferafts
8. Cargo and baggage compartments in which a fire is completely confined come under
Class B
Class C
Class D
9. How do you clean seat belts?
With MEK
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With white spirit
With warm water with low alkalinity soap
10. A pilot's safety harness buckle and adjustment strap is
not allowed to slip under any forces
allowed to slip if vertical acceleration exceeds 5G
allowed to slip if side loads exceed 2.5 G
11. How often are life jackets inspected?
Every 12 months
In accordance with the AMM
In accordance with the manufacturers specification
12. Inspection proof testing of seat-belts is carried out to
4.5g
9g
0.5g
13. Where would you find information regarding galley equipment?
BCARs
ANO
AWN 99
14. Where the aircraft passenger seating capacity exceeds 149 but less than 200 then:
1 megaphone is required
3 megaphones are required
2 megaphones are required
15. Where would you find information on life-raft deployment?
Cabin safety on-board card
Cabin operations manual
JARs
16. When testing emergency slide bottles
any pin could be checked by connecting directly to ground
one pin must be grounded to the cartridge body at one time
all three pins must be shorted together and grounded to the cartridge body
17. The minimum passenger aisle width for an aircraft with a seating capacity of 20 or more is
Testing of the cartridges is the same procedure as testing fire bottle cartridges.
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15 inches
dependant upon aircraft type
24 inches
18. Aircraft emergency escape slides are usually pressurised with
helium
CO2
oxygen
19. The CO2 in a life raft is released
manually
on contact with water
electrically
20. Vertical projected separation between seat rows must be
5 inches
4 inches
3 inches
Equipment and Furnishings (ATA 25) II
1. What is the minimum distance between a seat cushion and the seat in-front of it?
10 inches
7 inches
5 inches
2. A galley catering trolley with electrics is classed as
a controlled item
an uncontrolled item
neither, as it is removable
3. What placard must be visible above a waste paper bin in a toilet?
No Naked Flame
No Smoking
No Cigarettes
4. Attendant call is achieved by pressing a button on the passenger service unit (PSU). To reset the light
the button is pulled out
All inflatable emergency equipment are inflated with CO2
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a reset switch on the attendants panel is operated
the button is pushed again
5. Hot fluids in an aircraft galley must have closed container lids at temperatures above
45°C
65°C
55°C
6. The 'fasten seatbelt' light switch should be in reach of the
captain
first officer
both the captain and the first officer
7. What is the EASA regulation of the minimum separation between a seat and another seat or structure?
10 inches
There is no EASA guideline
7 inches
8. What is the minimum separation between a seat back cushion and another seat or fixed structure?
26 inches
24 inches
28 inches
9. With regard to forward/rearward passenger seat installation
you can only fit seats as stated in the Declaration of Design and Performance (DPP)
you can fit seats facing forward or rearward
you can only fit seats facing forward
10. Where is information regarding flame resistant furnishing materials?
CAAIPs
AWN 58
CAP 747 Mandatory Requirements for Airworthiness
11. When loading a cargo aircraft
the CofG limits of the aircraft could be exceeded under careful monitored circumstances
the weight limits of the aircraft could be exceeded under careful monitored circumstances
the manufacturer specifies the maximum floor loads
12. The minimum vertical projected separation between seat rows is
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5 inches
7 inches
3 inches
13. Cargo nets are manufactured from
polypropylene
hessian
nylon
14. Galley trolleys must have placards indicating
Must be stowed for take-off, landing and turbulence.
maximum weight, position, flight number
location, position, flight number
15. PTV type entertainment equipment
has no capacity for digital information processing and transmitting
is installed with seat electronic unit and multiplexing techniques
is not the part of maintenance schedule
16. What type of brakes are employed on a galley cart?
A brake on one wheel only
Two colour-coded pedals
A single pedal bar
17. On large aeroplanes, containerised cargo is held down by
side cart guides and fore and aft latches
rope
netting
18. Galley equipment which does not need electrical power is called
controlled equipment
uncontrolled equipment
minimum equipment
19. A galley trolley will be designed to
does not matter as the trolleys move
not exceed the floor limits more than 3 times in one hour
not exceed the floor loading limits
Cargo nets are made from nylon or polyester (not polypropylene).
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20. Information on Galley equipment can be found in
BCAR Section L
Airworthiness Notice 99
CAAIPS
Fire Protection (ATA 26)
1. On pulling the fire handle, the aural warning
stays on, the light extinguishes, the generator goes off line
goes off, the light remains on, the generator goes off line
goes off, the light goes off, hydraulics, bleed air and generator goes off
2. Chemical fire extinguishers extinguish fires by
cools the material on fire below ignition point
releases oxygen to extinguish the fire
reacting with the oxygen in the air or the flame, rendering it inert
3. A fire test is carried out and the test button is released, but the light remains on. This is because
there is a fire
of a high resistance fire wire
of a broken fire wire
4. A fire detection system can pass through one zone to another providing
the system is duplicated
it is separated by steel
the system is protected
5. Toilet smoke detectors activate
a warning light and/or indication in cabin
an auto sprinkler system
an electric pump to auto vent smoke to atmosphere
6. Engine fire bottle pressure at 70°F is
1250 psi +/- 25
600psi +/- 25
1500 psi +/- 25
7. In the event of a fire being caused by the oxygen supply
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oxygen supply must be stopped
a dry powder extinguisher is used
a carbon dioxide extinguisher is used
8. After a fire detection system test, the red light remains ON. This indicates
high resistance
a fire
a short circuit
9. First digit number of halogenated hydrocarbon extinguishers represents the number of
fluorine atoms
chlorine atoms
carbon atoms
10. What type of gas is used as a propellant for a high rate of discharge extinguishing system?
Carbon dioxide
Nitrogen
Hydrogen
11. A fire detection system should be
designed to withstand vibration & mechanical loads sustained during normal operation
designed to detect fires only
positioned in a location determined by the manufacture during the design
12. Which areas of a civil transport aircraft would have smoke detectors fitted?
Main wheel bays and engine bays
Passenger cabins and integral fuel tanks
Freight holds, baggage compartments and equipment bays
13. A short circuit on a fire detection element will result in
system does not work and no readings
red fire warning light
false alarm
14. In which of the following would you expect to find a smoke detector?
undercarriage bay
APU bay
Battery bay
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15. You would expect to find a squib connected to
a fire suppression system
a fire detection system
a smoke detection system
16. Engine wing firebottles should be charged with nitrogen at 15°C to
1250 psi
600 psi
1500 psi
17. A fire that can be put out by a crew member in a cargo bay is in a
class B compartment
class D compartment
class A compartment
18. In a capacitive fire detection system, if
there is a break, the system will not work
there is a break, the system will work but not test satisfactory
there is a short to earth, the system will work but not test satisfactory
19. A fire detection zone wiring can pass through another fire zone when
the system is different but the extinguishant is the same
the system and the extinguishing system are the same
the system is the same but the extinguishant is different
20. When a fire test on a Systron Donor fire detector system is carried out
the signal passes through the centre and back through the outer to give warning
it checks the integrity of the contacts
a signal passes through the unbroken centre conductor to produce the warning
21. When inspecting lavatory installations
the ashtray must be made of a thermoplastic material
the ashtray should not be located close to the toilet paper holder
'No Smoking' sign should be fitted next to the ashtrays only
22. Lavatories must have, in the disposal container
water/glycol extinguisher with white ball markings indicating when discharged
Freon extinguisher with black ball markings indicating when discharged The temperature sensitive strip changes color from white to black at the indicated temp. B737 MM 26-24-00 pg1
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Freon extinguisher with white ball markings indicating when discharged
23. A fire detection loop must be capable of
using master warning visual signals only
using master warning visual and aural signals
detecting fire/overheat condition within 5 seconds and extinguishing such that after 30 seconds the condition is no longer present
24. A Systron-Donner fire detection system uses
helium gas
oxygen gas
nitrogen gas
25. A toilet is fitted with thermal protection
to protect against continuous flushing
to protect against the dangers of smoke and fire in the event of an overheat
to protect against freezing at altitude
26. What external warning is there for an APU fire?
Aural
Red light
Both aural and a red light
27. Engine fire bottle pressure switches are operated by
AC or DC
DC
AC
28. Fire tests on aircraft internal furnishings must be carried out
only when equipment items fail random tests
every two years
every five years
29. A cockpit check on the engine firewire system is a
continuity check
calibration check
function check
30. When the fire handle is operated it
cuts off fuel and hydraulics. Generator remains on line to provide electrical power
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cuts off field current, hydraulics and fuel and operates fire extinguishers
operates fire extinguisher only
31. What is the contamination monitor for, in a Systron Donner fire detection system?
Integrity comparator
Volts drop
Dirty contacts
32. Fireproofing of cabin material should be done
every 5 years
when a sample fails
every 2 years
33. What test is carried out to ensure serviceability of a squib?
Bottles are fired
Safety ohmmeter is used to check voltage
A continuity check
34. In a gas firewire system, what causes the firewire caption to come on when heat is applied?
Capacitance increase
Pressure
Continuity
35. Toilet fire detection issues can be found in
AWN 83
CAAIPs
AWN 80
36. The outside casing of a firewire has
same potential as ground
28VDC potential above ground
115VDC potential above ground
37. A cargo compartment which will contain a fire itself and ventilate is a class
D
A
C
38. Smoke detectors consist of a
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photoelectric cell detecting 10% smoke
lamp detecting 2% smoke
photoelectric cell detecting 2% smoke
39. In a toilet smoke condition, what would be the indication?
Light in the cabin
Either a light or an audible warning in the cabin
Audible warning in the cabin
40. What do you check when carrying out an insulation check on a continuous firewire loop?
The outside of the firewire to earth
The firewire
The firewire, sensor & controlle
41. When the fire-handle switch is pulled, a
red warning light stays on. Generator, hydraulics & fuel stays on
red warning light stays on. Generator, hydraulics, & fuel is cut off
red warning light goes off. Generator goes offline
42. An indicator pin is protruding from a portable fire extinguisher. What does it indicate?
The bottle is still pressurized
Bottle is empty
Bottle is full
Fire Protection (ATA 26)II
1. A hand held fire extinguishers weight is stamped on the
base of container
head
support bracket
2. The weight of an extinguisher is stamped
on base of body
on bracket
on head fitting
3. How many fire extinguishers are required on an aircraft having 401 - 500 passengers?
8
5
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6
4. What are the minimum number of fire bottles in a cabin with 201- 300 people?
4 Methyl Bromide
3 BCF
4 Fire Extinguishers
5. Portable fire extinguishers are operated by
turning upside down and squeeze button/trigger
breaking the tell tale/tamper-proof seal then operated by the handle
one single operation until fire extinguisher is empty
6. How many fire extinguishers are required on an aircraft with 501 passengers?
7
6
5
7. How can fire extinguisher be identified as being used?
Check the tell-tale wire
Weighed
Check the pressure
8. How often do hand-held extinguishers have to be weighed?
Bi-annually
Every 5 years
Annually
9. CO2 fire extinguishers are used on
engines only
all fires in fuselage
baggage holds only
10. Hand held fire extinguishers are weighed
in accordance with the approved maintenance schedule
every 24 months
every 5 years
Flight Controls (ATA 27)
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1. In an aircraft flying control system employing servo-tabs, the installation of external ground locks to the main control surface
would also prevent movement of the control column
would not prevent movement of the control column
is unnecessary since the system is irreversible and therefore the control surface cannot be displaced by the wind
2. An artificial feel system is required with
proportional controls
power operated controls
power assisted controls
3. If aerodynamic balancing is increased, what is the effect on the centre of pressure of the control surface?
It moves forward
It is not effected
It moves back
4. A control system in the parallel mode,
when the rudder moves the control pedals stay in position
the pedals deflect with the rudder deflection
the control pedals moves only in the approach
5. What is a Bowden cable designed for?
Both pull and push operations
Push operations only
Pull operations only
6. A full time yaw damper system detects
all frequencies
only low frequencies
band pass frequencies
7. Fly-by-wire systems rely on inputs from
electrical signals
the pilot via control rods, and electrical signals
air-data and 'Q' feel
8. The yaw damper
disengages when an engine fails
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augments aircraft stability
disengages during a coordinated turn
9. Operation of the stick shaker during landing means
the aircraft is about to land
the aircraft is approaching the stall speed
the aircraft has stalled
10. A static friction check is carried out during control surface rigging using
a spring balance to measure control 'break-out force'
a cable tensiometer to ensure cable tensions are correct
a spring balance to ensure there is a minimum amount of feel when the controls are moved
11. If flaps try to move asymmetrically on selection, they
drive to the up position and lock
drive to the down position and lock
stop moving and stay in the same position
12. A stick-shaker comes into operation when the aircraft
is approaching a stall
is approaching the 'critical mach number'
goes supersonic
13. Automatic trim systems on some aircraft installations are actuated with two speeds of operation. Operation at high speed is used during
aircraft at altitude and straight and level
flaps down
mach trim
14. With respect to flight spoilers, they
only operate in flight
only operate on the ground
can operate both on the ground and in flight
15. Considering an aileron to rudder crossfeed, in a left wing down turn, the
rudder moves left
rudder moves right
rudder remains in the centre
16. Flight control locks are used
Flight spoilers are used in flight and on the ground. However Ground spoilers can ONLY be used on the ground.
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when working with hydraulics
are only used in flight
during gusty weather conditions
17. A stick shaker acts
at stall
after stall
before stall
18. Dutch roll is eliminated by
differential ailerons
the Dutch Roll damper
the yaw damper
19. A mach trimmer counters
azimuth instability
lateral instability
longitudinal instability
20. The bearing used in a fibre pulley is
a plain bearing
a roller bearing
a ball bearing
21. When the primary stops fitted to a control run have been contacted
the secondary stops will just be in contact
a clearance exists at the secondary stops
the secondary stops have been over-ridden
22. Excessive wear on both sides of the control cable pulley groove is evidence of
pulley misalignment
excessive cable tension
cable misalignment
23. A universal protractor used to measure degrees of aileron travel should be zeroed
with the aileron in the neutral position
with the aileron in the down position
when the aircraft is in level flight attitude
Ball bearings are used in fibre pulleys
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24. A flying control static friction check
demonstrates the force the pilot requires to overcome system inertia and move the controls
will demonstrate that a high force is always necessary to operate non-powered controls.
can only be carried out during flight
25. What is an aileron balance cable for?
To allow aircraft to fly hands off
To allow the cable to be tensioned
To correct for wing heaviness
26. The vane of a stall warning system with a flapper switch is activated by the change of the
stagnation point
point of lowest pressure
centre of pressure
27. With the elevator trim wheel adjusted fully aft. (nose up), range of movement of the elevator is restricted
for 'up' travel movement
neither up nor down, as movement of the trim tab would make no difference to the movement
for 'down' travel movement
28. On the ground, spoilers/speedbrakes deploy to
60°
30°
15°
29. Stick shaker stall warnings should be activated at
VS
1.2 VS
1.05 VS
30. Stick pusher is installed in aircraft when
the aircraft is directional unstable
the aircraft has failed to meet the stalling requirements by normal category
the aircraft has no yaw damper installed
31. A horn balance on a control will
increase degree of movement at high speed
decrease degree of movement at low speed
A static friction check demonstrates the force the pilot requires to overcome system inertia and move the controls
Use of trim reduces the associated control movement direction
In the air - 30 degrees and a further 15 degrees with ailerons.
For a given pilot effort, the horn balance increases movement.
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decrease degree of movement at high speed
32. In normal flight, if the control column is pulled back, a servo tab fitted to the elevator will
move up
move down
remain in line with the elevator
33. In normal flight, if the control wheel is moved to the left, then the aileron on the right wing will initially
decrease the angle of attack of the right hand wing
keep the angle of attack of the right wing constant
increase the angle of attack of the right hand wing
34. Which of the following is the speed in level flight that would activate the stall warning?
VS1G + 15kts
1.05VS1G
1.2VS1G
35. On an aircraft fitted with elevons in normal flight, if a column is moved forward, the elevons will
both move down
remain stationary
both move up
36. The function of the stick pusher is
to activate and push the stick forward prior to stick shaker
to vibrate the controls
to activate and push the stick forward at or beyond a certain value of angle of attack
37. The input to a stick shaker comes from
the airspeed, and sometimes the rate of change in airspeed
the angle of attack only
angle of attack, and sometimes the rate of change in angle of attack
38. Stick pushers must be installed in aeroplanes with dangerous stall characteristics. Dangerous stall characteristics include:
excessive wing drop and deep stall
pitch down and minor wing drop
pitch down and increase in speed
39. The sensor of a stall warning system can be activated by a change in the location of the
transition region
The downgoing aileron (the right one) has an increase in AoA locally.
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centre of lift
stagnation point
40. To avoid moments bending the root of the wing, the aircraft will be fitted with
integrated fuel monitoring system
symmetrical flight control trim
automatic trim control for controlled turns and rudder movements
41. A yaw damper gain could be fitted with
decreases sensitivity for decreased speed
increased sensitivity for increased speed
decreases sensitivity for increased speed
42. In an aircraft system employing balance tabs, the installation of external ground locks between the control surface and the balance tabs
is unnecessary since the system is irreversible
would prevent the movement of the control column
would not prevent the movement of the control column
43. The two switches for pitch trim are located
on the control column acting like an 'AND' switch
on the control column acting like an 'OR' switch
on the control column with the captain having priority over the First Officer.
44. If the flaps are sluggish or erratic on final approach, the possible cause may be
bearing seized
flap tracks out of rigging
flap motor internal leakage
45. Speed brakes are a device used on large transport category aircraft
to prevent aquaplaning
for speed reduction after landing
to increase drag in order to maintain a steeper gradient of descent
46. In fully Fly By Wire aircraft, wing root bending moments are reduced by
transfer of fuel from one wing tank to another
symmetrical application of ailerons
operation of the elevator
47. Yaw damping rate changes with
Probably referring to Load Alleviation Function
The 'split' trim switch has one half closing a relay to 'enable' power to the trim motor, and to engage the clutch. The other switch half is to supply the power to the motor. Both must be operated together, to operate the trim.
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altitude
airspeed
flap position
48. What is the main purpose of a frise aileron?
Increase drag on the up going wing
Decrease drag on the up going wing
Help pilot overcome aerodynamic loads
49. What happens to a hydraulically operated flight control surface when pressure is removed?
Droop
Remain in last position
Go to neutral
50. Oscillation and hunting of flight control surface are prevented by
feedback from control surface
fitting a tachogenerator
feedback from the servo motor
51. Stick shaker activates at a speed which is above the stalling speed by
7%
10.321%
4%
52. A wing mounted stall warning vane
moves up at impending stall
gives a visual indication of impending stall
moves down at impending stall
53. During an autopilot controlled turn
ailerons and rudder will move
ailerons, rudder and THS will move
ailerons, rudder and elevators will move
54. On a full fly-by-wire system, a speedbrake screwjack servomotor is controlled by the
flight control computer
flight management and guidance computer
flight augmentation computer
The Frise aileron increases drag on the up-going aileron, which is on the downgoing wing. And Vise versa on the other aileron
The drop in pressure releases a valve which lets the fluid pass easily from one side of actuator piston to the other. This is to prevent a hydraulic lock and permit manual reversion. Surfaces behave like manually controlled surfaces.
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55. In a fly-by-wire aircraft, what controls the roll spoilers?
Flight augmentation computer
Flight control computer
Flight management computer
56. Mass balance weights are used to
balance the tabs
balance the trailing edge of flying control surfaces
counteract flutter on control surfaces
57. Active load control involves
intervention & monitoring the human pilot
limiting the deflection of control surface with airspeed
varying lift force to control vertical movement of the aircraft
58. Active load control uses
elevator and stab
elevator and aileron
aileron and spoiler
59. The purpose of the autopilot servo-motor torque setting is to
protect the servo motor
prevent control surface runaway
damp the system oscillation
60. In a fully Fly By Wire Aircraft, ground spoilers are deployed automatically when the aircraft is on ground and
weight on ground switch is activated
brakes are deployed
thrust reversers are deployed
61. In a fully Fly By Wire aircraft, rudder trim is nulled by the
Flight Augmentation Computers
electric flight control unit
Flight Guidance and Management Compute
62. Aileron input is fed into the yaw damper system to
prevent nose pitching up
prevent nose pitching down
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prevent adverse yaw in a turn
63. Pitch trimming in autopilot is initiated by
continued pitch input
pitch of aircraft in cruise
C of G movement
64. Differential aileron control will
cause a nose up moment
cause a nose down moment
prevent yawing in conjunction with rudder input
65. On a fly-by-wire aircraft, what controls stabilizer trim?
ELAC and SEC
ELAC
SEC
66. In an automatic flight control system, when may the yaw damper be applied?
During either manual or automatic control
During automatic control only
During manual control only
67. Flutter can be prevented by
balance panels
trim tabs
mass balance
68. In a fully fly by wire system, if the elevator loses all electrical power
servos remain stationary and provide damping
servos move to neutral and lock
servos lock at last position
69. In an auto trim system, for the trim system to operate
operation of the trim controls is required
autopilot need not be engaged
autopilot must be engaged
70. In an autopilot coordinated turn, when the turn angle is reached
both ailerons are down
If the elevator is deflected over a long time, the AFCS trims the horizontal stabilizer to eliminate the elevator deflection load
Due to the aircraft's neutral lateral stability, the ailerons are neutralised (faired) and the aircraft will hold the turn
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the ailerons are faired
one is up one is down
71. How is automatic angle of attack protection provided?
Fast/Slow indication
Reduce flap deployment
Autothrottle applying more power
72. A single failure of fly by wire
will limit the flight profile
will reduce the operational height and speed
has no effect on the aircraft's operation
73. Fly-by-wire load alleviation function in turbulent weather conditions will result in
ailerons moving symmetrically upward
spoiler moving symmetrically upward
ailerons and spoiler moving symmetrically upward
74. Autotrim will switch to 'slow' when
flaps are retracted
landing gear up and locked
flaps are extended
75. How is the stabiliser automatically controlled in normal manual operation?
Mach/Speed Trim
Pitch Trim
Electric Trim
76. Spoiler position feedback is provided by a
an R.V.D.T.
a S.C.M.
a microswitch
77. Rudder 'Q' limiting
increases rudder movement with increase in airspeed
increases feel as airspeed increases
restricts rudder movement with increase in airspeed
78. Elevons combine the functions of both
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rudder and elevator
elevator and aileron
rudder and aileron
79. A differential aileron system is designed to
prevent adverse yaw
compensate for aileron reversal
minimise flutter
80. An artificial feel system is required
for power operated control systems
for proportional control systems
for power assisted control systems
81. A tandem P.F.C.U.
has the actuator rams co-axial
has two control surfaces under its control
has the actuator rams parallel
82. What is the purpose of a differential Frise aileron?
To decrease the drag and decrease the rate of yaw and turn
To increase the drag to increase the rate of yaw and turn
Has no effect on rate of yaw and turn
83. Active load control uses
elevator and stab
ailerons and spoilers
elevator and ailerons
84. An artificial feel system is necessary in a powered flying control system to
increasing the sensitivity of the control system
prevent overloading of the power control units
provide the pilot with simulated stick forces
85. In the event of hydraulic failure in a power control system, a requirement of the manual reversion is that it must be
possible, but not recommended
operated by the standby hydraulic system
automatic and instantaneous
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86. The purpose of control cable regulators is to
maintain preset cable tensions during flight
compensate for low temperature only
compensate for high temperature only
87. Range of movements of power operated flying control surfaces are limited by
travel of the jack ram
travel of the jack body
mechanical stops in the control system
88. The aircraft is controlled about the lateral axis by the
elevator
rudder
ailerons
89. The aircraft is controlled about the normal axis by the
elevator
rudder
ailerons
90. The purpose of the Servo Valve in a power operated control is
to revert the system to manual operation
to provide pressure to operate the control
to direct hydraulic fluid to the jack in response to the pilot's control in cockpit
91. A stick shaker is a device which
vibrates the control column near stalling speed
helps extricate an aircraft from soft ground
gives a short period of extra lift to assist take off
92. The aircraft is controlled about the longitudinal axis by the
rudder
elevator
ailerons
93. Ruddervators when moved, will move
together only
either opposite each other or together, depending on the selection
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opposite to each other only
94. As a consequence of the C of G being close to its aft limit
the stick forces will be high in fore and aft pitch, due to the high longitudinal stability
the stick forces when pitching the nose down will be very high
the stick forces to manoeuvre longitudinally will be low due to the low stability
95. An anti-balance tab is moved
hydraulically
when the C.G. changes
via a fixed linkage
96. A servo tab is operated
by a trim wheel and moves in the opposite direction to the main control surfaces when moved
automatically, and moves in the same direction as the main control surfaces
directly by the pilot to produce forces which in turn move the main control surfaces
97. When checking full range of control surface movement, they must be positioned by
operating the flightdeck/cockpit controls until the system is against the primary stops
moving them by hand directly until against the secondary stops
moving them by hand directly until against the primary stops
98. The higher speed of the high wing in a banked turn causes it to have more drag than the low wing, this may be compensated for by
increasing the 'nose up' pitch by use of the elevators
use of the rudder control
operating the ailerons into the opposite sense once the correct angle of bank has been reached
99. The type of flap which extends rearwards when lowered is called a
split flap
plain flap
Fowler flap
100. Which of the following trailing edge flaps give an increase in wing area?
Fowler flap
Slotted flap
Split flap
101. Which of the following is not a primary flying control?
Tailplane
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Elevator
Rudder
102. A tab which assists the pilot to move a flying control by moving automatically in the opposite direction to the control surface is called a
trim tab
geared balance tab
servo tab
103. What is fitted on the aircraft to enable the pilot to reduce his speed rapidly in event of severe turbulence, or speed tending to rise above the 'Never Exceed Limit'?
Wheel brakes
Lift dumpers
Air brakes
104. When spoilers are used asymmetrically, they combine with
rudder
ailerons
elevators
105. What is used to correct any tendency of the aircraft to move towards an undesirable flight attitude?
Balance tabs
Trim tabs
Spring tabs
106. With hydraulic ram operated flying controls, when the pressure is reduced to zero, the flying control surfaces
remain in the position they were when power was removed
droop
stay at neutral
107. Powered flying control actuators
are operated by the autopilot only
provide feedback to the pilot
transmit pilot input to the control surfaces
108. A stick shaker operates
after the stall
just before the stall
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at the onset of the stall
109. In a power assisted flight control system, the feel required is normally supplied by
air loads on the control surfaces
stretching springs
'Q' feel
110. Irreversibility of a fully powered control surface is provided by
air loads on the control surface
nulling of the servo valve
the jack ram being attached to structure
111. 'Q' feel units use
pitot pressure only
static pressure only
pitot and static pressures
112. Spoiler panels are positioned so that when deployed
no yaw takes place
roll will not occur
pitch trim is not affected
113. Powered flight control systems are used on transport aircraft
due to the increase in speed and size of aircraft
because at low level air density is high
because the pilot has too many tasks to perform
114. A differential aileron control system results in
aileron drag being reduced on the inner wing in a turn
aileron drag being reduced on the outer wing in a turn
aileron drag being compensated by small rudder movements
115. Spoiler panels are controlled by
the aileron control wheel and speed brake lever
the aileron control wheel only
a speed brake lever only
116. A lift transducer is normally fitted
to the nose area of the aircraft
Power 'assisted' controls have aerodynamic feedback. Power 'operated' controls use a Q feel system
Nulling the servo valve produces a hydraulic lock.
Lift transducer, also known as a stall sensor
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on the leading edge of the wing
on the elevator control system
117. If electrical power is removed from a fly by wire spoiler system, the spoiler panels
go to full up
go to down if any are not already down
remain where they are
118. In a fly-by-wire control system, the follow-up transducer is fitted to
the control system computer
the hydraulic actuator
the pilot's input
119. The down position of the speed brake lever is detented to
lock the speed brakes down during flight
allow the ground speed brakes to be used on touchdown
prevent inadvertent operation
120. Asymmetric flap operation is prevented to keep to a minimum the tendancy of
pitch changes
yawing
rolling
121. High thrust stall warning is activated when the thrust of opposite engine reads
greater than 50%
greater than 75%
greater than 90%
122. A differential aileron control is one which gives
a larger aileron up travel than down
equal aileron travel in each direction, but variable for stick movement
the down-going aileron more travel than the up-going one
123. When the control column is moved back and the hand-wheel turned to the left
the elevators move up and the left aileron moves down
the elevators move down and the left aileron moves down
the left aileron moves up and the elevators move up
124. A series type yaw damper
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moves the rudder and the ailerons to damp out Dutch roll
moves the rudder only
moves the rudder pedals and the rudder
125. A stick shaker
vibrates the elevators to cause buffeting of the airframe
is a linear actuator attached to the base of the control column
is an eccentric flywheel driven by an electric motor and mounted on the control column
126. If the control column is moved forward and to the left
left aileron moves down, right aileron up, elevator down
left aileron moves up, right aileron moves down, elevator up
left aileron moves up, right aileron down, elevator down
127. On an aircraft fitted with spoilers for lateral control, roll to the right is caused by
left spoiler extending, right spoiler remaining retracted
both spoilers extending
right spoiler extending, left spoiler remaining retracted
128. When an aileron trim control in the cockpit is moved to counteract a tendency to fly left wing low, an aileron trim tab fitted to the port aileron will
move up and this will cause the left aileron to move down and the right aileron to move up
move up and cause the left aileron to move down and the right aileron to move down to a lesser degree
move up and cause the left aileron to move down but the right aileron will remain neutral
129. You have adjusted the elevator trim tab to correct for nose heavy. What was the direction of travel of the trim tab?
The port elevator tab has moved up and starboard moved down
The elevator trim tab has moved down
The elevator trim tab has moved up
130. Pulleys in a flight control system are made from
brass
Tufnol or aluminium alloy
stainless steel
131. A tension regulator in the flight control cable system of a large all metal aircraft is used primarily to
increase cable tension in cold weather
decrease cable tension in cold weather
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retain a set tension
132. An interrupter arm incorporated in a flying control locking mechanism
dampens the rudder movement
locks the ailerons and elevators
restricts movement of the throttles
133. The yaw damper must be designed to allow the rudder to control in response to the aircraft's
dutch roll frequency
roll frequency
pitch Frequency
134. The alpha vane signal can be fed to __________ when the aircraft is close to stall
fast/slow switch
throttle lever
flap position
135. Moving the elevator trim wheel fully aft, then the
aircraft tends to roll to the right
aircraft tends to go nose up
aircraft tends to go nose down
136. Ground spoilers are used to
prevent FOD ingestion into the engines on landing and taxiing
decrease wing loading on landing
increase wing loading on take-off
137. The outboard ailerons on some aircraft
are isolated to prevent aileron reversal
are isolated to improve sensitivity
are isolated at slow speeds
138. The effect of the rudder on an aircraft can be increased by
decreasing the velocity of the aircraft
increasing the altitude of the aircraft
increasing the distance of the control surfaces from the aircraft's centre of gravity
Fuel Systems (ATA 28)
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1. Fuel tanks are numbered
aft to fwd
right to left
fwd to aft
2. The fuel surge tank
acts as a separate fuel supply tank
reduces wing bending moment
acts as a vent in the main tank
3. A fuel crossfeed valve is normally powered by
AC
Battery
DC
4. When refuelling, as the fuel level increases
capacitance increases
capacitive reactance increases
capacitance decreases
5. A fuel crossfeed valve is usually in
its last position
the open position
the closed position
6. Sliding couplings in fuel systems are used on
low pressure systems
air or vapour systems
high pressure systems
7. Fuel surge is prevented by
having baffles within the tank and supports on the outside to resist fuel surge
incorporation of an additional surge tank
having separate compartments within the tank
8. When carrying out an insulation check on a fuel probe, what is the Maximum voltage to use
500 V
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30 V
250 V
9. A fuel cross-feed valve is lubricated
by air
by the fuel
by internal cooling
10. Fuel cross feed valves are operated by the
115 V AC
battery
28 V DC bus
11. Fuel systems that are interconnected must have
separate venting for each tank
no airspace
air spaces interconnected
12. As fuel level increases, system capacitance
no change
decreases
increases
13. When refuelling
it is important to fill the expansion space in the tank
it is important not to fill the expansion space in the tank
the fuel nozzle will automatically cut off the supply when the tank is full
14. When using Biopor microbial fuel growth treatment
it is added to the fuel and burnt
it is applied dry and left
it is applied wet and flushed out
15. Microbial growth is
red dots
brown black slime
green sludge
16. Bladder type fuel tanks are secured by
The fuel probe excitation is 115V AC. As a rule of thumb, use an insulation tester 2x the normal operating voltage.
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press type rivets
contact adhesive
bolts
17. A zero fuel test on a fuel quantity indicating system is carried out with
tanks completely empty
tanks empty apart from unusable fuel
tanks completely full
18. After a tank bag has been replaced, a fuel flow test should be carried out at
tank outlet
engine inlet
tank shut-off valve point
19. In biologically contaminated fuel, corrosion takes place
the top of the tank
the bottom 2 inches of the tank
below the fungal colonies
20. If an aircraft has ability to transfer fuel in flight, provision must be made to
shut off fuel before structural damage
stop engine from using tank during transfer
provide overflow facility to dump fuel
21. In a fuel system with interconnected vents
the expansion space must be 2% of the tank capacity
the expansion space must be 10% of the tank capacity
an expansion space is not required
22. Fuel tanks interconnected must have
vents to allow overfueling
protection against overfill for tanks and fuel system
tank where fuel is fed from both tanks to engine inlet
23. When a FADEC system loses air data input it goes to
hard reversion
soft reversion
mechanical reversion
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24. Pressure refuelling is carried out at
20 PSI
15 PSI
40 PSI
25. Cross feed valves permit fuel transfer from
left tank to right tank
tank to tank
any tank to any engine
26. What is fitted to the fuel jettison pipe to prevent vapour ignition?
A nozzle
A corona device
An anti-corona device
27. What happens to the capacitance in a fuel contents gauge as fuel is used?
Depends on altitude
Increases
Decreases
28. When an aircraft is put into storage for medium / long periods, the fuel tanks should
be full
have some fuel left in to prevent sealant from deteriorating/drying out
be empty
29. Integral fuel booster pumps
require no cooling
require ram air cooling
lets the fuel do the cooling
30. The purpose of a scavenge system within a fuel system is
to ensure that all available fuel can be used
to ensure that any water in the fuel is constantly dispersed thus reducing microbiological contamination
to ensure that all unused fuel is returned to the tanks efficiently
31. In a light fixed wing aircraft, the fuel warning light indicates
ice blockage, filter popped or pump fail
the tank does not pressurise
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pump failure
32. How is fuel supplied to a turbine engine?
By suction from the engine driven fuel pump
By a fuel boost pump
By a gravity feed pump
33. A fuel tank suction valve will open when
the engine driven pump fails
the booster pump fails
both the engine driven and booster pump fail
34. To prevent water condensation in a fuel tank
the tank should be filled as full as possible
the tank should be filled with the minimum fuel possible
the filler cap should be left open
35. At the lowest point of each vent line you would normally find a
self draining non-return valve
NACA duct
float valve
36. To protect the centre tank fuselage area from a vapour build up
ram air is circulated around the tank
cabin air is bled around the tank
a shroud vent and overboard drain is fitted
37. When a fuel jettison valve is in transit, the magnetic indicator would show
amber and cross line
green and in line
amber and in line
38. When considering the basic categories of fuel tank construction, which of the following is most prone to leaks?
Rigid
Flexible
Integral
39. On removal of a fuel tank booster pump, fuel is observed running out of the boost pump canister, this could be caused by
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fuel leaking past the inlet screens
fuel draining out of the pressure switch bleed
the pressure outlet check valve is not correctly seated
40. Crossfeed valves are normally fitted with
two 28V DC motors
two single phase AC motors
two three-phase AC motors
41. To replace a water drain valve seal
the seal of the valve is replaceable without draining the tanks
the tank must be de-fuelled
the seal is not replaceable, the whole drain assembly must be replaced
42. A shroud vent and overload drain would normally be found on
fuel tank vent pipes
fuel jettison system
the APU fuel feed
43. To shut-off the LP fuel supply to the engine for the purpose of engine removal you would
close the cross bleed valve
pull the fire handle
close the HP fuel lock
44. A leak from a fuel tank which manifests as fuel dripping from the tank is classified as a
stain
seep
run
45. Calcium Chromate tablets can be fitted in integral tanks. Before installation the linen bag should be wetted with
Water
Methylated Spirit
Kerosene
46. A check valve is fitted to a fuel jettison system to
prevent the centre from being defuelled
prevent the dumping of the outer tanks
automatically stop the fuel jettison operation after a period of time
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47. The advantages of integral fuel tanks are that they
are easier to design and construct and use the maximum volume of fuel
are cheaper to manufacture, more durable and easier to maintain
use the maximum volume for fuel and have the minimum amount of weight
48. On Large transport aircraft fuel is delivered to each engine using
a separate system for each engine
the same system for each engine
a parallel system
Hydraulic Power (ATA 29)
1. In a constant volume hydraulic EDP, the short shaft which engages with the engine gearbox would have
2 female splined portions separated by a waisted section
an inner female splined portion and an outer male splined portion
2 male spline portions seperated by a waisted section designed to shear should the pump seize
2. What is the unit which transforms hydraulic pressure into linear motion?
A hydraulic pump
An actuating cylinder
An accumulator
3. What is the unit which transforms hydraulic pressure into rotary motion?
A hydraulic motor
An actuating cylinder
A hydraulic pump
4. Which device allows the free flow of fluid in one direction and no fluid flow in the other direction?
Shutoff valve
Metering piston
Check valve
5. A purpose of a 'cut-out' in a hydraulic system
is to prevent creep in jack operated services which have several selected positions
is to relieve the pump of load when the operation of services is complete and the accumulator charged with fluid
is to limit loss of fluid in the event of pipe fracture
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6. Hydraulic pressure can be restored by
compressing the air charge in an accumulator
the use of a pressure/heat exchanger
compressing the fluid in a reservoir
7. An hydraulic accumulator has low air/nitrogen pressure. What will be the indications?
Full pressure indicated
Zero pressure indicated
The cut-out valve chatters
8. To enable a hydraulic system to operate two components with different pressures, a
pressure reducing valve is used
pressure regulating valve is used
pressure relief valve is used
9. Restrictor valves are fitted in hydraulic systems to
control rate of system operation
limit the maximum pressure
restrict the rate of pressure build-up
10. What type of valve prevents pressure from building up until a demand is placed in an open-center hydraulic system?
An unloading valve
A selector valve
A bypass valve
11. In an open-centre hydraulic system, system pressure is provided
only when the selector valve is set to ON
only when the selector valve is set to OFF
continuously
12. In an open-centre hydraulic system, selector valves are positioned
in parallel
either in series or in parallel depending on the system design
in series
13. What is the colour of the band on a hydraulic seal?
White
Green
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Yellow
14. A maintainer valve in a hydraulic system will
maintain a high pressure to all systems
allow continued pressure to essential systems during times of reduced supply
dampen pressure inputs
15. Where is the temperature overheat switch located in a hydraulic pump?
In the suction line
In the case drain
In the pressure line
16. What happens if a component has an internal hydraulic leak?
Increase in fluid pressure
Increase in fluid temperature
Fluid loss
17. What happens to hydraulic fluid when it is overheated?
Increase alkalinity
Increase viscosity
Increase acidity
18. How is the hydraulic pump depressurising solenoid actuated?
Energised both open and closed depending on cockpit selection
Energised Closed for fail-safe
Energised Open
19. How do you prevent hydraulic fluid frothing?
By pressurising
Vent Reservoir to atmosphere
Pass over a tray
20. Accumulators as fitted to aircraft hydraulic systems
are only ever used in an emergency
store fluid under pressure
provide additional fluid if leaks occur
21. A Skydrol hydraulic fluid seal would be made of
natural rubber
Hi acidity is a common problem revealed after an oil system analysis
The depressurising valve (sometimes called an 'offloading valve') is energised closed, to fail-safe open
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synthetic rubber
butyl rubber, ethylene propylene or Teflon
22. Synthetic hydraulic fluid subjected to overheating is high in
alkalinity
acidity
viscosity
23. A normal hydraulic system will
show fluid temperature and quantity
show pressure and source of hydraulics
illuminate a light in the cockpit when the system is ready
24. A constant volume hydraulic system uses what to relieve pressure in system when no services are being used?
ACOV
Pressure relief valve
Return line back to pump
25. The control of hydraulically powered emergency electrical generator frequency is by
restriction valve
angle of swashplate
IDG
26. Hydraulic systems normally operate at
1800 PSI
3000 PSI
300 PSI
27. When flushing hydraulic systems
flush with any hydraulic oil
flush with same hydraulic oil
flush with methylated spirit
28. When replenishing a hydraulic system
use the same/correct hydraulic fluid
use any hydraulic fluid made by the same manufacturer
use any hydraulic fluid
29. When replacing a flexible pipe
Some systems show temperature, but they are not 'normal'.
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tighten only hand tight
do a bonding check
use two spanners to stop pipe from twisting
30. How do you remove air from hydraulic fluid?
Pass over a tray
Vent to atmosphere
Pass through a restriction
31. A pressure control relay in a hydraulic pump is
used to prevent anything happening until there is hydraulic pressure
de-energised to start the pump
energised to the run position
32. A constant delivery pump has its output varied with
regulators
gears
servo pressure
33. A variable angled pump starts at
half way position
maximum stroke
minimum stroke
34. A check flow valve in a hydraulic system prevents
overpressure
pump cavitation
reverse flow
35. A duplex seal consist of
a square section rubber ring within a steel washer
a rubber 'T' section ring sandwiched between two Teflon rings
a hard rubber square section ring with a soft rubber square section inner ring
36. When is a hydraulic de-pressurising valve energised?
When there is sufficient hydraulic pressure available
When selected off
When selected on
Constant delivery is constant flow rate
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37. A fixed volume axial pump contains the following rotating parts:
Drive Shaft, variable Swash Plate and Cylinder Block
Drive Shaft, fixed Swash Plate and Cylinder Block
Drive Shaft, fixed Swash Plate and Valve Block
38. An hydraulic closed system is one where
most of the major components of the system are included in a self contained unit
there is no pressure at the selector valves when no functions are required
pressure is maintained at the selector valves at all times
39. What constitutes a hydraulic power pack?
Hydraulic oil accumulator
Variable swashplate pump
Reservoir, pump, selector valve, filter
40. If an accumulator loses air pressure there will be
rapid fluctuations of instruments
rapid depressurisation of system
pump cavitation
41. A marker number on a pipe indicates
the specification of the pipe throughout the pipe run
the thickness of the wall on the pipe
the type of fluid used to pressure test the pipe
42. One reason for fitting an accumulator in a hydraulic system is to
minimize the possibility of pump cavitation
relieve excess pressure
absorb pressure surges
43. A thermal relief valve is fitted to a hydraulic system to
relieve excess pressure
prevent a leak back of pressure
prevent excess temperature
44. A component in a hydraulic system which ensures instantaneous action when a service is selected is
selector
engine driven pump
Thermal relief valves relieve the pressure build-up due to excessive temperature
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accumulator
45. A shuttle valve is used for
change over from main to auxiliary system in the case of failure
preventing fluid loss from a leaking jack
maintaining fluid press when the emergency system fails
46. Restrictor valves in a hydraulic system are used to
restrict the rate of pressure build up
control the rate of system operation
limit the maximum pressure
47. The purpose of a mechanical sequence valve is to ensure the operation of
landing gear and doors
safety switches
brake anti-skid units
48. The purpose of a non-return valve is to
isolate one component from another
restrict the movement of components
direct fluid to the hydraulic actuator
49. The end fittings on a NRV are normally different to
prevent incorrect installation
allow a full flow from the valve
facilitate bleeding of the system
50. A hydraulic accumulator is charged with initial nitrogen pressure of 1000 PSI . When the hydraulic system pressure of 3000 PSI is reached, the nitrogen pressure is
4000 PSI
3000 PSI
1000 PSI
51. Automatic cut-out valve hammering is caused by
low accumulator pressure
relief valve set too high
moisture in the fluid
52. Hand pumps are normally single cylinder double acting because of the
two NRVS fitted
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piston ram displacement
relief valve
53. During a leak test of a hydraulic system, system pressure
must be minimum working
is not important
must be at maximum
54. Constant delivery hydraulic pumps
require an automatic cut-out valve in the system
are self idling
require an automatic cut-out valve and accumulator in the system
55. Mechanical sequence valves are operated by
the operation of a NRV
the pilot
a striker pin
56. Pressure relay valves are fitted
before a pressure sequence valve
before a pressure gauge
before a pressure relief valve
57. Before checking the initial pressure in the hydraulic accumulator
the reservoir must be checked for correct level
the fluid pressure must be released
all air must be bled from the system
58. Hydraulic reservoirs are pressurized to
provide a reserve of stored energy
minimize the possibility of pump cavitation
maintain a constant fluid level
59. In aircraft hydraulic systems, it is permissible to use
any fluid of the same specific gravity
any hydraulic fluid available
only the specified fluid
60. The essential components of a hydraulic system of the constant delivery type are an
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accumulator and relay valve
accumulator and automatic cut-out valve
accumulator and shuttle valve
61. An automatic cut-out valve will
limit pump wear
prevent the hydraulic lock forming
raise fluid boiling point
62. A maintaining valve is fitted to a hydraulic system
relieve excessive pressure to return
to maintain a back pressure to the accumulator
to ensure a supply of fluid to essential services in the event of system failure
63. A thermal relief valve
senses fluid pressure
provides cooling for the fluid
senses fluid temperature change
64. Hydraulic systems are normally flushed with
any clean hydraulic fluid
methylated spirits
the same type of fluid as used in the system
65. Phosphate Ester hydraulic fluid requires which kind of seals?
Butyl Rubber
Natural Rubber
Synthetic Rubber
66. A RAT hydraulic pump is for
flying controls if hydraulic power lost
landing gear and auto-brake systems
nose wheel steering
67. Hydraulic hand-pump fluid supply is taken from
a tap into a convenient return line
the bottom of the reservoir
a stack pipe higher than the normal level
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68. Hand pumps in hydraulic systems are normally
double acting
low pressure
single acting
69. To enable a hydraulic system to operate two components requiring different pressures
a pressure reducing valve is used
a pressure relief valve is used
a pressure regulating valve is used
70. The force exerted by a hydraulic cylinder is equal to
pressure x stroke
area x pressure
area x volume
71. A tandem PFCU
has the rams parallel
has two control surfaces under its control
has the actuator rams co-axial
72. The reason why slack must be left in a flexible hose during installation, is a flexible hose under pressure
contracts in length and expands in diameter
contracts in length and diameter
expands in length and diameter
73. An automatic cut-out valve is necessary in a hydraulic system with
a fixed volume pump
pressures above 3000 PSI
a variable volume pump
Ice and Rain Protection (ATA 30)
1. When should rain repellent be applied to a windscreen?
When windscreen is wet
When windscreen is dry
When windscreen is either wet or dry
2. A pressure operated ice detector would
If applied when windscreen is dry, it smears, dries, and causes optical illusions
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have a build up of ice that causes a torque switch to illuminate a flight deck annunciator
be completely covered in ice before causing an alarm to sound on the flight deck
have a build up of ice on the leading edge that causes a warning light to illuminate on the flight deck
3. The flow rate of anti-icing fluid is determined
by speed of pump
by flow control valve
by flow control tubes
4. Details entered in the operational log regarding the De-Icing is
area on which used
type of fluid used and its percentage dilution
volume of fluid used
5. The ice protection system that is manufactured on the aircraft skin is
heater mat
overshoe
spraymat
6. What are the chemicals used in modern chemical de-icing?
Isopropyl alcohol
A mixture of ethylene glycol and alcohol
Either Isopropyl alcohol or ethylene glycol
7. Where does ice form on the aircraft?
Leading edges only
Areas with larger curvature radius
Area with smaller curvature radius
8. Window anti-icing supply is
DC
AC or DC
AC
9. Ice formed on the object or surface will change its shape, this changes is more detrimental and vulnerable to a
fast moving object
large object
small object
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10. In which ice detection method, the activation of warning system is through accumulation of ice on a probe projected into the airstream?
Inferential method
Ice accretion method
Impingement method
11. The inflatable tube of the de-icer boots is made of
natural rubber
synthetic rubber
rubberised fabric
12. How is rain repellent stored on an aircraft?
Reservoir, pressurised by the pneumatic system
Self pressurised container
Remote container
13. When testing windshield wipers, you should
lift the wipers away from the windshield
use a continuous flow of water on the windshield
operate them on a dry windshield
14. What is the correct way of measuring the windshield wiper force prior to adjustment?
With a spring tension scale
By measuring the maximum total angle of sweep
With a torque screwdriver and light thumb pressure
15. How is a serrated rod ice detector bench tested?
Screwdriver torque test
Motor test and go/no-go gap measurement
By a motor load test
16. Windshield heating provides
thermal expansion for a tighter fit
impact resistance enhancement
increases strength to resist cabin pressure
17. At what pressure and temperature is anti ice fluid applied?
7°F at 100 PSI
70°C at 100 PSI
'Retard rotation [of the detector] with slight thumb pressure using a torque screwdriver.' Ref: CAIPs AL/11-6
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70°F at 10 PSI
18. The most important problem of ice accretion on an aeroplane during flight is
increase in drag
increase in weight
reduction in CLmax
19. The advantage of leading edge fluid de-icing is
less of a fire hazard
more efficient
aerodynamic shape is not disturbed
20. On large transport aircraft, the windshield wiper system is
independent on each side but with the same power source
one system for both sides but with the same power source
independent on each side with different power sources
21. In which phase of the take-off is the aerodynamic effect of ice located on the wing leading edge most critical?
The last part of the rotation
During climb with all engines operating
All phases of the take-off are equally critical
22. Prior to securing a cemented leading edge de-icing boot you must
paint the surface
shave rivet to prevent further abrasion
remove all paint
23. Prior to securing a screw-fastened leading edge de-icing boot you must
shave rivet to prevent further abrasion
paint the surface
remove all paint
24. On a 'hot rod' type of ice detector, it is switched on
when in the air
all the time
when selected by the crew
25. Ice formation on wings is due to
ice crystals forming layers on contact with the wing
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supercooled water changing state on contact with the wing
suspended ice crystals melting on contact with the wing and instantly re-freezing
26. When a vibrating rod ice detector has de-iced, the warning lamp on the flight deck
goes out after a set period of time
goes out after one more cycle
goes out immediately
27. De-misting of passenger windows is provided by
sealed window
air from the cabin
an electrical heating element
28. A deicer boot is completely bonded to the leading edge to
prevent electrical static build up
provide more efficient deicer cycles
provide smoother airflow over leading edge
29. In a cockpit window heater system, the autotransformer
supplies DC power for heating
supplies AC Power for heating
steps up output for severe weather conditions
30. Windshield rain repellent is applied
when in heavy rain so vision is unobscured
when rain is on windows and spread by wipers
before rain and spread on window surface by wipers
31. Pneumatic rain removal systems
use a pneumatic motor to drive windscreen wipers
use engine bleed air at high velocity to remove water droplets from windscreen
are not permitted on large transport aircraft
32. Windscreen wiper torque tests are carried out at
blade attachment end
the shaft end
centre point of the blade
33. Windscreen autotransformers
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step down voltage
are used to supply extra current under difficult conditions
step up voltage
34. An ice deposit formed when liquid water flows over the airframe before freezing, and which is dense, tough and sticks closely to the surface is called
rime Ice
hoar Frost
glaze Ice
35. When testing pitot head heaters
they must only be switched on for the minimum time required to check serviceability
they should be switched on for five minutes to allow to stabilise before taking ammeter readings
they can only be checked by noting the temperature rise of the probe
36. A rotary knife edge ice detector provides warning of ice by
increased torque caused by ice formation slowing the rotating wheel and illuminating a warning light in the cockpit
decreased torque caused by ice formation slowing the rotating wheel and illuminating a warning light in the cockpit
ice formation stopping the rotation of a rotary knife edge and illuminating a warning light in the cockpit
37. Windscreen heating is supplied from
frequency wild generator, via a rectifier
frequency wild generator, direct to the windscreen
DC generator, via a transformer
38. A wing thermal anti-ice annunciator is illuminated permanently in flight deck without selection being made. The most probable cause would be
normal
a short circuit
an open circuit
39. Air for anti-icing of the wings is obtained from
either engine compressors or a combustion heater
engine compressors
a combustion heater
40. The usual material for pipelines in a fluid deice system
nylon
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stainless steel
Monel
41. When operating a windscreen wiper on the ground, make sure to
place soft cloth between blade and window
use slow wiper only
use water as lubricant when operating
42. What is run-back ice?
Gleam ice
Glaze ice
Rime ice
Landing Gear (ATA 32)
1. What should be done if a tyre has creeped round the hub?
Remove tyre, reposition, then re-inflate
Remove tyre, reposition the opposite way round to prevent more creep
Remove from the hub for inspection
2. Brake temperature readings provide
separate brake indicator gauge indications
master and caution warning
coloured indications on a CRT display
3. Spongy brakes are usually a result of
external leakage
air in the system
internal leakage
4. Over inflated tyres may cause damage to the
brake drum
wheel hub
wheel flange
5. To check if a landing gear leg requires servicing
The aircraft must have an exact load onboard and air charge to give an exact leg extension
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The leg extension can vary with aircraft load. The leg pressure and extension should be checked against a chart in the AMM
The leg must be serviced to give an exact extension regardless of aircraft load
6. Landing gear comes down and goes up again. A likely cause is
leak in selector valve
leak in actuating cylinder
leak in reservoir
7. A tyre valve cap is used to
secure the valve by screwing up to the shoulder of the wheel
prevent a leak
secure the valve by screwing up to the valve base
8. The drag strut in the main landing gear is fitted to absorb
turning loads while taxiing
cross-wind loads on landing
braking and take-off acceleration loads
9. How is a wheel and tyre assembly stored?
Three quarters of full pressure
With full pressure
Inflated to 20-30 PSI
10. Anti skid
applies wheel torque at point of maximum efficiency
is a 3-option system
moderates braking with increasing wheel torque
11. The operational hydraulic pressure for the nose wheel steering system of large aircraft normally comes from
the landing gear up line
an independent hydraulic system
the landing gear down line
12. When removing the wheel with a multiple disks brake, the wheel brake should be
set OFF (released)
disconnected first
set ON (applied)
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13. A tyre blows a fusible plug. You would
just change the one with the blown plug
change the damaged one and the adjacent one
change all tyres on that truck
14. Twin contact tread tyres are fitted to the nose wheel to assist in
preventing nose wheel shimmy
deflecting water away from rear mounted engines
preventing aquaplaning
15. Whilst taxiing at low speed, a wheel skids. What is the likely cause?
There is no fault. Anti-skid system is disabled at low speed
Anti-skid system is unserviceable
Faulty wheel speed transducer
16. A brake debooster valve is provided for
increasing the pressure and applying the brakes rapidly
decreasing the pressure and slowly releasing the brakes
applying brake pressure slowly and releasing the the brakes quickly
17. Anti-skid systems become deactivated at
5-10 mph
10-15 mph
15-20 mph
18. The landing gear is in the down and locked position but the red light is still on. The most probable fault is
the landing gear down microswitch needs adjusting
the landing gear up microswitch needs adjusting
there is a short circuit in the microswitch
19. Tubeless tyres are stored
vertically
horizontally maximum of four high with smallest diameter tyre on top
at 15 to 20 P.S.I.
20. On a wheel bogie unit, positive camber is when the
top of the wheels are closer together
front of the wheels are closer together
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bottom of the wheels are closer together
21. A badly corroded and pitted brake disk will
produce a loss of fluid
be serviceable, and provide better grip
wear brake pads too quickly, and should be replaced
22. How much oxygen is in a tyre (as a maximum)?
15% by volume
5% by pressure
5% by volume
23. A tyre specification 32 x 10.75 - 14. What does the 10.75 refer to?
Section Width
Overall diameter
Bead diameter
24. When servicing an oleo, fluid comes out of the air valve when the leg is depressurised?
Leaking air/oil seals
Separator plate stuck open
The leg is serviceable - the separator has bottomed
25. The type of fluid in an oleo strut will depend upon
the type of seal material
heat generated in operation of the system
type of fluid most readily available
26. A restrictor valve
restrict the extent of travel of the undercarriage
may be used to slow down undercarriage extension
speed up the flow in one direction
27. The function of the oil in a shock absorber is to
absorb the landing shock
ensure the separator does not bottom
damp the rebound
28. The purpose of the flutter plate in a shock absorber is to
restrict the compression of the air
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permit free flow of oil during compression and restriction of oil during extension
separate the oil from the air
29. Made up wheels should be stored
horizontal no more than 4 high
vertical at working pressure
vertical at 20/30 PSI charge
30. After MLG down and securely locked, a red light is illuminated in the flight deck. The possible causes are
shorted sensor
out of adjustment sensor
wiring problem
31. When checking for alignment of a MLG, check
symmetry, tracking, camber
symmetry, splay, tracking
symmetry, twist, tracking
32. These markings are found on a tyre, 32 x 10.45 R 14. What does the number 32 mean?
Inner diameter
width
Outer diameter
33. A green/grey dot marking on aircraft tyre casing represents
breather points
military reference
the light part of the tyre
34. In detachable flange type wheels, the flange is secured by
a lock ring
a retainer plate
bolts
35. Fuse plugs in aircraft tyres are
for overtemperature protection
for overpressure protection
to deflate the tyre before removal
36. A breaker strip in an aircraft tyre is
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to provide strength
to provide a wear indication
to indicate the position for tyre levers
37. If fluid leaks along with air whilst oleo charging, this is
normal
due to excessive charging pressure
caused by a leaky seal
38. A red dot / triangle mark on aircraft tyres means
military reference
breather points
the light part of the tyre
39. On selection of MLG down, the gear extends then begins to retract again. The cause is
a faulty actuator
gear lowered at too high an airspeed
a faulty selector valve
40. When fitting a tyre, the red dot should be positioned
opposite the charging valve
adjacent to the charging valve
on the other side of the wheel opposite to the charging valve
41. Composite brake units
have less weight than normal brake units and have increased efficiency at high temperatures
weigh the same as normal brake units and fade away at high temperatures
have less weight than normal brake units but fade away at high temperatures
42. A restrictor valve can be used
to increase the speed of the undercarriage extension
to reduce the speed of the undercarriage extension
to increase the speed of undercarriage retraction
43. When an undercarriage is lowered, it tends to creep back up. The fault could be
the emergency system
a leaky selector valve
a stuck relief valve
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44. Vents holes are found on
tubeless tyres
tubed tyres
tubed and tubeless tyres
45. At what temperature does a yellow fuse plug melt at?
250°C
200°C
150°C
46. The cam plate in a nose undercarriage is
for alignment of the nose wheel steering on nose undercarriage extension
part of the shimmy damper
to align for nose wheel on nose undercarriage retraction
47. What is tyre creep related to?
Tyre moving around the wheel
Horizontal movement of the tyre
Vertical movement of the tyre
48. 'Aquaplaning' can be reduced by
lowering slats
an anti-skid device
increased flaring
49. Why is a hydraulic damper fitted to a nose wheel steering system?
To centralise the nose leg assembly during an up selection
To centralise the nose wheel during an up selection
To reduce vibration and shimmy
50. What decides the type of oil used in an undercarriage leg?
The material of the leg
Neither, any oil can be used
The types of seals the leg uses
51. In an anti-skid system
brakes release on falling torque
brakes are modulated to give most efficient braking
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brakes release on rising torque
52. If an undercarriage oleo has insufficient deflection, the likely cause is
oil level too high
loss of pressure/leakage
nitrogen pressure too high
53. A Maxaret is used in what system?
Self centring landing gear
Tyre inflation
Skid control
54. The pilot receives an audible warning on the flight deck as the aircraft is descending to land. The most likely reason for this warning is
the landing gear is not locked down
the airspeed is too high
the rate of descent is too high
55. A restrictor in the landing gear hydraulic retraction and lowering system is positioned in the
landing gear down line
return line from the landing gear selector
landing gear up line
56. Wheel speed information is used in auto speed brake systems
to stow the spoilers automatically when the aircraft has nearly stopped
to ensure the aircraft is still rolling
to ensure the aircraft has touched down and to give a slight time lapse before spoiler deployment
57. A fusible plug fitted to an aircraft wheel prevents
brakes seizure, if brake stators and rotors weld together under excessive temperatures
over inflation of tyres during servicing
tyre bursts due to high temperatures created by excessive braking
58. If the shuttle valve was stuck in the normal position
neither system will be available
normal braking will not be available
emergency braking will not be available
59. The breaker strip of a tyre is fitted
between the tread rubber and the casing piles
The restrictor is placed in the retraction line to slow the rate of exit of fluid from the jack on extension, to slow the rate of extension.
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between the apex strip and the casing piles
between the bead and the casing piles
60. Nose wheel steering in a modern aircraft is by
rudder pedals
the control column
a separate pilot operated control
61. The fusible plugs installed in some aircraft wheel will
eliminate the need to check air pressure
melt at a specified elevated temperature
facilitate servicing of the wheel assembly
62. Excessive wear in the shoulder area of an aircraft tyre is an indication of
excessive toe-in
over-inflation
under-inflation
63. Ribbed tyres with marker tie bars may be worn to
the top of the tie bar
1 mm from the rib base
the base of the tie bar
64. On large aircraft, bogie type undercarriages are used to
spread the weight over a large area
absorb increased landing shock
prevent skidding
65. To position the bogie beam at a suitable angle for retraction and landing, a
snubber is used
castoring damper is used
hop damper is used
66. On large aircraft, braked wheel assemblies are normally inflated with
nitrogen and not more than 5% of air
an argon and CO2 mixture
nitrogen
67. Brake deboosters
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reduce the hydraulic pressure entering the brakes
increase the hydraulic pressure entering the brakes
assist the operation of the anti-skid unit
68. A modulator is fitted in conjunction with
non-return valve
brake control valves
anti-skid units
69. In the case of pressurized aircraft, the nose-wheel bay
is pressurized to a value higher than ambient but less than cabin pressure
is not pressurized
is subject to cabin pressure
70. An undercarriage that has the axle mounted directly onto the shock absorber is of which type
Direct Acting
Hydro Mechanical
Articulated
71. The minimum aquaplaning ground speed is
9.6 times the root square of the tyre pressure in psi
8.6 times the root square of the tyre pressure in psi
8.6 times the tyre pressure in bar
72. Tubed tyres are stored
horizontally, up to 4 in total with the smallest at the top
horizontally, up to 4 in total staggering them to prevent distortion of beads
horizontally, up to 4 in total in a rack with supporting tubes so each tyre is supported at 2 points
73. On a main landing gear, what is positive camber?
Bottom of wheels closer to fuselage centreline
Front of wheels closer to fuselage centreline
Top of wheels closer to fuselage centreline
74. When the landing gear is locked up, the cockpit indicator shows
no indication
green light
red light
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75. When checking the alignment of a main landing gear, check
symmetry, tracking, camber
symmetry, tracking, splay
symmetry, tracking, twist
76. Tyre creep could be caused by
excessive wear
under pressure
overpressure
77. When inflating a tyre and you notice ice in the valve stem
heat the valve stem gently with a blow torch
carry on inflating as ice in the valve stem is no problem
wait for ice to melt before carrying on with inflation
78. A method of helping to prevent aquaplaning is by fitting tyres which have
a plain tread
water dispersing treads
twin contact
79. Un-mounted tubeless tyres must be stored
in the manufactures boxes
horizontally
vertically
80. With a single oleo leg with a stub axle used, the torque links will
assist the wheel to castor
keep the wheel in track
allow the wheel to shimmy
81. When fitting a tyre to a hub, the red spot on the tyre should be in line with
maker's serial number
the valve assembly
opposite side to the valve assembly
82. A red or yellow line on an inner tube would indicate
balance indicator
heavy spot
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light spot
83. On a multi-brake unit with automatic adjusters, brake wear is checked by
application of the brakes and checking indicator pin protrusion
using a go-no go gauge to measure the gap between the cylinder and the thrust plate
measuring the protrusion of the indicator pins with the brakes released
Lights (ATA 33)
1. What colour is the strobe light on the PORT wing?
White
Green
Red
2. What is the arc of a landing light?
This is not covered in European legislation
20°
15°
3. With aircraft lights - which of the following is true?
Starboard light green, port light red, tail light white
Starboard light red, port light green, tail light Red
Starboard light red, port light green, tail light White
4. Emergency floor lighting system is inoperative, then
the aircraft is allowed to fly empty to a main base
the aircraft is not allowed to fly until repaired
the aircraft is allowed to fly in daylight conditions only
5. A white navigation light, as viewed in the horizontal plane, will be at least
20 candela
50 candela
240 candela
6. A fluorescent tube contains
phosphor coatings, rare gases and mercury vapour
orange coatings, rare gases and mercury vapour
iodine coatings and rare gases
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7. A white steady light is required
of at least 3 lumens, at the rear of the aircraft 110 degrees either side of dead astern
of at least 3 candelas, at the rear of the aircraft 110 degrees either side of dead astern
of at least 3 candelas, at the rear of the aircraft 70 degrees either side of dead astern
8. How many floor path lights can you fly with unserviceable?
15%
25%
20%
9. What is the arc of a landing light?
20°
15°
11°
10. The visible angle of a white tail navigation light is
110°
11°
140°
11. Wing navigation lights must be visible through which angle?
125°
180°
110°
12. Cockpit dome lighting is provided by the
battery bus and ground services bus
ground services bus
battery bus
13. Upper and lower strobe lights are coloured
green
white
red
14. Cargo bay lights on a modern aircraft are supplied by
the battery bus
DC handling bus
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AC handling bus
15. What will happen if the Master Dim and test switch is switched to the on position?
Dome lights will illuminate
All lights will illuminate
Rectangular indicator lights will illuminate
16. Escape route lighting must not have more than
20% obscured
15% obscured
10% obscured
17. How many escape path lights are allowed to be inoperative?
None
25%
10%
18. The angle of a runway turnoff light is
40°
60°
50°
19. Cabin fluorescent lighting circuits are supplied with
28 V AC
28 V DC
115 V AC
20. How are passenger reading lights normally tested?
By using a READ LIGHT TEST switch on the cabin attendant panel
Each one is switched on individually at passenger panel
By using a READ LIGHT TEST switch at any passenger panel
21. In what position should the selector switch be for a standby and emergency lighting system during flight?
Armed
OFF
ON
22. The emergency lighting system must be designed so that after any single transverse vertical separation of the fuselage during crash landing the maximum amount of emergency lighting that fails is
10%
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15%
25%
23. A rotating beacon must have a minimum light rating of
50 candelas
100 candelas
20 candelas
24. Service lights include
avionics bay lights, engine scanning lights, baggage compartment lights
baggage compartment lights, avionics bay lights, refuelling lights
refuelling lights, engine scanning lights, logo lights
25. If the 'blow-back' device on a landing lamp operates, how is it reset?
The linkage must be repositioned and latched when the aircraft is on the ground.
Select full 'RETRACT'
It cannot. The unit must be replaced because of the high stress loads experienced
26. Before touching or disconnecting a strobe light head, a time period must elapse to avoid electrical shock or burning. That time period is at least
1 minute
2 minutes
5 minutes
27. The rear light of an aircraft must be white and, in addition, must show through an inclusive angle of
110 degrees and be 5 candelas minimum
110 degrees and be 40 candelas minimum
140 degrees and be 3 candelas minimum
28. Self-illuminating signs
are self powered and contain phosphor and helium gas
are instantly seen in dark areas by persons who are not dark adapted
require a period of daylight, or intense artificial light to operate
29. When an annunciator light is selected to 'DIM', the resistor is in
parallel with the light and the transistor is not conducting
series with the light and the transistor is not conducting
series with the light and the transistor is conducting
30. Storm lights are usually fluorescent lights that are switched on
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because lightning has less effect on fluorescent lamp units
to reduce the effect of lightning on the pilot's sight
and the glare-shield lights are automatically dimmed
31. Captain and First Officer's 'Dome' lights can be dimmed
individually
together
First Officer's only in emergency mode
32. In the CWS system, the caution light is coloured
amber
red
green
33. On a CWS, which has the highest priority?
Duct overheat
Hydraulic pump failure
Fire warning
34. What inert gas is used in a typical strobe light?
Halon
Freon
Xenon
35. Floor proximity lighting is a mandatory requirement and each light should be spaced
at 70 inch intervals
at 60 inch intervals
at 40 inch intervals
36. Tritium Gas is used in a
landing Light
self illuminating lights
strobe light
37. A strobe light is a light unit that takes form of glass tube filled with which gas and its light colour is what?
Neon gas and blue
Xenon Gas and blue-white
Helium gas and white
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38. The aircraft has a partial failure of its emergency lighting system
continue with reduced passenger load
ferry flight to main base for rectification
ground the aircraft
39. Navigation lights are supplied by the following circuit:
Single circuit
Individual circuits
Dual circuit
40. Automatic no smoking sign will illuminate
below 10,000ft and descending
when landing gear is down
unless switched off by the pilot
Oxygen (ATA 35)
1. To purge an unpleasant odour/moisture from an oxygen system, you must
completely empty and fill the system with nitrogen at least 3 times
completely empty and fill the system with oxygen at least 3 times
completely empty and fill the system with air at least 3 times
2. Oxygen bottles should not be left with less that 500 psi pressure because
it can damage the diluter demand regulator and would require maintenance
the oxygen becomes tainted causing anoxia
it can cause corrosion within the bottle
3. A dual demand regulator in oxygen system is for
fitting to either gaseous or chemical oxygen cylinders
altitude selection
allowing two people to breath from one cylider
4. The oxygen masks for the passengers drop down by
manual selection from cockpit and automatically by an altitude switch
automatically by an ltitude switch
manual selection from cockpit
5. How would you identify an American oxygen bottle?
It is painted the same colour as a British oxygen bottle (black)
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It is white with green wording
It is green
6. When charging an oxygen cylinder, the pressure goes to zero. Where is the likely fault?
In the pressure gauge
In the mask
In the temperature compensator
7. How many turns of teflon tape are you allowed on oxygen threads and how many threads should have no tape?
2 turns except first 2 threads
2 turns except first thread
1 turn except first thread
8. Anoxia is due to
release of nitrogen bubbles in the blood
lack of oxygen
low air pressure on the body
9. The dilutor demand regulator functions
only when the supply valve is opened by the user
when the user breathes in
all the time
10. To measure moisture in an oxygen system use
a hygrometer using the dew point method
litmus paper
a glass plate
11. Oxygen cylinder test dates
are painted in white on the cylinder
may be stencilled on the neck of the cylinder
are variable depending on discharge
12. O2 system pressure has leaked away after charging. What is the most probable cause?
Supernumerator regular
Breathing regulator
Temperature compensator
13. If an O2 system is leaking, where would you most likely find the cause?
Breathing masks are the most common cause of leaks. O2 systems being turned on during pilot pre flight checks.
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Breathing mask
Thermal Relief Valve
Loose connection
14. As the cabin altitude reaches 3042 metres
the 02 masks deploy automatically and hang half way extended
the 02 masks deploy automatically and the crew activates the system from the emergency panel
the 02 masks deploy automatically and the crew must activate the system from the cockpit
15. Oxygen cylinders are normally fitted with
oxygen purity gauge
temperature gauge
pressure and quantity gauges
16. A demand regulator in a portable oxygen bottle opens
all the time
when breathing
when 100% selected
17. Portable oxygen bottles are fitted with
an overpressure indicator
a demand regulator
an over temperature indicator
18. American made crew oxygen cylinders are
green in colour with a LH thread
green in colour with a RH thread
black in colour with a RH thread
19. Which connector has a left hand thread?
Freon
N2
O2
20. What is the principle of an O2 generator?
Sodium chlorate and iron mixed by an electronic detonator
Sodium chlorate and iron using a mechanical detonator producing O2 when mixed with air
Sodium chloride and iron mixed by an electronic detonator
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21. What pressure are oxygen cylinders usually pressurised to?
1800 PSI
300 PSI
3000 PSI
22. Oxygen storage cylinders, once charged should be
turned on by crew
turned on and safety wire-locked
turned off
23. A thermal compensator is used in
an hydraulic system
a fuel system
an oxygen system
24. When charging an oxygen bottle with gaseous oxygen, the oxygen is
passed into the bottle as quickly as possible to keep the temperature down
passed into the bottle slowly to keep the temperature at approximately ambient
passed into the bottle at any rate as this does not affect temperature
25. Where are the left handed threads found in an oxygen system?
Line valve
Charging connection
Shut-off valve
26. Portable O2 diluter demand valve works when
the user breathes in
100% is selected
less than 500 psi is in bottle
27. A double headed oxygen pressure regulator is used for
additional flightcrew
extra supply in case of emergency
changes in altitude
28. If an aircraft suddenly drops pressure at 14, 000 ft
attendant must drop masks
passenger must get mask from overhead stowage
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masks drop automatically
29. How do oxygen cylinders show over pressure?
Green rupturing disc
Audible warning
Red rupturing disc
30. The life of an aircraft oxygen cylinder is
4 years
10 years
2 years
31. A discharged chemical generator is indicated by
a broken tell-tale wire
a change in colour
a protruding pin
32. A chemical oxygen generator has a supply duration of at least
15 minutes
5 minutes
30 minutes
33. The oxygen line service valve must be
wire locked open
wire locked closed
only be wire locked with telltale wire
34. Oxygen equipment must be carried by aircraft capable of flying above
10,000ft
4,000 ft
8,000ft
35. The critical altitude for oxygen requirement is approximately
4,000 ft
25,000 ft
38,000 ft
36. If oxygen is not being supplied in normal flight conditions, the cabin altitude must be
at a maximum of 12,000 ft.
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below 10,000 ft.
at or below 8,000 ft.
37. Pressure breathing systems must be used at altitudes
below 40,000 ft.
above 30,000 ft.
above 40,000 ft.
38. In a diluter demand oxygen system
each member of the crew has a continuous oxygen supply
oxygen is supplied with a continuous pressure flow
each member of the crew has a regulator
39. In a continuous flow oxygen system, oxygen is supplied
on passenger inhaling into the mask
when the mask is plugged into the socket
only when the supply has been regulated by the pilot
40. In the diluter demand oxygen system, selection of emergency on this regulator will result in
100% oxygen supply as the user inhales
100% oxygen continuous flow at positive pressure
100% oxygen at positive pressure
41. The cylinder of a portable oxygen set is made of
aluminium
alloy steel
stainless steel
42. Portable oxygen cylinders are normally charged to
1,800 p.s.i.
2,000 p.s.i.
1,200 p.s.i.
43. Rate of flow of oxygen is given in
pounds/minute
litres/minute
litres/pounds
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44. Oxygen cylinders are removed for overhaul and tested
every 4 years
every 6 years
every 3 years
45. Oxygen bottle capacity varies between
100 - 3200 litres
200 - 2250 litres
80 - 2250 litres
46. Oxygen bottle test and working pressures can be found
stencilled on the bottle
stamped on the neck ring
stamped on a metal label
47. After installation, the oxygen bottle on/off valve is
left in the 'on' position
left in the 'off' position until required
wire locked in the 'on'
48. Dangerous pressure rise in oxygen cylinders
is relieved by a thermostat
is relieved by a bursting disc
is relieved by under pressurising the bottle
49. To avoid condensation forming in an oxygen cylinder
cylinder pressure is left at 200/300 p.s.i.
cylinder pressure is left at 100/200 p.s.i.
cylinder pressure is left at 300/400 p.s.i.
50. What determines the material used for oxygen pipe lines?
The pressure used in the system
The whims of the aircraft designer
The length of the pipe runs
51. The direction of flow in an oxygen non return valve is indicated
by colour coding
by an arrow
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by visual inspection
52. Oxygen filters are made of
carbon fibres
sintered bronze
steel wool
53. Satisfactory operation of the oxygen systems is indicated by
pressure indicators
flow indicators
lack of Anoxia
54. If a binding thread needs attention on an oxygen system
no lubricant may be used whatsoever
Teflon tape may be used
distilled water may be used sparingly
55. The international marking for a breathing oxygen pipeline is a series of
rectangles
dots
diamonds
56. Cylinders containing purified oxygen for breathing are painted
white with a black collar
black with a white collar
black
57. A suitable leak detecting solution for use on oxygen systems is
grease free medical soap
leak testing solution to Spec. MIL-L-25567B
soapy water
58. When charging an oxygen bottle with gaseous oxygen, the oxygen is
passed into the bottle slowly to keep temperature at approximately ambient
passed into the bottle at any rate as this does not affect temperature
passed into the bottle as quickly as possible to keep the temperature down
59. In areas closely associated with oxygen systems, particular care must be taken to avoid leaving
traces of oils or greases
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magnesium particles
acrylic based plastic materials
60. When working in the vicinity of an oxygen system
the area must be well ventilated
no electrical power must be used
oil must not come into contact with the system
61. A chemical oxygen generator operates at
45°K at 10 psi for 15 minutes
45°C at 10 psi for 15 minutes
45°F at 10 psi for 15 minutes
62. When charging an oxygen bottle in situ
charge slowly through a water trap
charge in accordance with the temperature/pressure graph
slacken off the retaining straps first
63. The gauge fitted to an oxygen bottle indicates
purity
pressure
temperature
64. The application of thread lubrication tape in an oxygen system should be
applied to all except the first two threads and not more than one complete wrap of tape
applied to all the threads and not more than one complete wrap of tape
applied to all except the first two threads and not more than 3 complete wraps of tape.
65. High pressure lines in oxygen systems are made of
stainless steel
aluminium alloy
titanium
66. Lubricate oxygen connector threads using
WD40
Teflon tape
hellerene
67. How is an expended chemical oxygen generator indicated?
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A pressure seal would be broken
The indicator pin would be protruding
By a change in colour of heat sensitive paint
68. Oxygen purging is a process of
measuring the flow rate from the regulator
pressure testing the system
removing moisture from the system
69. To check an oxygen system for moisture
a sniff test is used
a hygrometer is used
pass 72 litres/min through a filter paper in a clean glass
Pneumatic/Vacuum (ATA 36)
1. Two compressors driven by separate engines use
PRVs
NRVs to prevent compressors driving each other
Interconnected to share loads
2. When the moisture separator is purged in a pneumatic system, it dumps
the whole system
just the moisture trap
the system between compressor and regulator valve
3. High pressure pneumatic pump is a
butterfly pump
spur gear
reciprocating pump
4. A silica gel desiccant is required to be replaced
when half pink and half blue
when all pink
when all blue
5. High pressure pneumatic source is a
centrifugal Compressor
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butterfly pump
reciprocating pump
6. On a high pressure pneumatic system, if the drain plug for oil and water is left open for long periods of time, the system would
lose pneumatic pressure partially
lose pressure from the compressor side only
lose all pressure
7. In a pneumatic system, the maintainer valve will be fitted in supply lines to
essential equipment
all equipment
non-essential equipment
8. If the pneumatic water drain trap is left open for a long time it will drain
all the system
just the moisture trap
between the compressor and the PRV
9. What is important about the air entering a dry air pump?
It must be filtered
It must be pressure controlled
It must be temperature controlled
10. The pneumatic system pump is a
rotor vane type
piston type
centrifugal type
11. What type of compressor is used on a pneumatic system?
Rotary vane type
Positive displacement type
Spur gear type
Water/Waste (ATA 38)
1. What is the purpose of thermal protection on electric toilet motor?
Prevent motor overheating and become fire hazard
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Prevent toilet freezing
Stop motor running beyond 10 seconds if timer become unserviceable
2. The potable water is delivered to the galleys and toilets by
electrical pump
pneumatic pressure
gravity
3. Toilet flush motor is protected from overheat by
water cooling
thermal protection
cooling fan on timer switch
4. Drinking water pipes are prevented from freezing by
wrapping the pipes with heated tapes or ribbons
installation of neoprene foam insulation
placing the pipes adjacent to hot water piping
5. A toilet recirculation fan is unserviceable in flight.
Close toilet until landing
It can be overcome by thermal compensating device
You can use the toilet as the toxic chemical toilet
6. The process of hyperchlorination is to
fill the tank with potable water
decontaminate the potable system
decontaminate the soil tank
7. Waste water drain masts
are heated using low amperage with the aircraft on ground only
are not heated
are heated using low amperage in the Air and on ground
8. The heater used on a drain mast would be a
induction heater
ribbon heater
hot air blower
9. Toilet waste valves are
IAW B737-400 mmel/ddg item 38-2, the associate lavatory system may be inop. with lav door secured closed and placard 'INOPERATIVE- DO NOT ENTER'. Toilet recirc fan is part of the lav system
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spring loaded open
spring loaded closed
not spring loaded
10. Toilets are the subject of
AWN 80
AWN 83
AWN 79
11. The centralised soil tank system is flushed by
recycled soil water
potable water
racasan
On Board Maintenance Systems
1. A modern aircraft CMC uses
a CRT screen
a magnetic fault indicator
an LED display
2. A Flight Data Recorder is activated when
the helicopter's engines are started
the helicopter takes off
when power is applied to the helicopter
3. An aircraft condition monitoring system
detects the source of a fault
stores information for long term error analysis
sends information to the central maintenance cell
4. In an autoland aircraft fitted with a CMC
all faults are recorded in Non-Volatile memory
only Primary Faults are recorded
all faults are recorded in Volatile memory
5. In a CMC system, where would you find a 'real time' fault?
In Fault
In Test
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In Fault History
6. In a CMC, warning signals are generated by
Warning computer
FMC
CMC
7. One of the inputs in a CMC is autopilot controls. The data will be stored in
erased only after end of sector
volatile memory
non-volatile memory
8. The real time on a CMC is when
ground test page is selected on the CDU
existing faults page is selected on the CDU
fault history page is selected on the CDU
9. A MCDU is
to transmit data to ground
to dialog with the central maintenance computer
to store fault data
10. With a ACMS quick access recorder
you must use digital tape
the tape can have been used previously if it is first bulk erased
the tape must not have been used before
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TEST 1
1.Above the glideslope, the ILS glideslope signal modulation is
90 Hz
90 KHZ
150 Hz
2.In aircraft hydraulic systems, it is permissible to use
any fluid of the same specific gravity
any hydraulic fluid available
only the specified fluid
3.To check an oxygen system for moisture
pass 72 litres/min through a filter paper in a clean glass
a hygrometer is used
a sniff test is used
4.What is the purpose of diode in a power GCR?
To prevent back-flow of current in the EMF coil
To speed up the operation
To allow flow in the event of failure of the relay
5.How are passenger door pressure loads transmitted to the fuselage structure?
Through the latching mechanism
By door stops
By the pressure seal
6.To position the bogie beam at a suitable angle for retraction and landing, a
hop damper is used
snubber is used
castoring damper is used
7.A fire detection system can pass through one zone to another providing
it is separated by steel
the system is protected
the system is duplicated
8.How often do hand-held extinguishers have to be weighed?
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Annually
Every 5 years
Bi-annually
9.Pressure refuelling is carried out at
40 PSI
20 PSI
15 PSI
10.For a particular I.A.S. as the density decreases with altitude, the T.A.S.
decreases
remains the same
increases
11.In large air conditioning systems, the main fan is activated to
ensure positive duct pressure is maintained
ensure conditioned air is distributed
ensure conditioned air is distributed and maintain positive duct pressure
12.The following takes place at the transition point on a wing:
The boundary layer makes the transition from laminar flow to the turbulent boundary layer
The total dynamic and static pressure comes to a standstill
The airflow separates completely from the wing surface
13.Extending the flaps while maintaining a constant angle of attack (all other factors constant)
the aircraft will sink suddenly
the aircraft will yaw
the aircraft will climb
14.The advantages of integral fuel tanks are that they
use the maximum volume for fuel and have the minimum amount of weight
are cheaper to manufacture, more durable and easier to maintain
are easier to design and construct and use the maximum volume of fuel
15.When checking a nicad battery in situ for serviceability
the electrical circuits must be isolated before installing shorting strips
a load is applied to the battery and the voltmeter reading noted
a hydrometer must be used
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16.To ensure that a wing stalls at the root first, stall wedges are
installed on the wing leading edge at the wing tip
installed on the wing leading edge at the wing root
installed at the wing trailing edge at the wing root
17.Total Drag at high Mach numbers is a combination of
profile drag, form drag, induced drag and wave drag
induced drag, wave drag, form drag, skin friction drag and interference drag
wave drag, interference drag, form drag, and induced drag
18.When inflating a tyre and you notice ice in the valve stem
wait for ice to melt before carrying on with inflation
heat the valve stem gently with a blow torch
carry on inflating as ice in the valve stem is no problem
19.Due to the change of lift forces resulting from the extension of flaps in flight
nose should be raised, increasing AoA
nose should be lowered, reducing AoA
nose should remain in the same position, maintaining same AoA
20.What is true regarding deployment of Slats / Krueger flaps?
Krueger flaps increase the critical angle of attack, Slats do not
Slats form a slot, Krueger flaps do not
Slats increase the critical angle of attack, Krueger flaps do not
21.Buckling in a semi-monocoque structure is prevented by
longerons
bulkheads
stringers
22.Vortex generators are fitted to
move transition point forwards
advance the onset of flow separation
move transition point rearwards
23.Glideslope controls autopilot in
roll
yaw
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pitch
24.The transition point located on the wing is the point where
airflow starts separating from the wing
the boundary layer changes from laminar flow to turbulent flow
the airflow changes from subsonic to supersonic flow
25.Ram Air Turbines have variable fan blades to
maintain a constant speed
produce maximun hydraulic pressure required by the system
provide a constant flow rate
26.What is the main purpose of a frise aileron?
Increase drag on the up going wing
Decrease drag on the up going wing
Help pilot overcome aerodynamic loads
27.A wing mounted stall warning vane
moves down at impending stall
moves up at impending stall
gives a visual indication of impending stall
28.Bending stresses are a combination of
torsional and compression stresses
tension and compression stresses
tension and shear stresses
29.On a mono-spar wing, what gives the wing its profile contour?
Milled stringers
The position of the spars
Ribs
30.The GPS satellite system consists of
20 satellites and 5 standby satellite
24 satellites and 1 standby satellites
21 satellites and 3 standby satellites
31.FM improvements affect what system?
VHF, VOR and ILS
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ADF, VHF and ILS
ADF, VOR and ILS
32.The pneumatic system pump is a
piston type
centrifugal type
rotor vane type
33.What is the reply frequency of an aircraft transponder?
1090 MHz
1030 MHz
1000 MHz
34.In an artificial horizon Pendulosity Error is caused by
displacement of erection control device
bottom lightness of inner gimbals
bottom heaviness of inner gimbals
35.To enable a hydraulic system to operate two components with different pressures, a
pressure reducing valve is used
pressure relief valve is used
pressure regulating valve is used
36.Critical Mach No. may be increased by
using more powerful engines
sweeping back the wing
using a higher thickness/chord ratio wing
37.Wing bending and shear loads are taken by
spar cap
main spar
skin
38.How may the basic principle of the radio altimeter be described?
As a comparison of radio altitude against a barometric altitude referenced to ISA sea level (1013.25mb)
As a measure of the time between a RF pulse transmission and the reception of its echo from the ground directly below the aircraft
As a series of radio pulses to the ground their frequency depending on the expansion or contraction of an evacuated capsule and the deflection of an E and I bar transducer
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39.Subsequent to passing through the primary heat exchanger, the supply air in a turbo-fan cold air system flows to the
inter cooler or secondary heat exchanger
fan
turbine
40.The final coat of sealing in a integral fuel tank is called
interfay
brush coat
fillet
41.Which systems provide envelope modulation information for a Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS)
Autothrottle
Flaps/undercarriage
Rudder/ailerons
42.When turbulence mode is selected, which other mode will not be available?
VOR
Heading Hold
ALT Hold
43.Stalling speed in a 15° bank level turn is 60kt. The stalling speed in a 45° bank level turn will be
70 kts
60 kts
50 kts
44.If the weight of an aircraft is increased, the maximum lift-to-drag ratio will
not be affected
increase
decrease
45.When entering a stall, the CG of a straight wing will (i) and of a strongly swept wing will (ii)
(i) not move, (ii) not move
(i) move aft, (ii) move aft
(i) move aft, (ii) not move
46.Composite brake units
have less weight than normal brake units and have increased efficiency at high temperatures
weigh the same as normal brake units and fade away at high temperatures
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have less weight than normal brake units but fade away at high temperatures
47.Toilets are the subject of
AWN 80
AWN 79
AWN 83
48.Upper surface wing skin is usually made from
2024
7075
5056
49.A tab which assists the pilot to move a flying control by moving automatically in the opposite direction to the control surface is called a
servo tab
geared balance tab
trim tab
50.A capacitive fire wire
will neither work nor test if broken circuit
will work but not test if broken circuit
will work but not test if short circuited
51.An over station sensor (OSS) detects
radio deviation signals proportional to distance from a localiser transmitter
the rapid rate of the VOR signal over the cone of confusion
radio deviation signals proportional to distance from a VOR transmitter
52.One of the principles of cooling employed in an air cycle system is
by surface heat exchange in the C.A.U.
conversion of heat energy to mechanical energy in the C.A.U.
by compression of ambient air across a turbine
53.The angle of attack at which a wing stalls will
remain the same regardless of centre of gravity position
increase if the centre of gravity is moved forward
increase if the centre of gravity is moved aft
54.The control of ventilating and pressurising air released to atmosphere is achieved by a
pressure controller/dump valve combination
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pressure controller/discharge valve combination
discharge valve/inwards relief valve combination
55.If an aircraft has alkaline batteries, the battery compartment drain pipes will be
stainless steel
aluminium alloy
plastic
56.On passenger aircraft of two or more zones
the seat backs fold forward at over wing emergency exits
the emergency exits are to be clearly signed
there should be at least one exit per zone
57.What is the maximum allowable concentration (by volume) of carbon monoxide in occupied aircraft compartment?
0.01 % (100 p.p.m)
0.02 % (200 p.p.m)
0.005% (50 p.p.m)
58.How are passenger reading lights normally tested?
Each one is switched on individually at passenger panel
By using a READ LIGHT TEST switch on the cabin attendant panel
By using a READ LIGHT TEST switch at any passenger panel
59.Frequency (Hz) is the number of cycles per
revolution
minute
second
60.'Frequency wild' alternators supply
resistive circuits
capacitive circuits
inductive circuits
61.You would expect to find a squib connected to
a fire detection system
a fire suppression system
a smoke detection system
62.On engine shutdown, what prevents GCR being tripped?
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Under-frequency
Under-current
Under-volt
63.When pressurising the aircraft on the ground for test purposes, internal doors, cupboards etc. must be
all closed
all open
removed
64.When replacing a flexible pipe
do a bonding check
tighten only hand tight
use two spanners to stop pipe from twisting
65.How is the the glideslope frequency chosen on the navigation control panel?
Via the G/S selector knob
It is not manually chosen. It is paired with the localizer frequency
It is not manually chosen. It is paired with the VOR frequency
66.An artificial feel system is required
for power assisted control systems
for power operated control systems
for proportional control systems
67.The servicing and charging of nickel-cadmium and lead-acid batteries together in the same service area is likely to result in
contamination of both types of batteries
normal battery service life
increased explosion and/or fire hazard
68.The Turn and Slip indicator employs
a rate gyro
an azimuth gyro
a vertical gyro
69.What are the four stresses to be considered when building an aircraft?
Compression, Torsion, Tension, Shear
Compression, Torsion, Stress, Strain
Compression, Tension, Torsion, Stress
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70.When the fire-handle switch is pulled, a
red warning light stays on. Generator, hydraulics, & fuel is cut off
red warning light goes off. Generator goes offline
red warning light stays on. Generator, hydraulics & fuel stays on
71.After a tank bag has been replaced, a fuel flow test should be carried out at
tank outlet
engine inlet
tank shut-off valve point
72.Before filling a vapour cycle cooling system
pre-heat the system to 100°F
apply suction to remove air and moisture
flush the system with a solvent
73.In typical vapour cycle system, the sub-cooler
cools the vapour further to prevent slugging
is a heat exchanger to superheat the vapour
delivers extra cooling effect when the aircraft is on ground
74.Cylinders containing purified oxygen for breathing are painted
black
white with a black collar
black with a white collar
75.On selection of MLG down, the gear extends then begins to retract again. The cause is
a faulty actuator
gear lowered at too high an airspeed
a faulty selector valve
76.What happens if you reduce the curvature of the leading edge?
Advance the shock wave formation
It will have no effect on shock wave formation
Delay the shock wave formation
77.The laser ring gyro
has a stabilized platform
does not have a gimbal but does have rotating parts
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does not have a gimbal
78.One of the advantages of the semi-monocoque construction is that it
is easier to manufacture
takes all the loads in the skin
shares the loads
79.HF aerials have weak points designed at
both ends
the back end
the front end
80.Restrictor valves are fitted in hydraulic systems to
restrict the rate of pressure build-up
limit the maximum pressure
control rate of system operation
81.A fire detection system should be
positioned in a location determined by the manufacture during the design
designed to detect fires only
designed to withstand vibration & mechanical loads sustained during normal operation
82.A constant speed drive unit has a warning light indication
for when it is disconnected from the generator
for low speed
for low oil pressure
83.INS wind speed is calculated from
the vectorial addition of IAS and GS
the vectorial addition of TAS and GS
the vectorial addition of IAS and TAS
84.When the cabin differential pressure has reached the required value and the height is maintained
the pressure system ceases to function until the cabin pressure is reduced
constant mass airflow is permitted through the cabin
all pressurized air is spilled to atmosphere
85.In a pulsed width modulating type voltage regulator, the generator output voltage is increased by
decreasing the mark to space ratio
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increasing the voltage sensed by the voltage regulator
increasing the mark to space ratio
86.If an aircraft has ability to transfer fuel in flight, provision must be made to
stop engine from using tank during transfer
provide overflow facility to dump fuel
shut off fuel before structural damage
87.A constant delivery pump has its output varied with
gears
regulators
servo pressure
88.In an AC distribution system, the purpose of the synchronising bus-bar is to
provide interconnection between the generator load busbars
provide a means of monitoring the load
supply essential services
89.A cold air unit allows for cabin temperatures to be
same as ambient temperature, despite compression heating
a little more than ambient air temperature
lower than ambient air temperature despite compression heating
90.The Middle Marker beacon is what colour?
White
Amber
Blue
91.Frequencies used for a Microwave Landing System are
5 - 5.1 MHz
5 - 5.1 GHz
5 - 5.1 KHz
92.On a CWS, which has the highest priority?
Hydraulic pump failure
Fire warning
Duct overheat
93.What manoeuvre does TCAS II advise the pilot to make?
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TA
either RA or TA
RA
94.A TCAS blade aerial is
unidirectional
a 1-band omnidirectional array
a 1-band directional array
95.A universal protractor used to measure degrees of aileron travel should be zeroed
when the aircraft is in level flight attitude
with the aileron in the neutral position
with the aileron in the down position
96.In a constant frequency AC system, reactive load sharing is achieved by regulating the
generator drive torque
voltage regulator
generator speed
97.In a diluter demand oxygen system
oxygen is supplied with a continuous pressure flow
each member of the crew has a continuous oxygen supply
each member of the crew has a regulator
98.Over-voltage condition trips the generator. The time taken to trip the GCU depends on
time delay circuit
amplitude of voltage
closing of fuel and hydraulic valves
99.The cabin altitude is
the actual height of the aircraft above sea level
the equivalent height of the aircraft above sea level
the difference between cabin pressure and atmospheric pressure
100.How is an aircraft battery rated?
Ampere hours
Joules
Watts
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101.Airworthiness requirements for large aircraft are found in
ANO 25
JAR 25
CS 25
102.What pressure are oxygen cylinders usually pressurised to?
1800 PSI
300 PSI
3000 PSI
103.A laser gyro output is
directly proportional to frequency addition
inversely proportional to angular turning rate
directly proportional to angular turning rate
104.An absolute pressure gauge measures
the applied pressure referred to a perfect vacuum
pressures extremely accurately
the applied pressure referred to atmospheric pressure
105.How does an aircraft distinguish its own Distance Measuring Equipment reply from those for other aircraft?
By modulation of an audio tone
By using an alternate frequency
By changing at random the time delay between the pulse pairs of the interrogation signal
106.How many programs can a FMC store?
Two. One active and one standby
One current
Two. Both active
107.Wheel speed information is used in auto speed brake systems
to ensure the aircraft has touched down and to give a slight time lapse before spoiler deployment
to ensure the aircraft is still rolling
to stow the spoilers automatically when the aircraft has nearly stopped
108.What determines the material used for oxygen pipe lines?
The whims of the aircraft designer
The length of the pipe runs
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The pressure used in the system
109.The ADIs attitude information is normally obtained from the aircraft's
vertical gyros
directional gyros
attitude rate gyros
110.The input to a stick shaker comes from
angle of attack, and sometimes the rate of change in angle of attack
the airspeed, and sometimes the rate of change in airspeed
the angle of attack only
111.ATA zone 330 is the
vertical stabiliser
left horizontal stabiliser
right horizontal stabiliser
112.From where is bearing information received for display on the digital-distance radio-magnetic indicator (DDRMI)?
From VOR and ADF systems
From VOR only
From ADF only
113.Calcium Chromate tablets can be fitted in integral tanks. Before installation the linen bag should be wetted with
Kerosene
Water
Methylated Spirit
114.Seat track cutouts provide for various seat spacings, usually in
one inch increments
one foot increments
half inch increments
115.A large aircraft air conditioning system's cabin temperature control
is selectable for each zone individually from the flight station
involves modulating the pack valve
all zone temperatures are controlled from one master switch
116.Topping up a Ni-Cad battery in situ
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is permitted
is only allowed in the shop
is not allowed
117.A redundant structure is
a safe-life structure
on-condition structure
a failsafe structure
118.Paint remover substances
should only be used once
are damaging to some aircraft parts
are not damaging to any aircraft parts
119.The mass flow delivery from engine driven blowers is controlled by
automatic control devices
engine speed variations
spill valves
120.On a modern aircraft flight instrument display system, radio deviation is shown on the
EADI
EHSI & EADI
EHSI
121.Which instrument are most likely to damage if you have a rapid drop in pressure, when carrying out a pitot-static leak check?
vertical speed indicator
Air speed indicator
Altimeter
122.A fuel crossfeed valve is usually in
the closed position
its last position
the open position
123.On large aircraft, braked wheel assemblies are normally inflated with
nitrogen
nitrogen and not more than 5% of air
an argon and CO2 mixture
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124.Track altitude in a radio altimeter system begins at
2 500 ft radio alt.
1 000 ft radio alt.
10 000 ft radio alt.
125.A Schuler pendulum has a period of oscillation of
8.4 minutes
84.4 minutes
84.4 seconds
126.A lead-acid battery is considered to be fully charged when the
cells begin to gas freely
S.G. and voltage remain constant for specified period
S.G. reaches 1.180
127.Voltage is controlled by
the constant speed drive
the voltage regulator
the swashplate
128.Deploying a secondary flight control surface will
decrease the angle of attack of the aerofoil
increase the angle of attack of the aerofoil
not affect the angle of attack
129.Cabin differential pressure is the pressure difference between
8,000ft and standard barometric pressure
the pressure inside the aircraft and the ambient air pressure
sea level air pressure and indicated dynamic pressure in the cabin
130.A flying control mass balance weight
keeps the control surface C of G as close to the trailing edge as possible
ensures that the C of G always acts to aid the pilot thus relieving control column load
tends to move the control surface C of G close to the hinge line
************ THE END ************