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Test Paper : I Test Subject : GENERAL PAPER Test Subject Code : A-00-01 Test booklet Code : W Test Booklet Serial No. : ______________________ OMR Sheet No. : ________________________________ Hall Ticket No. (Figures as per admission card) Hall Ticket No. ___________________________ (In words) Name & Signature of Invigilator Name : ____________________________________ Signature : ___________________________________ Paper :I Subject : GENERAL PAPER Time : 1 Hour 15 Minutes Maximum Marks : 100 Number of Pages in this Booklet : 24 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 60 Instructions for the Candidates 1. Write your Hall Ticket Number in the space provided on the top of this page. 2. This paper consists of sixty (60) multiple-choice type of questions, out of which the candidate would be required to answer any fifty (50) questions. In the event of the candidate attempting more than fifty questions, the first fifty questions attempted by the candidate would be evaluated. 3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below : (i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept a booklet without sticker-seal and do not accept an open booklet. (ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in the booklet with the information printed on the cover page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing or duplicate or not in serial order or any other discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a correct booklet from the invigilator within the period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be given. (iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet number should be entered in the OMR Sheet and the OMR Sheet Number should be entered on this Test Booklet. 4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on the correct response against each item. Example : A B C D where (C) is the correct response. 5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR Answer Sheet given to you. If you mark at any place other than in the circle in the Answer Sheet, it will not be evaluated. 6. Read instructions given inside carefully. 7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet. 8. If you write your name or put any mark on any part of the Answer Sheet, except for the space allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your identity, you will render yourself liable to disqualification. 9. You have to return the test question booklet and OMR Answer Sheet to the invigilators at the end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. 10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 11. 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(ii) MæüÐèþÆæÿ$ õ³h ò³O Ðèþ$${¨_¯èþ çÜÐèþ*^éÆæÿ {ç³M>Ææÿ D {ç³Ôèý²ç³{èþÐèþ$$ÌZ° õ³iË çÜQůèþ$ Ðèþ$ÇÄæý$$ {ç³Ôèý²Ë çÜQůèþ$ çÜÇ^èþ*çÜ$Møyìþ. õ³iË çÜQÅMæü$ çܺ«¨_ V>± Ìôý§é çÜ*__¯èþ çÜQÅÌZ {ç³Ôèý²Ë$ ÌôýMæü´ùÐèþ#r Ìôý§é °f{ç³ M>Mæü´ùÐèþ#r Ìôý§é {ç³Ôèý²Ë$ {MæüÐèþ$糧æþ®ÌZ ÌôýMæü´ùÐèþ#r Ìôý§é HÐðþO¯é óþyéË$yæþ$r Ðèþsìý §øçÙç³NÇèþÐðþ$O¯èþ {ç³Ôèý² ç³{é°² Ððþr¯óþ Ððþ$$§æþsìý I§æþ$ °Ñ$ÚëÌZÏ ç³È> ç ³Ææ ÿÅÐó þæ üMæ ü$°Mì ü ÇW C_aÐó þí Ü §é°Mì ü º§æ þ$Ë$V> ç ÜÇV>Y è þ² { ç ³Ôè ý²ç ³{é°² ¡ç Ü$Møyì þ. èþ§æþ¯èþèþÆæÿ {ç³Ôèý²ç³{èþÐèþ$$ Ðèþ*Ææÿaºyæþ§æþ$ A§æþ¯èþç³# çÜÐèþ$Äæý$ CÐèþÓºyæþ§æþ$. 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AP Set Physical Sciences Question Papers of July 2012 and Keys PDF

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Page 1: AP Set Physical Sciences Question Papers of July 2012 and Keys PDF

Test Paper : I

Test Subject : GENERAL PAPER

Test Subject Code : A-00-01

Test booklet Code : W

Test Booklet Serial No. : ______________________OMR Sheet No. : ________________________________

Hall Ticket No.

(Figures as per admission card)

Hall Ticket No. ___________________________ (In words)

Name & Signature of Invigilator

Name : ____________________________________ Signature : ___________________________________

Paper : ISubject : GENERAL PAPER

Time : 1 Hour 15 Minutes Maximum Marks : 100

Number of Pages in this Booklet : 24 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 60

Instructions for the Candidates1. Write your Hall Ticket Number in the space provided on the top of

this page.2. This paper consists of sixty (60) multiple-choice type of questions,

out of which the candidate would be required to answer any fifty (50)questions. In the event of the candidate attempting more thanfifty questions, the first fifty questions attempted by the candidatewould be evaluated.

3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet willbe given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested toopen the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below :

(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paperseal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept a bookletwithout sticker-seal and do not accept an open booklet.

(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions inthe booklet with the information printed on the coverpage. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missingor duplicate or not in serial order or any otherdiscrepancy should be got replaced immediately by acorrect booklet from the invigilator within the periodof 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Bookletwill be replaced nor any extra time will be given.

(iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet numbershould be entered in the OMR Sheet and the OMR SheetNumber should be entered on this Test Booklet.

4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C)and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on thecorrect response against each item.

Example : A B C D

where (C) is the correct response.

5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR AnswerSheet given to you. If you mark at any place other than in thecircle in the Answer Sheet, it will not be evaluated.

6. Read instructions given inside carefully.7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet.8. If you write your name or put any mark on any part of the Answer

Sheet, except for the space allotted for the relevant entries,which may disclose your identity, you will render yourself liableto disqualification.

9. You have to return the test question booklet and OMR AnswerSheet to the invigilators at the end of the examination compulsorilyand must not carry it with you outside the Examination Hall.

10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited. 12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers.

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6. +��,�"-� ��+.�������� ������ �3`���� ��=A����������� a�+� �.��@�(� A��? ��������*7. 3.���@��LL� +��,�"-��+.��������3���& '��3`����b�c������������AE�) "=5*8. OMR���+.�����������LGd.�������������=3�A������S�����M���&(���.��S�Z�3��.��& '������������ ��;@���������.%�5P��M>? ���(����P�& '��&() "�� ����(e��F"?9��.��& '�3 -���������T� ���(e�AE�S�����D&'��.E�����/���& 'f.��$ �����&E'� ]�>? ��:�����.9& '�*

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Page 2: AP Set Physical Sciences Question Papers of July 2012 and Keys PDF

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DO

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Page 3: AP Set Physical Sciences Question Papers of July 2012 and Keys PDF

1. Teaching is best described as a

(A) Occupation

(B) Vocation

(C) Profession

(D) Career

2. The chief objective of teaching is

(A) Transmission of existing knowledge

(B) Stimulate curiosity of students to

discover knowledge

(C) Help children to do well in

examinations

(D) To facilitate research

3. A “Good” learner is one who

(A) Listens attentively to teachers

(B) Has a questioning frame of mind

(C) Spends considerable time in library

(D) Prepares well for examination

������� W

1. ����������������� ������ ������������������������

(A) ������� �(occupation)

(B) ����(vocation)

(C) �� !��(profession)

(D) h�����"#���� �(career)

2. ���������#���"����$����%&����

(A) ����'�()i�$�'�"��j*+�' ��,�-�"���

(B) ()i�$�'�#�����#�.����� �#��/ �0�$�+�'1%��#�������2"�)�'�+,'#��!� ������

(C) ��3&��%���0�$�+�'1%�"�����+�'k������+�'�4l�� ���5)�#6������7������

(D) ���8������������jm%9�"���+�'������

3. -:"�������������;9)��/#�����

(A) �<*��$�-�"%� ���=�7� 0�>-�"�%���� "8�"���n�40�,�$���

(B) "��o' �,�����+�'p6"�#��?@���$���

(C) "��� q$%-�" ������p"A-�"�������#4�)�'�����6�=�$���

(D) ��3&��#����)�4�B/���n��-C"�$���

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Paper – I

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Page 4: AP Set Physical Sciences Question Papers of July 2012 and Keys PDF

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4. Identify any three factors which contribute

to effective teaching

(i) Art of communication

(ii) Subject mastery

(iii) Smart and handsome looks

(iv) Rapport with students

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(B) (i), (iii) and (iv)

(C) (i), (ii) and (iv)

(D) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

5. Programmed instruction is based on the

principles of learning which is known as

(A) Software learning

(B) Motivation

(C) Reinforcement

(D) Systematic programming

6. Sentence completion tests are objective

type of tests which measure

(A) Recognition ability

(B) Sentence knowledge

(C) Association skill

(D) Recall ability

4. "��9)���� �������������������#��������7�,���������; 8$%���

����� ��� �6�

(i) 9)���"���/+�'p"�#��D�"

(ii) 0�>-�" �E���<* �6�����

(iii) ���?0�4r�; ��� �4�#���B� ������

(iv) 0�$�+�'1%����/���s F ����

(A) (i), (ii) ���-�" (iii)

(B) (i), (iii) ���-�" (iv)

(C) (i), (ii) ���-�"�(iv)

(D) (ii), (iii) ���-�" (iv)

5. ;9�"��/���� �/�"�$%E��� t ��$+�' ���6����� #4+�'�"#����-�"���

�������������G�)�; 5)+�'

(A) j*uvH,�+I'�;9�"��/���

(B) "=�+�'p"

(C) ��J���+�'w%���

(D) "#����F���n�#4+�'�"#��K#��+�'p"

6. $#���� ��L+�'p"��#���>%� x�'� �������� � �,�=/�%&4y���y#��

�#���>%

(A) ����� �,��j*��+�'1�

(B) $#����()i���

(C) �/ �/+�'l�������Jp"�

(D) !�@�ziB��#6��������M#N�,��j*��+�'1�

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I* 5 A-00-01

7. Three of the following four attributes

characterise research. Identify the one

which is not an attribute of research

(A) Research is purposive

(B) Findings of research can be

generalised for all contexts

(C) Research is logical and objective

(D) Research is based on accurate data

8. Match the following :

I II

(a) Experimental (p) Continuity of

Method observationsover time

(b) Descriptive (q) InternalMethod criticism of data

(c) Historical (r) StratifiedMethod sample

(d) Longitudinal (s) Equivalence of

Method groups

(A) (aq), (br), (cs) and (dp)

(B) (br), (cq), (dp) and (as)

(C) (cp), (dq), (as) and (br)

(D) (dq), (cp), (bs) and (ar)

7. #6� ��$56"����$%@ 56"���������%&��p)%����8������$

%&��p)%O����8������$�%&��p" �#4��$�'������ ��� �6�

(A) ���8�����������,�P8�"���L�����������

(B) ���8����������v?�$%����;�'��/ ���+4{%#���j*��$+�'p|"#��� ��������M

(C) ���8����������$�.#�� r�%&4y���y#��

(D) ���8���������QRS���������� ����$� 8�" � E���t��$+�'���6�� � �

8. #6� ��$56"��z�����+�'��� �6�

I II

(a) "��-:"����������n! (p) }#���#4%���������

�+�' ���+�'����~%���%

(b) ��+�'����������n! (q) ; ���+�'l��������$� 8�"

0��+�'k

(c) �$�"���#��������n! (r) �/�3#�� �����������$

(d) x+�'�#4%������n! (s) �/���T%��/�����U

(A) (aq), (br), (cs) ���-�"�(dp)

(B) (br), (cq), (dp) ���-�" (as)

(C) (cp), (dq), (as) ���-�"�(br)

(D) (dq), (cp), (bs) ���-�"�(ar)

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I* 6 A-00-01

9. Reorganise the following in an

appropriate sequence

(i) Analysis and interpretation of data

(ii) Preparation of Research Report

(iii) Identification and selection of a

problem

(iv) Formulation of a research design

(v) Collection of data

(A) (iii), (iv), (i), (ii) and (v)

(B) (iii), (iv), (i), (v) and (ii)

(C) (iii), (v), (iv), (i) and (ii)

(D) (iii), (iv), (v), (i) and (ii)

10. One of the following behaviour does not

confirm to research ethics. Identify the

behaviour

(A) Copying passages from a book along

with acknowledgement

(B) Arriving at a generalisation which the

researcher feels as truth even though

data do not support it

(C) Formulating hypothesis which is not

confirmed by review of literature

(D) Using statistical techniques in

qualitative research

9. ��/+�'�����"#���� ���#6� ��$56"��;��+�'M �6�

(i) ����$� 8�"�08,"V�>p"r�$�Q�

(ii) ���8����������,��#������-�"�3

(iii) �/���/������� ��Jr�W B�#��

(iv) ���8���������"��p)�#4��+4yp"

(v) ����$� 8�"�=/#��+�'p"

(A) (iii), (iv), (i), (ii) ���-�" (v)

(B) (iii), (iv), (i), (v) ���-�" (ii)

(C) (iii), (v), (iv), (i) ���-�" (ii)

(D) (iii), (iv), (v), (i) ���-�" (ii)

10. #6� ��"����+�'����%���}#��56"����8�������������!#����-�"������#6�

;������p"��� ��#4���

(A) }# ��� "� �� q �� � � �� � 6�� <*+4"�4 �vJ%� ��

#�� ���zi���%����B�7����#��%��,�-�"���

(B) ����$� 8�" ��/���1 ��������756"#,�����8�����#�������$���

�/����������#N���'�j*��$+�'p|"#��+�'p)�,�'

"��!<*� ������

(C) j*B2"����� �/K&��� +�'�� 6� ��+�'����� "<*#��%7������

+�'�<� � ������

(D) ���p)���y#������8�����������j* Q�#���8$�/�������n���%���

���-:"�@ ������

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I* 7 A-00-01

11. One of the following forums will be directly

relevant for administrative actions

(A) Seminar

(B) Conference

(C) Workshop

(D) Symposium

12. Quality of a good thesis is judged by three

of the following four qualities

(i) Coherence across objectives and

findings

(ii) Consistency between data, analysis

and interpretation

(iii) A comprehensive review of literature

(iv) Number of references cited in the

thesis

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(B) (i), (ii) and (iv)

(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(D) (i), (iii) and (iv)

11. ���<*%�$���y#������+�'�%#���#6� ����+�' %���}#��56"��,�+�'�4

�/ F �� R����

(A) E/0�$+I'

(B) #4����+�'���s

(C) ��+I'.�*u�

(D) B/ <�X-�"

12. }#���-:"������������B/�$n ����$��/��$p"��������#6� ���$%���

"�����p)��V�����6� 56"����+�'�+' ��������M

(i) %&4�%��v?�$%���������<� �#��

(ii) ����$� 8�" r�08,"V�>p"r�$�Y)��$%���������B/1+�'���U

(iii) j*B2"������/��"�����/K&��

(iv) B/�$n ����$��/ ���=�+N.���'� �/ "��� ��J�+�'������%

�/ Q�

(A) (i), (ii) ���-�" (iii)

(B) (i), (ii) ���-�" (iv)

(C) (ii), (iii) ���-�" (iv)

(D) (i), (iii) ���-�" (iv)

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I* 8 A-00-01

Read the following passage and answer

question numbers from 13 to 18 :

Often, as I (Nehru) wandered from meeting to

meeting, I spoke to my audience of this Indiaof ours, of Hindustan and of Bharata, the oldSanskrit name derived from the mythicalfounder of the race.

Sometimes as I reached a gathering, agreat roar of welcome would greet me : BharatMata Ki Jai – ‘Victory to Mother India’. I wouldask them unexpectedly what they meant by thatcry, who was this Bharat Mata, Mother India,whose victory they wanted ? My question wouldamuse them and surprise them, and then, notknowing exactly what to answer they wouldlook at each other and at me. I persisted in myquestioning. At last a vigorous Jat, wedded tothe soil from immemorial generations, wouldsay that it was the dharti, the good earth of India,that they meant. What earth ? Their particularvillage patch, or all the patches in the districtor province, or in the whole of India ? And soquestion and answer went on, till they wouldask me impatiently to tell them all about it. Iwould endeavour to do so and explain that Indiawas all this that they had thought, but it wasmuch more. The mountains and the rivers ofIndia, and the forests and the broad fields,which gave us food, were all dear to us, butwhat counted ultimately were the people ofIndia, people like them and me, who werespread out all over this vast land. Bharat Mata,Mother India, was essentially these millions ofpeople, and victory to her meant victory to thesepeople. You are parts of this Bharat Mata, I toldthem, you are in a manner yourselves, BharathMata and as this idea slowly soaked into theirbrains, their eyes would light up as if they had

made a great discovery.

#6� ��<*�4��'� ����0� 13� ��� �6�� 18� ��+�'#��� ���%� "��8�"'%#��

�/�����$�$%�+4-�" �6�

���+�'�����}#����/9�"���� �6��}#����/9�"#�����D�"���t��/9�"��V��$�����"�2"��"8����%#�����������G �6�-�"������ Rr� B2" ���j*��Z������ Rr��J+4p)%�����()!#6�����%��J+�'�>�����������#6�����%V�[+�'7�6�����/ �/.� �����$�� �9)+�'����,�8�" ����� R����<*7���O

#N�'�j*+�'V��,��N#����/9�"#������V�����������$#���j*U�������R�2"' �4�9)+�'�Z������$�#|��(:"���;���/9)�/���%�E����P�4���$��� �,�j*�+�'O����$�$�#6��;+�'1,�0��r�K+�'�W����0z-�" �#�+�'����$'+�t�9)+�'����������W��+�'��$D�"V��;�������$���O�$D�"V��$��� �6�G��� 56"�"��8�"'����/� ������B2" ���+�'O��$�"��8�"'�$D�"V#���0 ����N%7��� �r�t8�"M+�'� � #��?@�/� �r� ���+4U����[ � �/�����$��� ���<*7����/��4l�;+�'1 #4#���$D�"V�}#��D�"V�N#��D�"V������/#�� 5)+�'r��$�����J�����j*�+�'O��,������$�"��8�"'�;�����������,����$'���O�R���#6�}#�����$s�2"�� �����������()5Z"r�;��� ����#4% ��� �6�����+�'���+4%�49�"�0��; 56"E��H#N������'$�����9�"�0��;�� �/�����$��� ���<*����O�,������#�� ����'��G �6�-�"��;�,���/&,�"��� �; 5)���O[ �9�"�0���K�����,��)���K�X�)V�; ���5)r�+4�>��� ���5)r�C"�$�9)+�'����,�8�"�� ���5)�����'�9�"�0�9)�4�)���G�)�"��8�"'%�z$F%��j*����$+'r�R���#6��$D�"V�;�/�2"��� �4��$�'����� R�/0��+�' �4� ��� ��7����;�6��,� �����+�'#���O� �,����� "��-�"���' �����%E�����$���O�9)+�'����,�8�"�� 5C"�Gxr�;xr�$D�"V���#���,���� �$r#4A�; ���#�� 5C"� �$�)�W#��.��� #����$�;�O� 9)+�'����,�8�" �����+�'U�$%�r�������%�r�;�����J%�r������#���! �6�E�5C"H�08$%�������� ��<��)%��;A'������#���"B�-�"������,�O�#4A�;�' 56"#�� 5C"��Q� �9)+�'����"��z%r���08$%�������9�"�0K����$�B� R����'��$�) 56"r�K�) 56"�$D�"VO�9)+�'�����������; 5C"���%&���)�"��z%O�9)+�'���������#���z-�" �; 5C"���"��z% ����#|��z-�" O9)+�'������������9)�4%�K+�'O�}#��+�'#�� �4�K+,'�9)+�'���������O��t�����������%V�4�$D�"V������D�"V����$�#���<�-C"���756"#6��[���}#��

�N��7�0�>-�"��'�#�����#��.���'�V�$D�"V�#�����'%���?@<��$+'O

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13. How did people greet Nehru when he wentto address them ? They greeted him with(A) Bharat Mata Ki Jai(B) Victory to Mother India(C) Jai Bharat Mata Ki(D) Victory to Bharat Mata

14. Who was the person that gave the reply :Bharat Mata means “Dharti” ?

(A) everybody (B) a Jat

(C) a stranger (D) Nehru himself

15. When the villagers were questioned ontheir concept of ‘Dharti’, one of thefollowing answers was not included

(A) Village patch

(B) All patches of the district

(C) Mother Earth

(D) Whole of India

16. Which part of Dharti gives us food ?

(A) Mountains (B) Rivers

(C) Forests (D) Broad fields

17. Victory to ‘Bharat Mata’ means, victory to

(A) People of the village

(B) All the people of India

(C) Millions of people

(D) Freedom fighters of India

18. What was the great discovery made by thevillagers ?

(A) We are all Bharat Mata

(B) Mother Earth is Bharat Mata

(C) Mountains, rivers, forests and fieldsare Bharat Mata

(D) The good earth of India is Bharat Mata

13. "��z%����,�Po R�"���/ @ ����$�#6�����"�2"�����V����������$D�"V�t-�"���#6��)�j*U������ ����<*7+�'(A) 9)+�'�Z������$�#|��(:"�(B) 0#��H3��������+I'�G �6�-�"�(C) (:"��9)+�'�Z������$�#|�(D) 0#��H3���9)+�'�Z������$

14. 9)+�'�����������; 5C"��9�"�0��;���/�����$��� ����B�7�������#6��(A) "��!�}#��.+�'� (B)��}#���()5Z"(C) }#���t��� ���#����� (D) ���"�2"�-C"

15. �9�"�0��; 5C"�[0���;�6�@����������$��z$F��V#6� ��$56"���}#��56"��C"���(A) "�4���9�"��9)��� (B) X�)V����9�"��9)�4%A'(C) 9�"��������(D) ������ �9)+�'�����,�8�"

16. �����#���! �6���,�M�9�"�0�9)��� �[���(A) ��+�'U�$%(B) ������%(C) ;�����J%(D) 08$%�������<��)%

17. �9)+�'��������$�#|��(:"���; 5C"�z-�" �K�#6�(A) "�4���"��z%#��(B) 9)+�'����"��z% ����#|�(C) %&���)��"��z%#��(D) 9)+�'����j*U��� "�����<�+4��-:"�����%#��

18. "�4���/1%�#�����#��.���'��N��7�0�>-�" �[056"��(A) 9)+�'�����������; 5C"�������� ���+�'���(B) ������ 9�"�0�9)+�'���������(C) ��+�'U�$%r�������%r�;�����J%r�<��)%

�9)+�'���������(D) 9)+�'�����,�8�"��J��/&,�"��� �9)+�'���������

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19. Effective classroom communication of ateacher depends upon three of thefollowing four qualities. They are

(i) Content mastery

(ii) Clarity in language teaching(iii) Consistency in presentation

(iv) Completing portions in time

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) (B) (i), (ii) and (iv)

(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (D) (iii), (iv) and (i)

20. Three of the following four attributes of ateacher will become barriers in effectivecommunication. Identify them(i) Pronunciation of the teacher(ii) Caste status of a teacher(iii) Facial expressions of the teacher(iv) Choice of words

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) (B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(C) (iii), (iv) and (i) (D) (i), (ii) and (iv)

21. Match the following behaviours of teachers

with their communication-type

Behaviours Type

(a) Teacher asks a (p) Symbolicquestion

(b) Teacher writes a (q) Digitaldiagram on theblack board

(c) Teacher shows a (r) Written

CD to children(d) Teacher beckons (s) Oral

a student to draw agraph on the blackboard

(A) (aq), (br), (cs) and (dp)(B) (ar), (bs), (cp) and (dq)(C) (as), (br), (cq) and (dp)(D) (ap), (bq), (cr) and (ds)

19. ���+�'���!� ��������<*��$�-�"�� "��9)���� ����������9)��"���/+�'p"��� #6� �� �$%���� ���p)%��� ����6� 56"� E��t��$+�'���6��� � �(i) 0�>-�"�<* �6����� (ii) �������$9)�>����/7�>H���(iii) <*�4� 8�"�"�����+�'k������<� �#��(iv) �3���������������<*�4� 8$%���L����,�-�"���

(A) (i), (ii) ���-�" (iii)(B) (i), (ii) ���-�" (iv)(C) (ii), (iii) ���-�" (iv)(D) (iii), (iv) ���-�" (i)

20. "��9)���� ����������9)���"���/+�'p"����<*��$�-�"�#6��#6� ��$%����%&��p)%����������;���\ #��%r�;0(i) �<*��$�-�"����$M+�'p"(ii) �<*��$�-�"��#��% ��2��$(iii) �<*��$�-�"����Q#�����#��%(iv) ���$%�W B�#��

(A) (i), (ii) ���-�" (iii)(B) (ii), (iii) ���-�" (iv)(C) (iii), (iv) ���-�" (i)(D) (i), (ii) ���-�" (iv)

21. #6� ���<*��$�-�"%�"����+�'����%����$��9)��"��#������������n���%����/��4�z�����,�-�" �6�

�������e����� ������(a) �<*��$�-�"��� (p) "��]#4���y#��

"��8�"'�;�������$���(b) ���%VF%V�E�� �(q) �6�X��Z"

�<*��$�-�"������ ^j*����

(c) �<*��$�-�"��� (r) ?�������L+�'U#��B�%V%#���}#���B/�6�����B�j*����

(d) �<*��$�-�"��� (s) ����#��0�$��1�����%VF%VE���}#���"�4uv^-�"����E/������,�j*����

(A) (aq), (br), (cs) ���-�" (dp)(B) (ar), (bs), (cp) ���-�" (dq)(C) (as), (br), (cq) ���-�" (dp)(D) (ap), (bq), (cr) ���-�" (ds)

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22. The technique adopted to find out the level

of acceptability of an individual by

members of a group is

(A) Personality testing

(B) Projective techniques

(C) Psychometry

(D) Sociometry

23. Some of the following constraints arefaced by first generation learners incollege and university. Identify them.

(i) Sub-optimal command over EnglishLanguage

(ii) Divergences in pronunciation of words

(iii) Not being pro-active in conversations

(iv) Not having proper height and weight

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(C) (iii), (iv) and (i)

(D) (iv), (i) and (ii)

24. Who among the following distinguishedscholars is considered as the father ofcommunication science ?

(A) B. F. Skinner

(B) Jerome Bruner

(C) Wilbur Schramm

(D) Kurt Lewin

25. In a certain code CLOCK is KCOLC. Howis STEPS written in the same code ?

(A) SPEST (B) SPSET

(C) SPETS (D) SEPTS

22. }#��� �/����2" ���� �/9�"�%� }#��� ���#6� ��� �/��y! �,�

j*1+'�����%�/#����$�#6��;��% � �,�������n!

(A) ���#6�����U���3&��

(B) "��&,���#��������n���%

(C) �����08,"V�>p)���y#���0!

(D) j* Bv#���0!

23. #��D)8$%������r�08�"U0�$�%-�" ������� �N?���+�' ;9)��/#��%�W���+N.���'� #N�'�;��+���$%� #6� �����$'+'O�$56"������� ��� �6�

(i) t ���V9)�>E������@��� ����;��#4+�' ��C"#��<������

(ii) ���$%���$S+�'p"���0����'���

(iii) �/ 9)�>p"��V�"#6�-�"�~% �4�� ���#���<������

(iv) ���@��� ����W�����r�F+�'��L��C"#���<������

(A) (i), (ii) ���-�" (iii)

(B) (ii), (iii) ���-�" (iv)

(C) (iii), (iv) ���-�" (i)

(D) (iv), (i) ���-�" (ii)

24. #6� ���/"��B/���n�0�$U �/%���#�������#,��>�Z��8$�/��B�����49)0 ��F�,�����#6���W��+�'��

(A) �OWuvO�B/.���'+I'

(B) (:"+�Z��"F����+I'

(C) 0%w+I'�"�*Z�

(D) #��+I'H��:"0�Z�

25. }#���"���,��#���#��I����CLOCK – KCOLC�;��J��� �;�,��#��I����STEPS�����W�)�+4j*�+�'��

(A) SPEST (B) SPSET

(C) SPETS (D) SEPTS

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26. In the sequence of numbers

5, 8, 13, X, 34, 55, 89, ....

the value of X is

(A) 20

(B) 21

(C) 23

(D) 29

27. The letters in the first set have certainrelationship. On the basis of thisrelationship, make the right choice forthe second set

BF : GK : : LP : ?

(A) JK

(B) QU

(C) VW

(D) RQ

28. Select the pair of words which is differentfrom the others

(A) Hard and soft

(B) Hot and cold

(C) Come and arrive

(D) Right and wrong

29. In an examination 25% of the candidatesfailed in Mathematics and 12% in English.If 10% of the candidates failed in both thesubjects and 292 passed in both thesubjects, the total number of candidatesappeared in the examination was

(A) 300

(B) 400

(C) 460

(D) 500

26. 5, 8, 13, X, 34, 55, 89,.... ;���'��/ Q�%���+�'�/���X 0%��

(A) 20

(B) 21

(C) 23

(D) 29

27. �����56"�E/�H����;&��+4%#���}#����/ F ���� �� �O�t�/ F ���� �K����t��$+�'���6��+�' ������E/�H����;&��+4%����/��4�W B�#����,�-�" �6�

BF : GK : : LP : ?

(A) JK

(B) QU

(C) VW

(D) RQ

28. ���#6�.���� ���$%� z���%� #�� 5C"� ����'������� ���$%� z����������� ��� �6�

(A) ��� ���r��� ���

(B) ��>�r�~���%

(C) �����Mr��,�+�'

(D) }���r�������

29. }#��� ��3&����� 25% � ;9� "�+ �' 1%� � ��p 6 "� �� ��;���]�+�'�%-�"��+�'r�12%�t ���V ���;���]�+�'�%-�"��+�'O10%�0�$�+�'1%�+�' �����/�:"�#��H��V�����;���]�+�'��:"��292

�� ��+�' �����/�:"�#��H��V������]�+�'��:"�����V+'�,�������� ��3&���+4B/����;9�"�+�'1%��/ Q�

(A) 300

(B) 400

(C) 460

(D) 500

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30. If 5472 = 9, 6342 = 6 and 7584 = 6, what is9236 ?

(A) 2

(B) 3

(C) 4

(D) 5

31. Five persons P, Q, R, S and T weretravelling in a car. There were two ladiesin the group. Of the three who knew cardriving, one was a lady. There was onecouple, of which only the wife could drivethe car. P is brother of S. Q, wife of S, droveat the beginning. T drove at the end.

Who was the other lady in the group ?

(A) T

(B) S

(C) R

(D) Data inadequate

32. All the students are boys. All boys aredancers. Which of the following inferencesdefinitely follows from the above twostatements ?

(A) All dancers are boys

(B) All boys are students

(C) All dancers are students

(D) All students are dancers

33. If a rectangle were called a circle, a circlea point, a point a triangle and a triangle asquare, the shape of a wheel is

(A) Rectangle (B) Circle

(C) Point (D) Triangle

30. 5472 = 9, 6342 = 6, 7584 = 6�;+'�,�

9236 = ?

(A) 2

(B) 3

(C) 4

(D) 5

31. P, Q, R, S, T�;�,��;+'������+�'����#���%�}#���#4+�'��

"��-�"�p6"�/��$'+�'O�K����G���P+�'�_/�%O�#4+�'������������

��RM���������l����}#��+�'�_/�O�}#���9)+4�9�"+�'�%�z ��� �O

��z ����9)+�'�#��� ���"���,�� #4+�'����������� �����MO

P – S� #��� j����+�'���O� Q – S #��� 9)+�'�O� t��

"<*+�' 9�" ���#4+�'�����6�B� �O�T R������#4+�'�����6�<*���O

���/����2" ���+�' ������_/��W��+�'��

(A) T (B) S

(C) R (D) t��$+4%�;�/��"���

32. 0�$�+�'1% ���+�'�� �)%+�'O� �)%+�' ���+�'�� �$���s+�'VO

E���+�' ����=/H5Z"�� �VV�t��$+�' �4�QRS������������2"�

(A) �$���s+�'V ���+�'���)%+�'

(B) �)%+�' ���+�'��0�$�+�'1%

(C) �$���s+�'V ���+�'��0�$�+�'1%

(D) 0�$�+�'1% ���+�'���$���s+�'V

33. x+�'�������+�'"j*�'� �� ��� � ���r� �� �$��'� � �����Lr

� �����J���� "!#�p"���r� "!#�p)�'� ������+�'"�/���

;�,���V+'�,��}#������"#�� �t#4+�'

(A) x+�'��������+�'"�/ (B) �� ����

(C) � �����J (D) "!#�p"

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34. Manisha is eleventh from either end of arow of girls. How many girls are there inthat row ?

(A) 19 (B) 20

(C) 21 (D) 22

35. A student who completes any graduatestudies course shall develop three of thefollowing four essential attributes. They are(i) A questioning frame of mind(ii) Skills of survey techniques(iii) Good communication skills(iv) Sensitivity to social problems(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) (B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)(C) (iii), (iv) and (i) (D) (i), (iv) and (ii)

36. There are 600 students in a college. 325are boys and 275 are girls, eachrepresented by a big circle, out of which50 boys and 40 girls are from rural areas,represented by a small circle. Which of thefollowing diagram best represents thedistribution in the college ?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

OR

34. }#����)?#��%���+�'�/�����A�>�W���� �6���:"#��.E�56"H�$�����#N ������O�t���+�'�/���W ����� ���)?#��%�$'+�'(A) 19 (B) 20(C) 21 (D) 22

35. "�4����-C"5Z"� #�+�'s� ��L��� �,� B/� ��� " ��!� 0�$�31#6� ���$%����t��8�"�#���%&��p)��V�����6� 56"��;��� �n�,��/#�$?O�;0(i) "��o' �,�����+�'p6"(ii) �/+,'U&��p"������n�����V�������Jp"� (iii) �� R�9)���"��#�������j*��+41�%(iv) j*���X#����/���/�%����V��/7 ��������/U9)�� (A) (i), (ii) ���-�" (iii)(B) (ii), (iii) ���-�" (iv)(C) (iii), (iv) ���-�" (i)(D) (i), (iv) ���-�" (ii)

36. }#��� #��D)8$%��� 600�0�$�+�'1%�$'+�'O� 325� �� ��)%+�'r�275��� ���)?#��%O��)%+�'r��)?#��%#��}#N.#��.� �� ��� � � "��!���O� �)%+�'��� 50 �� �r�)?#��%���40��� ��"�4Kp"�"<* �$�#6����� ����$+�'OK�����+N#���R���'��� ���� ����/�R ������ �z�@ �O�#6� ���5)%���#��D)8$%����0�$�+�'1%�$�B����;���������� �4"������k �,����� �[���

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

�����

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For visually handicapped candidates :

36. Data in tables of a research report show

that 20 out of 60 students in the first year

of B.A. class of a college are girls. On a

particular day of visit it is observed that 12

students are absent of whom 08 are girls.

Attendance behaviour is poorer among girls

than others. This observation is a case of

(A) Deductive logic

(B) Transductive logic

(C) Inductive logic

(D) Inferential logic

37. Which of the following sources of data

can be classified as a primary source of

data ?

(A) Data available in UGC reports

(B) Data collected by interviews of UGC

experts

(C) Data available from socio-cultural

tables of census of India, 2011

(D) Data on Educated unemployment

available in Directorate of

Employment and Training

���f������������������������� !�"�

36. }#��� ���8����������,��#������ ��56" H#����V�� ����$� 8�" � }#��

#��D)8$%�����O[O� "��q��������+�'���!� ����,�� 60 �� �

0�$�+�'1��V�20��� ���)?#��%�������J� �O�#��D)8$%���

�/ ����k R����}#���"���,��#�����$����12��� ��0�$�+�'1%

����+4`z+�'+'����V�; ������ 08 �� �� �)?#���:"�����V

������ ������ � z�@ �O�G���+�'%��� #�� 5C"� �)?#��%��

Tz+�'�"����+�'���������9�"�+'�>� �4�� �O���������#�����

x�#6���/ F �� R����; 8�" �4������ ��������MO

(A) �������������+�'. �(Deductive logic)

(B) "5)�Z�s���#6�HZ�����+�'.

(C) t������������+�'. �(Inductive logic)

(D) G����+�'��-�"�Z"����+�'.

37. "#6� �� ����$� 8�"� �����+�'��V� ����$� 8�"� "<*q��0#��� �����+�'�4

��3l#��� �����@����

(A) -�"XB/��,��#����V�%9�"���-C"������$� 8�"

(B) -�"XB/����Jp"%�G �+�'�U��%��$U+4

=/#��� R��������$� 8�"

(C) 9)+�'����z������p"���r�2011�j*���X#���j* �/.� !#��

��56"H#��%���� �6���%9�"���-C"������$� 8�"

(D) �<*��r�o&��p"� �/ �$%#��%�#4+4�%-�" ���� �6�

%9�"���-C"��0�$��� ����:" ������+�'������%#��

�/ F �� R��������$� 8�"

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38. External and internal criticism of data is a

standard measure engaged for validation

of data in

(A) Historical Research

(B) Philosophical Research

(C) Descriptive Research

(D) Experimental Research

39. Identify the parameter which does not

measure central tendency among the

following parameters

(A) Statistical mean

(B) Arithmetic mean

(C) Mode

(D) Average deviation

40. Which of the following is not a measure of

dispersion ?

(A) Quartile Deviation

(B) Standard Deviation

(C) Kurtosis

(D) Chi-square

38. ����$� 8�" �-:"#��.��)�2"�r�; ���+�'l����0��+�'k�������$� 8�"

�����#��+�'p"���"<*���p6"#���#N%������

(A) �$�"!#������8��������

(B) ��������U8$�/�����8��������

(C) ��+�'��$���y#������8��������

(D) "��-:"��4���y#������8��������

39. #6� ����+40�����V�#,� "x-�"�"���� !���#N%������+40!�

����� ��� �6�

(A) j* Q�#������������

(B) ; #������������

(C) �)�2"D�"#��

(D) �/�����0���%���

40. #6� ��$56"���$������������#�� �#4��

(A) ������+41 8�"�0���%���

(B) "<*���p6"#���0���%���

(C) #��#��������

(D) #����=/.�U+I'

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41. The Universe for a research studycomprises of 60000 students from ruraland urban colleges, boys and girls,students of various social groups. Identifythe best method of sampling.

(A) Purposive sampling

(B) Stratified sampling

(C) Quota sampling

(D) Stratified random sampling

42. Identify the verbal test from the givenstandard tests used in educationalresearch

(A) Make a Picture Story Test (MAPS)

(B) Koh’s Block Design Test

(C) Attitude scale

(D) Raven’s Progressive Matrices

43. Match the following activities :

I II

(a) Print media (p) KuchipudiDance

(b) Electronic (q) Telugumedia News Paper

(c) Folk media (r) Tele conferencing

by IGNOU

(d) Mass media (s) Street plays

(A) (aq) (br) (cs) (dp)

(B) (ar) (bp) (cq) (ds)

(C) (aq) (br) (dp) (cs)

(D) (aq) (br) (cp) (ds)

41. }#������8���������;�����-�"��� �#��/ �08�"U ��(universe)

; 5C"�"�4Kp"r����Hp"�"<* ����#��D)8$%��V���������J#���,�00�����j*���X#����/���T%#������ �����60000��� ��)%��)?#��%O�;�����������"��!����-�"����(sampling)

�����n!������� ��� �6�

(A) ��,�P8�"����L+�'U#���"��!���-�"��� �(purposive

sampling)

(B) �/�3#�� ����"��!���-�"��� (stratified sampling)

(C) #�5)�"��!���-�"��� (Quota sampling)

(D) �/�3#�� ����-�"���� RS#���"��!���-�"��� (stratified random sampling)

42. 0�$�� ���8��������������-:"�@ �,�� "<*���p6"#����#�� �>��V8$�P#����#���>��������� ��� �6�O

(A) ����y%�#��q���������-�"�+�'��,�=/���3&���(MAPS)

(B) #���)V#I���6�(:"��Z����3&��(C) ���Q��������

(D) +4���Z��"<�"���B/Z�����"!#��%

43. #6� ��#�� �$�%����z�����+�'��� �6�I II

(a) ��"���p)������������% (p) #���R��L�6����� ���� (b) W�:"�#4H�#I�������������% (q) ���%����$+4����"!#��(c) ()��������������������% (r) IGNOU

5:"?#4����+�'�s �I�(d) z���������������% (s) K����$�#4%

(A) (aq), (br), (cs), (dp)

(B) (ar), (bp), (cq), (ds)

(C) (aq), (br), (dp), (cs)

(D) (aq), (br), (cp), (ds)

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44. 2 GB RAM, 3MB RAM, are common terms

used while checking on the efficiency of a

computer. RAM means

(A) Read All Materials

(B) Random Access Materials

(C) Random Access Memory

(D) Reliable Access Memory

45. You need to send an executive summary

of 12 pages of a report of 120 pages on

ICT in college education to 20 experts in

the field by E-Mail. Identify the appropriate

sequence from the following steps

(i) E-Mail Id

(ii) Attachment

(iii) Send

(iv) Compose

(A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(B) (iv) , (i), (ii) and (iii)

(C) (iii), (iv), (i) and (ii)

(D) (iv), (ii), (i) and (iii)

46. Information Technology is the generic

name performing the following functions

(A) Data storage

(B) Data retrieval

(C) Data communication

(D) All of above

44. 2 GB RAM, 3MB RAM ;���'0� #�� ��L��+I'

j*��+41���'� ���~? �,�� �/ ���+�'{ ��� $�,�� j*��$+�'p"

���9)�>%O RAM�; 5C"

(A) 3�I��t�Z"���5|"�-�"�Z"s

(B) +4 ���Z��-�"�#��su/���5|"�-�"�Z"s

(C) +4 ���Z��-�"�#��su/�����3

(D) +�'?-�"F�Z"�-�"�#��su/�����3

45. #��D)8$%�0�������aB/56"�K���� 120� =�h%��,��#����

12�=�h%�W#6��#����56"Z��j*+4 8$�'���+�' ��� ����20

�� �����Jp"%#���A��J�G���+'�Z"��$U+4� �� <*?O

#6� ��j�<*�$%��/��R����"#������'������ ��� �6�

(i) G���+'�Z"�a�6�

(ii) ;5)�Z��� 5Z"

(iii) E/ �I�

(iv) #�� <�(Z"

(A) (i), (ii), (iii) ���-�" (iv)

(B) (iv) , (i), (ii) ���-�" (iii)

(C) (iii), (iv), (i) ���-�" (ii)

(D) (iv), (ii), (i) ���-�" (iii)

46. #6� ��"��-:"�z�$%�����+�'UB2" �,���$��j*��$+�'p"��$��

G����+,'y�>�Z��5:"#4'%h

(A) ����$� 8�" ��%��

(B) ����$� 8$�'�!�@�<� ������

(C) ����$� 8�"�"��j*+�'p"

(D) E����A'

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47. Information is stored in a computer in

(A) Random Access Memory

(B) CD-ROM

(C) Read Only Memory

(D) All of above

48. The best economic method of Data

Processing is

(A) Batch processing

(B) Transaction processing

(C) Distributed processing

(D) Real time processing

49. Of the total energy consumption in India,

domestic consumption is in the range of

(A) 10 to 15 percent

(B) 25 to 40 percent

(C) 40 to 60 percent

(D) 60 to 70 percent

50. Identify from the following the disease

which is independent of pollution

(A) Tuberculosis

(B) Bronchitis

(C) Peptic ulcer

(D) Gastroenteritis

47. #�� ��L��+I'����/����$+4�'�G �������%����,�j*�+�'

(A) +4 ���Z��-�"�#��su/�����3

(B) B/�6����t+I'�W

(C) 3�I���AV�����3

(D) E����A'

48. �,�5)�"<*E/B/ ������;���� ����<����E�����������n!

(A) �)��Z��"<*E/B/ �I�

(B) "5)�$s&���Z��"<*E/B/ �I�

(C) �6��B/HF��5:"�I��"<*E/B/ �I�

(D) �-�"�Z"�5:"� �"<*E/B/ �I�

49. 9)+ �'� ��� ,�8 � " � ��� �� � � 0�����U�-: "���� ��

��� T���/+4%#���0�-:"���� ������������ � �

(A) 10���� �6��15�8$���

(B) 25���� �6��40�8$���

(C) 40���� �6��60�8$���

(D) 60���� �6��70�8$���

50. #6� �� +��4%��� #4%�*��#6�� �/ F ���� � �C"�� +��4�'

����� ��� �6�

(A) &��-�"

(B) "�) #���56"u/��+N��y���6�E/ �

(C) z��'+�'"��� ���/ F �������������J ���

(D) �4�"j�H�W �+�'�56"u/

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51. Identify the fossil fuels from the followingcontributors to global warming(i) Coal(ii) Oil(iii) Gas(iv) Bio-waste

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(C) (iii), (iv) and (i)

(D) (i), (ii) and (iv)

52. Match the following :

I II

(a) Hydro-Electric (p) Depletingsource of source ofEnergy raw material

(b) Solar Energy (q) Expensive perunit cost

(c) Thermal Energy (r) Difficult to getraw materials

(d) Nuclear Energy (s) Sustainablesource

(A) (aq) (br) (cs) (dp)

(B) (ar) (bs) (cp) (dq)

(C) (aq) (bs) (cp) (dr)

(D) (ar) (bp) (cs) (dq)

53. Identify the chief sources of pollution fromthe following :

(A) Autorickshaws, lorries and coaloperated trains

(B) Food, air and water

(C) Uncovered sewage tracks, tank-bedsof stagnant ponds and public wells

(D) Hotels, hospitals and cremationgrounds

51. 9�"���D�"� �$�� � E�+�'����$�#6� (Global warming)=2"�����J�:"�����#6� �$56"���o�)z�G �����$�C"0��(i) �����l(ii) �����+�'(iii) �/�2"z�$-�"��J(iv) h������+�'1�G �����$%

(A) (i), (ii) ���-�" (iii)(B) (ii), (iii) ���-�" (iv)

(C) (iii), (iv) ���-�" (i)(D) (i), (ii) ���-�" (iv)

52. #6� ��$56"��z�����+�'��� �6�I II

(a) z%�0�����Z��8�"#6��������+�' (p) ���6���/+�'#��%�����+�'����@l<������

(b) jm+�'8�"#6�� (q) -�"��5Z"�����+�'Q+�'M�W#��.��

(c) q��+�'y�Z"�0�����Z� (r) ���6��/+�'#��%�/ <* � ������ #���>H

(d) ;p"�0�����Z� (s) ���<�B>��������+�'

(A) (aq), (br), (cs), (dp)

(B) (ar), (bs), (cp), (dq)

(C) (aq), (bs), (cp), (dr)

(D) (ar), (bp), (cs), (dq)

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Page 21: AP Set Physical Sciences Question Papers of July 2012 and Keys PDF

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54. The slogan ‘A tree for each child’ wascoined for

(A) Social Forestry Programme

(B) Clean Air Programme

(C) Social Conservation Programme

(D) Environmental Protection Programme

55. Identify any three common problems ofdistance education courses from thefollowing :

(i) Study materials are not easilyavailable

(ii) Study centres are not adequatelyequipped

(iii) Academic guidance and counsellingby expert teams is inadequate

(iv) There is no regular personal contactwith teachers

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(C) (iii), (iv) and (i)

(D) (i), (ii) and (iv)

56. Corporate Governance in HigherEducation means

(A) Governance of Colleges/Universitiesby Corporate Houses (industries)

(B) Participation of university faculty ingovernance of Colleges/Universities

(C) Inclusion of Corporate Houses asmembers on governing councils ofColleges/Universities

(D) Financing of Universities/Colleges byCorporate Houses

54. ��"��!�B�%V$�6�#|��}#�������H��;���'���$�$�'�[+�'7+�'����$�#6�#4+�'p"

(A) j*���X#���;�����J%�#4+�'�"#���� (B) �/U���S��������4?�#4+�'�"#���� (C) j*���X#����/ +�'&��p"�#4+�'�"#���� (D) ��+4���+�'p"����+�'&��p"�#4+�'�"#����

55. ����+�'�0�$�#�+�'s%�W���+N.�,�� ������� j*��$+�'p"�/���/�%����#6� �$56"���� �6������� ��� �6�

(i) ;�����-�"����j*��"@��,�?#���4�%9�"� �#4#��<������

(ii) ;�����-�"����#,� "�$%����@��� ����4�j*���������/ ��!�

#��?@�� ���#���<������

(iii) ���Jp"%� z�V� �$U+4�0�$����y#��� ���+�'l���+�'k��� r�/%T%����@��� ����%9�"� �#4#��<������

(iv) ;��$���#��%���"#����F���n����������#6��������� �/ F ���� �C"#��<������

(A) (i), (ii) ���-�" (iii)

(B) (ii), (iii) ���-�" (iv)

(C) (iii), (iv) ���-�" (i)

(D) (i), (ii) ���-�" (iv)

56. ����'����0�������#4+N7+,'5Z"�<*%����; 5C"

(A) #��D)8$%% 08�"U0�$�%-�"�%���� ���"8�"��%-�"�z����$�%��+�'UB2" ������

(B) #��D)8$%% 08�"U0�$�%-�"�%�<*%�����08�"U0�$�%-�"��������$�B/Fw ��9)���j*U���

(C) #��D)8$%% 08�"U0�$�%-�"�%�<*%#��� �/ �/1%��

���"8�"��%�-�"�z����$�%#����/9�"����U �#��?7 ������

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Page 22: AP Set Physical Sciences Question Papers of July 2012 and Keys PDF

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57. The famous statement ‘Tolerance, Humanismand Universal Reason’ are the valuessymbolised by University Education wasmade by

(A) Mahatma Gandhi

(B) Dr. D.C. Kothari

(C) Jawaharlal Nehru

(D) Rabindranath Tagore

58. Identify the pure discipline of knowledgeas against applied disciplines

(A) Medical Education

(B) Technical Education

(C) Management Education

(D) General Education

59. ICSSR means

(A) Indian Centre for Science and SocietyResearch

(B) Indian Council of Social SciencesResearch

(C) Indian Conference of Social SciencesResearch

(D) Indian Council for Science, Societyand Rehabilitation

60. NAAC means

(A) National Assessment andAccreditation Council

(B) National Assessment andAccreditation Centre

(C) National Aviation and AeronauticsCentre

(D) National Accreditation andAccountability Council

57. ��/�2"��� r������������U r�j*+�'Uz�#���;�"<*-�" ��;���'0

08�"U0�$�%-�"�0����#���"��]#���:"�����0%��%���'�"��B/���n�$#���

�-�"����

(A) ��T�$y�4 �x

(B) �$O��6�OB/O�#N�4�

(C) z���2"+4V�Z"�����"�2"�

(D) +�'¡ "����$qI��5)��+I'

58. ;���"��-�"#����()i����8$Q%���<�?M����������8�"���n�������#,���%

()i����8$Q

(A) �������0����

(B) j* #,�!#���0����

(C) ,��,�(Z"�� 5Z"�0����

(D) j*��$+�'p"�0����

59. ICSSR�; 5C"

(A) G �6�-�"�Z��E/ �+I'��v+I'�E/��Z�s�; �I��j�E/�5|"�3E/+I'M

(B) G �6�-�"�Z��#¢�s�Z"�tuv�j��>�Z"�E/����su/�3E/+I'M

(C) G �6�-�"�Z���#4����+�'�Z�s�tuv�j��>�Z"�E/����su/�3E/+I'M

(D) G �6�-�"�Z�� #¢�s�Z"� �v+I'� E/��Z�sr� j�E/�5 |"�; �I�

�T�?5C"�>�Z�

60. NAAC�; 5C"

(A) �,��>����Z"�;E/u/�� 5Z"�; �I��;"#���6�5C"�>�Z��#¢�s�Z"

(B) �,��>����Z"�;E/u/�� 5Z"�; �I��;"#���6�5C"�>�Z��E/ �+I'

(C) �,��>����Z"��[0-C"�>�Z��; �I��[+��$56"#I�s�E/ �+I'

(D) �,��>����Z"�;"#���6�5C"�>�Z��; �I��;#¢ ��?5|"�#¢�s�Z"___________________

Page 23: AP Set Physical Sciences Question Papers of July 2012 and Keys PDF

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Space for Rough Work

Page 24: AP Set Physical Sciences Question Papers of July 2012 and Keys PDF

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Space for Rough Work

Page 25: AP Set Physical Sciences Question Papers of July 2012 and Keys PDF

Q.No KEY Q.No KEY Q.No KEY1 C 26 B 51 A2 B 27 B 52 C3 B 28 C 53 A4 C 29 B 54 D5 C 30 A 55 A6 D 31 C 56 B7 B 32 D 57 C8 B 33 C 58 D9 D 34 C 59 B

10 B 35 C 60 A11 C 36 D12 A 37 B13 A 38 A14 B 39 D15 C 40 D16 D 41 D17 B 42 C18 A 43 D19 A 44 C20 C 45 B21 C 46 D22 D 47 C23 A 48 A24 C 49 A25 C 50 C

PAPER – I (GENERAL PAPER ) (W – SERIES)

Page 26: AP Set Physical Sciences Question Papers of July 2012 and Keys PDF

Test Paper : II

Test Subject : PHYSICAL SCIENCES

Test Subject Code : A-16-02

Test Booklet Serial No. : ______________________

OMR Sheet No. : ________________________________

Hall Ticket No.

(Figures as per admission card)

Name & Signature of Invigilator

Name : ____________________________________ Signature : ___________________________________

Paper : IISubject : PHYSICAL SCIENCES

Time : 1 Hour 15 Minutes Maximum Marks : 100

Number of Pages in this Booklet : 8 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 50

Instructions for the Candidates1. Write your Hall Ticket Number in the space provided on the top

of this page.2. This paper consists of fifty multiple-choice type of questions.3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet will

be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested to openthe booklet and compulsorily examine it as below :(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper

seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept a bookletwithout sticker-seal and do not accept an open booklet.

(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions inthe booklet with the information printed on the coverpage. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missingor duplicate or not in serial order or any otherdiscrepancy should be got replaced immediately by acorrect booklet from the invigilator within the periodof 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Bookletwill be replaced nor any extra time will be given.

(iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet Numbershould be entered in the OMR Sheet and the OMR SheetNumber should be entered on this Test Booklet.

4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C)and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on thecorrect response against each item.

Example : A B C D

where (C) is the correct response.

5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR Sheetgiven to you. If you mark at any place other than in the circle inthe Answer Sheet, it will not be evaluated.

6. Read instructions given inside carefully.7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet.8. If you write your name or put any mark on any part of the OMR

Answer Sheet, except for the space allotted for the relevantentries, which may disclose your identity, you will render yourselfliable to disqualification.

9. You have to return the test question booklet and OMR AnswerSheet to the invigilators at the end of the examination compulsorilyand must not carry it with you outside the Examination Hall.

10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited. 12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers.

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10. �W��� ������� ��XY� Z���������� Z���� Z������������������� [�������11. �Y�� \ ��� Z����!�"�� Z�]^�#$%#� �%�!�&� _���^�̀ �a#$ b'# _ ��� #� �$����(��������� ���)���*+� �� ,�-

���� [�������.����'/01�����12. ��� ��c��2����1����#� ����������d������3���4��!������

II� 1 A-16-02

Page 27: AP Set Physical Sciences Question Papers of July 2012 and Keys PDF

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II� 2 A-16-02

Page 28: AP Set Physical Sciences Question Papers of July 2012 and Keys PDF

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II� 3 A-16-02

PHYSICAL SCIENCES

Paper – II

1. If ABCD is a rectangle of size 1 X 2, thenthe angle between the diagonals AC andBD is

(A) Cos–1(1/5)

(B) Cos–1(2/5)

(C) Cos–1(3/5)

(D) Cos–1(4/5)

2. If A = ⎥⎦

⎤⎢⎣

⎡ −b3

2a has eigen values 2, 3, then

a, b are(A) 2, 3 (B) 4, 1(C) 6, –1 (D) 5, 0

3. If ∫ = 0dr.o f�

over a closed curve, then

(A) ×∇ f�

= 0 (B) ∇ . f�

= 0

(C) f�

� 2∇=� (D) f�

� ×∇=�

4. If f�

is a vector of constant magnitude, then

f�

d /dt =

(A) f�

(B) 0

(C) normal to f�

(D) k f�

5. If f(z) = 1/(1 – cos z), then the singularityz=0 is of order(A) 0 (B) 1(C) 2 (D) 3

6. If A = ⎥⎦

⎤⎢⎣

⎡ −40

21, A = B + C where B is

symmetric, C is skew symmetric, then B =

(A) ⎥⎦

⎤⎢⎣

⎡21

11(B) ⎥

⎤⎢⎣

⎡−

−41

11

(C) ⎥⎦

⎤⎢⎣

⎡−

−21

12/1(D) ⎥

⎤⎢⎣

⎡−

−11

12

7. =+++ ...51

31

1 22

(A) 4/π (B) 8/2π

(C) π (D) 2π

8. If ⎩⎨⎧

≤≤π−−π<≤

0or1

0or1

xf

xf , f(x) is expanded

in sine series as f(x) = nb∑ sin nx, then b1 =

(A) 1/ π (B) 2 / π(C) 4 / π (D) 0

9. If f(x) = x for 0 ≤ x ≤ 2, f(x) is expanded in

Fourier series, then the constant term in

the series is

(A) 0 (B) 1

(C) 2 (D) 3

10. y ′′ + y= sin2x, then the particular integral

of the solution is

(A) sin2x / 3 (B) cos2x / 3

(C) 2 /3 sin2x (D) –1/ 3 sin2x

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II� 4 A-16-02

11. The distribution whose mean and

variance are equal is

(A) Binomial (B) normal

(C) poisson (D) uniform

12. If f(z) is expanded in Taylor series, then

the region of convergence is

(A) annular

(B) circular

(C) entire

(D) upper half of z plane

13. If f(z) = 1/(z – a), then the integral dz)z(o f∫over the circle |z – a| = 1 is(A) 2 π i (B) – 2 π i(C) π i (D) 0

14. If y′+ y/x = x, then the integrating factor of

the equation is(A) ex (B) x(C) 1/x (D) Log x

15. If the solutions of a differential equation

are nonintersecting, then the differential

equation could be

(A) exact (B) homogeneous

(C) nonlinear (D) linear

16. A particle moving under the action of

central force, the parameter which remain

constant is

(A) Potential energy

(B) Total energy

(C) Angular momentum

(D) None of the above

17. Compound pendulum is a perfectly rigidbody oscillating under the force of gravityabout(A) Horizontal axis which does not pass

through the center of gravity(B) Horizontal axis which passes through

the center of gravity(C) Vertical axis passing through the

center of gravity(D) None of the above

18. div B=0, imply that(A) Magnetic monopoles only occur(B) Magnetic dipoles only occur(C) Electric mono and dipole occur(D) None of the above

19. .Bo∫ ds = 0, imply

(A) Gauss’s law of electrostatics(B) Gauss’s law of magnetism(C) Gauss’s law of dielectrics(D) None of the above

20. Wave packets represent particles havingprecise values of(A) Momentum and energy(B) Position and momentum(C) Time and energy(D) None of the above

21. In a quantum oscillator, there is a finiteprobability of finding the particle outside the(A) Parabolic potential barrier(B) Potential well(C) Potential hill(D) None of the above

22. A nibble consist of(A) Two bits (B) Four bits(C) Eight bits (D) Sixteen bits

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II� 5 A-16-02

23. The diffusion capacitance of a p-n junctionis(A) Inversely proportional to life time of

carriers(B) Directly proportional to life time of

carriers(C) Independent of life time of carriers(D) None of the above

24. Relativistic kinetic energy is the sum of(A) Non relativistic kinetic energy and rest

mass(B) Non relativistic kinetic energy and

potential energy(C) Sum of the squares of non relativistic

kinetic energy and potential energy(D) None of the above

25. An autonomous non conservative systemis said to be dissipative, then the vibrationis known as(A) Damped vibration(B) Un-damped vibration(C) Self oscillatory(D) None of the above

26. Lagrange’s equation of motion isdescribed by(A) Second order differential equation(B) Energy consideration not by force(C) Hamilton’s principle of conservative

system(D) All the above

27. In the relativistic generalisation of

Newton’s laws

(A) Fourth component of force and

momentum must be introduced

(B) Differentiation cannot be performed

with respect to time

(C) Both A and B are to be considered

(D) None of the above

28. Time dependent Schrodinger waveequation is not relativistically invariant, since

(A) It has first derivative in time

(B) Second derivative in spacecoordinates

(C) It is relativistically invariant

(D) Both A and B

29. Heisenberg uncertainty principle may beapplied to

(A) Determine ground state of Hydrogenatom

(B) Determine width of spectral line

(C) Prove the non-existence of electronsin nucleus

(D) All the above

30. The total energy or Hamiltonian of apoly-atomic molecule is given by

(A) Translational energy

(B) Vibrational energy

(C) Rotational energy

(D) Sum of the all the above energies

31. The Fermi energy level in a semiconductorchanges with

(A) n type doping

(B) p type doping

(C) concentration of doping

(D) all the above

32. Ideal operational amplifier has

i) High input impedence

ii) High output impedence

iii) Infinite loop gain

(A) i) and ii) are correct, iii) is wrong

(B) ii) and iii) are correct, i) is wrong

(C) i) and iii) are correct, ii) is wrong

(D) ii) is correct, i) and iii) are wrong

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II� 6 A-16-02

33. Choose the correct options from the following:i) Weighted resistor and R-2R ladder

networks are D/A techniquesii) Dual slope and successive

approximation are A/D techniquesiii) Thermocouple and piezo-electric

devices are passive transducers(A) i) and ii) are correct, iii) is wrong(B) ii) and iii) are correct, i) is wrong(C) iii) and i) are correct, ii) is wrong(D) i) , ii) , iii) are correct

34. Identify the order of invention of thefollowing:(A) BJT, Diode, FET, Microprocessor(B) Diode, BJT, FET, Microprocessor(C) BJT, Diode, Microprocessor, FET(D) Diode, FET, BJT, Microprocessor

35. Assertion A : Ge, Si cannot be used toconstruct LEDs

Reason R : Their Eg is small(A) A and R are true, and R is the correct

explanation(B) A and R are true but R is not the

correct explanation(C) A is true but R is false(D) A is false but R is true

36. Choose the correct options from the following:

i) The maximum energy of a free electronat 0° K is E

f

ii) The average energy of a free electronat 0° K is (3/5) E

f

iii) The most probable energy of electronin conduction band of semiconductoris (½) KT above the bottom of the band

(A) i) and ii) are correct, iii) is wrong(B) ii) and iii) are correct, i) is wrong(C) iii) and i) are correct, ii) is wrong(D) i) , ii) , iii) are correct

37. SIM refers to(A) Select interrupt mask(B) Sorting interrupt mask(C) Set interrupt mask(D) None of the above

38. The storage cell in an S RAM is(A) A flip-flop(B) A capacitor(C) A fuse(D) A magnetic domain

39. The time taken for the data to appear atthe data output of ROMchip after anaddress is applied at the address inputlines is

(A) Write time (B) Recycle time

(C) Refresh time (D) Access time

40. Assertion A : The conducting walls of thewave guide confine theelectromagnetic fieldsand thereby guide theelectromagnetic wave

Reason R : When the waves travellongitudinally down theguide, the plane waves arereflected from wall to wall

(A) A is true but R is false

(B) Both A and R are true

(C) A is false but R is true

(D) Both A and R are false

41. Luminescence is because of

(A) Photons emitted while excitedelectrons drops down

(B) Knocking out of electrons by photons

(C) Photons stimulated by photons

(D) All

Page 32: AP Set Physical Sciences Question Papers of July 2012 and Keys PDF

�������

II� 7 A-16-02

42. Fluorescence occurs within(A) 10–5 s (B) 10–5 ms(C) 10–5 s (D) 10–5 ns

43. The ratio of conduction current density todisplacement current density is(A) ωεσ / (B) σεω /(C) σωε / (D) εωσ /

44. The depth of penetration of EM wave in aconductor(A) Increases with increase in frequency

of the wave(B) Decreases with increase in

conductivity of the material(C) Increases with increase in

permeability of the medium(D) Independent of all the above

45. Power radiated by an electric dipole is(A) Directly proportional to the square of

the frequency(B) Inversely proportional to the square of

the frequency(C) Directly proportional to the fourth

power of the frequency(D) Inversely proportional to the third

power of the frequency46. Superposition of two circularly polarised

lights having same frequency andamplitude but rotating in oppositedirections give rise to(A) Circularly polarised light(B) Elliptically polarised light(C) Plane polarised light(D) Randomly polarized light

47. When plane polarised EM wavepropagates between two parallelconducting platesI) Tangential component of the electric

field must be zero at all points on the wallII) Tangential component of magnetic

field must be zero at all points on the wall(A) I is wrong and II is correct(B) II is wrong and I is correct(C) Both I and II are wrong(D) Both I and II are correct

48. If Vp , Vg and C are phase velocity, group

velocity and free space velocity of

EM wave then

(A) Vp > V

g

(B) Vp < V

g

(C) (Vp) ( V

g) = C

(D) (Vp) (V

g) = C2

49. Choose the correct options from the

following:

I) Stationary charge produces electric

field

II) Moving charge produces magnetic

field

III) Change in electric field does not

produce magnetic field

(A) I) and II) are correct, III) is wrong

(B) II) and III) are correct, I) is wrong

(C) I) and III) are wrong and II) is correct

(D) I) , II) , III) are correct

50. The magnetic field produced by a wire

bent in the form of a parabola carrying

current I at its focus, given that d is the

distance from the focus to the apex is

(A) 0μ NI/L

(B) 0μ I/2 π d

(C) 0μ I/4 d

(D) 0μ I/4 π d

μ

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II� 8 A-16-02

Space for Rough Work

Page 34: AP Set Physical Sciences Question Papers of July 2012 and Keys PDF

Q.No KEY Q.No KEY1 C 26 D2 D 27 C3 A 28 D4 C 29 D5 C 30 D6 B 31 D7 B 32 C8 C 33 A9 B 34 B

10 D 35 A11 C 36 D12 B 37 C13 A 38 B14 B 39 D15 D 40 B16 C 41 A17 A 42 B18 B 43 A19 B 44 B20 B 45 C21 A 46 C22 B 47 B23 B 48 D24 A 49 A25 A 50 C

PHYSICAL SCIENCES PAPER II(SUBJECT CODE- 16)

Page 35: AP Set Physical Sciences Question Papers of July 2012 and Keys PDF

Test Paper : III

Test Subject : PHYSICAL SCIENCES

Test Subject Code : A-16-03

Test Booklet Serial No. : ______________________

OMR Sheet No. : ________________________________

Hall Ticket No.

(Figures as per admission card)

Name & Signature of Invigilator

Name : ____________________________________ Signature :___________________________________

Paper : IIISubject : PHYSICAL SCIENCES

Time : 2 Hours 30 Minutes Maximum Marks : 150

Number of Pages in this Booklet : 16 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 75

Instructions for the Candidates1. Write your Hall Ticket Number in the space provided on the top

of this page.2. This paper consists of seventy five multiple-choice type of

questions.3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet will

be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested to openthe booklet and compulsorily examine it as below :(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper

seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept a bookletwithout sticker-seal and do not accept an open booklet.

(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions inthe booklet with the information printed on the coverpage. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missingor duplicate or not in serial order or any otherdiscrepancy should be got replaced immediately by acorrect booklet from the invigilator within the periodof 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Bookletwill be replaced nor any extra time will be given.

(iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet Numbershould be entered in the OMR Sheet and the OMR SheetNumber should be entered on this Test Booklet.

4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C)and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on thecorrect response against each item.

Example : A B C D

where (C) is the correct response.

5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR Sheetgiven to you. If you mark at any place other than in the circle inthe Answer Sheet, it will not be evaluated.

6. Read instructions given inside carefully.7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet.8. If you write your name or put any mark on any part of the OMR

Answer Sheet, except for the space allotted for the relevantentries, which may disclose your identity, you will render yourselfliable to disqualification.

9. You have to return the test question booklet and OMR AnswerSheet to the invigilators at the end of the examination compulsorilyand must not carry it with you outside the Examination Hall.

10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited. 12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers.

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III � 1 A-16-03

Page 36: AP Set Physical Sciences Question Papers of July 2012 and Keys PDF

�������

III � 2 A-16-03

Page 37: AP Set Physical Sciences Question Papers of July 2012 and Keys PDF

�������

III � 3 A-16-03

1. For second order differential equation

L (y) = f (x), Green’s function is G (x, t). Then

(A) L(G) = f

(B) t)(x,G′ is discontinuous at x = t

(C) G exists for IVP

(D) ∫= dt)G(Ly

2. One dimensional wave equation in x, t

admits a solution which is

(A) Oscillating in t and x

(B) Oscillating in x and exponential in t

(C) Oscillating in t and exponential in x

(D) Exponential in x and t

3. One dimensional heat conduction

equation 2

2

x

uk

t

u

∂∂=

∂∂

admits a solution

which is

(A) Oscillating in t and exponential in x

(B) Exponential in t, oscillating in x

(C) Exponential in x and t

(D) Oscillating in x and t

PHYSICAL SCIENCES

Paper – III

4. The iterative scheme for square root of a

number N in x = √N is xn+1 =

(A) ½ ( )nx/1N +

(B) ½ ( )nn x/Nx +

(C) ½ ( )nn x/N2x −

(D) xn − 2N/x

n

5. If at x = 0, 1, 2, 3 and y is estimated by

Lagrangian interpolation, then Lagrangian

function for x = 3 is

(A) ½ x(x − 1)(x − 2)

(B) − (x − 1)(x − 2)(x − 3)/6

(C) x(x − 1)(x − 2)/6

(D) x(x − 1)(x − 2)(x − 3)/6

6. By Simpson’s one third formula,

Quadrature =∫2

0

x

xydx

(A) 2h ( ) 3yy4y 210 +−

(B) h( ) 3yy4y 210 +−

(C) h( ) 3yy4y 210 ++

(D) h( ) 3yy2y 210 ++

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III � 4 A-16-03

7. The solution of dy/dx = f (x, y) with y (x0) = y0

by Runge Kutta 4th order method at x = x1

is y1 =

(A) y0 − ¼ ( )4321 kk2k2k +−−

(B) y0 + ( ) 6kk2k2k 4321 +++

(C) y0 + ¼ ( )4321 kk2k2k +−−

(D) y0 + ( ) 3kkkk 4321 +−−

8. If y1 = 2, y2 = 4, y3 = 5, the second order

approximation at x = x2 (for h= ½ ) for

dy/dx =

(A) 12

(B) 9

(C) ¾

(D) 3

9. If x,yy =−′′ the appropriate difference

scheme at x = xi is

(A) yi + 1

− (2 + h2) yi + y

i − 1 = h2x

i

(B) yi + 1

− (1 + 2h2) yi + y

i − 1 = h2x

i

(C) yi + 1

− 2yi + (1 + 2h) y

i − 1 = h2x

i

(D) yi + 1

− 2h2 yi + y

i − 1 = x

i

10. The partial differential equation

Auxx + Buxy + Cuyy = f is elliptic if

(A) B2 − 4AC > 0

(B) B2 − 4AC = 0

(C) B2 − 4AC < 0

(D) B2 − 4AC = complex

11. If the quantities iA in ix frame are related

to quantities Aj in xj frame by the relation

ji Axjix

A∂∂= , then Ai are called

(A) covariant

(B) contravariant

(C) metric tensors

(D) hyper variant

12. If Aij is symmetric then the number of

independent quantities are

(A) n(n − 1)

(B) ¼ n(2n +1)

(C) ½ n(n − 1)

(D) ½ n(n + 1)

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III � 5 A-16-03

16. According to the Landau theory on

diamagnetism, the diamagnetic

contribution arises due to

(A) spinning motion of electrons

(B) orbital motion of electrons

(C) collective ordering of spins of parallel

electrons

(D) none of the above

17. A photon in a definite spin state

corresponds to a plane electromagnetic

wave with

(A) only right circularly polarized

(B) only left circularly polarized

(C) either right or left circularly polarized

(D) zero momentum

18. Since photons obey BE statistics

(A) they are distinguishable

(B) they are indistinguishable

(C) there can not be number of photons

with same ‘k’(wave vector) and ‘e’

(polarization vector)

(D) none of the above

13. The change from non-ferromagnetic state

to ferromagnetic state is associated with

(A) Phase transition of the first kind

(B) Phase transition of the second kind

(C) No change in the symmetry of the

lattice

(D) No phase transition

14. The theory of co-operative phenomena, by

including all interactions in three

dimensional system is

(A) very easy

(B) very complicated

(C) neither easy nor complicated

(D) neither of the above three

15. A linear Ising chain of spins is not

ferromagnetic because it can be easily

broken. A single break of chain increases

the energy by (where E is the energy of

interaction between spins)

(A) 2E

(B) 4E

(C) 6E

(D) 8E

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III � 6 A-16-03

19. Bose Einstein condensations of

thermodynamic manifestations follows

(A) Second order phase transition

(B) First order phase transition

(C) Neither first order nor second order

phase transition

(D) None of the above

20. A very small particle immersed in liquid

having Brownian motion exhibits a

random type of motion due to

(A) high applied pressure on the particle

(B) medium applied pressure on the

particle

(C) variable applied pressure acting on

the particle

(D) natural thermal fluctuation of

pressure on the particle

21. A random process or stochastic process

is such that the variable ‘x’

(A) depends on independent variable in

well defined manner

(B) does not depend in well defined

manner on independent variable

(C) the variable ‘x’ takes either zero or

infinite value

(D) none of the above

22. The ESR frequency of an unpaired

electron in a magnetic field of 0.3T

( given g = 2, β = 11.274 × 10−24JT−1,

h = 6.627 × 10−34Js) in multiple of 106 Hz is

(A) 8397

(B) 2434

(C) 3126

(D) 4444

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III � 7 A-16-03

23. Which one of the following systems will

show electron spin resonance spectrum?

(A) H (B) H2

(C) Na+ (D) Cl−1

24. In NMR experiment, a given organic

compound with two kinds of protons exhibit

signals at 50 Hz and 200 Hz using 60 MHz

spectrometer. The position of signal at

50 Hz and 200 Hz in δ -scale is

(A) 0.88, 3.33 (B) 0.2, 1.2

(C) 0.1, 0.6 (D) 1.0 , 4.0

25. The rotation spectrum for HCl shows a

series of lines separated by 20.6 cm−1.

The moment of inertia of the molecule is

(A) 2.65 × 10−47 Kg.m2

(B) 3.12 × 10−55 Kg.m2

(C) 4.0 × 10−12 Kg.m2

(D) 16.0 × 108 Kg.m2

26. The number of fundamental vibrational

frequencies in the Infra-red absorption

spectrum of H2O is

(A) 3 (B) 4

(C) 5 (D) 6

27. The planar twisting mode of vibration of

N2O4 is

(A) Raman active

(B) Raman inactive

(C) Infrared active

(D) Neither Raman active nor Infrared

active

28. Which one of the following compounds

absorb ultraviolet radiations?

(A) Acetaldehyde

(B) Cyclohexane

(C) Ethanol

(D) Heptane

29. From extinction rules for face centred cubic

crystals for the ratio of successive allowed

XRD values of h2 + k2 + l2 for FCC crystal is

(A) 1:2:3:4:5:6: ….

(B) 1:2:3:4:5:6:8:….

(C) 3:4:8:11:12: ….

(D) 8:25:34:76: …

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III � 8 A-16-03

30. In a solid the repulsive forces between

atoms depends on

(A) repulsion between positively

charged Nuclei only

(B) negatively charged electronic cloud

of atoms only

(C) it depends both on nuclei and also

electronic cloud of atoms

(D) it will not depend on positive charge

of nuclei and also on negative charge

of surrounding electronic cloud of

atoms

31. The reciprocal lattice to BCC lattice is

(A) BCC lattice

(B) FCC lattice

(C) SC lattice

(D) it is not possible to find the reciprocal

lattice of BCC

32. The elastic scattering of x-ray photon by a

crystal is governed by the wave vector

selection rule (G is a vector in the

reciprocal lattice, K is a wave vector of

incident photon, K1 is the wave vector of

scattered photon)

(A) K1 = K + G (B) G = K

1 + K

(C) K1 = K (D) K = G

33. In the case of insulators, specific heat

of solids is dependent on its

temperature T by

(A) T3 law (B) T-law

(C) T2 law (D) T4 law

34. According to the KP model on band

theory of solids, the atoms in the

periodic lattice are positioned in the

(A) middle of the valley

(B) middle of the barrier

(C) only at the end edges of the

solids

(D) at the boundary line between

valley and the barrier

35. Calculate the frequency of AC current

when a voltage of 1 × 10−6 v is applied

across the two superconductors

which are separated by a thin

insulating layer where tunneling of

electron pair is possible

(A) 286 MHz

(B) 316 MHz

(C) 483.6 MHz

(D) 116 MHz

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III � 9 A-16-03

36. Defect structures are produced when the

composition of an ionic crystal does not

correspond to the stoichiometric formula.

In case of FeO, the vacant cation sites are

produced usually by heating it in

(A) Zinc atmosphere

(B) Oxygen atmosphere

(C) Chlorine atmosphere

(D) Carbon atmosphere

37. Tilt angle of a tilt boundary in BCC iron

(a = 2.87 AU) with edge dislocations 7500 Å

apart is

(A) 5° (B) 8°

(C) 0.02° (D) 16°

38. Most of the liquid crystal cells used in LCD

display are of the type

(A) smetic

(B) twisted nematic

(C) cholestric

(D) none of the above

39. The binding energy of a nucleon in a

nucleus or mass defect per nucleon is

(A) minimum for medium nuclei

(B) maximum for medium nuclei

(C) maximum for heavy nuclei

(D) minimum for heavy nuclei

40. The liquid-drop model of nucleus to

emphasize nuclear structure, possible

oscillations are considered in an

(A) incompressible liquid

(B) compressible liquid

(C) viscous liquid

(D) none of the above

41. The function of a moderator in an atomic

reactor is to

(A) absorb gamma radiation

(B) slow down fast neutrons

(C) release heat energy

(D) none of the above

42. Nuclides which possess same mass

number are known as

(A) isotopes

(B) isobars

(C) isotones

(D) none of the above

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III � 10 A-16-03

43. The concept of Dirac-Hole predicted the

existence of

(A) positron

(B) pair production

(C) electrons possessing negative energy

states

(D) all the above

44. Heavy hydrogen when bombarded with

neutrons artificial hydrogen and tritium are

formed. Tritium is composed of

(A) Proton and three neutrons

(B) Proton and two neutrons

(C) Proton and one neutron

(D) None of the above

45. All quarks possess same spin and baryon

charge, but differ in

(A) strangeness

(B) hypercharge

(C) all quantum numbers of elementary

particles

(D) all the above

46. Anti quarks do not form any part of

(A) mesons

(B) baryons

(C) leptons

(D) hadrons

47. Anti baryons consist of

(A) three quarks

(B) four quarks

(C) two quarks

(D) no quarks

48. Spin Orbit interaction is more predominant

in

(A) Heavy elements

(B) Medium elements

(C) Light elements

(D) Heavy and light elements

49. WKB approximation is based on the

expansion of the wavefunction in powers of

(A) h

(B) h2

(C) h3

(D) none of the above

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III � 11 A-16-03

50. The unit for differential cross section for

scattering is

(A) barn

(B) steredian × cm2

(C) steredian / cm2

(D) steredian / cm3

51. The superposition of infinite number of

spherical waves gives a plane wave, the

individual waves are known as

(A) partial wave

(B) wavefront

(C) cylindrical wave

(D) none of the above

52. Relativistic wave equation provide

(A) relativistic Hamiltonian

(B) first order equation for both space

and time

(C) both the above

(D) none of the above

53. Klein-Gordon equation is applicable for

particles with

(A) zero spin

(B) spin 1/2

(C) spin 3/2

(D) spin 1

54. A relativistic wave equation which

provides a positive definite probability

density, is given by

(A) Dirac equation

(B) Klein-Gordon equation

(C) Noether’s theorem

(D) None of the above

55. The wavefunction derived from the Dirac

relativistic equation, which do not

transform as four vectors are known as

(A) Dirac’s spinors

(B) Fermions

(C) Bosons

(D) None of the above

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III � 12 A-16-03

56. Nuclear magnetic resonance depends on

(A) orientation of nuclear moment

relative to small static applied

magnetic field

(B) orientation of the electron magnetic

moment

(C) orientation of nuclear moment

relative to large static applied

magnetic field

(D) none of the above

57. Threshold population inversion required

for oscillations of laser

i. is proportional to the spontaneous life

time of the upper level

ii. inversely proportional to passive cavity

life time

iii. proportional to passive cavity life time

iv. is inversely proportional to spontaneous

lifetime of the upper level

(A) i and ii are correct

(B) i and iii are correct

(C) ii and iv are correct

(D) iii and iv are correct

58. Assertion (A) : Even in the absence of

collisions and of thermal

motions, line broadening

takes place.

Reason (R ) : Because of the finite life

time of excited state due to

spontaneous emissions.

(A) A and R are true, and R is the correct

explanation

(B) A and R are true but R is not the

correct explanation

(C) A is true but R is false

(D) A is false but R is true

59. Match the following:

I. Doppler 1. Homogeneous

broadening

II. Four level system 2. Ruby laser

III. Collision 3. Inhomogeneous

broadening

IV. Three level 4. He-Ne laser

system

I II III IV

(A) 2 4 1 3

(B) 3 1 4 2

(C) 3 4 1 2

(D) 1 2 3 4

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60. At thermal equilibrium of temperature T,

for h/TK� B<<

(A) Number of stimulated emissions

exceeds the number of spontaneous

emissions

(B) Number of spontaneous emissions

exceeds the number of stimulated

emissions

(C) Number of spontaneous emissions

are equal to the number of stimulated

emissions

(D) Emissions does not take place

61. Q switching of laser can be done by

I. Mechanical switching

II. Faster electronic switching

III. Using saturable absorbers

IV. all the above

(A) I and III are correct

(B) II and III are correct

(C) I, II and III are correct

(D) I and II are correct

62. Ionisation Gauges can measure Vacuum

up to

(A) 10−1 to 10−3mm of Hg

(B) 10−3 to 10−8mm of Hg

(C) Up to 1 mm of Hg

(D) None

63. The temperature of a furnace is increasing

at a rate of 0.20C/Sec.The maximum

possible time constant required for a first

order instrument so that the temperature

is measured with maximum error of 20C.

(A) 4 Sec

(B) 0.4 Sec

(C) 0.1 Sec

(D) 10 Sec

64. The steady State error for unit Ramp input

in the case of instruments following First

Order Response is equal to

(A) Natural Frequency

(B) Damping Ratio

(C) Time Constant

(D) Settling Time

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III � 14 A-16-03

65. Dummy Strain Gauges are used for

(A) Compensation for Temperature

changes

(B) Increasing the sensitivity of the bridge

in which they are used

(C) Calibration of Strain Gauges

(D) None of the above

66. How many Op-Amps are required to

implement the following equation

Vo = − Rf [ ]332211 R/VR/VR/V ++ ?

(A) 1 (B) 2

(C) 3 (D) 4

67. In the Bath Tub Curve representing the

failure rate of components/Instruments, the

Region I of the curve corresponds to

(A) Constant Failure Region

(B) Infant Mortality Region

(C) Wear Out Region

(D) None of the above

68. Which of the following circuits are used in

signal conditioning ?

I. Filters

II. Attenuators

III. Amplifiers

(A) I & II only (B) II & III only

(C) All (D) None

69. Match the following:

I. Chi-Square Test 1. Loading Effects

II. Standard 2. Recovery of

Deviation signal from

noise

III. Impedance 3. Analysis of

Matching Random Errors

IV. Lock-in Detector 4. Feedback

5. Goodness of Fit

I II III IV

(A) 5 3 1 2

(B) 3 4 5 1

(C) 2 1 3 4

(D) 1 2 5 4

70. The number of terms in semi-emperical

mass formula is

(A) 6 (B) 7

(C) 8 (D) 9

71. In a nuclear reaction p+12C → d+11C, by

proton with a laboratory energy of 10MeV

incident on to stationary 12C nucleus, the

equivalent centre of energy of proton is

(A) 9.23 MeV (B) 10.00 MeV

(C) 11.52 MeV (D) 8.46 MeV

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72. Nuclear forces have the following

characteristics:

I. Nuclear forces are saturated

II. Nuclear forces are spin independent

III. Nuclear forces are charge

independent

IV. Nuclear forces are non central forces

(A) I,III and IV are correct

(B) II and III are correct

(C) I, II and III are correct

(D) I and II are correct

73. Physical quantities that are conserved in

a nuclear reaction are

I. Energy

II. Charge

III. Spin

IV. Hyper charge

(A) I, III and IV are correct

(B) I, II and III are correct

(C) I, II and IV are correct

(D) I and IV are correct

74. Assertion (A) : Electrons reside inside

the nucleus.

Reason (R) : Nuclei emit electrons in

beta decay.

(A) A and R are true, and R is the correct

explanation

(B) A and R are true but R is not the

correct explanation

(C) A is true but R is false

(D) A is false but R is true

75. Assertion (A) : Nuclear force is very

attractive.

Reason (R) : Stable nuclei exist in

nature.

(A) A and R are true, and R is the correct

explanation

(B) A and R are true but R is not the

correct explanation

(C) A is true but R is false

(D) A is false but R is true

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III � 16 A-16-03

Space for Rough Work

III � 16 A-16-03

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Q.No KEY Q.No KEY Q.No KEY1 B 26 A 51 A2 A 27 D 52 C3 B 28 A 53 A4 B 29 C 54 A5 C 30 C 55 A6 C 31 B 56 C7 B 32 A 57 A8 D 33 A 58 A9 A 34 A 59 C

10 C 35 C 60 A11 B 36 B 61 C12 D 37 C 62 B13 B 38 B 63 D14 B 39 B 64 C15 A 40 A 65 A16 B 41 B 66 A17 C 42 B 67 B18 B 43 D 68 C19 B 44 B 69 A20 D 45 D 70 B21 B 46 B 71 A22 A 47 A 72 A23 A 48 A 73 B24 A 49 A 74 D25 A 50 A 75 A

PHYSICAL SCIENCES-PAPER-III(SUBJECT CODE- 16)