MEDICAL SAMPLE PAPER - IIT-ians PACE · 2018-05-30 · medical sample paper .

MEDICAL SAMPLE PAPER

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PHYSICS 1. Which one of the following substances possesses the highest elasticity (a) Rubber (b) Glass (c) Steel (d) Copper

2. A uniform heavy disc is rotating at constant angular velocity about a vertical axis through its centre and perpendicular to the plane of the disc. A lump of plasticine is dropped vertically on the disc and sticks to it. Let L be angular momentum of the system. Which will be constant

(a) (b) and L both (c) L only (d) Neither nor L

3. An alternating voltage V 200 2 sin 100 t where V is in volts and t in seconds, is connected to a series combination of 1 F capacitor and 10 k resistor through an ac ammeter. The reading of the ammeter will be

(a) 2 mA (b) 10 2 mA (c) 2 mA (d) 20 mA

4. The unit of Planck's constant is

(a) Joule (b) Joule/s (c) Joule/m (d) Joule-s

5. A man weighing 80 kg is standing in a trolley weighing 320 kg. The trolley is resting on frictionless horizontal rails. If the man starts walking on the trolley with a speed of 1 m/s, then after 4 sec his displacement relative to the ground will be

(a) 5 m (b) 4.8 m (c) 3.2 m (d) 3.0 m

6. The motion of planets in the solar system is an example of the conservation of

(a) Mass (b) Linear momentum (c) Angular momentum (d) Energy

7. A moves with 65 km/h while B is coming back of A with 80 km/h. The relative velocity of B with respect to A is

(a) 80 km/h (b) 60 km/h (c) 15 km/h (d) 145 km/h

8. A projectile is thrown in the upward direction making an angle of 60o with the horizontal direction with a velocity of 147 ms–1. Then the time after which its inclination with the horizontal is 45o is

(a) 15 s (b) 10.98 s (c) 5.49 s (d) 2.745 s

9. Moment of inertia of a disc about its own axis is I. Its moment of inertia about a tangential axis in its plane is

(a) 5 I2

(b) 3 I (c) 3 I2

(d) 2 I

10. A body is sliding down an inclined plane having coefficient of friction 0.5. If the normal reaction is twice that of the resultant downward force along the incline, the angle between the inclined plane and the horizontal is

(a) 15o (b) 30o (c) 45o (d) 60o




2

11. A vector 1F

is along the positive X-axis. If its vector product with another vector 2F

is zero then 2F

could be

(a) ˆ4j (b) ˆ ˆ(i j) (c) ˆ ˆ( j k) (d) ˆ( 4i)

12. When a satellite going round earth in a circular orbit of radius r and speed v, losses some of its energy. Then r and v change as

(a) r and v both will increase (b) r and v both will decrease (c) r will decrease and v will increase (d) r will increase and v will decrease

13. A circular disc of radius R and thickness R6

has moment of inertia I about an axis passing

through its centre and perpendicular to its plane. It is melted and recasted into a solid sphere. The moment of inertia of the sphere about its diameter as axis of rotation is

(a) I (b) 2I8

(c) I5

(d) I10

14. A bomb of 12 kg explodes into two pieces of masses 4 kg and 8 kg. The velocity of 8kg mass is 6 m/sec. The kinetic energy of the other mass is

(a) 48 J (b) 32 J (c) 24 J (d) 288 J

15. The masses and radii of the earth and moon are 1 1M ,R and 2 2M ,R respectively. Their centres are distance d apart. The minimum velocity with which a particle of mass m should be projected from a point midway between their centres so that it escape to infinity is

(a) 1 2G2 (M M )d

(b) 1 22G2 (M M )d

(c) 1 2Gm2 (M M )d

(d) 1 2

1 2

Gm(M M )2d(R R )

16. The potential energy of a certain spring when stretched through a distance ‘S’ is 10 Joule. The amount of work (in joule) that must be done on this spring to stretch it through an additional distance ‘S’ will be

(a) 30 (b) 40 (c) 10 (d) 20 17. At what temperature the molecules of nitrogen will have the same rms velocity as the molecules

of oxygen at 127°C (a) 77°C (b) 350°C (c) 273°C (d) 457°C

18. A block of mass M is placed on a rough horizontal surface as shown in the figure. A force F = Mg acts on the block. It is inclined to the vertical at an angle . The coefficient of friction is . The block can be pushed along the surface only when

(a) tan (b) cot

(c) tan / 2 (d) cot / 2

M

F = Mg




3

19. A cylindrical vessel of 90 cm height is kept filled upto the brim. It has four holes 1, 2, 3, 4 which are respectively at heights of 20 cm, 30 cm, 45 cm and 50 cm from the horizontal floor PQ. The water falling at the maximum horizontal distance from the vessel comes from

(a) Hole number 4 (b) Hole number 3 (c) Hole number 2 (d) Hole number 1

20. If a sphere of radius R, cube of side R, and a cylinder of radius R and height R made of same substance are heated to same temperature and then cooled, then which of above will radiate maximum

(a) Cylinder (b) Sphere (c) Cube (d) Cylinder and sphere both

21. A centigrade and a Fahrenheit thermometer are dipped in boiling water. The water temperature is lowered until the Fahrenheit thermometer registers 140°. What is the fall in temperature as registered by the Centigrade thermometer

(a) 30° (b) 40° (c) 60° (d) 80°

22. If a simple pendulum oscillates with an amplitude of 50 mm and time period of 2 sec, then its maximum velocity is

(a) 0.10 m/s (b) 0.15 m/s (c) 0.8 m/s (d) 0.16 m/s

23. The slopes of isothermal and adiabatic curves are related as

(a) Isothermal curve slope = Adiabatic curve slope

(b) Isothermal curve slope = Adiabatic curve slope

(c) Adiabatic curve slope = Isothermal curve slope

(d) Adiabatic curve slope = 12 Isothermal curve slope

24. A liquid does not wet the sides of a solid, if the angle of contact is

(a) Zero (b) Obtuse (More than 90o)

(c) Acute (Less than 90o) (d) 90o

25. The specific heat of hydrogen gas at constant pressure is 3pC 3.4 10 cal / kg C and at constant

volume is 3vC 2.4 10 cal / kg C . If one kilogram hydrogen gas is heated from 10°C to 20°C at

constant pressure, the external work done on the gas to maintain it at constant pressure is

(a) 510 calories (b) 410 calories (c) 310 calories (d) 35 10 calories

26. The total energy of a particle executing S.H.M. is proportional to

(a) Displacement from equilibrium position (b) Frequency of oscillation

P Q 1 2 3 4




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(c) Velocity in equilibrium position (d) Square of amplitude of motion

27. Standing waves are produced in a 10 m long stretched string. If the string vibrates in 5 segments and the wave velocity is 20 m/s, the frequency is

(a) 2 Hz (b) 4 Hz (c) 5 Hz (d) 10 Hz

28. A lead bullet of 10 g travelling at 300 m/s strikes against a block of wood and comes to rest. Assuming 50% of heat is absorbed by the bullet, the increase in its temperature is (specific heat of lead = 150J/kg, K)

(a) 100°C (b) 125°C (c) 150°C (d) 200°C

29. Two long parallel wires P and Q are held perpendicular to the plane of paper with distance of 5m between them. If P and Q carry current of 2.5 amp. and 5 amp. respectively in the same direction, then the magnetic field at a point half-way between the wires is

(a) 0 /17 (b) 03 / 2 (c) 0 / 2 (d) 03 / 2

30. Two tuning forks have frequencies 450 Hz and 454 Hz respectively. On sounding these forks together, the time interval between successive maximum intensities will be

(a) 1/4 sec (b) 1/2 sec (c) 1 sec (d) 2 sec

31. Two small bar magnets are placed in a line with like poles facing each other at a certain distance d apart. If the length of each magnet is negligible as compared to d the force between them will be inversely proportional to

(a) d (b) 2d (c) 2

1d

(d) 4d

32. The diagram shows a capacitor C and a resistor R connected in series to an ac source. 1V and 2V are voltmeters and A is an ammeter

Consider now the following statements

I. Readings in A and 2V are always in phase

II. Reading in 1V is ahead in phase with reading in 2V

III. Readings in A and 1V are always in phase which of these statements are/is correct

(a) I only (b) II only (c) I and II only (d) II and III only

33. The current passing through a choke coil of 5 henry is decreasing at the rate of 2 ampere/sec. The e.m.f. developing across the coil is

(a) 10 V (b) – 10 V (c) 2.5 V (d) – 2.5 V

34. A wire coil carries the current i. The potential energy of the coil does not depend upon

(a) The value of i (b) The number of turns in the coil

C V2

V1

A

R




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(c) Whether the coil has an iron core or not (d) The resistance of the coil

35. A source of sound placed at the open end of a resonance column sends an acoustic wave of pressure amplitude 0P inside the tube. If the atmospheric pressure is Ap , then the maximum and minimum pressure at the closed end of the tube will be

(a) A 0 A 0(P P ), (P P ) (b) A 0 A 0(P 2P ), (P 2P )

(c) A AP ,P (d) A 0 A 01 1P P , P P2 2

36. Two particle of equal mass m and charge q are placed at a distance of 16 cm. They do not

experience any force. The value of qm

is

(a) 40G (b) 0

G

(c) 0

G4

(d) 04 G

37. An ammeter and a voltmeter of resistance R are connected in series to an electric cell of negligible internal resistance. Their readings are A and V respectively. If another resistance R is connected in parallel with the voltmeter

(a) Both A and V will increase (b) Both A and V will decrease

(c) A will decreases and V will increase (d) A will increase and V will decrease

38. The angle of dip at the magnetic equator is

(a) 0° (b) 45° (c) 30° (d) 90°

39. Two infinitely long parallel wires having linear charge densities 1 and 2 respectively are placed

at a distance of R metres. The force per unit length on either wire will be 0

1k4

(a) 1 22

2kR (b) 1 22k

R (c) 1 2

2kR (d) 1 2k

R

40. If in the circuit shown, the internal resistance of the battery is 1.5 and VP and VQ are the potentials at P & Q respectively what is the potential difference between P and Q

(a) Zero (b) 4 volts (VP > VQ)

(c) 4 volt (VQ > VP) (d) 2.5 volt (VQ > VP)

41. In a uniformly charged spherical shell of radius r the electric field is

(a) Zero (b) Non-zero constant

2

P

Q

20 V

3

3

2

1.5




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(c) Varies with r (d) Inversely varies with r

42. In the figure shows, the potential difference across AB is 8.5 V. If the internal resistance of the battery is 1 , it’s emf is

(a) 18 V (b) 15 V

(c) 9 V (d) 6 V

43. A body of mass 5 kg explodes at rest into three fragments with masses in the ration 1 : 1 : 3. The fragment with equal masses fly in mutually perpendicular directions with speeds of 21 metres per sec. The velocity of the heaviest fragments will be

(a) 11.5 metres per sec (b) 14.0 metres per sec

(c) 7.0 metres per sec (d) 9.87 metres per sec

44. A 5000 kg rocket is set for vertical firing. The exhaust speed is 2800 ms . To give an initial

upward acceleration of 220 ms , the amount of gas ejected per second to supply the needed

thrust will be 2(g 10 ms )

(a) 1127.5 kg s (b) 1187.5 kg s (c) 1185.5 kg s (d) 1137.5 kg s

45. Two concentric spheres of radii R and r have similar charges with equal surface densities ( ) . What is the electric potential at their common centre ?

(a) 0

(b) 0

Rr

(c) 0

(R r)

(d)

0

(R r)

ASSERTION & REASON

Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given below :

(a) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.

(d) If assertion is false but reason is true.

46. Assertion : A metallic shield in form of a hollow shell may be built to block an electric field.

Reason : In a hollow spherical shield, the electric field inside it is zero at every point.

47. Assertion : The frequency of a second pendulum in an elevator moving up with an acceleration half the acceleration due to gravity is 0.612 s–1.

Reason : The frequency of a second pendulum does not depend upon acceleration due to gravity.

A

7 D

6

B

C

4 1




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48. Assertion : When a bottle of cold carbonated drink is opened, a slight fog forms around the opening.

Reason : Adiabatic expansion of the gas causes lowering of temperature and condensation of water vapours.

49. Assertion : The internal energy of an isothermal process does not change.

Reason : The internal energy of a system depends only on pressure of the system.

50. Assertion : Gauss theorem is not applicable in magnetism.

Reason : Mono magnetic pole does not exist.

CHEMISTRY 51. The correct order of acidity of the following is:

O S O O

(I) (II) (III) (IV)

(a) III IV I II (b) III IV II I (c) IV III I II (d) None of these

52. Which of the following molecules can act as a nucleophile and an electrophile? (a) CH3NH2 (b) CH3Cl (c) CH3CN (d) CH3OH

53. Among the following compounds, the one which will not show keto-enol tautomerism is:

(a) O

(b) O

CH3

CH3

(c)

O

O

(d) O O

54. Which of the following statements is/are correct? (a) A meso compound has chiral centres but exhibits not optical activity (b) A meso compound has no chiral centres and thus are optically inactive (c) A meso compound has molecules which are superimposable on their mirror images even

through they contain chiral centres (d) A meso compound is optically inactive because the rotation caused by any molecule is

cancelled by an equal and opposite rotation caused by another molecule that is the mirror image of the first.




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55. Which of the following compounds is optically active?

(a)

Cl

Br

(b)

Cl

Br

(c) Cl Cl

(d)

Cl

Cl

56. For the given reaction how many products will obtain (all isomers)?

2Br /hv Pr oducts

(a) 1 (b) 6 (c) 4 (d) 3

57. Arrange following compounds in decreasing order of basicity.

N

H

N

O

N

H

N

H

(I) (II) (III) (IV)

(a) IV I III II (b) III I IV II

(c) II I III IV (d) I III II IV

58.

2Br /hv Pr oducts :

CH3

H D

CH3 H

C2H5 (a) CH3

H D

CH3 Br

C2H5

(b) CH3

H D

Br CH3

C2H5 (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these

59. Among the following the aromatic compound is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

+ +




9

60. 2

NBS HBr MgH O,X Y Z; Z is :

(a)

(b) CH3

(c) (d)

61. Which of the following is most suitable reagent to distinguish compound III from others? I. CH3 – C C – CH3 II. CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH3 III. CH3 – CH2 – C CH IV. CH3 – CH = CH2 (a) Bromine in CCl4 (b) Ammonical Cu2Cl2 (c) Ammonical AgNO3 (d) Both (b) and (c)

62.

In the dehydration of

OH

, the products formed are

(a)

CH2

(b)

CH3

(c)

(d) All the three products are formed

63. Hydroboration oxidation and acid hydration will not yield the same product in case of:

(a)

(b)

(c) CH2 = CH2 (d) CH3CH = CHCH3

64. Which of the following statements is correct? (a) Hydrogenation of 2-butyne in presence of Na and liquid ammonia yields cis-2-butene (b) Hydrogenation of 2-butyne in presence of Lindlar’s catalyst yields cis-2-butene (c) Hydrogenation of 2-butyne in presence of Pt catalyst gives cis-2-butane (d) None of these




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65. Products of the reaction,

2D O / D

CH3

CH3

CH3

CH2

(a) CH3

CH3

CH3 OD

CH2D

(b) CH3

CH3

OD

CH2D

CH3

(c) CH3

CH3

OD D

CH3

H

(d) CH3

CH3

CH3 D

CH2

OD 66. Bond order for N2

+ and N2– are same. Which relation is correct for N2

+ and N2–?

(a) Bond energy of N2+ = Bond energy of N2

– (b) Bond energy of N2

+ Bond energy of N2–

(c) Bond energy of N2+ Bond energy of N2

– (d) Bond length of N2

+ Bond length of N2–

67. Dipole moment of K+Cl– is 3.336 10–29 cm and it is 80% ionic in nature. The inter ionic distance between K+ Cl– is

(a) 1.30Å (b) 2.60 Å (c) 3.9 Å (d) 1.20 Å

68. How many chiral compound are possible on mono chlorination of 2-methyl butane? (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8

69. CH3–CH=CH2 + NOCl P. Identify the adduct (a) H3C CH CH2

Cl NO

(b) H3C CH CH2

NO Cl (c)

CH3 CH2 CH

Cl

NO

(d) CH2 CH CH2

ClNO

70. Missing of one cation and one anion from the crystal lattice is called

(a) Ionic defect (b) Crystal defect (c) Schottky defect (d) Frenkel defect

71. The rate constant )'K( of one of the reaction is found to be double to that of the rate constant )"K( of another reaction. Then the relationship between the corresponding activation energies of

the two reactions 'Ea( and "Ea ) can be represented as




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(a) "a

'a EE (b) "

a'a EE (c) "

a'a EE (d) "

a'a E4E

72. Coordination number in case of face centred cubic lattice is

(a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 12 (d) 4

73. The vant Hoff factor of KCl is 1.92. The degree of dissociation of KCl in aqueous solution of 0.005 M KCl will be

(a) 8 % (b) 80 % (c) 92 % (d) 98 %

74. Calculate the volume of hydrogen at NTP obtained by passing a current of 0.4 ampere through acidified water for 30 minutes

(a) 0.0836 litre (b) 0.1672 litre (c) 0.0432 litre (d) 0.836 litre

75. The emf of the cell

3 2Cr / Cr (1M) || Cd (0.1M) | Cd is

3 2o oCr /Cr Cd/Cd

(E 0.47V,E 0.40V)

(a) 0.34 V (b) 0.07 V (c) –1.14 V (d) 1.799 V

76. The vapour pressure of pure cyckohexane is 100 mm Hg and cyetopentane is 180 mm Hg at a certain temperature. What would be the total vapour pressure of the solution if the mole fraction of cyclohexane in vapour phase is 0.25?

(a) 112.5 (b) 135 (c) 150 (d) 120

77. Three Faradays electricity was passed through an aqueous solution of iron (II) bromide. The weight of iron metal (At. wt = 56) deposited at the cathode (in gm.) is

(a) 56 (b) 84 (c) 112 (d) 168

78. Which of the following is not disproportionsation? (a) P4 + 50H– H2PO4

– + PH3 (b) Cl2 + OH– ClO + ClO– (c) 2H2O2 2H2O + O2 (d) PbO2 + H2O PbO + H2O2

79. Which is true about the rate of nitration of the following compounds

H

H

H

H

H

H

D

D

D

D

D

D

(I) (II)




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(a) I is faster than II (b) II is faster than I

(c) They follow the same rate (d) cannot be determined

80. The correct order of solubility of fluorides of alkaline earth metals is: (a) MgF2 BaF2 SrF2 CaF2 BeF2 (b) BeF2 MgF2 CaF2 SrF2 BaF2 (c) BaF2 SrF2 CaF2 MgF2 BaF2 (d) None of these

81. Which represents nitrolim: (a) CaCN2 + C (b) CaC2 + N2 (c) Ca(CN)2 + Ca(NO3)2 (d) None of these 82. Reaction of

Owith RMgX followed by hydrolysis will lead to produce

(a) RCHOHR (b) RCHOHCH3

(c) R2CHCH2OH (d) RCH2CH2OH

83. A gas system was such that no process could do any work on the system or get any work done by the system. The system

(a) has adiabatic walls (b) is a constant energy system

(c) shows no temperature change (d) has rigid walls.

84. Heat capacity, boiling point, molar enthalpy, temperature and volume. If ‘E’ stands for extensive and ‘I’ is for intensive properties. The aforementioned properties are:

(a) I, I, E, E, E (b) I, E, E, I, E

(c) E, I, E, I, E (d) E, I, I, I, E.

85. Find the ratio of work done when a certain amount of ideal gas is isothermally and reversibly compressed from 10 L to 2.5L first and then further to 500 mL from 2.5L. (Given log 2 = 0.3)

(a) 4/5 (b) 6/7

(c) 8/6 (d) 5/4.

86. HA and BOH are hypothetical weak acid and base. 0.3 moles of HA on complete neutralization with a strong base released 10.8 kJ of energy. 0.4 moles of BOH on the other hand released 12.8 kJ of energy with a strong acid. Find the enthalpy change when 0.6 moles each of HA and BOH neutralizes each other assuming standard enthalpy of neutralization of strong acid and base to be – 57 kJ/mol.




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(a) – 40.8 kJ (b) – 20.4 kJ

(c) – 11.4 kJ (d) – 6.6 kJ.

87. Consider the following equilibrium and statements that follow

2 2 3N g 3H g 2NH g

Given that equilibrium is attained in a constant pressure container at 43ºC and that 4.5 moles of neon is introduced at equilibrium, which of the following statements are right?

(i) more H2 is produced

(ii) concentrations of all gases change

(iii) more NH3 is consumed

(iv) less nitrogen – nitrogen bonds remain

(a) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (b) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(c) (i) and (iii) (d) (i), (iii) and (iv).

88. A 20 mL 10–4 M NaOH solution is poured into 19.98L water. The pH of the resulting solution is:

(a) between 9 to 10 (b) exactly seven

(c) between 8 and 9 (d) between 7 and 8.

89. If kb for 2A B 3C D is 10–4 and Kf is 10–1. Then the equilibrium constant, Kc, for

6C 2D 4A 2B will be:

(a) 10+3 (b) 10–6 (c) 10–3 (d) 106.

90. For a tribasic weak acid H3A, pKa1 =3.6, pKa2 = 7.8, pKa3 = 11.4. Find the pH of a 10–2 M solution of Na2HA.

(a) 5.7 (b) 7.8

(c) 9.6 (d) 7.5.

91. Which of the following could be a buffer

(a) 10 mL 0.4 M NH4Cl + 10 mL 0.2 M HCl

(b) 20 mL 0.4M CH3COONa + 30 mL 0.4 M HCl




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(c) 30 mL 0.6M HCOONa + 40 mL 0.5 M NaOH

(d) 30 mL 0.2M NH4CN + 20 mL 0.3 M BaSO4.

92. In hydrogen atom, which of the following transitions emit minimum frequency?

(a) n4 n, (b) n2 n1

(c) n4 n2 (d) n3 n1

93. The ratio of area covered by second orbit to the first orbit is

(a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 16 (c) 8 : 1 (d) 16 : 1

94. Energy levels A, B, C of a certain atom corresponds to increasing values of energy i.e. EA EB EC. If 1, 2 and 3 be the wavelengths of radiations corresponding to the transitions C to B, B to A and C to A, respectively. Then

(a) 3 = 1 + 2 (b) 1 23

1 2

(c) 1 + 2 + 3 = 0 (d) 3

2 = 12 + 2

2

95. The molality of 15% (wt./vol.) solution of H2SO4 of density 1.1 g/cm3 is approximately

(a) 1.2 (b) 1.4 (c) 1.8 (d) 1.6

In the following questions a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R).

(a) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion, then mark (a)

(b) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion, then mark (b)

(c) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is false, then mark (c) (d) If both Assertion and Reason are false statements, then mark (d)

96. A: Addition of 2Br to 1-butene gives two optical isomers. R: The product contains one asymmetric carbon.

97. A: Addition of bromine to trans-2-butene yields meso-2, 3-dibromo butane. R: Bromine addition to an alkene is an electrophilic addition.

98. A: A reaction is spontaneous only if entropy of the system increases.

R: All naturally spontaneous process have negative Gibb’s energy.

99. A: Orbitals having xz plane as node may be 3dxy

R: 3dxy has zero radial node




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100. A: Molarity of a solution and molality of a solution both change with density

R: Density of the solution changes when percentage by mass of solution changes.

BOTANY

101. Which of the following statement is not correct about different classification systems?

(a) Plant and animal kingdoms have been constant under all different systems

(b) Understanding of what groups/organisms be included under these kingdoms have been changing.

(c) Number and nature of other Kingdoms have also been understood differently by different scientists over time

(d) Once an organism is placed to one kingdom than its position is permanent

102. According to five kingdom classification which of the following grouping is not correct

(a) Chamydomonas and Yeast (b) Yeast and chlorella

(c) Chlamydomonas and chlorella (d) Chlorella and Spirullina

103. Classification undergoes constant modification this is due to

(1) New evidences from different source

(2) Improvement in our understanding of characteristics and evolutionary relationship

(3) Dynamic nature of living organism with respect to time

(4) Country specific nature of classification.

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3

(b) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4

104. Following are the statement related to flora, out of these how many of them are correct.

(1) It contains recorded description

(2) It also help in correct identification

(3) Contains the actual account of habitat and distribution of plants of given area

(4) These provide the index to the plant species found in particular area

(a) 4 (b) 3




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(c) 2 (d) 1

105. In R.H. Whittaker five kingdom classification how many kingdom includes heterotrophic organism and how many kingdom includes autotrophic organisms

(a) 3, 2 (b) 4, 3

(c) 5, 2 (d) 2, 3

106. Which of the following combination (s) is incorrect?

Kingdom Mode of Nutrition Cell Wall Body organization A. Monera In Blue green algae –

Photosynthetic In bacteria – Polysaceharide + Amino acids

In bacteria – Cellular

B. Protista In Euglena – Photosynthetic as well as Heterotropic

In Dinoflagellates – Cellulosic

In chrysophyta – Tissue level

C. Fungi In all members – Heterotrophic In Albugo – chitin In Agarius – Multicellular D. Plantae In spirogyra – Photosynthetic In algae & bryophyta –

Cellulosic In all members – Tissue / organ

E. Animalia In all members – Heterotrophic In all members – Absent

In all members – Tissue / organ / system

Options :

(a) A & B (b) A & C

(c) A & D (d) B & C

107. The soil which is used in polishing filtration of oils and syrups are made of

(a) Cellulosic plates on the surface of Dinoflagellates.

(b) Cell body of desmids.

(c) Cell wall of chrysophytes.

(d) Extremely resistant spores of slime moulds.

108. How many statements among the given, are true for the phylogenetic classification system

1. It assumes that organisms belonging to the same taxa have a common ancestor

2. This classification was proposed by George Bentham and Joseph Dalton Hooker

3. It is based on evolutionary relationships between various organisms

4. It consider hundreds of characters at the same time




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5. This classification supports when no fossil evidence is available options

(a) 5 (b) 4

(c) 3 (d) 2

109. In which group of algae, frond is present?

(a) Dictyota, Fucus and Laminaria

(b) Polysiphonia, Porphyra & Laminaria

(c) Chara, Fucus and Laminaria

(d) Dictyola, Porphyra, Polysiphonia

110. Which among the following is not the characteristic of bryophytes?

(a) Bryophtes can live in soil but are dependent on water for sexual reproduction

(b) Bryophytes are thallus-like and prostrate or erect and attached to the substratum by unicellular or multicellular rhizoids

(c) Half of the carbon dioxide fixation on earth is carried out by bryophytes through photosynthesis

(d) The main plant body is haploid, and occur in damp, humid and shaded localities

111. Which among the following pteridophytes has compact structure strobili formed by sporotphylls as well as it shows heterospory?

[A] [B] [C]

(a) [A] (b) [B] (c) [C] (d) All the above

112. Identify the stage/phase of cell cycle whose characterisitics are given below. A. This stage is characterised by the appearance of recombination nodules.




18

B. Stage between two meiotic divisions. C. Cells that do not divide further exit this phase to enter an inactive stage. D. Homologous chromosomes separate, while sister chromatids remain associated at their

centromeres. A B C D

(a) pachytene interphase G1 phase anaphase I

(b) diplotene interkinesis G0 phase anaphase II

(c) pachytene interkinesis G0 phase anaphase I

(d) diplotene interphase G0 phase anaphase II

113. Which of the following is not the floral character of family to which Indigofera belongs? (a) Calyx - Sepals five, gamosepalous, imbricate aestivation

(b) Corolla - Petals five, polypetalous, vexillary aestivation

(c) Androecium - Ten, diadelphous, anther dithecous

(d) Gynoecium - Bicarpellary, syncarpous, ovary superior, bilocular, placenta swollen with many ovules.

114. Study the diagram given below and find correct option.

(a) Cortex is divided into three sub-zones and inner most zone is collenchymatous.

(b) Endodermis is also refered as starch sheath.

(c) Pericycle is parenchymatous in the form semi-lunar patch.

(d) Vascular bundles are arranged in ring with exarch protoxylem.

115. Read the given characteristics and find out the characteristics of parenchyma. i. Isodiametric ii. Thick walled iii. Cells are either closely packed or may have small intercellular spaces. iv. Walls are made of cellulose. v. Forms minor component within the organs vi. Performs function like secretion, storage. (a)i, iii, iv, vi (b) i, ii, iii, iv (c) ii, iii, v, vi (d) iii, iv, v, vi




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116. Study the diagram given below and mark a, b, c, and d

(a)

(b)

(d)

(c)

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(a) Phellem Phellogen Epidermis Complimentary cell

(b) Phelloderm Phellogen Epidermis Complimentary cell

(c) Phellogen Phelloderm Complimentary cell Epidermis

(d) Phellogen Complimentary cell Epidermis phelloderm

117. Match the following: I. China rose - A. Opposite phyllotaxy, epigynous flower

II. Brinjal - B. Alternate phyllotaxy, , monoadelphous

III. Guava - C. Zygomorphic flower, diadelphous

IV. Pea - D. Hypogynous flower, stamens are epipetalous

(a) I-B, II-C, III-D , IV- A (b) I-B, II- D, III-A, IV-C

(c) I-B, II-A, III-D , IV- C (d) I-A, II- D, III-B, IV-C

118. How many statements are correct from the following? (a) In racemose type of inflorescences the main axis continues to grow, the flowers are borne

laterally in an acropetal succession.

(b) In the dicot root, the vascular cambium is completely secondary in origin.

(c) Golgi apparatus is the important site of formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids.

(d) Cell growth results in disturbing the ratio between the nucleus and the cytoplasm.




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(a) 1 (b) 2

(c) 3 (d) 4

119. In 70 S or 80 S ribosomes, ‘S’ stands for the sedimentation coefficient, it indirectly is a measure of

(a) density and size (b) mass and density (c) density only (d) mass only

120. How many of the following statement is/are correct? (1) Both Rhizobium and Frankia are free living in soil and can fix N2 only under symbiotic

condition. (2) Root nodules can be best observed before flowering. (3) Formation of root nodule takes place as a result of division of cortical and pericycle cell. (4) When Rhizobium is free living it is aerobic but when it is symbiont it becomes anaerobic to

protect Mo-Fe protein. Options : (a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 1

121. Find odd one out with respect to Melvin Calvin. (a) He was professor of chemistry. (b) Calvin along with J.A.Bassham studied fixation of carbon in plants. (c) He proposed that plant can convert light energy into chemical energy by transferring

electrons in an organized array of pigment molecules and other substance. (d) He discouraged use of radioactivity for human welfare.

122. The universal site of respiration in all the living organism is? (a) Plasma membrane (b) Cytoplasm (c) Mitochondria (d) Chloroplast

123. Which of the following statement is not correct? (a) Pyruvic acid produced as a result of glycolysis can be handled in three different ways. (b) As a result of fermentation less than 7% of energy is released, which is stored in glucose. (c) During alcoholic fermentation death of yeast takes place when alcohol concentration reaches

13%. (d) Enzyme pyruvic acid dehydrogenase and alcohol decarboxylase is involved in fermentation.

124 After degradation by protease proteins enter into aerobic pathway at which of the following stage?

(a) Some stage within Kreb cycle (b) As pyruvate (c) As acetyl CoA (d) All the above

125. Match the following PGR Derivative




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(A) Auxin (1) Terpenes (B) Cytokinin (2) Carotenoides (C) ABA (3) Purine (D) GA3 (4) Amino acid

Options : A B C D (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 2 3 1 (c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 1 4 3 2 126. In which of the following plant flowering is quantitatively or qualitatively dependent on

exposure to low temperature. (a) Sugarbeet (b) Cabbage (c) Carrots (d) All the above

127. The C4 plants are twice efficient with respect to C3 plants because :- (a) They have ability to maximize availability of CO2 while minimizing H2O loss. (b) They have low CO2 requirement with minimum H2O loss. (c) There stomata remains always open and high water loss. (d) There stomata open during night, and minimum H2O loss. 128. Find out the wrong statement with reference to the plant which propagates commonly from

offset. (a) It drains oxygen from the water & leads to death of fish (b) It propagates at the slow rate & confined to few area in water body.

(c) It is the most invasive weed found growing in the water, called “Terror of Bengal” (d) It was introduced in India because of its beautiful flower & shape of leaves

129. How many statements are correct w.r.t. sexual reproduction? (a) Pre-reproductive phase as well as reproductive phase both are of variable durations in

different organism. (b) Juvenile phase is that period of growth when organism reach to a certain stage of growth &

maturity so that they can reproduce sexually. (c) The end of vegetative phase or beginning of reproductive phase is shown in the higher plants

by appearance of flower. (d) Multicellular plants, annual and perennial types, show clear cut vegetative, reproductive and

senescent phases. (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

130. Which among the following is incorrect statement for post fertilization events? (a) The formation of haploid gametes and diploid zygote is the universal in all sexually

reproducing organisms. (b) In lower plants, zygote is formed in the external medium usually in water. (c) In plants with haplontic life cycle, zygote divides by meiosis to form haploid spores that

grow into haploid individuals.




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(d) In algae, fungi and bryophytes zygote develops a thick wall that is resistant to desiccation and damage.

131. Study the diagram given below and find out incorrect statement about this :

(a) Here thalamus contributes in fruit formation.

(b) Its pollen remains viable for 30 minutes.

(c) Here ovary is perigynous.

(d) PGR GA3 is used for improving fruit shape.

132. Study the diagram below and mark 1, 2, 3 and 4

1 2 3 4

(a) Endosperm Cotyledon Hypocotyl root axil

Shoot apical meristem

(b) Endosperm Catyledon Shoot apical meristem

Hypocotyl root axis

(c) Cotyledon Endoperm Shoot apical meristem

Hypocotyl root axis

(d) Cotyledon Endoperm Hypocotyl root axis

Shoot apical meristem

133. Seeds offers several advantages to angiosperms except :

(a) Formation of seed is more dependable.

(b) Have better adaptive strategies.

(c) Generates new genetic recombination.




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(d) Exposes embryo to better environmental conditions.

134. Which of the following statement is not true for apomixis? (a) In some members of family Asteraceae and grasses seeds are produced without fertilization. (b) Apomixis is a form of asexual reproduction which mimics sexual reproduction. (c) Gametophytic cells surrounding the embryo sac starts dividing protrude into the embryo sac

and develops into embryo. (d) If hybrids are made apomictic, cost of production of seeds will come down.

135. Which of the following statement is not associated with phenomenon of flowering?

(a) Decision for flowering takes place much before actual flower appears.

(b) During flowering several structural and hormonal changes takes place.

(c) During flowering differentiation takes place.

(d) Flowering is independent of environmental factors.

136. Out of the following four statement how many of them are true?

(1) In chasmogamous flower complete autogamy is rare.

(2) In viola, oxalis and commelina both cleistogamous and chasmogamous flower is present.

(3) Wind pollinated plants has non-sticky, light pollen, with well exposed stamen, and large feathery stigma.

(4) Flower of wind pollinated plant often have a single ovule in each overy with single flower.

Options :

(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 1

137. Choose the incorrect statement. (a) 23S mRNA in bacteria is the enzyme-ribozyme. (b) RuBisCO is the most abundant enzyme in the world. (c) Severo Ochoa enzyme was helpful in polymerising RNA with defined sequences in a

template independent manner. (d) Recombinase is the enzyme that is involved in crossing over.

138. Consider the following statements w.r.t human genome project and select wrong choice

(a) Scientists have identified about 1.4 million locations where SNPs occur

(b) The human genome contains 3164.7 million nucleotide bases




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(c) The total number of genes is estimated at 80,000

(d) Less then 2 percent of the genome codes for proteins

139. Which of the following step is incorrect w.r.t DNA fingerprinting?

(a) Separation of DNA fragments by electrophoresis.

(b) Isolation of DNA.

(c) Hybridisation using labelled vectors.

(d) Detection of hybridized DNA fragments by autoradiography.

140. How many disease in the list given below are Mendelian disorders?

Thalassaemia, Klinefelter’s Syndrome, Colour-blindness, Down’s Syndrome,

Haemophilia, Cystic fibrosis, Phynylketonuria, Sickle-cell anaemia.

(a) Four (b) Five

(c) Six (d) Seven

141. Severo Ochoa Enzyme is involved in

(a) Deoxyribonucleotide polymerization (b) Amino acid synthesis

(c) Primer dependent DNA system (d) Template independent RNA synthesis

142. Stability of the DNA helical structure is conferred by

(a) Stacking of one base pair over the other in addition to H-bonds.

(b) N-glycosidic bond between nitrogen base and sugar.

(c) Presence of 2 OH group at every nucleotide.

(d) Parallel nature of helix.

143. How many amino acids can be translated from the given sequence of nucleotides in mRNA if 6th nucleotide is substituted with A?

AUG UGC ACU AUA GCG UAA

(a) Two (b) One

(c) Four (d) Three

144. How many of the following statements is / are correct for polygenic inheritance?




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(1) They are spread across a gradient.

(2) Controlled by three or more genes

(3) It also takes into account the influence of environment.

(4) In polygenic inheritance phenotype reflects the contribution of each allele, the effect of each allele is additive.

Options :

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) All the above

145. Match the following:

A. Seals i. Acquire special chemical by feeding on a poisonous weed

B. Desert lizards ii. Meet water requirements through internal fat oxidation

C. Monarch butterfly iii. Thick layer of fat below skin that acts as insulator

D. Kangroo rat iv. Bask in sun and absorb heat when body temperature drops

(a) A-iii , B-iv, C- i ,D-ii (b) A-iv , B-iii, C- ii ,D-i (c) A-iii , B-iv, C- ii ,D-i (d) A-iv , B-iii, C- i ,D-ii In the following questions a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R).



(c) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is false, then mark (c)

(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false statements, then mark (d)

146. A: One species is distinguished from other closely related based on distinct morphological differences.

R: Species is group of individuals with fundamental similarities.

147. A: Peroxisomes participate in photorespiration in C4 plants.




26

R: Catalase enzyme is present in high concentration in peroxisomes.

148. A: Meiosis leads to recombinations of genes.

R: Crossing over occurs in pachytene sub-stage of prophase I of meiosis.

149. A: Hitones are basic proteins of major importance in packaging of eukaryotic DNA. DNA and histones comprise chromatin, forming the bulk of eukaryotic chromosome.

R: Histones are of five major types H1, H2A, H2B and H3 and H4.

150. A: Exons and introns are present in split genes.

R: Introns are the information pieces of split genes.

ZOOLOGY 151.

Chordata

Vertebrata

Pisces

d (Fresh water)

(a)

(b)

(c)

In the given cladogram a, b, c d is

(a) Cephalochordata, agnatha, tetrapoda, rohu

(b) Protochordata, gnathostomata, osteichthyes, angel fish

(c) Protochordata, gnathostomata, chondrichtyes, hippocampus

(d) Urochordata, gnathostomata, osteichthyes, clarias

152. Pick the incorrect match

Characteristic Chondrichthyes Osteichthyes

(a) Mouth Ventral Terminal

(b) Gill slits Uncovered Covered

(c) Caudal fin Heterocercal Homocercal

(d) Excretory product Ammonia Urea

153. Which of the following is not correct regarding reproductive system of Cockroach? (a) Spermatophores are formed within the spermatheca. (b) Ootheca are formed within female genital pouch.




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(c) On an average female produce 9-10 ootheca each containing 14-16 eggs. (d) The development of P.americana is paurometabolous.

154. In the given diagram of mouth parts of cockroach a, b, c, d is

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(a) Mandible, maxilla, labium, hypopharynx

(b) Mandible, maxilla, labrum, hypopharynx

(c) Maxilla, mandible, labium, hypopharynx

(d) Mandible, maxilla, labrum, labium

155. What are common characteristics between given diagram a and b?

(1) Both are example of specialized connective tissue.

(2) Presence of similar ground substance

(3) Presence of lacunae

(4) Presence of collagen fibres

(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 1, 4 only

(c) 1, 3, 4 only (d) 1 only

156. Which of the following statements is/are false about columnar epithelium?

(i) It is made of tall and slender cells

(ii) Free surface may have microvilli

(iii)It is found in stomach and intestine and helps in secretion and absorption




28

(iv) Ciliated epithelium is mainly present in hollow structure like bronchioles and Fallopian tubes

(v) It has apical nucleus

(a) (i) only (b) (v) only (c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iii)

157. When skeletal muscle contraction occurs

(a) The H and I bands gets smaller (b) The Z lines move closer together

(c) The width of A bands remain constant (d) All of these

158. Functionally, which cellular location is the neuron’s “decision-making site” as to whether or not an action potential will be initiated?

(a) axonal membranes (b) axon hillocks

(c) dendritic membranes (d) presynaptic membranes

159. Mark the incorrect statement?

(a) All the co-enzymes are co-factors.

(b) Prosthetic group and co-enzymes are organic compounds.

(c) Metal ions form coordination bond with the active site and substrate molecule.

(d) Zinc is a prosthetic group for the enzymes peroxidase and catalase.

160. Which of the following is correctly matched

(A) Alanine i.

(B) Palmitic acid ii. CH3 – (CH2)16 – COOH

(C) Adenine iii.




29

(D) Uridine iv.

161. Pick the incorrect option:

(a) Inulin polyglycan homopolysaccharide (1 4)

(b) Chitin – heteropolysaccharide - (1 4)

(c) Cellulose – polyglycan homopolysaccharide - (1 4)

(d) Glycogen – polyglycan homopolysaccharide - (1 4) & (1 6)

162. How many statements are true related to human digestive process?

(1) Carbohydrates in the chyme are hydrolysed by pancreatic amylase into disaccharide.

(2) Fats are broken down by gastric lipases with the help of bile into di-and monoglycerides.

(3) Nucleases in the intestinal Juice acts on nucleic acids to form nucleotides and nucleosides.

(4) Dipeptides are formed by the action of proteolytic enzymes of pancreas in the upper part of small intestine.

(a) Three (b) Two

(c) Four (d) one

163. How many of the following statements are correct?

(i) Negative pressure in lungs with respect to the atmospheric air is required for inspiration.

(ii) Volume of the thoracic chamber increases due to contraction of the internal intercostal muscles.

(iii)Tidal volume is 2500 ml.

(iv) Total lung capacity is the sum of vital capacity and residual volume.

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

164. Which one of the following is an event during inspiration?

(a) Intercostal muscles relax.




30

(b) Volume of thoracic cavity increases by the contraction of external intercostal muscles.

(c) Abdominal muscles contract.

(d) Diaphragm relaxes

165. Following are the statements regarding the conducting system of heart. Which is incorrect?

(a) SA-node is a nodal musculature having ability to generate action potential without receiving any external stimuli.

(b) SA- node generates action potential at rate of 70-75 min-1.

(c) Removal of SA- node immediately causes death of man.

(d) Action potential spreads first of all on the walls of the atria.

166. Mark the incorrect match for the given diagram of ECG.

(a) P wave – Electrical excitation of atria.

(b) T wave – Return of ventricles from excited to normal state.

(c) QRS – Depolarization of ventricles.

(d) End of T wave – Marks the end of joint diastole.

167. Mark the incorrect statement regarding ECG?

(a) ECG is the electro-cardiograph, which is a machine.

(b) In a normal heart QRS complex appear only after the impulse discharge of SA node.

(c) QRS complex appear after the contraction of ventricles.

(d) By counting the number of QRS we can determine the heart beat of an individual.

168. The most abundant leucocytes are:

(a) Eosinophils (b) Neutrophils (c) Basophils (d) Lymphocytes

169. Human heart is myogenic, because

(a) A special neural centre in the medulla oblongata can moderate the cardiac function.




31

(b) Normal activities of the heart are regulated intrinsically.

(c) Cardiac function is moderated by adrenal medullary hormones.

(d) Autonomic nervous system can increase or decrease the rate of heart beat.

170. See the diagram below. Parts are labeled as numerals and the name of the corresponding parts have been given in the table. Which is the correct combination of numerals and the component parts of the diagram?

1 2 3 4

(a) Renal column Calyx Medullary pyramid

Renal pelvis

(b) Calyx Medullary pyramid

Renal pelvis Renal column

(c) Renal pelvis Calyx Renal column Medullary pyramid

(d) Medullary pyramid

Calyx Renal pelvis Renal column

171. Mark the incorrect statement regarding vasa-recta?

(1) it is fine branch of efferent arteriole.

(2) it is the branch of afferent arteriole which runs parallel to the Henle’s loop.

(3) it is absent or highly reduced in cortical nephrons.

(4) during countercurrent process, NaCl is returned to the interstitium by ascending portion of vasa recta

(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 2, 4 only (c) 2, 3 only (d) 2 only




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172. Mark the correct match?

(a) Henle’s loop – Maximum reabsorption of water.

(b) PCT – Maximum secretion of urea.

(c) DCT – Conditional reabsorption of Na+ and water.

(d) Collecting duct – Maintain pH and ionic balance of body by selective reabsorption of H+ and K+ ions.

173. Find the incorrect match

(a) Uremia – abnormal rise in blood urea (b) Gout-accumulation of uric acid

(c) Ketonuria – ketone bodies in urine (d) Haematuria – excretion of bile pigments

174. What is correct for the given diagram?

(1) it represents two molecules of meromyosin

(2) it consists of both ATP and actin binding sites

(3) it consists of both HMM and LMM

(4) its cross arm consists of HMM only

(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 2, 3, 4 only

(c) 2, 3 only (d) 1, 2 only

175. The ATPase activity is present in :

(a) Myosin and actin filaments (b) In the head of meromyosin

(c) In the tropomyosin (d) In troponin

176. Mark the wrong match?

(a) Pons – A part of brain stem which consists of fibrous tracts that interconnect different regions of the brain.

(b) Corpora quadrigemina – A part of brain stem present in the ventral portion of midbrain.

(c) Medulla – A part of brainstem which controls cardiovascular reflexes.




33

(d) Association area – A part of cerebral cortex which performs memory and communication.

177. Mark the wrong match?

(a) Thalamus and Hypothalamus – Part of fore brain.

(b) Cerebral aqueduct – Part of mid brain.

(c) Limbic system – A part of hind brain. (d) Pons and medulla – Part of brain stem.

178. During nerve impulse conduction, Na+ - K+ pump operate –

(a) To depolarize the membrane.

(b) To repolarise the membrane.

(c) To maintain resting stage potential.

(d) To form action potential.

179. Compared to viewing a distant object, viewing an object held within 5 cm of the eye requires a lens that

(a) has been flattened, as a result of contraction of the ciliary muscles

(b) has been made more spherical, as a result of contraction of the ciliary muscles

(c) has been flattened, as a result of relaxation of the ciliary muscles

(d) has been made more spherical, as a result of relaxation of the ciliary muscles

180. The ear detects sound by the movement of

(a) The cupula that surround the hair cells (b) The basilar membrane

(c) The tectorial membrane (d) Fluid in the semi-circular canals

181. Which of the following is the incorrect, match of organ and its function?

(a) Anterior choroid plexus – secretion of CSF.

(b) Corpus callosum – connects cerebral hemispheres.

(c) Medulla – controls respiration and gastric secretions.

(d) Association area – center of emotions.

182. Mark the odd one out depending upon chemical nature of hormone?




34

(a) Insulin (b) Glucagon

(c) Hypothalamic hormones (d) Iodothyronie

183. Mark the wrong combination?

Hormone Source Function

(a) Glucagon -cells of many Islets of Langerhans

It is a peptide hormone that stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver cells

(b) Catecholamines Adrenal medulla Rapidly secreted in response to stress, and increases sweating

(c) Melatonin Pineal gland Helps to maintain the normal rhythm of sleep- wake cycle

(d) ANF Renal artery It causes dilation of blood vessels which decreases blood pressure

184. The inner layer of retina contains three layers of cells from inside to outside, and it is like

(a) photoreceptor cells – ganglionic cells – bipolar cells.

(b) ganglionic cells – bipolar cells – photoreceptor cells.

(c) bipolar cells – ganglionic cells – photoreceptor cells.

(d) ganglionic cell – photoreceptor cell – bipolar cells.

185. An animal that is oviparous, reproduces by

(a) giving birth to free living young

(b) producing eggs that develop externally

(c) producing eggs that are fertilized externally

(d) incubating eggs internally while the fetus develops.

186. Regarding the menstrual cycle of 28 days which is incorrect?

(a) The increased level of FSH and LH is observed before 14th day.

(b) Life span of mature ova is about 6-24 hours.

(c) Highest level of estrogen is observed in between 13-14th day.




35

(d) Degeneration of corpus luteum causes over growth of uterine endometrium.

187. Which of the following statements is true? (a) Androgens are produced by the sertoli cells (b) Oogenesis takes place in the corpus luteum (c) Spermatozoa get nourishment from the Sertoli or sustentacular cells (d) Leydig’s cells are found in ovaries

188. The layer of zona pellucida around the developing ova can be seen in

(a) Ovary (b) Fallopian tube

(c) In uterus after implantation (d) both (a) and (b)

189. The uterus prepares itself for implantation under the effect of:

(a) FSH (b) LH

(c) Estrogen (d) Estrogen & Progesterone

190. Which of the following is not true for contraceptive pills?

(a) These contain progesterone or a combination of progesterone and estrogen.

(b) These are taken for a period of 21 days with a gap of 7 days if the menstrual cycle is of 28 days.

(c) Saheli is a pill with less side effects and it is a steroidal preparation.

(d) These inhibit ovulation and implantation as well.

191. Which of the following prevents pregnancy within 72 hours of unsafe coitus?

(i) oral pills containing progestogens only

(ii) oral pills containing both progestogens and estrogen.

(iii) IUD

(iv) Surgical method:

(a) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (b) (i), (ii), (iii) only

(c) (ii), (iii) only (d) (iii), (iv) only.




36

192. Some important events that occur during the menstrual cycle are given below. Arrange the events in a proper sequence and select the correct option.

(i) Proliferation of endometrial wall (ii) LH surge

(iii)Secretion of estrogen (iv) Secretion of progesterone

(v) Ovulation (vi) Growth of corpus luteum

(vii) Degeneration of corpus luteum (viii) Menstruation

(a) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) (vii) (v) (viii) (vi)

(b) (iii) (i) (ii) (v) (vi) (iv) (vii) (viii)

(c) (v) (i) (vi) (i) (viii) (vii) (iii) (iv)

(d) (ii) (v) (vi) (i) (viii) (vii) (iii) (iv)

193. Which is not true about homologous organs?

(a) Thorn and tendrils of bougainvillea and cucurbita are homologous organs

(b) Homologous organs are the result of divergent evolution.

(c) Homology is observed in the limbs and of heart of vertebrates.

(d) Convergent evolution leads to the development of homologous organs.

194. Mark the wrong match regarding facts of human ancestor.

(a) Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus

Existed around 15 mya They were hairy and walked like gorillas and chimpanzees.

(b) Australopithecus Two mya lived in east African grass lands

They hunted with stone weapons and essentially ate meat.

(c) Homo-erectus Existed around 1.5 mya Had a large brain around 900 cc and probably ate meat.

(d) Neanderthal man Lived near east and central Asia between 100,000 – 40,000 years ago.

Used hides to protect their body and buried their dead.

195. The Hardy-Weinberg principle cannot operate if

(a) the population is very large




37

(b) frequent mutation occur in the population

(c) the population has no chance of interaction with other populations

(d) free interbreeding occurs among all members of the population.

In the following questions a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R).



(c) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is false, then mark (c)

(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false statements, then mark (d)

196. A: In nearly all animal tissues specialized junctions provide both structural and functional link between its individual cells.

R: Cell junctions always help to stop substances from leaking across a tissue.

197. A: Lipids are essentially ester of fatty acids and glycerol.

R: Lipids are either in the form of monogycerides, diglycerides, and triglycerides.

198. A: At birth human ovary consists of large number of ovarian follicles with diploid oocytes.

R: During fetal development primary oocytes enter a prolonged diplotene stage of the first meiotic division and remain in this state until ovulation occurs at puberty.

199. A: In ECG by counting the number of QRS complexes, that occur in a given time period, one can determine the heart beat rate of an individual.

R: The QRS complex represents the depolarization of the ventricles which initiate the ventricular contraction.

200. A: Even the cartilaginous ring is absent in respiratory bronchioles, these does not collapse during rapid expiration.

R: Respiratory bronchioles are lined with few surfactant releasing cells.

MEDICAL SAMPLE PAPER - IIT-ians PACE · 2018-05-30 · medical sample paper .

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