Test Paper : I Test Subject : GENERAL PAPER Test Subject Code : A-00-01 Test booklet Code : W Test Booklet Serial No. : ______________________ OMR Sheet No. : ________________________________ Hall Ticket No. (Figures as per admission card) Hall Ticket No. ___________________________ (In words) Name & Signature of Invigilator Name : ____________________________________ Signature : ___________________________________ Paper :I Subject : GENERAL PAPER Time : 1 Hour 15 Minutes Maximum Marks : 100 Number of Pages in this Booklet : 24 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 60 Instructions for the Candidates 1. Write your Hall Ticket Number in the space provided on the top of this page. 2. This paper consists of sixty (60) multiple-choice type of questions, out of which the candidate would be required to answer any fifty (50) questions. In the event of the candidate attempting more than fifty questions, the first fifty questions attempted by the candidate would be evaluated. 3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below : (i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept a booklet without sticker-seal and do not accept an open booklet. (ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in the booklet with the information printed on the cover page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing or duplicate or not in serial order or any other discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a correct booklet from the invigilator within the period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be given. (iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet number should be entered in the OMR Sheet and the OMR Sheet Number should be entered on this Test Booklet. 4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on the correct response against each item. Example : A B C D where (C) is the correct response. 5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR Answer Sheet given to you. If you mark at any place other than in the circle in the Answer Sheet, it will not be evaluated. 6. Read instructions given inside carefully. 7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet. 8. If you write your name or put any mark on any part of the Answer Sheet, except for the space allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your identity, you will render yourself liable to disqualification. 9. You have to return the test question booklet and OMR Answer Sheet to the invigilators at the end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. 10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited. 12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers. A¿æýÅÆæÿ$¦ËMæü$ çÜ*^èþ¯èþË$ 1. D ç³#r ò³O ¿êVæüÌZ CÐèþÓºyìþ¯èþ çܦËÌZ Ò$ çàÌý sìýMðüsý ¯èþºÆæÿ$ Æ>Äæý$yìþ. 2. D {ç³Ôèý² ç³{èþÐèþ$$ AÆæÿÐðþO (60) ºçßýâñýO_eMæü {ç³Ôèý²Ë¯èþ$ MæüÍW E¨. Ðésìý ¯èþ$yìþ A¿æýÅǦ HÐðþO¯é Äæý*¿ñýO (50) {ç³Ôèý²ËMæü$ çÜÐèþ*«§é¯é˯èþ$ Væü$Ç¢^éÍ. A¿æýÅǦ Äæý*¿ñýO {ç³Ôèý²ËMæü¯é² GMæü$PÐèþ {ç³Ôèý²ËMæü$ çÜÐèþ*«§é¯éË$ Væü$Ç¢_¯èþrÏÆÿ$$óþ Ððþ$$§æþsìý Äæý*¿ñýO {ç³Ôèý²ËMæü$ Væü$Ç¢_¯èþ ç ÜÐèþ*«§é¯éÌôý Ðèþ$*ÌêÅMæü¯èþ ^óþÄæý$ºyæþéÆÿ$$. 3. ç ³Èæü {´ëÆæÿ¿æýÐèþ$$¯èþ D {ç³Ôé²ç³{èþÐèþ$$ Ò$Mæü$ CÐèþÓºyæþ$èþ$¨. Ððþ$$§æþsìý I§æþ$ °Ñ$çÙÐèþ$$ËÌZ D {ç³Ôé²ç³{èþÐèþ$$¯èþ$ ðþÇ_ Mìü§æþ ðþÍí³¯èþ AÔé˯èþ$ èþç³µ°çÜÇV> çÜÇ^èþ*çÜ$Møyìþ. (i) D {ç³Ôèý² ç³{èþÐèþ$$¯èþ$ ^èþ*yæþyé°Mìü MæüÐèþÆÿõ³h A^èþ$¯èþ E¯èþ² M>Wèþç³# ïÜË$¯èþ$ _^èþyìþ. íÜtMæüPÆÿ ïÜË$Ìôý° Ðèþ$ÇÄæý$$ C¨ÐèþÆæÿMóü ðþÇ_ E¯èþ² {ç³Ôé²ç³{èþÐèþ$$¯èþ$ Ò$Ææÿ$ AXMæüÇ^èþÐèþ§æþ$ª. (ii) MæüÐèþÆæÿ$ õ³h ò³O Ðèþ$${¨_¯èþ çÜÐèþ*^éÆæÿ {ç³M>Ææÿ D {ç³Ôèý²ç³{èþÐèþ$$ÌZ° õ³iË çÜQůèþ$ Ðèþ$ÇÄæý$$ {ç³Ôèý²Ë çÜQůèþ$ çÜÇ^èþ*çÜ$Møyìþ. õ³iË çÜQÅMæü$ çܺ«¨_ V>± Ìôý§é çÜ*__¯èþ çÜQÅÌZ {ç³Ôèý²Ë$ ÌôýMæü´ùÐèþ#r Ìôý§é °f{ç³ M>Mæü´ùÐèþ#r Ìôý§é {ç³Ôèý²Ë$ {MæüÐèþ$糧æþ®ÌZ ÌôýMæü´ùÐèþ#r Ìôý§é HÐðþO¯é óþyéË$yæþ$r Ðèþsìý §øçÙç³NÇèþÐðþ$O¯èþ {ç³Ôèý² ç³{é°² Ððþr¯óþ Ððþ$$§æþsìý I§æþ$ °Ñ$ÚëÌZÏ ç³È> ç ³Ææ ÿÅÐó þæ üMæ ü$°Mì ü ÇW C_aÐó þí Ü §é°Mì ü º§æ þ$Ë$V> ç ÜÇV>Y E¯è þ² { ç ³Ôè ý²ç ³{é°² ¡ç Ü$Møyì þ. èþ§æþ¯èþèþÆæÿ {ç³Ôèý²ç³{èþÐèþ$$ Ðèþ*Ææÿaºyæþ§æþ$ A§æþ¯èþç³# çÜÐèþ$Äæý$ CÐèþÓºyæþ§æþ$. (iii) ò³O Ñ«§æþV> çÜÇ^èþ*çÜ$Mö¯èþ² èþÆ>Óèþ {ç³Ôé²ç³{èþ çÜQůèþ$ OMR ç³{èþÐèþ$$ ò³O A§óþÑ«§æþV> OMR ç ³{èþÐèþ$$ çÜQůèþ$ D {ç³Ôé²ç³{èþÐèþ$$ ò³O °ÇªçÙt çܦËÌZ Æ>Äæý$ÐèþÌñý¯èþ$. 4. {ç³ {ç³Ôèý²Mæü$ ¯éË$Væü$ {ç³éÅÐèþ*²Äæý$ {ç³çܵ§æþ¯èþË$ (A), (B), (C) Ðèþ$ÇÄæý$$ (D) Ë$V> CÐèþÓºyézÆÿ$$. {ç³{ç³Ôèý²Mæü$ çÜÆðÿO¯èþ {ç³çܵ§æþ¯èþ¯èþ$ G¯èþ$²Mö° Mìü§æþ ðþÍí³¯èþ Ñ«§æþV> OMR ç ³{èþÐèþ$$ÌZ {ç³ {ç³Ôé² çÜQÅMæü$ CÐèþÓºyìþ¯èþ ¯éË$Væü$ Ðèþé¢ÌZÏ çÜÆðÿO¯èþ {ç³çܵ§æþ¯èþ¯èþ$ çÜ*_^óþ Ðèþ颰² »êÌý ´ëÆÿ$$sý ò³¯þø Mìü§æþ ðþÍí³¯èþ Ñ«§æþV> ç ³NÇ^éÍ. E§éçßýÆæÿ×ý : A B C D (C) çÜÆðÿO¯èþ {ç³çܵ§æþ¯èþ AÆÿ$$óþ 5. {ç³Ôèý²ËMæü$ {ç³çܵ§æþ¯èþ˯èþ$ D {ç³Ôèý²ç³{èþÐèþ$$ø CÐèþÓºyìþ¯èþ OMR ç ³{èþÐèþ$$ ò³O¯èþ CÐèþÓºyìþ¯èþ Ðèþé¢ÌZϯóþ ç³NÇ_ Væü$Ç¢^éÍ. AÌêM>Mæü çÜÐèþ*«§é¯èþ ç³{èþò³O ÐóþÆöMæü ^ør Væü$Ç¢õÜ¢ Ò$ {ç³çܵ§æþ¯èþ Ðèþ$*ÌêÅMæü¯èþ ^óþÄæý$ºyæþ§æþ$. 6. {ç³Ôèý² ç³{èþÐèþ$$ ÌZç³Ë C_a¯èþ çÜ*^èþ¯èþ˯èþ$ gê{Væüèþ¢V> ^èþ§æþÐèþyìþ. 7. _èþ$¢ ç³°° {ç³Ôèý²ç³{èþÐèþ$$ _ÐèþÆæÿ C_a¯èþ RêäçܦËÐèþ$$ÌZ ^óþÄæý*Í. 8. OMR ç³{èþÐèþ$$ ò³O °È~èþ çܦËÌZ çÜ*_^èþÐèþËíܯèþ ÑÐèþÆ>Ë$ èþí³µ_ CèþÆæÿ çܦËÌZ Ò$ Væü$Ç¢ç³#¯èþ$ ðþÍõ³ Ñ«§æþV> Ò$ õ³Ææÿ$ Æ>Äæý$yæþ V>± Ìôý§é CèþÆæÿ _à²Ë¯èþ$ ò³rtyæþ V>± ^óþíܯèþrÏÆÿ$$óþ Ò$ A¯èþÆæÿáèþMæü$ Ò$Æóÿ »ê«§æþ$ÅËÐèþ#éÆæÿ$. 9. ç ç ³Èæü ç³NÆæÿ¢Æÿ$$¯èþ èþÆ>Óèþ Ò$ {ç³Ôèý²ç³{é°² Ðèþ$ÇÄæý$$ OMR ç ³{é°² èþç³µ°çÜÇV> ç ³Èæü ç³ÆæÿÅÐóþæüMæü$yìþMìü CÐéÓÍ. Ðésìý° ç³Èæü Væü¨ ºÄæý$rMæü$ ¡çÜ$Mæü$ÐðþâæýÏMæü*yæþ§æþ$. 10. ±Í/¯èþËÏ ÆæÿVæü$ »êÌý ´ëÆÿ$$sý ò³¯þ Ðèþ*{èþÐóþ$ Eç³Äñý*W^éÍ. 11. ÌêVæüÇ£æþÐþ$ sôýº$ÌýÞ, M>ÅÍMæü$ÅÌôýrÆÿË$, GË[M>t°Mü ç³ÇMæüÆ>Ë$ Ððþ$$§æþËVæü$¯èþÑ ç³ÈæüVæü¨ÌZ Eç³Äñý*W^èþyæþ °õÙ«§æþ. 12. èþç³ çÜÐèþ*«§é¯éËMæü$ Ðèþ*Ææÿ$PË èþWYç³# Ìôý§æþ$. I * 1 A-00-01
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AP Set July 2012 Chemical Sciences Question Papers&Keys 2012
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Test Paper : I
Test Subject : GENERAL PAPER
Test Subject Code : A-00-01
Test booklet Code : W
Test Booklet Serial No. : ______________________OMR Sheet No. : ________________________________
Hall Ticket No.
(Figures as per admission card)
Hall Ticket No. ___________________________ (In words)
Name & Signature of Invigilator
Name : ____________________________________ Signature : ___________________________________
Paper : ISubject : GENERAL PAPER
Time : 1 Hour 15 Minutes Maximum Marks : 100
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 24 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 60
Instructions for the Candidates1. Write your Hall Ticket Number in the space provided on the top of
this page.2. This paper consists of sixty (60) multiple-choice type of questions,
out of which the candidate would be required to answer any fifty (50)questions. In the event of the candidate attempting more thanfifty questions, the first fifty questions attempted by the candidatewould be evaluated.
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet willbe given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested toopen the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below :
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paperseal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept a bookletwithout sticker-seal and do not accept an open booklet.
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions inthe booklet with the information printed on the coverpage. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missingor duplicate or not in serial order or any otherdiscrepancy should be got replaced immediately by acorrect booklet from the invigilator within the periodof 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Bookletwill be replaced nor any extra time will be given.
(iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet numbershould be entered in the OMR Sheet and the OMR SheetNumber should be entered on this Test Booklet.
4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C)and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on thecorrect response against each item.
Example : A B C D
where (C) is the correct response.
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR AnswerSheet given to you. If you mark at any place other than in thecircle in the Answer Sheet, it will not be evaluated.
6. Read instructions given inside carefully.7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet.8. If you write your name or put any mark on any part of the Answer
Sheet, except for the space allotted for the relevant entries,which may disclose your identity, you will render yourself liableto disqualification.
9. You have to return the test question booklet and OMR AnswerSheet to the invigilators at the end of the examination compulsorilyand must not carry it with you outside the Examination Hall.
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited. 12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers.
meeting, I spoke to my audience of this Indiaof ours, of Hindustan and of Bharata, the oldSanskrit name derived from the mythicalfounder of the race.
Sometimes as I reached a gathering, agreat roar of welcome would greet me : BharatMata Ki Jai – ‘Victory to Mother India’. I wouldask them unexpectedly what they meant by thatcry, who was this Bharat Mata, Mother India,whose victory they wanted ? My question wouldamuse them and surprise them, and then, notknowing exactly what to answer they wouldlook at each other and at me. I persisted in myquestioning. At last a vigorous Jat, wedded tothe soil from immemorial generations, wouldsay that it was the dharti, the good earth of India,that they meant. What earth ? Their particularvillage patch, or all the patches in the districtor province, or in the whole of India ? And soquestion and answer went on, till they wouldask me impatiently to tell them all about it. Iwould endeavour to do so and explain that Indiawas all this that they had thought, but it wasmuch more. The mountains and the rivers ofIndia, and the forests and the broad fields,which gave us food, were all dear to us, butwhat counted ultimately were the people ofIndia, people like them and me, who werespread out all over this vast land. Bharat Mata,Mother India, was essentially these millions ofpeople, and victory to her meant victory to thesepeople. You are parts of this Bharat Mata, I toldthem, you are in a manner yourselves, BharathMata and as this idea slowly soaked into theirbrains, their eyes would light up as if they had
13. How did people greet Nehru when he wentto address them ? They greeted him with(A) Bharat Mata Ki Jai(B) Victory to Mother India(C) Jai Bharat Mata Ki(D) Victory to Bharat Mata
14. Who was the person that gave the reply :Bharat Mata means “Dharti” ?
(A) everybody (B) a Jat
(C) a stranger (D) Nehru himself
15. When the villagers were questioned ontheir concept of ‘Dharti’, one of thefollowing answers was not included
(A) Village patch
(B) All patches of the district
(C) Mother Earth
(D) Whole of India
16. Which part of Dharti gives us food ?
(A) Mountains (B) Rivers
(C) Forests (D) Broad fields
17. Victory to ‘Bharat Mata’ means, victory to
(A) People of the village
(B) All the people of India
(C) Millions of people
(D) Freedom fighters of India
18. What was the great discovery made by thevillagers ?
(A) We are all Bharat Mata
(B) Mother Earth is Bharat Mata
(C) Mountains, rivers, forests and fieldsare Bharat Mata
19. Effective classroom communication of ateacher depends upon three of thefollowing four qualities. They are
(i) Content mastery
(ii) Clarity in language teaching(iii) Consistency in presentation
(iv) Completing portions in time
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) (B) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (D) (iii), (iv) and (i)
20. Three of the following four attributes of ateacher will become barriers in effectivecommunication. Identify them(i) Pronunciation of the teacher(ii) Caste status of a teacher(iii) Facial expressions of the teacher(iv) Choice of words
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) (B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (iii), (iv) and (i) (D) (i), (ii) and (iv)
21. Match the following behaviours of teachers
with their communication-type
Behaviours Type
(a) Teacher asks a (p) Symbolicquestion
(b) Teacher writes a (q) Digitaldiagram on theblack board
(c) Teacher shows a (r) Written
CD to children(d) Teacher beckons (s) Oral
a student to draw agraph on the blackboard
(A) (aq), (br), (cs) and (dp)(B) (ar), (bs), (cp) and (dq)(C) (as), (br), (cq) and (dp)(D) (ap), (bq), (cr) and (ds)
27. The letters in the first set have certainrelationship. On the basis of thisrelationship, make the right choice forthe second set
BF : GK : : LP : ?
(A) JK
(B) QU
(C) VW
(D) RQ
28. Select the pair of words which is differentfrom the others
(A) Hard and soft
(B) Hot and cold
(C) Come and arrive
(D) Right and wrong
29. In an examination 25% of the candidatesfailed in Mathematics and 12% in English.If 10% of the candidates failed in both thesubjects and 292 passed in both thesubjects, the total number of candidatesappeared in the examination was
30. If 5472 = 9, 6342 = 6 and 7584 = 6, what is9236 ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
31. Five persons P, Q, R, S and T weretravelling in a car. There were two ladiesin the group. Of the three who knew cardriving, one was a lady. There was onecouple, of which only the wife could drivethe car. P is brother of S. Q, wife of S, droveat the beginning. T drove at the end.
Who was the other lady in the group ?
(A) T
(B) S
(C) R
(D) Data inadequate
32. All the students are boys. All boys aredancers. Which of the following inferencesdefinitely follows from the above twostatements ?
(A) All dancers are boys
(B) All boys are students
(C) All dancers are students
(D) All students are dancers
33. If a rectangle were called a circle, a circlea point, a point a triangle and a triangle asquare, the shape of a wheel is
(A) Rectangle (B) Circle
(C) Point (D) Triangle
30. 5472 = 9, 6342 = 6, 7584 = 6�;+'�,�
9236 = ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
31. P, Q, R, S, T�;�,��;+'������+�'����#���%�}#���#4+�'��
34. Manisha is eleventh from either end of arow of girls. How many girls are there inthat row ?
(A) 19 (B) 20
(C) 21 (D) 22
35. A student who completes any graduatestudies course shall develop three of thefollowing four essential attributes. They are(i) A questioning frame of mind(ii) Skills of survey techniques(iii) Good communication skills(iv) Sensitivity to social problems(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) (B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)(C) (iii), (iv) and (i) (D) (i), (iv) and (ii)
36. There are 600 students in a college. 325are boys and 275 are girls, eachrepresented by a big circle, out of which50 boys and 40 girls are from rural areas,represented by a small circle. Which of thefollowing diagram best represents thedistribution in the college ?
41. The Universe for a research studycomprises of 60000 students from ruraland urban colleges, boys and girls,students of various social groups. Identifythe best method of sampling.
(A) Purposive sampling
(B) Stratified sampling
(C) Quota sampling
(D) Stratified random sampling
42. Identify the verbal test from the givenstandard tests used in educationalresearch
Q.No KEY Q.No KEY Q.No KEY1 C 26 B 51 A2 B 27 B 52 C3 B 28 C 53 A4 C 29 B 54 D5 C 30 A 55 A6 D 31 C 56 B7 B 32 D 57 C8 B 33 C 58 D9 D 34 C 59 B
10 B 35 C 60 A11 C 36 D12 A 37 B13 A 38 A14 B 39 D15 C 40 D16 D 41 D17 B 42 C18 A 43 D19 A 44 C20 C 45 B21 C 46 D22 D 47 C23 A 48 A24 C 49 A25 C 50 C
PAPER – I (GENERAL PAPER ) (W – SERIES)
Test Paper : II
Test Subject : CHEMICAL SCIENCES
Test Subject Code : A-02-02
Test Booklet Serial No. : ______________________
OMR Sheet No. : ________________________________
Hall Ticket No.
(Figures as per admission card)
Name & Signature of Invigilator
Name : ____________________________________ Signature : ___________________________________
Paper : IISubject : CHEMICAL SCIENCES
Time : 1 Hour 15 Minutes Maximum Marks : 100
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 16 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 50
Instructions for the Candidates1. Write your Hall Ticket Number in the space provided on the top
of this page.2. This paper consists of fifty multiple-choice type of questions.3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet will
be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested to openthe booklet and compulsorily examine it as below :(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper
seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept a bookletwithout sticker-seal and do not accept an open booklet.
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions inthe booklet with the information printed on the coverpage. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missingor duplicate or not in serial order or any otherdiscrepancy should be got replaced immediately by acorrect booklet from the invigilator within the periodof 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Bookletwill be replaced nor any extra time will be given.
(iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet Numbershould be entered in the OMR Sheet and the OMR SheetNumber should be entered on this Test Booklet.
4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C)and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on thecorrect response against each item.
Example : A B C D
where (C) is the correct response.
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR Sheetgiven to you. If you mark at any place other than in the circle inthe Answer Sheet, it will not be evaluated.
6. Read instructions given inside carefully.7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet.8. If you write your name or put any mark on any part of the OMR
Answer Sheet, except for the space allotted for the relevantentries, which may disclose your identity, you will render yourselfliable to disqualification.
9. You have to return the test question booklet and OMR AnswerSheet to the invigilators at the end of the examination compulsorilyand must not carry it with you outside the Examination Hall.
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited. 12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers.
the stationary phase in a chromatography technique.
Reason (R) : A liquid has the property of moving.
(A) Both A and R are true and R is thecorrect explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not thecorrect explanation of A
(C) A is true, but R is false
(D) A is false, but R is true
22. In the reaction
O
xSeO2⎯⎯⎯ →⎯
X is
(A)
O
O
(B)
O
O
(C)
(D)
O
O
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II 8 A-02-02
23. Which of the following molecules do not
have IR active vibrations ?
(A) H2
(B) NO
(C) N2O
(D) CH4
24. Assertion (A): A quarter Faraday of
electricity passed through
an aqueous solution of
AlCl3 solution produces
.wt.At121 × of Al.
Reason (R) : One Faraday of electricity
passed through a solution
of an ion produces one
equivalent weight of that
ion.
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the
correct explanation of A
(C) A is true, but R is false
(D) A is false, but R is true
25. Name the reaction :
PRorNRCHOR
3
3
′′
+′+−
CN OH CN
R
+ PRroNR 33 ′′′
(A) Baylis-Hillman Reaction
(B) Baylis Reaction
(C) Morita-Baylis-Hillman Reaction
(D) Hillman Reaction
26. The value of the Planck’s constant is
(A) JS10626.6 34−×
(B) JS10626.6 27−×
(C) 123JK10380.1 −−×
(D) Kg10109.9 31−×
27. Assertion (A) :SOCl2 in liquid SO2 is an
acid
Reason (R) : Liquid SO2 autoionises to
give SO2+ and −23SO
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the
correct explanation of A
(C) A is true, but R is false
(D) A is false, but R is true
�������
II 9 A-02-02
28. Identify the photo product :
oductPrPhoto]Y[]X[ hh ⎯→⎯⎯⎯→⎯⎯⎯→⎯ υυ
(A) Phenanthrene
(B) Naphthalene
(C) Anthracene
(D) Phenylnaphthalene
29. If an arbitrary wave function is used to
calculate the energy of a quantum
mechanical system the calculated energy
is never less than the true energy of the
system. This statement is
(A) Heisenberg uncertainty principle
(B) Perturbation theory
(C) Law of conservation of energy
(D) Variation principle
30. )(OPMn)s(OPMn 722722 l⎯→⎯Δ is
characterized by
I. No weight loss in TGA
II. Weight loss in TGA
III. Exothermic peak in DTA
IV. Endothermic peak in DTA
(A) I, III
(B) II, III
(C) I, IV
(D) II, IV
31. Match the following :
I. Furyl acrylic acid 1. Skraup
from furfural synthesis
II. 8-quinolinol from 2. Perkin reaction
0-amino phenol
III. Indole-3- 3. Bischler-
carboxaldehyde Napieralskireaction
IV. 1-Methyl Iso- 4. Reimer-Tiemanquinoline from reactionβ -phenyl ethylamine 5. Grignard
reaction
I II III IV
(A) 1 3 5 2
(B) 4 2 1 5
(C) 2 1 4 3
(D) 2 3 1 4
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II 10 A-02-02
32. A hypothetical molecule has a
configuration 2u
4g
4u
2g
2u
2g 211211 σππσσσ
What is its bond order ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 0
(D) 1.5
33. The selection rules for the appearance of
Q branch in the rotational-vibrational
spectrum of a diatomic molecule are
(A) 0J,1v =Δ+=Δ
(B) 1J,1v +=Δ+=Δ
(C) 1J,1v −=Δ−=Δ
(D) 0J,1v =Δ−=Δ
34. Identify the symmetry element present in
N
N
(A) C3V
(B) D3H
(C) C2V
(D) C3H
35. Arrange the given molecules with theincreasing absorption maxima
COOR
1
COOR
H3C
H3C N
2
MeO COOR
3
COOR N
4
(A) 1 ; 3 ; 2 ; 4
(B) 2 ; 3 ; 1 ; 4
(C) 4 ; 3 ; 2 ; 1
(D) 3 ; 4 ; 1 ; 2
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II 11 A-02-02
36. The crystal field stabilization energy
values of [ ] −36)CN(Fe and [ ] −3
6CoF
considering pairing energy (PE) are
respectively
I. PE20.2 o +Δ−
II. o4.0 Δ−
III. 0 (zero)
IV. PE24.2 o +Δ−
(A) I, II (B) II, III
(C) III, IV (D) II, IV
37. Assertion (A) :The pH of pure water at
80°C is less than 7.0.
Reason (R) : The ionic product of water
increases with increase in
temperature.
(A) A is false and R is true
(B) A is true and R is false
(C) Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
(D) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A
38. Identify the following as ‘‘R’’ or ‘‘S’’
H
COOH
CH3
CH2 Cl
CH(CH3)2
H
CN
C ≡ CH
CH2 − OH
H3C
CHO
H2N
(A) R ; R ; S ;
(B) S ; S ; S ;
(C) S ; R ; R ;
(D) S ; R ; S ;
39. Match the following :
List – I List – II
(Phenomenon) (Related technique)
I. Koopman’s rule 1. Raman
spectroscopy
II. Polarizability 2. Photoelectron
spectroscopy
III. Spin-spin 3. Mossbauer
coupling spectroscopy
IV. Dipole moment 4. NMR
spectroscopy
5) Infrared
spectroscopy
I II III IV
(A) 2 5 4 1
(B) 2 1 4 5
(C) 3 1 4 5
(D) 3 5 4 1
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II 12 A-02-02
40. In the following reaction
H H
O S O
H3C CH3
]X[⎯→⎯Δ
the major product [X] is
(A) E, E – 2, 4-hexadiene
(B) Z, E – 2, 4-hexadiene
(C) Z, Z – 2, 4-hexadiene
(D) E, Z – 2, 4-hexadiene
41. Match the following :
List – I List – II
(Process) (Catalyst used)
I. Hydroformylation 1. Rh(Ph3P)
3Cl
II. Monsanto 2. Co2(CO)
8
acetic acid
process
III. Hydrogenation 3. [ ]−22I)CO(Rh
IV. Wacker process 4. ZSM – 5
5. [ ] −24PdCl
I II III IV
(A) 2 1 3 5
(B) 2 3 1 5
(C) 3 5 1 4
(D) 4 3 1 5
42. In the reaction
Ala–Gly-Phe ]X[hydrolysis.ii
reagentSanger.i ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ →⎯
the major product [X] is
(A)
(B)
C)
(D)
3
22
CH|
HCOCHNH −−
NH CH CO2H
NO2
O2N
CH3
NH CH CO2H
NO2
O2N
CH2 C6H5
NH CH2 CO2H O2N
NO2
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II 13 A-02-02
43. Match the following
List – I List – II
I. Identify operation
of doing nothing 1. Cn
II. n-fold rotation 2. E
III. Reflection in a 3. i
mirror plane
IV. Inversion 4. σ
through a centre
of symmetry 5. Sn
I II III IV
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 1 2 4 5
(D) 5 1 2 4
44. For the following reactions
N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)
)g(H23
)g(N21
22 + NH3(g)
the equilibrium constants 1PK and
2PK are
related as
(A)21 PP K2K =
(B)21 PP K
21
K =
(C) 21P
2P KK =
(D) ( ) 21
PP 21KK =
45. Match the following :
List – I List – II
(Ion) (Number ofunpaired electrons)
I. +2Fe 1. 0
II. Cr3+ 2. 2
III. Cu+ 3. 3
IV. Ni2+ 4. 4
5. 6
I II III IV
(A) 5 4 2 1
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 4 3 1 2
(D) 5 3 1 2
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II 14 A-02-02
46. Anti inflammatory activity is exhibited by
(A) ibuprofen
(B) chloroequin
(C) isoniazid
(D) metronidazole
47. The conversion of toluene to benzoic acid
is faster in presence of
(A) Thermal energy
(B) Sonication
(C) Cooling
(D) MW irradiation
48. Salbutamol is useful in the treatment of
(A) hypertension
(B) amoebiasis
(C) tuberculosis
(D) bronchial asthama
49. Which of the following statements is
wrong ?
(A) Nanomaterials show the same
properties as those exhibited by bulk
materials
(B) Nanomaterials are prepared by either
top down or bottom up approaches
(C) Texture of nanomaterials is studied by
SEM / TEM
(D) Phase identification of nanomaterials
is done by XRD
50. The pollutant responsible for Bhopal
disaster in 1984 is
(A) Phosgene
(B) Methylamine
(C) Methyl isocyanate
(D) Carbon monoxide
——————————
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II 15 A-02-02
Space for Rough Work
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II 16 A-02-02
Space for Rough Work
Q.No KEY Q.No KEY1 C 26 A2 B 27 B3 A 28 A4 D 29 D5 D 30 C6 B 31 C7 B 32 C8 C 33 A9 A 34 B
10 B 35 A11 C 36 A12 A 37 C13 B 38 D14 C 39 B15 B 40 A16 D 41 B17 D 42 A18 C 43 B19 C 44 C20 C 45 C21 B 46 A22 D 47 D23 A 48 D24 A 49 A25 C 50 C
CHEMICAL SCIENCES PAPER – II (SUBJECT CODE-02)
Test Paper : III
Test Subject : CHEMICAL SCIENCES
Test Subject Code : A-02-03
Test Booklet Serial No. : ______________________
OMR Sheet No. : ________________________________
Hall Ticket No.
(Figures as per admission card)
Name & Signature of Invigilator
Name : ____________________________________ Signature : ___________________________________
Paper : IIISubject : CHEMICAL SCIENCES
Time : 2 Hours 30 Minutes Maximum Marks : 150
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 16 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 75
Instructions for the Candidates1. Write your Hall Ticket Number in the space provided on the top
of this page.2. This paper consists of seventy five multiple-choice type of
questions.3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet will
be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested to openthe booklet and compulsorily examine it as below :(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper
seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept a bookletwithout sticker-seal and do not accept an open booklet.
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions inthe booklet with the information printed on the coverpage. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missingor duplicate or not in serial order or any otherdiscrepancy should be got replaced immediately by acorrect booklet from the invigilator within the periodof 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Bookletwill be replaced nor any extra time will be given.
(iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet Numbershould be entered in the OMR Sheet and the OMR SheetNumber should be entered on this Test Booklet.
4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C)and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on thecorrect response against each item.
Example : A B C D
where (C) is the correct response.
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR Sheetgiven to you. If you mark at any place other than in the circle inthe Answer Sheet, it will not be evaluated.
6. Read instructions given inside carefully.7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet.8. If you write your name or put any mark on any part of the OMR
Answer Sheet, except for the space allotted for the relevantentries, which may disclose your identity, you will render yourselfliable to disqualification.
9. You have to return the test question booklet and OMR AnswerSheet to the invigilators at the end of the examination compulsorilyand must not carry it with you outside the Examination Hall.
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited. 12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers.
I. Phosphorescence 1. a schematicdiagram of thevarious type ofnon-radiativeand radiativetransitions thatcan occur inmolecules
II. Intersystem 2. Spontaneouscrossing emission of
radiation arisingfrom a transitionbetween statesof differentmultiplicities
III. Fluorescence 3. Spontaneousemission ofradiationarising fromtransitionbetween statesof the samemultiplicity
IV. Jablonski 4. Non-radiativediagram transition
between statesof differentmultiplicity
5. Non radiativetransitionbetween statesof the samemultiplicity
I II III IV(A) 1 2 3 5(B) 3 1 2 5(C) 2 4 3 1(D) 2 5 3 1
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III� 5 A-02-03
12. An ESR spectrum of hydrogen atomshows two lines. This is due to(A) Spin-spin coupling(B) Quadrupole coupling(C) Hyperfine coupling(D) Antiferromagnetic coupling
13. In the following sequence of reactions
CO2H
]X[
CrO)iiiPhMgBr2)ii
NCH)i
3
22 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ →⎯
the major product [X] is
(A)
CO2H
(B)
CO2H
(C)
CO2H
(D)
CO2H
14. Mention the principle involved in LED-television(A) Luminescence(B) Phosphorescence(C) Electroluminescence(D) Fluorescence
15. In the transformation of oxyhemoglobin todeoxyhemoglobin(A) Low spin Fe2+ changes to high spin
Fe2+
(B) Low spin Fe2+ changes to low spinFe3+
(C) High spin Fe2+ changes to low spinFe2+
(D) High spin Fe2+ changes to high spinFe3+
16. The correct statements among thefollowing :
1. The canonical ensemble is animaginary collection of replications ofthe actual system with a commontemperature.
2. The Boltzmann distribution gives thenumber of the molecules in each stateof a system at any temperature.
3. The partition function is an indicationof the number of thermally accessiblestates at the temperature of interest.
4. The molecular partition function canbe written as q = qT qR qV qE.
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2, 3 and 4(C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) All are correct
17. During expansion of an ideal gas for agiven volume change, the change inpressure in adiabatic process ( )adPΔ is______ that of isothermal process ( )isPΔ .
(A) Equal to (B) Exactly half(C) Smaller than (D) Larger than
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III� 6 A-02-03
18. Huckel MO energy levels of ethylene are
(A) β−αβ+α 2;2
(B) β−αβ+α ;
(C) β−αβ+α 21
21 ;
(D) β−αβ+α 3;3
19. Match the following :
I. Maleic acid 1.
H CH3
H3C CO2H
II. Citraconic acid 2.
H H3C
H CO2H
III. Crotonic acid 3.
CO2H
H3C
H CO2H
IV. Tiglic acid 4.
CO2H
H
H CO2H
5.
H CH3CH2
H3C CO2H
I II III IV(A) 1 4 2 3(B) 4 3 2 1(C) 3 1 5 2(D) 2 3 1 5
20. Identify the heterocycle formed
N
R
0
CH2 Ph
+ DMF + POCl3 Heterocycle
(A)
N
CHO H
Cl
(B)
N
Cl R
CHO
(C)
N
CHO
R Cl
(D)
N
CHO R
Cl
21. The dark purple colour of KMnO4 is due to
(A) d-d transition
(B) Absorption edge transition
(C) Charge transfer process
(D) *π→σ transition
22. 19F NHR spectrum of PCl2F3 shows
(A) Two triplets and two doublets
(B) Two triplets and one doublet
(C) Two doublets and two triplets
(D) One singlet and two triplets
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III� 7 A-02-03
23. The product formed in the followingreaction is
CH3
CH OH Me
X
H
,O2H
,H
+−
−
+⎯⎯ →⎯
X is
(A)
(B)
CH3
CH3
(C)
CH3
CH3
(D)
CH3
CH3
24. Predict the product of dipolar addition
oductPrCCOOMeCMeOOC3N ⎯→⎯≡+⊕
(A)
N
N N
Me OOC COO Me
(B)
NH N
Me OOC COO Me
N
(C)
NH HN
Me OOC COO Me
N
(D)
C COO Me N
Me OOC
N
C N
25. Match the following :
List I List II
I. ψ=ψ EH 1. Planck
II. ν= hE 2. Born
III. 2|| ψ 3. Dirac
IV. mVh=λ 4. De Broglie
5. SchrodingerI II III IV
(A) 5 1 2 4(B) 1 2 3 4(C) 4 5 2 1(D) 3 2 4 1
26. Identify from the following systems inwhich orbital contribution to magneticmoment is expected
I. [ ] +262 )OH(Mn
II. [ ] −24BrMn
III. [ ] −36)CN(Fe
IV. [ ] +262 )OH(Co
(A) I, II (B) II, III
(C) III, IV (D) I, IV
27. Mossbauer spectroscopy is concerned
with
I. Doppler effect
II. Photoelectric effect
III. Recoil energy
IV. Cotton effect
(A) I, II (B) I, III
(C) II, III (D) II, IV
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III� 8 A-02-03
28. Match the following :
List – I List – II
(Compound) (Nature)
I. K2 Cr2 O7 1. Anticancer agent
II. EDTA 2. Reductant
III. KI 3. Chelating agent
IV. Cis-Pt (NH3)2 Cl2 4. Oxidant
5. DesiccantI II III IV
(A) 4 3 2 1(B) 2 3 4 1(C) 5 3 2 1(D) 5 3 4 1
29. The reaction given below is an exampleof
ZnI + Bu Bu
Pd (PPh3)4 Ph
Ph
O O
I
(A) Nazarov reaction(B) Nef reaction(C) Negishi reaction(D) Nicholas reaction
30. Select the correct statements from thefollowing :1. Coagulation of a colloid is the
reversible aggregation of dispersedphase.
2. Flocculation of a colloid is theirreversible aggregation of thedispersed phase.
3. Colloids are purified by electrodialysis.
4. Hydrophobic colloids are flocculatedmost efficiently by the ions of oppositecharge.
(A) 1, 3 and 4 (B) 2, 3 and 4(C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 3 and 4
31. Assertion (A) : In a catalysed reactiona small amount of thecatalyst brings a largechange in the rate ofthe reaction.
Reason (R) : A catalyst doesnotparticipate in thereaction.
(A) Both A and R are true but R is not thecorrect explanation of A
(B) A is true R is false
(C) A is false R is true
(D) Both A and R are true and R is thecorrect explanation for A
32. Identify the product resulting from singletoxygen and cyclohexadiene
oductPrO12 ⎯→⎯+
(A)
O
O
(B)
O
O
(C)
O
O
(D)
O
O
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III� 9 A-02-03
33. Identify prontosil from the following
(A)
OH
OH OH
(B)
CH3
OH
NO2
(C)
H2N N N SO2 NH2
(D)
H2N N N SO2 NH2
NH2
34. Match the following :
List – I List – II
(Complex) (Hybridization of
Central Atom)
I. [ ] −24ClPt 1. sp3
II. [ ]4)CO(Ni 2. dsp2
III. [ ]5)CO(Fe 3. dsp3
IV. [ ]6)CO(Cr 4. d2sp3
5. d3sp3
I II III IV
(A) 1 2 5 4
(B) 2 1 3 4
(C) 3 1 4 2
(D) 2 1 5 4
35. The quadrupole nuclei among thefollowing areI. 12C
II. 13CIII. 14N
IV. 35Cl
(A) I, III (B) II, III
(C) II, IV (D) III, IV
36. In the extraction of metal ions from water
into an organic solvent, some of the
desirable characteristics of the organic
solvent are
I. Low miscibility with water
II. Low toxicity
III. High miscibility with water
IV. High toxicity
(A) I, II (B) II, III
(C) III, IV (D) I, IV
37. Assertion (A) : The entropy of a
gaseous mixture is
greater than the sum of
the entropies of the
individual gases.
Reasoning (R) : All spontaneous
processes are
accompanied by an
increase in entropy.
(A) A is true and R is false
(B) A is false and R is true
(C) A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A
(D) A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
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III� 10 A-02-03
38. The correct statements among thefollowing are
1. A catalyst does not affect the
equilibrium constant.
2. Le Chatelier’s principle states that a
system at equilibrium, when subjected
to a disturbance responds in a way that
minimizes the effect of the disturbance.
3. Increase in temperature favours the
reactants in endothermic reactions and
products in exothermic reactions.
4. Oxidation is the removal of electrons
from a species and reduction is the
addition of electrons to a species.
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 2, 3 and 4
39. Match the following :
List – I List II
(Species) (Nature)
I. Chlorophyll 1. Contains Co (III) ion
II. Haemoglobin 2. Non-heme iron sulphur
protein
III. Vitamin B12 3. Contains Mg
IV. Rubredoxin 4. Anticancer drug
5. Contains Fe (II)
I II III IV
(A) 1 2 5 4
(B) 3 5 1 2
(C) 5 4 3 1
(D) 3 2 4 5
40. The Z, Z, Z, Z, Z – isomer of [10] annuleneis
(A)
H H
(B)
(C)
(D)
41. When benzaldehyde is treated with SF4,
the product X is obtained. Identify ‘X’
among the following.
(A)
CHO
F
(B)
CHO
F
(C)
F
CHO
(D)
CHF2
42. In quantum mechanical tunnelling thetransmission coefficient(A) Increases with the thickness of the barrier(B) Decreases exponentially with the
thickness of the barrier(C) Decreases with the square of the
thickness of the barrier(D) Doesnot depend on the thickness of
the barrier
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III� 11 A-02-03
43. Example of fermions are
(A) Electron and proton
(B) Photon and proton
(C) Electron and photon
(D) Photons
44. The molecule H2O2 belongs to _______
point group.
(A) C2v (B) C
2h
(C) D2h (D) C
2
45. Match the following
List – I List – II
I. Joule-Thomson 1. PV = constantcoefficient
II. Equation of state 2.T
qrev
of a gas at its Boyletemperature
III. Entropy change 3.T
qirrev
of a system during irreversible process
IV. Vant Haffs reaction 4.HP
T⎟⎠⎞⎜
⎝⎛
δδ
isotherm
5. RT/Gp eK °Δ−α
6.HT
P⎟⎠⎞⎜
⎝⎛
δδ
I II III IV(A) 3 2 1 4(B) 4 1 2 5(C) 6 1 2 5(D) 4 3 6 2
46. Which of the following exhibit quadrupolesplitting ?
I. [ ]64 )CN(FeK II. [ ]63 )CN(FeK
III. [ ] 362 Cl)OH(Fe IV. Fe(CO)5
(A) I, II (B) I, III(C) II, III (D) II, IV
47. Assertion (A) : Zn2+ ion is zinc fingerproteins is bound toS2N2 system.
Reason (R) : Zn2+ ion is borderlineacid and is stable withborderline S2N2system.
(A) Both A and R are true and R is thecorrect explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not thecorrect explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false(D) A is false but R is true
48. Match the following :List – I List – II(Ion) (Electron Configuration)I. Ce3+ 1. [Xe] 4f4
II. Pm3+ 2. [Xe] 4f1
III. Gd3+ 3. [Xe] 4f5
IV. Lu3+ 4. [Xe] 4f7
5. [Xe] 4f14
I II III IV(A) 2 4 1 3(B) 1 2 5 4(C) 2 1 4 5(D) 1 3 4 5
49. A linear molecule having N atoms has________ number of independent modesof vibration.
(A) 3N – 5 (B) 3N – 6
(C) 3N (D) 3N – 3
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III� 12 A-02-03
50. Lowest allowed energy is equal to zerofor a(A) Harmonic oscillator(B) Particle in a two dimensional box(C) A rigid rotator(D) Hydrogen atom
51. Identify the product in the followingreaction
Cro3 AcOH
X
X is
(A)
CO2H
CO2H
(B)
CO2H
CO2H
(C)
CO2H
(D)
CO2H
CO2H
52. Match the following
I. Aerosol 1. CyclopropaneII. Insecticide 2. Iodoform
III. Anaesthetic 3. P-dichlorobenzeneIV. Antiseptic 4. Freon
5. CCl4I II III IV
(A) 4 3 1 2(B) 2 3 4 1(C) 3 2 1 4(D) 4 5 3 2
53. For a one component system themaximum number of phases that cancoexist at equilibrium are(A) 4 (B) 3(C) 2 (D) 1
54. The standard reduction potentials of Fe3+,Fe2+/Pt and Fe2+/Fe electrodes at 25°Care +0.771V and – 0.440V respectively.The standard emf of the cell in which thefollowing reaction takes place is
++ →+ 23 Fe3Fe2Fe(A) + 0.331 V (B) – 0.331 V(C) – 1.211 V (D) +1.211 V
55. Assertion (A) : The pH of aqueoussolution of NaCl is 7.0
Reason (R) : Aqueous solutions ofall salts are neutral.
(A) A and R are true and R is the correctexplanation of A
(B) A and R are true but R is not thecorrect explanation of A
(C) A is true and R is false(D) A is false and R is true
56. Predict the product formed undercyclization conditions
R
OAC
COOME
NH2
COOME
+
oductPrTHFNaH ⎯→⎯++
(A)
MeOOC
O
R
NH
(B)
MeOOC
O NH
R
(C)
MeOOC
O NH
R
(D)
MeOOC
O NH
R
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III� 13 A-02-03
57. In the following reaction
CHO a) Alkaline KMNO4
b) Cromic acid
One of the products is
(A)
CHO
CO2H (B)
CHO
O
CH3
(C)
CO2H
O
CH3
(D)
CHO
58. Match the following :
List – I List – II
(Compound) (Nature)
I. HCl 1. Conjugate base of +4NH
II. NH3 2. Arrhenius base
III. AlCl3 3. Conjugate acid of +4NH
IV. NaOH 4. Lewis acid
5. Bronsted acid
I II III IV
(A) 3 1 5 2
(B) 5 3 4 2
(C) 4 1 5 2
(D) 5 1 4 2
59. Assertion (A) : CO is a strong ligand.
Reason (R) : It acts only as a σdonor.
(A) Both A and R are true and R is thecorrect explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not thecorrect explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false(D) A is false but R is true
60. Which commercial product comes fromcellulose ?(A) Nylon (B) Rayon(C) Dacron (D) Orlon
61. Assertion (A) : Cluster formation by ametal is inverselyproportional to itseffective nuclearcharge.
Reason (R) : Nuclear chargecontracts the metalorbitals meant foroverlap.
(A) Both A and R are true and R is thecorrect explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not thecorrect explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false(D) A is false but R is true
62. An enzyme enhances the rate of thereaction by(A) Increasing the number of collisions
between the reactants(B) Increasing the velocity of the reacting
molecules(C) Providing energy to the reacting
molecules(D) Decreasing the activation energy of
the reaction
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III� 14 A-02-03
63. Assertion (A) : The d1 and d8 systemshave the same numberof microstates.
Reason (R) : According to holeformalism, n10n dd −≡where n is the numberof electrons
(A) Both A and R are true and R is thecorrect explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not thecorrect explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false(D) A is false but R is true
64. For the photolysis of 22 IHHI +→ , thefollowing mechanism is proposed
I.HhvHI +→+ .
IHHI.H 2 +→+ .
2I.I.I →+The quantum yield of this reaction is(A) 0.5 (B) 1.0(C) 2.0 (D) 4.0
65. Assertion (A) : ESR spectroscopy isnot applicable for H2molecule.
Reason (R) : H2 molecule contains asingle bond betweenthe H atoms.
(A) Both A and R are true and R is thecorrect explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not thecorrect explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false(D) A is false but R is true
66. 1, 2 – Disubstituted olefins having E/zisomerism can be identified by 1H–nmrusing(A) Chemical shift(B) Deutereum exchange(C) Solvent(D) Coupling constant
67. Predict the [4+2] Diels-Alder cycloadditionproduct with right stereochemistry
O
O
MeO
Product
+
68. An electron of mass ‘m’ is confined to aone dimensional box of length ‘l’. Thefrequency of the radiation absorbed duringits excitation from its second energy levelto third level is
(A) 2ml8
h5(B) 2ml8
h
(C) 2ml8
h3(D) 2ml8
h4
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III� 15 A-02-03
69. The rate of the reaction is ___________the number of activated molecules, when
it is controlled by the steric factor.
(A) Greater than (B) Not related to
(C) Less than (D) Equal to
70. According to Wade’s rules, structures of
B10 C2 H12 and (B9 C2 H12)2– are respectively
I. Closo II. Nido
III. Arachno IV. Hypho
(A) I, II (B) II, III
(C) I, IIII (D) II, IV
71. Assertion (A) : Both the complexes
proceeding by
dissociative mechanism,
[ ]+243 Cl)NH(Coundergoes much faster
acid hydrolysis
reaction than
[ ] +253 Cl)NH(Co
Reason (R) : The rate of loss of
chloride decreases as
charge on the complex
increases.
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true
72. Predict the reagent required for the regio-selective transformation (1, 4 – addition)
73. Indicate the catalyst used in the Wackerreaction having industrial importance(A) Zn (B) Cd(C) Pd(II) (D) Hg
74. Inform the selectivity of product formed inthe Heck reaction
Br
I
3NEt
2)OAc(Pd2 COOHCHCH ⎯⎯⎯ →⎯−=+
Product
(A)
CH = CH − COOH
I
(B)
Br
I
CH = CH − COOH
(C)
Br
I
HOOC – HC = HC
(D)
Br
CH = CH − COOH
75. The number of ESR signals formed in the
spectrum of benzene anion radical is
(A) 5 (B) 6
(C) 7 (D) 8
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III� 16 A-02-03
Space for Rough Work
Q.No KEY Q.No KEY Q.No KEY1 D 26 C 51 B2 C 27 B 52 A3 D 28 A 53 B4 A 29 C 54 D5 C 30 D 55 C6 D 31 B 56 B7 C 32 D 57 C8 D 33 D 58 D9 D 34 B 59 C
10 A 35 D 60 B11 C 36 A 61 A12 C 37 D 62 D13 A 38 B 63 D14 C 39 B 64 C15 A 40 B 65 B16 D 41 D 66 D17 C 42 B 67 A18 B 43 A 68 A19 B 44 D 69 C20 D 45 B 70 A21 C 46 D 71 A22 C 47 A 72 C23 C 48 C 73 C24 A 49 A 74 D25 A 50 C 75 C