Earth Science Jan Exam 2019 Page 2...2019/06/11 · Which agent of erosion most likely carried sediment that scratched striations into the bedrock? A) a moving glacier B) running

Earth Science January 10, 2019 -TAN EXAM Corrections None Please PRINT your name, school, area, and which test you are taking onto the scantron. Choose the answer that best completes the statements or questions below and fill in the appropriate response on the scantron. If you change your answer, be sure to completely erase your first choice. 1. Which statement is an accurate conclusion based on the information provided in the table?

A) Granite & Rhyolite are very similar in composition. B) Granite & Conglomerate are very similar in composition. C) Basalt & Gabbro are very similar in composition. D) Basalt & Conglomerate are very similar in composition. 2. Using Moh’s scale (Table 2) to the right, which mineral will scratch fluorite, but not diamond? A) talc B) gypsum C) calcite D) quartz 3. The streak of a mineral can be tested by A) scratching the mineral across a glass plate B) squeezing the mineral with calibrated pliers C) determining the density of the mineral D) rubbing the mineral on a porcelain plate 4. The physical properties of minerals result from their A) Density and color B) Internal arrangement of atoms C) Cleavage or fracture D) Texture and streak

5. What would most likely happen to New Jersey’s summer and winter temperatures if the tilt of Earth’s axis increased from 23.5° to 30°? A) Both the summers and winters would become cooler. B) Both the summers and winters would become warmer. C) The summers would become cooler and the winters would become warmer. D) The summers would become warmer and the winters would become cooler. 6. When Earth is closest to the sun, which season is occurring in the Northern Hemisphere? A) spring B) summer C) fall D) winter

Earth Science Jan Exam 2019 Page 1

7. The photographs below show the surface of the Moon as seen from Earth over an 80-minute period during a single night. Which motion is responsible for this changing appearance of the Moon? A) The Moon moves into the shadow of Earth. B) The Moon moves into the shadow of the Sun. C) The Sun moves into the shadow of Earth. D) The Sun moves into the shadow of the Moon 8. The passage of the Moon into Earth’s shadow causes a A) solar eclipse B) lunar eclipse C) full Moon D) new Moon 9. Which motion causes the apparent rising and setting of the Moon each day, as seen from a location in New Jersey? A) the Earth revolving around the Sun B) the Moon revolving around the Earth C) the Earth rotating on its axis D) the Moon rotating on its axis 10. To a nighttime observer on Earth, how many degrees do the stars appear to move around Polaris in 3 hours? A) 60° B) 45° C) 3° D) 15° 11. Which photograph of star trails was taken by an observer facing the east in NJ? A) B) C) D) 12. The diagram below represents Earth and the Moon as viewed from above the North Pole. Points A,B,C, and D are locations on Earth’s surface. According to the diagram, where will high ocean tides and low ocean tides most likely be located?

A) High tides at A & B; low tides at C & D B) High tides at B & D; low tides at A & C C) High tides at A & C; low tides at B & D D) High tides at C & D; low tides at A & B


Use the following Solar System Data Chart to answer questions 13-15. 13. Which diagram most accurately represents the relative diameters of Earth and the Moon?

14. Compared to terrestrial planets, Jovian planets have A) smaller equatorial diameters and shorter periods of revolution B) smaller equatorial diameter and longer periods of revolution C) larger equatorial diameters and shorter periods of revolution D) larger equatorial diameters and longer periods of revolution 15. Which planet has the most eccentric orbit? A) Mars B) Venus C) Neptune D) Earth 16. The Earth, the Sun, and billions of stars are contained within A) a single constellation C) the solar system B) the Milky Way galaxy D) a giant cloud of gas 17) The universe is approximately 13.8 billion years old. Compared to the age of the solar system, the age of the universe is A) the same age as the solar system C) three times older than the solar system B) two times older than the solar system D) four times older than the solar system 18) A red shift in the light from very distant galaxies suggests that the universe is A) fixed and stationary C) moving randomly B) contracting D) expanding


19. On a clear summer day, the surface of land is usually warmer than the surface of a nearby body of water because the water A) receives less insolation C) has a higher density B) reflects less insolation D) has a higher specific heat 20. The diagram below shows four surfaces of equal area that absorb insolation. Which letter represents the surface that most likely absorbs the greatest amount of insolation?

21. Which type of air mass most likely has high humidity and a high temperature? A) cP B) cT C) mT D) mP 22. Use the diagram to the right for this question. Dry areas caused by sinking air and diverging surface winds are located at which two latitudes? A) 0° and 30°N C) 30°N and 30°S B) 0° and 60°S D) 60°N and 60°S 23. Air pressure is usually highest when the air is A) cool and humid C) cool and dry B) warm and humid D) warm and dry 24. Students wish to study the effect of elevation above sea level on air temperature and pressure. They plan to hike in the Adirondack Mountains from Heart Lake, elevation 2,179 feet, to the peak of Mt. Marcy, elevation of 5,344 feet. Which instruments should they use to collect their data? A) anemometer and psychrometer B) anemometer and barometer

C) thermometer and psychrometer D) thermometer and barometer

Use the diagram to the right to answer questions 25-28. 25. If the room is considered a model of circulation in the Earth’s atmosphere, at which location would air pressure be greatest. A) A C) E B) B D) F 26. What type of energy transfer is indicated by the arrows in the diagram? A) insolation C) convection B) radiation D) conduction 27. At which location in the room will the density of the air be greatest? A) F B) B C) C D) E


28. What color should the heat source in the room be painted in order to radiate the most heat? A) red B) black C) green D) silver 29. What type of weather front was located south of New York on December 9th, 2009? A) warm B) cold C) stationary D) occluded 30. Which information shown on the weather maps (#29) best indicates that wind speeds in New York State were greater on December 9 than on December 8? A) The isobars were closer together on December 9. B) The fronts were closer together on December 9 C) The air pressure over New York State was lower on December 9 D) The air pressure over New York State was higher on December 9 31. The weather characteristics of air mass result primarily from its A) direction of movement C) rate of movement B) geographic origin D) size and shape 32. At which weather station are weather conditions probably the most unstable? A) A B) B C) C D) D

33. Which rock is classified as an evaporate? A) clastic shale C) nonfoliated marble B) foliated phyllite D) crystalline rock salt


34. A student classified the rock to the right as sedimentary. Which observation about the rock best supports this classification? A) The rock is composed of several minerals B) The rock has a vesicular texture C) The rock contains fragments of other rocks D) The rock shows distorted and stretched pebbles 35. Which process produced rock layer B which is sandstone. A) subduction and melting B) heat and pressure C) uplift and solidification D) compaction and cementation 36. Which rock most likely formed as a result of biologic processes? A) granite B) basalt

C) sandstone D) limestone

37. Which crystals most likely formed from molten material that cooled and solidified rapidly?

38. Which observed feature would provide the best evidence of crustal stability? A) horizontal sedimentary layers B) changed benchmark elevations C) folded, faulted, and tilted rock strata D) marine fossils at elevations high

above sea level 39. Which event provides direct evidence of crustal movement? A) the erosion of the outside of a river curve B) the deposition of sediments in the ocean C) the displacement of rock strata during an earthquake D) the weathering of rock to form a residual soil


40. The diagram to the right shows a portion of Earth’s crust. The movements indicated by the arrows represent the process of A) folding C) faulting B) volcanism D) metamorphism 41. Crustal disturbances such as earthquakes and volcanic eruptions

are best described as A) events that are cyclic and predictable B) events that are usually related and cannot be predicted with accuracy C) unrelated events that follow no pattern D) phenomena seldom found in the same regions 42. The convection currents responsible for moving tectonic plates occur in which Earth layer? A) crust B) rigid mantle C) stiffer mantle D) asthenosphere 43. On which plate is the Hawaii Hot Spot located? A) Pacific B) Nazca C) Antarctic D) North American 44. The Hawaiian Islands were formed as a result of A) lava flowing over Earth’s surface where two tectonic plates move apart B) an oceanic plate moving over a mantle hot spot C) two oceanic plates colliding to form an island arc D) tectonic plates sliding past each other 45. Which cross-section best represents the convection currents in the mantle beneath the Peru-

Chile Trench?

46. Which stream drainage pattern would develop on the surface of a volcano?

47. The pattern of distribution of the ash that comes from a volcano has a direct correlation to the A) magnetic field C) force of eruption B) flow of surface water D) atmospheric air movements 48. What will be the most probable arrangement of rock particles deposited directly by a glacier? A) sorted and layered C) sorted and not layered B) unsorted and layered D) unsorted and not layered


49. The diagrams below shows a glacial landscape feature forming over time from a melting block of ice. This glacial landscape feature is best identified as a

A) kettle lake B) finger lake C) outwash plain D) a moraine 50. A person observes scratched and polished bedrock produced by weathering and erosion. Which agent of erosion most likely carried sediment that scratched striations into the bedrock? A) a moving glacier B) running water C) wave action D) wind 51. Which agent of erosion is most likely responsible for the deposition of sandbars along ocean shorelines?

A) glaciers B) mass movement C) wave action D) wind 52. The diagram below shows some features along an ocean shoreline. In which general direction is the sand being moved along this shoreline by ocean (long-shore) currents?

A) northeast B) southeast C) northwest D)southwest 53. What agent of erosion most likely formed drumlins and a pile of moraine in New York State? A) running water B) moving ice C) wave action D) wind 54. The greater the time that stream sediment is transported, the greater the probability that the sediment will become more

A) angular and smaller C) angular and larger B) rounded and smaller D) rounded and larger 55. Two streams begin at the same elevation and have equal volumes. Which statement best explains why one stream could be flowing faster than the other steam? A) The faster stream has a much steeper gradient B) The faster stream contains more dissolved minerals C) The streams are flowing in different directions D) The faster stream has a temperature of 10°C, and the slower stream has a temperature of 20°C.


56. The diagram to the right shows the area surrounding a meandering stream. At which point is erosion greatest? A) A C) C B) B D) D 57. Why do most streams in the Northeast have a greater stream discharge in the spring than in the summer?

A) Potential evapotranspiration is greater in spring than in summer. B) More transpiration occurs in spring than in summer. C) Most NJ and NY water budgets have a deficit in spring. D) Melting snow increases runoff in spring. Base your answers to questions 58-60 on the diagram below. 58. Which feature was formed from the erosion and deposition of a meandering river over an extended period of time?

A) Yazoo stream C) natural levees B) floodplain D) oxbow lake 59. Which change would most likely increase the velocity of the river?

A) a decrease in the slope of the river B) a decrease in the temperature of the river C) an increase in the river’s discharge D) an increase in the width of the river 60. The natural levees are ridges of sediment that slope away from the riverbank toward the floodplain. Which process most likely formed these levees? Should go A, B, C, D. No change ans remains letter D.

A) weathering of the soil on the riverbanks C) erosion on the inside curves of the meanders B) deposition by the Yazoo stream D) deposition when the river overflowed its banks 61. What is the estimated age of Earth? My is million years. By is billion years A) 4.6 My (4.6 x 106 years) B) 46 My (4.6 x 107 years)

C) 460 My (4.6 x 108 years) D) 4.6 By (4.6 x 109 years)

62. Antarctica’s location and climate changed over the last 200 million years because Antarctica moved A) southward, resulting in a warmer climate B) southward, resulting in a colder climate

C) northward, resulting in a warmer climate D) northward, resulting in a colder climate

63. The division of Earth’s geologic history into units of time called eons, eras, periods, and epochs is based on

A) absolute dating techniques C) climate changes B) fossil evidence D) seismic data 64. Studies of the rock record suggest that A) the period during which humans have existed is very brief compared to geologic time B) evidence of existence of humans is present over much of the geologic past C) humans first appeared when the first mammals appeared D) the earliest humans lived at the same time as the dinosaurs 65. The earth is slightly flattened from a perfect spherical shape because of its

Z W X


A) its rotation C) storms on the sun’s surface B) pull of the sun and moon D) its molten core 66. Precise measurements of Earth indicate that its polar diameter is A) shorter than its equatorial diameter B) longer than its equatorial diameter C) the same length as its equatorial diameter 67. The diagram to the right shows an observer on Earth viewing the star Polaris. What is the observer’s latitude?

A) 38°N C) 52°S B) 38°S D) 52°N 68. What is the time in the Central time zone when it is noon in the Pacific time zone?

A) 10 am C) 2 pm B) 12 pm D) 12 am 69. Cities located on the same meridian have the same A) altitude C) latitude B) length of daylight D) solar time Use your knowledge of earth science and the data table below to answer questions 70-72.

70. Earth’s troposphere, hydrosphere, and lithosphere contain relatively large amounts of which element? A) iron B) oxygen C) hydrogen D) potassium 71. Scientists have inferred that Earth’s original atmosphere was formed by A) outgassing form Earth’s interior B) erosion of Earth’s surface

C) decay of microorganisms in Earth’s oceans D) radioactive decay of elements in Earth’s core

72. Which pie graph correctly shows the percentage of elements by volume in Earth’s troposphere?


NEW JERSEY SCIENCE LEAGUE

EARTH SCIENCE EXAM ANSWER KEY TAN TEST DATE: January 10, 2019 Corrections None

1 A 19 D 37 C 55 A 2 D 20 D 38 A 56 B 3 D 21 C 39 C 57 D 4 B 22 C 40 C 58 D 5 D 23 C 41 B 59 C 6 D 24 D 42 D 60 D 7 A 25 C 43 A 61 D 8 B 26 C 44 B 62 B 9 C 27 D 45 C 63 B 10 B 28 B 46 B 64 A 11 C 29 A 47 D 65 A 12 B 30 A 48 D 66 A 13 B 31 B 49 A 67 D 14 D 32 B 50 A 68 C 15 A 33 D 51 C 69 D 16 B 34 C 52 B 70 B 17 C 35 D 53 B 71 A 18 D 36 D 54 B 72 A

Since some earth science courses in New Jersey start with geology, others with astronomy, and still others with meteorology, each of the four tests will include the following topics. Over time, this provides an equal opportunity to everyone. The number in parentheses indicates the approximate number of questions for that topic. The number per topic occasionally varies by one or two, but usually does not.

Geology (Approximately 44 question) Astronomy (approximately 14 Questions) Minerals (4) Sun (2) Rocks (2) Moon (2) Earth Structure (2) Sun-Moon-Earth System (3) Plate Tectonics (4) Solar System (3) Faults/Folds/Seismology (3) Stars (2) Vulcanism (2) Galactic Systems (2) Glaciation/Deserts (2) Cosmology (2) Rivers: Erosion & Deposition (3) Meteorology (Approximately 14 Questions) Ground Water/Caves (2) Insolation/Temperature/Air Masses (3) Ocean Shore Line/Currents/Salinity(3) Atmospheric Pressure/Highs/Lows (4) Weathering/Mass Wasting (2) Moisture in the Atmosphere (3) Historical Geology (4) Frontal Systems (3) Map Reading: Road/Topo/Geologic (4) Interpreting Weather Maps (3) Geodesics/Time/Map Projections (3)

New Jersey Science League PO Box 65 Stewartsville, NJ 08886-0065

Phone (cell) # 908-213-8923 email: [email protected] Web address: http://entnet.com/~personal/njscil/html/

What is to be mailed back to our office? PLEASE RETURN THE AREA RECORD AND ALL TEAM MEMBER SCANTRONS

(ALL STUDENTS PLACING 1ST, 2ND, 3RD, AND 4TH). If you return Scantrons of alternates, then label them as ALTERNATES.

Dates for 2020 Season Thursday January 9, 2020 Thursday February 13, 2020

Thursday March 12, 2020 Thursday April 9, 2020

Earth Science Exam Feb 14, 2019 -TAN EXAM Corrections None Please PRINT your name, school, area, and which test you are taking onto the scantron. Choose the answer that best completes the statements or questions below and fill in the appropriate response on the scantron. If you change your answer, be sure to completely erase your first choice. 1. During which month does the sunrise north of due east in New York & New Jersey?

A) February B) July C) October D) December 2. Seasonal changes on Earth are primarily caused by the

A) parallelism of the Sun’s axis as the Sun revolves around Earth B) changes in distance between the Earth and the Sun C) elliptical shape of Earth’s orbit around the Sun D) tilt of Earth’s axis as Earth revolves around the Sun

3. How many days are required for the Moon to go from one full-Moon phase to the

next-full-Moon phase when viewed from Earth? A) 24 B) 27.3 C) 29.5 D) 365

4. Which sequence of Moon phases could be observed from Earth during a 2 week

period?

5. During which Moon phase could an observer on Earth possibly see a lunar eclipse? A) B)

C) D) . 6. A high tide occurred at 6:00 am at a beach in New Jersey. The next high tide at this

same beach would occur at approximately A) 12:15 pm on the same day C) 6:30 pm on the same day B) 12:45 pm on the following day D) 7:00 am on the following day

7. Which two characteristics do all Jovian planets have in common? A) small diameters and low densities C) large diameters and high densities

B) small diameters and high densities D) large diameters and low densities

ES Feb 2019 Exam Page 1

Use the solar system chart to the right to answer questions 8 & 9.

8. Using the chart of solar system data to the right, determine which planet has the most eccentric orbit? A) Mars B) Neptune C) Venus D) Earth

9. Which planet would float in water, if it could be

placed in water? A) Mercury C) Earth B) Saturn D) Venus

10. Which planet takes the longest time to orbit the sun?

A) Mercury C) Earth B) Uranus D) Neptune

11. The unit most used by astronomers to express the distances to other galaxies is

A) light years B) kilometers C) astronomical units D)miles 12. According to astronomers, the age of the universe is estimated to be

A) 1.3 billion years C) 4.6 billion years B) 7.9 billion years D) 13.8 billion years

13. The red shift of light from distant galaxies provides evidence that these galaxies are

A) decreasing in size C) are decreasing in distance from Earth B) increasing in size D) are increasing in distance from Earth

14. Which factor does not affect a star’s absolute magnitude (luminosity)?

A) The stars temperature C) The stars size B) The stars distance D) the stars shape

Use the, “Specific Heats of Common Materials,” to answer questions 15 & 16. 15. Which substance would take the longest time to heat a

uniform sample from 10oC to 50oC A) Iron B) water C) granite D) lead

16. Equal masses of granite, iron, copper and lead are

placed in sunlight. Based on specific heat, which material will warm up the fastest? A) granite C) iron B) copper D) lead


17. Which color is the best radiator of electromagnetic energy? A) red B) black C) white D) yellow

Base your answers to questions 18 & 19 on the maps below and your knowledge of Earth Science. 18. The heavy monsoon rains affecting India and Southeast Asia occur during

A) winter, when winds blow from the land B) winter, when winds blow toward the high pressure C) summer, when winds blow from the sea D) summer, when winds blow toward the high pressure

19. Which two letter symbol represents the most likely air mass formed over portions of

the Indian Ocean shown on the above maps? A) mP B) mT C) cP D) cT

20. In the Northern Hemisphere, surface winds around the center of a hurricane move

A) clockwise and inward C) counterclockwise and inward B) clockwise and outward D) counterclockwise and outward

Use the map below to answer questions 21 & 22. 21. Which two locations are most likely experiencing

precipitation? A) location A & B B) location B & C C) location C & D D) location D & B

22. Which atmospheric conditions describe the air mass

that is influencing weather conditions at location C? A) warm and moist C) cool and moist B) warm and dry D) cool and dry


23. The cross section below shows a weather front.

The large arrow shows the direction of the movement of the cool air mass. What type of weather front is shown?

A) warm front B) cold front C) occluded front D) stationary front

24. A large rainstorm follows the usual direction of movement of a weather system

across the United States. Which part of New York State will receive rain from the storm first? A) northwestern C) northeastern B) southwestern D) southeastern

25. Which station model represents a location that has the greatest chance of

precipitation?

26. The weather station model below shows some of the weather data for a certain location. What is the wind speed shown on the station model and which instrument is used to measure it? A) 15 knots- wind vane B) 15 knots- anemometer C) 25 knots- wind vane D) 25 knots- anemometer

27. Which weather condition would you get when the air temperature is equal to the dew

point temperature? A) fog B) rain C) thunderstorm D) drizzle

28. The relative humidity is 100% when the

A) atmosphere is relatively dry B) air is at its saturated vapor pressure C) air pressure is high D) transpiration equals evaporation

29. Igneous, sedimentary, and metamorphic rocks are usually composed of

A) intergrown crystals C) fossils B) minerals D) sediments


30. In which group are all the earth materials classified as minerals? A) feldspar, quartz, and olivine C) granite, rhyolite, basalt B) Cobbles, pebbles, and silt D) conglomerate, sandstone, and shale

31. Which mineral will scratch fluorite(4), galena(2.5), and pyroxene(5-6)?

Graphite hardness= 1-2 Olivine hardness= 6.5 Calcite hardness= 3 Dolomite hardness= 3.5

A) graphite C) olivine B) calcite D) dolomite

Use Table 1 & Table 2 below to answer questions 32 & 33. 32. Which gemstone mineral

has no aluminum present? A) emerald B) sapphire C) spinel D) zircon

33. Saphire is a gemstone variety of which mineral on Moh’s scale of hardness? A) corundum B) diamond C) fluorite D) topaz

34. Most rocks that form from fragmental rock particles are classified as

A) extrusive igneous C) clastic sedimentary B) intrusive igneous D) chemical sedimentary

35. The profile below shows the average diameter of sediment that was

sorted and deposited in specific areas A, B, C, and D by a stream entering an ocean. As compaction and cementation of these sediments eventually occur, which area will become sandstone?

A) A B) B C) C D) D

36. Which mineral precipitates from oceans and forms rock salt?

A) quartz B) halite C) fluorite D) olivine


37. Which category of rocks most likely contains fossils? A) sedimentary B) igneous C) metamorphic D) only minerals can hold fossils

38. An observer discovers shallow-water marine fossils in rock strata at an elevation of 5,000 meters. What is the best explanation for this observation? A) The level of the ocean was once 5,000 meters higher B) Violent earthquakes caused crustal subsidence C) Marine organisms have evolved into land organisms D) Crustal uplift has occurred in this area

39. Before sedimentary rock layers become altered, sedimentary bedrock originally

forms as A) folded layers C) recrystallized layers B) horizontal layers D) faulted layers

40. The diagram below represents a geologic cross section of a mountain range. What

action most likely formed this mountain range? A) contact metamorphism B) earthquake faulting C) glacial erosion D) volcanic eruptions

41. The Aleutian Islands extend westward from southern Alaska to form the northern

boundary of the Pacific Ocean. Theses volcanic islands were formed by the nearby

A) subduction of a continental plate C) divergence of a continental plate B) subduction of an oceanic plate D) divergence of an oceanic plate

42. The country of Iceland would be closest to the

A) Mid-Atlantic Ridge C) Mid-Indian Ridge B) South-East Indian Ridge D) East Pacific Ridge

43. The movement of tectonic plates is inferred by many scientists to be driven by

A) tidal motions in the hydrosphere B) convection currents in the asthenosphere C) density differences in the troposphere D) solidification in the lithosphere

44. New Jersey is presently located

A) at a convergent plate boundary B) above a mantle hot spot C) above a mid-ocean ridge D) near the center of a large plate


45. Which best describes a major characteristic of both volcanoes and earthquakes? A) They are centered at the poles B) They are located in the same geographic areas C) They are related to the formation of glaciers D) They are restricted to the Southern Hemisphere

46. The edges of most lithospheric plates are characterized by

A) reversed magnetic orientation B) unusually rapid radioactive decay C) frequent volcanic activity D) low P-wave and high S-wave velocity

Use the map below to answer questions 47 & 48. 47. The map to the right shows some tectonic plate

boundaries near South America and Africa. Letter’s A, B, C and D represent locations on Earth’s surface. Which location most likely has the youngest bedrock? A) A C) C B) B D) D

48. Which geologic feature is located at

position C? A) Per-Chile Trench C) Mid-Atlantic Ridge B) Adirondack Mountains D) San Andreas Fault

49. Long, sandy islands are composed mostly of sand and rounded pebbles arranged in

sorted layers. Which agent of erosion most likely shaped and sorted the sand and pebbles while transporting them to their island location? A) glaciers B) landslides C) wind D) waves

50. Which process was primarily responsible for the delta shown below?

A) glacial erosion B) cementation of sediment C) deposition of sediment D) mass movement

51. Which of the following is a result of glaciation?

A) few lakes B) many V-shaped valleys C) many sand and gravel deposits D) thick soils formed “in place” from underlying bedrock

52. Which landscape characteristic indicates a landscape that has been formed primarily

by streams? A) residual soil covering a large area B) coastal sand dunes C) v-shaped valleys D) parallel hills of unsorted sediments


53. A brief, heavy rainstorm occurs in the mountains. How will the volume of water and the rate of erosion in the stream change shortly after the rainstorm? A) The volume of water will decrease and the rate of erosion will increase B) The volume of water will increase and the rate of erosion will decrease C) Both the volume of water and the rate of erosion will decrease D) Both the volume of water and the rate of erosion will increase

Use the diagram below to answer questions 54- 56, which shows the edge of a continental glacier that is receding. R indicates elongated hills. The ridge of sediments from X to Y represents a landscape feature. 54. The ridge of sediment from X to Y can best be

described as A) sorted and deposited by ice B) sorted and deposited by meltwater C) unsorted and deposited by ice D) unsorted and deposited by meltwater

55. Which feature will most likely form when the

partially buried ice block melts? A) drumlin B) finger lake C) moraine D) kettle lake

56. The elongated hills labeled “R” are most useful in determining the

A) age of the glacier C) direction the glacier has moved B) thickness of the glacier D) rate of glacier melt

57. Which chemical process is most likely responsible for rust on a copper penny?

A) oxidation C) carbonation B) transpiration D) infiltration

58. Which characteristic would most likely remain constant when a limestone cobble is

subjected to extensive abrasion? A) shape B) mass C) volume D) composition

59. A landslide is an example of

A) wind abrasion C) glacial deposition B) mass movement D) wave action

60. In which climate would the chemical weathering of limestone occur most rapidly?

A) cold and dry C) cold and humid B) warm and humid D) warm and dry


61. Which rock layer shows the greatest resistance to weathering and erosion?

A) A B) B C) C D) D

62. The maps below labeled A, B, and C, show three different stream drainage patterns.

Which factor is primarily responsible for causing these three different drainage patterns? A) amount of precipitation B) bedrock structure C) stream discharge D) prevailing winds

63. Using the time line below, which number best represents when humans are inferred

to have first appeared on Earth?

A) 1 C) 3 B) 2 D) 4

64. Approximately 2.2 billion years ago, which gas was first added in large amounts of

Earth’s atmosphere from life-forms that evolved in the oceans? A) carbon dioxide C) water vapor B) oxygen D) nitrogen

65. Geologists have subdivided geologic time into units based on

A) rock type B) fossil evidence C) erosion rates D) landsape development

66. Why are radioactive substances useful for measuring geologic time?

A) The ratio of decay products to radioactive substances remains constant in rocks B) The half-lives of radioactive substances are short C) Samples of radioactive substances are easy to collect from rocks D) Radioactive substances undergo decay at a predictable rate


67. The lines on which set of views best represent Earth’s latitude system?

68. The altitude of Polaris measured by an observer at the Tropic of Cancer is A)15º B) 23.5º C) 66.5º D) 90º

69. Which reference line passes through both the geographic North Pole and the

geographic South Pole? A) 0º latitude C) Tropic of Capricorn B) 0º longitude D) Tropic of Cancer

70. Since Denver’s longitude is 105ºW and Utica’s longitude is 75ºW, sunrise in Denver

occurs A) 2 hours earlier C) 2 hours later B) 3 hours earlier D) 3 hours later

71. The map below shows the location and diameter, in kilometers, of four meteorite

impact craters, A,B,C, and D, found in the United States. What is the approximate latitude and longitude of the largest crater? A) 35 ºN, 111 º W C) 39 º N , 83 º W B) 44 ºN, 90 º W D) 47 º N, 104 º W

72. Base your answer on the diagram below which represents Earth’s interior zones. The thinnest section of Earth’s crust is found beneath the

A) oceans B) desert regions C) coastal plains D) mountain regions


NEW JERSEY SCIENCE LEAGUE Corrections None

EARTH SCIENCE EXAM ANSWER KEY TAN TEST DATE: Feb 14, 2019

1 B 19 B 37 A 55 D 2 D 20 C 38 D 56 C 3 C 21 D 39 B 57 A 4 C 22 A 40 B 58 D 5 B 23 B 41 B 59 B 6 C 24 B 42 A 60 B 7 D 25 C 43 B 61 A 8 A 26 D 44 D 62 B 9 B 27 A 45 B 63 D 10 D 28 B 46 C 64 B 11 A 29 B 47 C 65 B 12 D 30 A 48 C 66 D 13 D 31 C 49 D 67 B 14 B 32 D 50 C 68 B 15 B 33 A 51 C 69 B 16 D 34 C 52 C 70 C 17 B 35 C 53 D 71 D 18 C 36 B 54 C 72 A









Earth Science March Exam 2019 -TAN EXAM Corrections Please PRINT your name, school, area, and which test you are taking onto the scantron. Choose the answer that best completes the statements or questions below and fill in the appropriate response on the scantron. If you change your answer, be sure to completely erase your first choice. 1. During which month does the sunrise north of due east in New York & New Jersey?

A) February B) July C) October D) December 2. Which location receives the greatest intensity of insolation on June 21 in the Northern

Hemisphere? A) 90°S C) 90° N B) 23.5°S D) 23.5°N

3. The same side of the Moon always faces Earth because the

A) Moon’s period of rotation is longer than its period of revolution around Earth B) Moon’s period of rotation is shorter than its period of revolution around Earth C) Moon rotates once as it completes one revolution around Earth D) Moon does not rotate as it completes one revolution around Earth

4. The time required for the Moon to show a complete cycle of phases when viewed from Earth

is approximately A) 1 day B) 1 month C) 1 week D) 1 year

5. The photographs below show the same coastal location at two different times during the same

day. Which statement best explains the cause for the higher water level at 6:52 pm?

A) The moon rotates on its axis at the same rate that it revolves around earth B) The moon exerts a gravitational pull on a rotating earth C) Earth’s rotation cause a deflection of surface ocean currents D) Earth’s tilted axis causes different amounts of insolation throughout the day

6. The number of hours from one high tide to the next high tide is approximately

A) 4 hours B) 6 hours C) 10 hours D) 12 hours

NJSL Earth Science March 2019 Page 1

Use the diagram below to answer questions 7 & 8. The diagram shows the Earth and Moon in relation to the Sun. A,B,C, and D show the Moon at specific locations in its orbit. Point X is a location on Earth’s surface. 7. Which phase of the Moon below would be observed when the Moon is at location A? 8. A solar eclipse might occur when the Moon is at location?

A) A B) B

C) C D) D

9. Planets that are closes to the Sun are identified as

A) High-density terrestrial B) High-density Jovian

C) Low-density terrestrial D) Low-density Jovian

10. According to current data, the Earth is apparently the only planet in our solar system that has

A) Liquid water on its surface B) An orbiting moon

C) An axis of rotation D) Atmospheric gases

11. A belt of asteroids is located an average distance of 503 million kilometers from the Sun.

Between which two planets is this belt located? A) Mars and Earth C) Jupiter and Saturn B) Mars and Jupiter D) Saturn and Uranus

12. The theory that the universe is expanding is supported by data form the

A) Nuclear decay of radioactive materials B) Nuclear fusion of radioactive materials C) Blue shift of light from distant galaxies D) Red shift of light from distant galaxies

13. Which evidence best supports the theory that the universe began with a massive explosion?

A) Cosmic background radiation C) radioactive dating of Earth’s rock B) Parallelism of planetary axes D) life cycles of stars

14. Which observation provides the best evidence that Earth revolves around the Sun?

A) The North Star, Polaris, is located above the North Pole for the entire year B) The Sun appears to move across the sky C) The constellation Orion is only visible in the night sky for part of the year. D) Stars form circular star trails around Polaris every night.


15. Which weather variable can be determined by using a psychrometer? A) pressure C) cloud cover B) relative humidity D) wind speed

16. Monsoons develop as a result of

A) Large changes between the temperatures of a continent and neighboring oceans B) A continent and neighboring oceans having nearly the same temperatures C) Air rising over Earth’s equatorial region D) Air sinking over Earth’s polar regions

17. Use the diagram to the right to determine what a barometric pressure of 1021

millibars is equal to in inches of mercury? A) 29.88 B) 30.25

C) 30.15 D) 30.50

18. Air pressure is usually the highest when the air is

A) Warm and humid B) Cold and humid C) Warm and dry D) Cold and dry

19. Earth’s surface winds generally blow from regions of higher

A) Air temperature toward regions of lower air temperature B) Air pressure toward regions of lower air pressure C) Latitudes toward regions of lower latitudes D) Elevations toward regions of lower elevations

20. Which cross section below best shows the locations of high air pressure and low air pressure near a beach on a hot, summer afternoon? H is high pressure, while L is low pressure.

21. Which type of air mass would most likely form over the Pacific Ocean north of the Aleutian Trench, which runs west of southern Alaska? A) mP B) mT C) cP D) cT 22. Air masses are identified on the basis of temperature and A) type of precipitation B) moisture content

C) wind velocity D) atmospheric transparency


23. The diagram below represents a cross section of air masses and frontal surfaces along line AB. The dashed lines represent precipitation. Which weather map best represents this frontal system?

24. The weather station model shown below indicated that winds are coming from the

A) Southeast at 10 knots B) Northwest at 10 knots C) Southeast at 20 knots D) Northwest at 20 knots

25. Equal areas of which surface will absorb the most insolation? A) partially melted snowfield C) lake surface B) white sand beach D) blacktop parking lot 26. In New Jersey, the risk of sunburn is greatest between 11 am and 3 pm on summer days because A) the air temperature is hot C) Earth’s surface reflects light B) the angle of insolation is high D) the Sun is closest to Earth 27. The diagram below shows the noontime shadow cast by a vertical post located in NJ. Which letter indicates a location south of the post? A) A C) C B) B D) D


28. Use the drawing to the right. Which front will most likely pass over location A during the next two hours?

A) warm C) stationary B) occluded D) cold

29. Which is an accurate statement about rocks?

A) Rocks are located in continental areas of the earth B) Rocks seldom undergo change C) Most rocks contain fossils D) Most rocks have several minerals in common

30.The crystal shape and type of cleavage of these two minerals are determined mainly by the minerals' A) color and type of luster B) composition and atomic arrangement C) streak and hardness D) density and magnetism 31. Which two properties are most useful in distinguishing between metallic galena and nonmetallic halite? A) luster & color C) cleavage & color B) hardness & streak D) streak & cleavage 32. The density of this mineral sample is: A) 6 g/mL B) 24 g/mL C) 54 g/mL D) 60 g/mL 33. Which rock makes up the mafic dense ocean floor? A) basalt B) rock salt C) limestone D) rock gypsum 34. Most rocks that form from fragmental rock particles are classified as: A) extrusive igneous C) intrusive igneous B) clastic sedimentary D) chemical sedimentary


35. Which group of rocks typically contain fossils? A) sedimentary B) igneous C) metamorphic D) lava 36. Most sandstone bedrock is composed of sediment that was A) sorted by size and not layered B) sorted by size and layered

C) unsorted and not layered D) unsorted and layered

37. Which process led to the formation of thick salt deposits found in the bedrock locations of many North America locations? A) melting B) runoff C) condensation D) evaporation 38. Which two geologic process most likely created this landscape region? A) volcanism, followed by metamorphism B) faulting, followed by depression C) folding, followed by erosion D) glaciation, followed by rifting 39. The geologic cross section below shows bedrock layers A through D. Line XY is a fault. The fault most likely occurred after A) All bedrock layers were formed B) layer C formed, but before layer D formed C) layer A formed, but before layer B formed D) layer B formed, but before layer C formed 40. A sandstone layer is tilted at a steep angle. What probably caused this tilting? A) the sediments that formed this sandstone layer were originally deposited at a steep angle. B) this sandstone layer has changed position due to crustal movement C) this sandstone layer has recrystallized due to contact metamorphism D) nearly all sandstone layers are formed from wind deposited sands 41. The diagram below provides evidence that the Pacific Crustal Plate was moving towards the A) south B) southwest C) east D) northwest


42. Which observation about the Mid-Atlantic Ridge region provides the best evidence that the seafloor has been spreading for millions of years?

A) The bedrock of the ridge and nearby seafloor is igneous rock B) The ridge is the location of irregular volcanic eruptions C) Several faults cut across the ridge and nearby seafloor D) Seafloor bedrock is younger near the ridge and older farther away

43. Convection currents in the plastic mantle are believed to cause divergence of lithospheric plates at the A) Per-Chile Trench C) Mariana Trench B) Iceland Hot Spot D) center of North American plate 44. Which agent of erosion most likely formed drumlins and Finger Lakes in New York? A) running water B) waves C) moving ice D) landslide 45. The occurrence of parallel scratches on bedrock in a U-shaped valley indicates that the area has most likely been eroded by A) a glacier B) a stream C) waves D) wind 46. Most sediments found in a floodplain are going to be A) angular and weathered from underlying bedrock B) angular and weathered from bedrock upstream C) rounded and weathered from underlying bedrock D) rounded and weathered from bedrock upstream Use the diagram below to answer questions 47 & 48. Use the letter points in the diagram (A, B, C, and D) for answers to 47 and 48. 47. At which point is deposition the greatest? 48. At which point is the stream velocity the fastest? 49. Which cross section best represents the shape of the river bottom at A-A’?


50. A river’s current carries sediments into the ocean. Which sediment size will most likely be deposited in deeper water farthest from shore? A) pebbles B) sand C) clay D) silt 51. Which agent of erosion usually forms barrier islands? A) mass movement B) waves C) streams D) glaciers 52. Frost wedging occurs because A) water contracts when it freezes C) water gives off carbon dioxide B) acid rain is present D) water expands when it freezes 53. Which chemical process is responsible for creating caves in Mexico? A) transpiration B) acid rain C) carbonation D) infiltration 54. Impact craters are more obvious on the Moon and Mercury than on Earth because A) weathering processes on Earth have removed craters B) meteorites have not struck Earth C) Earth is younger than Mercury or the Moon D) All meteorites burn up in Earth’s atmosphere 55. Which change would cause the topsoil in NJ to increase in thickness? A) an increase in slope C) an increase in biologic activity B) a decrease in rainfall D) a decrease in air temperature 56. Terms such as composition, porosity, permeability, and particle size are used to describe different types of A) soils B) hillslopes C) landscapes D) rivers 57. Four pieces of the same rock material which have different shapes but equal volumes are exposed to the atmosphere. Which piece would probably weather fastest? A) a piece shaped like a sphere B) a piece shaped like a cube

C) a piece shaped like a cylinder D) a piece shaped flat and thin

58. When wind and running water gradually decrease in velocity, the transported sediments are deposited A) all at once, and are unsorted B) all at once, and are sorted by size and density C) over a period of time, and are unsorted D) over a period of time, and are sorted by size and density 59. The four particles (A, B, C, and D) shown in the table below are of equal volume and are dropped into a column filled with water. Which particle would usually settle most rapidly? Use the letter choices in the table.


60. The existence of which group of organism’s spans the shortest geologic time? A) birds B) humans C) dinosaurs D) placoderm fish 61. Approximately 2.2 billion years ago, which gas was first added in large amounts to Earth’s atmosphere from life-forms that evolved in the oceans? A) carbon dioxide C) oxygen B) water vapor D) nitrogen 62. Geologic time is divided into specific periods and epochs based on A) fossil evidence of Earth organisms C) rock types found in mountainous areas B) inferred positions of Earth landmasses D) uplift and erosion of NY & NJ bedrock 63. The diagram below represents four series of events over the passage of time. Which series of events took the least amount of time to complete?

64. One similarity between all radioactive isotopes are that they A) decay at a predictable rate B) have the same half-life C) are normally found in large quantities in living matter D) are found in granite 65. The diagram below represents a view of Earth from above the North Pole. Points A and B represent locations on Earth’s surface. Locations A and B have the same

A) Latitude and local time B) Latitude and elevation C) Longitude and local time D) Longitude and elevation

66. If an observer on Earth views Polaris on the horizon, the observer is located at the A) Equator B) North Pole

C) Tropic of Cancer D) Tropic of Capricorn


67. At which location will the highest altitude of the star Polaris be observed? A) Equator C) Arctic Circle B) Tropic of Cancer D) central New Jersey

68. The diagrams below represent four systems of imaginary lines could be used to locate positions on a planet. Which system is most similar to the latitude-longitude system used on the Earth?

69. In the drawing to the right which lettered location has the highest elevation?

A) A B) B C) C D) D

70. The diagram to the right is a contour map. Between which two points is the slope of the hill steepest? A) A & B B) C & D C) B & C D) A & D 71. In which direction does the Jennifer Brook flow? A) southwest C) northwest B) southeast D) northeast 72. Use the contour map from #71. What is the gradient between points A and B? A) 80 m/km C) 40 m/km B) 20 m/km D) 0.058 m/km


NEW JERSEY SCIENCE LEAGUE Corrections

EARTH SCIENCE EXAM ANSWER KEY TAN TEST DATE: March 14, 2019

1 B 19 B 37 D 55 C 2 D 20 A 38 C 56 A 3 D C 21 A 39 D 57 D 4 B 22 B 40 B 58 D 5 B 23 C 41 D 59 D 6 D 24 C 42 D 60 B 7 A 25 D 43 B 61 C 8 C 26 B 44 C 62 A 9 A 27 A 45 A 63 C 10 A 28 D 46 D 64 A 11 B 29 D 47 A 65 C 12 D 30 B 48 B 66 A 13 A 31 A 49 A 67 C 14 C 32 A 50 C 68 B 15 B 33 A 51 B 69 B 16 A 34 B 52 D 70 C 17 C 35 A 53 C 71 B 18 D 36 B 54 A 72 B









Earth Science April 11, 2019 Exam TAN EXAM Corrections: Please PRINT your name, school, area, and which test you are taking onto the scantron. Choose the answer that best completes the statements or questions below and fill in the appropriate response on the scantron. If you change your answer, be sure to completely erase your first choice. 1. During which month does the sun rise exactly east in New York & New Jersey?

A) February B) July C) March D) December 2. Which location receives the greatest intensity of insolation on December 21?

A) 90°S C) 23.5° S B) 60°S D) 23.5°N

3. Ocean tides observed at coastal locations each day are primarily caused by

A) Earth’s revolution around the sun B) The changing phases of the moon C) The gravitational attraction between the moon and earth D) Seasonal changes in the compass location of sunrise

4. A cycle of Moon phases can be seen from Earth because the

A) Moon’s distance from Earth changes at a predictable rate B) Moon’s axis is tilted C) Moon spins on its axis D) Moon revolves around earth

Use the diagram below to answer questions 5 & 6. 5. Of the positions listed below which one will the Moon

block part of the Sun, making a solar eclipse visible from Earth? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

6. Which phase of the Moon will be seen from the Earth at position 5?

A) B) C) D)

7. Compared to terrestrial planets, the Jovian planets (see data table next page)

A) Are smaller in size B) Are closer to the sun C) Have greater orbital velocities D) Have shorter periods of rotation

8. The main characteristic which determines whether a planet can have an atmosphere is its

A) Its mass B) distance from the Sun C) Temperature D) rate of spin

NJSL Earth Science April Exam 2019 Page 1

9. Which planet takes more time to

complete one rotation on its axis than to complete one revolution around the Sun? A) Mercury B) Venus C) Mars D) Jupiter

10. Which planet is about 5 times the distance that Earth is from the Sun? A) Mercury B) Venus C) Mars D) Jupiter

11. How many degrees would the Sun move across the sky in three hours? A) 60° B) 45° C) 30° D) 3°

12. Which photograph of star trails was taken by an observer facing West in NJ?

A) B) C) D)

13. Evidence that the universe is expanding is best provided by the

A) Red shift in the light from distance galaxies B) Change in the swing direction of a Foucault pendulum on Earth C) Parallelism of Earth’s axis in orbit D) Spiral shape of Milky Way galaxy

14. The velocity of a galaxy can be measured by measuring

A) How fast its apparent size decreases B) How many lines occur in its spectrum C) The shift in the pattern of lines in its spectrum D) How fast it changes position in the sky

15. Which geographic region is the most common source region for the mT air masses that

move into NY & NJ? A) Northern Canada C) Gulf of Mexico B) Arctic Ocean D) southwestern US


16. Dry areas caused by sinking air and diverging surface winds are located at which two latitudes? A) 0° and 30°N B) 0° and 60°S C) 30°N and 30°S D) 60°N and 60°S

17. Which type of air mass is associated with warm, dry

atmospheric conditions? A) cP C) cT B) mT D) aP

18. The weather characteristics of air mass result primarily from its

A) geographic origin B) size and shape C) rate of movement D) direction of movement

19. As a cold front passes a NJ weather station, which changes will usually be observed in

barometric pressure and air temperature? A) Pressure rises and temperature falls B) Both pressure and temperature rise C) Both pressure and temperature fall D) Pressure falls and temperature rises

20. Use the diagram to the right to determine which weather station has

the most unstable weather conditions occurring? Choices are in the diagram.

21. Which statement best explains why precipitation occurs at frontal

boundaries? A) Cold fronts move slower than warm fronts B) Cold fronts move faster than warm fronts C) Warm, moist air sinks when it meets cold, dry air D) Warm, moist air rises when it meets cold, dry air

22. The diagram below shows a cross section of a cumulus cloud. Line AB indicates the height

of the base of the cloud. Which graph best represents the temperature measured along line AB?


23. The photograph below shows a spiral pattern of clouds in Earth’s atmosphere. The spiral is hundreds of miles across. What type of weather system is this?

A) cyclone B) cold front C) stationary front D) high-pressure center

24. Which two locations are receiving the same intensity of

insolation? A) A and B C) B and D B) C and D D) B and C

25. Compared to a coastal location of the same elevation and latitude, and inland location is

likely to have A) warmer summers and cooler winters B) warmer summers and warmer winters

C) cooler summers and cooler winters D) cooler summers and warmer winters

26. In New Jersey, the risk of sunburn is greatest between 11 am and 3 pm on summer days

because A) insolation is indirect C) insolation is more direct B) earth’s surface reflects most of the sun D) the sun is closest to Earth

27. How many joules are released as 1 gram

of water goes from a liquid to solid ice? A) 1 B) 334 C) 540 D) 2260

28. Liquid water can store more heat energy than an equal amount of any other naturally

occurring liquid because liquid water A) covers 75% of Earth’s surface B) has the higher specific heat

C) has its greatest density at 4°C D) can be changed into a solid or gas

29. Which mineral is composed of the mineral halite that formed when seawater evaporated?

A) limestone C) rock salt B) dolostone D) rock gypsum

30. The softest mineral on Moh’s scale of hardness is

A) Talc B) diamond C) graphite D) pyrite


31. Which of the following statements is the most accurate? A) Most rocks are monomineralic B) All rocks are polymineralic C) Many rocks have a number of common minerals D) Only igneous rocks contain the mineral quartz

32. Which two properties are most useful in distinguishing between pyrite and plagioclase. All

full credit. Mineral chart would have made the question better. A) color and cleavage B) luster and color

C) hardness and streak D) streak and cleavage

33. What is the best way to determine if a mineral is a sample of calcite or quartz? Even though

a teacher said there should be a mineral chart students should still know that acid on calcite reacts while on quartz does not.

A) Observe the color of the mineral B) Place the mineral near a magnet C) Measure the mass of the mineral D) Place a drop of acid on the mineral

34. The tetrahedron to the right is found in large amounts in the

Earth’s A) Hydrosphere B) Troposphere C) Lithosphere D) Stratosphere

35. In the classroom during a visual inspection of a rock, a student recorded four statements

about the rock. Which statement about the rock is an observation? A) The rock formed deep in the Earth’s interior B) The rock cooled very rapidly Interpretation based on the size of crystals. C) The rock dates from the Precambrian Era D) The rock is black and shiny

36. A student obtains a cup of quartz sand from a beach. A saltwater solution is poured into the

sand and allowed to evaporate. The mineral residue from the saltwater solution cements the sand grains together, forming a material that is most similar in origin to

A) An extrusive igneous rock B) An intrusive igneous rock C) A clastic sedimentary rock D) A foliated metamorphic rock

37. Obsidian’s glass texture indicates that it formed

A) quickly, on Earth’s surface B) quickly, deep below Earth’s surface C) slowly, on Earth’s surface D) slowly, deep below Earth’s surface

38. Which process is responsible for the deformation of this bedrock?

A) folding B) weathering C) mass movement


D) volcanic activity

39. Evidence of crustal subsidence (sinking) is provided by

A) zones of igneous activity at mid-ocean ridges B) shallow-water fossils beneath the deep ocean C) heat-flow measurements on coastal plains D) marine fossils on mountain tops

40. Which type of crustal movement most likely caused the

displacement of features in this diagram? A) vertical lifting of surface rock B) folding of surface rock C) down-warping of the crust D) movement along a transform fault

41. Which diagram of crustal movement best shows how older rock layers may be located on

top of younger rock layers?

42. Divergent boundaries like the one in the diagram, can cause which

features? A) Ridges B) Rifts

C) Hot spots D) Calderas

43. Which process could lead directly to the formation of pumice rock?

A) Precipitation of minerals from evaporating seawater B) Metamorphism of unmelted rock material C) Deposition of quartz sand D) Explosive eruption of lava from a volcano

44. Which drainage pattern would most likely develop on the surface of a volcano?

45. Which chemical process is most likely responsible for rust on a copper penny?

A) Transpiration B) carbonation C) oxidation D) infiltration 46. At most elevations above the frost line, which is the most common form of physical weathering?

A) Abrasion of rocks by the wind B) Alternate freezing and melting of water C) Dissolving of minerals into solution D) Oxidation by oxygen in the atmosphere


47. Why is the surface of Mercury covered with meteor impact craters, while Earth’s surface has relatively few craters? A) Mercury is larger than Earth, so it gets hit with more meteors B) Mercury is an older planet, so it has a longer history of meteor impacts C) Earth’s less dense water surface attracts fewer meteors D) Earth’s hydrosphere and atmosphere destroyed or buried most meteor impact sites

48. Which characteristic would most likely remain constant when a limestone cobble is

subjected to extensive abrasion? A) Shape B) volume C) mass D) composition

49. Trees growing on the edge of a river’s meander are most likely to fall into the river due to

A) Deposition on the inside of the meander B) Deposition on the outside of the meander C) Erosion on the inside of the meander D) Erosion on the outside of the meander

50. The map below shows a meandering stream as it enters a lake. The arrow shows the direction of stream flow. Points A through D represent locations on the surface of the stream. The greatest stream velocities are found closest to which points?

A) A and B B) B and C C) C and D D) D and A

51. Which cross section best represents the valley shape where a rapidly flowing stream is cutting into the bedrock in a mountainous area?

Use the diagram below to answer questions 52 and 53. 52. At which locations is erosion the greatest?

A) A and B B) B and C C) C and D D) D and A

53. The landscape feature labeled X is best described as

A) a flood plain B) a sand bar C) a delta D) an escarpment


54. What is the relationship between the discharge of a stream and the velocity of stream flow? A) As velocity increases, discharge remains the same B) As velocity increases, discharge increases C) As velocity increases, discharge decreases D) As velocity increases, discharge first increases then decreases

55.Greatest stream velocities are found closest to

A) The inside of a meander B) The outside of a meander C) The center of a meander

56. At the present time, glaciers only occur mostly in areas of

A) High latitude or high altitude B) Low latitude or low altitude C) Middle latitude or high altitude D) Middle latitude and low altitude

57. What percentage of Earth’s history represents human existence?

A) More than 98.6% B) 23.5%

C) 5% D) Less than 1.0%

58. Antarctica’s location and climate changed over the last 200 million years because Antarctica moved

A) Southward, resulting in a warmer climate B) Southward, resulting in a colder climate C) Northward , resulting in a warmer climate D) Northward , resulting in a colder climate

Use the chart below to answer questions 59- 61. 59. A large meteorite impact crater in North

America was thought to wipe out the Dinosaurs during the Mesozoic Era. How many years ago could this have occurred? All full credit since the information in the question is wrong. A) 8.6 million B) 165 million C) 268 million D) 4.5 billion

60. Students plan to construct a geologic time line of the Earth’s history from its origin to the present time. They will use a scale of 1 meter equals 1 billion years. What should the total length of the students’ time line be?

A) 10.0 m C) 4.5 m B) 2.5 m D) 3.8 m

61. What is the estimated length of time of the Mesozoic Era? (ybp: years before present)

Afc no answer are close enough. A) 65 million years B) 100 million years

C) 225 million years D) 345 million years


62. A sample of wood found in an ancient tomb contains 25% of its original carbon-14. The age of this wood sample is approximately

A) 2,800 years B) 5,700 years C) 11,400 years D) 17,100 years

63. Based on fossil evidence, most scientists infer that

A) Life has not changed significantly throughout Earth’s history B) Life has evolved from complex to simple forms C) Many organisms that lived on Earth have become extinct D) Mammals developed early in the Precambrian time period

64. What are the latitude and longitude coordinates of point A on the map below?

A) 15°S, 20°W B) 15°S, 20°E C) 15°N, 20°W D) 15°N, 20°E

65. Where are Quartzite Shale and Limestone Sandstone found in NJ compared to Shale Sandstone and Basalt Diabase?

A) Northwest B) Northeast C) Southwest D) Southeast


66. All cities on the 90°W longitude line have what in common?

A) Season B) Time

C) Weather D) Culture

67. Which statement best explains why stars viewed from the Northern Hemisphere appear to revolve around Polaris?

A) Polaris rotates on its axis B) Earth rotates on its axis C) Polaris revolves around Earth D) Earth revolves around Polaris

68. The average width of a standard time zone in degrees is

A) 15o B) 24o C) 180o D) 360o 69. The North Star can be used for navigation in Earth’s Northern Hemisphere because

A) Polaris is located directly over the Tropic of Cancer B) Polaris is the brightest and most easily located star C) The altitude of Polaris is equal to the observer’s latitude D) The position of Polaris changes with the seasons

70. Which reference line passes through both of the geographic North Pole and the geographic South Pole?

A) 0° latitude B) 0° longitude C) Tropic of Cancer D) Tropic of Capricorn

71. What is the approximate gradient between points X and Y? The contour interval is measured in meters (m).

A) 40 m/km B) 80 m/km C) 100 m/km D) 120 m/km

72. Which statement is supported by the map?

A) Hill A is higher than hill B B) Hill B is higher than hill A C) Stream X flows faster than stream Y D) Stream Y flows faster than stream X


NEW JERSEY SCIENCE LEAGUE Corrections

EARTH SCIENCE EXAM ANSWER KEY TAN TEST DATE: April 11, 2019 afc = all full credit

1 C 19 A 37 A 55 B 2 C 20 B 38 A 56 A 3 C 21 D 39 B 57 D 4 D 22 C 40 D 58 B 5 A 23 A 41 B 59 B afc 6 D 24 C 42 A 60 C 7 D 25 D A 43 D 61 B afc 8 A 26 C 44 A 62 C 9 B 27 B 45 C 63 C 10 D 28 B 46 B 64 C 11 B 29 C 47 D 65 A 12 B 30 A 48 D 66 B 13 A 31 C 49 D 67 B 14 C 32 B afc 50 B 68 A 15 C 33 D 51 B 69 C 16 C 34 C 52 D 70 B 17 C 35 D 53 A 71 A 18 A 36 C 54 B 72 D

Since some earth science courses in New Jersey start with geology, others with astronomy, and still others with meteorology, each of the four tests will include the following topics. Over time, this provides an equal opportunity to everyone. The number in parentheses indicates the approximate number of questions for that topic.



Phone (cell) # 908-213-8923 No Fax Scan then email: [email protected] Web address: http://entnet.com/~personal/njscil/html/

What is to be mailed back to our office? PLEASE RETURN THE AREA RECORD AND ALL TEAM MEMBER ANSWER SHEETS

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Earth Science Jan Exam 2019 Page 2...2019/06/11 · Which agent of erosion most likely carried sediment that scratched striations into the bedrock? A) a moving glacier B) running

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