Test Paper : I Test Subject : GENERAL PAPER Test Subject Code : A-00-01 Test booklet Code : W Test Booklet Serial No. : ______________________ OMR Sheet No. : ________________________________ Hall Ticket No. (Figures as per admission card) Hall Ticket No. ___________________________ (In words) Name & Signature of Invigilator Name : ____________________________________ Signature : ___________________________________ Paper :I Subject : GENERAL PAPER Time : 1 Hour 15 Minutes Maximum Marks : 100 Number of Pages in this Booklet : 24 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 60 Instructions for the Candidates 1. Write your Hall Ticket Number in the space provided on the top of this page. 2. This paper consists of sixty (60) multiple-choice type of questions, out of which the candidate would be required to answer any fifty (50) questions. In the event of the candidate attempting more than fifty questions, the first fifty questions attempted by the candidate would be evaluated. 3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below : (i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept a booklet without sticker-seal and do not accept an open booklet. (ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in the booklet with the information printed on the cover page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing or duplicate or not in serial order or any other discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a correct booklet from the invigilator within the period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be given. (iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet number should be entered in the OMR Sheet and the OMR Sheet Number should be entered on this Test Booklet. 4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on the correct response against each item. Example : A B C D where (C) is the correct response. 5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR Answer Sheet given to you. If you mark at any place other than in the circle in the Answer Sheet, it will not be evaluated. 6. Read instructions given inside carefully. 7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet. 8. If you write your name or put any mark on any part of the Answer Sheet, except for the space allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your identity, you will render yourself liable to disqualification. 9. You have to return the test question booklet and OMR Answer Sheet to the invigilators at the end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. 10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited. 12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers. A¿æýÅÆæÿ$¦ËMæü$ çÜ*^èþ¯èþË$ 1. D ç³#r ò³O ¿êVæüÌZ CÐèþÓºyìþ¯èþ çܦËÌZ Ò$ çàÌý sìýMðüsý ¯èþºÆæÿ$ Æ>Äæý$yìþ. 2. D {ç³Ôèý² ç³{èþÐèþ$$ AÆæÿÐðþO (60) ºçßýâñýO_eMæü {ç³Ôèý²Ë¯èþ$ MæüÍW E¨. Ðésìý ¯èþ$yìþ A¿æýÅǦ HÐðþO¯é Äæý*¿ñýO (50) {ç³Ôèý²ËMæü$ çÜÐèþ*«§é¯é˯èþ$ Væü$Ç¢^éÍ. A¿æýÅǦ Äæý*¿ñýO {ç³Ôèý²ËMæü¯é² GMæü$PÐèþ {ç³Ôèý²ËMæü$ çÜÐèþ*«§é¯éË$ Væü$Ç¢_¯èþrÏÆÿ$$óþ Ððþ$$§æþsìý Äæý*¿ñýO {ç³Ôèý²ËMæü$ Væü$Ç¢_¯èþ ç ÜÐèþ*«§é¯éÌôý Ðèþ$*ÌêÅMæü¯èþ ^óþÄæý$ºyæþéÆÿ$$. 3. ç ³Èæü {´ëÆæÿ¿æýÐèþ$$¯èþ D {ç³Ôé²ç³{èþÐèþ$$ Ò$Mæü$ CÐèþÓºyæþ$èþ$¨. Ððþ$$§æþsìý I§æþ$ °Ñ$çÙÐèþ$$ËÌZ D {ç³Ôé²ç³{èþÐèþ$$¯èþ$ ðþÇ_ Mìü§æþ ðþÍí³¯èþ AÔé˯èþ$ èþç³µ°çÜÇV> çÜÇ^èþ*çÜ$Møyìþ. (i) D {ç³Ôèý² ç³{èþÐèþ$$¯èþ$ ^èþ*yæþyé°Mìü MæüÐèþÆÿõ³h A^èþ$¯èþ E¯èþ² M>Wèþç³# ïÜË$¯èþ$ _^èþyìþ. íÜtMæüPÆÿ ïÜË$Ìôý° Ðèþ$ÇÄæý$$ C¨ÐèþÆæÿMóü ðþÇ_ E¯èþ² {ç³Ôé²ç³{èþÐèþ$$¯èþ$ Ò$Ææÿ$ AXMæüÇ^èþÐèþ§æþ$ª. (ii) MæüÐèþÆæÿ$ õ³h ò³O Ðèþ$${¨_¯èþ çÜÐèþ*^éÆæÿ {ç³M>Ææÿ D {ç³Ôèý²ç³{èþÐèþ$$ÌZ° õ³iË çÜQůèþ$ Ðèþ$ÇÄæý$$ {ç³Ôèý²Ë çÜQůèþ$ çÜÇ^èþ*çÜ$Møyìþ. õ³iË çÜQÅMæü$ çܺ«¨_ V>± Ìôý§é çÜ*__¯èþ çÜQÅÌZ {ç³Ôèý²Ë$ ÌôýMæü´ùÐèþ#r Ìôý§é °f{ç³ M>Mæü´ùÐèþ#r Ìôý§é {ç³Ôèý²Ë$ {MæüÐèþ$糧æþ®ÌZ ÌôýMæü´ùÐèþ#r Ìôý§é HÐðþO¯é óþyéË$yæþ$r Ðèþsìý §øçÙç³NÇèþÐðþ$O¯èþ {ç³Ôèý² ç³{é°² Ððþr¯óþ Ððþ$$§æþsìý I§æþ$ °Ñ$ÚëÌZÏ ç³È> ç ³Ææ ÿÅÐó þæ üMæ ü$°Mì ü ÇW C_aÐó þí Ü §é°Mì ü º§æ þ$Ë$V> ç ÜÇV>Y E¯è þ² { ç ³Ôè ý²ç ³{é°² ¡ç Ü$Møyì þ. èþ§æþ¯èþèþÆæÿ {ç³Ôèý²ç³{èþÐèþ$$ Ðèþ*Ææÿaºyæþ§æþ$ A§æþ¯èþç³# çÜÐèþ$Äæý$ CÐèþÓºyæþ§æþ$. (iii) ò³O Ñ«§æþV> çÜÇ^èþ*çÜ$Mö¯èþ² èþÆ>Óèþ {ç³Ôé²ç³{èþ çÜQůèþ$ OMR ç³{èþÐèþ$$ ò³O A§óþÑ«§æþV> OMR ç ³{èþÐèþ$$ çÜQůèþ$ D {ç³Ôé²ç³{èþÐèþ$$ ò³O °ÇªçÙt çܦËÌZ Æ>Äæý$ÐèþÌñý¯èþ$. 4. {ç³ {ç³Ôèý²Mæü$ ¯éË$Væü$ {ç³éÅÐèþ*²Äæý$ {ç³çܵ§æþ¯èþË$ (A), (B), (C) Ðèþ$ÇÄæý$$ (D) Ë$V> CÐèþÓºyézÆÿ$$. {ç³{ç³Ôèý²Mæü$ çÜÆðÿO¯èþ {ç³çܵ§æþ¯èþ¯èþ$ G¯èþ$²Mö° Mìü§æþ ðþÍí³¯èþ Ñ«§æþV> OMR ç ³{èþÐèþ$$ÌZ {ç³ {ç³Ôé² çÜQÅMæü$ CÐèþÓºyìþ¯èþ ¯éË$Væü$ Ðèþé¢ÌZÏ çÜÆðÿO¯èþ {ç³çܵ§æþ¯èþ¯èþ$ çÜ*_^óþ Ðèþ颰² »êÌý ´ëÆÿ$$sý ò³¯þø Mìü§æþ ðþÍí³¯èþ Ñ«§æþV> ç ³NÇ^éÍ. E§éçßýÆæÿ×ý : A B C D (C) çÜÆðÿO¯èþ {ç³çܵ§æþ¯èþ AÆÿ$$óþ 5. {ç³Ôèý²ËMæü$ {ç³çܵ§æþ¯èþ˯èþ$ D {ç³Ôèý²ç³{èþÐèþ$$ø CÐèþÓºyìþ¯èþ OMR ç ³{èþÐèþ$$ ò³O¯èþ CÐèþÓºyìþ¯èþ Ðèþé¢ÌZϯóþ ç³NÇ_ Væü$Ç¢^éÍ. AÌêM>Mæü çÜÐèþ*«§é¯èþ ç³{èþò³O ÐóþÆöMæü ^ør Væü$Ç¢õÜ¢ Ò$ {ç³çܵ§æþ¯èþ Ðèþ$*ÌêÅMæü¯èþ ^óþÄæý$ºyæþ§æþ$. 6. {ç³Ôèý² ç³{èþÐèþ$$ ÌZç³Ë C_a¯èþ çÜ*^èþ¯èþ˯èþ$ gê{Væüèþ¢V> ^èþ§æþÐèþyìþ. 7. _èþ$¢ ç³°° {ç³Ôèý²ç³{èþÐèþ$$ _ÐèþÆæÿ C_a¯èþ RêäçܦËÐèþ$$ÌZ ^óþÄæý*Í. 8. OMR ç³{èþÐèþ$$ ò³O °È~èþ çܦËÌZ çÜ*_^èþÐèþËíܯèþ ÑÐèþÆ>Ë$ èþí³µ_ CèþÆæÿ çܦËÌZ Ò$ Væü$Ç¢ç³#¯èþ$ ðþÍõ³ Ñ«§æþV> Ò$ õ³Ææÿ$ Æ>Äæý$yæþ V>± Ìôý§é CèþÆæÿ _à²Ë¯èþ$ ò³rtyæþ V>± ^óþíܯèþrÏÆÿ$$óþ Ò$ A¯èþÆæÿáèþMæü$ Ò$Æóÿ »ê«§æþ$ÅËÐèþ#éÆæÿ$. 9. ç ç ³Èæü ç³NÆæÿ¢Æÿ$$¯èþ èþÆ>Óèþ Ò$ {ç³Ôèý²ç³{é°² Ðèþ$ÇÄæý$$ OMR ç ³{é°² èþç³µ°çÜÇV> ç ³Èæü ç³ÆæÿÅÐóþæüMæü$yìþMìü CÐéÓÍ. Ðésìý° ç³Èæü Væü¨ ºÄæý$rMæü$ ¡çÜ$Mæü$ÐðþâæýÏMæü*yæþ§æþ$. 10. ±Í/¯èþËÏ ÆæÿVæü$ »êÌý ´ëÆÿ$$sý ò³¯þ Ðèþ*{èþÐóþ$ Eç³Äñý*W^éÍ. 11. ÌêVæüÇ£æþÐþ$ sôýº$ÌýÞ, M>ÅÍMæü$ÅÌôýrÆÿË$, GË[M>t°Mü ç³ÇMæüÆ>Ë$ Ððþ$$§æþËVæü$¯èþÑ ç³ÈæüVæü¨ÌZ Eç³Äñý*W^èþyæþ °õÙ«§æþ. 12. èþç³ çÜÐèþ*«§é¯éËMæü$ Ðèþ*Ææÿ$PË èþWYç³# Ìôý§æþ$. I * 1 A-00-01
51
Embed
AP Set Physical Sciences Question Papers of July 2012 and Keys PDF
This document is posted to help you gain knowledge. Please leave a comment to let me know what you think about it! Share it to your friends and learn new things together.
Transcript
Test Paper : I
Test Subject : GENERAL PAPER
Test Subject Code : A-00-01
Test booklet Code : W
Test Booklet Serial No. : ______________________OMR Sheet No. : ________________________________
Hall Ticket No.
(Figures as per admission card)
Hall Ticket No. ___________________________ (In words)
Name & Signature of Invigilator
Name : ____________________________________ Signature : ___________________________________
Paper : ISubject : GENERAL PAPER
Time : 1 Hour 15 Minutes Maximum Marks : 100
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 24 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 60
Instructions for the Candidates1. Write your Hall Ticket Number in the space provided on the top of
this page.2. This paper consists of sixty (60) multiple-choice type of questions,
out of which the candidate would be required to answer any fifty (50)questions. In the event of the candidate attempting more thanfifty questions, the first fifty questions attempted by the candidatewould be evaluated.
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet willbe given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested toopen the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below :
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paperseal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept a bookletwithout sticker-seal and do not accept an open booklet.
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions inthe booklet with the information printed on the coverpage. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missingor duplicate or not in serial order or any otherdiscrepancy should be got replaced immediately by acorrect booklet from the invigilator within the periodof 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Bookletwill be replaced nor any extra time will be given.
(iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet numbershould be entered in the OMR Sheet and the OMR SheetNumber should be entered on this Test Booklet.
4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C)and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on thecorrect response against each item.
Example : A B C D
where (C) is the correct response.
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR AnswerSheet given to you. If you mark at any place other than in thecircle in the Answer Sheet, it will not be evaluated.
6. Read instructions given inside carefully.7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet.8. If you write your name or put any mark on any part of the Answer
Sheet, except for the space allotted for the relevant entries,which may disclose your identity, you will render yourself liableto disqualification.
9. You have to return the test question booklet and OMR AnswerSheet to the invigilators at the end of the examination compulsorilyand must not carry it with you outside the Examination Hall.
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited. 12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers.
meeting, I spoke to my audience of this Indiaof ours, of Hindustan and of Bharata, the oldSanskrit name derived from the mythicalfounder of the race.
Sometimes as I reached a gathering, agreat roar of welcome would greet me : BharatMata Ki Jai – ‘Victory to Mother India’. I wouldask them unexpectedly what they meant by thatcry, who was this Bharat Mata, Mother India,whose victory they wanted ? My question wouldamuse them and surprise them, and then, notknowing exactly what to answer they wouldlook at each other and at me. I persisted in myquestioning. At last a vigorous Jat, wedded tothe soil from immemorial generations, wouldsay that it was the dharti, the good earth of India,that they meant. What earth ? Their particularvillage patch, or all the patches in the districtor province, or in the whole of India ? And soquestion and answer went on, till they wouldask me impatiently to tell them all about it. Iwould endeavour to do so and explain that Indiawas all this that they had thought, but it wasmuch more. The mountains and the rivers ofIndia, and the forests and the broad fields,which gave us food, were all dear to us, butwhat counted ultimately were the people ofIndia, people like them and me, who werespread out all over this vast land. Bharat Mata,Mother India, was essentially these millions ofpeople, and victory to her meant victory to thesepeople. You are parts of this Bharat Mata, I toldthem, you are in a manner yourselves, BharathMata and as this idea slowly soaked into theirbrains, their eyes would light up as if they had
13. How did people greet Nehru when he wentto address them ? They greeted him with(A) Bharat Mata Ki Jai(B) Victory to Mother India(C) Jai Bharat Mata Ki(D) Victory to Bharat Mata
14. Who was the person that gave the reply :Bharat Mata means “Dharti” ?
(A) everybody (B) a Jat
(C) a stranger (D) Nehru himself
15. When the villagers were questioned ontheir concept of ‘Dharti’, one of thefollowing answers was not included
(A) Village patch
(B) All patches of the district
(C) Mother Earth
(D) Whole of India
16. Which part of Dharti gives us food ?
(A) Mountains (B) Rivers
(C) Forests (D) Broad fields
17. Victory to ‘Bharat Mata’ means, victory to
(A) People of the village
(B) All the people of India
(C) Millions of people
(D) Freedom fighters of India
18. What was the great discovery made by thevillagers ?
(A) We are all Bharat Mata
(B) Mother Earth is Bharat Mata
(C) Mountains, rivers, forests and fieldsare Bharat Mata
19. Effective classroom communication of ateacher depends upon three of thefollowing four qualities. They are
(i) Content mastery
(ii) Clarity in language teaching(iii) Consistency in presentation
(iv) Completing portions in time
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) (B) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (D) (iii), (iv) and (i)
20. Three of the following four attributes of ateacher will become barriers in effectivecommunication. Identify them(i) Pronunciation of the teacher(ii) Caste status of a teacher(iii) Facial expressions of the teacher(iv) Choice of words
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) (B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (iii), (iv) and (i) (D) (i), (ii) and (iv)
21. Match the following behaviours of teachers
with their communication-type
Behaviours Type
(a) Teacher asks a (p) Symbolicquestion
(b) Teacher writes a (q) Digitaldiagram on theblack board
(c) Teacher shows a (r) Written
CD to children(d) Teacher beckons (s) Oral
a student to draw agraph on the blackboard
(A) (aq), (br), (cs) and (dp)(B) (ar), (bs), (cp) and (dq)(C) (as), (br), (cq) and (dp)(D) (ap), (bq), (cr) and (ds)
27. The letters in the first set have certainrelationship. On the basis of thisrelationship, make the right choice forthe second set
BF : GK : : LP : ?
(A) JK
(B) QU
(C) VW
(D) RQ
28. Select the pair of words which is differentfrom the others
(A) Hard and soft
(B) Hot and cold
(C) Come and arrive
(D) Right and wrong
29. In an examination 25% of the candidatesfailed in Mathematics and 12% in English.If 10% of the candidates failed in both thesubjects and 292 passed in both thesubjects, the total number of candidatesappeared in the examination was
30. If 5472 = 9, 6342 = 6 and 7584 = 6, what is9236 ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
31. Five persons P, Q, R, S and T weretravelling in a car. There were two ladiesin the group. Of the three who knew cardriving, one was a lady. There was onecouple, of which only the wife could drivethe car. P is brother of S. Q, wife of S, droveat the beginning. T drove at the end.
Who was the other lady in the group ?
(A) T
(B) S
(C) R
(D) Data inadequate
32. All the students are boys. All boys aredancers. Which of the following inferencesdefinitely follows from the above twostatements ?
(A) All dancers are boys
(B) All boys are students
(C) All dancers are students
(D) All students are dancers
33. If a rectangle were called a circle, a circlea point, a point a triangle and a triangle asquare, the shape of a wheel is
(A) Rectangle (B) Circle
(C) Point (D) Triangle
30. 5472 = 9, 6342 = 6, 7584 = 6�;+'�,�
9236 = ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
31. P, Q, R, S, T�;�,��;+'������+�'����#���%�}#���#4+�'��
34. Manisha is eleventh from either end of arow of girls. How many girls are there inthat row ?
(A) 19 (B) 20
(C) 21 (D) 22
35. A student who completes any graduatestudies course shall develop three of thefollowing four essential attributes. They are(i) A questioning frame of mind(ii) Skills of survey techniques(iii) Good communication skills(iv) Sensitivity to social problems(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) (B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)(C) (iii), (iv) and (i) (D) (i), (iv) and (ii)
36. There are 600 students in a college. 325are boys and 275 are girls, eachrepresented by a big circle, out of which50 boys and 40 girls are from rural areas,represented by a small circle. Which of thefollowing diagram best represents thedistribution in the college ?
41. The Universe for a research studycomprises of 60000 students from ruraland urban colleges, boys and girls,students of various social groups. Identifythe best method of sampling.
(A) Purposive sampling
(B) Stratified sampling
(C) Quota sampling
(D) Stratified random sampling
42. Identify the verbal test from the givenstandard tests used in educationalresearch
Q.No KEY Q.No KEY Q.No KEY1 C 26 B 51 A2 B 27 B 52 C3 B 28 C 53 A4 C 29 B 54 D5 C 30 A 55 A6 D 31 C 56 B7 B 32 D 57 C8 B 33 C 58 D9 D 34 C 59 B
10 B 35 C 60 A11 C 36 D12 A 37 B13 A 38 A14 B 39 D15 C 40 D16 D 41 D17 B 42 C18 A 43 D19 A 44 C20 C 45 B21 C 46 D22 D 47 C23 A 48 A24 C 49 A25 C 50 C
PAPER – I (GENERAL PAPER ) (W – SERIES)
Test Paper : II
Test Subject : PHYSICAL SCIENCES
Test Subject Code : A-16-02
Test Booklet Serial No. : ______________________
OMR Sheet No. : ________________________________
Hall Ticket No.
(Figures as per admission card)
Name & Signature of Invigilator
Name : ____________________________________ Signature : ___________________________________
Paper : IISubject : PHYSICAL SCIENCES
Time : 1 Hour 15 Minutes Maximum Marks : 100
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 8 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 50
Instructions for the Candidates1. Write your Hall Ticket Number in the space provided on the top
of this page.2. This paper consists of fifty multiple-choice type of questions.3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet will
be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested to openthe booklet and compulsorily examine it as below :(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper
seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept a bookletwithout sticker-seal and do not accept an open booklet.
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions inthe booklet with the information printed on the coverpage. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missingor duplicate or not in serial order or any otherdiscrepancy should be got replaced immediately by acorrect booklet from the invigilator within the periodof 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Bookletwill be replaced nor any extra time will be given.
(iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet Numbershould be entered in the OMR Sheet and the OMR SheetNumber should be entered on this Test Booklet.
4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C)and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on thecorrect response against each item.
Example : A B C D
where (C) is the correct response.
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR Sheetgiven to you. If you mark at any place other than in the circle inthe Answer Sheet, it will not be evaluated.
6. Read instructions given inside carefully.7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet.8. If you write your name or put any mark on any part of the OMR
Answer Sheet, except for the space allotted for the relevantentries, which may disclose your identity, you will render yourselfliable to disqualification.
9. You have to return the test question booklet and OMR AnswerSheet to the invigilators at the end of the examination compulsorilyand must not carry it with you outside the Examination Hall.
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited. 12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers.
1. If ABCD is a rectangle of size 1 X 2, thenthe angle between the diagonals AC andBD is
(A) Cos–1(1/5)
(B) Cos–1(2/5)
(C) Cos–1(3/5)
(D) Cos–1(4/5)
2. If A = ⎥⎦
⎤⎢⎣
⎡ −b3
2a has eigen values 2, 3, then
a, b are(A) 2, 3 (B) 4, 1(C) 6, –1 (D) 5, 0
3. If ∫ = 0dr.o f�
over a closed curve, then
(A) ×∇ f�
= 0 (B) ∇ . f�
= 0
(C) f�
� 2∇=� (D) f�
� ×∇=�
4. If f�
is a vector of constant magnitude, then
f�
d /dt =
(A) f�
(B) 0
(C) normal to f�
(D) k f�
5. If f(z) = 1/(1 – cos z), then the singularityz=0 is of order(A) 0 (B) 1(C) 2 (D) 3
6. If A = ⎥⎦
⎤⎢⎣
⎡ −40
21, A = B + C where B is
symmetric, C is skew symmetric, then B =
(A) ⎥⎦
⎤⎢⎣
⎡21
11(B) ⎥
⎦
⎤⎢⎣
⎡−
−41
11
(C) ⎥⎦
⎤⎢⎣
⎡−
−21
12/1(D) ⎥
⎦
⎤⎢⎣
⎡−
−11
12
7. =+++ ...51
31
1 22
(A) 4/π (B) 8/2π
(C) π (D) 2π
8. If ⎩⎨⎧
≤≤π−−π<≤
0or1
0or1
xf
xf , f(x) is expanded
in sine series as f(x) = nb∑ sin nx, then b1 =
(A) 1/ π (B) 2 / π(C) 4 / π (D) 0
9. If f(x) = x for 0 ≤ x ≤ 2, f(x) is expanded in
Fourier series, then the constant term in
the series is
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 3
10. y ′′ + y= sin2x, then the particular integral
of the solution is
(A) sin2x / 3 (B) cos2x / 3
(C) 2 /3 sin2x (D) –1/ 3 sin2x
�������
II� 4 A-16-02
11. The distribution whose mean and
variance are equal is
(A) Binomial (B) normal
(C) poisson (D) uniform
12. If f(z) is expanded in Taylor series, then
the region of convergence is
(A) annular
(B) circular
(C) entire
(D) upper half of z plane
13. If f(z) = 1/(z – a), then the integral dz)z(o f∫over the circle |z – a| = 1 is(A) 2 π i (B) – 2 π i(C) π i (D) 0
14. If y′+ y/x = x, then the integrating factor of
the equation is(A) ex (B) x(C) 1/x (D) Log x
15. If the solutions of a differential equation
are nonintersecting, then the differential
equation could be
(A) exact (B) homogeneous
(C) nonlinear (D) linear
16. A particle moving under the action of
central force, the parameter which remain
constant is
(A) Potential energy
(B) Total energy
(C) Angular momentum
(D) None of the above
17. Compound pendulum is a perfectly rigidbody oscillating under the force of gravityabout(A) Horizontal axis which does not pass
through the center of gravity(B) Horizontal axis which passes through
the center of gravity(C) Vertical axis passing through the
center of gravity(D) None of the above
18. div B=0, imply that(A) Magnetic monopoles only occur(B) Magnetic dipoles only occur(C) Electric mono and dipole occur(D) None of the above
19. .Bo∫ ds = 0, imply
(A) Gauss’s law of electrostatics(B) Gauss’s law of magnetism(C) Gauss’s law of dielectrics(D) None of the above
20. Wave packets represent particles havingprecise values of(A) Momentum and energy(B) Position and momentum(C) Time and energy(D) None of the above
21. In a quantum oscillator, there is a finiteprobability of finding the particle outside the(A) Parabolic potential barrier(B) Potential well(C) Potential hill(D) None of the above
22. A nibble consist of(A) Two bits (B) Four bits(C) Eight bits (D) Sixteen bits
�������
II� 5 A-16-02
23. The diffusion capacitance of a p-n junctionis(A) Inversely proportional to life time of
carriers(B) Directly proportional to life time of
carriers(C) Independent of life time of carriers(D) None of the above
24. Relativistic kinetic energy is the sum of(A) Non relativistic kinetic energy and rest
mass(B) Non relativistic kinetic energy and
potential energy(C) Sum of the squares of non relativistic
kinetic energy and potential energy(D) None of the above
25. An autonomous non conservative systemis said to be dissipative, then the vibrationis known as(A) Damped vibration(B) Un-damped vibration(C) Self oscillatory(D) None of the above
26. Lagrange’s equation of motion isdescribed by(A) Second order differential equation(B) Energy consideration not by force(C) Hamilton’s principle of conservative
system(D) All the above
27. In the relativistic generalisation of
Newton’s laws
(A) Fourth component of force and
momentum must be introduced
(B) Differentiation cannot be performed
with respect to time
(C) Both A and B are to be considered
(D) None of the above
28. Time dependent Schrodinger waveequation is not relativistically invariant, since
(A) It has first derivative in time
(B) Second derivative in spacecoordinates
(C) It is relativistically invariant
(D) Both A and B
29. Heisenberg uncertainty principle may beapplied to
(A) Determine ground state of Hydrogenatom
(B) Determine width of spectral line
(C) Prove the non-existence of electronsin nucleus
(D) All the above
30. The total energy or Hamiltonian of apoly-atomic molecule is given by
(A) Translational energy
(B) Vibrational energy
(C) Rotational energy
(D) Sum of the all the above energies
31. The Fermi energy level in a semiconductorchanges with
(A) n type doping
(B) p type doping
(C) concentration of doping
(D) all the above
32. Ideal operational amplifier has
i) High input impedence
ii) High output impedence
iii) Infinite loop gain
(A) i) and ii) are correct, iii) is wrong
(B) ii) and iii) are correct, i) is wrong
(C) i) and iii) are correct, ii) is wrong
(D) ii) is correct, i) and iii) are wrong
�������
II� 6 A-16-02
33. Choose the correct options from the following:i) Weighted resistor and R-2R ladder
networks are D/A techniquesii) Dual slope and successive
approximation are A/D techniquesiii) Thermocouple and piezo-electric
devices are passive transducers(A) i) and ii) are correct, iii) is wrong(B) ii) and iii) are correct, i) is wrong(C) iii) and i) are correct, ii) is wrong(D) i) , ii) , iii) are correct
34. Identify the order of invention of thefollowing:(A) BJT, Diode, FET, Microprocessor(B) Diode, BJT, FET, Microprocessor(C) BJT, Diode, Microprocessor, FET(D) Diode, FET, BJT, Microprocessor
35. Assertion A : Ge, Si cannot be used toconstruct LEDs
Reason R : Their Eg is small(A) A and R are true, and R is the correct
explanation(B) A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation(C) A is true but R is false(D) A is false but R is true
36. Choose the correct options from the following:
i) The maximum energy of a free electronat 0° K is E
f
ii) The average energy of a free electronat 0° K is (3/5) E
f
iii) The most probable energy of electronin conduction band of semiconductoris (½) KT above the bottom of the band
(A) i) and ii) are correct, iii) is wrong(B) ii) and iii) are correct, i) is wrong(C) iii) and i) are correct, ii) is wrong(D) i) , ii) , iii) are correct
37. SIM refers to(A) Select interrupt mask(B) Sorting interrupt mask(C) Set interrupt mask(D) None of the above
38. The storage cell in an S RAM is(A) A flip-flop(B) A capacitor(C) A fuse(D) A magnetic domain
39. The time taken for the data to appear atthe data output of ROMchip after anaddress is applied at the address inputlines is
(A) Write time (B) Recycle time
(C) Refresh time (D) Access time
40. Assertion A : The conducting walls of thewave guide confine theelectromagnetic fieldsand thereby guide theelectromagnetic wave
Reason R : When the waves travellongitudinally down theguide, the plane waves arereflected from wall to wall
(A) A is true but R is false
(B) Both A and R are true
(C) A is false but R is true
(D) Both A and R are false
41. Luminescence is because of
(A) Photons emitted while excitedelectrons drops down
(B) Knocking out of electrons by photons
(C) Photons stimulated by photons
(D) All
�������
II� 7 A-16-02
42. Fluorescence occurs within(A) 10–5 s (B) 10–5 ms(C) 10–5 s (D) 10–5 ns
43. The ratio of conduction current density todisplacement current density is(A) ωεσ / (B) σεω /(C) σωε / (D) εωσ /
44. The depth of penetration of EM wave in aconductor(A) Increases with increase in frequency
of the wave(B) Decreases with increase in
conductivity of the material(C) Increases with increase in
permeability of the medium(D) Independent of all the above
45. Power radiated by an electric dipole is(A) Directly proportional to the square of
the frequency(B) Inversely proportional to the square of
the frequency(C) Directly proportional to the fourth
power of the frequency(D) Inversely proportional to the third
power of the frequency46. Superposition of two circularly polarised
lights having same frequency andamplitude but rotating in oppositedirections give rise to(A) Circularly polarised light(B) Elliptically polarised light(C) Plane polarised light(D) Randomly polarized light
47. When plane polarised EM wavepropagates between two parallelconducting platesI) Tangential component of the electric
field must be zero at all points on the wallII) Tangential component of magnetic
field must be zero at all points on the wall(A) I is wrong and II is correct(B) II is wrong and I is correct(C) Both I and II are wrong(D) Both I and II are correct
48. If Vp , Vg and C are phase velocity, group
velocity and free space velocity of
EM wave then
(A) Vp > V
g
(B) Vp < V
g
(C) (Vp) ( V
g) = C
(D) (Vp) (V
g) = C2
49. Choose the correct options from the
following:
I) Stationary charge produces electric
field
II) Moving charge produces magnetic
field
III) Change in electric field does not
produce magnetic field
(A) I) and II) are correct, III) is wrong
(B) II) and III) are correct, I) is wrong
(C) I) and III) are wrong and II) is correct
(D) I) , II) , III) are correct
50. The magnetic field produced by a wire
bent in the form of a parabola carrying
current I at its focus, given that d is the
distance from the focus to the apex is
(A) 0μ NI/L
(B) 0μ I/2 π d
(C) 0μ I/4 d
(D) 0μ I/4 π d
μ
�������
II� 8 A-16-02
Space for Rough Work
Q.No KEY Q.No KEY1 C 26 D2 D 27 C3 A 28 D4 C 29 D5 C 30 D6 B 31 D7 B 32 C8 C 33 A9 B 34 B
10 D 35 A11 C 36 D12 B 37 C13 A 38 B14 B 39 D15 D 40 B16 C 41 A17 A 42 B18 B 43 A19 B 44 B20 B 45 C21 A 46 C22 B 47 B23 B 48 D24 A 49 A25 A 50 C
PHYSICAL SCIENCES PAPER II(SUBJECT CODE- 16)
Test Paper : III
Test Subject : PHYSICAL SCIENCES
Test Subject Code : A-16-03
Test Booklet Serial No. : ______________________
OMR Sheet No. : ________________________________
Hall Ticket No.
(Figures as per admission card)
Name & Signature of Invigilator
Name : ____________________________________ Signature :___________________________________
Paper : IIISubject : PHYSICAL SCIENCES
Time : 2 Hours 30 Minutes Maximum Marks : 150
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 16 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 75
Instructions for the Candidates1. Write your Hall Ticket Number in the space provided on the top
of this page.2. This paper consists of seventy five multiple-choice type of
questions.3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet will
be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested to openthe booklet and compulsorily examine it as below :(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper
seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept a bookletwithout sticker-seal and do not accept an open booklet.
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions inthe booklet with the information printed on the coverpage. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missingor duplicate or not in serial order or any otherdiscrepancy should be got replaced immediately by acorrect booklet from the invigilator within the periodof 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Bookletwill be replaced nor any extra time will be given.
(iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet Numbershould be entered in the OMR Sheet and the OMR SheetNumber should be entered on this Test Booklet.
4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C)and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on thecorrect response against each item.
Example : A B C D
where (C) is the correct response.
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR Sheetgiven to you. If you mark at any place other than in the circle inthe Answer Sheet, it will not be evaluated.
6. Read instructions given inside carefully.7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet.8. If you write your name or put any mark on any part of the OMR
Answer Sheet, except for the space allotted for the relevantentries, which may disclose your identity, you will render yourselfliable to disqualification.
9. You have to return the test question booklet and OMR AnswerSheet to the invigilators at the end of the examination compulsorilyand must not carry it with you outside the Examination Hall.
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited. 12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers.
7. The solution of dy/dx = f (x, y) with y (x0) = y0
by Runge Kutta 4th order method at x = x1
is y1 =
(A) y0 − ¼ ( )4321 kk2k2k +−−
(B) y0 + ( ) 6kk2k2k 4321 +++
(C) y0 + ¼ ( )4321 kk2k2k +−−
(D) y0 + ( ) 3kkkk 4321 +−−
8. If y1 = 2, y2 = 4, y3 = 5, the second order
approximation at x = x2 (for h= ½ ) for
dy/dx =
(A) 12
(B) 9
(C) ¾
(D) 3
9. If x,yy =−′′ the appropriate difference
scheme at x = xi is
(A) yi + 1
− (2 + h2) yi + y
i − 1 = h2x
i
(B) yi + 1
− (1 + 2h2) yi + y
i − 1 = h2x
i
(C) yi + 1
− 2yi + (1 + 2h) y
i − 1 = h2x
i
(D) yi + 1
− 2h2 yi + y
i − 1 = x
i
10. The partial differential equation
Auxx + Buxy + Cuyy = f is elliptic if
(A) B2 − 4AC > 0
(B) B2 − 4AC = 0
(C) B2 − 4AC < 0
(D) B2 − 4AC = complex
11. If the quantities iA in ix frame are related
to quantities Aj in xj frame by the relation
ji Axjix
A∂∂= , then Ai are called
(A) covariant
(B) contravariant
(C) metric tensors
(D) hyper variant
12. If Aij is symmetric then the number of
independent quantities are
(A) n(n − 1)
(B) ¼ n(2n +1)
(C) ½ n(n − 1)
(D) ½ n(n + 1)
�������
III � 5 A-16-03
16. According to the Landau theory on
diamagnetism, the diamagnetic
contribution arises due to
(A) spinning motion of electrons
(B) orbital motion of electrons
(C) collective ordering of spins of parallel
electrons
(D) none of the above
17. A photon in a definite spin state
corresponds to a plane electromagnetic
wave with
(A) only right circularly polarized
(B) only left circularly polarized
(C) either right or left circularly polarized
(D) zero momentum
18. Since photons obey BE statistics
(A) they are distinguishable
(B) they are indistinguishable
(C) there can not be number of photons
with same ‘k’(wave vector) and ‘e’
(polarization vector)
(D) none of the above
13. The change from non-ferromagnetic state
to ferromagnetic state is associated with
(A) Phase transition of the first kind
(B) Phase transition of the second kind
(C) No change in the symmetry of the
lattice
(D) No phase transition
14. The theory of co-operative phenomena, by
including all interactions in three
dimensional system is
(A) very easy
(B) very complicated
(C) neither easy nor complicated
(D) neither of the above three
15. A linear Ising chain of spins is not
ferromagnetic because it can be easily
broken. A single break of chain increases
the energy by (where E is the energy of
interaction between spins)
(A) 2E
(B) 4E
(C) 6E
(D) 8E
�������
III � 6 A-16-03
19. Bose Einstein condensations of
thermodynamic manifestations follows
(A) Second order phase transition
(B) First order phase transition
(C) Neither first order nor second order
phase transition
(D) None of the above
20. A very small particle immersed in liquid
having Brownian motion exhibits a
random type of motion due to
(A) high applied pressure on the particle
(B) medium applied pressure on the
particle
(C) variable applied pressure acting on
the particle
(D) natural thermal fluctuation of
pressure on the particle
21. A random process or stochastic process
is such that the variable ‘x’
(A) depends on independent variable in
well defined manner
(B) does not depend in well defined
manner on independent variable
(C) the variable ‘x’ takes either zero or
infinite value
(D) none of the above
22. The ESR frequency of an unpaired
electron in a magnetic field of 0.3T
( given g = 2, β = 11.274 × 10−24JT−1,
h = 6.627 × 10−34Js) in multiple of 106 Hz is
(A) 8397
(B) 2434
(C) 3126
(D) 4444
�������
III � 7 A-16-03
23. Which one of the following systems will
show electron spin resonance spectrum?
(A) H (B) H2
(C) Na+ (D) Cl−1
24. In NMR experiment, a given organic
compound with two kinds of protons exhibit
signals at 50 Hz and 200 Hz using 60 MHz
spectrometer. The position of signal at
50 Hz and 200 Hz in δ -scale is
(A) 0.88, 3.33 (B) 0.2, 1.2
(C) 0.1, 0.6 (D) 1.0 , 4.0
25. The rotation spectrum for HCl shows a
series of lines separated by 20.6 cm−1.
The moment of inertia of the molecule is
(A) 2.65 × 10−47 Kg.m2
(B) 3.12 × 10−55 Kg.m2
(C) 4.0 × 10−12 Kg.m2
(D) 16.0 × 108 Kg.m2
26. The number of fundamental vibrational
frequencies in the Infra-red absorption
spectrum of H2O is
(A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 6
27. The planar twisting mode of vibration of
N2O4 is
(A) Raman active
(B) Raman inactive
(C) Infrared active
(D) Neither Raman active nor Infrared
active
28. Which one of the following compounds
absorb ultraviolet radiations?
(A) Acetaldehyde
(B) Cyclohexane
(C) Ethanol
(D) Heptane
29. From extinction rules for face centred cubic
crystals for the ratio of successive allowed
XRD values of h2 + k2 + l2 for FCC crystal is
(A) 1:2:3:4:5:6: ….
(B) 1:2:3:4:5:6:8:….
(C) 3:4:8:11:12: ….
(D) 8:25:34:76: …
�������
III � 8 A-16-03
30. In a solid the repulsive forces between
atoms depends on
(A) repulsion between positively
charged Nuclei only
(B) negatively charged electronic cloud
of atoms only
(C) it depends both on nuclei and also
electronic cloud of atoms
(D) it will not depend on positive charge
of nuclei and also on negative charge
of surrounding electronic cloud of
atoms
31. The reciprocal lattice to BCC lattice is
(A) BCC lattice
(B) FCC lattice
(C) SC lattice
(D) it is not possible to find the reciprocal
lattice of BCC
32. The elastic scattering of x-ray photon by a
crystal is governed by the wave vector
selection rule (G is a vector in the
reciprocal lattice, K is a wave vector of
incident photon, K1 is the wave vector of
scattered photon)
(A) K1 = K + G (B) G = K
1 + K
(C) K1 = K (D) K = G
33. In the case of insulators, specific heat
of solids is dependent on its
temperature T by
(A) T3 law (B) T-law
(C) T2 law (D) T4 law
34. According to the KP model on band
theory of solids, the atoms in the
periodic lattice are positioned in the
(A) middle of the valley
(B) middle of the barrier
(C) only at the end edges of the
solids
(D) at the boundary line between
valley and the barrier
35. Calculate the frequency of AC current
when a voltage of 1 × 10−6 v is applied
across the two superconductors
which are separated by a thin
insulating layer where tunneling of
electron pair is possible
(A) 286 MHz
(B) 316 MHz
(C) 483.6 MHz
(D) 116 MHz
�������
III � 9 A-16-03
36. Defect structures are produced when the
composition of an ionic crystal does not
correspond to the stoichiometric formula.
In case of FeO, the vacant cation sites are
produced usually by heating it in
(A) Zinc atmosphere
(B) Oxygen atmosphere
(C) Chlorine atmosphere
(D) Carbon atmosphere
37. Tilt angle of a tilt boundary in BCC iron
(a = 2.87 AU) with edge dislocations 7500 Å
apart is
(A) 5° (B) 8°
(C) 0.02° (D) 16°
38. Most of the liquid crystal cells used in LCD
display are of the type
(A) smetic
(B) twisted nematic
(C) cholestric
(D) none of the above
39. The binding energy of a nucleon in a
nucleus or mass defect per nucleon is
(A) minimum for medium nuclei
(B) maximum for medium nuclei
(C) maximum for heavy nuclei
(D) minimum for heavy nuclei
40. The liquid-drop model of nucleus to
emphasize nuclear structure, possible
oscillations are considered in an
(A) incompressible liquid
(B) compressible liquid
(C) viscous liquid
(D) none of the above
41. The function of a moderator in an atomic
reactor is to
(A) absorb gamma radiation
(B) slow down fast neutrons
(C) release heat energy
(D) none of the above
42. Nuclides which possess same mass
number are known as
(A) isotopes
(B) isobars
(C) isotones
(D) none of the above
�������
III � 10 A-16-03
43. The concept of Dirac-Hole predicted the
existence of
(A) positron
(B) pair production
(C) electrons possessing negative energy
states
(D) all the above
44. Heavy hydrogen when bombarded with
neutrons artificial hydrogen and tritium are
formed. Tritium is composed of
(A) Proton and three neutrons
(B) Proton and two neutrons
(C) Proton and one neutron
(D) None of the above
45. All quarks possess same spin and baryon
charge, but differ in
(A) strangeness
(B) hypercharge
(C) all quantum numbers of elementary
particles
(D) all the above
46. Anti quarks do not form any part of
(A) mesons
(B) baryons
(C) leptons
(D) hadrons
47. Anti baryons consist of
(A) three quarks
(B) four quarks
(C) two quarks
(D) no quarks
48. Spin Orbit interaction is more predominant
in
(A) Heavy elements
(B) Medium elements
(C) Light elements
(D) Heavy and light elements
49. WKB approximation is based on the
expansion of the wavefunction in powers of
(A) h
(B) h2
(C) h3
(D) none of the above
�������
III � 11 A-16-03
50. The unit for differential cross section for
scattering is
(A) barn
(B) steredian × cm2
(C) steredian / cm2
(D) steredian / cm3
51. The superposition of infinite number of
spherical waves gives a plane wave, the
individual waves are known as
(A) partial wave
(B) wavefront
(C) cylindrical wave
(D) none of the above
52. Relativistic wave equation provide
(A) relativistic Hamiltonian
(B) first order equation for both space
and time
(C) both the above
(D) none of the above
53. Klein-Gordon equation is applicable for
particles with
(A) zero spin
(B) spin 1/2
(C) spin 3/2
(D) spin 1
54. A relativistic wave equation which
provides a positive definite probability
density, is given by
(A) Dirac equation
(B) Klein-Gordon equation
(C) Noether’s theorem
(D) None of the above
55. The wavefunction derived from the Dirac
relativistic equation, which do not
transform as four vectors are known as
(A) Dirac’s spinors
(B) Fermions
(C) Bosons
(D) None of the above
�������
III � 12 A-16-03
56. Nuclear magnetic resonance depends on
(A) orientation of nuclear moment
relative to small static applied
magnetic field
(B) orientation of the electron magnetic
moment
(C) orientation of nuclear moment
relative to large static applied
magnetic field
(D) none of the above
57. Threshold population inversion required
for oscillations of laser
i. is proportional to the spontaneous life
time of the upper level
ii. inversely proportional to passive cavity
life time
iii. proportional to passive cavity life time
iv. is inversely proportional to spontaneous
lifetime of the upper level
(A) i and ii are correct
(B) i and iii are correct
(C) ii and iv are correct
(D) iii and iv are correct
58. Assertion (A) : Even in the absence of
collisions and of thermal
motions, line broadening
takes place.
Reason (R ) : Because of the finite life
time of excited state due to
spontaneous emissions.
(A) A and R are true, and R is the correct
explanation
(B) A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true
59. Match the following:
I. Doppler 1. Homogeneous
broadening
II. Four level system 2. Ruby laser
III. Collision 3. Inhomogeneous
broadening
IV. Three level 4. He-Ne laser
system
I II III IV
(A) 2 4 1 3
(B) 3 1 4 2
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 1 2 3 4
�������
III � 13 A-16-03
60. At thermal equilibrium of temperature T,
for h/TK� B<<
(A) Number of stimulated emissions
exceeds the number of spontaneous
emissions
(B) Number of spontaneous emissions
exceeds the number of stimulated
emissions
(C) Number of spontaneous emissions
are equal to the number of stimulated
emissions
(D) Emissions does not take place
61. Q switching of laser can be done by
I. Mechanical switching
II. Faster electronic switching
III. Using saturable absorbers
IV. all the above
(A) I and III are correct
(B) II and III are correct
(C) I, II and III are correct
(D) I and II are correct
62. Ionisation Gauges can measure Vacuum
up to
(A) 10−1 to 10−3mm of Hg
(B) 10−3 to 10−8mm of Hg
(C) Up to 1 mm of Hg
(D) None
63. The temperature of a furnace is increasing
at a rate of 0.20C/Sec.The maximum
possible time constant required for a first
order instrument so that the temperature
is measured with maximum error of 20C.
(A) 4 Sec
(B) 0.4 Sec
(C) 0.1 Sec
(D) 10 Sec
64. The steady State error for unit Ramp input
in the case of instruments following First
Order Response is equal to
(A) Natural Frequency
(B) Damping Ratio
(C) Time Constant
(D) Settling Time
�������
III � 14 A-16-03
65. Dummy Strain Gauges are used for
(A) Compensation for Temperature
changes
(B) Increasing the sensitivity of the bridge
in which they are used
(C) Calibration of Strain Gauges
(D) None of the above
66. How many Op-Amps are required to
implement the following equation
Vo = − Rf [ ]332211 R/VR/VR/V ++ ?
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
67. In the Bath Tub Curve representing the
failure rate of components/Instruments, the
Region I of the curve corresponds to
(A) Constant Failure Region
(B) Infant Mortality Region
(C) Wear Out Region
(D) None of the above
68. Which of the following circuits are used in
signal conditioning ?
I. Filters
II. Attenuators
III. Amplifiers
(A) I & II only (B) II & III only
(C) All (D) None
69. Match the following:
I. Chi-Square Test 1. Loading Effects
II. Standard 2. Recovery of
Deviation signal from
noise
III. Impedance 3. Analysis of
Matching Random Errors
IV. Lock-in Detector 4. Feedback
5. Goodness of Fit
I II III IV
(A) 5 3 1 2
(B) 3 4 5 1
(C) 2 1 3 4
(D) 1 2 5 4
70. The number of terms in semi-emperical
mass formula is
(A) 6 (B) 7
(C) 8 (D) 9
71. In a nuclear reaction p+12C → d+11C, by
proton with a laboratory energy of 10MeV
incident on to stationary 12C nucleus, the
equivalent centre of energy of proton is
(A) 9.23 MeV (B) 10.00 MeV
(C) 11.52 MeV (D) 8.46 MeV
�������
III � 15 A-16-03
72. Nuclear forces have the following
characteristics:
I. Nuclear forces are saturated
II. Nuclear forces are spin independent
III. Nuclear forces are charge
independent
IV. Nuclear forces are non central forces
(A) I,III and IV are correct
(B) II and III are correct
(C) I, II and III are correct
(D) I and II are correct
73. Physical quantities that are conserved in
a nuclear reaction are
I. Energy
II. Charge
III. Spin
IV. Hyper charge
(A) I, III and IV are correct
(B) I, II and III are correct
(C) I, II and IV are correct
(D) I and IV are correct
74. Assertion (A) : Electrons reside inside
the nucleus.
Reason (R) : Nuclei emit electrons in
beta decay.
(A) A and R are true, and R is the correct
explanation
(B) A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true
75. Assertion (A) : Nuclear force is very
attractive.
Reason (R) : Stable nuclei exist in
nature.
(A) A and R are true, and R is the correct
explanation
(B) A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true
�������
III � 16 A-16-03
Space for Rough Work
III � 16 A-16-03
Q.No KEY Q.No KEY Q.No KEY1 B 26 A 51 A2 A 27 D 52 C3 B 28 A 53 A4 B 29 C 54 A5 C 30 C 55 A6 C 31 B 56 C7 B 32 A 57 A8 D 33 A 58 A9 A 34 A 59 C
10 C 35 C 60 A11 B 36 B 61 C12 D 37 C 62 B13 B 38 B 63 D14 B 39 B 64 C15 A 40 A 65 A16 B 41 B 66 A17 C 42 B 67 B18 B 43 D 68 C19 B 44 B 69 A20 D 45 D 70 B21 B 46 B 71 A22 A 47 A 72 A23 A 48 A 73 B24 A 49 A 74 D25 A 50 A 75 A