ITIL Tests

~Q1~ A customer-based Service Level Agreement structure includes: A. An SLA covering all Customer groups and all the services they use

B. SLAs for each service that are Customer-focused and written in business language

C. An SLA for each service type, covering all those Customer groups that use that Service

D. An SLA with each individual Customer group, covering all of the services they use

~Q2~ Which of the following would normally be included in a Capacity Plan?

1 Options 2 Management summary 3 Business workload forecasts 4 Backout plans

A. 2, 3 and 4

B. All of them

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and3

~Q3~ An IT department is seeking to set its prices tomatch those of external suppliers selling the same services. Which one of the following is the best description of this approach?

A. The going rate that is agreed with Customers

B. Market rate

C. Cost-plus

D. Profitable

~Q4~ Which of the following is not an element of Availability Management?

A. Verification

B. Security

C. Reliability

D. Maintainability

~Q5~ The extent of CI information held in the CMDB should:

A. Be as detailed as possible so that frequent reports can be produced to avoid spending a lot of money

B. Be as high level as possible

C. Match the organisations requirement for information to be held

D. Vary according to cost

~Q6~ To enable a new Service Desk management tool to be implemented, the capacity of the servers has to be extended. Who is responsible for managing the request for additional capacity?

A. Service Level Manager

B. Capacity Manager

C. Change Manager

D. Financial Manager

~Q7~ Which one of the following is NOT necessarilya direct benefit of implementing a formal Incident Management process?

A. Improved user satisfaction

B. Incident volume reduction

C. Elimination of lost incidents

D. Less disruption to both IT support staff and users

~Q8~ Configuration Management plans should be integrated with those of:

A. Change & Release Management

B. Service Level Management

C. IT Service Financial & Continuity Management.

D. Change & Capacity Management

~Q9~ Possible problems with Change Management include:

A. Lack of ownership of impacted services

B. Increased visibility and communication of changes

C. Better alignment of IT services to actual business needs

D. The ability to absorb a larger volume of change

~A3~

B. Market rate

~A2~

D. 1, 2 and3

1. Options 2. Management summary 3. Business workload forecasts

~A1~

D. An SLA with each individual Customer group,covering all of the services they use

~A6~

C. Change Manager

~A5~

A. Be as detailed as possible so that frequent reports canbe produced to avoid spending a lot of money

~A4~

A. Verification

~A9~


~A8~

A. Change & Release Management

~A7~

B. Incident volume reduction

~Q10~ Which of the following activities is NOT included in the Operational Management stage of theContinuity Management Life-cycle?

A. Develop Procedures and Initial Testing

B. Education and Awareness

C. Review, Audit and Assurance

D. Ongoing Training and Testing

~Q11~ Which of the following are likely to be members of the CAB?

1 Problem Manager 2 Customer representatives 3 Change Manager 4 Senior IT technical managers

A. 2 and 3 only

B. All of them

C. 1, 2 &4

D. 1, 3 &4

~Q12~ Consider the following activities: 1 The analysis of raw data 2 The identification of trends 3 The definition of Service Management processes 4 The implementation of preventive measures

Which of the above should be easier afterimplementing a good IT Service Management

software tool?

A. 1, 2 & 4 B. 2 & 3 C. All of them D. None of them

~Q13~ The activity that aims to identify the potential damage or loss to an organisation resulting from disruption to critical business processes is:

A. Root Cause Analysis

B. Business Impact Analysis

C. Service Outage Analysis

D. Component Failure Impact Analysis

~Q14~ Intermediate Recovery is initially concerned with which of the following time periods?

A. 4 to 24 hours

B. More than 72 hours

C. 24 to 72 hours

D. 4 to 8 hours

~Q15~ What is SOA within Availability Management?

A. System Optimisation Approach

B. Systematic Operational Adjustment

C. Serviceability of Applications

D. Service Outage Analysis

~Q16~ Serviceability is an element of Availability Management. How is it best defined?

A. The prevention of failure, and the ability to keep services and components operable B. The ability to restore services or components back to normal operation

C. The percentage of the agreed service hours for which the service is available

D. The support which external suppliers can be contracted to provide for parts of the IT infrastructure

~Q17~ Which one of the following statements is NOT FALSE?

A. Depreciation is used to calculate how maintenance can be offset against tax

B. Staff costs are capital costs because of their high value C. Cost centres are used to measure ROCE (Return on Capital Employed)

D. Direct costs can be allocated to a single customer, service or activity

~Q18~ Which one of the following is NOT a major CI type?

A. Documentation

B. Software

C. Purchase order

D. Accommodation

~A12~

A. 1, 2 & 4

1 The analysis of raw data 2 The identification of trends 4 The implementation of preventive measures

~A11~

B. All of them

1 Problem Manager2 Customer representatives3 Change Manager4 Senior IT technical managers

~A10~

A. Develop Procedures and Initial Testing

~A15~


~A14~

C. 24 to 72 hours

~A13~

B. Business Impact Analysis

~A18~

C. Purchase order

~A17~

D. Direct costs can be allocated to a single customer,service or activity

~A16~

D. The support which external suppliers can becontracted to provide for parts of the IT infrastructure

~Q19~ Where would the information relating to software release components be stored?

A. DSL

B. CMDB

C. AMDB

D. CDB

~Q20~ The following activities are involved in implementing a Service Management function:

1 Tool selection 2 Tool specification 3 Process design 4 Functional requirements analysis

In which order should the above activities be taken?

A. 4 2 1 3 B. 4 3 2 1 C. 2 1 4 3 D. 2 1 3 4

~Q21~ Which of the following best describes the goal of Service Level Management?

A. To maintain and improve IT service quality in line with business requirements. B. To provide IT services at the lowest possible cost by agreeing with Customers their minimum requirements for service availability and ensuring performance does not exceed these targets. C. To provide the highest possible level of service to Customers and continuously. improve on this through ensuringall services operate at maximum availability. D. To ensure that IT delivers the same standard of service at the least cost.

~Q22~ The process to implement SLAs comprises ofthe following activities in sequence:

A. Draft SLAs, catalogue services, review underpinning contracts and OLAs, draft SLRs, negotiate, agree SLAs.

B. Draft SLAs, review underpinning contracts and OLAs, negotiate, catalogue services.

C. Review underpinning contracts and OLAs, draft SLAs, catalogue services, negotiate, agree SLAs.

D. Catalogue services, establish SLRs, review underpinning contracts and OLAs, negotiate service levels, agree SLAs.

~Q23~ Which of the following statements is true?

A. An urgent release is always a delta release

B. A full release may contain package and delta releases

C. package release may contain full and delta releases

D. A full release may contain several delta releases

~Q24~ Which of these best describes the purpose of Capacity Management?

A. To reduce costs and performance levels to a minimum.

B. To ensure that there is always sufficient capacity available to meet all customer demands.

C. To ensure that business demands are affordable and achievable.

D. To provide cost-effective IT capacity to meet agreed servicelevels.

~Q25~ A remote site has recently had its network upgraded. The users are now complaining of slow responses and have heard that this is due to problemswith capacity. Who should they contact for assistance?

A. Network Management

B. The Service Desk

C. Capacity Management

D. Problem Management

~Q26~ Consider the following: 1. Incident diagnostic scripts 2. A knowledge base of previously recorded incidents 3. A Configuration Management Database covering the

infrastructure supported 4. A Forward Schedule of Change

Which of the above should be available to the ServiceDesk?

A. All four B. 1&2 C. 3&4 D. 1, 2 &3

~Q27~ Which of these is NOT a recognised Service Desk structure? A. Remedial Service Desk

B. Virtual Service Desk

C. Local Service Desk

D. Central Service Desk

~A21~

A.To maintain and improve IT service quality in linewith business requirements

~A20~

B. 4 3 2 1 1. Tool selection 2. Tool specification 3. Process design 4. Functional requirements analysis

~A19~

B. CMDB

~A24~

D. To provide cost-effective IT capacity to meet agreedservice levels

~A23~

C. package release may contain full and delta releases

~A22~

D. Catalogue services, establish SLRs, reviewunderpinning contracts and OLAs,

negotiate service levels, agree SLAs

~A27~

A. Remedial Service Desk

~A26~

A. All four

1. Incident diagnostic scripts 2. A knowledge base of previously recorded incidents 3. A Configuration Management Database covering the

infrastructure supported 4. A Forward Schedule of Change

~A25~

B. The Service Desk

~Q28~ The wording of SLAs and OLAs should be:

A. Technically focused, so that they may be understood by IT professionals

B. A mixture of business, technical and legal language, so that they can be understood by everyone

C. Clear and concise, leaving no room for ambiguity.

D. Legally worded as they must be contractually binding

~Q29~ Consider the following list: 1 Modelling 2 Risk Analysis 3 Application Sizing 4 DSL maintenance

Which two from the above list are among the main responsibilities of Capacity Management?

A. 1 & 2 B. 1 & 3 C. 3 & 4 D. 2 & 4

~Q30~ At what point does an Incident turn into a Problem?

A. When it is urgent

B. When it is a Major Incident

C. If the person reporting the incident is very senior

D. Never

~Q31~ There are strong links between Service Level Management and:

1. Incident Management 2. Availability Management 3. Configuration Management 4. IT Service Continuity Management 5. Change Management

A. 1, 3 & 5 B. 2 & 4 C. 2, 3 & 5 D. All of them

~Q32~ Does Problem Management depend entirely on having a mature Incident Management process in place?

A. Yes, because without a mature Incident Management process in place there is no reliable information available B. No, because the quality of Incident Management

information is of little importance to proactive Problem Management

C. No, because progress can still be made on solving long-standing Problems D. Yes, because trend analysis cannot be undertaken without a

lot of accurate Incident Management information

~Q33~ The scope of a Release can best be defined by: A. The RFCs that it satisfies

B. The number of updates to the OHS

C. Service Level metrics

D. The DSL configuration

~Q34~ For which of these activities is the Change Manager responsible?

A. Chairing the CAB

B. Establishing the root cause of a Capacity Incident which has led to an RFC being raised

C. Devising the backout plan for a significant Change

D. Ensuring a Release has reached the target CIs

~Q35~ The Service Desk can act as the focal point for:

1. Receiving Incidents & Service Requests from users 2. Recording Change Requests from users 3. Handling complaints and queries

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. 1 & 3

D. 1, 2 & 3

~Q36~ Which of these statements is true when deciding on the initial scope and depth of the information to be held in a CMDB?

A. You should try to capture as much information as possible about all types of CIs

B. You shouldnt collect detailed information about CIs that are not under Change Control

C. You shouldnt worry too much about Change Control; the main objective is to get the database loaded

D. You should try to satisfy all the wishes of the IT staff

~A30~

D. Never

~A29~

B. 1 & 3

1. Modelling

3. Application Sizing

~A28~

C. Clear and concise, leaving no room for ambiguity.

~A33~

A. The RFCs that it satisfies

~A32~

C. No, because progress can still be made on solvinglong-standing Problems

~A31~

D. All of them

1. Incident Management 2. Availability Management 3. Configuration Management 4. IT Service Continuity Management 5. Change Management

~A36~

B. You shouldnt collect detailed information about CIsthat are not under Change Control

~A35~

C. 1 & 3

1. Receiving Incidents & Service Requests from users 2. Recording Change Requests from users 3. Handling complaints and queries

~A34~

A. Chairing the CAB

~Q37~ Within a CMDB, which relationships are most likely to exist between Incidents and Problems?

1 One Incident to one Problem 2 One Incident to many Problems 3 Many Incidents to one Problem

A. 1 & 2only

B. 2 & 3 only

C. 1 & 3 only

D. All of them

~Q38~ Which of the following metrics is most relevant in determining the value added by Problem Management to the Service Desk?

A. The number of Problems raised

B. The number of Known Errors identified

C. The number of Problems correctly categorised

D. The number of RFCs raised

~Q39~ Which of these is a DIRECT benefit of having a Service Desk?

A. Customer Service Level Requirements are established

B. Changes taking place are properly coordinated

C. All the information in the CMDB is kept up to date.

D. Technical support staff are less likely to be interrupted to deal with users calls

~Q40~ An unabsorbed cost is best described as:

A. A capital cost

B. A type of charging policy

C. An uplift to allocated costs

D. A revenue stream

~Q41~ Which of the following is a Service Desk activity?

A. To function as the first point of customer contact

B. To investigate the cause of disruptions for the customer

C. To trace the cause of incidents

~Q42~ What is the role of ITIL within IT Service Management?

A. To provide an approach based on the best examples taken form practice

B. To serve as the international standard for IT Service Management

C. To serve as the standard model fir IT service provision

D. To serve as a theoretical framework for process design

~Q43~ The network managers have excessive workloads and have no time to proactively manage the network. One of the contributing factors of these large workloads is the frequency that users contact these managers directly.

A. Change Management

B. Configuration Management

C. Incident Management


~Q44~ Which task is a Problem Management responsibility?

A. To co-ordinate all modifications to the IT infrastructure

B. To reord incidents for later study

C. To approve all modifications made to the Known Error database

D. To identify user needs and modify the IT infrastructure based on such needs

~Q45~ The data in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB) can only be modified after permissin is granted to modify the infrastructure.

Which process grants such permission?




~A39~

D. Technical support staff are less likely to beinterrupted to deal with users calls

~A38~


~A37~

C. 1 & 3 only

1. One Incident to one Problem

3. Many Incidents to one Problem

~A42~

A. To provide an approach based on the best examples taken form practice

{B is wrong: ITIL is (not yet) an international standard. The OCG has applied for that status, but that will take many more years to establishC is wrong: ITIL is not a standard model. It gives many degrees of freedom, because it provides alternatives. To implement one has to make choices.D is wrong: ITIL is surely not theoretical. The books are basedon real world experiences.}

~A41~

A. To function as the first point of customer contact

{B is wrong: That is done by Problem ManagementC is wrong: ITIL only defines the (root) cause of

Problems}

~A40~

C. An uplift to allocated costs

~A45~


~A44~

C. (approving all modifications made to the KnownError database)

~A43~


{One of the big advantages of Incident Management isthat specialists (2nd line support) can work more efficientbecause hallway high jacking is reduced / prevented.}

~Q46~ Which concept is part of Change Management?

A. Post Implementation Review

B. Emergency Release

C. Service Request

D. Work-around

~Q47~ A new-networked computer is installed to replace an existing PC. The old PC is installed as a pront server for the local area network.

Which process is responsible for registering this modification in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB) ?

A. Change ManagementB. Configuration ManagementC. Problem ManagementD. Release Management

~Q48~ Because of its increased dependency on information systems, a national realty firm decides that there must be assurances for the provision of IT services following an interruption to the service.Which process should be implemented to provide thisassurance?A. Availability Management

B. IT Service Continuity Management

C. Service Level Management

D. Service Management

~Q49~ Data provided for the financial administration of XYZ must only be accessible to authorized users. Security Management takes steps toensure this. By taking these steps, which aspect of data can be ensured?

A. Availability

B. Integrity

C. Stability

D. Confidentality

~Q50~ A computer operator notices the full storage capacity of her/his disk will soon be used.

To which ITIL process must this situation be reported?

A. Availability Management

B. Capacity Management

C. Change Management

D. Incident Management

~Q51~ Which activity is a Release Management responsibility?

A. To check whether there is any illegal software on computers within the organization.

B. To store the original versions of all authorized software within the organization.

C. To register where each software version is available.

~Q52~ For which purpose does Service Level Management use data from the Service Desk's incident registration?

A. To draw up Service Level Agreements (SLAs)

B. To report on the number and nature of incidents that occured during a specific period

C. To determine the availability of an IT service usung the number of resolved incidents

D. To analyze, together with other data, in order to determine if the agreed service level is being provided

~Q53~ The Service Desk has handled 2317 calls this month.

What would these calls include?

A. Modifications to Service Level Agreements (SLAs)

B. Notices regarding modified Configuration Items (Cis)

C. Requests to the IT organization for users support

~Q54~ A steel company is merging with a competitor. The IT departments, along with the IT infrastructure of both companies will be combined.

Which process is responible for determining the required disk and memory space reuired for applications running in the combined IT infrastructure?

A. Application ManagementB. Capacity ManagementC. Computer Operations ManagementD. Release Management

~A48~


~A47~


~A46~

A. Post Implementation Review

~A51~

B. To store the original versions of all authorizedsoftware within the organization.

~A50~

D. Incident Management

~A49~

D. Confidentality

~A54~


~A53~

C. Requests to the IT organization for users support

~A52~

D. To analyze, together with other data, in order todetermine if the agreed service level is being provided

~Q55~ Which concepts is not part of Financial Management for IT Services?

A. Budgeting

B. Charging

C. Procuring

D. Pricing

~Q56~ Service Level Requirements are used in the Service Level Management process.What do these Service Level Requirement represent?

A. The customer's expectations and needs regarding the service.

B. What the IT organization expects of the customer

C. The conditions required for the Service Level Agreement (SLA)

D. A paragraph of the SLA with additional soecifications required to execute the SLA

~Q57~ Which of the following is one of the responsibilities of Availability Management?

A. To enter into contracts with suppliers

B. To monitor the availability of a charge through system

C. To verify the reliability and the service level of the Configuration Items (CIs)

D. To plan and manage the reliability and availability od IT Service

~Q58~ A user complains the Service Desk that an error continually occurs when using a specific application. This causes the connection with the network to be broken. WhichITIL process is responsible for tracing the cause?

A. Availability ManagementB. Incident ManagementC. Problem ManagementD. Release Management

~Q59~ A serious incident has occured. The assigned sollution team is unable to resolve this incident withinthe agreed time. The incident Manager is called in. Which form of escalation describes the above sequence of events?

A. Formal escalation

B. Functional escalation

C. Hierarchical escalation

D. Operational escalation

~Q60~ Which of the following best describes a Problem?

A. One or more Known Errors

B. A known cause of one or more disruptions

C. The unknown cause of one or more incidents

D. A Known Error with one or more incidents

~Q61~ Which concept is part of IT Service Continuity Management?

A. Application Sizing

B. Vunerability

C. Maintaimability

D. Resilierce

~Q62~ How does IP Service Management contribute to the quality of IT service provision?

A. By recording agreements between internal and external customers and suppliers in formal documents

B. By defining generally accepted norms for service levels

C. By promoting customer focus among all the employees of the IT organization

D. By planning, implementing and managing a coherent set of providing IT services

~Q63~ Performance Management and Resource Management are parts of which process?



C. IT Service Continuity Management

D. Service Level Management

~A57~

C. To verify the reliability and the service level of the Configuration Items (CIs)

~A56~

A. The customer's expectations and needs regarding the service.

~A55~

C. Procuring

~A60~

C. The unknown cause of one or more incident

~A59~

C. Hierarchical escalation

~A58~

C. Problem Management

~A63~


~A62~

D. By planning, implementing and managing a coherent set of providing IT services

~A61~

B. Vunerability

~Q64~ An organization has set up an Incident Management Process. In doing so, several groups were created to resolve specific incidents. These groups include:PC Solution Team, Network Solution Team, Service Desk, Specialists' Group to support the other teams. Within an IT organization, support groups are generally categorized by levels. Select the answer that correctly categorizes the support groups mentioned above.A. 0-line - Service Desk; First-line - Both Solution Teams; Second-line - SpecialistsB. First-line - Service Desk; Second-line - PC Solution Team; Third-line - Network Solution Team; Fourth-line SpecialistsC. First-line - Service Desk; Second-line - Both Solutions Teams; Third-line - Specialists

~Q65~ The management of ABC Inc. has insisted thateach request for a new workstation installation be handled with optimum efficiency and effectiveness. Which ITIL process is designed to achieve this desired outcome?


B. Customer Liaison



~Q66~ Which of the following is a Configuration Item (CI)?

A. A call

B. Documentation

C. An incidents

D. A process

~Q67~ How does Problem Management support the Service Desk activities?

A. It resolves serious incidents for the Service Desk

B. It studies all incidents resolved by the Service Desk

C. It relieves the Service Desk by communicating the resolution directly to the user

D. It makes information on a Known Error available to the Service Desk

~Q68~ Which of the following is a Configuration Baseline?

A. The standard configuration for the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)

B. A description of a standarized Configuration Item (CI)

C. A set of Cis that is delivered once

D. A recorded snapshot of a product of service, to provide a basis for a configuration audit and regression

~Q69~ Which of the following is the role of the Definitive Software Library (DSL) in the Release Management process?

A. A physical storage area for the original versions of all authorized software in use

B. A reference manual that includes all software documentation

C. A registration tool for all software items

D. A type of Configuration Management Database (CMDB) for software

~Q70~ Your Network Department has made an agreement with an external organization in order to fulfil an agreement with its internal customer. Where would the agreement with the external organization be specified?

A. Operational Level Agreement (OLA)

B. Service Level Aggreement (SLA)

C. Service Level Requirement (SLR)

D. Underpinning Contract (UC)

~Q71~ How does Availability Management work Security Management?

A. By making agreements on the availability of the Security Database

B. By making agreements on the security of the Availability Database

C. By establishing the security boundaries based on the availability requirements

D. By implementing the measures specified by Security Management for securing the data

~Q72~ Which question is being answered when an organization specifies its vision and business objectives?

A. How do we where we want to be?

B. How do we know we have arrived?

C. Where do we want to be?

D. Where are we now?

~A66~

B. Documentation

~A65~


~A64~

C. First-line - Service Desk; Second-line - Both Solutions Teams; Third-line - Specialists

~A69~

A. A physical storage area for the original versions of all authorized software in use

~A68~

D. A recorded snapshot of a product of service, to provide a basis for a configuration audit and regression

~A67~

D. It makes information on a Known Error available to theService Desk

~A72~

C. Where do we want to be?

~A71~

D. By implementing the measures specified by Security Management for securing the data

~A70~

D. Underpinning Contract (UC)

~Q73~ Which task is the responsibility of Configuration Management?

A. Convening the Configuration Advisory Board

B. Physically managing software items

C. Installing euipment at the workplace

D. Recording the relations between Configuration Items (Cis)

~Q74~ After the requisite search, the common cause of a series of incidents is found. This results in a Known Error. In the sequence of things, what should happen after the Known Error has been declared?

A. All invidents must be resolved as quickly as possible

B. The error must be resolved using a change

C. The error must be included in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)

D. The problem must be identified

~Q75~ What is the primary task of Error Control?

A. To figure out the details for work-arounds

B. To resolve Known Errors through the Change Management process

C. To regonize and register Known Errors

D. To register and manage Known Errors

~Q76~ Which ITIL process is associated with a Post Implementation Review?

A. Application Management

B. Incident Management


D. Release Management

~Q77~ When processing a Rewuest for Change (RFC), the Change Manager initiates a number of activities. Which action is required if this involves a complex change?

A. The Change Manager reports the change Problem Management.B. The Change Manager reports the change Incident ManagementC. The Change Manager presents the change to the Change Advisory BoardD. The Change Manager presents the change to the IT Manager

~Q78~ What is the difference between Asset Management and Configuration Management?

A. Asset Management only deals with what you own; Configuration Management deals with everything in your infrastructureB. Asset Management is a superset of Cpnfiguration, as it includes non-IT assets such as chairs and tablesC. Asset Management deals with the financial aspects of Configuration Items; Configuration Management only deals with the technical detsild of the infrastructureD. Configuration Management goes much furter than Asset Management, because it also specifies the relations between assets

~Q79~ Which ITIL process uses Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF)?



C. IT Service Continuity Management

D. Services Level Management

~Q80~ A company sets up an Intranet for its graphic design workstations. The bandwidth must be increased because of the high volume of illistrations sent over the network. Which ITIL process is responsible for approving the implementation of increased bandwidth?

A. Capacity Management

B. Change Management

C. Availability Management


~Q81~ Which ITIL process or function deals with issues and questions about the use of services, raised by end users?


B. Service Level Management


D. Service Desk

~A75~

B. To resolve Known Errors through the Change Management process

~A74~

B. The error must be resolved using a change

~A73~

D. Recording the relations between Configuration Items (Cis)

~A78~

D. Configuration Management goes much furter than Asset Management, because it also specifies the relations between assets

~A77~

C. The Change Manager presents the change to the Change Advisory Board

~A76~


~A81~

D. Service Desk

~A80~


~A79~


~Q82~ What is the difference between a Known Error and a Problem?

A. The underlying cause of a Known Error is known; the underlying cause of a Problem is not known.

B. A Known Error involves an error in the IT infrastructure; a Problem does not involve such an error.

C. A Known Error always originates from an Incident; this is not always the case with a Problem.

D. With a Problem, the relevant Configuration Items have been identified; this is not the case with a Known Error.

~Q83~ Who coordinates the production of the Forward Schedule of Changes (FSC)?

A. Change Manager

B. Change Advisory Board (CAB)

C. Release Manager

D. IT Management

~Q84~ Within an organization, who is authorized to establish an agreement with the IT department, concerning IT Services?

A. the Service Level Manager

B. the user of the IT resources

C. the ITIL process owner

D. the customer of the IT department

~Q85~ Where are requirements that influence capacity, recorded?

A. Capacity Plan

B. Service Improvement Program

C. Service Quality Plan

D. Service Level Requirements

~Q86~ When a new version of a software package is installed in a desktop or client/server environment, it can affect other software packages already in that environment. Sometimes, these other software packages need to be installed again.When installing new software, which ITIL process monitors whether other software must be reinstalled and tested?A. Change ManagementB. IT Service Continuity ManagementC. Problem ManagementD. Release Management

~Q87~ The Availability Manager wants to know the trend regarding the recovery of IT components.From which process or function would he/she requestthe necessary information?

A. Service Desk

B. Release Management

C. Configuration Management


~Q88~ Which term means that an incident has departed from the normal service level?

A. Escalation

B. Impact

C. Priority

D. Urgency

~Q89~ Problem Control is a sub-process of Problem Management. The first activity of Problem Control is to identify and record problems. What is the first stepto be taken in identifying a problem?

A. analyze all existing incidents

B. classify and prioritize problems

C. solve problems

D. provide management information

~Q90~ Which one of the following is the direct responsibi lity of Change Management to report on a regular basis, say monthly?

A. Number of Requests for Change (RFCs) registered in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB) during the measuring period B. Number of Changes raised by Problem Management duringthe measuring period C. Number of approved RFCs that had their implementation schedule delayed during the measuring periodD.incorrectly registered Configuration Items (CIs) found during the measuring period

~A84~

D. the customer of the IT department

~A83~

A. Change Manager

~A82~

A. The underlying cause of a Known Error is known; the underlying cause of a Problem is not known.

~A87~

C. Configuration Management

~A86~


~A85~

D. Service Level Requirements

~A90~

C. solve problems

~A89~

A. analyze all existing incidents

~A88~

B. Impact

~Q91~From which data repository can statistical information be extracted to gain an insight into the structure and composition of the IT infrastructure?

A. the Capacity Database (CDB)

B. the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)

C. the Definitive Hardware Store (DHS)

D. the Definitive Software Library (DSL)

~Q92~What is another term for Uptime?

A. Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF)

B. Mean Time To Repair (MTTR)

C. Mean Time Between System Incidents (MTBSI)

D. Relationship between MTBF and MTBSI

~Q93~Which of the following is an activity of IT Service Continuity Management?

A. informing end users of a system failure

B. documenting the fallback arrangements

C. reporting regarding availability

D. guaranteeing that the Configuration Items are constantly kept up-to-date

~Q94~ What is the definition of Confidentiality within the Security Management process?

A. protection of the data against unauthorized access and use

B. ability to access data at any moment

C. the capability to verify that the data is correct

D. the correctness of the data

~Q95~ What is usually not an activity of the Service Desk?

A. handling (standard) Requests For Change

B. handling complaints about the services of the IT organization

C. determining the root cause of incidents

D. providing information on products and services

~Q96~ Which of the following documents is an output of one of the tactical processes?

A. user manual for an application

B. newsletter from the Service Desk about an application

C. discussion about a Request for Change (RFC) for expansionof an application with the person who submitted the RFC

D. agreements on the availability percentage of an application

~Q97~ An end-user's PC crashes. This is not the firsttime that he has had problems with his PC. It also crashed three months ago. The user reports the crash to the Service Desk.What type of record should be created for the user's call?

A. an Incident

B. a Known Error

C. a Problem

D. a Request for Change

~Q98~Which of the following is an example of a Service Request?

A. a complaint about the provision of services

B. an error report

C. a request for relocation of equipment

D. a request for documentation

~Q99~What is an activity within the area of Proactive Problem Management?

A. handling Requests for Change

B. performing trend analyses and identifying potential incidents and problems

C. following up on all incidents and disruptions

D. minimizing the disruption to services resulting from Changes to the IT environment

~A93~

B. documenting the fallback arrangements

~A92~

A. Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF)

~A91~

B. the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)

~A96~

D. agreements on the availability percentage of anapplication

~A95~

C. determining the root cause of incidents

~A94~

A. protection of the data against unauthorized access anduse

~A99~

B. performing trend analyses and identifying potential incidents and problems

~A98~

D. a request for documentation

~A97~

A. an Incident

~Q100~ Which ITIL process or function makes the most important and most frequent substantive contribution to keeping the Configuration Management Database (CMDB) up to date?


B. Service Desk



~Q101~ One of the activities of Configuration Management is Control. What does this activity entail?

A. updating changes to Configuration Items (CIs) and their relationships in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)B. verifying that the CIs and their attributes are specified correctly in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)C. installing all new CIs and their attributes correctly in the operating environmentD. making an inventory and baseline of all CIs and their attributes in the operating environment

~Q102~ Which activity is part of the Availability Management process?

A. classifying Requests For Change

B. defining the impact code for incidents

C. identifying problems with the availability of IT Services

D. measuring the availability of IT Services

~Q103~ In which ITIL process are rates for IT services negotiated with customers?



C. Financial Management for IT Services


~Q104~Which attribute in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB) would help to ascertain which Configuration Items are in maintenance at a particular moment in time?

A. purchase date

B. owner

C. location

D. status

~Q105~ Which of the following must be individually and uniquely authorized by Change Management before any action can take place?

A. regular data entry from Users into a database

B. changing a password for a User

C. adding a new User to the human resources system

D. moving a networked printer to a new location

~Q106~ There have been two incidents on a server. Itappears that the server is overloaded due to its multiple connections. What kind of action should Incident Management take in this instance?

A. Ask Capacity Management to expand the Capacity of the server.B. Ask Problem Management to look into the Problem right away.C. Ask Security Management to check whether too many authorizations may have been issued.D. Ask Service Level Management to revise the Service Level Agreements (SLAs).

~Q107~Which ITIL process includes the matching ofincidents with known (documented) solutions as one of its activities?




D. Configuration Management

~Q108~When the cause of a Problem is known, whatstatus is given to the Problem?

A. the status 'Incident'

B. the status 'Known Error'

C. the status 'Solved'

D. the status 'Request For Change'

~A102~

D. measuring the availability of IT Services

~A101~

A. updating changes to Configuration Items (CIs) andtheir relationships in the Configuration Management

Database (CMDB)

~A100~


~A105~

D. moving a networked printer to a new location

~A104~

D. status

~A103~


~A108~

B. the status 'Known Error'

~A107~


~A106~

B. Ask Problem Management to look into the Problem right away.

~Q109~After a Change has been implemented, an evaluation is performed. What is this evaluation called?

A. Forward Schedule of Changes (FSC)

B. Post Implementation Review (PIR)

C. Service Improvement Programme (SIP)

D. Service Level Requirement (SLR)

~Q110~ Due to a defect, a user's sound card is replaced with a new one, made by a different manufacturer.

Which ITIL process is responsible for registering the new sound card?





~Q111~ Where are the contents of software releases maintained?

A. Capacity Database (CDB)

B. Configuration Management Database (CMDB)

C. Definitive Hardware Store (DHS)

D. Definitive Software Library (DSL)

~Q112~ Which of the following is included in a Service Level Agreement (SLA)?

A. arrangements about the services to be provided

B. availability statistics for the previous period

C. an action plan for setting up the Service Level Managementprocess

D. detailed technical descriptions of a network protocol

~Q113~ Which ITIL process ensures that the IT Services are restored as soon as possible in the case ofa disruption?





~Q114~ Which information does the "Financial Management for IT Services" process deliver to Service Level Management?

A. the availability of the IT services in a specific period

B. the costs of the Financial Management system

C. the total costs of network management

D. how much has been spent on IT services per client

~Q115~ What is the responsibility of the Security Manager when a new Service Level Agreement (SLA)is created?

A. translating the Service Level Requirements for data security

B. determining the Security Baseline in the Service Catalogue

C. providing guidelines for the Security section of the SLA

D. reporting on the technical availability of security components

~Q116~ Which ITIL process is responsible for control and management of the implementation of a new software release?



C. Release Management


~Q117~ Which ITIL process determines relevant counter measures based on an analysis of threats and dependencies concerning IT Services?





~A111~

D. Definitive Software Library (DSL)

~A110~


~A109~

B. Post Implementation Review (PIR)

~A114~

D. how much has been spent on IT services per client

~A113~


~A112~

A. arrangements about the services to be provided

~A117~


~A116~


~A115~

C. providing guidelines for the Security section of theSLA

~Q118~Which Capacity Management activity can beused to influence the usage of computing resources?

A. Application Sizing

B. Demand Management

C. Modeling

D. Tuning

~Q119~ Which ITIL process is responsible for developing a charging system?





~Q120~ What is IT Service Management?

A. effectively and efficiently managing the quality of the IT Services

B. organizing the management of the IT infrastructure according to the best practices of ITIL

C. managing the IT infrastructure in a process-oriented way sothat the IT organization can provide the customer with IT products in a professional way

D. promoting an understanding of IT Services among a wider audience

~Q121~ Which of the following is the correct definition of a customer-based SLA?

A. An SLA with a customer covering all of the services they useB. An SLA covering all customer groups and all the services they useC. SLAs for each service that are customer-focused and written in businesslanguageD. An SLA for each service, covering all those customer groups that use thatservice

~Q122~ Which of the following data is LEAST likelyto be used in the Incident process?

A. Incident category

B. Cost of faulty item

C. Make/model of faulty item

D. Impact code

~Q123~ An IT department wants to set its prices to match those of external suppliers selling comparable services. This approach is known as:

A. Market rate

B. The going rate that is agreed with customers

C. Cost-plus

D. Profitable

~Q124~Which of the following is NOT an element of Availability Management?

A. Verification

B. Security

C. Reliability

D. Maintainability

~Q125~ The extent of CI information held in the CMDB should:

A. Be as detailed as possible so that frequent reports can be produced to avoid spending a lot of money

B. Be as high level as possible

C. Match the organisations requirement for information to be held

D. Vary according to cost

~Q126~ To enable a new Service Desk management tool to be implemented, the capacity of the Service Desk servers has to be extended. Who is responsible for managing the request for additional capacity?

A. Service Level Manager

B. Change Manager

C. Capacity Manager

D. Financial Manager

~A120~

A. effectively and efficiently managing the quality of the ITServices

~A119~


~A118~

B. Demand Management

~A123~

A. Market rate

~A122~

B. The cost of the faulty (CI) is not going to beconsideration to Incident Management as it does not

assist in the objective of restoring normalservice asap'

~A121~

A. B&D relate to Corporate and Service-basedstructures. C is not a standard explanation.

~A126~

B. Change Request. Change Management is responsible for managing all RFCs. Other areas may be involved in assessing options and implementing the change, however, responsibility for managing the request rests with Change Management.

~A125~

C. Best practice states that CIs should be recorded at alevel of detail justified by the business need (typically to

the level of independent change).

~A124~

A. B,C&D are all elements of AvailabilityManagement . Verification is an element of

Configuration Management.

~Q127~ Configuration Management plans should be integrated with those of:

A. Service Level Management

B. IT Service Continuity Management and Financial Management for IT Services

C. Change and Capacity Management

D. Change and Release Management

~Q128~ Which of the following is a potential problemwhen implementing Change Management?


B. Increased visibility and communication of Changes

C. Better alignment of IT services to business needs

D. The ability to absorb a larger volume of change

~Q129~ Which of the following would normally be included in a Capacity Plan?

1. Recommendations2. Management summary3. Business workload forecasts4. Back-out plans

A. 2, 3 and 4

B. All of them

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

~Q130~ Which of the following activities is NOT included in the Operational Management stage of theIT Service Continuity Management life-cycle?

A. Develop procedures and initial testing

B. Education and awareness

C. Review, audit and assurance

D. Ongoing training and testing

~Q131~ Intermediate Recovery is concerned with which of the following time periods?

A. 4 to 24 hours

B. More than 72 hours

C. 24 to 72 hours

D. 4 to 8 hours

~Q132~ Which of the following could be members of the Change Advisory Board?

1. Problem Manager2. Customer representatives3. Change Manager4. IT technical managers

A. All of them

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1, 2 and 4

D. 1, 3 and 4

~Q133~Which of the following should be easier after the implementation of a good IT Service Management software tool?

1. The analysis of raw data2. The identification of trends3. The definition of Service Management processes4. Implementation of preventative measures

A. 1, 2 and 4

B. 2 and 3

C. All of them

D. 1 and 4

~Q134~Identifying the potential damage or loss to anorganisation resulting from disruption to critical business processes is:

A. Root Cause Analysis

B. CRAMM

C. Business Impact Analysis

D. Component Failure Impact Analysis

~Q135~ In Availability Management, what is SOA?

A. System Optimisation Approach

B. Systematic Operational Adjustment

C. Serviceability of Applications


~A129~

D. 1,2&3 are all usually included in a Capacity plan.Back-out plans are associated with Change Management.

~A128~

A. B, C & D are all benefits of implementing ChangeManagement whereas A is a difficulty.

~A127~

D. Whilst Configuration Management supports allService Management disciplines, there is close

interaction with, and a need for alignment with, Change& Release Management as all deal with the management

of CIs.

~A132~

A. All roles listed could be members of the CAB, anyonewho can contribute can be invited, this will vary

dependent upon the RFCs to be discussed.

~A131~

C. 24 to 72 hours

~A130~

A. Develop procedures and initial testing is part of theImplementation stage.

~A135~

D. Service Outage Analysis is a technique used byAvailability Management to provide a structured

approach to identifying, and then planning to remedy, theunderlying causes of service interruptions.

~A134~

C The question defines BIA. Root Cause Analysis islinked to identifying the underlying cause of a problem.

CRAMM is concerned with risk analysis andmanagement. CFIA is used to predict & evaluate the

impact of component failures on IT services.

~A133~

A. 1,2&4 would benefit from data that can be obtainedfrom an effective Service Management Software tool.Service Management processes, 3, should be designed

before a tool is obtained.

~Q136~ Serviceability is an element of Availability Management. How is it best defined?

A. The prevention of failure, and the ability to keep services and components operable

B. The ability to restore services or components back to normal operation

C. The percentage of the agreed service hours for which the service is available

D. The support which external suppliers can be contracted to provide for parts ofthe IT infrastructure

~Q137~ Which one of the following statements is true?

A. Direct costs can be allocated to a single customer, service or activity

B. Depreciation is used to calculate how maintenance can be offset against tax

C. Staff costs are capital costs because of their high value

D. Cost centres are used to measure ROCE (Return on Capital Employed)

~Q138~ What is the difference between a Problem and a Known Error?

A. A Known Error is always the result of an Incident, a Problem is not

B. There is no real difference between a Problem and a KnownError

C. In the case of a Known Error the underlying cause is known

D. In the case of a Known Error there is a fault in the IT infrastructure, with a Problem there is not

~Q139~Where would the information relating to software release components be stored?

A. DSL

B. AMDB

C. CMDB

D. CDB

~Q140~A remote site has recently had its Local Area Network upgraded. The users are now complaining of slow responses and have heard that this is due to problems with the network capacity. Who should they contact for assistance?

A. Network Management

B. The Service Desk

C. Capacity Management


~Q141~ What is the correct sequence of activities involved in implementing a Service Management tool: 1. Tool selection

2. Tool specification3. Process design4. Analysis of requirements

A. 4 2 1 3

B. 4 3 2 1

C. 2 1 4 3

D. 2 1 3 4

~Q142~The process to implement SLAs comprises the following activities in which sequence?

A. Draft SLAs, catalogue services, review Underpinning Contracts and OLAs,draft SLRs, negotiate, agree SLAs

B. Draft SLAs, review Underpinning Contracts and OLAs, negotiate, catalogue services, agree SLAs

C. Review Underpinning Contracts and OLAs, draft SLAs, catalogue services, negotiate, agree SLAs

D. Catalogue services, establish SLRs, review Underpinning Contracts and OLAs, negotiate service levels, agree SLAs

~Q143~ Which of the following statements is true?

A. An urgent Release is always a Delta Release

B. A Full Release may contain Package and Delta Releases

C. A Full Release may contain several Delta Releases

D. A Package Release may contain Full and Delta Releases

~Q144~ Which of these best describes the purpose ofCapacity Management?

A. To reduce costs and performance levels to a minimum

B. To ensure that there is always sufficient capacity available to meet all customer demands

C. To ensure that business demands are affordable and achievable

D. To provide cost-effective IT capacity to meet agreed servicelevels

~A138~

C. In the case of a Known Error the cause is known, fora Problem the cause is unknown. A, B& D are all

incorrect statements.

~A137~

A. is true. Depreciation is the reduction in value of anasset over time. Staff costs are operational (day to dayrunning). ROCE is defined as net profit before tax &

interest/total assets less current liabilities.

~A136~

D. The support which external suppliers can becontracted to provide for parts ofthe IT infrastructure

(A, B &C relate to Reliability, Maintainability &Availability respectively.)

~A141~

B. Tool selection should only take place once analysis ofrequirements, process definition & tool specification

activities are complete.

~A140~

B The Service Desk provides a single point of contactfor users, regardless of the type of issue.

~A139~

C. Information relating to CIs is recorded in the CMDB.The DSL will hold actual authorised version of the

software.

~A144~

D. is the goal of Capacity Management.

~A143~

D. A Package Release may contain Full and DeltaReleases

~A142~

D. Catalogue services is the first step in defining theservices provided by an IT department. Once defined,

SLRs can be obtained from the business and thenreviewed against existing internal & external

capabilities. Following any further negotiation required,SLAs can be agreed with business representatives.

~Q145~Which of the following should be available to the Service Desk?

1. Incident diagnostic scripts2. A knowledge base of previously recorded incidents3. A Configuration Management Database covering the infrastructure supported4. A Forward Schedule of Change

A. 1 and 2B. All of themC. 3 and 4D. 1, 2 and 3

~Q146~ The Service Desk can act as the focal point for:1 Receiving Incidents & Service Requests from users2 Recording Change requests from users3 Handling complaints and queries

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. 1 and 3

D. All of them

~Q147~ Which of these is NOT a recognised Service Desk?

A. Remedial Service Desk

B. Virtual Service Desk

C. Local Service Desk

D. Central Service Desk

~Q148~ The wording of SLAs and OLAs should be:

A. Technically focused, so that they may be understood by IT professionals

B. A mixture of business, technical and legal language, so that they can be understood by everyone

C. Clear and concise, leaving no room for ambiguity

D. Legally worded as they must be contractually binding

~Q149~ Which of the following are amongst the mainresponsibilities of Capacity Management?

1 Modelling2 Risk Analysis3 Application Sizing4 DSL maintenance

A. 1 and 2

B. 3 and 4

C. 2 and 4

D. 1 and 3

~Q150~ When does an Incident turn into a Problem?

A. When it is urgent

B. When it is a Major Incident

C. If the person reporting the Incident is very senior

D. Never

~Q151~ Does Problem Management depend entirely on having a mature Incident Management process in place?

A. Yes, because without a mature Incident Management process in place there is no reliable information available.B. No, because the quality of Incident Management information is of little importance to proactive Problem ManagementC. No, because progress can still be made on solving long-standing ProblemsD. Yes, because trend analysis cannot be undertaken without a lot of accurate Incident Management information

~Q152~ For which of these activities is the Change Manager responsible?

A. Establishing the root cause of a capacity Incident which hasled to an RFC being raised

B. Devising the back-out plan for a significant Change

C. Chairing the CAB

D. Ensuring a Release has reached the target CIs

~Q153~ Problem Management includes several core activities. Which one of the following most accuratelysummarises them?

A. Planning, Control, Identification, Status Accounting, Verification

B. Problem Control, Error Control, Management reporting

C. Incident Control, severity analysis, support allocation, reporting

D. Identification, Problem Control, support allocation, investigation

~A147~

B,C &D are the ITIL recognised types of Service Desk.

~A146~

D All the items listed could be handled by a ServiceDesk.

~A145~

B. All items listed should be available to the ServiceDesk. Incident diagnostic scripts aid swift incident

resolution. A knowledge base of incidents aidsincident matching. CMDB is essential for all types of

accurate data to assist the Service Desk staff. The FSCprovides the Service Desk with advance notice of

changes to IT infrastructure.

~A150~

D. An Incident(s) is the effect, whereas the Problem isthe cause. The effect never becomes the cause.

~A149~

D. Capacity Management responsibilities includeModelling & Application Sizing. Risk Analysis is used

in ITSCM and Availability Management. DSLmaintenance is the responsibility of Release

Management.

~A148~

C. SLAs & OLAs should be written in the appropriatestyle for the audience and must be clear & unambiguous.

They are not legally binding documents.

~A153~

B The question asks for the best summary (i.e. highlevel) of Problem Management. Only B is a summary.

The other options are all lists (i.e. details). A isConfiguration, C is Incident and D is an indiscriminate

mix!

~A152~

C. Chairing the CAB is the Change Managersresponsibility. Establishing root cause of problems is the

responsibility of Problem Management. The ChangeBuilder will devise a back-out plan. Release

Management will ensure that a release has reached thetarget CIs.

~A151~

C. Problem Management will benefit greatly if IncidentManagement is in place however long standing problems

can be identified and addressed without IncidentManagement in place. Therefore Problem Managementis not entirely dependent on Incident Management. (Theincidents will still occur, but they will not be managed)

~Q154~ Which of the following will NOT have a direct impact on IT capacity?

A. An increase in network bandwidth available

B. A reduction in transactions processed

C. A reduction in the number of files to be stored

D. An increase in the cost per transaction

~Q155~ Which relationships are most likely to exist between Incidents and Problems?

1 One Incident to one Problem2 One Incident to many Problems3 Many Incidents to one Problem

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. All of them

~Q156~Which of the following metrics is most relevant in determining the value added by Problem Management to the Service Desk?

A. The number of Problems raised


C. The number of Problems correctly categorised

D. The number of RFCs raised

~Q157~ Which of the following best describes the goal of Service Level Management?

A. To maintain and improve IT service quality in line with business requirementsB. To provide IT services at the lowest possible cost by agreeing with Customers their minimum requirements for service availability and ensuring performance does not exceed these targetsC. To provide the highest possible level of service to Customers and continuously improve on this through ensuring all services operate at maximum availabilityD. To ensure that IT delivers the same standard of service at the least cost

~Q158~ Which of these is a direct benefit of having a Service Desk?

A. Service Level Requirements are established

B. Technical support staff are less likely to be interrupted by users telephone calls

C. Changes taking place are properly coordinated

D. All the information in the CMDB is kept up to date

~Q159~ The scope of a Release can best be defined by:

A. The RFCs that it includes

B. The number of updates to the DHS

C. Service Level metrics

D. The DSL configuration

~Q160~An unabsorbed overhead would typically be:

A. A capital cost

B. A type of charging policy

C. A cost which cannot be attributed to a specific customer

D. A revenue stream

~Q161~Which of the following is NOT a key reason for investing in a Service Desk?

A. To diagnose and remove the underlying cause of Problems

B. To deliver high quality support

C. To provide a single point of contact for users

D. To aid user retention and satisfaction

~Q162~Which of the following is NOT a Problem Management activity?

A. Analysing the IT infrastructure to identify weaknessesthat could lead to Incidents

B. Assigning Problems according to their priority

C. Assessing the impact, risk and cost of the proposed solution in order to decide whether to implement it

D. Considering the impact of Problems on the business

~A156~

B. Identification of Known Errors is of most value to theService Desk. Once a workaround has been identified,

the Service Desk will be able to quickly resolvesubsequent incidents at first line.

~A155~

C. A problem may be the cause of one or more incidents,however, there should only be one underlying cause

(problem) of an incident.

~A154~

D. A, B&C will directly and immediately have an impacton capacity whereas D may eventually influence usersthereby indirectly affecting capacity in the medium to

shorter term.

~A159~

A The scope of the release is defined by the RFCs fromwhich it has been built.

~A158~

B. A benefit of introducing a Service Desk is that moreeffective and efficient use of support resources is

possible. This is partly achieved by ensuring all incidentsare logged with the Service Desk avoiding calls direct to

support teams.

~A157~

A. To maintain and improve IT service quality in linewith business requirements

~A162~

C. This activity is a responsibility of ChangeManagement.

~A161~

A. This activity is associated with Problem Managementnot the Service Desk.

~A160~

C. An unabsorbed overhead is defined as any IndirectCost that cannot be apportioned to a set of Customersand must therefore be recovered from all Customers.

~Q163~Which of the following statements about the Change Advisory Board is correct?

A The CAB are mainly concerned with the higher impact, higher risk Changes

B The CAB is responsible for the production of the Forward Schedule ofChange

C The CAB should discuss all Changes

D The CAB has an Emergency Committee who will meet if some of the normal CAB members cannot attend a scheduled meeting

~Q164~The Goal of Release Management is best described as:

A. To ensure that all software and hardware Releases are released in a manner that is acceptable to users and customers B. To introduce electronic software distribution tools to reducethe time spent managing the Release of new productsC. To reduce the number of malicious or unauthorised implementations of software through the strict application of Release proceduresD. To take an holistic view of a Change to an IT service and ensure that all aspects of a Release, both technical and non-technical, are considered together

~Q165~Which of the following will help the Service Desk meet its objectives?

1. Automatic Call Distribution system2. Configuration Management Database3. Known Error Database4. Integrated Service Management software tool

A. None

B. 1, 2 and 3

C. 1 and 4

D. All of them

~Q166~A customer has requested a review of charges for services provided under an SLA.

Who will review this with the customer?

A. The IT Finance Manager

B. The Service Level Manager

C. The Change Manager

D. The Configuration Manager

~Q167~Of the following, which are the most important attributes needed by Service Deskstaff?

A. Good interpersonal skills, tenacious, technically astute, firm

B. Customer-focused, business awareness, articulate, methodical, tolerant, good interpersonal skills

C. Logical, methodical, tenacious, forthright, analytical

D. Well presented, technical specialist, numerate, good interpersonal skills

~Q168~Which of the following best reflects ITIL guidance for how often an IT Service Continuity recovery plan should be tested?

A. At least annually

B. After initial development and at least annually

C. After initial development

D. Three months after the last test to ensure changes have beenmade

~Q169~Which of the following best describes a Change Model?

A. A small, virtually risk-free, software change

B. Moving desktop equipment after a relocation

C. A standard way of dealing with changes of the same type

D. A Capacity Management technique

~Q170~ Cost-plus is a type of

A. Costing model

B. Budget

C. Accounting policy

D. Charging policy

~Q171~ Which of the following is most involved with the operational maintenance of quality ITservices?

A. Applications Development

B. Service Delivery

C. Service Support

D. Customer Services

~A165~

D. All the systems/tools/databases mentioned, if present in an organisation, would help the Service Desk.

~A164~

D. To take an holistic view of a Change to an IT service and ensure that all aspects of a Release, both technical and non-technical, are considered together

~A163~

A. The CAB reviews significant changes, the other three statements are incorrect.

- The FSC is produced by Change Management- The CAB does not discuss ALL changes (e.g. Standard / Minor)- The EC will only meet when there is an urgent change to be discussed, it is not a replacement for a scheduled meeting.

~A168~

B. An example of a best answer, A and C are both validoptions, but not in isolation. B merges these two options to reflect the ITIL best practice. D is not specified in ITIL.

~A167~

B. Two key attributes needed by Service Desk staff are, CustomerFocused and Business Awareness. Only with these can they interface between the IT service provider and the user/customer.

~A166~

B. The task of reviewing charges for services provided under an SLA is a responsibility of the Service Level Manager

~A171~

C. A process of elimination can arrive at the answer to this question.

Application Development is concerned with the development of new systems. Customer Services looks at the business operations and Service Delivery looks at the longer term planning and improvement of IT service provision.

~A170~

D. The only option concerned with charging, A and C are Accounting, B Budgeting.

~A169~

C. A process of elimination can arrive at the answer to this question. A, B and D clearly do NOT describe a Change Model. The text book points to answer C as the best description of a Change Model.

~Q172~ Which of the following tasks is NOT normally assigned to the Service Desk?

A. Receipt and logging of user calls

B. Root Cause Analysis

C. Incident escalation

D. First line Incident resolution

~Q173~ Which of the following is NOT a Configuration Item?

A. An organisations Capacity Plan

B. A laser printer

C. A Service Level Agreement

D. The make, model and serial number of a PC

~Q174~ Who will authorise a Request for Change before the Change is built and tested?

A. The Change Initiator

B. The Change Manager

C. The Configuration Manager

D. Release Management

~Q175~ What is a Service Catalogue?

A. An arrangement with an external supplier covering deliveryof contracted services

B. A description of the services provided to customers

C. An agenda for the regular service review meetings with customers

D. A set of actions to address Problems in CIs that have registered a high failure rate

~Q176~ Status Accounting is an important part of which process?

A. Financial Management for IT Services



D. Configuration Management

~Q177~ When establishing a new SLA or amending an existing one, which of the following should the Service Level Manager consider?1 That the new, or revised, SLA can meet the targets agreed with the customer2 That the conditions in other SLAs can continue to be met3 That the possible impact of changes to the SLA can be identifiedA. 2 and 3B. 1 and 3C. 1, 2 and 3D. 1 and 2

~Q178~ In ITIL, which of the following is NOT a recognised technique for modelling capacityrequirements?

A. Analytical Modelling

B. Simulation Modelling

C. Trend Analysis

D. Reciprocal Modelling

~Q179~ Should an SLA specify how changes to customer requirements can be implemented before the planned SLA review date?

A. Yes, because the customer may ask for changes at any time

B. Yes, but only if the customer pays for the change

C. No, the SLA is reviewed periodically so that any changes can be introduced in a controlled manner

D. No, IT have budgeted for the agreed level of service and it would be unreasonable to change that mid-term

~Q180~ The main objective of Availability Management is to

A. Maximise service times provided by the IT department

B. Ensure services meet availability targets

C. Identify unreliable components

D. Measure the performance of suppliers

~A174~

B. The authorisation of RFCs is a responsibility of theChange Manager.

~A173~

D. A, B and C would be in a CMDB as configuration items. The make, model and serial number are attributes of a configuration item.

~A172~

B. Root cause analysis is an activity associated with Problem Management all the remainder are tasks undertaken by the Service Desk.

~A177~

C. ALL of the activities shown must be considered when establishing or amending an existing SLA.

~A176~

D. One of the five Configuration Management activities.

~A175~

B. A is an Underpinning Contract, C and D aredistracters.

~A180~

B. Of the four options shown Ensuring services meet availability targets is clearly the MAIN objective.

~A179~

A. A key responsibility of Service Level Management is Reviewing SLAs to meet changed business needs. Thisreview process must be dynamic and not necessarily governed by fixed review dates. However the mechanism for implementing changes to customer requirements should always be agreed with the customerand documented (Any changes identified would then be progressed through the Change process)

~A178~

D. Capacity Management uses the modelling techniques of Analytical, Simulation and Trending. Reciprocal Modelling is made up as a distracter.

~Q181~ Which Incidents need to be logged by the Service Desk?

A .All Incidents

B. All Incidents except simple enquiries

C. Only Incidents not resolved at logging

D. Only Incidents from genuine customers

~Q182~ A programming mistake has just been detected in one of the operational IT systems.This will lead to all bills being multiplied by a factor of 100 in nine months time. The mistake can be corrected by one month of programming resource.Which of the following statements best summarises the situation?A The impact is low but the urgency is high due to the large amounts of moneyinvolvedB The impact and urgency are low because there is plenty of time to solve themistakeC The impact and urgency are both high because of the large amounts of money involvedD The impact is high but the urgency is low at the moment

~Q183~ What percentage of calls should the Service Desk be able to resolve at first contact?

A. 95%

B. 100%

C. Sufficient to meet the relevant service targets

D. All top priority calls

~Q184~ What is the ITIL definition of a Problem?

A. A deviation from the standard operation of service

B. A call logged at the Service Desk more than once

C. An Incident for which the root cause is known and for which a workaround exists

D. The unknown underlying cause of one or more existing or potential Incidents

~Q185~ The production of an SLR is usually the starting point for whom in the SLM process?

A. The Service Provider

B. The IT services legal representative

C. The Customer

D. The Change Manager

~Q186~ A new version of application software may need an upgrade to the operating system. Either or both of these changes may also need a hardware change e.g. faster processor or more memory. Which ITIL process is responsible for rolling out the Changes?



C. The Service Desk


~Q187~ Which of the following needs to be considered when implementing ConfigurationManagement for the first time?

A. Gathering and recording CI information

B. Controlling RFCs

C. Defining software release policies

D. Auditing the DHS

~Q188~ If a customer complains that service levels are below those agreed in the SLA, possibly due to a number of related hardware incidents. Who is responsible for ensuring the underlying cause of the incidents is investigated?

A. The Service Level Manager

B .The Availability Manager

C .The Incident Manager

D. The Problem Manager

~Q189~ When should the Capacity Management process be reviewed for effectiveness andefficiency?

A. Regularly

B. When the process is being planned

C. Not unless there is a negative issue arising

D. Immediately after the process has been implemented

~A183~

C. Every Service Desk is different so no specific targets can be deemed to be correct, which rules out, A and B. Also it is unrealistic to expect a Service Desk to resolve ALL top priority calls, D.

~A182~

D. The detected mistake will have a high impact becauseof the large amounts of money involved. However, there is a nine-month lead time before any consequences would emerge, with only one month of effort required to correct the error. Therefore the urgency is low at the moment.

~A181~

A. ALL incidents must be logged by the Service Desk.

~A186~


~A185~

C. The usual starting point in SLM is the customeridentifying a need (a requirement), this will be

formalised in an SLR in co-operation with the ServiceLevel Manager. Legal input, if any is deemed necessary,would not be the starting point, (It is possible in somecircumstances a provider may suggest a service to a

customer, but the requirements will still come from thecustomer)

~A184~

D. A is an incident, B is throw away and C is aKnown Error

~A189~

A. All ITIL processes are dynamic and should not justbeBimplemented and then forgotten. Regular checks are

imperative to ensure effectiveness and efficiency.

~A188~

D. Whilst the initial complaint maybe made to the Service LevelBManager it is the responsibility of the Problem Manager to investigate the underlying cause of an Incident.

~A187~

A. A process of elimination can arrive at the answer, A isthe only answer that relates specifically to ConfigurationManagement. Controlling RFCs (B) is the responsibility

of Change Management. Defining software releasepolicies (C) is the responsibility of Release

Management. Auditing of the DHS (D) concerns ReleaseManagement.

~Q190~ Potential benefits from implementing IT Service Continuity Management are:1 Lower insurance premiums2 Fulfilment of mandatory or regulatory requirements3 Reduced business disruption4 Better management of risk and the consequent reduction of the impact failure

A. 2, 3 and 4B. 2 and 4C. 1, 2 and 4D. All of them

~Q191~ Which of these is NOT the responsibility of Availability Management?

A. Monitoring a Service Quality Plan

B. Producing the Availability Plan

C. Contributing to a Service Improvement Programme

D. Defining targets for reliability and maintainability

~Q192~ Which of the following are variable costs?1 Salaries2 Overtime3 Quarterly lease payments4 Usage charges5 Consumables

A. 2, 3 and 5

B. 2, 4 and 5

C. 1, 3 and 5

D. 1, 2 and 4

~Q193~ Which of the following definitions best describes ITIL?

A. A methodology for supporting and delivering IT services

B. A quality standard in managing customer relationships

C. A prescriptive process for managing Service Improvement Projects

D. A documented framework of proven best practices in Service Management

~Q194~ Performance issues have been highlighted ona particular service and corrective measures have been identified. Which ITIL process will approve the implementation of these corrective measures?

A. Performance Management


C. Change Management


~Q195~ Which of the following are possible problemsassociated with availability metrics?

1 Not measuring availability at the point of service delivery2 Producing measures of availability that are meaningless to the business3 Dependence on suppliers for serviceability data4 Lack of suitable software

A. All of themB. 1 and 2C. 3 and 4D. 2 and 4

~Q196~ Which of the following are Incident Management activities?

1 Negotiating SLAs with the Customers2 Matching the Incident against Known Errors3 Categorising and assigning priorities4 Processing Requests for Change to improve service functionality

A. 1 and 3B. 2 and 3C. 1 and 2D. All of them

~Q197~ The Requirements and Strategy phase of the IT Service Continuity life-cycle consists f:

A. Organisation, implementation planning and risk reduction measures

B. Education and awareness, review and audit

C. Business Impact Analysis, risk assessment and business continuity strategy

D. Initial testing, education and awareness, assurance

~Q198~ Unabsorbed overheads are best described as:

A. Costs that can be attributed to a specific customer or service

B. Indirect costs that can not easily be apportioned on the basisof usage

C. External Services costs

D. Capital Costs

~A192~

B. Overtime, Usage charges and consumables are allexamples of variable costs. Salaries and quarterly lease

payments are classed as fixed costs.

~A191~

A. The SQP is the responsibility of Service LevelManagement. B, C and D are all responsibilities of

Availability Management.

~A190~

D. all are benefits of IT Service ContinuityManagement.

~A195~

A. all four problems identified are listed in thePossible Problems section of Availability Management.

~A194~

C. The corrective measures identified will require aRequest for Change to be raised. The responsibility of

approving the implementation of changes lies withChange Management.

~A193~

D. The key phrase to this answer is Best Practice. Bothbooks on Service Management are classed as BestPractice and both include in the introduction the

statement shown in answer D.

~A198~

B. A, C and D relate to Direct costs. Unabsorbedoverheads are classed as Indirect costs.

~A197~

C. The Business Continuity Life Cycle, stage 2 showsthat Requirements and Strategy stage consists of the

activities listed in answer C. The others appear in othersections of the BCM.

~A196~

B. Matching Incidents against known errors andcategorising and assigning priorities are the only twoactivities shown that are the responsibility of Incident

Management. Negotiating SLAs with customers (1) is aService Level Management activity. RFCs raised to

improve service functionality (4) would be processedthrough Change Management.

~Q199~ ITIL Best Practice suggests that Release Management should be introduced as partof an integrated set of processes. Which other ITIL processes should also be introduced together with Release Management?

A. Change Management and Configuration Management

B. Configuration Management and Incident Management

C. Change Management and Service Level Management

D. Configuration Management and Problem Management

~Q200~ Which of the following terms is associated with Demand Management?

A. Underpinning discipline

B. Identify the root cause

C. Shaping user behaviour

D. The customer is always right

~Q201~ Which of the following would be valid reasons for a Service Desk to invoke escalationprocedures? 1 An Incident exceeds the downtime stipulated within an SLA. 2 The business impact of an Incident increases due to unforeseen circumstances. 3 The number of users impacted by an Incident is greater than first thought. 4 A senior manager engaged in a critical business activity complains about a lack of progress being made on a particular incidentA. 1, 2 and 3B. 2, 3 and 4C. All fourD. 1, 3 and 4

~Q202~ Which of the following is NOT a Problem Management responsibility?

A. Ownership of an Incident throughout its lifecycle

B. Investigation of the cause of an Incident

C. Initiating Requests for Change

D. Maintenance of a Known Error database

~Q203~ The writing off of part of an assets value each year, usually a fixed percentage of the original cost, is known as

A. Transfer costing

B. Discounted cash flow

C. Net book value

D. Depreciation

~Q204~ Which of the following is NOT a concern of Resource Capacity Management?

A. Establishing the future IT capacity requirements of the business

B. Understanding the profile of use of Cis

C. Understanding CI utilisation thresholds

D. Having a knowledge of new and changing technologies

~Q205~ Which is the correct combination of terms and Service Management processes?

1 CMDB A Availability Management2 CFIA B Release Management3 DHS C Service Level Management4 OLA D Configuration Management

A. 1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B

B. 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C

C. 1-B, 2-A, 3-C, 4-D

D. 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A

~Q206~ Which of the following statements best describes resilience?

A. The combination of confidentiality, integrity and maintainability

B. The ability of a service to remain functional even though some components have failed

C. The ability of a CI to remain functional under given conditions

D. The ability of a CI to be retained in, or restored to, its normal operational state

~Q207~ Which of the following is a responsibility of Change Management?

A. Reviewing Changes to confirm they meet their objectives

B. Initiating a Change to rectify a Known Error

C. Testing the back out plan for a major Change

D. Implementing a change to software at a remote site

~A201~

C. In all FOUR circumstances escalation procedures would be invoked.

~A200~

C. Within Capacity Management, Demand Managementhas the objective of influencing demand and thereforethe use of resources (i.e. Shaping User behaviour). BIdentifying the root cause is associated with ProblemManagement while Underpinning discipline (A) and

The Customer is always right (D) are just genericstatements.

~A199~

A. Change Management and Configuration Management

~A204~

A. A is a responsibility of BUSINESS CAPACITY Management.

~A203~

D. Depreciation is a standard accounting term meaningthe writing off of an assets value each year. Transfer

Costing concerns costs transferred

ITIL Tests

Documents

change management

change capacity management

service level management

change release management

management summary

change manager

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