CompTIA 220-702 A+ Practical Application 100-Question Practice Exam

CompTIA 220-702 A+ Practical Application 100-Question Practice Exam

Developed for www.GetCertified4Less.com

(Author to remain anonymous)

This practice exam has been developed exclusively for GetCertified4Less.Com. Answers and explanations

on last pages.

1. Which of the following commands in Windows are used to display help information related to a

specific command-line utility? (Select two answers)

A. help [command]

B. $ man [command]

C. [command] /?

D. $ [command] --help

E. $ info [command]

2. Which of the following are secure networking protocols? (Select two answers)

A. HTTPS

B. Telnet

C. PAP

D. SSH

3. Which of the following are valid loopback addresses? (Select two answers)

A. ::1

B. 169.254/16

C. MAC address

D. 127.0.0.1

4. Protocols that handle electronic mail (e-mail) include: (Select three answers)

A. SMTP

B. POP3

C. IMAP4

D. FTP

E. SNMP

5. Antivirus software can be kept up to date through: (Select all that apply)

A. Virus signature updates

B. Virtualization

C. Auditing

D. Engine updates

6. A Windows feature that allows for storing information on a hard drive in an encrypted format is

called:

A. CDFS

B. FSB

C. EFS

D. Ext3

7. Which Windows feature allows for entire drive encryption?

A. EFS

B. BitLocker

C. UAC

D. IPSec

8. /f switch of the Windows chkdsk utility:

A. Locates bad sectors and recovers readable information

B. Displays the full path and name of every file on the disk

C. Displays cleanup messages

D. Fixes errors on the disk

9. While troubleshooting problems with a Network Interface Card (NIC), connector pins on the NIC's port

can be tested with the use of:

A. Loopback plug

B. Punchdown tool

C. Pliers

D. Molex connector

10. Which of the following is an example of a video RAM?

A. GDDR3

B. UXGA

C. SO-DIMM

D. AGP

11. Which of the following interfaces is used for digital audio?

A. VGA

B. S/PDIF

C. DVI

D. AGP

12. netstat is a command-line utility that:

A. Tests the reachability of a remote host

B. Displays intermediary points on the packet route

C. Displays active TCP/IP connections

D. Shows the TCP/IP configuration details

13. The bus between the CPU and North Bridge is called:

A. Back-side bus

B. Universal Serial Bus (USB)

C. I/O Controller Hub (ICH)

D. Front-side bus (FSB)

14. The bus between the CPU and the internal memory cache (L2 cache) inside the CPU housing is

called:

A. I/O Controller Hub (ICH)

B. Front-side bus (FSB)

C. Universal Serial Bus (USB)

D. Back-side bus

15. Which of the following switches puts the ping command in a loop?

A. -a

B. -t

C. -n

D. -l

16. Red stripe on the edge of the floppy disk ribbon cable is used for:

A. Marking drive B on the cable

B. Designating main drive on the cable

C. Marking the connection with PIN 1 on the motherboard

D. Marking which drive will be drive A

17. The memory cache on the CPU is also known as:

A. L1 cache

B. Secondary cache

C. DRAM cache

D. L3 cache

18. Windows command-line utility for displaying intermediary points on the packet route is called:

A. ping

B. netstat

C. ipconfig

D. tracert

19. What is the maximum number of USB devices that can be connected to a single USB host controller?

A. 127

B. 31

C. 255

D. 63

20. Memory cache not built into the microprocessor chip is known as: (Select two answers)

A. External cache

B. DRAM

C. Secondary cache

D. L1 cache

21. The SFC utility in Windows:

A. Encrypts files and folders

B. Scans for and restores corrupted system files

C. Starts Windows programs from command-line interface

D. Displays information about system hardware and software configuration

22. One IEEE 1394 host controller can support up to:

A. 15 devices

B. 255 devices

C. 63 devices

D. 127 devices

23. Which type of standard FireWire connector has the capability of supplying voltage to a device?

A. 2-pin connector

B. 4-pin connector

C. 6-pin connector

D. 8-pin connector

24. Which of the following is a Windows utility for managing system partitions?

A. control.cpl

B. compmgmt.msc

C. wuapp.exe

D. diskmgmt.msc

25. A hard drive can have: (Select two answers)

A. Up to four primary partitions

B. Only one extended partition

C. Up to four active partitions

D. Only one primary partition

E. Up to four extended partitions

26. Which of the following options of the ping command allows for adjusting the size of the ping packet?

A. -a

B. -n

C. -t

D. -l

27. A security feature in Windows that prompts for administrator password when a program is about to

make a change that requires administrator-level permission is called:

A. UART

B. Task Manager

C. UAC

D. SAM

28. Which of the following allows for resolving problems that cause Windows startup errors and prevent

the system from starting normally?

A. TPM

B. Safe mode

C. chkdsk

D. Hard boot

29. Which of the following are advantages of the New Technology File System (NTFS) over FAT32 file

system? (Select best answer)

A. Disk quotas

B. Compression

C. Object permissions

D. Encryption

E. All of the above features are improvements implemented in NTFS not available in FAT32

30. Which of the following commands applies read-only attribute to a file?

A. attrib +r [drive:][path][filename]

B. attrib [drive:][path][filename] +r

C. attrib /r [drive:][path][filename]

D. attrib +r [drive:][path][filename] /read-only

31. An IP address in the range 169.254.0.1 through 169.254.255.254 indicates a problem with what type

of service?

A. DNS

B. SNMP

C. SMTP

D. DHCP

32. BitLocker Drive Encryption is available in: (Select two answers)

A. Windows 7 Home Premium

B. Windows Vista Starter

C. Windows 7 Ultimate

D. Windows Vista Business

E. Windows 7 Enterprise

33. Network access control method based on the physical address (MAC address) of the Network

Interface Card (NIC) is called:

A. HIDS

B. Accounting

C. MAC filtering

D. Quality of Service (QoS)

34. Safe mode in Windows can be accessed by pressing the:

A. F8 key

B. F6 key

C. F2 key

D. F1 key

35. What is the function of archive bit in Windows?

A. Setting file attribute to read-only

B. Creating an extra copy of a file

C. Search indexing

D. Marking whether a file has changed

36. Which of the following is used to detect whether the computer case has been opened?

A. BitLocker

B. Chassis intrusion detection

C. Mantrap

D. EFS

37. Voice over IP (VoIP) can be implemented through: (Select all that apply)

A. Hardware

B. SMTP

C. Software with additional hardware support

D. Regular telephone

38. Which of the following is the MS-DOS text editor in Windows?

A. Edit

B. Notepad

C. Writer

D. MS Word

39. Which copy switch removes the confirmation prompt displayed when Windows is about to overwrite

the contents of an existing file?

A. /y

B. /a

C. /-y

D. /v

40. Which part needs replacing when system clock in the notification area resets or loses time and date

settings each time the computer is powered on?

A. CMOS battery

B. NIC

C. North Bridge

D. S/PDIF connector

41. What is the capacity of a dual-layer mini Blu-ray disc?

A. 4.7 GB

B. 15.6 GB

C. 8.544 GB

D. 7.8 GB

42. In order to work, an integrated component such as Network Interface Card (NIC) on a brand new

motherboard may need to be first:

A. Updated with the latest driver in Device Manager

B. Looked up on the Hardware Compatibility List (HCL)

C. Checked with cable tester

D. Enabled in the advanced BIOS settings menu

43. Which type of password gives the highest level of permissions in BIOS?

A. root

B. Administrator

C. Supervisor

D. Power User

44. BIOS passwords can be cleared by: (Select all that apply)

A. Using onboard reset switch

B. Setting jumpers on the motherboard

C. Using onboard power-on switch

D. Erasing the CMOS memory

E. Reinstalling CMOS battery

45. What is the capacity of a standard single-layer Blu-ray disc?

A. 25 GB

B. 15.6 GB

C. 8.544 GB

D. 7.8 GB

46. After moving a dynamic disk to the local computer from another computer its status in the Disk

Management utility is set to:

A. Foreign

B. Missing

C. Online

D. Basic

47. Converting a dynamic disk to a basic disk:

A. Requires Guest account permissions

B. Can be done in Windows Control Panel

C. Doesn't have any effect on the stored data

D. Destroys all data on the disk

48. Which of the following is a Windows tool for managing installed hardware?

A. Performance Monitor

B. Device Manager

C. Computer Management

D. Task Manager

49. Which of the following starts command-line interface in Windows?

A. ntoskrnl.exe

B. control.cpl

C. cmd.exe

D. bcdedit.exe

50. Which of the following command-line utilities in Windows allow for copying files and directory trees?

(Select two answers)

A. move

B. xcopy

C. copy

D. robocopy

51. Which of the following tools is used for editing Boot Configuration Data (BCD) settings in Windows

Vista and Windows 7?

A. cmd.exe

B. msconfig

C. bcdedit.exe

D. bootsect.dos

52. Windows commands for creating new directories are called: (Select two answers)

A. move

B. dir

C. copy

D. md

E. mkdir

53. POP3 runs on:

A. TCP port 110

B. TCP port 143

C. TCP port 123

D. TCP port 25

54. Which of the following wireless encryption schemes offers the highest level of protection?

A. WEP

B. WPA2

C. SSID

D. WPA

55. Fixed-input power supplies need the AC voltage level to be set:

A. With the use of jumpers on the motherboard

B. Manually on the back of the power supply unit

C. In Device Manager

D. Fixed-input power supplies have only one preset AC voltage level

56. Which of the following should come next after mounting the CPU fan and heat sink assembly?

A. Securing the CPU by pushing the socket lever down

B. Applying thermal compound

C. Connecting the CPU fan cable to the connector on the motherboard

D. Placing the motherboard on a antistatic mat

57. For proper functioning and optimum compatibility, installed RAM memory modules should: (Select

all that apply)

A. Have the same CAS latency

B. Come from the same vendor

C. Have the highest possible capacity

D. Match the capacity recognized by the operating system

E. Have different CAS latency

58. Which extinguisher type is used for electrical fire?

A. Class D

B. Class B

C. Class A

D. Class C

59. Which of the following CPUs fit into a slot? (Select two answers)

A. Core Duo

B. AMD Sempron

C. Intel Pentium II

D. AMD Athlon

60. What is the maximum data rate supported by the SATA 3.0 standard?

A. 480 Mbps

B. 3 Gbps

C. 800 Mbps

D. 6 Gbps

61. Which of the following RAID schemes offer fault tolerance? (Select all that apply)

A. Disk mirroring

B. RAID 0

C. Disk duplexing

D. Disk striping

E. RAID 5

62. A single Parallel ATA (PATA) cable may connect one motherboard socket with:

A. Up to 3 devices

B. Up to 2 devices

C. Up to 4 devices

D. Only 1 device

63. A diagnostic expansion card that displays progress and error messages generated during computer

startup is called:

A. Startup card

B. Loopback plug

C. POST card

D. Media reader

64. Which of the following commands in Windows are used for removing directories? (Select two

answers)

A. rd

B. erase

C. dir /delete

D. rmdir

65. What is QuickPath Interconnect (QPI)?

A. Technology by AMD replacing the Front-side bus

B. Technology by Intel replacing the Back-side Bus

C. Technology by AMD replacing the Back-side bus

D. Technology by Intel replacing the Front-side Bus

66. Which of the following commands in Windows change the current directory to the root directory?

(Select two answers)

A. chdir /r

B. cd\

C. chdir\

D. cd..

E. dir /root

67. Which of the following allows one core on the processor to appear like two cores to the operating

system?

A. QPI

B. HyperTransport

C. CrossFireX

D. HTT

68. The option to cancel all print jobs in Windows 7 can be found in:

A. Device Manager interface

B. Printers window

C. Administrative Tools menu

D. Devices and Printers window

69. Which rd switch removes directory trees?

A. /s

B. /r

C. /all

D. /t

70. What is the maximum length for external SATA (eSATA) cable?

A. 5 meters

B. 18 inches

C. 2 meters

D. 1 meter

71. Which of the following is the first step in the laser printing process?

A. Cleaning

B. Charging

C. Writing

D. Developing

72. Graphics cards can use either any PCI Express slot or an AGP slot.

A. True

B. False

73. Which of the following are parallel communication interfaces? (Select all that apply)

A. IEEE 1394

B. PCI Express

C. IEEE 1284

D. AGP

E. PCI

74. Which of the following tools are used for testing power supply voltage output? (Select two answers)

A. Torx screwdriver

B. Tone probe

C. Loopback plug

D. Power supply tester

E. Multimeter

75. Windows utility that allows for returning critical system files, program files and registry settings to an

earlier point in time is called:

A. Task Scheduler

B. Remote Assistance

C. System Restore

D. Indexing

76. Which of the following port numbers are used by the File Transfer Protocol (FTP)? (Select two

answers)

A. 20

B. 21

C. 22

D. 23

77. Which of the following is an example of a multi-factor authentication?

A. Password and biometric scan

B. User name and PIN

C. Smart card and identification badge

D. Iris and fingerprint scan

78. Which of the following are Windows utilities for displaying and changing the access control for files

and folders? (Select two answers)

A. attrib

B. chkntfs

C. chmod

D. cacls

E. icacls

79. What is the path to the Fonts folder in Windows Vista / 7?

A. C:\ProgramData\Microsoft\Fonts

B. C:\Windows\Fonts

C. C:\Program Files\Fonts

D. C:\Windows\Resources\Fonts

80. IEEE 802.11i is also known as:

A. WPA2

B. WAP

C. WAN

D. WEP

81. Which of the following connector types is used with coaxial cabling?

A. MT-RJ

B. LC

C. BNC

D. ST

82. An attempt to flood the bandwidth or resources of a targeted system so that it becomes

overwhelmed with false requests and in result doesn't have time or resources to handle legitimate

requests is called:

A. MS DOS

B. Botnet

C. Social engineering

D. DoS attack

83. What is the most common type of a DSL Internet access?

A. VDSL

B. ADSL

C. SDSL

D. UDSL

84. Which of the following does not offer fault tolerance?

A. Disk duplexing

B. JBOD

C. RAID 5

D. Disk mirroring

85. Which of the following ATA versions allows for attaching devices other than hard drives?

A. ATA-1

B. ATA-2

C. ATA-3

D. ATAPI

86. SCSI ID:

A. Is used to identify SCSI devices on a network

B. Identifies physical device on a SCSI chain

C. Is used as another term for Logical Unit Number (LUN)

D. Identifies logical device embedded in the physical device on a SCSI chain

87. Files and Settings Transfer Wizard, Windows Easy Transfer, and USMT are all:

A. Tools for moving user data and user information to a new computer running Windows

B. Utilities for moving system files between Windows and Linux

C. Tools for moving system files between different Windows versions

D. Utilities for moving system files between Windows and Mac OS

88. Which type of RAM can detect and correct memory errors?

A. ECC

B. Non-ECC

C. Parity

D. Unbuffered

89. Which of the following are magnetic tape data storage formats? (Select two answers)

A. DLT

B. LTO

C. MUI

D. PXE

E. OEM

90. Windows utility for installing and updating drivers for hardware devices, changing hardware settings,

and troubleshooting problems is called:

A. Device Manager

B. Performance Monitor

C. Task Manager

D. Action Center

91. RAID Level 5 requires at least:

A. 4 disk drives

B. 2 disk drives

C. 6 disk drives

D. 3 disk drives

92. Which of the following utilities allows for managing services that are running on local or remote

Windows computers?

A. taskmgr.exe

B. services.msc

C. eventvwr.exe

D. inetcpl.cpl

93. After reaching the limit of changes, the DVD region code:

A. Can be reset to 0 in BIOS

B. Can be changed by reinstalling Windows

C. Can be extended by moving the DVD drive to another computer

D. Cannot be changed

94. Which type of cabling provides protection against EMI? (Select all that apply)

A. UTP

B. Coaxial

C. Fiber-optic

D. STP

95. What is the name of a Windows Vista and Windows 7 utility that allows users to create backups?

A. NTBackup

B. System Restore

C. Backup and Restore

D. Windows Easy Transfer

96. Which of the following allows for accessing system memory without involving the CPU?

A. DMA channel

B. Memory address

C. I/O address

D. IRQ

97. Type-III PC Cards: (Select two answers)

A. Are 3.3 mm thick

B. Are 10.5 mm thick

C. Are used for cards containing modems and network adapters

D. Are 5.0 mm thick

E. Are used for cards containing hard disk drives

98. Which of the following codes marks the ACPI Mechanical Off state?

A. G0

B. G1

C. G2

D. G3

99. Which of the following codes marks the ACPI Hibernation state?

A. S1

B. S2

C. S3

D. S4

100. Which of the following replaces boot.ini in Windows Vista and Windows 7?

A. bootsect.dos

B. ntldr

C. Boot Configuration Data (BCD)

D. bcdedit.exe

ANSWERS

1. Answers: A and C. help [command] and [command] /?

Explanation: In Windows, help [command] and [command] /? are used to display help information

related to a specific command-line utility. man and info commands, as well as --help command option

are all specific to UNIX-like operating systems.

2. Answers: A and D. HyperText Transfer Protocol over SSL/TLS (HTTPS) and Secure Shell (SSH)

Explanation: Telnet and Password Authentication Protocol (PAP) do not offer encryption and send

passwords in clear text. HTTPS employs Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) or Transport Layer Security (TLS)

protocol in order to encrypt web traffic between hosts. SSH allows for remote access / administration

over command line and offers the same functionality as Telnet additionally encrypting the entire

communication channel.

3. Answers: A and D. ::1 and 127.0.0.1

Explanation: ::1 is a loopback address for IPv6, 127/8 address range (including 127.0.0.1 address) is

reserved for loopback testing in IPv4. 169.254/16 is an address range used by Automatic Private IP

Addressing (APIPA) in Windows. Media Access Control (MAC) address is a hardware address of the

Network Interface Card (NIC).

4. Answers: A, B, and C. SMTP, POP3, and IMAP4

Explanation: Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is used for relying e-mail messages between mail

servers. Post Office Protocol version 3 (POP3) and Internet Message Access Protocol version 4 (IMAP4)

are used for retrieving e-mail messages from mail servers (IMAP4 offers improved

functionalitycompared to POP3). File Transfer Protocol (FTP) is used for transferring files. Simple

Network Management Protocol (SNMP) serves as a network administration tool for checking the state

and configuration of network devices.

5. Answers: A and D. Virus signature updates and Engine updates

Explanation: Antivirus software can be kept up to date through virus signature updates and engine

updates. Engine updates equip the antivirus application with tools to recognize and remove new

malware types, virus signature updates add new malicious code patterns to the virus database used by

the antivirus application as a reference for malware scanning.

6. Answer: C. EFS

Explanation: Encrypting File System (EFS) is a feature of Windows that allows for storing information on

a hard drive in an encrypted format. Certain editions of Microsoft Windows (including Starter, Home

Basic, and Home Premium) do not offer full support for EFS. EFS can only encrypt individual files.

7. Answer: B. BitLocker

BitLocker encrypts the entire drive. Encrypting File System (EFS) allows only for encryption of individual

files. User Account Control (UAC) is a Windows security feature that prompts for administrator password

when a program is about to make a change that requires administrator-level permission. IPSec (IP

Security) is an IP packet encryption protocol.

8. Answer: D. Fixes errors on the disk

Explanation: chkdsk /f attempts to fix errors on the disk.

9. Answer: A. Loopback plug

Explanation: Connector pins on the Network Interface Card (NIC) port can be tested with the use of a

loopback plug.

10. Answer: A. GDDR3

Explanation: Graphics Double Data Rate version 3 (GDDR3) is a type of SDRAM memory specifically

designed for video cards. Ultra XGA (UXGA) is a video resolution standard that supports screen

resolutions of up to 1600 x 1200. Small Outline DIMM (SO-DIMM) is one of the memory form factors

used in laptops. Accelerated Graphics Port (AGP) is a video bus and port designed specifically for

graphics cards.

11. Answer: B. S/PDIF

Explanation: S/PDIF (Sony/Philips Digital Interconnect Format) is a digital interface designed specifically

for audio signal transmission. Video Graphics Array (VGA) is an analog, video-only interface. Digital

Visual Interface (DVI) is a video-only interface supporting both analog and digital transmission.

Accelerated Graphics Port (AGP) is a dedicated video bus and port for graphics cards.

12. Answer: C. Displays active TCP/IP connections

Explanation: netstat is a command-line utility used for displaying active TCP/IP connections. Command-

line program used for testing the reachability of a remote host is called ping. Windows command-line

utility for displaying intermediary points on the packet route is called tracert. Windows command-line

program for displaying TCP/IP configuration details is called ipconfig.

13. Answer: D. Front-side bus (FSB)

Explanation: The bus between the CPU and North Bridge is called Front-side bus (FSB).

14. Answer: D. Back-side bus

Explanation: The bus between the CPU and internal memory cache (L2 cache) inside the CPU housing is

called back-side bus.

15. Answer: B. -t

Explanation: ping -t pings the specified host until stopped (Control-C is used to stop this command).

16. Answer: C. Marking the connection with PIN 1 on the motherboard

Explanation: Red stripe on the edge of the floppy disk ribbon cable is used for marking the connection

with PIN 1 on the motherboard's floppy disk drive connector.

17. Answer: A. L1 cache

Explanation: The memory cache on the CPU is also known as Level 1 (L1) cache. This type of memory

uses fast Static RAM (SRAM). L1 cache is also referred to as primary cache, or internal cache.

18. Answer: D. tracert

Explanation: Windows command-line utility for displaying intermediary points (routers) the packet is

passed through on its way to a destination host is called tracert. Command-line program for testing the

reachability of a remote host is called ping. Windows command-line program for displaying TCP/IP

configuration details is called ipconfig. Command-line utility used for displaying active TCP/IP

connections is called netstat.

19. Answer: A. 127

Explanation: The maximum number of USB devices (including USB hubs) that can be connected to a

single USB host controller equals 127.

20. Answers: A and C. External cache and Secondary cache

Explanation: Memory cache not built into the microprocessor chip is known as external cache or

secondary cache. Memory cache built into the CPU chip is referred to as internal cache or primary

cache.

21. Answer: B. Scans for and restores corrupted system files

Explanation: System File Checker (sfc.exe) is a Windows utility that is used for scanning integrity of all

protected system files and repairing files with problems when possible.

22. Answer: C. 63 devices

Explanation: One IEEE 1394 host controller can support up to 63 devices.

23. Answer: C. 6-pin connector

Explanation: In terms of the number of used pins, there are three types of standard FireWire

connectors: 4-pin, 6-pin, and 9-pin. Of the three, only the 6-pin and 9-pin connectors can provide

voltage to a device.

24. Answer: D. diskmgmt.msc

Explanation: Disk Management (diskmgmt.msc) is a Windows utility for managing volumes and

partitions on the hard drive. Disk Management allows for formatting, extending, shrinking, deleting, or

displaying contents of a partition or volume.

25. Answers: A and B. Up to four primary partitions and Only one extended partition

Explanation: A hard drive can have up to four primary partitions and only one extended partition.

Primary partition can contain only one logical disk; extended partition can be divided into multiple

logical drives. Partition designated to boot the OS is called active partition and at any given time only

one partition can be set as active.

26. Answer: D. -l

Explanation: -l switch allows for adjusting the size of the ping packet (the default size of a ping packet is

32 bytes).

27. Answer: C. UAC

Explanation: Windows Vista and Windows 7 include the User Account Security (UAC) feature which

displays a prompt for administrator password when a program is about to make a change that requires

an administrator-level permission. UAC was introduced in Windows Vista and is also present in Windows

7, but wasn't available in earlier Windows releases prior to Vista, such as Windows Me or XP.

28. Answer: B. Safe mode

Explanation: Safe mode allows for resolving problems that cause Windows startup errors and prevent

the system from starting normally. Startup errors can be caused by faulty applications, system services,

and device drivers that are loaded automatically. In Safe mode, only the core Windows drivers and

system services are loaded, and once the system starts in this mode it allows for troubleshooting

problems by disabling or removing a system service, a device driver, or automatically started application

that is preventing the computer from starting normally. Safe modecan be accessed by pressing the F8

key during system boot.

29. Answer: E. All of the above features are improvements implemented in NTFS not available in FAT32

Explanation: NTFS was designed as a replacement for its predecessor, the File Allocation Table (FAT) file

system. Its advantages over FAT include improved reliability due to the file system recovery features,

increased security achieved by allowing users to set permissions on files or folders (through the

Discretionary Access Control access control model), support for the Encrypting File System (EFS)

technology used to store encrypted files on NTFS volumes, and file compression. With NTFS, system

administrators can also set limits on the usable hard drive space for each user by applying disk quotas.

30. Answer: A. attrib +r [drive:][path][filename]

Explanation: attrib is a command used to set and remove file attributes. Available options include read-

only (r), archive (a), system (s), and hidden (h). With attrib, the + symbol sets an attribute for a file, - sign

removes the attribute. The correct syntax for setting the read-only attribute is attrib +r

[drive:][path][filename].

31. Answer: D. DHCP

Explanation: An IP address in the range 169.254.0.1 through 169.254.255.254 indicates that a DHCP

service is not available. IP address in the range 169.254.x.x is also known as Automatic Private IP

Address (APIPA). Auto configuration with APIPA is a feature of Windows operating systems. Windows

clients configured with APIPA can communicate only within a private network and cannot send data on

the Internet.

32. Answers: C and E. Windows 7 Ultimate and Windows 7 Enterprise

Explanation: For desktops, the ability to encrypt drives using BitLocker Drive Encryption is only available

in Ultimate and Enterprise editions of Windows Vista and Windows 7. BitLocker Drive Encryption is also

a feature of Windows Server 2008.

33. Answer: C. MAC filtering

Explanation: Network access control method based on the physical address (MAC address) of the

Network Interface Card (NIC) is called MAC filtering or MAC address filtering. 48-bit MAC address is a

unique number assigned to every network adapter. Wireless Access Point can have a certain MAC

address blacklisted or whitelisted and based on the entry on either of the lists grant or deny access to

the network.

34. Answer: A. F8 key

Explanation: Safe Mode in Microsoft Windows can be accessed by pressing the F8 key during system

boot. Safe Mode allows for resolving problems that cause Windows startup errors and prevent the

system from starting normally. Startup errors can be caused by faulty applications, system services, and

device drivers that are loaded automatically. In Safe Mode, only the core Windows drivers and system

services are loaded, and once the system starts in this mode it allows for troubleshooting problems by

disabling or removing a system service, a device driver, or automatically started application that is

preventing the computer from starting normally. Safe mode is also used for scanning and removal of

malicious software.

35. Answer: D. Marking whether a file has changed

Explanation: The state of an archive bit in Windows indicates whether a file has changed. The archive bit

can be either set (when a file is created or modified), or cleared (indicating that the file has been backed

up).

36. Answer: B. Chassis intrusion detection

Explanation: Chassis intrusion detection is a security measure used to detect whether the computer case

has been opened. Chassis intrusion detection feature is usually configured (enabled or disabled) through

the system BIOS. A motherboard can have a chassis intrusion connector for chassis-mounted intrusion

detection sensor or switch. The chassis intrusion sensor or switch can send a high-level signal

(designating a chassis intrusion event) to the connector when a chassis component is removed or

replaced or when the system case is opened.

37. Answers: A and C. Hardware and Software with additional hardware support

Explanation: Voice over IP (VoIP) allows for voice communication and multimedia transmissions over IP

networks, such as the Internet. VoIP allows for placing and receiving telephone calls in much the same

manner as via the traditional Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN). VoIP can be implemented

either through hardware or software. Hardware implementations include dedicated VoIP phones that

connect directly to the IP network either through the wired Ethernet or wireless Wi-Fi. Software

implementation requires a special application (often referred to as a softphone) to be installed on a

networked computer that is equipped with a microphone and speaker, or headset.

38. Answer: A. Edit

Explanation: Edit is a MS-DOS text editor available in 32-bit versions of Microsoft Windows (64-bit

versions of Windows do not include this application). Edit can be launched from the Windows

command-line interface (cmd.exe).

39. Answer: A. /y

Explanation: The /y switch available in the Windows command-line copy utility removes the

confirmation prompt displayed when Windows is about to overwrite the contents of an existing file.

40. Answer: A. CMOS battery

Explanation: CMOS battery supplies power to a small memory chip on the motherboard that stores BIOS

and real-time clock (RTC) settings when the computer is powered off. When system clock in the

notification area resets or loses time and date settings each time the computer is powered on, the most

probable cause of this problem is faulty or depleted CMOS battery.

41. Answer: B. 15.6 GB

Explanation: A dual-layer Blu-ray disc may hold up to twice the amount of data or video compared to a

single-layer disc, and uses two independent layers placed on one side of the disc to store its information.

A single-layer Blu-ray mini disc holds up to 7.8 gigabytes, while a dual-layer Blu-ray mini disc holds up to

15.6 gigabytes of data, without the need to flip the disc.

42. Answer: D. Enabled in the advanced BIOS settings menu

Explanation: In order to work, an integrated component such as Network Interface Card (NIC) on a

brand new motherboard may need to be first enabled in the advanced BIOS settings menu.

43. Answer: C. Supervisor

Explanation: The supervisor password gives the highest level of permissions in BIOS. Another type of

password available for the BIOS interface is user password. Installing a supervisor password enables

additional security features in the BIOS interface. Depending on implementation, once the supervisor

password is set the supervisor may for example disable user access to the BIOS setup utility, allow

access in a view only mode preventing the user from applying any changes, grant user access only to

selected fields in BIOS, or allow the user to view and change all the fields in the BIOS setup utility by

granting full access. Supervisor may also change or clear the user password, or set the point when the

user will be asked for password (for example only while accessing BIOS setup utility or when accessing

setup and booting the system).

44. Answers: B, D, and E. Setting jumpers on the motherboard, Erasing the CMOS memory, and

Reinstalling CMOS battery

Explanation: CMOS memory keeps track of the current date and time when the computer is powered

off. CMOS memory also stores system setup information including BIOS passwords. BIOS passwords can

be cleared by erasing the contents of CMOS memory. This can be done either by setting jumpers on the

motherboard or by reinstalling small battery on the motherboard that supplies power for CMOS

memory when the computer is powered off.

45. Answer: A. 25 GB

Explanation: A single-layer standard Blu-ray disc holds up to 25 gigabytes of data, while a dual-layer

standard Blu-ray disc holds up to 50 gigabytes of data, without the need to flip the disc. A dual-layer Blu-

ray disc may hold up to twice the amount of data or video compared to a single-layer disc, and uses two

independent layers placed on one side of the disc to store its information.

46. Answer: A. Foreign

Explanation: After moving a dynamic disk to the local computer from another computer its status in the

Disk Management utility is set to Foreign. To access and use the disk, its status needs to be changed to

Online. The Online status is the normal disk status indicating that the disk is accessible and has no

known problems.

47. Answer: D. Destroys all data on the disk

Explanation: Converting a dynamic disk to a basic disk destroys all data on the disk.

48. Answer: B. Device Manager

Explanation: Device Manager is a Windows tool for managing installed hardware. The most common

tasks performed with the use of Device Manager include checking the status of hardware and updating

device drivers on the computer.

49. Answer: C. cmd.exe

Explanation: Windows command-line interface can be launched by typing cmd.exe (or cmd) in the Run

dialog box located in the Start menu.

50. Answers: B and D. xcopy and robocopy

Explanation: xcopy and robocopy are Windows command-line utilities that allow for copying files and

directory trees. copy allows only for copying one or more files to another location and does not support

copying directories or directory trees (directory structures including subdirectories).

51. Answer: C. bcdedit.exe

Explanation:Boot Configuration Data (BCD) settings in Windows Vista, Windows 7 and Windows 2008

can be changed with the use of bcdedit.exe.

52. Answers: D and E. md and mkdir

Explanation: md and mkdir are used in Windows command line to create new directories.

53. Answer: A. TCP port 110

Explanation: Post Office Protocol version 3 (POP3) runs on TCP port 110. TCP port 143 is used by

Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP). POP and IMAP are the two protocols for retrieving e-mail

messages from mail servers. TCP port 25 is used by Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP). SMTP handles

sending e-mail messages between mail servers.

54. Answer: B. WPA2

Explanation: Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) and Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) are encryption

standards designed for securing wireless networks. WEP is an older standard and due to its

vulnerabilities is not recommended. WPA was designed as an interim replacement for WEP, and WPA2

was introduced as the official standard offering the strongest security of the three.

55. Answer: B. Manually on the back of the power supply unit

Explanation: Power supplies may accept an AC current of 110-120 volts (standard AC current in the

United States and Canada) or 220-240 volts (European AC standard). A PSU might have either a manual

selector switch on the back of the device for adjusting the supplied voltage (these types of PSUs are

referred to as fixed-input devices), or automatically adapt to the supplied AC voltage (auto-switching

PSUs).

56. Answer: C. Connecting the CPU fan cable to the connector on the motherboard

Explanation: After mounting the CPU fan and heat sink assembly, the CPU fan cable needs to be

attached to the connector on the motherboard.

57. Answers: A, B and D. Have the same CAS latency, Come from the same vendor, and Match the

capacity recognized by the operating system

Explanation: In order to function properly, installed memory modules should always have the same CAS

latency. For optimum compatibility, it is recommended to obtain the memory modules from the same

vendor. 32-bit Windows operating systems may only recognize less than 3GB of installed RAM hence

buying RAM sticks with the highest possible capacity might not always be a good option.

58. Answer: D. Class C

Explanation: Class A extinguishers are designed for ordinary solid combustibles, such as wood or

cardboard. Class B extinguishers are used for flammable liquids and gases. Class C extinguishers are

designed for electrical fires. Class D extinguishers are used for combustible metals.

59. Answers: C and D. Intel Pentium II and AMD Athlon

Explanation: CPUs that use a slot instead of a socket include Intel Pentium II and AMD Athlon.

60. Answer: D. 6 Gbps

Explanation: The maximum data rate supported by the SATA 3.0 standard is 6 Gbps (SATA 2.0 runs at 3

Gbps, SATA 1.0 runs at 1.5 Gbps). 800 Mbps is the data rate supported by the IEEE 1934b standard

(FireWire 800). 480 Mbps is the maximum data transfer rate defined in the USB 2.0 standard.

61. Answer: A, C, and E. Disk mirroring, Disk duplexing, and RAID 5

Explanation: All implementations of RAID (Redundant Array of Independent Disks) except RAID 0 (also

known as disk striping) offer fault tolerance.

62. Answer: B. Up to 2 devices

Explanation: A single Parallel ATA (PATA) cable may connect one motherboard socket with up to 2

devices.

63. Answer: C. POST card

Explanation: Power-On Self Test (POST) is a diagnostic routine that takes place immediately after the

computer is powered on. The purpose of POST is to check the proper functioning of the system

hardware components. POST diagnostic card is an expansion card that displays progress and error

messages (in form of numeric codes) generated during POST.

64. Answers: A and D. rd and rmdir

Explanation: rd and rmdir are Windows commands for deleting directories. Plain rd and rmdir

commands will display an error message if a directory that is to be deleted is not empty. Using either of

these commands with the /s switch removes the specified directory with all subdirectories and files

contained in it (rd /s and rmdir /s allow for removing all directory trees).

65. Answer: D. Technology by Intel replacing the Front-side bus

Explanation: QuickPath Interconnect (QPI) is a technology by Intel designed to replace the Front-side bus

(FSB).

66. Answers: B and C. cd\ and chdir\

Explanation: Windows cd\ and chdir\ commands change the current working directory to the root

directory.

67. Answer: D. HTT

Explanation: Hyper-Threading Technology (HTT) developed by Intel improves overall system

performance by allowing one core on the processor to appear like two cores to the operating system.

HTT requires a CPU, chipset, operating system, and BIOS that all support the technology. Most of the

systems supporting Hyper-Threading allow for enabling and disabling HTT as a BIOS option.

68. Answer: D. Devices and Printers window

Explanation: The option to cancel all print jobs in Windows 7 can be found in the Devices and Printers

Window. Devices and Printers window can be accessed by clicking the Start button and then Devices and

Printers. After double-clicking on the icon of the printer in use in the Devices and Printers window, print

jobs can be flushed by choosing Cancel All Documents option from the Printer menu. Print queue can

also be displayed by double-clicking on the printer icon in the notification area.

69. Answer: A. /s

Explanation: rd and rmdir commands will display an error message if a directory that is to be deleted is

not empty. Using either of these commands with the /s switch removes the specified directory with all

subdirectories and files contained in it (rd /s and rmdir /s allow for removing all directory trees).

70. Answer: C. 2 meters

Explanation: The maximum allowable cable length for the external SATA (eSATA) interface is 2 meters.

71. Answer: A. Cleaning

Explanation: Cleaning is the first step in the laser printing process. Before printing new page, the photo-

sensitive drum inside the laser printer is cleaned of any residual toner and electrical charge.

72. Answer: B. False

Explanation: Accelerated Graphics Port (AGP) is a dedicated port for attaching video card to a

motherboard. PCI Express allows for attaching video cards through the PCI Express x16 connector slot.

73. Answers: C, D, and E. IEEE 1284, AGP, and PCI

Explanation: The basic difference between parallel and serial communication is the number of wires

used for transmission of data. Parallel transmission occurs simultaneously over multiple number of

wires, serial interfaces rely on a single channel wherein data is sent one bit at a time. 1284 is an IEEE

(Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers) standard defining parallel communication between

computers and other devices. Other examples of parallel interfaces include Accelerated Graphics Port

(AGP) and Peripheral Component Interconnect (PCI). PCI Express and IEEE 1394 (also known as FireWire)

are both serial interfaces.

74. Answers: D and E. Power supply tester and Multimeter

Explanation: Power supply testers and multimeters are the tools for checking power supply voltage

output. Testing the power supply requires the device to be powered on and manual testing with the use

of multimeter could be less safe compared to automatic test that can be carried out with the use of

power supply tester.

75. Answer: C. System Restore

Explanation: Windows utility that allows for returning critical system files, program files and registry

settings to an earlier point in time without affecting user data (documents, pictures or other personal

data) is called System Restore (rstrui.exe). Restore points are created automatically before important

system events, such installation of drivers or operating system updates and can be used for reverting

unwanted system changes that make the computer run slowly or stop responding (restore points can

also be created manually). System Restore doesn't back up user files.

76. Answers: A and B. 20 and 21

Explanation: File Transfer Protocol (FTP) is an unencrypted file exchange protocol. FTP employs TCP

ports 20 and 21. Connection established over TCP port 20 (the data connection) is used for exchanging

data, connection made over TCP port 21 (the control connection) remains open for the duration of the

whole session and is used for session administration (commands, identification, passwords, etc.).

77. Answer: A. Password and biometric scan

Explanation: Authentication is proving user identity to a system. Authentication process can be based on

three categories of authentication factors: user names and passwords (something that the user knows),

physical tokens such as smart cards (something that the user has), or unique traits of every single

person, such as fingerprints (fingerprint scanner). Multi-factor authentication requires authentication

factors from two or more different categories.

78. Answers: D and E. cacls and icacls

Explanation: cacls and icacls are Windows utilities for displaying and changing the access control for files

and folders.

79. Answer: B. C:\Windows\Fonts

Explanation: Windows fonts in Windows Vista and Windows 7 (also XP) are stored in C:\Windows\Fonts.

80. Answer: A. WPA2

Explanation: IEEE 802.11i standard is also known as WPA2. The two terms, 802.11i and Wi-Fi Protected

Access II (WPA2) are used synonymously to mean the new security standard for wireless networks.

81. Answer: C. BNC

Explanation: Bayonet Neill–Concelman (BNC) is a common type of connector used with coaxial cabling.

Mechanical Transfer Registered Jack (MT-RJ), Straight Tip (ST) connector, and Lucent Connector (LC) are

connectors used for fiber optic cabling.

82. Answer: D. DoS attack

Explanation: The goal of Denial of Service (DoS) attack is to flood the bandwidth or resources of a

targeted system so that it becomes overwhelmed with false requests and in result doesn't have time or

resources to handle legitimate requests.

83. Answer: B. ADSL

Explanation: Asynchronous Digital Subscriber Line (ADSL) is the most common type of DSL technology.

ADSL download and upload speeds differ (ADSL download rates are much higher than upload rates).

ADSL modems use RJ-11 connectors and share the regular telephone line (customer's telephone line

requires special filtering device to pass both ADSL and voice communication over the same line).

84. Answer: B. JBOD

Explanation: Just a Bunch Of Drives (JBOD) refers to multiple hard drive setup that doesn't provide any

fault tolerance. Redundancy and fault tolerance can be achieved by configuring hard drives in one of the

RAID levels.

85. Answer: D. ATAPI

Explanation: AT Attachment Packet Interface (ATAPI) allows for connecting devices such as optical drives

or tape drives. ATA-1, ATA-2, and ATA-3 standards didn't have this feature and support for devices other

than hard drives was added in the ATA-4 standard (the official name of this standard is ATA/ATAPI-4).

86. Answer: B. Identifies physical device on a SCSI chain

Explanation: SCSI ID identifies the physical device on a SCSI chain. If a SCSI device has some further

devices embedded in it, each of those devices is identified with the use of a Logical Unit Number (LUN).

87. Answer: A. Tools for moving user data and user information to a new computer running Windows

Explanation: Files and Settings Transfer Wizard, Windows Easy Transfer, and USMT are all tools for

moving user data and user information to a new computer running MS Windows. Files and Settings

Transfer Wizard is a user migration tool available in Windows XP. Windows Easy Transfer is an improved

version of the Files and Settings Transfer Wizard for Windows Vista and Windows 7. Windows Easy

Transfer is not available in Windows XP, but the application can be downloaded and installed on

Windows XP or Windows 2000 (on Windows 2000 Windows Easy Transfer can only be used for

transferring files from Windows 2000 to a new computer; transfer of user settings is not supported).

User State Migration Tool (USMT) is a more advanced migration tool for transferring user-profile

information to a new Windows computer. USMT is an advanced, scriptable command-line tool used for

migrating multiple user profiles in Windows domain environment.

88. Answer: A. ECC

Explanation: Error-Correcting Code (ECC) RAM can detect and correct memory errors.

89. Answers: A and B. DLT and LTO

Explanation: Magnetic tape data storage formats include Digital Linear Tape (DLT) and Linear Tape-Open

(LTO).

90. Answer: A. Device Manager

Explanation: Device Manager is a Windows utility for installing and updating drivers for hardware

devices, changing hardware settings, and troubleshooting problems.

91. Answer: D. 3 disk drives

Explanation: RAID Level 5 requires a minimum of 3 disk drives to implement.

92. Answer: B. services.exe

Explanation: A service is a program that runs in a background without the user interaction providing

core system features such as event logging or error reporting. Services snap-in (services.exe) allows for

starting, stopping, pausing, resuming, or disabling services.

93. Answer: D. Cannot be changed

Explanation: Most DVDs are encoded to play in specific regions. Playing a regionalized DVD requires

setting the DVD drive to play discs from that region. DVD region code setting can be changed 5 times.

After reaching the limit the DVD region code cannot be changed even after reinstalling Windows or

moving the DVD drive to another computer.

94. Answers: B, C, and D. Coaxial, Fiber-optic, and STP

Explanation: Shielded Twisted Pair (STP) and coaxial cabling provide protection against Electromagnetic

Interference (EMI) in the form of cable shielding. Fiber-optic cabling is immune to EMI.

95. Answer: C. Backup and Restore

Explanation: Windows Backup and Restore is a Windows Vista and Windows 7 utility for creating and

restoring backups of user data. Backup and Restore was introduced in Windows Vista as a replacement

for NTBackup available in previous Windows versions including Windows 2000, Windows XP and

Windows Server 2003. Restoring backups created with NTBackup on a computer running Windows XP in

Windows 7 requires downloading and installing the Windows NT Backup - Restore Utility for Windows 7

from the Microsoft website.

96. Answer: A. DMA channel

Explanation: Direct memory access (DMA) allows hardware devices to access system memory without

involving the CPU. DMA, along with Interrupt Request numbers (IRQs), I/O addresses, and memory

addresses falls into the category of the so called system resources (tools that enable communication

between hardware and software).

97. Answers: B and E. Are 10.5 mm thick and Are used for cards containing hard disk drives

Explanation: Type-III PC Cards are 10.5 mm thick and are used for cards containing hard disk drives.

98. Answer: D. G3

Explanation: Advanced Configuration and Power Interface (ACPI) allows the operating system to control

the amount of power supplied to each device connected to a computer. G3 is the code that indicates the

ACPI Mechanical Off state when the system is powered down.

99. Answer: D. S4

Explanation: S4 is the code that indicates the ACPI Hibernation state. ACPI specification defines four

global (G) states (from G0 through G3). G1 (Sleeping) is subdivided into four S states, with S4 indicating

the Hibernation mode.

100. Answer: C. Boot Configuration Data (BCD)

Explanation: Boot Configuration Data (BCD) in Windows Vista and Windows 7 replaces the boot.ini

available in earlier Windows versions.