ALL ASSAM APSC CCE (PRELIMS) 2020 FREE MOCK TEST (20-12 ...

ALL ASSAM APSC CCE (PRELIMS) 2020

FREE MOCK TEST (20-12-2020)

GENERAL STUDIES-2 (CSAT)

Time Allowed: 2 (Two) Hours Maximum Marks: 200

_______________________________________________________________________________

INSTRUCTIONS

1. Immediately after the commencement of the examination, you should check that this test booklet does not have any unprinted or torn or missing pages or items, etc. If so, get it replaced by a complete test booklet. 2. This test booklet contains 80 items (questions). Each item is printed in English only. Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item. 3. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. 4. All items carry equal marks. 5. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in the registration form attached along with the question paper/answer (OMR) sheet and submit to the invigilator. Failing to do so, your answer sheet may not be evaluated. 6. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet. 7. Penalty for wrong answers: THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.

(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-fourth (0.25) of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. (ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question. (iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that. Note: Please keep your mobile phone in switched off mode.

1. The number of times the digit 5 will

appear while writing the integers from 1

to 1000 is

(a) 269

(b) 271

(c) 300

(d) 302

2. A solid cube is painted yellow, blue and

black such that opposite faces are of same

colour. The cube is then cut into 36 cubes

of two different sizes such that 32 cubes

are small and the other four cubes are Big.

None of the faces of the bigger cubes is

painted blue. How many cubes have only

one face painted?

(a) 4

(b) 6

(c) 8

(d) 10

3. A and B are two heavy steel blocks. If B

is placed on the top of A, the weight

increases by 60%. How much weight will

reduce with respect to the total weight of

A and B, if B is removed from the top of

A?

(a) 60%

(b) 45.5%

(c) 40%

(d) 37.5%

4. Mr 'X' has three children. The birthday

of the first child falls on the 5th Monday

of April, that of the second one falls on

the 5th Thursday of November. On which

day is the birthday of his third child, which

falls on 20th December?

(a) Monday

(b) Thursday

(c) Saturday

(d) Sunday

5. Consider the following Statements and

Conclusions:

Statements:

1. Some rats are cats.

2. Some cats are dogs.

3. No dog is a cow.

Conclusions:

I. No cow is a cat.

II. No dog is a rat.

III. Some cats are rats.

Which of the above conclusions is/are

drawn from the statements?

(a) I, II and III

(b) Only I and II

(c) Only III

(d) Only II and III

6. The number of parallelograms that can

be formed from a set of four parallel lines

intersecting another set of four parallel

lines, is

(a) 18

(b) 24

(c) 32

(d) 36

7. In a school every student is assigned a

unique identification number. A student is

a football player if and only if the

identification number is divisible by 4,

whereas a student is a cricketer if and

only if the identification number is

divisible by 6. If every number from 1 to

100 is assigned to a student, then how

many of them play cricket as well as

football?

(a) 4

(b) 8

(c) 10

(d) 12

8. When a runner was crossing the 12 km

mark, she was informed that she had

completed only 80% of the race. How

many kilometres was the runner

supposed to run in this event?

(a) 14

(b) 15

(c) 16

(d) 16.5

9. Raju has Rs. 9000 with him and he

wants to buy a mobile handset; but he

finds that he has only 75% of the amount

required to buy the handset. Therefore,

he borrows 2000 from a friend. Then

(a) Raju still does not have enough

amount to buy the handset.

(b) Raju has exactly the same amount as

required to buy the handset.

(c) Raju has enough amount to buy the

handset and he will have 500 with him

after buying the handset.

(d) Raju has enough amount to buy the

handset and he will have 1000 with him

after buying the handset.

10. In 2002, Meenu's age was one-third of

the age of Meera, whereas in 2010,

Meenu's age was half the age of Meera.

What is Meenu's year of birth?

(a) 1992

(b) 1994

(c) 1996

(d) 1998

11. Rakesh and Rajesh together bought 10

balls and 10 rackets. Rakesh spent 1300

and Rajesh spent 1500. If each racket

costs three times a ball does, then what is

the price of a racket?

(a) Rs. 70

(b) Rs. 90

(c) Rs. 210

(d) Rs. 240

12. In a conference, out of a total 100

participants, 70 are Indians. If 60 of the

total participants are vegetarian, then

which of the following statements is/are

correct?

1. At least 30 Indian participants are

vegetarian.

2. At least 10 Indian participants are non-

vegetarian.

Select the correct answer using the codes

given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

13. P, Q and R are three towns. The

distance between P and Q is 60 km,

whereas the distance between P and R is

80 km. Q is in the West of P and R is in the

South of P. What is the distance between

Q and R?

(a) 140 km

(b) 130 km

(c) 10 km

(d) 100 km

14. All members of a club went to

Mumbai and stayed in a hotel. On the first

day, 80% went for shopping and 50%

went for sightseeing, whereas 10% took

rest in the hotel. Which of the following

conclusion(s) can be drawn from the

above data?

1. 40% members went for shopping as

well as sightseeing.

2. 20% members went for only shopping.

Select the correct answer using the code

given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

15. In a school, 60% students play cricket.

A student who does not play cricket, plays

football. Every football player has got a

two-wheeler. Which of the following

conclusions cannot be drawn from the

above data?

1. 60% of the students do not have two-

wheelers.

2. No cricketer has a two-wheeler.

3. Cricket players do not play football.

Select the correct answer using the code

given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

16. The ratio of a two-digit natural

number to a number formed by reversing

its digits is 4: 7. The number of such pairs

is

(a) 5

(b) 4

(c) 3

(d) 2

17. In an examination, A has scored 20

marks more than B. If B has scored 5% less

marks than A, how much has B scored?

(a) 360

(b) 380

(c) 400

(d) 420

18. Seeta and Geeta go for a swim after a

gap of every 2 days and every 3 days

respectively. If on 1st January both of

them went for a swim together, when will

they go together next?

(a) 7th January

(b) 8th January

(c) 12th January

(d) 13th January

19. X, Y and Z are three contestants in a

race of 1000 m. Assume that all run with

different uniform speeds. X gives Y a start

of 40 m and X gives Z a start of 64 m. If Y

and Z were to compete in a race of 1000

m, how many metres start will Y give to Z?

(a) 20

(b) 25

(c) 30

(d) 35

20. If x is greater than or equal to 25 and y

is less than or equal to 40, then which one

of the following is always correct?

(a) x is greater than y

(b) (y - x) is greater than 15

(c) (y - x) is less than or equal to 15

(d) (x - y) is greater than or equal to 65

21. Ena was born 4 years after her

parents' marriage. Her mother is three

years younger than her father and 24

years older than Ena, who is 13 years old.

At what age did Ena's father get married?

(a) 22 years

(b) 23 years

(c) 24 years

(d) 25 years

22. Rakesh had money to buy 8 mobile

handsets of a specific company. But the

retailer offered very good discount on

that particular handset. Rakesh could buy

10 mobile handsets with the amount he

had. What was the discount the retailer

offered?

(a) 15%

(b) 20%

(c) 25%

(d) 30%

23. The average marks of 100 students are

given to be 40. It was found later that

marks of one student were 53 which were

misread as 83. The corrected mean marks

are

(a) 39

(b) 39.7

(c) 40

(d) 40.3

24. If every alternative letter of the

English alphabet from B onwards

(including B) is written in lower case

(small letters) and the remaining letters

are capitalized, then how is the first

month of the second half of the year

written?

(a) JuLY

(b) jULy

(c) jUly

(d) jUlY

25. Sunita cuts a sheet of paper into three

pieces. Length of first piece is equal to the

average of the three single digit odd

prime numbers. Length of the second

piece is equal to that of the first plus one-

third the length of the third. The third

piece is as long as the other two pieces

together. The length of the original sheet

of paper is

(a) 13 units

(b) 15 units

(c) 16 units

(d) 30 units

26. In the sequence 1, 5, 7, 3, 5, 7, 4, 3, 5,

7, how many such 5s are there which are

not immediately preceded by 3 but are

immediately followed by 7?

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) None

27. A joint family consists of seven

members A, B, C, D, E, F and G with three

females. G is a widow and sister-in-law of

D's father F. B and D are siblings and A is

daughter of B. C is cousin of B. Who is E?

1. Wife of F

2. Grandmother of A

3. Aunt of C

Select the correct answer using the code

given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) none of these

28. Each face of a cube can be painted in

black or white colours. In how many

different ways can the cube be painted?

(a) 9

(b) 10

(c) 11

(d) 12

29. How many triplets (x, y, z) satisfy the

equation x + y + z = 6, where x, y and z are

natural numbers?

(a) 4

(b) 5

(c) 9

(d) 10

30. If $ means 'divided by'; @ means

'multiplied by'; # means 'minus', then the

value of 10#5@1$5 is

(a) 0

(b) 1

(c) 2

(d) 9

31. An 8-digit number 4252746B leaves

remainder 0 when divided by 3. How

many values of B are possible?

(a) 2

(b) 3

(c) 4

(d) 6

Directions for the following 3 (three)

items:

Read the following information and

answer the three items that follow:

Six students A, B, C, D, E and F appeared in

several tests. Either C or F scores the

highest. Whenever C scores the highest,

then E scores the least. Whenever F

scores the highest, B scores the least. In

all the tests they got different marks; D

scores higher than A, but they are close

competitors; A scores higher than B; C

scores higher than A.

32. If F stands second in the ranking, then

the position of B is

(a) Third

(b) Fourth

(c) Fifth

(d) Sixth

33. If B scores the least, the rank of C will

be

(a) Second

(b) Third

(c) Fourth

(d) Second or third

34. If E is ranked third, then which one of

the following is correct?

(a) E gets more marks than C

(b) C gets more marks than E

(c) A is ranked fourth

(d) D is ranked fifth

Directions for the following 2 (two) items:

Read the following statements SI and S2

and answer the two items that follow:

S1: Twice the weight of Sohan is less than

the weight of Mohan or that of Rohan.

S2: Twice the weight of Rohan is greater

than the weight of Mohan or that of

Sohan.

35. Which one of the following statements

is correct?

(a) Weight of Mohan is greatest

(b) Weight of Sohan is greatest

(c) Weight of Rohan is greatest

(d) Whose weight is greatest' cannot be

determined

36. Which one of the following statements

is correct?

(a) Weight of Mohan is least

(b) Weight of Sohan is least

(c) Weight of Rohan is least

(d) 'Whose weight is least' cannot be

determined

37. What is X in the sequence 132, 129,

124, 117, 106, 93, X?

(a) 74

(b) 75

(c) 76

(d) 77

38. A wall clock moves 10 minutes fast in

every 24 hours. The clock was set right to

show the correct time at 8:00 a.m. on

Monday. When the clock shows the time

6:00 p.m. on Wednesday, what is the

correct time?

(a) 5:36 p.m.

(b) 5:30 p.m.

(c) 5:24 p.m.

(d) 5:18 p.m.

39. If the numerator and denominator of

a proper fraction are increased by the

same positive quantity which is greater

than zero, the resulting fraction is

(a)always less than the original fraction

(b) always greater than the original

fraction

(c) always equal to the original fraction

(d) such that nothing can .be claimed

definitely

40. What is X in the sequence 4, 196, 16,

144, 36, 100, 64, X ?

(a) 48

(b) 64

(c) 125

(d) 256

41. In a group of 15 people; 7 can read

French, 8 can read English while 3 of them

can read neither of these two languages.

The number of people who can read

exactly one language is

(a) 10

(b) 9

(c) 5

(d) 4

42. A printer numbers the pages of a book

starting with 1 and uses 3089 digits in all.

How many pages does the book have ?

(a) 1040

(b) 1048

(c) 1049

(d) 1050

43. Consider the following sequence that

follows some arrangement:

c_accaa_aa_bc_b

The letters that appear in the gaps are

(a) abba

(b) cbbb

(c) bbbb

(d) cccc

44. A family has two children along with

their parents. The average of the weights

of the children and their mother is 50 kg.

The average of the weights of the children

and their father is 52 kg. If the weight of

the father is 60 kg, then what is the

weight of the mother ?

(a) 48 kg

(b) 50 kg

(c) 52 kg

(d) 54 kg

45. Suppose you have sufficient amount

of rupee currency in three denominations:

Rs. 1, Rs. 10 and Rs. 50. In how many

different ways can you pay a bill of Rs.

107?

(a) 16

(b) 17

(c) 18

(d) 19

46. 'A' started from his house and walked

20 m towards East, where his friend 13'

joined him. They together walked 10 m in

the same direction. Then 'A' turned left

while 'B' turned right and travelled 2 m

and 8 m respectively. Again 'B' turned left

to travel 4 m followed by 5 m to his right

to reach his office. 'A' turned right and

travelled 12 m to reach his office. What is

the shortest distance between the two

offices?

(a) 15 m

(b) 17 m

(c) 19 m

(d) 20 m

47. Consider two statements S1 and S2

followed by a question:

S1: p and q both are prime numbers.

S2: p + q is an odd integer.

Question: Is pq an odd integer?

Which one of the following is correct?

(a) S1 alone is sufficient to answer the

question

(b) S2 alone is sufficient to answer the

question

(c) Both S1 and S2 taken together are not

sufficient to answer the question

(d) Both S1 and S2 are necessary to

answer the question

48. Which year has the same calendar as

that of 2009 ?

(a) 2018

(b) 2017

(c) 2016

(d) 2015

49. Number 136 is added to 5B7 and the

sum obtained is 7A3, where A and B are

integers. It is given that 7A3 is exactly

divisible by 3. The only possible value of B

is

(a) 2

(b) 5

(c) 7

(d) 8

50. If A runs less fast than B, and B runs as

fast but not faster than C; then, as

compared to A, C runs

(a) slower than A

(b) faster than A

(c) with same speed as A

(d) Given data isnot sufficient to

determine

51. Each of A., B, C and D has Rs 100. A

pays Rs 20 to B, who pays Rs 10 to C, who

gets Rs 30 from D. In this context, which

one of the following statements is not

correct?

(a) C is the richest

(b) D is the poorest.

(c) C has more than what A and D have

together.

(d) B is richer than D

52. Examine the following statements:

1.Lady's finger is tastier than cabbage.

2.Cauliflower is tastier than lady's finger.

3.Cabbage is not tastier than peas.

The conclusion that can be drawn from

these statements is that

(a) peas are as tasty as lady's finger.

(b)peas are as tasty as cauliflower and

lady's finger.

(c) cabbage is the least tasty of the four

vegetables.

(d) cauliflower is tastier than cabbage

53. Shahid and Rohit start from the same

point in opposite directions. After each 1

km, Shahid always turns left and Rohit

always turns right. Which of the following

statements is correct?

(a) After both have travelled 2 km, the

distance between them is 4 km.

(b) They meet after each has travelled

3km.

(c) They meet for the first time after each

has travelled 4 km.

(d)They go on without ever meeting again

54. In a 500 metres race, B starts 45

metres ahead of A, but A wins the race

while B is still 35 metres behind. What is

the ratio of the speeds of A to B assuming

that both start at the same time?

(a) 25: 21

(b) 25: 20

(c) 5:3

(d) 5:7

55. Two equal glasses of same type are

respectively 1/3 and 1/4 full of milk. They

are then filled up with water and the

contents are mixed in a pot. What is the

ratio of milk and water in the pot?

(a) 7 : 17

(b) 1 : 3

(c) 9 : 21

(d) 11 : 23

56. Out of 130 students appearing in an

examination, 62 failed in English, 52 failed

in Mathematics, whereas 24 failed in both

English and Mathematics. The number of

students who passed finally is

(a) 40

(b) 50

(c) 55

(d) 60

57. In a group of persons travelling in a

bus, 6 persons can speak Tamil, 15 can

speak Hindi and 6 can speak Gujarati. In

that group none can speak any other

language. If 2 persons in the group can

speak two languages only and one person

can speak all the three languages, then

how many persons are there in the

group?

(a) 21

(b) 22

(c) 23

(d) 24

58. In a parking area, the total number of

wheels of all the cars (four-wheelers) and

scooters/motorbikes (two-wheelers) is

100 more than twice the number of

parked vehicles. The number of cars

parked is

(a) 35

(b) 45

(c) 50

(d) 55

59. The mangroves can shed tons of

leaves per acre every year; fungi and

bacteria break down this leaf litter and

consume it, they then are consumed by

tiny worms and crustaceans, which in turn

feed small fish, which feed larger fish and

birds and crocodiles.

Which among the following is the most

logical inference of the above statement?

(a) Coastal areas cannot have food chains

without mangroves.

(b) Mangroves are an essential

component of all marine ecosystems.

(c) Mangroves have a crucial role in some

of the coastal food chains.

(d) The composition of marine flora and

fauna is largely determined by mangroves.

60. "By liberty I mean the eager

maintenance of that atmosphere in which

men have the opportunity to be their best

selves."

Which one of the following expresses the

view implied in the above statement?

(a) Liberty is the absence of restraint

on human action.

(b) Liberty is what law permits people

to perform.

(c) Liberty is the ability to do what one

desires.

(d) Liberty is the maintenance of

conditions for the growth of human

personality.

61. Twelve people form a club. By picking

lots, one of them will host a dinner for all

once in a month. The number of dinners a

particular member has to host in one year

is

(a) One

(b) Zero

(c) Three

(d) Cannot be predicted

62. An automobiles owner reduced his

monthly petrol consumption when the

prices went up. The price-consumption

relationship is as follows:

Price (in Rs. Per litre) 40 50 60 75

Monthly consumption (in litres) 60 48 40

30

If the price goes up to Rs. 80 per litre, his

expected consumption (in litres) will be

(a) 30

(b) 28

(c) 26

(d) 24

63. Consider the following matrix:

3 8 10 2 ? 1

6 56 90 2 20 0

What is the missing number at ‘?’ in the

matrix?

(a) 5

(b) 0

(c) 7

(d) 3

64. What is the missing number ‘X’ of the

series 7, X, 21, 31, 43?

(a) 11

(b) 12

(c) 13

(d) 14

65. A man purchases two clocks A & B at a

total cost of Rs 650.He sells A with 20%

profit and B at a loss of 25% and gets the

same selling price for both the clocks.

What are the purchasing prices of A and B

respectively?

(a) Rs 225; Rs 425

(b) Rs 250; Rs 400

(c) Rs 275; Rs 375

(d) Rs 300; Rs 350

Passage:

Many pathogens that cause food borne

illnesses are unknown. Food

contamination can occur at any stage

from farm to plate. Since most cases of

food poisoning go unreported, the true

extent of global food borne illness is

unknown. Improvements in international

monitoring have led to greater public

awareness, yet the rapid globalization of

food production increases consumers’

vulnerability by making food harder to

regulate and trace. “We have the world

on our plates”, says an official of WHO.

66. Which of the following is the most

logical corollary to the above passage?

a). With more options for food come

more risks

b) Food processing is the source of all

food borne illnesses

c) We should depend on locally produced

food only

d) Globalisation of food production should

be curtailed

Passage:

It is no longer enough for us to talk about

providing for universal access to

education, Making available schooling

facilities in an essential prerequisite, but is

insufficient to ensure that all children

attend school and participate in the

learning process. The school may be

there, but children may not attend or they

may drop out after a few months Through

school and social mapping, we must

address the entire gamut of social,

economic, cultural and indeed linguistic

and pedagogic issues, factors that prevent

children from weaker sections and

disadvantaged groups, as also girls, from

regularly attending and complementing

elementary education. The focus must be

on the poorest and most vulnerable since

these groups are the most disempowered

and at the greatest risk of violation or

denial of their right to education.

The right to education goes beyond free

and compulsory education to include

quality education for all Quality in an

integral part of the right to education. If

the education process lacks quality,

children are being denied their right The

Right of Children to free and Compulsory

Education Act lays down that the

curriculum should provide for learning

through activities, exploration and

discovery. This places an obligation on us

to change our perception of children an

passive receiver of knowledge, and to

move beyond the convention of using

textbooks as the basis of examinations

The teaching-learning process must

become stress-free, and a massive

programme for curricular reform should

be initiated to provide for a child-friendly

learning system that is more relevant and

empowering. Teacher accountability

systems and processes must ensure that

children are learning, and that their right

to learn in a child-friendly environment is

not violated. Testing and assessment

systems must be re-examined and

redesigned to ensure that these do not

force children to struggle between school

and tuition centres, and bypass childhood.

67. According to the passage, which of the

following is/are of paramount importance

under the Right to Education?

1. Sending of children to school by all

parents

2 Provision of adequate physical

infrastructure in schools

3. Curricular reforms for developing child-

friendly learning system

Select the correct answer using the code

given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) None of the above

68. With reference to the above passage,

the following assumptions have been

made

1. The Right to Education guarantees

teachers’ accountability for the learning

process of children.

2 The Right to Education guarantees 100%

enrolment of children in the schools

3. The Right to action intends to take full

advantage of demographic dividend.

Which of the above assumptions is/are

valid?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

69. According to the passage, which one

of the following is critical in bringing

quality in education?

(a) Ensuring regular attendance of

children as well as teachers in school

(b) Giving pecuniary benefits teachers to

motivate them to

(c) Understanding the socio-cultural

background of children

(d) Inculcating learning through activities

and discovery

70. What is the essential message in this

passage?

a) The Right to Education now is a

Fundamental Right

(b) The Right to Education enables the

children of poor and weaker sections of

the society to attend schools

c) The Right to Free and Compulsory

Education should include quality

education for all

d) The Government as well as parents

should ensure that all children attend

schools

Passage: Desertification is a term used to explain a process of decline in the biological productivity of an ecosystem, leading to total loss of productivity. While this phenomenon is often linked to the arid, semi-arid and sub-humid ecosystems, the even in the humid tropics, impact could be most dramatic. Impoverishment of human impacted terrestrial ecosystems may exhibit itself in a variety of ways: accelerated erosion as in the mountain regions of the boundary salinization of land as in the semi-arid and arid green revolution areas of the country, eg, Haryana and western Uttar Pradesh, and site quality decline common phenomenon

due to general decline tree cover and monotonous monoculture of rice/wheat across the Indian plains.

A major consequence of deforestation is that it relates to adverse alterations in the hydrology and related soil and nutrient losses. The consequences of deforestation invariably arise out of site degradation through erosive losses. Tropical Asia, Africa and South America have the highest levels of erosion. The already high rates for the tropics are increasing at an alarming rate (e.g. through the major river system - Ganga and Brahmaputra, in the Indian context), due to deforestation and il-suited land management practices subsequent to forest clearing. In the mountain context, the declining moisture retention of the mountain on, drying up of the underground springs and smaller rivers in the Himalayan region could be attributed to drastic changes in the forest cover. An indirect consequence is drastic alteration in the upland lowland interaction, mediated through water. The current concern the tea planter of Assam has is about the damage to tea plantations due to frequent inundation along the flood-plains of Brahmaputra, and the damage to tea plantation and the consequent loss in tea productivity in due to rising level of the river bottom because of siltation and the changing course of the river system. The ultimate consequences of site clarification are soil degradation, alteration in available water and its quality, and the consequent decline in food, fodder and fuel wood yields essential for the economic well-being of rural communities.

71. According to the passage, which of the following are the consequences of decline in forest cover? 1. Loss of topsoil 2 Loss of smaller rivers 3 Adverse effects on agricultural production 4 Declining of groundwater Select the correct answer the code given below (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1 and 4 only d) 1. 2. 3 and 4 72. Which of the following is/are the correct inference/inferences that can be made from the passage? 1. Deforestation can cause change in the course of rivers. 2. Salinization of land takes place due to human activities only. 3. Intense monoculture practice in plains is a major reason for desertification in Tropical Asia, Africa and South America Select the correct answer using the code given below. A) 1 only B) 1 and 2 only C) 2 and 3 only d) None of the above is correct inference

73. With reference to ‘desertification', as described in the passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1. Desertification is a phenomenon in tropical areas only 2. Deforestation invariably leads to floods and desertification.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1nd 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2

Passage:

Many farmers use synthetic pesticides to

kill infesting insects. The consumption of

pesticides in some of the developed

countries is touching 3000 grams/hectare.

Unfortunately, there are reports that

these compounds possess inherent

toxicities that endanger the health of the

farm operators, consumers and the

environment Synthetic pesticides are

generally persistent in environment.

Entering in food chain they destroy the

microbial diversity and cause ecological

imbalance. Their indiscriminate use has

resulted in development of resistance

among insects to insecticides, upsetting of

balance in nature and resurgence of

treated populations. Natural pest control

using the botanical pesticides is safer to

the user and the environment because

they break down into harmless

compounds within hours or days in the

presence of sunlight. Plants with pesticidal

properties have been in nature for

millions of years without any i or adverse

effects on the ecosystem. They are easily

decomposed by many microbes common

in most soils. They help in the

maintenance of biological diversity of

predators and the reduction of

environmental contamination and human

health hazards Botanical pesticides

formulated from plants are biodegradable

and their use in crop protection is a

practical sustainable alternative.

74. On the basin of the above passage, the

following assumptions have been made:

1. Synthetic pesticides should never be

used in modern agriculture.

2. One of the aims of sustainable

agriculture is to ensure minimal ecological

imbalance.

3 Botanical pesticides are more effective

as compared to synthetic pesticides.

Which of the assumptions given above

is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

75. A person asked ‘A’ what is her relation

to ‘X’ to which she said,” X is the only

brother of my son-in-law’s wife”. What is

the relation of ‘A’ & ‘X’?

a. aunt & nephew

b. grandmother & grandson

c. mother & son

d. father & son

e. can’t be determined

76.__bc__ca__aba__c__ca

a. abcbb

b. bbbca

c. bacba

d. abbcc

77. If “DOG” is coded as “4157”,then

“CAT” is coded as?

a.3178

b.3210

c.3167

d.3120

78. A person stood alone in a desert on a

dark night and wanted to reach his village

which was situated 5km east of the point

where he was standing. He had no

instruments to find the direction but he

located the polestar. The most convenient

way now to reach his village is to walk in

the

a. direction facing the polestar.

b. direction opposite to the polestar.

c. direction keeping the polestar to his

left.

d. direction keeping the polestar to his

right.

79. In a certain code language “MOBILITY”

is written as “1315291292025”, how is

“EXAMINATION” written in that code

a. 5124139142091514

b. 5241139142091514

c. 5241319142091514

d. 571594139551514

80. Pointing to a girl Manish said, ’She is

the only daughter of my grandfather’s

son’. How is the girl related to Manish?

a. daughter

b. sister

c. cousin

d. data inadequate