Your Target is to secure Good Rank in MH-CET 2015 Corporate Office CAREER INSTITUTE “SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005 +91-744-2436001 [email protected]1. This question booklet contains 180 Objective Type Questions in the subjects of Physics(45), Chemistry (45) and Biology (90). 2. The question paper and OMR (Optical Mark Reader) Answer Sheet is issued separately at the start of the examination. 3. Choice and sequence for attempting questions will be as per the convenience of the candidate. 4. Candidate should carefully read the instructions printed on the Question Booklet and Answer Sheet and make the correct entries on the Answer Sheet. As Answer Sheets are designed to suit the OPTICAL MARK READER (OMR) SYSTEM, special care should be taken to mark the entries correctly. Special care should be taken to fill accurately. The correctness of entries has to be cross-checked by the invigilators. Paper code and Form No. 5. Read each question carefully. 6. Select the correct answer from the four available options given for each question. 7. Mark the appropriate circle completely like this , for answering a particular question. Mark with Black ink ball point pen only. 8. Each question with correct response shall be awarded four (4) marks. There shall be no negative marking. 9. Use of whitener or any other material to erase/hide the circle once filled is not permitted. 10. Avoid overwriting and/or striking of answers once marked. 11. Rough work should be done only on the blank space provided on the Question Booklet. Rough work should not be done on the Answer Sheet. 12. The required Log-Antilog table will be provided along with the Question Booklet. 13. Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over, the Answer sheet is to be returned to the Invigilator. 14. No candidate is allowed to leave the examination hall till the end of examination. 15. No marks will be deducted if a particular question is not attempted. www.allen.ac.in Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so. FORM NUMBER DISTANCE LEARNING PROGRAMME (ACADEMIC SESSION 2014-2015) LEADER TEST SERIES COURSE PAPER CODE 01DM314002 TARGET : MH-CET 2015 TEST # 02 DATE : 15 - 02 - 2015 Test Type : MAJOR Test Pattern : MH-CET Path to Success CAREER INSTITUTE KOTA (RAJASTHAN) T M TEST SYLLABUS : FULL SYLLABUS Duration : 3:00 hours Total Marks : 720 INSTRUCTIONS
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Your Target is to secure Good Rank in MH-CET 2015
Corporate Office CAREER INSTITUTE
“SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005
1. This question booklet contains 180 Objective Type Questions in the subjects of Physics(45), Chemistry (45) and Biology (90).
2. The question paper and OMR (Optical Mark Reader) Answer Sheet is issued separately at the start of the examination.
3. Choice and sequence for attempting questions will be as per the convenience of the candidate.
4. Candidate should carefully read the instructions printed on the Question Booklet and Answer Sheet and make the correct entries on
the Answer Sheet. As Answer Sheets are designed to suit the OPTICAL MARK READER (OMR) SYSTEM, special care should betaken to mark the entries correctly. Special care should be taken to fill accurately. The correctness of entries has to be
cross-checked by the invigilators. Paper code and Form No.
5. Read each question carefully.
6. Select the correct answer from the four available options given for each question.
7. Mark the appropriate circle completely like this , for answering a particular question. Mark with Black ink ball point pen only.
8. Each question with correct response shall be awarded four (4) marks. There shall be no negative marking.
9. Use of whitener or any other material to erase/hide the circle once filled is not permitted.
10. Avoid overwriting and/or striking of answers once marked.
11. Rough work should be done only on the blank space provided on the Question Booklet. Rough work should not be done on the
Answer Sheet.
12. The required Log-Antilog table will be provided along with the Question Booklet.
13. Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over, the Answer sheet is to be returned to the Invigilator.
14. No candidate is allowed to leave the examination hall till the end of examination.
15. No marks will be deducted if a particular question is not attempted.
www.allen.ac.in
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
TEST SYLLABUS : FULL SYLLABUSDuration : 3:00 hours Total Marks : 720INSTRUCTIONS
LTS-1/1601DM314002
Leader Test Series Course/MH-CET/15-02-2015
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
1. ______deals with motion of particles or bodiesconsidering the cause of motion.
(1) Dynamics (2) Kinematics
(3) Mechanics (4) Optics
2. Induced surface charge density on surface ofdielectric is given by [k = dielectric constant]
(1) i11k (2)
112ki
(3) 11ki (4) i
112k
3. The resistances of the four arms P, Q, R, Sin a wheatstone’s bridge are 10 , 30 , 30and 90 . The emf and internal resistance ofcell are 7V and 5 respectively. Ifgalvanometer resistance is 50 the currentdrawn from cell will be ?(1) 0. 1 (2) 0.2(3) 0.3 (4) 0.4
4. __________is a part of transparent mediumbounded on two sides by plane surface inclinedto each other.(1) Light (2) Spectrum(3) Prism (4) Fibre
5. An artificial satellite revolves in a circularorbit of radius ‘r’ and having total energy as
E0. It’s binding energy is ?(1) E0 (2) 2E0
(3) 01 E2 (4) –2E0
6. The escape velocity from a planet’sgravitational field is reduced to half of itsoriginal value, then what its volume is related as ?
(1) V 64 V0 (2) 01V V2
(3) V V0 (4) V 18 V0
7. Match the columns. Column - I Column - II
A. Rate of change p. Impulseof momentum
B. Change of q. Non-inertialmomentum frame
C. Reference frame r. Forcewith constant v
D. Rotating frame s. Inertial frame(1) A - p B - q C - r D - s
(2) A - r B - p C - s D - q
(3) A - r B - s C - p D - q
(4) A - r B - p C - q D - s
8. Hurricane or storm are examples of _____flow.(1) turbulent (2) viscous
(3) laminar (4) maximum
9. If plates of 9F parallel plate capacitor andseperation between them is 10mm. The areaof plates is(1) 1.699 × 109 m2
(2) 4.5 29 × 109 m2
(3) 9.281 × 109 m2
(4) 10.16 × 109 m2
BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKINGHAVE CONTROL HAVE PATIENCE HAVE CONFIDENCE 100% SUCCESS
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10. The resistance of an ammeter is 13 and itsscale is graduate for current upto 100A. Afteran additional shunt has been connected to thisammeter it become possible to measure currentupto 750 A by this meter. The value of shuntresistance is
(1) 20 (2) 0.2 (3) 2 (4) 2 k
11. The radius of circular path of electron whensubjected to a perpendicular magnetic field is
(1) mBe
v(2)
meBe (3)
mEBe (4)
BeMv
12. The decay constant of radioactive element is1.05 × 10–4/year. What is its half life ?(1) 5000 year (2) 6000 year
(3) 6600 year (4) 7200 year
13. For a transistor, 1 1 is equal to ________.
(1) one (2) two(3) three (4) zero
14. Geometrical area of bodies in contact is called_________area.
(1) actual (2) real(3) geographical (4) apparent
15. A plano convex lens has focal length of80 cm. If refractive index of material is 1.5.Find its radius of curvature.
(1) 30 cm (2) 40 cm(3) 120 cm (4) 100 cm
16. ________is most important natural source ofultraviolet light.
(1) Rainbow (2) Spectrum(3) Sun (4) Light
17. A resistance of 9.5 connected across cell ofemf 12v, draws a current of 1.2 A. What is itsinternal resistance ?(1) 0.91 (2) 0.50 (3) 0.82 (4) 0.1
18. A telescope has objective of focal length 100cmand eyepiece of focal length 10cm. Themagnifying power and length of telescope is(1) 10, 1000 (2) –10, 90(3) 10, 110 (4) –10, 110
19. Match the columns.Column - I Column - II
A. Biot Savart law p. 0IB4r
B. Magnetic field at q. F = q (V B)center ofsemicircular loop
C. Force acting on r. 03
Id rdB4 r
l
current carryingconductor placedin magnetic field
D. Force on moving s. F = ( B)lcharge in magneticfield(1) A - r B - p C - s D - q(2) A - p B - q C - r D - s(3) A - s B - r C - q D - p(4) A - q B - s C - p D - r
20. Which of the following statement is CORRECTabout radiowaves ?(1)They are longitudinal electromagneticwaves(2) They are transverse wave(3) They are both transverse & lognitudinal(4) Stationary electromagnetic waves.
22. If A B B A then angle between A and B is(1) /4 (2) /2(3) /3 (4)
23. How many times more intense is 60 dB soundthan a 30 dB sound ?(1) 2 (2) 30(3) 200 (4) 1000
24. What should be the workdone in blowingbubble having surface tension of soap solutionas 30 dyne/cm and radius of bubble as 10 cm ?(1) 7.54 × 104 erg (2) 8 × 105 erg(3) 3.142 × 102 erg (4) 1.41 × 105 erg
25. Consider interference between waves from twosources of intensities I and 4I. What is theintensity at point where phase difference is ?(1) I (2) 2I (3) –I (4) –2I
26. A mercury drop of radius 'R' splits upto 1000droplets of equal radii. The change in surface areais _____× R2.(1) 8 (2) 36 (3) 12 (4) 40
27. Displacement of particle in SHM is given byx = 5(cos t + sin t), where x is in meter. Theamplitude of motion of particle is given by(1) 8m (2) 10m
(3) 5 2m (4) 10 2m28. The height of TV tower is 75m. If we want to
double its coverage range, then height of TVtower should be ?(1) 150 m (2) 300m(3) 200m (4) 500 m
29. The magnetic field at center of circular loop ofdiameter ______m and carrying current 1A is1.25 × 10-5 T.(1) 0.1m (2) 10m(3) 0.2m (4) 0.5m
30. The fundamental frequency of transversevibration of stretched string is related as (givenvibrating length and tension in the string areconstant).
(1) 1
f2 m
(2) 1
fm
(3) f m (4) 1
fm
31. The moving coil galvanometer has a resistanceof 50 and gives full scale deflection for acurrent of 10 mA. It’s equivalent resistance is(If galvanometer is converted into ammeterwith a range of 0-50 A).(1) 10-3 (2) 10-2 (3) 10-4 (4) 10-5
32. In any fission process the ratio of
mass of fission productmass of parent nucleus
is __________.
(1) greater than 1(2) less than 1(3) depends on mass of parent nucleus(4) equal to 1
33. If spring has time period T and is cut into nequal parts, then the time period of each partwill be _______.
(1) nT (2) T/ n
(3) T n (4) T
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34. What pressure should be applied in a lead blockto reduce its volume by 10% ?(Bulk modulus of lead = 6 x 109 N/m2)(1) 3 × 108 N/m2 (2) 5 × 107 N/m2
(3) 6 × 108 N/m2 (4) 8 × 108 N/m2
35. The force acting on the electron in the hydrogenatom is related to the principal quantumnumber as(1) F n4 (2) F 1/n4
(3) F n2 (4) f 1/n2
36. When the displacement of linear harmonicoscillator is 1/3 of its amplitude, the ratio of itstotal energy to its potential energy is(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 9 (4) 1/9
37. In the case of forced vibration, the resonancebecomes very sharp when the(1) quality factor is small.(2) damping force is small.(3) restoring force is small.(4) applied periodic force is small.
38. A pulse of a wave train travels along a stretchedstring and reaches the fixed end of the string.It will be reflected back with(1) A phase change of 1800 with velocity
reversed(2) the same phase change of 1800 with no
reversal of velocity.(3) A phase change of 1800 with no reversal of
velocity(4) the same phase as a the incident pulse but
with velocity reversed.39. In a simple slit diffraction pattern, intensity and
width of frings are(1) unequal width(2) equal width(3) equal width and equal intensity(4) unequal width and unequal intensity
40. In a Fresenel’s biprism experiment the twoposition of lens gives seperation between theslit as 16 cm and 9 cm respectively. The actualdistance of separation is(1) 14.4 cm (2) 12.5 cm(3) 12 cm (4) 3.5 cm
41. An audio signal given by e1 = 12sin 2 (2000t)amplitude modulates a sinusoidal carrier wavee2 = 50 sin 2 (100,100t).What is the upperside band frequency?(1) 101 kHz (2) 50 kHz(3) 70 kHz (4) 2kHz
42. The equation of a transverse wave travelling
on a rope is given by y = y0
2d xTe where
y0 = 4mm and T = 1.03 and l = 4cm. Find thevelocity of the wave.(1) 5 cm/s (2) 4 cm/s(3) 2 cm/s (4) 1 cm/s
43. How much area of the earth is covered by acommunication satellite ?(1) 100 % (2) 50%(3) 33% (4) 20%
44. A car takes a turn on a slippery road at a safespeed of 9.8 m./s. If the coefficient of frictionis 0.2, the minimum radius of the arc in whichthe car takes a turn is(1) 20 m (2) 49m(3) 24.5 m (4) 80 m
45. A motor cycle is going on an overbridge atradius ‘R’. The driver maintain a constant speedwhen the motor cycle ascends in theoverbridge, the normal force acting on it(1) remains the same(2) fluctuates erractically(3) increases(4) decreases
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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
46. A carbon atom contains a negative charge in_____
(1) Carbanion
(2) Carbocation
(3) Free radical
(4) Carbene
47. Which of the following groups show negativeinductive effect ?
(1) COO (2) COOH
(3) RS (4) CH3
48. Mixture of NH4OH and NH4Cl is an exampleof _______
(1) Basic buffer (2) acidic buffer
(3) both (4) None of these
49. In which of the following orbital diagrams, bothPauli's exclusion principle & Hund's rule areviolated ?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
50. The IUPAC name of C C C C
C C H
3 3
3 2 5
H H
H
C H2 5 CH3
is
(1) 2,3-Diethyl-2,3-dimethylbutane
(2) 2-Ethyl-2,3,3-trimethylpentane
(3) 3,3,4,4-Tetramethylhexane
(4) 2,2,3,3-Tetramethylhexane
51. The geometry of I-3 is
(1) triangular (2) linear
(3) tetrahedral (4) T-shape
52. [Cu(NH3)4]2+ shows the following hybridisation
(1) dsp2 (2) sp3d
(3) dsp3 (4) sp3
53. The hydrogen ion concentration of a solution
is 3.98 × 10-6 mole per litre. The pH value of
this solution will be
(1) 6.0 (2) 5.8
(3) 5.4 (4) 5.9
54. Gypsum is
(1) CaSO4 H2O
(2) CaSO4 2H2O
(3) 2CaSO4 2H2O
(4) CaSO4
55. The prosthetic group of haemoglobin is
(1) porphin
(2) globulin
(3) haem
(4) gelatin
56. Which of the following is strongest base ?
(1) NH2
(2) NH-CH3
(3) NH2
CH3
(4) CH NH2 2
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57. Aldol condensation product of acetone ondehydration gives
(1) But-2-enal
(2) 2-Methylpent-3-en-4 one
(3) 4-Hydroxy-4-methylpentan-2-one
(4) 4-Methylpent-3-en-2-one
58. The number of electrons that have a total chargeof 965 coulombs is
(1) 6.022 × 1023 (2) 6.022 × 1022
(3) 6.022 × 1021 (4) 3.011 × 1023
59. The value of constant in Nernst Equation
0 constantE E
n in Q at 25ºC is
(1) 0.0592 mV (2) 0.0592 V
(3) 25.7 mV (4) 0.0296 V
60. The central carbon atom of a methyl free radicalcontains
(1) 6 electrons (2) 7 electrons
(3) 8 electrons (4) 10 electrons
61. 2, 2-Dichloropropane Aq.KOH ClemmensenA reduction B
is
(1) Propanol (2) Propene
(3) Propane (4) Ethane
62. Which of the following salts will not undergohydrolysis ?
(1) NH4Cl (2) KCN
(3) KNO3 (4) Na2CO3
63. Dipole induced dipole interactions are presentin which of the following pairs ?
(1) H2O & alcohol (2) Cl2 and CCl4
(3) HCl and He atoms (4) SiF4 and He atoms
64. Identify the correct order of solubility in
aqueous medium
(1) CuS>Zns>Na2S
(2) ZnS>Na2S>CuS
(3) Na2S>CuS>ZnS
(4) Na2S>ZnS>CuS
65. Some meta-directing substances in aromatic
substitution are given which one is most
deactivating ?
(1) C N (2) SO3H
(3) COOH (4) NO2
66. Which one is odd among the following ?
(1) 3CH (2) H3O+
(3) 3CH (4) NH3
67. The major binding force of diamond is
(1) ionic bond
(2) covalent bond
(3) dipole-dipole attraction
(4) induced dipole dipole attraction
68. n type of semiconductor is formed when trace
amount of impurity is added to silicon. The
number of valence electrons in the impurity
atom must be
(1) 3 (2) 5
(3) 1 (4) 2
69. Given the reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)
H = -92.6 KJ. The enthalpy of formation of NH3
is
(1) 92.6 kJ (2) 92.6 kJ mol-1
(3) 46.3 kJ mol-1 (4) 185.2 kJ mol-1
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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
70. The false statement regarding alkane is
(1) It does not perform polymerisation reaction
(2) It doest not give elimination reaction
(3) It does not decolourize dilute KMnO4
solution.
(4) It does not decolourise bromine water.
71. Haber process is used for the production of
which of the following ?
(1) NH3 (2) HNO3
(3) H2SO4 (4) O3
72. The conjugate acid of HS– is
(1) S2– (2) H2S
(3) Both (1) & (2) (4) None
73. Match the column A with column B and select
the correct option.
Column - A Column - B (Ore) (Nature of ore)
(A) Copper glance (i) Sulphate ore
(B) Calamine (ii) Halide ore
(C) Rock salt (iii) Sulphide ore
(D) Epsom salt (iv) Carbonate ore
(1) A (i), B(ii), C(iii), D(iv)
(2) A(iv), B(ii), C(iii), D(i)
(3) A(iii), B(iv), C(ii), D(i)
(4) A(iv), B(i), C(ii), D(iii)
74. If kP for a reaction A(g) + 2B(g) 3C(g)+D(g)
is 0.05 atm at 1000 K. Its Kc in terms of R will be
(1) 20,000 R (2) 0.02 R
(3) 5 × 10–5 R (4) 55 10
R
75. For an ideal gas, Boyle's law is best described
by
(1) P
T
(2) P
V
(3) P
V
(4) P
T
76. Which of the following is optically active ?
(1) 1-Butanol
(2) Isopropyl alcohol
(3) Acetaldehyde
(4) 2-Butanol
77. Which of the following compounds can not be
dried by anhydrous CaCl2 ?
(1) Ethanol (2) Benzene
(3) Chloroform (4) Ethyl acetate
78. Which of the following is a chelate complex ?
(1) Potassium ferrocyanide
(2) Potassium tetracyanonickelate (II)
(3) [Co(en)3] Cl3
(4) [Co(NH3)4Cl2] Cl
79. Which of the following compounds is non
aromatic ?
(1) 1,3-Cyclobutadiene
(2) Pyridine
(3) Furan
(4) Thiophene
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80. The tetraethyl lead mixed in petrol works as
(1) Cooling agent
(2) Anti-knocking agent
(3) Bleaching agent
(4) None
81. Reaction for the formation of NaCl is
(1) Na(g) + Cl2 (g) NaCl(s)
(2) Na(s) + 12 Cl2(g) NaCl(s)
(3) Na(g) + 12 Cl2 (g) NaCl(s)
(4) Na(g) + Cl2(g) NaCl(g)
82. Organic compounds are non-conductors ofelectricity because they
(1) Are insoluble in water
(2) Do not form ions
(3) Have low melting point
(4) Form free radicals.
83. Which of the following represents a set ofnucleophiles ?
(1) BF3, H2O, NH-2
(2) AlCl3, BF3 , NH3
(3) CN-, RCH2- , ROH
(4) H+, RNH3+ , :CCl2
84. Which of the following conversions is anexample of substitution reaction ?
(1) Acetylene Ethane
(2) Sodium acetate Methane
(3) Propylene Propane
(4) Ethane Chloroethane
85. Dumas method is used for the estimation of
(1) Carbon (2) Nitrogen
(3) Oxygen (4) Sulphur
86. Boron halides behave as Lewis acids because
they
(1) Are ionic compounds
(2) Are covalent compound
(3) Have only 6 e- in valence shell
(4) Have a lone pair of electrons on boron atom.
87. CH3COOH when reacts with C2H5OH gives a
product. The same product is obtained by
which reaction ?
(1) Acetic acid + methanol
(2) Acetic anhydride + water
(3) Acetic anhydride + ethanol
(4) Acetamide + methanol
88. Methylketones are usually characterised
through
(1) Schiff's reagent
(2) Iodoform test
(3) Benedict's reagent
(4) Tollen's reagent
89. The correct order of dehydration of alcohols is
(1) 1º > 2º > 3º
(2) 3º > 2º > 1º
(3) 2º > 1º > 3º
(4) 1º > 3º > 2º
90. 2.5 cm3 of 0.2 M H2SO4 solution is diluted to
0.5 dm3. Find normality of diluted solution.
(1) 0.2 N (2) 0.02 N
(3) 0.002 N (4) 0.04 N
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91. In respiratory disease, the lichen species usedis _________
(1) Citraria (2) Peltigera
(3) Parmelia (4) Usnea
92. Which of these are called club fungi ?
(1) Phycomycetes
(2) Basidiomycetes
(3) Ascomycetes
(4) Deuteromycetes
93. Which one of the following is the first groupof vascular plants ?
(1) Thallophyta (2) Bryophyta
(3) Pteridophyta (4) Spermatophyta
94. Which of these has no true roots and novascular tissues ?
(1) Pteridophyta (2) Bryophytes
(3) Gymnosperms (4) Angiosperms
95. Select the INCORRECT statement.
(1) Enzymes accelerate the reaction but do notinitiate it
(2) Enzymes do not participate in the reactionand remain unchanged
(3) The molecule of enzyme is smaller thanthat of substrate molecule
(4) Chemically most of the enzymes are proteinsand show amphoteric nature
96. What acts as an insulator for heat insubcutaneous tissue ?
(1) Living cells (2) Fats
(3) Sugar (4) Carotenoids
97. Which of these is known as reduction division ?
(1) Metaphase-II (2) Mitosis
(3) Cytokinesis II (4) Meiosis - I
98. What is the CORRECT sequence of thesubstages of prophase ?