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Past Questions and UNIBADAN Post UTME
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1
2 A tree species introduced from another country is called-------- (A) International species B
(B) Exotic species (C) Exogenous species (D) Crossbreed species
3 Agriculture can be broadly classified into and (A) Livestock Soil (B) Animal Soil C
(C) Animal Crop (D) Poultry Fruit
4 An insect vector is important because (A) it helps to habour and transmit pathogens which A
cause diseases (B) it helps pathogens to develop only at the egg stage (C) it helps to carry
pathogens to the environment for control (D) it is efficient in killing pathogens
5 Birds are important pests of (A) tree crops (B) legumes (C) Cereals (D) vegetables crops C
6 Broad spectrum pesticides are dangerous because (A) they kill all pests and other non- A
target organisms indiscriminately (B) they allow non-target organisms to survive (C) they
allow target organisms to survive (D) they kill target organisms only
7 Contact insecticides are used to control (A) pod borers of legumes (B) stem borers of C
cereal (C) leaf beetles of legumes (D) eel worm of legumes
8 Entomology is the (A) study of Insects (B) study of viruses (C) study of Nematodes (D) A
study of Bacteria
Bryophyte (D) Angiosperm
helliphelliphelliphelliphelliphelliphelliphellip is an example of plant propagated by leaf (A) Zoophyte (B) Allelopathy (C) D
AGRICULTURAL SCIENCE
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
SCIENCEAGRICULTURAL
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9 Nematology is the (A) study of Insects (B) study of Viruses (C) study of Nematodes (D) C
study of Bacteria
10 Olericulture involves the cultivation of helliphelliphelliphelliphelliphellip (A) Tropical fruits (B) Ornamental plants C
(c) Vegetables (d) Orchards
11 One of these is a natural agricultural resource (A) water (B) petroleum (C) calcium (D) A
potatoes
12 Pesticides that are translocated to plant parts such that pests that feed on them are A
poisoned are called A Systemic pesticides (B) Attractants (C) Fumigants (D)
Repellents
13 Pests of crops that feed by piercing and sucking plants include the following except (A) stem A
81 The female sheep is known as (A) ewe (B) lamb (C) sow (D) mare A
82 The largest part of the oviduct where egg white is formed is the (A) Isthmus (B) Infudibulum D
(C) Uterus (D) Magnum
83 The male reproductive hormone is called (A) Testosterone (B) Testis (C) Thiamine (D) A
Globulin (E) Progesterone
84 The process of eliminating undesirable birds from the flock is known as (A)Dubbing (B) C
Removing (C) Culling (D) Degrading
85 The volume of the seminal fluid in chicken is about helliphelliphelliphelliphelliphelliphellip (A) 10mls (B) 50mls (c) C
05mls (d) 010mls
86 What is poultry science (A) Study of chickens (B) Study of science (c) Study of goats (d) A
Study of cattle
87 What is the gestation period of a cow (A) 5 months (B) 18frac12 months (C) 9 months (D) 24 C
months (E) 15 weeks
88 Which branch of poultry industry is concerned with the production of various kinds of feed C
(A) Hatchery industry (B) Poultry processing and marketing (C) Milling Industry (D) Poultry
equipment
89 Which of the following fish preservation method is common in the Northern part of A
Nigeria (A) Sun-drying (B) Gas drying (C) Oven drying
90 Which of the following is monogastric animal (A) Cattle (B) Goat (C) Rabbit (D) Sheep C
91 A farmer purchased a sprayer for N15000 in 2004 at the end of fifth year he sold it for B
N5000 What is the salvage value (A) N10000 (B) N5000 (C) N15000 (D) N
3000
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
AGRICULTURAL SCIENCE
92 Agricultural extension got its name from (A) spreading of information (B) taking information B
to farmers on field (C) having farm extension (D) none of these
93 Equilibrium price is (A) the point at which quantity of a commodity equals quantity B
supplied (B) the price at which quantity demanded of a commodity equals quantity
supplied (C) the point at which market price of a commodity equals quantity supplied (D)
the price at which quantity demanded of a commodity equals market price
94 Farm-gate price is usually obtained through (A) The producer (B) Middlemen (C) A
Commodity Boards (D) Cooperatives
95 One of the factors that influence supply is (A) Income (B) prices of other products (C) D
social capital (D) level of technology
96 People-oriented extension programmes which generate ideas and activities from the D
grassroots is called (A) grassroots approach (B) top down approach (C) community
approach (D) bottom up approach
97 The law of demand states that (A) demand is directly related to price of a commodity (B) B
higher the price of a commodity leads to lower quantity demanded (C) the price of a
commodity is directly proportional to the amount supplied (D) None of the above
98 The loss in value of an asset due to wear and tear in the course of its use is known as C
(A) Appreciation (B) Evaluation (C) Depreciation (D) Salvage value
99 Which of the following is not a problem of agricultural marketing in Nigeria (A) Lack of C
transport facilities (B) Scattered sources of supply (C) High quantity of farm produce (D)
Lack of good packaging and processing facilities
100 Which of the following is not a subject area in Agricultural Economics (A) Agribusiness C
management (B) Farm management and accounting (C) Agronomy (D) Agricultural
development and policy
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
BIOLOGY
1
1 ____________ is an end product of digestion of fat (A) Glucose (B) Fatty acid (C) Amino acid (D)Fructose (E) Galactose
B
2 Asexual reproduction in Hydra sp is commonly by ____ (A) Binary fission b Fragmentation cBudding d Separation (E) Regeneration
C
3 Benedictrsquos solution is used to test for ___ (A) Carbohydrate (B) Lipid (C) Protein (D) Vitamins (E)Minerals
C
4 Pepsin is an enzyme that digests ___ (A) Starch (B) Sugar (C) Lipid (D) Fat (E) Protein E
5 The breakdown of large organic molecules into smaller simpler soluble molecules is called ndashndash (A)Excretion (B) Digestion (C) Absorption (D) Reproduction (E) Ingestion
B
6 The enzyme that curdles milk is_____________ (A) Pepsin (B) Ptyalin (C) Renin (D) Amylase(E) Trypsin
C
7 Which is the enzyme that begins digestion of starch in the mouth (A) Ptyalin (B) Maltase (C)Amylase (D) Sucrase (E) Lactase
A
8 A group of interacting populations in a particular habitat can be described as ___(A) biome (B)biosphere (C) community (D) population ecosystem (E) environment
C
9 A habitat can be defined as ___(A) a group of animals and plants living within a commonboundary (B) a place in which plants and animals live (C) a community living together in thesame place (D) different areas with a common animal and plant population (E) None of theabove
B
10 A symbiotic relationship in which one organism is completely dependent on another organism iscalled ____ (A) Parasitism (B) Commensalisms (C) Mutualism (D) Saprophytism (E) Competition
A
11 An association between two organisms where both members benefit is known as ___ (A)symbiosis (B) commensalism (C) ammensalism (D) mutualism (E) saprophytism
D
12 An instrument used in measuring the speed of wind is (A) a barometer (B) a wind gauge (C) awind vane (D) an anemometer (E) a hydrometer
D
13 At times hyenas feed on remains of animals killed by other animals At other times hyenasthemselves kill animals for food Therefore hyenas may best be described as ndashndash (A) scavengersand herbivores (B) scavengers and parasites (C) scavengers and predators (D) herbivores andpredators e herbivores and parasites
C
14 Autecology is defined as the study of interrelationship of (A) many species of organisms and theirenvironment (B) same species of organisms and their environment (C) organisms in theatmosphere (D) organisms under the earthrsquos surface (E)None of the above
B
15 Autotrophs are also described as ndashndash (A) Consumers (B) Decomposers (C) Carnivores (D)Producers (E) Herbivores
D
16 If three 30cm lengths of glass tubing are tightly packed with clay sand and loamy soilsrespectively and then stood in a beaker of water for one week the level of water will be (A)Lowest in the tube with clay (B) The same in all the tubes (C) Lowest in the tube with loamy soil(D) Highest in the tube with sandy soil (E) Lowest in the tube with sandy soil
E
17 In a community bacteria and fungi are referred to as ndashndash (A) producers (B) consumers (C)scavengers (D) tertiary consumers (E) decomposers
E
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
BIOLOGY
2
18 Puddles Ponds Rivers Seas and Oceans are grouped together as ndashndash (A) Ecosystem (B) Biosphere(C) Aquatic habitat (D) Terrestrial habitat (E) Marine environment
C
19 The feeding pattern in an ecosystem is calledhelliphelliphelliphellip (A) Pyramid of energy (B) Food web (C)Food chain (D) Pyramid of member (E) Ecology
B
20 The orderly changes that occur slowly and naturally in plant and animal communities in a givenarea over a period of time until a stable community is established is called ndashndash (A)Transformational change (B) ecological succession (C) survival of the fittest (D) weatherchange (E) environmental change
B
21 The sign + is used to indicate an association where an organism gains while 0 is used where anorganism is unaffected An association indicated as +0 is known as ndashndash (A) predation (B)commensalism (C) parasitism (D) competition (E) ammensalism
B
22 The sum total of all the roles an organism plays in a habitat is referred to as (A) ecology (B)ecosystem (C) habit (D) habitat (E) niche
E
23 Which of the following factors does not control population growth (A) Food shortage (B)Emigration (C) Predation (D) Abundance of food (E) Natural disaster
D
24 Which of the following statements best describe an ecosystem (A) A place where livingorganisms can live successfully (B) The interactions between living organism in a habitat and thenon-living part of the environment (C) A biological association between a plant and ananimal (D) A system of grouping organisms in a habitat (E) None of the above
B
25 Which of these represents a correct food chain in nature (A) Crustacea rarr diatom rarrfish rarr man (B) Diatom rarr crustacea rarr fish rarr man (C) Fish rarr crustacea rarr man rarr diatom (D) Diatom rarr fish rarr crustacea rarr man (E) None of the above
B
26 ___________ is involved in the mechanism of expelling water from the protozoans during theprocess of____________ (A) Contractile vacuole Osmoregulation (B) Contractile vacuolePhagocytosis (C) Food vacuole Ultrafilteration (D) Food vacuole Pinocytosis (E) Cell membranePinocytosis
A
27 ______________ is used for photosynthesis in Euglena sp (A) Reservoir (B) Nucleus (C)Chloroplast (D) Paramylon granule (E) Pellicle
C
28 A heart with four chambers is found in______________ (A) Fishes (B) Insects (C) Snails (D) Rats(E) Worms
D
29 Animal cell does not have a ____________ (A) Membrane (B) Nucleolus (C) Food Vacuole (D) Cellwall (E) Golgi body
D
30 Beriberi is caused by deficiency of vitamin_____________ (A) A (B) D (C) K (D) E (E) B E
31 Compound eyes are found in which of the animals below (A) Rat (B) Cow (C) Snail (D) Ant (E) Jellyfish
D
32 Dental formula of man consist of (A) i 22 c22 pm22 m33 (B) i11 c22 pm22 m33 (C)i22 c11 pm32 m22 (D) i22 c11 pm22 m22 (E) i22 c11 pm22 m33
E
33 During digestion of food passage of chyme through the duodenum enables it to become awatery liquid called__________ (A) Digested food (B) Chymatic product (C) Chyle (D) Solublefood (E) Dissolved food
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
BIOLOGY
3
34 Emulsification of fat and oils is caused by______________ (A) Lipase (B) Ptyalin (C) Trypsin (D)Maltase (E) Bile
E
35 Every mammal has (A) One Kidney (B) Two pairs of Kidneys (C) One pair of Kidneys (D) FourKidneys (E) None of the above
C
36 Faeces is removed from the body in a process called (A) Digestion (B) Egestion (C) Elimination(D) Excretion (E) Evacuation
B
37 Glomerulus is found in the______________ (A) Ovary (B) Testes (C) Brain (D) Kidney e)Stomach
D
38 In the respiratory system of man diffusion of gases takes place in (A) Trachea (B) Bronchi (C)Alveoli (D) Bronchioles (E) None of the above
C
39 Incisors are used for (A) Tearing food (B) Cutting food (C) Grinding food (D) Shearing food (E)Crushing food
B
40 Nematocysts are produced by special cells found in (A) Nematodes (B) Annelids (C)Platyhelminthes (D) Cnidarians (Coelenterates) (E) Arthropods
D
41 One of the following is not a function of the skin (A) Excretion (B) Protection (C) Homeostasis(D) Reproduction (E) Absorption of vitamin D
D
42 Open circulatory system is found in _____________ (A) Lizard (B) Toad (C) Fish (D) Insect (E)Chicken
D
43 Ovary is to the female reproductive system as________ is to the male reproductive system (A)Penis (B) Urethra (C) Testis (D) Cowperrsquos gland (E) Prostate gland
C
44 Possession of pinna is a characteristic feature of (A) Mammals (B) Reptiles (C) Fishes (D)Amphibians (E) All of the above
A
45 Tadpoles respire with (A) Lungs (B) Nostril (C) Gills (D) Spiracles (E) Siphon C
46 The excretory organ in the earthworm ishelliphelliphelliphellip (A) Malphigian tubule (B) Stoma (C)Nephriduim (D) Flame cells (E) Gills
C
47 The nerves that connect the eyes to the brain are called ndashndash (A) Cranial nerves (B) Optical nerves(C) Sensory nerves (D) Olfactory nerves (E) Optic nerves
E
48 The nerves that connect the eyes to the brain are called ndashndash (A) Cranial nerves (B) Optical nerves(C) Sensory nerves (D) Olfactory nerves (E) Optic nerves
E
49 The parasympathetic nervous system is involved in (A) Dilation of pupil of the eye (B) Controlthe activities of smooth muscles (C) Dilatation of the skin (D) Controls thinking in mammals (E)Increased metabolism
B
50 The part of the alimentary system of a bird where grinding of food occurs is (A) Crop (B)Stomach (C) Cloaca (D) Rectum (E) Gizzard
E
51 The part of the ear that contains receptors that convert the fluid motion into action potential iscalled ndashndash (A) Auditory nerve (B) Ossicles (C) Semicircular canals (D) Cochlea (E) Oval window
D
52 The thoracic region of the vertebral column is made up of __________ vertebrae (A) 5 (B) 7 (C) 4(D) 12 (E) 10
D
53 Which of the animal below is poikilothemic (A) Toad (B) Chicken (C) Bat (D) Lion (E) Dove A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
BIOLOGY
4
54 Which of the structures below is found in reptiles and birds (A) Scales (B) Legs (C) Beaks (D)Claws (E) All of the above
A
55 Which of these animals is photosynthetic (A) Paramecium sp (B) Amoeba sp (C) Euglena sp(D) Hydra sp (E) None of the above
C
56 Which of these organs regulate the amount of sugar in the blood (A) Liver (B) Kidney (C) Spleen(D) Lung (E) Pancreas
E
57 The basis for growth and asexual reproduction is (A) meiosis (B) cytokinesis (C) mitosis (D)Cytogenesis (E) Cell elongation
C
58 The process which ensures that the chromosome number for each species of organism remainconstant from generation to generation is called (A) fission (B) fusion (C) meiosis (D) mitosis(E) oogenesis
C
59 Which of the following is a major factor in variation among organisms (A) Inbreeding (B)Backcrossing (C) Test crossing (D) Sexual reproduction (E) Gene dominance
D
60 ____________ is an example of an invertebrate (A) Millipede (B) Fish (C) Toad (D) Snake (E) Skin A
61 ____________ is the odd one in the list below (A) Mosquito (B) Bee (C) Moth (D) Tick (E)Beetle
63 _____________ is an example of a unicellular organism (A) Amoeba sp (B) Hydra sp (C) Ascarissp (D) Taenia sp (E) Obelia sp
A
64 _____________ level is the highest level of organization in animals (A) System (B) Tissue (C)Organ (D) Cellular (E) Protoplasmic
A
65 Crocodiles are _____________ (A) Fishes (B) Amphibians (C) Mammals (D) Birds (E) None of theabove
E
66 The mutation theory of organic evolution was propounded by (A) Gregor Mendel (B) Hugo deVrics (C) Jean Lamarck (D) Charles Darwin (E) Robert Hookes
D
67 The theory of natural selection was developed by (A) Lamarck and Darwin (B) Darwin andWallace (C) Wallace and Mendel (D) Mendel and Lamarck (E) Hooke and Darwin
B
68 Which is the odd animal in the list below (A) Lizards (B) Snakes (C) Turtles (D) Tortoise (E) Toad E
69 Which of the following sources is not an evidence of evolution (A) Fossil records B Comparativeanatomy C Comparative embryology (D) Human behavior (E) None of the above
D
70 _______________ is an endoparasite (A) Earthworm (B) Tapeworm (C) Mosquito (D) Housefly (E)Tsetse fly
B
71 The causative agent of bird flu is a (A) Virus (B) Bacteria (C) Fungus (D) Protozoan (E) Ricketsia A
72 In lower plants like mosses the structure which performs the functions of roots of higher plantsis called (A) root hairs (B) rootlets (C) hyphae (D) rhizoids (E) thalli
D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
BIOLOGY
5
73 One common feature of fungi algae mosses and ferns is that they are (A) photosynthetic (B)show alternation of generation (C) can survive harsh weather conditions (D) have no seeds (E)conjugate
D
74 The following are major groups of the plant kingdom EXCEPT (A) Bryophyta (B) Chlorophyta (C)Pteridophyta (D) Spermatophyta (E) Thallophyta
B
75 _____________is a form of sexual reproduction (A) Grafting (B) Budding (C) Fission (D)Conjugation (E) Regeneration
D
76 Sexual reproduction in Spirogyra is called (A) Fertilization (B) Symbiosis (C) Conjugation (D)Reproduction (E) Mutualism
C
77 The carrier of the hereditary characters in plants is the (A) Cell (B) nucleus (C) chromosome (D)chloroplast (E) gene
E
78 All are necessary for photosynthesis except_____________ (A) Water (B) Chlorophyll (C)Sunlight (D) Carbon dioxide (E) Oxygen
E
79 Growing yam tendrils climb for support This growth response is (A) haptotropism (B) geotropism(C) phototropism (D) hydrotropism (E) chemotropism
A
80 Which is the correct order in an evolutionary sequence for the following plant groups (A)Bacteria rarr ferns rarr algae rarr mosses rarr seed plants (B) Bacteria rarr ferns rarr mosses rarr algae rarr seed plants (C) Bacteria rarr algae rarr mosses rarr ferns rarr seed plants (D) Bacteria rarr mosses rarr algae rarr ferns rarr seed plants (E) Seed plants rarr ferns rarr mosses rarr algae rarr bacteria
C
81 ------------ is not part of the whorls of a flower(A)calyx (B) corolla (C) androecium (D)Antheridium (E)Gynoecium
D
82 A dry fruit which can break into several parts each containing one seed is a (A) caryopsis (B)aggregate fruit (C) legume (D) follicle (E) schizocarp
E
83 A dry indehiscent winged fruit formed from one carpel is known as a (A) Schizocarp (B)Caryopsis (C) Samara (D) nut (E) Follicle
C
84 A true fruit is formed from (A) fertilized ovary and other floral parts (B) a fertilized ovary (C) afertilized ovary and calyx (D) a fertilized and fleshy receptacle (E) an unfertilized ovary and otherfloral parts
B
85 Irish potato is a (A) bulb (B) tap root (C) rhizome (D) root tuber (E) stem tuber D
86 One major difference between an Angiosperm and a Gymnosperm is that seeds in Gymnospermsare borne in (A) Cones (B) fruits (C) flowers (D) ovary (E) ovule
A
87 Reserved food material in the seed is stored in the (A) epicarp (B) endocarp (C) endosperm (D)mesocarp (E) all parts
C
88 What type of fruit is a mango fruit (A) Berry (B) Hesperidium (C) Drupe (D) Nut (E) Mango fruit C
89 Which of the following species exhibit an aerial root (A) Ficus (B) Centrosema (C) Antigonon(D) Lantana (E) Dahlia
A
90 Which of these plants has an emerginate apex (A) Bauhinia (B) Pistia (C) Ixora (D) Musa (E)Terminalia
A
91 Which plant stores food in its roots (A) Cassava (B) cocoyam (C) Irish potato (D) onion (E)yam
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
BIOLOGY
6
92 An example of Vascular tissues is -------------- (A) Trichome (B) Xylem (C) Stomata (D) Epidermis(E) Parenchyma
B
93 The living part of phloem tissue is (A) sieve plate (B) companion cell (C) sieve element (D)cytoplasm
B
94 Which of the following tissues are made up of dead cells (A) meristems (B) xylem vessels (C)cambium (D) mesophyll (E) palisade
B
95 A plant vacuole contains (A) dissolved chemicals sugars salts pigments and crystals (B) wasteproducts of metabolism DNA RNA and crystals (C) pigments crystals DNA and waste productsof metabolism (D) RNA DNA sugars and salts
A
96 Excessive loss of water in plants is known as (A) Osmosis (B) Osmoregulation (C) Transpiration (D)Excretion
C
97 Starch granules in plants is equivalent to _____________ granules in animals (A) Food (B)Chromatin (C) Lysosome (D) Mitochondria (E) Glycogen
E
98 Which of the following is a plant excretory product (A) Oil (B) Cytokinin (C) Resin (D)amino acids (E) gibberellins
C
99 A plant which grows on another without causing harm to the host plant is called ndashndash (A) aparasite (B) a saprophyte (C) an epiphyte (D) a predator (E) a prey
C
100 Plants which can survive in places where water supply is limited are (A) bryophytes (B)mesophytes (C) xerophytes (D) hydrophytes (E) pteridophytes
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
1
1 200 cm3 of air was passed over heated copper in a syringe several times to produce copper (II)oxide When cooled the final volume of air recorded was 158 cm3 Estimate the percentage ofoxygen in the air (A) 31 (B) 27 (C) 21 (D) 19
C
2 30cm3 of oxygen at 10 atmosphere pressures is placed in a 20dm3 container Calculate the newpressure if temperature is kept constant (A) 67 atm (B) 150 atm (C) 600 (D) 660
B
3 Bond dissociation energy of 500 KJ mol-1 may be assigned to (A) ionic bonding (B) covalentbonding (C) hydrogen bonding D) metallic bonding (E) van-der-waals bonding
A
4 A mixture of iron and sulphur can be separated by dissolving the mixture in __ (A) steam (B)dilute hydrochloric acid (C) dilute sodium hydroxide (D) benzene
B
5 A mixture of sand ammonium chloride and sodium chloride is best separated by __ (A)sublimation followed by addition of water and filtration (B) sublimation followed by addition ofwater and evaporation (C) addition of water followed by filtration and sublimation (D) additionof water followed by crystallization and sublimation
A
6 A pure solid usually melts __ (A) over a wide range of temperature (B) over a narrow range oftemperature (C) at a lower temperature than the impure one (D) at the same temperature asthe impure one
B
7 A small quantity of solid ammonium chloride was heated gently in a test tube the solidgradually disappeared to produce a mixture of two gases Later a white cloudy deposit wasobserved on the cooler part of the test tube The ammonium chloride is said to haveundergone __ (A) distillation (B) sublimation (C) precipitation (D) evaporation
B
8 CH4 has this geometry (A) trigonal (B) planar (C) tetrahedral (D) octahedral (E) linear C
9 Chlorine consisting of two isotopes of mass numbers 35 and 37 has an atomic mass of 355The relative abundance of the isotope of mass number 37 is ___ ( A)20 (B) 25 (C) 50 (D) 75
B
10 Elements P Q R S have 6 11 15 and 17 electrons respectively therefore (A) P will form anelectrovalent bond with R (B) Q will form a covalent bond with S (C)R will form an electrovalentbond with S (D) Q will form an electrovalent bond with S
D
11 In the oil drop experiment Millikan determined the (A) charge to mass ratio of the electron (B)mass of the electron (C) charge of the electron (D) mass of the proton
C
12 One of these atomic shells is the most stable (A) M (B) N (C) K (D) L (E) 0 C
13 Sieving is a technique used to separate mixtures containing 20 oxygen by volume Which ofthe reactants was in excess (A) Carbon (II) oxide (B) Oxygen (C) Carbon (IV) oxide (D) Nitrogen
A
14 The abnormally high boiling point of water is primarily due to (A) ionic bonding (B) covalentbonding (C) dative bonding (D) coordinate covalent bonding (E) hydrogen bonding
E
15 The energy required to remove an electron from the isolated gaseous atom is known as (A)electron affinity (B) bond energy (C) lonisation energy (D) electronegativity (E) electrovalency
C
16 The group that oxygen belongs to is collectively called (A) allotropes (B) halogens (C)chalcogens (D) alkenes (E) ozonides
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
2
17 The ideal gas equation is ___ ( A) P=nRT (B) PR =nVT (C) PV =gRT (D) V=kT (E) PV = K V A
18 The number of atoms in one mole of a substance is equal to (A) the atomic number (B) theAvogadrorsquos number (C) number of neutrons (D) number of electrons (E) gas constant
B
19 The number of electrons in the outermost shell of the atom represents its (A) period (B)number of shells (C) group (D) atomic number (E) electronegativity
C
20 The number of protons or electrons of an atom represents its (A) electronegativity (B) period(C) number of shells (D) group (E) atomic number
E
21 The partial pressure of oxygen in a sample of air is 500 mmHg If the total Pr pressure 780mmHg what is the mole fraction of the oxygen (A) 064 [B (B) 573 (C) 156 (D) 070 (E) 054
A
22 The periodic classification of the elements is an arrangement of the elements in order of their(A) atomic weights (B) isotopic weights (C) molecular weights (D) atomic numbers
D
23 The process of changing one element into another is called (A) radioisotope (B) radioactivity (C)dating (D) transmutation (E) nuclear reaction
D
24 The shapes of CO2 H2O and CH4 respectively are (A) bent linear and tetrahedral (B) benttetrahedral and linear (C) tetrahedral linear and bent (D) linear bent and tetrahedral
D
25 This compound exhibits ionic bonding (A) H20 (B) H2 (C) KC1 (D) NH3 (E) HF C
26 This type of bonding involves overlapping of orbitals during which electrons are shared (A)hydrogen bonding (B) covalent bonding (C) ionic bonding (D) metallic bonding (E) van-der-waals bonding
B
27 Which one of the following changes is physical (A) Adding iron filings to aerated water (B)Adding sodium metal to water (C) Cooling a solution of iron(II) sulphate to obtain the hydratedsalt (D) Cooling water to obtain ice
D
28 A side effect of soft water is that (A) it gives offensive taste (B) excess calcium is precipitated(C) it encourages the growth of bacteria (D) it attacks lead contained in pipes
D
29 Ammonia is very soluble in water because it is a an molecule (A) non-polar (B) polar (C)reactive (D) basic (E) acidic
B
30 Citrus fruits such as lemon and grape taste sour because they contain (A) ascorbic acid andcitric acid (B) citric acid and ascetic acid (C) citric acid and dilute HCl (D) citric acid and salicyclicacid (E) Sulphuric acid
A
31 Soap lather is an example of a colloid in which a (A) liquid is dispersed in gas (B) solid isdispersed in liquid (C) gas is dispersed in liquid (D) liquid is dispersed in liquid
C
32 The air around a petroleum refinery is most likely to contain(A) CO2 SO3 and N2O (B) CO2 COand N2O (C) SO2 CO and NO2 (D) PH3 H2O and CO2
C
33 The difference between colloids and suspensions is brought out clearly by the fact that whilecolloids (A) do not scatter light suspensions do (B) can be separated by filtration suspensionscannot be so separated (C) can be separated by a membrane suspensions cannot (D) do notsettle out on standing suspensions do
D
34 The following substances are non-electrolytes except (A) chloroform (B) sugar cane (C) aceticacid (D) NaCl (E) C and D
E
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
3
35 The hydrolysis of NH4Cl salt will give (A) acidic solution (B) neutral solution (C) basic solution(D) hot solution (E) all of the above
A
36 The pollutants that are likely to be present in an industrial environment are (A) H2S SO2 andoxides of nitrogen (B)NH3 HCl and CO (C) CO2 NH3 and H2S (D) dust NO and Cl2
A
37 What is the basicity of tetraoxosulphate (VI) acid (A) 2 (B) 1 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) 0 A
38 Which of the following gases is the most dangerous pollutant (A) Hydrogen sulphide (B)Carbon (IV) oxide (C) Sulphur (IV) oxide (D) Carbon (II) oxide
D
39 Which of the following ions is a pollutant in drinking water even in trace amount (A) Ca2+ (B)Hg2+ (C) Mg2+ (D) Fe2+
B
40 Which of the following is an example of a double salt (A) NH4Cl (B) alum (C) NaCO3 (D) AlCl3
(E) NaClB
41 016g of methane when burnt increases the temperature of 100g of water by 400(C) what isthe heat of combustion of methane if the heat capacity of water is 42 Jg-10C-1 (CH4=16) (A)1160kJmol-1 (B) 1180kJmol-1 (C) 1560kJmol-1 (D) 1600kJmol-1 (E) 1680kJmol-1
E
42 A charged car battery has ___ energy that can be converted into another energy called ___energy (A) Chemical electrical (B) mechanical chemical (C) heat mechanical (D) lightelectrical (E) light heat
A
43 Copper oxide is heated with charcoal to produce carbon monoxide and copper The reaction isan example of (A) both oxidation and reduction (B) neither oxidation and reduction (C)oxidation only (D) reduction only (E) neutralization
A
44 For each oxygen atom in hydrogen peroxide which acts as an oxidant there is an oxygen atomwhich acts as a an (A) Oxidant (B) reductant (C) oxidizing agent (D) catalyst (E) inhibitor
B
45 Given the change of phase CO2(g) changes to CO2(s) the entropy of the system (A) decreases(B) increases (C) remains the same
A
46 In which of the following is the entropy change positive (A) Reaction between an acid and abase (B) Addition of concentrated acid to water (C) Dissolution of sodium metal in water(D) Thermal dissociation of ammonium chloride
C
47 One of these elements is the best reducing agent (A) Pb (B) Rb (C) Al (D) In (E) N B
48 The name of the gas driven off at the negative electrode during the electrolysis of brine is ___( A) hydrogen (B) chlorine (C) oxygen (D) sodium (E) hydrogen chloride
B
49 The oxidation state of P in H2P2072- is ___ (A) -3 (B) +3 (C) +1 (D) +5 (E) -2 D
50 The oxidation state of S in Ca(HS03)2 is __ (A) +2 (B) -2 (C) +4 (D) -4 (E) +6 C
51 The oxidizing agent in the reaction 3Br2 + 6OH- = BrO3- + 5Br- + 3H2O is __ (A) Br2 (B) OH- (C)
BrO3- (D) e- (E) H2OA
52 When heat is absorbed during a chemical reaction the reaction is said to be ___(A) thermodynamic (B) exothermal (C) isothermal (D) endothermic (E) thermostatic
D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
4
53 Given the reaction at equilibrium 2CO(g) + O2(g) harr 2CO2(g) When the reaction is subjected tostress a change will occur in the concentration of (A) reactants only (B) products only (C)both reactants and products (D) neither reactants nor products
C
54 Given the reaction at equilibrium N2(g) + O2(g) harr 2NO(g) as the concentration of N2(g)increases the concentration of O2(g) will (A) decrease (B) increase (C) remains the same (D)vanishes (E) pours away
A
55 If a reaction is exothermic and there is a great disorder it means that (A) The reaction is in astate of equilibrium (B) There will be a large increase in free energy (C) There will be a largedecrease in free energy (D) The reaction is static
B
56 In the chemical reaction of A + B = C +D more of D is formed (A) if the concentration of A isreduced (B) if the concentration of B is reduced (C) if the concentration of C is reduced (D) ifthe concentration of C is increased (E) if it is continuously removed from the reaction mixture
E
57 In what way is equilibrium constant for the forward reaction related to that of the reversereaction (A) The addition of the two is expected to be one (B) The product of two isexpected to be one (C) The two equilibrium constants are identical (D) The product of thetwo is always greater than one
C
58 In which reaction will the point of equilibrium shift to the left when the pressure on the systemis increased (A) C(s) + O2(g) harr CO2(g) (B) CaCO3(s) harr CaO(s) + CO2(g) (C) 2Mg(s) + O2(g) harr 2MgO(s) (D) 2H2(g) + O2(g) harr2H2O(g)
B
59 The furring of kettles is caused by the presence in water of __ (A) calcium trioxocarbonate (IV)(B) calcium tetraoxosulphate (VI) (C) calcium hydroxide (D) calcium hydrogentrioxocarbonate(IV)
D
60 Which is a property of a reaction that has reached equilibrium (A) The amount of products isgreater than the amount of reactants (B) The amount of products is equal to the amount ofreactants (C) The rate of the forward reaction is greater than the rate of the reverse reaction(D) The rate of the forward reaction is equal to the rate of the reverse reaction
D
61 Which of the following combination of conditions many increase the rate of a chemicalreaction (A) Decrease in temperature increase in concentration of the reactant (B) Increase intemperature addition of a catalyst decrease in the surface area of the reactant (C) Increase intemperature increase in concentration addition of a catalyst and increase in the surface areaof the reactant (D) Decrease in temperature concentration and surface area of the reactants(E) Addition of catalyst and in the absence of light
C
62 ldquoQuicklimerdquo has the formula __ (A) Ca(OH)2 (B) CaO (C) CaCO3 (D) CaSO42H2O (E) CaCl2 B
63 A Transition metal is different from a non-transition metal because (A) it has an octetconfiguration (B) it is very stable (C) it is coloured (D) it has incomplete outer shell d-electrons(E) it has no electron in the d-orbital
D
64 Chlorine is produced commercially by (A) electrolysis of dilute HCl (B) electrolysis of brine (C)neutralization of HCl (D) heating potassium trioxochlorate (V) (E) action of dilute mineral acidson bleaching powder
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
5
65 Chlorine bromine and iodine resemble one another since they __ (A)dissolve in alkalis (B) reactviolently with H2 without heating (C)displace each other from solutions of their salts (D) aregases (E) are liquids
A
66 Liquid oxygen may be produced by condensation of air using this coolant (A) liquid phosphorus(B) liquid gas (C) liquid paraffin (D) liquid nitrogen (E) butane
D
67 One of these is another form of oxygen (A) hydroxide (B) ozone (C) peroxide (D) sulphoxide (E)water B
68 One of these metals is not an alkali metal (A) K (B) Cs (C) Sr (D) Rb (E) Fr C
70 The formation of ozone by reaction of O2 with atomic oxygen in UV light occurs in (A) upperatmosphere (B) inner atmosphere (C) stratosphere (D) hemisphere (E) none of these
A
71 The halogen which is chiefly produced commercially from sea water is ___ ( A) Fluorine (B)chlorine (C) Bromine (D) iodine (E) Astatine
B
72 The most stable allotropic form of sulphur at normal conditions is ___ ( A) monoclinic sulphur(B) rhombic sulphur (C) amorphous sulphur (D) plastic sulphur (E) ordinary sulphur
B
73 The products obtained when the following chemical reaction is completed and balancedarehellipHNO3 + Ca(OH)2 rarr ______ (A) CaNO3 + H2O (B) Ca(NO3)2 + 2 H2O (C) CaO + 2 NO2 + 3H2O(D) Ca + 2 NO3 + 2 H2O
B
74 What is the role of iron and Aluminium oxide in ammonia production (A) dehydrating agent(B) catalytic agent (C) oxidizing agent (D) bonding agent (E) preservative agent
B
75 When carbon IV oxide is bubbled through lime water the solution becomes milky dueformation of (A) Ca(HCO3)2 (B) CaCO3 (C) Ca(N03)2 (D)CaCl2 (E) CaSO4
B
76 Which of the following gases dissolves in water vapour to produce acid rain during rainfall (A)Oxygen (B) Carbon (II) oxide (C) Nitrogen (D) Sulphur (IV) oxide
D
77 Which of the following is not allotrope of carbon (A) diamond (B) graphite (C) buckminsterfullerene (D) all of the above (E) none of the above
E
78 Which oxide is amphiprotic (amphoteric) (A) MgO (B) NaO (C) CaO (D) ZnO (E) BeO D
79 Why will it always be more difficult to extract potassium ions from sea water than to extractmagnesium ions This is because (A) most potassium compounds are less soluble in water (B)most potassium compounds are quite soluble in water (C) presence of other alkali metal ionshas great influence on it (D) magnesium ion is an alkaline earth metal ion (E) None of theabove
B
80 ___________ can be used to test for reducing sugars (A) Iodine solution (B) bromine water (C)Fehlingrsquos solution (D) de-ionized water
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
6
81 2CH3COOH + Zn rarr The product of this reaction is (A) (CH3COO)2Zn + Zn (B) CH3COO CH3 +Zn (C) (CH3COO)2Zn + H2 (D) CH3COOH + CH4
C
82 A ketone reacts with hydroxylamine to give (A) a hydrazone (B) an alkanonitrile (C) a nitrosocompound (D) an oxime
D
83 Alkanoic acids are weak acids and ionises in solution to give (A) R+ + COOH (B) RCOO- + H+ (C)RCOO+ + H- (D) RCO+ + OH-
B
84 An excess of ethanol heated with concentrated H2SO4 at a temperature of 180oC is dehydratedto give mostly (A) ethane (B) ethene (C) ethanol (D) ethoxyethane
B
85 Butene can be distinguished from benzene by reaction with (A) Hydrochloric acid (B) Brominewater (C) Potassium sulphate (D) Sodium hydroxide
B
86 Detergent is more efficient than soap in cleansing clothes and dishes because of the followingreasons except that (A) the corresponding Ca and Mg compound formed is soluble in H2O (B)detergents are not affected by hardness of water (C) it cleans better than soap (D) it is lessexpensive
D
87 In the manufacture of soap industrially brine is used to__________the acid salt (A) oxidise(B) reduce (C) bleach (D) precipitate
D
88 Methane gas can be made from carbon (II) oxide gas according to the equation2CO(g) + 2H2(g) rarr CH4(g) + CO2(g) Calculate the mass of CO required to produce 875 x 1025
molecules of CH4 At masses C=12011 H= 1008 O = 15999 Avogadrorsquos no 6022 x1023molecules mole (A) 8140g (B) 4070g (C) 1600g (D) 3200g (E) 2035g
A
89 Potassium ethanoate is formed when (A) Methanoic acid reacts with KOH (B) Ethanoic acidreacts with KOH (C) Methanol reacts with KCO3 (D) Ethanol reacts with CH3COOH
B
90 Saponification is defined as (A) Acidic hydrolysis of fat or oil (B) Alkali hydrolysis of fat or oil(C) Condensation of two monomer units (D) Mixture of glacial ethanoic acid and excess ofsimple alkanol
B
91 Soaps and detergents have the same basic characteristics except that the carboxyl group of thefatty acid in detergent is replaced by (A) alcohol (B) sulphate or a sulphonate group (C) ester(D) acids
B
92 The relatively high boiling point of alkanols is due to (A) aliphatic character (B) ionic bonding(C) hydrogen bonding (D) covalent bonding
C
93 Two important sources of detergent are (A) fatoils and hydrocarbons (B) coal and cement (C)pulp and wood (D) water and gas
A
94 What is the process associated with conversion of vegetable oil to soap (A) Esterification (B)Saponification (C) hydrolysis (D) Acidification
B
95 When ethanal vapour is passed over manganese (II) ethanoate (manganese acetate) catalyst inthe presence of air the product is (A) ethanoate (B) ethanol (C) methanol (D) ethanoic acid
D
96 When KOH is used instead of NaOH in the production of soap it has the following advantagesexcept it gives (A) softer soap (B) harder soap (C) soap with lower melting point (D) moresoluble soap
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
7
97 When palm wine is left exposed to air for a few days it goes sour The bacteria in the airoxidises________ in palm wine to _________ (A) ethanol ethanoic acid (B) ethanoic acidethanol (C) ester ethanoic acid (D) ether ethanol
A
98 Which of the following is not true about benzoic acid (A) It is aromatic in nature (B) It can bemanufactured from methylbenzene (C) It has molecular formula C6H6COOH (D) It sublimesreadily
C
99 Which of the following reactions is correct (A) C6H5COOH + CaO rarr C6H5Ca + HCO3 (B)C6H5COOH + CaO rarr C6H6 + CaCO3 (C) C6H5COOH + PCl5 rarr C6H5Cl + H2PO4 (D) C6H5COOH +C2H5OH rarr C6H6 + C3H8COOH
B
100 Which of these is not a property of ethanedioic acid (A) It is a stronger acid than ethanoic acidbut weaker than inorganic acids (B) It is a reducing agent (C) It is an oxidising agent (D) It issoluble in cold water
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS STUDIES
1 Behold the people of Israel are too many come let us deal shrewdly with them lest they D
multiply In the statement the first step by the new king of Egypt was to (A) cast all
Hebrew male children into the Nile (B) impose heavy tax on them (C) kill all Hebrew male
children (D) set taskmasters over them to afflict them with burdens
2 I will go out as at other times and shake myself free When Samson made the statement C
above he was not aware that (A) the Philistines were upon him (B) he was bound with bronze
fetters (C) the LORD had left him (D) his eyes had been gouged out
3 Let the waters under the heavens be gathered together into one place and let the dry land D
appear In the statement above the dry land and the water refer to (A) earth and oceans (B)
firmament and seas (C) firmament and oceans (D) earth and seas
4 Seek out for me a woman who is a medium that I may go to her and inquire of her Saul A
made the statement above when he was confronted by the(A) Philistines (B) Ammonites (C)
Amalekites (D) Moabites
5 Why did you bring trouble on us The LORD brings trouble on you todayrdquo What happened to C
Achan after the statement above by Joshua (A) He was buried alive (B) He was put in chain
(C) He was stoned to death (D) He was flogged publicly
6 An unwise decision of Solomon was the issue of the (A) building of the palace (B) building of D
the temple (C) felling of timber (D) forced labour
7 David was anointed king over Judah at (A) Zuph (B) Bethlehem (C) Hebron (D) Gibeon C
8 For worshipping the molten calf God described the Israelites as (A) a stubborn nation (B) an C
unholy nation (C) a stiff-necked people (D) an unrighteous people
9 God blessed the seventh day and made it holy because (A) He rested on that day from all His A
work (B) Adam gave names to all living creatures on that day (C) it was a Sabbath day (D)
human beings were recreated on that day
10 God called Abraham when he was how many years old (A) 75 years old (B) 90 years old (C) A
100 years old (D) 120 years old
11 In order for the people of Israel to be ready to meet the LORD by the third day at Mount Sinai C
they were (A) not to drink alcohol (B) to wear white garments (C) to wash their garments
everyday (D) not to go near a woman
12 Joseph was put in prison in Egypt by Potiphar because (A) he slept with Potipharrsquos wife (B) he C
was very lazy (C) Potipharrsquos wife lied against Joseph (D) he stole Pharaohrsquos cup
13 Samuels lack of parental responsibility led to (A) The demand for a king in Israel (B) His A
untimely death at Ramah (C) The defeat of the Israelites in battle (D) The anointing of David
as king
14 Solomon attempted to kill Jeroboam because Jeroboam (A) Was more popular than him (B) D
Was not faithful as the officer in charge of labour (C) Did not report what was prophesied
concerning him (D) Was a threat to the throne
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS STUDIES
15 The first person that revealed to Eli the evil that would come to his home was(A) Joel (B) a B
man of God (C) a prophet from Shiloh (D) Samuel
16 The rainbow as the sign of Gods covenant with Noah implies(A) Providence (B) Reconciliation C
(C) mercy (D) Redemption
17 What did Gideon call the altar which he built to the LORD (A) The LORD is merciful (B) The B
LORD is peace (C) Jehovah Jireh (D) The LORD is great
18 What punishment did God give Solomon for his unwisemdash Policies (A) Jeroboam was
empowered by God to conquer him (B) He caused Rezon to demolish the high place which he
built (C) He raised up Hadad the Edo mite as an adversary against him (D) The kingdom was
torn from him and given to his servant D
19 What was Samsons major achievement as Israels leadermdash (A) He suppressed the Philistines
(B) He captured the city of Jericho (C) He saved the Israelites from the Amorites (D) He
secured permanent independence for Israel A
20 When God called Moses to deliver the Israelites he resisted because he could not speak and D
he was told to (A) perform some signs with his rod (B) wait for a sign from God (C) go with
Joshua who would speak for him (D) go with Aaron who would speak for him
21 When Moses struck the rock twice for water instead of speakingmdash to it God said to him that
he (A) would no longer see Him face to face (B) would not bring the Israelites to the promise
land (C)would not see His holiness (D)would roam in the wilderness for thirty years
B
22 When the Israelites left Egypt God did not let them use the shorter route through the land of
the Philistines becausemdash (A) the Philistines were waiting in ambush for them (B) they might
go back if they faced war (C) He wanted to confuse the Egyptian king (D) He wanted them to
suffer and appreciate Him B
23 Why did God accept David who killed Uriah and took his wife but rejected Saul who spared
King Agagmdash (A) David was from the favoured tribe of Judah while Saul was from Benjamin
(B) David was a man after Gods heart while Saul was His enemy (C) David was a singer of
praises while Saul was not (D) David humbled himself when he realized his sin but Saul was stubborn
D
24 And in the last days it shall be God declares that I will pour out my Spirit upon all B
flesh Peter quoted the statement above from the prophecy of (A) Ezekiel B) Joel (C)
Jeremiah (D) Isaiah
25 Am I God to kill and to make alive that this man sends words to me to cure a man of his B
leprosy Prophet Elisha responded to the kings reaction in the statement above by (A)
directing the nation of Israel to pray and fast (B) requesting the leper to come to his house (C)
directing the leper to go to River Jordan (D) asking the leper to offer a sacrifice
26 Behold I am the LORD the God of all flesh is anything too hard for me The statement C
above suggests that God is (A) merciful (B) awesome (C) most powerful (D) not changeable
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS STUDIES
27 Behold 1 am the LORD the God of all flesh is anything too hard for me The statement B
above suggests that God is (A) merciful (B) most powerful (C) awesome (D) not changeable
28 Do you understand what you are reading Philip asked the Ethiopian eunuch the question D
above when he found him reading the book of (A) Hosea (B) Ezekiel (C) Jeremiah (D)
Isaiah
29 My spirit shall not abide in man forever for he is flesh When God made the statement He D
concluded that mans days shall be (A) one hundred years (B) one hundred and fifty years
(C) eighty years (D) one hundred and twenty years
30 Test your servants for ten days let us be given vegetables to eat and water to drink In the C
statement above Daniel was talking to (A) King Darius (B) the chief of the eunuchs (C) the
steward of the chief eunuch (D) King Artaxerxes
31 According to Amos what did the Israelites do after God smote them with blight and mildew A
(A) They still did not return to him (B) They repented of their sins (C) They fasted and prayed
for healing (D) They cried unto the LORD
32 According to Prophet Jeremiah one of the promises of God was that He would give the D
Israelites (A) new priests (B) new commandments (C) kings after His own heart (D) shepherds
after His own heart
33 According to Proverbs a son that is attentive to a fathers instruction will (A) be rich (B) have C
eternal life (C) gain insight (D) be forgiven his sins
34 Consequent upon the murder of Naboth by Ahab and Jezebel God declared that (A) He
would require the blood of Naboth from Ahabrsquos hand (B) Ahabs descendants would never
ascend the throne in Israel (C) dogs would lick Ahabs blood where they had licked Naboth (D)
the sword would not depart from the house of Ahab
C
35 Ezekiel said that when the people of Israel turned away from all their sins they would (A) A
Surely live and not die (B) Be free from attack (C) Lead mankind to God (D) Return from
captivity
36 God had pity on the people of Nineveh because (A) they listened to Jonahs message (B) the C
king punished all the violent people in the land (C) they turned from their evil way (D) they
made sacrifices of sin offering to God
37 Immediately after the contest on Mount Carmel Elijah prayed and God answered him with B
(A) thunder (B) rainfall (C) a whirlwind (D) a heavy storm
38 In addition to the declaration of freedom to the exiles in Babylon King Cyrus ordered for (A) A
free will offering for the house of God in Jerusalem (B) the release of Jewish slaves in the
empire (C) security check on the Jews before departure (D) support from craftsmen in
Babylon
39 Joab and his soldiers entered the city quietly after defeating their enemy because (A) Absalom
and his soldiers were defeated (B) of the shameful death of Absalom (C) the king grieving for
his son (D) the king Was annoyed with them C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS STUDIES
40 Obadiah showed his great reverence for the LORD by (A) Handing over five hundred Baal D
prophets for slaughter (B) Falling on his face before Elijah (C) Hiding Elijah in a cave for two
years (D) Feeding the prophets of the LORD with bread and water
41 Prophet Amos told Israel to hate evil love good and establish justice in the gate so that God C
would (A) heal their diseases (B) give them good leaders (C) be gracious to them (D) multiply
their descendants
42 Prophet Hosea named his second child Not Pitied because God would no more pity the (A)
kings of Judah (B) kings of Israel (C) house of Judah (D) house of Israel
D
43 Prophet Hosea named his second child Not Pitied because God would no more pity the (A) D
kings of Judah (B) kings of Israel (C) house of Judah (D) house of Israel
44 Prophet Isaiah received his vision and call whenmdash (A) King Uzziah was deposed (B) King
Uzziah died (C) King Uzziah began to reign (D) Israel was in Babylonian captivity
B
45 Saul learnt from Samuels spirit that the LORD would (A) give the Philistines into his hands A
(B) afflict him with sickness (C) bless Isaacs future wife (D) pardon his iniquity
46 The destruction of Jerusalem by Nebuchadnezzar was a consequence of (A) Hezekiahs death
(B) Josiahs reforms (C) Israels stubbornness to God (D) Zedekiahs rebellion against Babylon
C
47 The effect that the faith of Shadrach Meshach and Abednego had on King Nebuchadnezzar D
and his subjects was that they (A) Refrained from persecuting the Jews in exile (B) Were
converted (C) Forsook their gods (D) Believed that there was no other god able to deliver
48 The Kingdom of Israel was divided because the (A) kingdom was too large to be administered D
(B) leadership wanted to create more nations (C) followership wanted more nations (D) last
two kings made unwise policies
49 The pronouncement of God on Josiah for being penitent was that (A) God would support him C
to repair the Temple (B) Josiah would conquer all his enemies (C) God would gather him to his
grave in peace (D) Josiah would have a peaceful reign
50 The scroll given to Ezekiel to eat at his call contained (A) Both praises and condemnation (B) B
Words of lamentation and mourning (C) Prescription for Temple worship (D) The expected
type of sacrifice
51 What did Asa do that was right in the eyes of the Lord(A) He removed all the idols of his A
father (B) He killed all the priests of Baal (C) His reign was peaceful (D) He killed all the
Baal worshippers
52 What did the Jews do when Nehemiah told them about his mission in Jerusalem (A) They D
praised God for sending him to rebuild Jerusalem (B) They informed Sanballat and Tobiah
about his plans (C) They were hostile to him and he became discouraged (D) They encouraged
one another to rise up and build the walls
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS STUDIES
53 but should write to them to abstain from the pollutions of idols and from unchastity and C
from what is strangled and from blood The statement above was made at the Council of
Jerusalem by (A) Philip (B) Simon (C) James (D) Peter
54 His office let another take The statement above refers to (A) Ananias (B) Judas Iscariot B
(C) Barnabas (D) John Mark
55 Truly I say to you not even In Israel have I found such faith The statement above by D
Jesus was made when He healed the (A) leper (B) blind man (C) demoniac (D) centurions
servant
56 Depart from me for I am a sinful man O Lord This statement was uttered by Peter at C
the (A) last supper (B) garden of Gethsemane (C) call of the disciples (D) transfiguration
57 If I tell you you will not believe and if I ask you you will not answer Jesus statement B
above was in response to a request by (A) King Herod (B) the chief priests and scribes (C)
Pontius Pilate (D) the Pharisees and Sadducees
58 If you are the Son of God throw yourself down from here for it is written He will give his A
angels charge of youhellip According to Luke the statement above was made by Satan during
Jesus(A) third temptation (B) crucifixion (C) Transfiguration (D) second temptation
59 Teacher do you not care if we perish Where was Jesus Christ when this question was D
asked (A) On the sea walking (B) In the wilderness (C) On the Mount of Olive (D) In the
ship asleep
60 Truly I say to you today you will be with me in paradise Jesus made the statement D
above to one of the criminals because he (A) respected Him (B) praised Him (C) rebuked his
partner (D) was repentant
61 Unbind him and let him go The statement was made by Jesus when (A) He raised to life A
the dead Lazarus (B) He healed the son of the widow at Nain (C) He healed the centurions
servant (D) a boy bound by Satan was brought to Him
62 Unless you are circumcised according to the custom of Moses you cannot be saved The D
statement above by some men from Judea necessitated the convening of the (A) church in
Jerusalem (B) council of elders (C) church in Judea (D) council in Jerusalem
63 You son of the devil you enemy of all righteousness full of all deceit and villainy This A
statement of Paul was addressed to (A) Elymas the magician (B) Paulus the proconsul (C)
Simon the Magician (D) Demetrius the silversmith
64 lsquo As long as I am in the world I am the light of the worldrsquo Jesus made the statement above A
on the occasion of (A) healing the man born blind (B) raising Lazarus from the dead (C)
restoring sight to blind Bartimaeus (D) walking on the sea before day break
65 According to Luke the Last Supper took place (A) on Mount Olive (B) In Jerusalem (C) in B
Jordan (D) in Bethlehem
66 According to Luke when Moses and Elijah appeared during the transfiguration they spoke of A
Jesusrsquo (A) departure (C) resurrection (B) second coming (D) trials
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS STUDIES
67 According to Matthew the stone on the tomb of Jesus was removed by (A) an angel (C) Mary A
Magdalene (B) a Roman soldier (D) Peter and John
68 According to Romans salvation is for those who (A) call upon the name of the Lord (B) are B
true worshippers of God (C) work in the Lords vineyard (D) Are persecuted for righteousness
69 According to the Gospel of John Jesus is the true vine while the vinedresser is (A) the Holy B
Spirit (B) His father (C) the gardener (D) His mother
70 And they arrested them and put them in custody until the morrow for it was already D
evening In the statement above the imprisoned persons were (A) Paul and John Mark (B)
Peter and Barnabas (C) Peter and Paul (D) Paul and Barnabas
71 Angel Gabriel told Zachariah that he would become dumb until John was born because he (A) D
looked down on the Angel (B) was advanced in age (C) disagreed with Elizabeth his wife (D)
did not believe Gods words
72 Following the death of Stephen the only group of believers not scattered by the great B
persecution was the (A) deacons (B) apostles (C) prophets (D) disciples
73 Following the resurrection of Jesus the Chief Priest and elders took counsel and bribed the A
guards to (A) say that the disciples stole the body of Jesus (B) keep the information away
from His disciples (C) keep the matter among themselves (D) report the matter immediately
to the rulers
74 In His Sermon on the Mount Jesus said that the poor in spirit are blessed for they would (A) C
be satisfied (B) be comforted on the last day (C) inherit the kingdom of heaven (D) inherit
the earth
75 In Luke at the Last Supper Jesus revealed His (A) resurrection (B) imminent sufferings (C) C
love for His disciples (D) ascension
76 In the country of the Gerasenes Jesus healed the (A) man possessed of demons (B) paralytic A
at the pool (C) leper (D) blind man
77 In the mission of the seventy Jesus told them that they were being sent out as sheep among D
wolves implying that they would (A) be sent to live among wolves (B) be as meek as sheep
(C) be properly equipped for the mission (D) encounter difficulties
78 In the story of the Transfiguration Moses and Elijah represented the (A) glory of God (B) old C
Testament saints (C) Law and the prophets (D) end of the age
79 Jesus raised to life the son of the widow of Nain because He (A) wanted the whole of Judea to C
know about him (B) wanted to show that He was a great prophet (C) had compassion on the
mother (D) loved the young man that died
80 Jesus reply to the devils first temptation of Him was _ (A) Him only shall you serve (B)
Man shall not live by bread alone (C) You shall not tempt the Lord your God (D)
You shall worship the Lord your God B
81 Jesus told the parable of the lost sheep in order to illustrate that (A) every believer ought to D
rejoice with those who rejoice (B) no person can hide from God (C) Gods love is unlimited
(D) there is joy in heaven over a sinner who repents
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS STUDIES
82 Jesus was at the wedding in Cana of Galilee because (A) He wanted to demonstrate His power B
(B) He was invited to the ceremony (C) the groom was His relation (D) the groom ran out of
wine
83 Jesus was tempted by the devil so as to (A) fulfill all righteousness (B) show His power over C
forces of nature (C) show that no one is above temptation (D) test the devils power
84 The Hebrew word Rabboni means (A) disciple (B) priest (C) master (D) Teacher D
85 The impact of Jesus miracle of turning water into wine was that the (A) servants were C
astonished (B) master of ceremony believed (C) disciples believed more in Him (D) people
glorified God
86 Where were the disciples of Jesus when He had a conversation with the Samaritan B
woman(A) They had gone to the city to preach the gospel (B) They had gone to the city to
buy food (C) They had gone to the mountain to pray (D) They had gone to wait for Him
87 According to Ephesians children who obey their parents in the Lord will (A) be happy (B) go C
to heaven (C) have long life (D) be great
88 According to Peter God shows no partiality but in every nation anyone who fears Him is (A) B
diligent before Him (B) acceptable to Him (C) holy before Him (D) righteous before Him
89 According to Romans the new life is comparable to Jesus (A) resurrection (B) ministry (C) A
ascension (D) crucifixion
90 According to Thessalonians the day of the Lord will not come unless the (A) living die first C
(B) scoffers come first (C) dead rise first (D) rebellion comes first
91 Busy bodies and those living in idleness in the church at Thessalonica were admonished to (A)
pray for those in authority for peace (B) do their work in quietness and earn a living (C) appeal
to those in authority to create jobs (D) endure persecution from their masters
B
92 In his teaching on partiality James declares that mercy triumphs over (A) judgment (B) A
righteousness (C) grace (D) faith
93 In Pauls arrangement of the spiritual gifts in Corinthians the last is (A) the utterance of B
wisdom (B) interpretation of tongues (C) gifts of healing (D) various kinds of tongues
94 In Romans Paul condemned sin taking over mortal bodies in the new life as instruments of B
69 In recent years Nigerian economy has been registering a spectacular growth inhelliphellip C
Sector in the last ten years (A) agriculture (B) education (C) telecommunication (D)
transport (E) distribution
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
ECONOMICS
70 Nigeria being a developing African country in the sub-Sahara has put together a C
development blue-print called Vision 202020 which can ensure that the country becomes
(A) one of the 20 developed countries by the year 2020 (B) an African economic lsquoTigerrsquo
by the year 2020 (C) one of the 20 largest economies in the world by the year 2020
(D) one of the 20 largest economies in sub-Saharan Africa by the year 2020 (E) one of
the 20 largest economies in the developing world by the year 2020
71 The major objective of economic growth is to (A) Redistribute income and other benefit D
of growth (B) Equalize opportunity for education and employment (C) Increase
aggregate expenditure on goods and services (D) Increase the real per capita income (E)
Increase access to education
72 The most common index used for measuring development is (A) The level of literacy (B) B
Per capita income (C) Nutritional levels (D) Population growth rate (E) International
development index
73 Which is NOT a direct effort to increase agricultural production in Nigeria (A) Operation B
Feed the Nation (B) Nigerian Youth Service Corps (C) Increased loans to farmers and
cooperatives (D) Research in Agriculture and extension services (E) Mechanization of
agriculture
74 Which of the following sectors of the economy is estimated to be the largest employer of B
labour in the country (A) Construction (B) Agriculture (C) Distribution (D) Mining and
petroleum (E) Transport and communications
75 Industries contribute to national economic development because they (A) Utilize local B
raw material (B) Employ an increasing number of labour (C) Provide recreational
facilities (D) Use modern machines which replace human labour (E) All of the above
76 Infant industries are (A) Baby food and baby clothing factories (B) Those which are D
introducing new products (C) Cases of arrested development (D) Industries temporarily
protected by tariffs barriers until mature enough to compete on world markets (E)
Industries that are allowed to remain permanent cases of adolescence
77 The export-promotion strategy is aimed at producing (A) Consumer goods originally C
imported (B) Machinery for industries (C) More goods for exports (D) More goods for
domestic consumption (E) Increasing export of goods needed in developed countries
78 Which of the following is NOT an advantage of localization of industries (A) Reaping of E
external economies (B) Development of a pool of skilled labour for the industry (C)
Development of subsidiary industries (D) Development of organized markets (E) Growth
of conurbations
79 The crucial factors which determines the location of petroleum refineries in Nigeria are B
availability of raw materials and (A) Capital (B) Political consideration (C) Nearness to
source of power (D) Labour (E) Availability of seaports
80 The petroleum industry in Nigeria is (A) The sole source of the nationrsquos revenue (B) The C
oldest industry in the country (C) The mainstay of the economy (D) A factor in the
decline in the nationrsquos foreign reserves (E) In the hand of NNPC
81 In a limited liability company the greatest risk is borne by (A) Shareholders debentures C
(B) Company executives (C) Ordinary shareholders (D) Preference shareholders (E)
Board of directors
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
ECONOMICS
82 In a public company shares are (A) Sold to one person only (B) Distributed freely (C) C
Advertised to members of the public for subscription (D) Disposed off by the Chief
Executive (E) none of the above
83 The advantage of the sole proprietorship is as follows (A) It is always successful (B) C
Continuity is no problem (C) Control and supervision is under one man (D) Funds are
easy to obtain (E) Inter-generational equity is assured
84 The maximum number of shareholders for a limited liability company is (A) Twenty (B) D
Seven (C) Five (D) Infinite (E) Limited to the number of individuals that are interested
85 Population density refers to (A) Densely populated urban centres (B) The total area D
divided by the total population (C) Densely populated rural areas (D) The total
population divided by the total area (E) All of the above
86 To calculate the annual natural growth rate of a countryrsquos population one has to know D
the countryrsquos annual birth rate and (A) The size of that country (B) The rate of
immigration into that country (C) The population census of that country (D) The annual
death rate (E) The gross domestic product (GDP) of the country
87 Which of the following is not true of the theory of optimum population A It is possible B
for a densely populated country to be under-populated if it has insufficient labour to
make the most effective use of its other factors B The quantity of labour which
combines with other factors gives the minimum output is known as optimum population
C The quantity of labour which combined with the other factors gives the maximum
output is known as optimum population D The test of over-population is whether it
exceeds the optimum E It is possible for a thinly populated country to be over-
populated if it has a poor supply of other factors
88 Which of the following is the standard concept of measuring and analyzing population E
growth (A) The rate of natural increase (B) The net migration rate (C) The rate of
population increase (D) The fertility rate (E) All of the above
89 Which of these would NOT increase the population of a country (A) Increase in death A
rate (B) Decrease in birth rate (C) Emigration (D) Migration (E) Better medical facilities
90 An improvement in the Nigeriarsquos terms of trade should (A) Lead to a fall in cost of her A
imports in terms of what she must sacrifice to obtain them (B) Make made-in-Nigeria
goods cheaper to buy (C) Increase Nigeriarsquos domestic output of commodities (D) Lead to
an increase in her exchange rates (E) Lead to an increase in Nigeriarsquos exports of
petroleum
91 By lsquotrade by barterrsquo we mean (A) Trade done by people in the villages (B) Exchange of D
goods for money (C) International trade (D) Exchange of goods for goods (E) The trade
of the Middle Ages
92 Gains from trade depends on (A) Comparative advantage (B) Absolute advantage (C) A
Distributive cost advantage (D) Absolute cost advantage (E) None of the above
93 International and inter-regional trade differ primarily because (A) Comparative B
advantage is relevant to the former but not to the latter (B) Products flow easily within
regions of a country (C) There are different resource supplies among countries of the
world (D) Of regulations from GATT (E) None of the above
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
ECONOMICS
94 Surplus in the balance of payments lead to (A) Inflation or increasing prices generally (B) B
Increase in foreign reserves (C) Decrease in foreign reserves (D) Government budget
surplus (E) None of the above
95 The expression lsquoTerms of Tradersquo is used to describe (A) The quality of exports (B) The D
direction of foreign trade (C) Terms of purchase on deferred payment basis (D) The rate
at which exports exchange for imports (E) Import licensing
96 The quantity of a currency that exchanges for a unit of another currency is called its (A) C
exchange value (B) barter value (C) exchange rate (D) market price (E) unit price
97 Under a system of freely floating exchange rates an increase in the international value of B
a countryrsquos currency will cause (A) its exports to rise (B) its imports to rise (C) gold to
flow into that country (D) its currency to be in surplus (E) devaluation
98 When a currency loses its value due to a government action to fix the quantity of the A
currency that exchanges for another currency there is (A) devaluation (B)
depreciation (C) inflation (D) fiscal deficit (E) none of the above
99 Which of the following items in the Balance of Payments Account is an invisible D
transaction (A) Imports of cars (B) Export of cocoa (C) Export of crude petroleum (D)
Tourism (E) Import of building materials
100 A major trading problems facing ECOWAS is (A) The absence of common currency (B) A
Political instability (C) High poverty level (D) Non-implementation of decisions (E)
Trade-related political crisis in Ivory coast
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
USE OF ENGLISH
1
Read the passages below and answer the questions that follow
PASSAGE AEvery discernible observer could foresee the crisis which engulfed the Edo Houselast week Only a few days before reports were rife about the AC reaching out tosome PDP legislators to cross-carpet The intention being to gain a majority andthen assume the Speakership with the least constraint Zakawanu Garuba the thenSpeaker retorted with a fiat threatening to declare vacant the seat of any defectorThis in spite of the constitutional support for such action as evidenced forexample by the crisis that has torn the PDP apart in Edo State The party has twofactional chairmen in the state even though one is more vociferousThe desperate attempt by Garuba to cling to the Speakerrsquos chair is condemnable Hewas not being recalled from the legislature and so he still has his seat as a floormember As speaker he was only first among equals The Speakership is not hisbirthright With the defection of one PDP lawmaker to the AC the legislaturereconvened hours after the bloodbath and elected a protem Speaker whileimpeaching and suspending Garuba and a few others They are to be probed
(Adapted from The Guardian Thursday March 4 2011 p14)
1 Why did AC woo PDP membersA they are few in numberB they want speakership without stressC PDP members are faithfulD The House is tough
2 The legislators impeachedA GarubaB PDP lawmakersC Garuba and some PDP lawmakersD Garuba and some lawmwkers
3 According to the passage the constitution supportsA The speakerB DefectingC Edo StateD Factional chairmen
4 The lawmakers reconvenedA After the defection of a PDP memberB After the bloodbathC After suspending the SpeakerD After electing a protem Speaker
B
A
D
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
USE OF ENGLISH
2
5 At the end what happened to GarubaA He was vindicatedB He was indictedC He was honouredD He was humiliated
6 To cross-carpet as used in the passage means toA change partyB renew membership of a partyC change onersquos carpetD buy new carpet
7 The crisis in the Edo State House of Assembly could be predicted byA The lawmakersB Edo State indigenesC The protem SpeakerD All conscious observers
B
C
A
PASSAGE B
Nigeria has a troubled power sector which is however undergoing reforms thathopefully should usher in era of private sector dominance in terms of ownershipand management of generation and distribution In this transitory phase it is crucialto lay a foundation for local sourcing of vital inputs and make it the norm for theindustry That is the only way to prevent a replication of the trend in the oil and gassub-sector where capital flight is as much as $ 16 billion per annum as revealed bythe Petroleum Technology Development FundThe PHCN could legitimately insist on quality and standards in its procurement ofequipment and materials but what is playing out is an institutional orientationevinced in several pursuits of the PHCN that are contemptuous of Nigeriarsquosaspiration for local content development In 1998 the defunct National ElectricPower Authority defied a directive by the then Minister of Power and steel AlhajiBashir Dalhatu to source its costable components from Nigerian foundries some ofwhich are of high standards Actuated by a realization of idle capacity in thefoundries and the need to conserve foreign exchange the Minister appliedappropriate pressure on the management of NEPA but found his efforts frustratedThe acute shortage or inefficiency in the metering programme originated from thefact that the only local manufacturer then the Federal Government-ownedelectricity Meter Company in Zaria Kaduna State established in 1976 but sold toDantata Investments Limited in December 2002 is not performing(Adapted from The Punch Wednesday May 25 2011 Pg 18)
8 Why is there shortage of meterA Non-performance of PHCNB Non-performance of NEPAC Non-performance of the Federal Government-owned electricity
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
USE OF ENGLISH
3
Meter CompanyD Non-performance of Dantata Investment Ltd
9 According to the passage the solution to the problem in the power sector lies inA Sourcing for materials locallyB Getting costable componentsC Obeying the ministerD Getting $ 16 billion per annum
10 From the passage it is clear thatA There is money in the countryB There is shortage of electricity meterC NEPA is better than PHCND NEPA was formed in 1998
11 Which of these is not true of the power sectorA There is only one local manufacturer of electricity meterB The power sector is undergoing reformsC The problem of the power sector cannot be solvedD there was procurement of equipment and materials
12 Which of these is undergoing reformsA NEPAB PHCNC NigeriaD The power sector
13 A suitable title for this passage isA Nigeria and her problemsB NEPA versus PHCNC Electricity meterD Problems in the power sector
A
B
C
D
D
Choose the option that best completes the gap14 University students helliphelliphelliphelliphellipbehave well (A) can (B) should (C) may (D)
mustB
15 Gloria helliphelliphelliphellip have finished the project two days ago (A) must (B) may (C)can (D) supposed to
A
16 You are Goodluck (A) are you (B) arenrsquot you (C) arersquont you (D) donrsquotyou
B
17 He helliphelliphelliphelliphellip not come now (A) needs (B) needed (C) need (D) will need C18 Janet to know that we are all here (A) suppose (B) supposes (C) is
supposed (D) should supposeC
19 Let it be that there was no king in Ayegun (A)know (B) knew (C) known(D) knows
C
20 We shall see you soon (A) shall we (B) shanrsquot we (C) shouldnrsquot we (D)should we
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
USE OF ENGLISH
4
21 Neither of the presidential candidates suitable (A) are (B) is (C) is been(D) are been suitable
B
22 Ten miles ____ a great distance (A) is (B) are (C) is been A23 If I were the president I ask for the money (A) will (B) should (C) would
(D) canC
24 I will see you after I spoken with your supervisor (A) might have (B) have(C) will have (D) would have
B
25 ldquoYou - now see the directorrdquo the secretary told the visitors (A) can (B)may (C) should (D) would
B
26 She isnrsquot Gloria (A) is she (B) isnrsquot she (C) arenrsquot she (D) doesnrsquot she A27 We have a bus (A) didnrsquot we (B) havenrsquot we (C) doesnrsquot we (D) hasnrsquot
weB
28 I knew David let us down (A) may (B) will (C) might (D) can C29 You helliphelliphellip me last week (A) ought to see (B) ought to had seen (C) ought to
have seen (D) had to have seenC
30 Twenty dollars ___ enough for my lunch (A) are (B) is (c ) are just B31 The pests ____ our farm every year (A) invade (B) invades (c ) has invades A32 If I were the Governor I ask for the project (A) will (B) should (C) would
(D) canC
33 When helliphellip the Cleric today (A) doesarrives (B) doesarrived (C)doesarrive (D) do arrive
C
34 We shall see you soon (A) shall we (B) shanrsquot we (C) shouldnrsquot we (D)should we
B
35 You missed the match (A) donrsquot you (B) didnrsquot you (C) hadnrsquot you (D)doesnrsquot you
B
36 Walk the dog right now (A) walknrsquot you (B) will you (C)shall you(D)would you
B
37 I am a student (A) Irsquom I (B) arenrsquot I (C) isnrsquot I (D) wouldnrsquot I BPick out the oddwrong expression in each of the following
38 (A) I heard his supposed apology (B) I heard his unconvincing apology (C) Iheard his suppose apology (D) I heard he was supposed apology
D
39 (A) I suppose you know the way (B) I am supposed you know the way (C) Isuppose he knows the way (D) They suppose he knows the way
B
40 (A) I travel next week (B) I will travel next week (C) I suppose to travelnext week (D) I should travel next week
C41 (A) Having discovered the error he apologized (B) Having discovered the
error the apology was tendered (C) Having known the error he apologised(D) Having found out the error he tendered an apology B
42 (A) The job has been done (B) The job has been being done (C) They havedone the job (D) They can have done the job
D
43 (A) She must finish the project in two days (B) She must finish the project twodays ago (C) She must have finished the project two days ago (D) She ought tohave finished the project two days ago
B
44 (A) If I went in there I would beat the security officer (B) If I go in there Iwould beat the security officer (C) If I go in there I will beat the securityofficer (D) If I go in there I can beat the security officer
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
USE OF ENGLISH
5
Choose the option that most appropriately expresses the idea in theunderlined expression
45 My friendrsquos parentrsquos are magnanimous (A) rich and popular (B) sociable andlovable (C) kind and generous (D) wicked and stingy
C
46 My friend has an overbearing attitude toward me (A) patient (B) impatient(C) opinionated and domineering (D) considerate and respectful
C
47 There are a number of makeshift buildings in town (A) modern buildings (B)old fashion buildings (C) temporary buildings (D) permanent buildings
C
48 Post UME is a hurdle to cross (A) a necessary and simple exam to pass (B) anunnecessary and difficult exam to pass (C) an unnecessary but simple exam topass (D) a necessary and challenging exam to pass
D
49 His contribution to the project is invaluable (A) extremely useful (B) of novalue (C) of little value (D) can not be valued
A
50 That was a dawn-to-earth approach (A) poor (B) ordinary (C) practical (D)immodest
B
51 Concerning my admission I have to cross my fingers (A) wait and hope for thebest (B) wait in frustration (C) wait confidently (D) take some risk
A
52 My father is indifferent to my choice of University (A) supports (B) opposes(C) not decided (D) not concerned
D
53 We need an ad hoc arrangement towards the project (A) intelligent (B)advanced (C) permanent (D) temporary
D
54 The studentrsquos reply to the lecturer betrayed his rudeness (A) covered (B)showed (C) reduced (D) increased
C
55 His conduct in the last elections was above board (A) arrogant (B) honest (C)above average (D) excellent
C
56 That was a dispassionate decision (A) bias (B) personal (C) unaffected (D)ineffective
C
57 On the matter of worship some sit on the fence (A) go to the extreme (B) aredecisive (C) are fanatics (D) are undecided
D
Choose the option that is nearest in meaning to the word underlined58 In this matter we must be prepared to tolerate human frailty (A)
75 Her health deteriorated rapidly (A) worsened (B) improved (C) stagnated (D)declined
B
Which of the following sentences is correct76 (A) One should mind his business (B) One should mind onersquos business (C) One
should mind her businessB
77 (A) This case is between you and I (B) This case is between you and me (C)This case is between the two both of us
B
78 (A) With them around we have a great problem on our hands (B) With themaround we have a great problem on our hand (C) With them around wehave a great problem on hand
A
79 (A) The dog wagged itrsquos tail (B) The dog wagged its tail (C) The dog waggeditsrsquo tail
B
80 (A) A ten year old boy is missing (B) A ten-year-old boy is missing (C) A tenyear-old boy is missing
B
81 Choose the option that sounds the same with two (A) tool (B) too (C) tow (D)to
B
82 Choose the option that sounds the same with bear (A) bare (B) beer (C)bared (D) beard
B
83 Choose the option that sounds the same with the given word Key (A) kiss(B) quay (C) keyed (D) kissed
B
Choose the word that is correctly spelled84 (A) acomodation (B) accommodation (C) accomodation (D) acommodation B85 (A) embarrassment (B) embarassment (C) embarrasment (D) embarasment A86 (A) horrific (B) horific (C) horiffic (D) horriffic A87 As soon as Joy arrived she started looking for food The underlined
expression is an ----------- (A) adverbial phrase of reason (B) adverbial clauseof reason (C) adverbial phrase of time (D) adverbial clause of time
D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
USE OF ENGLISH
7
88 My friend a brilliant lecturer won many prizes The underlined expression isa(n) (A) adjectival clause (B) relative clause (C) appositive phrase (D)subject of lsquowonrsquo
C
89 I passed very well because I studied hard The underlined expression is a (A)relative clause introducer (B) linking verb (C) adverb of reason (D)subordinating conjunction
D
90 Bello and I love each other (A) preposition (B) reciprocal pronoun (C) nounphrase (D) adjectival phrase
B
91 I prefer writing to acting The underlined expressions is a(n) -------- (A) verb(B) participle (C) gerund (D) object
C
92 Having finished my assignment I started watching television The underlinedexpression is a(n) -------- (A) infinitive clause (B) gerund (C) participialphrase (D) noun clause
C
93 If you leave early yoursquoll meet Sola at home The underlined expression is a ----------- (A) nominal clause (B) verbal clause (C) conditional clause (D)adjectival clause
C
94 Wounded by a lion the hunter trudged home The underlined expression is a-----------(A) nominal clause (B) verbal clause (C) participial clause (D)adjectival clause
C
95 Irsquom proud of you The underlined expression functions as(A) prepositionalcomplement (B) adjectival complement (C) subject complement (D) verbalcomplement
B
96 A noun phrase lacks one of the following (A) noun (B) verb (C) adjective (D)adverb
B
97 Eve gave Adam an apple An apple in the sentence functions as------------(A)subject of the verb lsquogaversquo (B) direct object of the verb (C) indirect object ofthe verb (D) object complement
B
98 I wonder if you know where he lives This sentence is a(n) (A) thoughtfulstatement (B) polite command (C) indirect question (D) subtle exclamation
A
99 An example of gradable adjectives is hellip (A) each (B) beautiful (C) dead (D)live
B
100 A clause differs from a phrase because a clause contains helliphelliphellip (A) a largernumber of words (B) a fewer number of words (C) a finite verb (D) a non-finite verb
C
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Information
the study of accounting leads to a challenging career (D) accounting provides gross profit accounting is useful in making decisions (B) accounting plays an important role in a society (C)
Themost importantreasonfor studying accounting is that (A) theinformation providedby A 8
71 A partnership on admitting a new member revalued the business land and building from N30 C
000 to N70 000 The difference of N40 000 should be (A) credited to land and building account
(B) debited to asset revaluation account (C) credited to asset revaluation account (D) credited
to profit and loss appropriate account
72 Adamu Babaji and Chukwu are in a partnership and they share profit and losses on ratio 321 D
Their respective capitals are N20000 N15000 N5000 on which they are entitled to interest
at 5 per annum The profit for the year before charging interest on capital amounts to
N5500 Calculate the profit for Adamu (A) N583 (B) N1000 (C) N1167 (D) N1750
73 In a partnership business the net profit serves as opening figure for (A) trading account D
(B) profit and loss account (C) current account (D) appropriation account
74 In the absence of a partnership agreement profits and losses are shared (A) in the ratio of B
capital (B) equally (C) in the ratio of drawings (D) according to services rendered
5
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
FINANCIAL ACCOUNTING
75 Interest on a partners drawings is debited to the (A) partners current account and credited to A the profit and loss appropriate account (B) profit and loss appropriation account and credited
to the partners current account (C) profit and loss account and credited to the partners
account (D) partners current account and credited to the profit and loss account
76 Partnersrsquo share of profit is credited to (a) a partnerrsquos current account (b) a partnerrsquos capital A
account (c) the profit and loss account (d) the profit and loss appropriation account
77 Which of the following is a strong feature of partnership (A) The life of the partnership is B
generally assumed to be indefinite (B) The owners are liable personally for all debts of the
business The transfer of ownership interest is frequent and easy to accomplish (D) The
partnership is complex to form because of many legal and reporting requirements
78 A bond acknowledging a loan to a company under the companyrsquos seal bearing a fixed rate of D
interest is known as (A) certificate (B) agreement (C) bank loan (D) debenture
79 Alabede (Nig) Limited issued 50000 ordinary shares if 1 each at a market value of N250 each C
The share premium is (A) N125000 (B) N100000 (C) N75000 (D) N50000
80 All but one of the following are examples of capital reserves (A) Share premium (B) D
99 Which of the following is the most critical factor of industrial location in modern world (A) Raw B
materials (B) Market (C) Transportation (D) Capital
100 Which of the following represent an urban- rural migration (A) a students from the village C
school gains admission to the university in the town (B) Moving to the urban centre for
medical services (C) Traveling from Lagos to the village on retirement (D) A civil servants gets
transferred from one town to another
6
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
GOVERNMENT
1
1 A key characteristic of the civil service is (A) Merit system (B) Patriotism (C) Quota system(D) Transparency
A
2 A major cause of inefficiency in public corporations is (A) inadequate patronage by membersof the public (B) absence of an enabling Act or law (C) political interference (D)competition from private firms
C
3 A major distinction between public corporations and private companies is that (A) Publiccorporations provide important services (B) Public corporations are large organizations (C)Public corporations are financed and controlled by government (D) Public corporations arenot involved in production of tangible goods
C
4 A primary agency of political socialization is (A) the government B the family C the massmedia D the School
B
5 A process that seeks to transfer ownership and control of public corporations to privateindividuals or organizations is called (A) Indigenization (B) Commercialization (C)Privatization (D) Acquisition
C
6 Adult male suffrage means that (A) All men who pay tax can vote (B) All adult males canvote (C) All men can vote (D) All adults can vote B
7 All of the following are obligations of citizens except (A) Obedience to laws (B) Voting (C)Giving alms to beggars (D) Payment of taxes
C
8 An electoral district is (A) A local government area (B) A ward (C) A polling booth (D) Aconstituency
D
9 Fascism was practiced in Italy under (A) Benito Masollini (B) Benito Mubarak (C) BenitoMussolini (D) Benito Mandela
C
10 Governmental powers are _________ in the US presidential system (A) absolutely separated(B)fused (C) absolutely fused (D) separated D
11 In a democracy franchise is limited by (A) Age (B) Sex (C) Wealth (D) Education A
12 In the civil service anonymity means that civil servants must (A) Not receive the credit orblame for any good (B) Serve any government impartially (C) Avoid nepotism andfavouritism (D) Be politically neutral
A
13 In which of the following set of countries is a dominant two-party system operated (A)Nigeria and Ghana (B) The United States and the United Kingdom (C) France and Germany(D) India and China
B
14 One of the advantages of direct election is that (A) it is too expensive and difficult to conduct(B) illiterates vote intelligently for their leaders (C) it makes representatives accountable tothe electors (D) it offers an opportunity to the electorate to demand for money
C
15 One of the following is not a feature of a modern state (A) Territorial landmass (B) Populationof People (C) Defined Territory (D) Sovereignty
A
16 One of the following is not a source of constitution (A) Customs and conventions (B) civilservice regulations (C) historical documents (D) judicial precedents
B
17 One of the objectives of a multiparty system is to (A) Eliminate corruption (B) Preventrigging (C) Provide alternatives (D) Avoid ethnicity
C
18 Political sovereignty lies with (A) Head of State (B) Head of Government (C) the Parliament(D) the electorate
D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
GOVERNMENT
2
19 Public corporations are established principally to (A) compete with private firms (B) Raiserevenue for the government (C) provide essential services for the public (D) Promote publicaccountability
C
20 Public opinion helps a government to (A) Monitor its socio-cultural policy (B) Monitor theeconomic situation in the country (C) Punish opposition to its policies (D) Develop thecountry in line with the peoplersquos aspirations
D
21 Roles that are expected to be performed by an individual in a country are (A) Elections (B)Duties (C) Rights (D) Services
B
22 Separation of powers denotes __________________ (A) Separation of governmental powersbut not separation of persons (B) Separation of governmental powers and Separation ofpersons (C) Separation of persons only (D) Separation of powers of government only
B
23 The assent of the President is required to convert aan ____ to law (A) Bill (B) Edict (C)Proclamation (D) Decree A
24 The branch of Government that sets agenda for other organs is known as (A) the bureaucracy(B) the legislature (C) the executive (D) the mass media
B
25 The capitalist economy is dictated by (A) Government economic blueprint (B) Consumersrsquorequirements (C) Diminishing returns (D) the forces of demand and supply
D
26 The central Legislative body in Britain is referred to as --------------------------- (A) NationalAssembly (B) Knesset (C) Parliament (D) Congress
C
27 The chairman of the committee that reviewed the 1988 civil service commission was (A)Chief PC Asiodu (B) Chief Edwin Clerk (C) Chief Allison Ayida (D) Chief Simeon Adebo
C
28 The highest grade in the civil service is known as (A) Executive cadre (B) Administrative cadre(C) Technical cadre (D) Clerical cadre
B
29 The law of libel limits a citizenrsquos right to freedom of (A) Association (B) Expression (C)Worship (D) Movement
B
30 The major advantage of the secret ballot is that (A) It ensures the anonymity of each voter(B) It is faster than other systems (C) Nobody can be prevented from voting (D) It extendsthe franchise to all adults
A
31 The permanent executive includes (A) Civil servants and not public servants (B) Civil servantsand politicians (C) all career officers that serve any government in power (D) elected andappointed politicians
C
32 The pressure group that resorts to unconventional methods to achieve its objectives is called(A) Institutional group (B) Interest group (C) Promotional group (D) Anomic group
D
33 The three fundamental rights of citizens are (A) Life liberty and property (B) Salvationproperty freedom of thought (C) Employment property and social security (D) Freeeducation employment and property
A
34 When a constitution is not difficult to amend it is said to be (A) Rigid (B) Systematic (C)Flexible (D) Federal
C
35 Which of the following best describes a sovereign state (A) a member of the African Union(B) Freedom from economic control (C) Geographical contiguity (D) Military political and
economic independence
D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
GOVERNMENT
3
36 Which of these is an element of state power (A) Geographical location population ampeconomic resources (B) Geographical location elite interests amp economic resources (C)Geographical location ethnicity amp economic resources (D) Geographical location politicalcrisis amp economic resources
A
37 Which of these is not a method of election (A) Simple majority (B) Proportionalrepresentation (C) Primary election (D) Co-option
D
38 ___________ plays rule adjudication role in Nigeria (A) The Civil Service (B) The Legislature(C) The Executive (D) The Judiciary
D
39 A two-party system of government is one in which (A) only one party performs multipartyfunctions (B) the elite dominate political parties (C) only few parties are allowed to operateby law (D) There are two major parties and other minor parties
D
40 An important agency for social control in the Igbo traditional society was the (A) Age-grade(B) Ozo-title holders (C) Council of Chiefs (D) Assembly of lineage heads
A
41 Educated elites in Nigeria did not like the system of indirect rule because it (A) Did not makeprovisions for them (B) Was exploitative and cumbersome (C) Made traditional rulers toopowerful (D) Was undemocratic and oppressive
C
42 Federalism in Nigeria is best seen as a way of promoting (a)Rapid economic development (B)unity in diversity (C) even national development (D) democracy
B
43 In Nigeria the civil service was first regionalized by the (A) Independence constitution (B)Richard constitution (C) Clifford constitution (D) Lyttleton constitution B
44 In the Hausa pre-colonial political system sovereignty was located in the (A) Alkali (B) Emir(C) Waziri (D) Galadima
B
45 In the pre-Colonial HausaFulani system the appointment of an Emir in the caliphate wasapproved by (A) Sultan of Sokoto and the Emir of Gwandu (B) Galadima and the Waziri (C)Sardauna of Sokoto and the Alkali (D) Sheu of Bornu and the Galadima
A
46 Nationalist activities in British West Africa increased after the second World War because (A)Of the expulsion of Kwane Nkrumah from Britain (B) Of the return of the educated elite fromabroad (C) Prices of commodities fell below expectation (D) Africans were nominated to theexecutive council
B47 Nigeria started to operate a real federal structure with the introduction of the (A) 1922 Clifford
constitution (B) 1946 Richard constitution (C) 1953 London conference (D) 1954 Lyteltonconstitution
49 One of the fundamental changes recommended by Adedotun Philips commission is (A)Frequent movement of staff (B) Standardization (C) Professionalization (D) Stagnation
C
50 One of the fundamental reversals made by the commission that reviewed the 1988 reform ofthe civil service was (A) Change of Director General to Permanent Secretaries (B) Changefrom Permanent Secretary to Director General (C) Change from Director General toPermanent Administrators (D) Permanent Professionals
A
51 The helliphelliphellipLocal government reforms recognized local government as the third tier ofgovernment (A) 1963 (B) 1976 (C) 1988 (D) 1989
B
52 The breakdown of the Macpherson constitution was partly caused by the crisis within the (A)NCNC (B) AG (C) NPC (D) NNDP
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
GOVERNMENT
4
53 The First Executive president of Nigeria was (A) Dr Nnamdi Azikiwe (B) Sir Abubakar TafawaBalewa (C) General Yakubu Gowon (D) Alhaji Sheu Shagari
D
54 The first military coup in Nigeria took place on mdash (A) July 15 1966 (B) July 27 1967 (C)January 15 1966 (D) January 13 1966 C
55 The first three political parties to be registered in the Fourth Republic were (A) ACN ANPPand PDP (B) AD APP and PDP (C) PPA PDP CAN (D) APGA CAN and PDPB B
56 The imposition of unitary form of administration by General Ironsi in 1966 led to (A) Moremilitary institutions (B) Return to civilian rule (C) Independence from British rule (D) civilunrest in the North
D
57 The institution that preserves civil liberty in Nigeria is the (A) Law Court (B) Civil ServiceCommission (C) Police Affairs Commission (D) Public Complaints Commission
A
58 The main opposition party during the First Republic was the (A) Northern Peoples Congress(B) Action Group (C) Northern Element Progressive Union (D) United Middle Belt Congress
B
59 The state created in Nigeria before 1966 was (A) East central state (B) Lagos state (C) Mid-Western state (D) North central state
C
60 The1964 federal election was contested by two major alliances of political parties amongthese (A) All Progressive Grand Alliance and the Northern Peoples Alliance (B) NigerianNational Alliance and United Progressive Grand Alliance (C) National Democratic Coalitionand Nigerian Peoples Alliance (D) National Democratic Alliance and Northern ElementsProgressive Union
B
61 Under the 1999 constitution of the Federal Republic of Nigeria there are a total ofhelliphelliphellip Localgovernment councils (A) 334 (B) 620 (C) 724 (D) 774 D
62 Which of the following ethnic groups had the best egalitarian traditional political system (A)Hausa Fulani (B) Yoruba (C) Igbo (D) Edo
C
63 which of the following is not a major problem of local government in Nigeria (A) Insufficientfunding and limited internally generated revenue (B) Interference and control by higher levelsof government (C) Lack of competent and qualified staff (D) lack of sufficient number oflocal government
D
64 Which of the following is not a reason for the adoption of a Federal System of government mdash(A) Cultural diversities (B) Security consideration (C) Economic consideration (D) Limitedresources D
65 Which of the following is not an example of a public corporation in Nigeria (A) NigerianRailway Corporation (B) Federal Radio Corporation of Nigeria (C) Federal Mortgage Bank ofNigeria (D) National Deposit Insurance Corporation
C
66 Which of the following statements is true about the 1963 and 1979 Constitutions (A) Bothhad provisions for the office of the president (B) Both had provision for the office of theconstitutional president (C) Both provided for the offices of prime minister and president(D) Both had provision for the office of an executive president
A
67 Which of these former Nigerian Heads of State was instrumental to the establishment ofECOWAS (A) Sanni Abacha (B) Yakubu Gowon (C) Olusegun Obasanjo (D) Tafawa Balewa
B
68 In 1975 Nigeria had a strained relationship with one of the following countries over the crisisin Angola (A) Britain (B) Israel (C) USA (D) Mexico
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
GOVERNMENT
5
69 Nigeriarsquos non ndash aligned posture was criticized on ground of the (A) Non ndash Proliferation Treaty(B) ECOWAS Treaty (C) Nuclear Test Ban Treaty (D) Anglo ndash Nigeria Defence Pact
D
70 The circumstance that led to the establishment of ECOWAS Monitoring Group (ECOMOG ) was(A) the bloody civil war in Nigeria (B) the bloody civil war in Liberia (C) the bloody civil war inSudan (D) the bloody civil war in all West African countries
B
71 The head of Nigeriarsquos foreign mission in a Commonwealth nation is best known and addressedas (A) Ambassador (B) Envoy (C) High commissioner (D) Representative
C
72 What determines Nigeriarsquos relations with other countries (A) Its national interest (B) Itslevel of democratization (C) Its citizens political sagacity (D) Its political culture
A
73 Which of the following best defines foreign policy (A) The ways in which some actors on thedomestic scene translate available power into policies designed to bring positive outcomes (B)The actions of a state towards the celestial environment (C) A set of objectives with regardsto the world beyond the borders of a given state and a set of strategies and tactics designed toachieve these objectives (D) The protection of the territorial integrity of a state
C74 Which of the following military regimes was credited with a dynamic foreign policy (A)
75 Which of these is an example of Nigeriarsquos external cultural relations (A) Exchange of studentswith friendly nations (B) Trade relationships with other countries (C) Financial and economicassistance to needy countries (D) Establishment of diplomatic missions in other countries
A
76 Which of these is correct about Nigeriarsquos foreign policy between 1960 and 1966 (A) It waspro-British (B) It was pro-American (C) It was pro-Soviet (D) It was pro-French
A
77 Which of these is NOT part of a countryrsquos core or vital interests (A) Economic viability (B)Political independence (C) Territorial integrity (D) Political brouhaha
D
78 Which of these is NOT the essence of foreign policy (A) Promotion and defence of a nationrsquosvital interest (B) Protection and promotion of a nationrsquos strategic interest (C) Protection andpromotion of the interest of the political leaders of a country (D) Promotion and defence ofthe economic interest of a nation
C
79 Which of these Nigerians has ever played a leading role in the operation of OPEC (A) AlhajiRilwanu Lukman (B) Prof Joe Garba (C) Prof Joy Ogwu (D) Gen Ike Nwachukwu
A
80 Which year was the Anglo-Nigerian defence pact abrogated (A) 1962 (B) 1963 (C) 1960 (D)1961
A
81 A major weakness of the Commonwealth is (A) lack of commitment by member states (B)lack of quorum at annual summits (C) poverty among member states (D) lack of democraticleadership A
82 An essential principle that guides the works of the United Nations (A) The regulation ofinternational trade (B) The protection of the United States of America against terrorism (C)Respect for sovereign equality of member states (D) The transfer of technology to developingcountries
C
83 In which of these International Organisations is African membership NOT possible (A)ECOWAS (B) EU (C) OPEC (D) Commonwealth
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
GOVERNMENT
6
84 Membership of the Commonwealth of Nations means (A) recognition of the Queen as theHead of the commonwealth and the republican states (B) recognition of the Queen as theHead of the commonwealth and not of the Republican States (C) recognition of the Queen asthe Head of the independent states and the republican states (D) recognition of the Queen asthe Head of all independent states
B85 One major achievement of OPEC is that (A) member nations are now formidable forces to be
reckoned with in international politics (B) world economic depression brought about fall in oilprice (C) there is a declining loyalty of its members (D) there are challenges posed by non ndashOPEC members
A
86 One of the following groups of states are all members of the ECOWAS (A) Nigerian Ghana andZaire (B) Guinea Togo and Cameroun (C) Guinea Bissau Burkina Faso and Cape Verde (D)Liberia Benin and Ethiopia C
87 The AU was formed by members of OAU (A) On 8th July 2002 at Durban South Africa (B) On8th July 2003 at Abuja Nigeria (C) On 8th July 2003 at Tripoli (D) On 8th June 2002 at AccraGhana
A
88 The first nation to become a republic within the Commonwealth of Nations is (A) Nigeria (B)Cyprus (C) Ghana (D) India D
89 The first summit of the African Union (AU) took place (A) On February 2 2004 at Addis AbabaEthiopia (B) On February 3 2003 at Addis Ababa Ethiopia (C) On February 3 2003 at AbujaNigeria (D) On February 2 2004 at Lagos Nigeria
B
90 The Non-aligned Movement was established at----------- in ---------- (A) Bombay 1955 (B)Bandung 1955 (C) Lagos 1972 (D) Addis Ababa 1955
B
91 The OAU adopted NEPAD during its summit held in (A) Abuja (B) Lusaka (C) Tunis (D) Cairo
D92 The organ charged with the responsibility of approving the annual budget of UNO is (A) The
Security Council (B) The International Court of Justice (C) the General Assembly (D) TheTrusteeship Council
C
93 To which of these blocs did Nigeria belong before the establishment of the OAU (A)Casablanca group (B) Monrovia group (C) Pan African group (D) African and Malagasy group
B
94 What is the full meaning of ECOWAS (A) Economic Community for Western African States (B)Economic Community of Western African States (C) Economic Community of West AfricanStates (D) Economic Community for West African States C
95 Where and when was the African Union inaugurated (A) Durban 2000 (B) Addis Ababa1963 (C) Lagos 1972 (D) Tripoli 2001
A
96 Which of the following is a functionally specialized global international organization (A)Organization of African Unity (B) United Nations (C) Food and Agriculture Organization (D)African Union
C
97 Which of the following is a specialized agency of the AU (A) The Assembly Conference (B) TheExecutive Council (C) African Court of Justice (D) The Commission
C
98 Which of the following is an apt definition of the Commonwealth of Nations (A) voluntaryassociation of the independent countries of the former British Colonies (B) association of freenations enjoying equal rights under the British (C) a free association of sovereign independentAfrican States (D) a voluntary association of countries that were formerly in the Frenchcolonial empire
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
GOVERNMENT
7
99 Which of the following is NOT a principal organ of the UNO (A) UNICEF (B) Security Council(C) Secretariat (D) General Assembly
A
100 Which of the following metamorphosed into the United Nations (A) International LabourOrganization (B) League of Nations (C) UNESCO (D) OAU
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
HISTORY
1 is the name of the political head of Zaria (A) Obi (B) Emir (C) Oba (D) Alaafin B
2 was the state which was thrown into anarchy and turmoil as a result of the opening of A
the Muni the sacred heritage by the king under the prompting of Muslim Missionaries (A)
Kanem (B) Salem (C) Njimi (D) Chad
3 Before getting to Nigeria River Niger passed across (A) Mali (B) Kanem (C) Chad (D) A
Morocco
4 Oba is the name of the political head of (A) Benin (B) Kano (C) Bornu (D) Sokoto A
5 The Amazon (female warriors ) Participated actively in defending which of these kingdoms (A) C
10 Scurvy is caused by the deficiency of (A) Protein (B) Vitamin D (C) Vitamin A (D) Vitamin C D
11 The dietary guide is to (A) Promote health (B) Promote disease (C) Promote sports (D)Promote too much eating
A
12 The fat soluble vitamins are (A) A B E and K (B) A D E and K (C) A C E and K (D) A D C and K B
13 The methods of cooking includes all except (A) Baking (B) Toasting (C )Boiling (D) None of theabove
D
14 Too much sugar in the body could lead to (A) Urinating (B) Heart disease (C) Liver disease (D)Diabetes
D
15 Vitamin D is for the (A) Formation of nerves (B) Formation of tissue (C) Formationof bones (D) Formation and digestion
C
16 Vitamin K performs the function of (A) Blood cell (B) Blood flow (C) Blood use (D) Blood clot D
17 Water soluble vitamins are (A) A C and B complex (B) A E and B complex (C) C and Bcomplex (D) A and B complex
C
18 What is an appetizer(A) Meal eaten after the main meal (B) Meal eaten as the second course meal (C) Meal eatenas the first course meal (D) Meal eaten as the last course meal
C
19 What is steaming (A) Cooking with water vapor (B) Cooking with water boiling (C) Cookingwith dry heat (D) All of the above
A
20 What is under nutrition (A) Consumption of less nutritious foods (B) Consumption ofadequate nutrients (C) Consumption of balance nutrients (D) Consumption of available foods
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
HOME ECONOMICS
2
21 Which is not a communicable disease (A) Measles (B) Marasmus (C) Chicken pox (D)Tuberculosis
B
22 Which is not a type of food storage (A) Moist storage (B) Dry storage (C) Refrigerator storage(D) Freezer storage
A
23 Which is the best method of cooking food to retain nutrient (A) Roasting (B) Boiling (C)Steaming (D) Frying
C
24 Which of these is not correct (A) Carbohydrate is to provide fat to the body (B) Protein is tobuild the body (C) Vitamin is to maintenance of metabolism in the body (D) Water is vital forlife
A
25 Which of these is responsible for proper bone formation (A) Protein (B) Carbohydrate (C)Calcium (D) Cobalamin
C
26 A group of people related by blood and living together is regarded as a (A) Community (B)Society (C) Home (D) Family
D
27 Disposal of household refuse should be done (A) Once a week (B) Every day (C) Twice a week(D) Once a week
B
28 Family can be identified as (A) Larger society (B) Community society (C) Nucleus of society(D) Entire society
C
29 Home Management involves (A) Addressing a home and making it a place of comfort andhappiness (B) Structuring a home and making it a place of comfort and happiness (C)Managing a home and making it a place of comfort and happiness (D) Dedicating a home andmaking it a place of comfort and happiness
C
30 Identify the steps in Home management (A) Planning organizing implementingEvaluation (B) Organizing planning implementing Evaluation (C) Implementing Planningorganizing Evaluation (D) Planning implementing organizing Evaluation
A
31 In choosing a curtain for the home we must consider all except (A) Colour of the wall (B)Colour of the ceiling (C) Colour of the furniture (D) Colour of all colours
D
32 In cleaning of the sitting room we must do all except (A) Open the windows (B) Close thewindows (C) Dust the furniture (D) Sweep the floor
B
33 Meal planning involves (A) Number to be served (B) Quantity of food to cook (C) Healthstatus of family members (D) All of the above
D
34 Money management depend on all except one (A) How money is dedicated (B) How moneyis utilized (C) How money is organized (D) How money is spent
A
35 Saving means (A) Money set aside for use in future (B) Money spent yesterday (C) Moneyspent last month (D) Money spent outside the budget
A
36 Steps in making family budget does not include (A) List all the commodities and servicesneeded (B) Estimate cost (C) Estimate the total expected income (D) Estimated money spent
D
37 Which is not a type of family system in Nigeria (A) Nuclear family (B) Polygamous family (C)Polyandry family (D) Extended family
C
38 Which is not a type of marriage in Nigeria (A) Christian marriage (B) Islamic marriage (C)Hindu marriage (D) Traditional marriage
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
HOME ECONOMICS
3
39 Whish of these is not a benefit of energy management (A) Energy is conserved (B) Eliminatesfatigue (C) Energy is fully used up (D) Reduces amount of time on a task
C
40 Choose a type of seam from these options (A) Run and stand (B) Run and fell (C) Close seam(D) English seam
C
41 Choose the most correct option (A) Clothing is the material used in sewing (B) Clothing is thefabric used in sewing (C) Clothing is the not material used in sewing (D) Clothing is the notthe fabric used in sewing
B
42 Dying a fabric will require most importantly (A) Colour (B) Table (C) Wax (D)Dye D
43 Natural fibres include only one of the options (A) Cotton (B) Linen (C) Wool (D) All of theabove
D
44 Stitches are divided into all except (A) Basic stitches (B) Embroidery (C) Permanent stitches (D)None of the above
46 Which is not a factor to consider in clothing selection (A) Sex (B) Age (C) Occupation (D) Hair D
47 Which of these is a basic stitch (A) Back stitch (B) Temporary stitch (C) French knot (D) Shellhem
A
48 Which of these is a factor to consider in clothing selection (A) Figure type (B) Figure cloth (C)Figure shoe (D) Figure choice
A
49 Which of these is not used in tie-dye (A) Water (B) Caustic soda (C) Soap (D) Hydrosulphide C
50 Wool is obtained from (A) Plant (B) Synthetic (C) Silk (D) Animal D
51 Determine the option that is not a career opportunity in Home Economics (A) Dietician (B)Researcher (C) Teacher (D) Jester
D
52 In family budgeting and expenditure Home Economics is related to ------------ discipline (A)Physics (B) Chemistry (C) Economics (D) Sociology
C
53 In interrelationship with family members Home Economics is related to ------------ discipline (A)Sociology (B) Psychology (C) Biology (D) Economics
A
54 In law of heat as applied to toaster iron Home Economics is related to ------------ discipline (A)Mathematics (B) Physics (C) Psychology (D) Biology
B
55 Someone who studied Family and child development can work as (A) Childhood Caterer inschools (B) Interior decorator in schools (C) Childhood Food vendor (D) Early Childhoodeducator
D
56 Someone who studied Food and Nutrition can work as a (A) Caterer (B) Doctor (C) Nurse (D)Vendor
A
57 The scope of Home Economics include (A) Food and Nutrition Home Economics Clothingand textile (B) Food and Nutrition Home management Clothing and textile (C) Food andNutrition Home management Fabric cutting (D) Food and Nutrition Home Design Clothingand textile
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
HOME ECONOMICS
4
58 What are the basic philosophy of Home Economics (A) How to improve only goods andservices used by individuals families and communities (B) How to determine only the needsof the individual family institution and community (C) How to become responsiblemember of families and communities (D) How to determine the need and improveindividual family institution and community
D
59 What is the basic philosophy of Home Economics (A) How to improve only goods and servicesused by individuals families and communities (B) How to determine only the needs of theindividual family institution and community (C) How to become responsible member offamilies and communities (D) How to determine the need and improve individual familyinstitution and community
D
60 A pregnant woman is carrying -------------- in her womb (A) Baby (B) Child (C) Foetus (D)Pregnancy
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
LITERATURE IN ENGLISH
1
1 Conceits more rich in matter than in wordsBrags of his substance not of ornament (ActIISCIV) The structure of this dramatic speech is an example of (A) paradoxicalstructure (B) parallel structure (C) circular thought pattern (D) antithesis
D
2 A drama form that teaches godliness righteousness and goodwill to all men among rulers andordinary citizens is called----- (A) sentimental comedy (B) heroic tragi-comedy (C) heroicfarce (D) satire
A
3 A dramatic composition in which many or all the words are sung is called---- (A) Oratorio (B)Opera (C) Comedy (D) Concert
B
4 A humorous play based on an unrealistic situation is considered in drama as--- (A) comedy(B) tragedy (C) farce (D) burlesque
C
5 A play is a tragedy when------------------ (A) the author presents life as a hopeless adventure (B)the main character dies before the play ends (C) there is much bloodshed in the play (D) aweakness in the main character leads to his downfall
D
6 A play that ends on a sad note is a ----------- (A)tragicomedy (B) comedy (C) tragedy (D)farce
C
7 A play that stirs readers to pity fear and laughter is called (A) tragicomedy (B) farce (C)absurd (D) melodrama
A
8 A play that tells a single story has one setting and takes place within a specified period is saidto-------- (A) be heavily moralistic (B) be clearly cohesive (C) possess the three unities (D)have tragic elements
C
9 A play which emphasizes laughter and amusement at the expense of credibility is called----(A) cartoon (B) elegy (C) comedy (D) farce
D
10 A play with a single character is called (A) solo-drama (B) monodrama(C) play let (D) All of the above
D
11 A tragic figure is a character who is (a) worthy of emulation (b) ennobled though suffering (c)unbending and irredeemable (d) completely transformed
C
12 A type of drama that celebrates or satirizes the follies of characters is called---- (A) comedy(B) tragedy (C) farce (D) tragicomedy
A
13 A type of drama that highlights suspense and romantic sentiment with characters who areusually either clearly good or bad is called ----(A) farce (B) melodrama (C) comedy (D)burlesque
B
14 According to Aristotle the key to tragedy is the concept of (A) cartharsis (B) chorus (C)representation(D) plot
A
15 Aristotlersquos word for a tragic herorsquos shortcoming is (a) hubris (b) harmatia (c) denouement(d) dilemma
B
16 As a comic dramatic piece a farce makes use of improbable situations and characters that are(A) exaggerated (B) extravagant (C) understanding (D) poor
A
17 Both comedy and tragedy have ------------- (A) climax (B) tragic hero (C) stanza (D) happyending
A
18 Farce can be described as a dramatic piece marked by----------- (A) movement from serious tothe light-hearted mood (B) comic and exaggerated actions (C) actions devoid of meaning (D)gloomy actions with momentary reliefs B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
LITERATURE IN ENGLISH
2
19 In ----- the major character is selfish devilish wicked and exploitative (A) Comedy (B)Tragicomedy (C) Farce (D) Melodrama
D
20 In a play tragic responses are brought to a head through three elements (A) reversalrecognition and suffering (B) weakness suffering and resolution (C) flaw fear andrecognition (D) reversal suffering and conclusion
A
21 In de Graftrsquos Sons and Daughters James Ofosu is treated with (A) ridicule (B)dramatic irony (C) sarcasm (D) melodramatic spectacle
B
22 In drama a flashback occurs when (A) a characterrsquos inner mind isrevealed (B) the playwright supplies a missing link in a characterrsquos past (C) a character dropsan idea that hints at the future (D) a character drops an idea that hints at the concealed past
D
23 In drama light furniture custom and make-up are part of (A) stage deacutecor (B)stage architectonics (C) stage proxemics (D) kineaesthetics
A
24 In most of Shakespearersquos drama when a character speaks in aside the act is referred to as (A) stream of consciousness (B) sleep-walking (C) soliloquy (D) monologue
C
25 In Romeo and Juliet Romeo died (A) of self-poison (B) being murdered byFriar Laurence (C) the capulet (D) unknown assassins
A
26 In Sons and Daughters Fosuwa symbolizes (A) tradition and the old order (B) modernity (C)youthful exuberance (D) patriarchy
A
27 In Sons and Daughters the character of James Ofosu symbolizes (A) poverty (B) old values (C)new values (D) wealth
B
28 In tragedy everything must be artistically balanced this means that (A) the setting must bein one place (B) nothing superfluous is included and nothing essential omitted (C) characterand action are in equal ratio (D) there should be equal ratio of male and female characters
B29 -------------is a drama form which depicts royal wickedness of English kings and queens (A)
Heroic drama (B) Heroic tragicomedy (C) Heroic farce (D) SatireA
30 -----------is a drama form which ends happily after a number of initial tragic occurrences areresolved (A) Tragicomedy (B) Melodrama (C) Heroic Drama (D) Farce
A
31 --------------is the drama form which ends up on a note of happiness after some initial minorproblems (A) Tragedy (B) Farce (C) Heroic drama D Comedy
D
32 Joe de Graft was a prominent playwright from (A) Ghana (B) Nigeria (C) Cameroon (D) SierraLeone
A
33 Melodrama is the genre of drama which is characterized by emphasis on theatricality over(A) characterization (B) plot (C) setting (D) point of view A
34 One basic feature of melodrama is (A) humour (B) high-spirit (C)triumph of vice over virtue (D) overcome of evil by good
C
35 One of the peculiar features of drama in general is ------------ (A) humour (B) satire (C)sarcasm (D) action
D
36 Romeo and Juliet portrays the (A) chaos and passion of being in love (B) moral situation of thesociety (C) happiness of falling in love (D) evitability of fate
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
LITERATURE IN ENGLISH
3
37 The first part of a Greek tragedy is called a prologue and is also a playrsquos (A) envoy (B)exposition (C) rising action (D) climax
B
38 The most basic feature of drama is helliphelliphelliphelliphelliphelliphelliphelliphelliphellip (A) monologue (B) suspense (C) action(D) plot
C
39 The play Romeo and Juliet begins with (A) serious argument (B) sincere love (C) streetfight (D) secret marriage
C
40 The play Romeo and Juliet is an example of (A) realistic comedy (B) romantic comedy (C)satiric comedy (D) ironic comedy
B
41 The term farce is now used to cover a form of drama which employs (A) mistaken identity(B) slapstick (C) reversal of roles (D) romantic plot
A
42 The tragic herorsquos flaw is called (A) hubris (B) harmatia (C) caesura (D)peripeteia B
43 The word ldquocastrdquo in a play refers to (A) Three of the actors (B) A few of the actors (C) All theactors (D) An exclusive social class in the play
C
44 Theatre of the absurd portrays people whose sufferings seem (A) unfortunate (B)ridiculous (C) indefinite (D) sympathetic
B
45 Tragecomedies developed in which century (A) 18th (B) 19th (C) 20th (D) 21st C C46 When a play includes witty and graceful situation it can be classified as (A) comedy of
manners (B) high comedy (C) low comedy (D) comedy of the absurdB
47 When the plot of a play begins in the middle and only unfolds the past through flashback it iscalled (A) complex-plot (B) media res (C) prefiguration (D) None of theforegoing
B
48 Which of the following is true of Opera (A) They are plays with elaborate music (B) They areplays with elaborate songs (C) They are plays with dance (D) A and B
D
49 Which of the following statements best describes comedy (A) A play in which nobody dies(B) A play which makes us laugh (C) A play in which the hero is a clown (D) A play which endshappily
D
50 A story in which the characters are animals but behave like human beings is a (A) fable (B)fairy tale (C) folktale (D) parable
A
51 Considering the way Nnu Egorsquos life ends in The Joys of Motherhood the title of the novel canbe said to be (A) ironic (B) ambiguous (C) sarcastic (D) euphemistic
A
52 In lsquoThe Old Man and the Medalrsquo when in answer to the question if she had slept well Kelaraanswered ldquoI counted the matting in the roofrdquo she meant that (A) she slept very well (B) shewas awake when she should have been sleeping (C) she was thinking of mending the roof (D)there was a hole in the roof
B53 In a novel the antagonist is usually called a (A) narrator (B) hero (C) villain (D) clown C
54 In Nineteen Eighty-four the most important character in the story is____ (A) Winston Smith(B) Julia (C) OrsquoBrien (D) Big Brother
A
55 In Nineteen Eighty-Four the poet is (A) OrsquoBrien (B) Ampleforth (C) Syme (D) Martin B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
LITERATURE IN ENGLISH
4
56 In The Joys of Motherhood Nnaife enlisted in the army because (A) he was running awayfrom his wives and children (B) his white employers had gone home to Europe leaving himjobless (C) he wanted to prove that he was a man (D) he was looking for adventure
B
57 In The Joys of MotherhoodNnu Ego at one point tried to commit suicide because (A)someone used witchcraft on her (B) her only child had just died (C) she could not bear theshame of being barren (D) she did not like Nnaifersquos appearance
B
58 In The Old Man and the Medal when in answer to the question if she had slept well Kelaraanswered ldquoI counted the matting in the roofrdquo she meant that (A) she slept very well (B) shewas awake when she should have been sleeping (C) she was thinking of mending the roof (D)there was a hole in the roof
B
59 Nineteen Eighty-four can be described as a _____ (A) political satire (B) comedy (C)tragedy (D) chronicle
A
60 The expression ldquoto break the leg of an anteloperdquo which is found in The Old Man and the Medalmeans______ (A) hunting (B) travelling (C) marriage (D) fighting
D
61 The Joys of Motherhood suggests that (A) sometimes men are irresponsible as fathers andhusbands (B) children always grow up to help their parents (C) husbands always appreciatehardworking wives (D) women care for their children but neglect their husbands
A
62 The major thematic preoccupation of Joys of Motherhood is (A) politics (B) economicemancipation (C) motherhood (D) colonialism
C
63 ldquoThe piercing chill I feel My dead wifersquos comb in our bedroom Under my heelrdquo(trans ByHarold Henderson) What is the form of the above poem (A) haiku (B) triplet (C) tercet (D)quatrain A
64 A sonnet is a poem of_____ lines (A) 15 (B) 14 (C) 16 (D) 12 B
65 A stanza of three lines linked by rhyme is called a________ (A) couplet (B) ballad (C) tercet(D) quatrain
C
66 From David Rubadirirsquos ldquoAn African Thunderstormrdquo ldquoClouds come hurrying with the windrdquocontains an example of (A) alliteration (B) assonance (C) enjambment (D) rhyme
A
67 In poetry double rhyme can be used to bring out (A) irony (B) unity (C) theme (D)conclusion
A
68 The stanzas which make up a ballad usually consists of_____lines (A) 7 (B) 8 (C) 4 (D) 9 C
69 The tone in lsquoHeritage of Liberationrsquo is_____ (A) lamentative (B) invocatory (C) explanatory(D) melancholic
B
70 The typical rhyme scheme of an English sonnet is (A) abab cdcd efef gg (B) abab cdcd eeffgg (C) abcd abcd efef gg (D) abcc abcd efff gg
A
71 The words ldquoproverdquo and ldquoaboverdquo are examples of the rhyme called (A) exact (B) half (C) eye(D) slant
C
72 When words in poetry rise and fall in a measured way it is referred to as________ (A) rhyme(B) rhythm (C) repetition (D) euphemism
B
73 Which of the following is NOT a form of poetic expression (A) Octet (B) Lyric (C) Sonnet (D)Elegy
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
LITERATURE IN ENGLISH
5
74 ______is the deliberate use of exaggeration for the sole purpose of humour in poetry (A)Simile (B) Hyperbole (C) Onomatopoeia (D) Oxymoron
B
75 A character who remains unchanged in a story is described as (A) round (B) flat (C) stock(D) dynamic
B
76 A figure of speech which refers to the repetition of the initial consonant sounds of poetry witha rhythmic effect is called_______ (A) alliteration (B) assonance (C) apostrophe (D)euphemism
A
77 A literary work that appropriates matter andor manner from a previous work is (A) archetype (B) imitation (C) adaptation (D) sub-text
C
78 A tragic plot consists of (A) many people in various disastrous events (B) important incidents(C) noble and ordinary characters (D) a self-contained and concentrated single action
D
79 An expression or word which stands for a whole is called_______ (A) metonymy (B) allegory(C) synecdoche (D) repetition
C
80 Assonance refers to the _______ (A) repetition of alphabets in a line of poetry (B) repetitionof vowels in a line (C) agreement of vowel sounds in a line (D) agreement of consonantsounds in a line
B
81 Characters whose role contribute to the movement of plot are called (A)Minor characters (B) free characters (C) central characters (D) round characters
C
82 Identical vowel sounds create one of the following (A) euphony (B) cacophony (C)alliteration (D) assonance
D
83 Identify the odd one out of the following helliphelliphelliphelliphelliphellip (A) Aside (B) Costume (C) Narrative(D) Stage
C
84 Identify the odd one out of the following (A) Deacutecor (B) costume (C) Make-up (D) Mime D
85 In a novel the location of the story is referred to as the (A) stage (B) exposition (C) subject(D) setting
D
86 Point out the odd item (A) Macbeth (B) Twelfth Night (C) The Concubine (D) Romeo andJuliet
C
87 Pregnant clouds Ride stately on its back The clouds are described as ldquopregnantrdquo because (A)no one knows what is in them (B) they look like a fat woman (C) they bring rainfall (D)they move clumsily
C
88 The antagonist in a tragedy is ------------ (A) any character in the tragedy (B) the wife of theprotagonist (C) the character who provides comic relief (D) the character set in opposition tothe main character D
89 The device whereby the narrator recalls something that happened in the past is (A)foreshadowing (B) flashback (C) epiphany (D) prologue
B
90 The first person narrative point of view is characterized by the frequent use of (A) presenttense (B) singular nouns (C) past tense (D) the pronouns ldquoIrdquo and ldquowerdquo
D
91 The most mimetic term in critical vocabulary is (A) plot (B) imitation (C)character (D) action
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
LITERATURE IN ENGLISH
6
92 The structure of a story which shows the cause and effect of events is the (A) denouement (B)climax (C) imagery (D) plot
D
93 When one scene leads to another in inextricable chain of relationships it is called (A)episodic play (B) caused play (C) metaphysical play (D) All of the above
B
94 I would Love you ten years before the Flood And you should if you please refuse Tillthe conversion of the Jews The literary device used in the above extract is (A) allusion (B)innuendo (C) satire (D) archetype A
95 ldquoThat pierced the fearful hollow of thine earrdquo is an example of (A) relativeclause (B) figure of speech (C) personification (D) noun clause D
96 ldquoWilt thou be gone It is not yet near day It was the nightingale and not the lark That piercedthe fearful hollow of thine earrdquo The first sentence here is an example of (A)interrogative sentence (B) apostrophe (C) rhetorical statement (D) request
C
97 From Andrew Marvellrsquos ldquoTo His Coy Mistressrdquo Had we but world enough and time Thiscoyness lady were no crime We could sit down and think which way To walk and pass ourlong loversquos day This poem opens in the lines above like a (A) Sonnet (B) praise poem (C)ballad (D) dramatic monologue
D
98 Identify the odd term (A) Enjambment (B) Rhyme (C) Plot (D) Alliteration C
99 In the village Screams of delighted children Toss and turn In the din of whirling wind Women Babies clinging on their backs Dart about In and out Madly The Wind whistlesby Whilst trees bend to let it pass In the above extract the movement of the women is (A)leisurely (B) hurried (C) orderly (D) slow
B100 Tossing up things on its tail Like a madman chasing nothing These lines contain an example
of a (A) metaphor (B) simile (C) metonymy (D) paradoxB
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
MATHEMATICS
1
1 (128 x 104 ) divide (64 x 102 ) equals(A) 2 x 10-5 (B) 2 x 10-1 (C) 2 x 100 (D) 2 x 101 (E) 2 x 105
D
2 A man and wife went to buy an article costing N400 The woman had 10 of the cost andthe man 40 of the remainder How much did they have altogether(A) N216 (B) N200 (C) N184 (D) N144 (E) N100
C
3 Add the same number to the numerator and denominator of 318 If the resulting fraction isfrac12 then the number added is(A) 13 (B) 14 (C) 15 (D) 12 (E) 11
D
4 After getting a rise of 15 a manrsquos new monthly salary is N345 How much per monthdid he earn before the increase(A) N330 (B) N39675 (C) N300 (D) N29325 (E) N360
C
5 Assuming loge 44 = 14816 and loge 77 = 20142 then the value of loge frac14 is(A) 05326 (B) 34958 (C) 04816 (D) 00142 (E) 13594
A
6 Evaluate ൫2 + 4ଵଶ൯ଶ
(A) frac14 (B) 54 (C) 94 (D) 4 (E) 9
C
7 Evaluate correct to 4 decimal places 82751 x 0015(A) 88415 (B) 124127 (C) 1241265 (D) 124120(E) 1141265
B
8 Express 130 kilometres per second in metres per hour(A) 78 x 105 (B) 468 x 106 (C) 7800000(D) 468 x 106 (E) 780 x 10-6
B
9 Find the square root of 170-20radic30 (A) 2radic10-5radic3 (B) 3radic5-8radic6 (C) 2radic5-5radic6 (D) 5radic5-2radic6 (E) 5radic10-2radic3
C
10 If (25)x-1 = 64(5frasl2)6 then x has the value(A) 7 (B) 4 (C) 32 (D) 64 (E) 5
B
11 If a circular paper disc is trimmed in such a way that its circumference is reduced in theratio 25 in what ratio is the surface area reduced(A) 8125 (B) 25 (C) 825 (D) 425 (E) 410
D
12 In base ten the number 101101 (base 2) equals(A) 15 (B) 4 (C) 45 (D) 32 (E) 90
C
13 Simplifyହ ୶ ଶହ౮షభ
ଵଶହ౮శభ
(A) 5ଶ୶ ଵ (B) 5୶ାଶ (C) 5ହ (D) 5୶ାଵ (E) 5ଷ
C
14 Simplify(ଵ)൫రయାଵమళ൯
(మଵమ)
(A) ଶଷ (B) ଵଷ (C) ଶ + 1 (D) a (E) ଵଷ
E
15 Simplify ଵଶଶℎଵଷ divide ହଶℎଷ
(A) ( ℎ)ଶ (B) ହଶℎ (C) ହସℎଽ (D)మ
ఱళ(E)
ଵ
మమ
A
16 Simplify 2ହ
ଵଶminus 1
x
ହ
(A) 16 (B) 1320 (C) 1130 (D) 94 (E) 53
A
17 Solve the system of equations 2௫ା௬ = 32 3ଷ௬௫ = 27(A) (3 2) (B) (-3 2) (C) (3 -2) (D) (-3 -2) (E) (2 2)
A
18 The annual profits of a transport business were divided between the two partners A and Bin the ratio 35 If B receives N3000 more than A the total profit was(A) N5000 (B) N1800 (C) N12000 (D) N24000 (E) N8000
C
19 The diameter of a metal rod is measured as 2340cm to four significant figures What is D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
MATHEMATICS
2
the maximum error in the measurement(A) 005cm (B) 05cm (C) 0045cm (D) 0005cm (E) 0004cm
20 The ratio of the price of a loaf of bread to the price of a packet of sugar in 1975 was r t in1980 the price of a loaf went up by 25 and that of a packet of sugar by 10 Their newratio is now(A) 40r50t (B) 44r50t (C) 50r44t (D) 55r44t (E) 44r55t
C
21 The sum of 378 and 113 is less than the difference between 38 and 123 by (A) 323 (B)5frac14 (C) 6frac12 (D) 0 (E) 818
C
22 Two distinct sectors in the same circle subtend 1000 and 300 respectively at the centre ofthe circle Their corresponding arcs are in the ratio
24 What is the number whose logarithm to base 10 is 3482(A) 2236 (B) 02228 (C) 2235 (D)
2237 (E) 002229
E
25 When a dealer sells a bicycle for N81 he makes a profit of 8 What did he pay for thebicycle
(A) N73 (B) N7452 (C) N75 (D) N7552 (E)N8748
C
26 Write the decimal number 39 to base 2(A) 100111 (B) 110111 (C) 111001 (D) 100101 (E) 195
A
27 A father is now three times as old as his son Twelve years ago he was six times as old ashis son How old are the son and the father(A) 20 and 45 (B) 100 and 150 (C) 45 and 65 (D) 35 and 75 (E) 20 and 60
E
28 A steel ball of radius 1cm is dropped into a cylinder of radius 2cm and height 4cm If thecylinder is now filled with water what is the volume of the water in the cylinder(A) cm3ߨ443 (B) 12 cm3ߨ (C) 383 cm3ߨ (D) 403 cm3ߨ (E) 3233 cm3ߨ
A
29 Find a two-digit number such that three times the tens digit is 2 less than twice the unitsdigit and twice the number is 20 greater than the number obtained by reversing the digits(A) 24 (B) 42 (C) 74 (D) 47 (E) 72
D
30 Find the roots of the equation minusଶݔ10 minusݔ13 3 = 0(A) x = 35 or ndashfrac12 (B) x = 310 or -1 (C) x = -310 or 1 (D) x = 15 or -32 (E) x= -15 or 32
E
31 If a function is defined by +ݔ) 1) = minusଶݔ3 +ݔ 4 find (0)(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 0 (D) 8 (E) 2
D
32 If sin x equals cosine x what is x in radians(A) π2 (B) π3 (C) π4 (D) π6 (E) π12
C
33 If x2 + 4 = 0 then x =(A) 4 (B) -4 (C) 2 (D) -2 (E) none of these
E
34 In a geometric progression the first term is 153 and the sixth term is 1727 the sum of thefirst four terms is(A) 8603 (B) 6803 (C) 6083 (D) 8063 (E) 68027
B
35 List all integer values of x satisfying the inequality minus1 lt minusݔ2 5 le 5(A) 2345 (B) 25 (C) 345 (D) 234 (E) 34
C
36 Make c the subject of the equation (+ ) +ହ
ௗminus 2 = 0 D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
MATHEMATICS
3
(A) = 2minus 5 minus (B) = 5 minus 2minus (C) = 5 minus 2minus (D) = 2minus 5 minus (E) = 2minus minus 5
(C) ndash +ݔ) +ݔ)(5 1) (D) minusݔ) 5)(1 minus (ݔ (E) +ݔ) 5)(1 minus (ݔ
D
41 The quantity (x + y) is a factor of A(A) ଶݔ + ଶݕ (B) minusଷݔ ଷݕ (C) minusଶݔ2 +ݕݔ3 minusଶݕ +ݔ 1(D) ଷݔ2 + minusݕଶݔ2 +ݕݔ minusݔ3 ଶݕ + ݕ3 (E) minusହݔ ହݕ
D
42 The set of values of x and y which satisfies the equations ltigtxltsupgt2ltsupgt - y - 1 = 0ltigt and ltigty ndash 2x + 2 = 0ltigt(A) 1 0 (B) 1 1 (C) 2 2 (D) 0 2 (E) 1 2
A
43 The solution of the equation minusଶݔ =ݔ2 8 is(A) x = 0 or 2 (B) x = -2 or 4 (C) x = 2 (D) x = -4 (E) x = 2 or 4
B
44 The solution of the quadratic equation ଶݔ + +ݔ = 0 is given by
(A) =ݔplusmnξ మସ
ଶ(B) =ݔ
plusmnξ మସ
ଶ(C) =ݔ
plusmnξ మସ
ଶ
(D) =ݔplusmnradicమାସ
ଶ(E) =ݔ
plusmnradicమସ
ଶ
A
45 The sum of the root of a quadratic equation isହ
46 Three numbers x y and z are connected by the relationships =ݕସ
ଽ+ݔ 1 and =ݖ
ସ
ଽ+ݕ 1
If x = 99 find z(A) 613 (B) 20 (C) 21 (D) 17649 (E) None of the above
C
47 What factor is common to all the expressions minusଶݔ ݔ ଶݔ2 + minusݔ 1 and minusଶݔ 1(A) x (B) x ndash 1 (C) x + 1 (D) No common factor (E) (2x ndash 1)
D
48 A canal has rectangular cross section of width 10cm and breadth 1m If water of uniformdensity 1gm cm-3 flows through it at a constant speed of 1000mm per minute the adjacentsea is
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
MATHEMATICS
4
(A) 100000 (B) 1000000 (C) 120000 (D) 30000 (E) 35000049 A cuboid has a diagonal of length 9cm and a square base of side 4cm What is its height
50 A cylinder of height h and radius r is open at one end Its surface area is(A) 2πrh (B) πr2h (C) 2πrh+2πr2 (D) πrh+πr2 (E) 2πrh+πr2
E
51 A pyramid is constructed on a cuboid The figure has(A) 12 faces (B) 13 vertices (C) 14 edges (D) 15 edges (E) 16 edges
E
52 A quadrant of a circle of radius 6cm is cut away from each corner of a rectangle 25cm longand 18cm wide Find the perimeter of the remaining figure(A) 38cm (B) (38 + (ߨ12 (C) (86 minus (ߨ12 (D) (86minus (ߨ6 (E) (86 +(ߨ12
B
53 A rectangular picture 6cm by 8cm is enclosed by a frame frac12cm wide Calculate the area ofthe frame(A) 15sqcm (B) 20sqcm (C) 13sqcm (D) 16sqcm (E) 17sqcm
A
54 A regular hexagon is constructed inside a circle of diameter 12cm The area of thehexagon is
56 A solid cylinder of radius 3cm has a total surface area of 36πcm2 Find its height(A) 2cm (B) 3cm (C) 4cm (D) 5cm (E) 6cm
B
57 A square of cardboard is taped at the perimeter by a piece of ribbon 20cm long What isthe area of the board(A) 20sqcm (B) 25sqcm (C) 36sqcm (D) 100sqcm (E) 16sqcm
B
58 A triangle has angles 300 150 and 1350 the side opposite to the angle 300 is length 6cmThe side opposite to the angle 1350 is equal to
61 Find the area of the curved surface of a cone whose base radius is 6cm and whoseheight is 8cm (Take π = 227) (A) 18857cm2 (B) 1320cm2 (C) 188cm2 (D) 18808cm2 (E) 100cm2
A
62 Find the total surface area of a solid cone of radius 2radic3cm and slanting side 4radic3cm
67 PQRS is a cyclic quadrilateral with PQ as diameter of the circle If PQS = 150 findQRS(A) 750 (B) 37frac120 (C) 127frac120 (D) 1050 (E) None of the above
D
68 The difference between the length and width of a rectangle is 6cm and the area is135cm2 What is the length(A) 25cm (B) 18cm (C) 15cm (D) 24cm (E) 27cm
C
69 At what value of x does the function y= -3 ndash 2x +x2 attain a minimum value(A) 4 (B) 2 (C) -1 (D) -4 (E) 1
84 7 pupils of average age 12 years leave a class of 25 pupils of average age 14 years If 6new pupils of average age 11 years join the class what is the average age of the pupils nowin the class(A) 13years (B) 12years 7frac12months (C) 13years 5months (D) 13years 10 months(E) 11 years
A
85 A bag contains 4 white balls and 6 red balls Two balls are taken from the bag withoutreplacement What is the probability that they are both red(A) 13 (B) 29 (C) 215 (D) 15 (E) 35
E
86 Bola chooses at random a number between 1 and 300 What is the probability that thenumber is divisible by 4(A) 13 (B) frac14 (C) 15 (D) 4300 (E) 1300
B
87 Determine the mean monthly salary of 50 employees of a company from the followingfrequency distribution
88 Find the mean deviation of 1 2 3 and 4(A) 25 (B) 20 (C) 10 (D) 15 (E) 12
C
89 If M represents the median and D the mode of the measurements 5 9 3 5 7 5 8then (M D) is(A) (6 5) (B) (5 8) (C) (5 7) (D) (5 5) (E) (7 5)
D
90 In a basket of fruits there are 6 grapes 11 bananas and 13 oranges If one fruit is chosen atrandom what is the probability that the fruit is either a grape or a banana
(A) 1730 (B) 1130 (C) 630 (D) 530 (E) 73
A
91 In a school 220 students offer Biology or Mathematics or both 125 offer Biology and 110Mathematics How many offer Biology but not Mathematics
(A) 95 (B) 80 (C) 125 (D) 110 (E) 120
D
92 In a school there are 35 students in Class 2A and 40 in class 2B The mean score for class2A in an English literature examination is 600 and that for 2B in the same paper is 525Find to one place of decimals the mean for the combined classes
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
MATHEMATICS
7
(A) 15 (B) 560 (C) 562 (D) 563 (E) 56593 In a soccer competition in one season a club had scored the following goals 2 0 3 3 2
1 4 0 0 5 1 0 2 2 1 3 1 4 and 1 The mean median and mode are respectively(A) 1 18 and 15 (B) 18 15 and 1 (C) 18 1 and 15 (D) 15 1 and 18 (E)15 18 and 1
B
94 In how many ways can 2 students be selected from a group of 5 students in a debatingcompetition (A) 25 ways (B) 10 ways (C) 15 ways (D) 20 ways (E)16 ways
D
95 The arithmetic mean of the ages of 30 pupils in a class is 153 years One boy leaves theclass and one girl is enrolled and the new average age of 30 pupils in the class becomes152 years How much older is the boy than the girl
(A) 30 years (B) 6 years (C) 9 years (D) 3 years (E) 1 year
D
96 The letters of the word ldquoMATRICULATIONrdquo are cut and put into a box One letter isdrawn at random from the box Find the probability of drawing a vowel(A) 713 (B) 513 (C) 613 (D) 813 (E) 413
C
97 The mean of the numbers 3 6 4 x and 7 is 5 Find the standard deviation
(A) radic2 (B) radic3 (C) 2 (D) 3 (E) 5
A
98 The weights of 30 new-born babies are given as follows 6 9 5 7 6 7 5 8 9 5 7 58 7 8 7 56 5 7 6 9 9 7 8 8 7 8 9 8 The mode is(A) 6 (B) 5 (C) 8 (D) 7 (E) 10
D
99 Thirty boys and x girls sat for a test The mean of the boysrsquo scores and that of the girlswere respectively 6 and 8 Find x if the total score was 468(A) 38 (B) 24 (C) 36 (D) 22 (E) 41
C
100 Two fair dice are rolled What is the probability that both show up the same number ofpoints (A) 136 (B) 736 (C) frac12 (D) 13 (E) 16
E
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
BIOLOGY
1
1 ____________ is an end product of digestion of fat (A) Glucose (B) Fatty acid (C) Amino acid (D)Fructose (E) Galactose
B
2 Asexual reproduction in Hydra sp is commonly by ____ (A) Binary fission b Fragmentation cBudding d Separation (E) Regeneration
C
3 Benedictrsquos solution is used to test for ___ (A) Carbohydrate (B) Lipid (C) Protein (D) Vitamins (E)Minerals
C
4 Pepsin is an enzyme that digests ___ (A) Starch (B) Sugar (C) Lipid (D) Fat (E) Protein E
5 The breakdown of large organic molecules into smaller simpler soluble molecules is called ndashndash (A)Excretion (B) Digestion (C) Absorption (D) Reproduction (E) Ingestion
B
6 The enzyme that curdles milk is_____________ (A) Pepsin (B) Ptyalin (C) Renin (D) Amylase(E) Trypsin
C
7 Which is the enzyme that begins digestion of starch in the mouth (A) Ptyalin (B) Maltase (C)Amylase (D) Sucrase (E) Lactase
A
8 A group of interacting populations in a particular habitat can be described as ___(A) biome (B)biosphere (C) community (D) population ecosystem (E) environment
C
9 A habitat can be defined as ___(A) a group of animals and plants living within a commonboundary (B) a place in which plants and animals live (C) a community living together in thesame place (D) different areas with a common animal and plant population (E) None of theabove
B
10 A symbiotic relationship in which one organism is completely dependent on another organism iscalled ____ (A) Parasitism (B) Commensalisms (C) Mutualism (D) Saprophytism (E) Competition
A
11 An association between two organisms where both members benefit is known as ___ (A)symbiosis (B) commensalism (C) ammensalism (D) mutualism (E) saprophytism
D
12 An instrument used in measuring the speed of wind is (A) a barometer (B) a wind gauge (C) awind vane (D) an anemometer (E) a hydrometer
D
13 At times hyenas feed on remains of animals killed by other animals At other times hyenasthemselves kill animals for food Therefore hyenas may best be described as ndashndash (A) scavengersand herbivores (B) scavengers and parasites (C) scavengers and predators (D) herbivores andpredators e herbivores and parasites
C
14 Autecology is defined as the study of interrelationship of (A) many species of organisms and theirenvironment (B) same species of organisms and their environment (C) organisms in theatmosphere (D) organisms under the earthrsquos surface (E)None of the above
B
15 Autotrophs are also described as ndashndash (A) Consumers (B) Decomposers (C) Carnivores (D)Producers (E) Herbivores
D
16 If three 30cm lengths of glass tubing are tightly packed with clay sand and loamy soilsrespectively and then stood in a beaker of water for one week the level of water will be (A)Lowest in the tube with clay (B) The same in all the tubes (C) Lowest in the tube with loamy soil(D) Highest in the tube with sandy soil (E) Lowest in the tube with sandy soil
E
17 In a community bacteria and fungi are referred to as ndashndash (A) producers (B) consumers (C)scavengers (D) tertiary consumers (E) decomposers
E
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
BIOLOGY
2
18 Puddles Ponds Rivers Seas and Oceans are grouped together as ndashndash (A) Ecosystem (B) Biosphere(C) Aquatic habitat (D) Terrestrial habitat (E) Marine environment
C
19 The feeding pattern in an ecosystem is calledhelliphelliphelliphellip (A) Pyramid of energy (B) Food web (C)Food chain (D) Pyramid of member (E) Ecology
B
20 The orderly changes that occur slowly and naturally in plant and animal communities in a givenarea over a period of time until a stable community is established is called ndashndash (A)Transformational change (B) ecological succession (C) survival of the fittest (D) weatherchange (E) environmental change
B
21 The sign + is used to indicate an association where an organism gains while 0 is used where anorganism is unaffected An association indicated as +0 is known as ndashndash (A) predation (B)commensalism (C) parasitism (D) competition (E) ammensalism
B
22 The sum total of all the roles an organism plays in a habitat is referred to as (A) ecology (B)ecosystem (C) habit (D) habitat (E) niche
E
23 Which of the following factors does not control population growth (A) Food shortage (B)Emigration (C) Predation (D) Abundance of food (E) Natural disaster
D
24 Which of the following statements best describe an ecosystem (A) A place where livingorganisms can live successfully (B) The interactions between living organism in a habitat and thenon-living part of the environment (C) A biological association between a plant and ananimal (D) A system of grouping organisms in a habitat (E) None of the above
B
25 Which of these represents a correct food chain in nature (A) Crustacea rarr diatom rarrfish rarr man (B) Diatom rarr crustacea rarr fish rarr man (C) Fish rarr crustacea rarr man rarr diatom (D) Diatom rarr fish rarr crustacea rarr man (E) None of the above
B
26 ___________ is involved in the mechanism of expelling water from the protozoans during theprocess of____________ (A) Contractile vacuole Osmoregulation (B) Contractile vacuolePhagocytosis (C) Food vacuole Ultrafilteration (D) Food vacuole Pinocytosis (E) Cell membranePinocytosis
A
27 ______________ is used for photosynthesis in Euglena sp (A) Reservoir (B) Nucleus (C)Chloroplast (D) Paramylon granule (E) Pellicle
C
28 A heart with four chambers is found in______________ (A) Fishes (B) Insects (C) Snails (D) Rats(E) Worms
D
29 Animal cell does not have a ____________ (A) Membrane (B) Nucleolus (C) Food Vacuole (D) Cellwall (E) Golgi body
D
30 Beriberi is caused by deficiency of vitamin_____________ (A) A (B) D (C) K (D) E (E) B E
31 Compound eyes are found in which of the animals below (A) Rat (B) Cow (C) Snail (D) Ant (E) Jellyfish
D
32 Dental formula of man consist of (A) i 22 c22 pm22 m33 (B) i11 c22 pm22 m33 (C)i22 c11 pm32 m22 (D) i22 c11 pm22 m22 (E) i22 c11 pm22 m33
E
33 During digestion of food passage of chyme through the duodenum enables it to become awatery liquid called__________ (A) Digested food (B) Chymatic product (C) Chyle (D) Solublefood (E) Dissolved food
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
BIOLOGY
3
34 Emulsification of fat and oils is caused by______________ (A) Lipase (B) Ptyalin (C) Trypsin (D)Maltase (E) Bile
E
35 Every mammal has (A) One Kidney (B) Two pairs of Kidneys (C) One pair of Kidneys (D) FourKidneys (E) None of the above
C
36 Faeces is removed from the body in a process called (A) Digestion (B) Egestion (C) Elimination(D) Excretion (E) Evacuation
B
37 Glomerulus is found in the______________ (A) Ovary (B) Testes (C) Brain (D) Kidney e)Stomach
D
38 In the respiratory system of man diffusion of gases takes place in (A) Trachea (B) Bronchi (C)Alveoli (D) Bronchioles (E) None of the above
C
39 Incisors are used for (A) Tearing food (B) Cutting food (C) Grinding food (D) Shearing food (E)Crushing food
B
40 Nematocysts are produced by special cells found in (A) Nematodes (B) Annelids (C)Platyhelminthes (D) Cnidarians (Coelenterates) (E) Arthropods
D
41 One of the following is not a function of the skin (A) Excretion (B) Protection (C) Homeostasis(D) Reproduction (E) Absorption of vitamin D
D
42 Open circulatory system is found in _____________ (A) Lizard (B) Toad (C) Fish (D) Insect (E)Chicken
D
43 Ovary is to the female reproductive system as________ is to the male reproductive system (A)Penis (B) Urethra (C) Testis (D) Cowperrsquos gland (E) Prostate gland
C
44 Possession of pinna is a characteristic feature of (A) Mammals (B) Reptiles (C) Fishes (D)Amphibians (E) All of the above
A
45 Tadpoles respire with (A) Lungs (B) Nostril (C) Gills (D) Spiracles (E) Siphon C
46 The excretory organ in the earthworm ishelliphelliphelliphellip (A) Malphigian tubule (B) Stoma (C)Nephriduim (D) Flame cells (E) Gills
C
47 The nerves that connect the eyes to the brain are called ndashndash (A) Cranial nerves (B) Optical nerves(C) Sensory nerves (D) Olfactory nerves (E) Optic nerves
E
48 The nerves that connect the eyes to the brain are called ndashndash (A) Cranial nerves (B) Optical nerves(C) Sensory nerves (D) Olfactory nerves (E) Optic nerves
E
49 The parasympathetic nervous system is involved in (A) Dilation of pupil of the eye (B) Controlthe activities of smooth muscles (C) Dilatation of the skin (D) Controls thinking in mammals (E)Increased metabolism
B
50 The part of the alimentary system of a bird where grinding of food occurs is (A) Crop (B)Stomach (C) Cloaca (D) Rectum (E) Gizzard
E
51 The part of the ear that contains receptors that convert the fluid motion into action potential iscalled ndashndash (A) Auditory nerve (B) Ossicles (C) Semicircular canals (D) Cochlea (E) Oval window
D
52 The thoracic region of the vertebral column is made up of __________ vertebrae (A) 5 (B) 7 (C) 4(D) 12 (E) 10
D
53 Which of the animal below is poikilothemic (A) Toad (B) Chicken (C) Bat (D) Lion (E) Dove A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
BIOLOGY
4
54 Which of the structures below is found in reptiles and birds (A) Scales (B) Legs (C) Beaks (D)Claws (E) All of the above
A
55 Which of these animals is photosynthetic (A) Paramecium sp (B) Amoeba sp (C) Euglena sp(D) Hydra sp (E) None of the above
C
56 Which of these organs regulate the amount of sugar in the blood (A) Liver (B) Kidney (C) Spleen(D) Lung (E) Pancreas
E
57 The basis for growth and asexual reproduction is (A) meiosis (B) cytokinesis (C) mitosis (D)Cytogenesis (E) Cell elongation
C
58 The process which ensures that the chromosome number for each species of organism remainconstant from generation to generation is called (A) fission (B) fusion (C) meiosis (D) mitosis(E) oogenesis
C
59 Which of the following is a major factor in variation among organisms (A) Inbreeding (B)Backcrossing (C) Test crossing (D) Sexual reproduction (E) Gene dominance
D
60 ____________ is an example of an invertebrate (A) Millipede (B) Fish (C) Toad (D) Snake (E) Skin A
61 ____________ is the odd one in the list below (A) Mosquito (B) Bee (C) Moth (D) Tick (E)Beetle
63 _____________ is an example of a unicellular organism (A) Amoeba sp (B) Hydra sp (C) Ascarissp (D) Taenia sp (E) Obelia sp
A
64 _____________ level is the highest level of organization in animals (A) System (B) Tissue (C)Organ (D) Cellular (E) Protoplasmic
A
65 Crocodiles are _____________ (A) Fishes (B) Amphibians (C) Mammals (D) Birds (E) None of theabove
E
66 The mutation theory of organic evolution was propounded by (A) Gregor Mendel (B) Hugo deVrics (C) Jean Lamarck (D) Charles Darwin (E) Robert Hookes
D
67 The theory of natural selection was developed by (A) Lamarck and Darwin (B) Darwin andWallace (C) Wallace and Mendel (D) Mendel and Lamarck (E) Hooke and Darwin
B
68 Which is the odd animal in the list below (A) Lizards (B) Snakes (C) Turtles (D) Tortoise (E) Toad E
69 Which of the following sources is not an evidence of evolution (A) Fossil records B Comparativeanatomy C Comparative embryology (D) Human behavior (E) None of the above
D
70 _______________ is an endoparasite (A) Earthworm (B) Tapeworm (C) Mosquito (D) Housefly (E)Tsetse fly
B
71 The causative agent of bird flu is a (A) Virus (B) Bacteria (C) Fungus (D) Protozoan (E) Ricketsia A
72 In lower plants like mosses the structure which performs the functions of roots of higher plantsis called (A) root hairs (B) rootlets (C) hyphae (D) rhizoids (E) thalli
D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
BIOLOGY
5
73 One common feature of fungi algae mosses and ferns is that they are (A) photosynthetic (B)show alternation of generation (C) can survive harsh weather conditions (D) have no seeds (E)conjugate
D
74 The following are major groups of the plant kingdom EXCEPT (A) Bryophyta (B) Chlorophyta (C)Pteridophyta (D) Spermatophyta (E) Thallophyta
B
75 _____________is a form of sexual reproduction (A) Grafting (B) Budding (C) Fission (D)Conjugation (E) Regeneration
D
76 Sexual reproduction in Spirogyra is called (A) Fertilization (B) Symbiosis (C) Conjugation (D)Reproduction (E) Mutualism
C
77 The carrier of the hereditary characters in plants is the (A) Cell (B) nucleus (C) chromosome (D)chloroplast (E) gene
E
78 All are necessary for photosynthesis except_____________ (A) Water (B) Chlorophyll (C)Sunlight (D) Carbon dioxide (E) Oxygen
E
79 Growing yam tendrils climb for support This growth response is (A) haptotropism (B) geotropism(C) phototropism (D) hydrotropism (E) chemotropism
A
80 Which is the correct order in an evolutionary sequence for the following plant groups (A)Bacteria rarr ferns rarr algae rarr mosses rarr seed plants (B) Bacteria rarr ferns rarr mosses rarr algae rarr seed plants (C) Bacteria rarr algae rarr mosses rarr ferns rarr seed plants (D) Bacteria rarr mosses rarr algae rarr ferns rarr seed plants (E) Seed plants rarr ferns rarr mosses rarr algae rarr bacteria
C
81 ------------ is not part of the whorls of a flower(A)calyx (B) corolla (C) androecium (D)Antheridium (E)Gynoecium
D
82 A dry fruit which can break into several parts each containing one seed is a (A) caryopsis (B)aggregate fruit (C) legume (D) follicle (E) schizocarp
E
83 A dry indehiscent winged fruit formed from one carpel is known as a (A) Schizocarp (B)Caryopsis (C) Samara (D) nut (E) Follicle
C
84 A true fruit is formed from (A) fertilized ovary and other floral parts (B) a fertilized ovary (C) afertilized ovary and calyx (D) a fertilized and fleshy receptacle (E) an unfertilized ovary and otherfloral parts
B
85 Irish potato is a (A) bulb (B) tap root (C) rhizome (D) root tuber (E) stem tuber D
86 One major difference between an Angiosperm and a Gymnosperm is that seeds in Gymnospermsare borne in (A) Cones (B) fruits (C) flowers (D) ovary (E) ovule
A
87 Reserved food material in the seed is stored in the (A) epicarp (B) endocarp (C) endosperm (D)mesocarp (E) all parts
C
88 What type of fruit is a mango fruit (A) Berry (B) Hesperidium (C) Drupe (D) Nut (E) Mango fruit C
89 Which of the following species exhibit an aerial root (A) Ficus (B) Centrosema (C) Antigonon(D) Lantana (E) Dahlia
A
90 Which of these plants has an emerginate apex (A) Bauhinia (B) Pistia (C) Ixora (D) Musa (E)Terminalia
A
91 Which plant stores food in its roots (A) Cassava (B) cocoyam (C) Irish potato (D) onion (E)yam
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
BIOLOGY
6
92 An example of Vascular tissues is -------------- (A) Trichome (B) Xylem (C) Stomata (D) Epidermis(E) Parenchyma
B
93 The living part of phloem tissue is (A) sieve plate (B) companion cell (C) sieve element (D)cytoplasm
B
94 Which of the following tissues are made up of dead cells (A) meristems (B) xylem vessels (C)cambium (D) mesophyll (E) palisade
B
95 A plant vacuole contains (A) dissolved chemicals sugars salts pigments and crystals (B) wasteproducts of metabolism DNA RNA and crystals (C) pigments crystals DNA and waste productsof metabolism (D) RNA DNA sugars and salts
A
96 Excessive loss of water in plants is known as (A) Osmosis (B) Osmoregulation (C) Transpiration (D)Excretion
C
97 Starch granules in plants is equivalent to _____________ granules in animals (A) Food (B)Chromatin (C) Lysosome (D) Mitochondria (E) Glycogen
E
98 Which of the following is a plant excretory product (A) Oil (B) Cytokinin (C) Resin (D)amino acids (E) gibberellins
C
99 A plant which grows on another without causing harm to the host plant is called ndashndash (A) aparasite (B) a saprophyte (C) an epiphyte (D) a predator (E) a prey
C
100 Plants which can survive in places where water supply is limited are (A) bryophytes (B)mesophytes (C) xerophytes (D) hydrophytes (E) pteridophytes
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
1
1 200 cm3 of air was passed over heated copper in a syringe several times to produce copper (II)oxide When cooled the final volume of air recorded was 158 cm3 Estimate the percentage ofoxygen in the air (A) 31 (B) 27 (C) 21 (D) 19
C
2 30cm3 of oxygen at 10 atmosphere pressures is placed in a 20dm3 container Calculate the newpressure if temperature is kept constant (A) 67 atm (B) 150 atm (C) 600 (D) 660
B
3 Bond dissociation energy of 500 KJ mol-1 may be assigned to (A) ionic bonding (B) covalentbonding (C) hydrogen bonding D) metallic bonding (E) van-der-waals bonding
A
4 A mixture of iron and sulphur can be separated by dissolving the mixture in __ (A) steam (B)dilute hydrochloric acid (C) dilute sodium hydroxide (D) benzene
B
5 A mixture of sand ammonium chloride and sodium chloride is best separated by __ (A)sublimation followed by addition of water and filtration (B) sublimation followed by addition ofwater and evaporation (C) addition of water followed by filtration and sublimation (D) additionof water followed by crystallization and sublimation
A
6 A pure solid usually melts __ (A) over a wide range of temperature (B) over a narrow range oftemperature (C) at a lower temperature than the impure one (D) at the same temperature asthe impure one
B
7 A small quantity of solid ammonium chloride was heated gently in a test tube the solidgradually disappeared to produce a mixture of two gases Later a white cloudy deposit wasobserved on the cooler part of the test tube The ammonium chloride is said to haveundergone __ (A) distillation (B) sublimation (C) precipitation (D) evaporation
B
8 CH4 has this geometry (A) trigonal (B) planar (C) tetrahedral (D) octahedral (E) linear C
9 Chlorine consisting of two isotopes of mass numbers 35 and 37 has an atomic mass of 355The relative abundance of the isotope of mass number 37 is ___ ( A)20 (B) 25 (C) 50 (D) 75
B
10 Elements P Q R S have 6 11 15 and 17 electrons respectively therefore (A) P will form anelectrovalent bond with R (B) Q will form a covalent bond with S (C)R will form an electrovalentbond with S (D) Q will form an electrovalent bond with S
D
11 In the oil drop experiment Millikan determined the (A) charge to mass ratio of the electron (B)mass of the electron (C) charge of the electron (D) mass of the proton
C
12 One of these atomic shells is the most stable (A) M (B) N (C) K (D) L (E) 0 C
13 Sieving is a technique used to separate mixtures containing 20 oxygen by volume Which ofthe reactants was in excess (A) Carbon (II) oxide (B) Oxygen (C) Carbon (IV) oxide (D) Nitrogen
A
14 The abnormally high boiling point of water is primarily due to (A) ionic bonding (B) covalentbonding (C) dative bonding (D) coordinate covalent bonding (E) hydrogen bonding
E
15 The energy required to remove an electron from the isolated gaseous atom is known as (A)electron affinity (B) bond energy (C) lonisation energy (D) electronegativity (E) electrovalency
C
16 The group that oxygen belongs to is collectively called (A) allotropes (B) halogens (C)chalcogens (D) alkenes (E) ozonides
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
2
17 The ideal gas equation is ___ ( A) P=nRT (B) PR =nVT (C) PV =gRT (D) V=kT (E) PV = K V A
18 The number of atoms in one mole of a substance is equal to (A) the atomic number (B) theAvogadrorsquos number (C) number of neutrons (D) number of electrons (E) gas constant
B
19 The number of electrons in the outermost shell of the atom represents its (A) period (B)number of shells (C) group (D) atomic number (E) electronegativity
C
20 The number of protons or electrons of an atom represents its (A) electronegativity (B) period(C) number of shells (D) group (E) atomic number
E
21 The partial pressure of oxygen in a sample of air is 500 mmHg If the total Pr pressure 780mmHg what is the mole fraction of the oxygen (A) 064 [B (B) 573 (C) 156 (D) 070 (E) 054
A
22 The periodic classification of the elements is an arrangement of the elements in order of their(A) atomic weights (B) isotopic weights (C) molecular weights (D) atomic numbers
D
23 The process of changing one element into another is called (A) radioisotope (B) radioactivity (C)dating (D) transmutation (E) nuclear reaction
D
24 The shapes of CO2 H2O and CH4 respectively are (A) bent linear and tetrahedral (B) benttetrahedral and linear (C) tetrahedral linear and bent (D) linear bent and tetrahedral
D
25 This compound exhibits ionic bonding (A) H20 (B) H2 (C) KC1 (D) NH3 (E) HF C
26 This type of bonding involves overlapping of orbitals during which electrons are shared (A)hydrogen bonding (B) covalent bonding (C) ionic bonding (D) metallic bonding (E) van-der-waals bonding
B
27 Which one of the following changes is physical (A) Adding iron filings to aerated water (B)Adding sodium metal to water (C) Cooling a solution of iron(II) sulphate to obtain the hydratedsalt (D) Cooling water to obtain ice
D
28 A side effect of soft water is that (A) it gives offensive taste (B) excess calcium is precipitated(C) it encourages the growth of bacteria (D) it attacks lead contained in pipes
D
29 Ammonia is very soluble in water because it is a an molecule (A) non-polar (B) polar (C)reactive (D) basic (E) acidic
B
30 Citrus fruits such as lemon and grape taste sour because they contain (A) ascorbic acid andcitric acid (B) citric acid and ascetic acid (C) citric acid and dilute HCl (D) citric acid and salicyclicacid (E) Sulphuric acid
A
31 Soap lather is an example of a colloid in which a (A) liquid is dispersed in gas (B) solid isdispersed in liquid (C) gas is dispersed in liquid (D) liquid is dispersed in liquid
C
32 The air around a petroleum refinery is most likely to contain(A) CO2 SO3 and N2O (B) CO2 COand N2O (C) SO2 CO and NO2 (D) PH3 H2O and CO2
C
33 The difference between colloids and suspensions is brought out clearly by the fact that whilecolloids (A) do not scatter light suspensions do (B) can be separated by filtration suspensionscannot be so separated (C) can be separated by a membrane suspensions cannot (D) do notsettle out on standing suspensions do
D
34 The following substances are non-electrolytes except (A) chloroform (B) sugar cane (C) aceticacid (D) NaCl (E) C and D
E
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
3
35 The hydrolysis of NH4Cl salt will give (A) acidic solution (B) neutral solution (C) basic solution(D) hot solution (E) all of the above
A
36 The pollutants that are likely to be present in an industrial environment are (A) H2S SO2 andoxides of nitrogen (B)NH3 HCl and CO (C) CO2 NH3 and H2S (D) dust NO and Cl2
A
37 What is the basicity of tetraoxosulphate (VI) acid (A) 2 (B) 1 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) 0 A
38 Which of the following gases is the most dangerous pollutant (A) Hydrogen sulphide (B)Carbon (IV) oxide (C) Sulphur (IV) oxide (D) Carbon (II) oxide
D
39 Which of the following ions is a pollutant in drinking water even in trace amount (A) Ca2+ (B)Hg2+ (C) Mg2+ (D) Fe2+
B
40 Which of the following is an example of a double salt (A) NH4Cl (B) alum (C) NaCO3 (D) AlCl3
(E) NaClB
41 016g of methane when burnt increases the temperature of 100g of water by 400(C) what isthe heat of combustion of methane if the heat capacity of water is 42 Jg-10C-1 (CH4=16) (A)1160kJmol-1 (B) 1180kJmol-1 (C) 1560kJmol-1 (D) 1600kJmol-1 (E) 1680kJmol-1
E
42 A charged car battery has ___ energy that can be converted into another energy called ___energy (A) Chemical electrical (B) mechanical chemical (C) heat mechanical (D) lightelectrical (E) light heat
A
43 Copper oxide is heated with charcoal to produce carbon monoxide and copper The reaction isan example of (A) both oxidation and reduction (B) neither oxidation and reduction (C)oxidation only (D) reduction only (E) neutralization
A
44 For each oxygen atom in hydrogen peroxide which acts as an oxidant there is an oxygen atomwhich acts as a an (A) Oxidant (B) reductant (C) oxidizing agent (D) catalyst (E) inhibitor
B
45 Given the change of phase CO2(g) changes to CO2(s) the entropy of the system (A) decreases(B) increases (C) remains the same
A
46 In which of the following is the entropy change positive (A) Reaction between an acid and abase (B) Addition of concentrated acid to water (C) Dissolution of sodium metal in water(D) Thermal dissociation of ammonium chloride
C
47 One of these elements is the best reducing agent (A) Pb (B) Rb (C) Al (D) In (E) N B
48 The name of the gas driven off at the negative electrode during the electrolysis of brine is ___( A) hydrogen (B) chlorine (C) oxygen (D) sodium (E) hydrogen chloride
B
49 The oxidation state of P in H2P2072- is ___ (A) -3 (B) +3 (C) +1 (D) +5 (E) -2 D
50 The oxidation state of S in Ca(HS03)2 is __ (A) +2 (B) -2 (C) +4 (D) -4 (E) +6 C
51 The oxidizing agent in the reaction 3Br2 + 6OH- = BrO3- + 5Br- + 3H2O is __ (A) Br2 (B) OH- (C)
BrO3- (D) e- (E) H2OA
52 When heat is absorbed during a chemical reaction the reaction is said to be ___(A) thermodynamic (B) exothermal (C) isothermal (D) endothermic (E) thermostatic
D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
4
53 Given the reaction at equilibrium 2CO(g) + O2(g) harr 2CO2(g) When the reaction is subjected tostress a change will occur in the concentration of (A) reactants only (B) products only (C)both reactants and products (D) neither reactants nor products
C
54 Given the reaction at equilibrium N2(g) + O2(g) harr 2NO(g) as the concentration of N2(g)increases the concentration of O2(g) will (A) decrease (B) increase (C) remains the same (D)vanishes (E) pours away
A
55 If a reaction is exothermic and there is a great disorder it means that (A) The reaction is in astate of equilibrium (B) There will be a large increase in free energy (C) There will be a largedecrease in free energy (D) The reaction is static
B
56 In the chemical reaction of A + B = C +D more of D is formed (A) if the concentration of A isreduced (B) if the concentration of B is reduced (C) if the concentration of C is reduced (D) ifthe concentration of C is increased (E) if it is continuously removed from the reaction mixture
E
57 In what way is equilibrium constant for the forward reaction related to that of the reversereaction (A) The addition of the two is expected to be one (B) The product of two isexpected to be one (C) The two equilibrium constants are identical (D) The product of thetwo is always greater than one
C
58 In which reaction will the point of equilibrium shift to the left when the pressure on the systemis increased (A) C(s) + O2(g) harr CO2(g) (B) CaCO3(s) harr CaO(s) + CO2(g) (C) 2Mg(s) + O2(g) harr 2MgO(s) (D) 2H2(g) + O2(g) harr2H2O(g)
B
59 The furring of kettles is caused by the presence in water of __ (A) calcium trioxocarbonate (IV)(B) calcium tetraoxosulphate (VI) (C) calcium hydroxide (D) calcium hydrogentrioxocarbonate(IV)
D
60 Which is a property of a reaction that has reached equilibrium (A) The amount of products isgreater than the amount of reactants (B) The amount of products is equal to the amount ofreactants (C) The rate of the forward reaction is greater than the rate of the reverse reaction(D) The rate of the forward reaction is equal to the rate of the reverse reaction
D
61 Which of the following combination of conditions many increase the rate of a chemicalreaction (A) Decrease in temperature increase in concentration of the reactant (B) Increase intemperature addition of a catalyst decrease in the surface area of the reactant (C) Increase intemperature increase in concentration addition of a catalyst and increase in the surface areaof the reactant (D) Decrease in temperature concentration and surface area of the reactants(E) Addition of catalyst and in the absence of light
C
62 ldquoQuicklimerdquo has the formula __ (A) Ca(OH)2 (B) CaO (C) CaCO3 (D) CaSO42H2O (E) CaCl2 B
63 A Transition metal is different from a non-transition metal because (A) it has an octetconfiguration (B) it is very stable (C) it is coloured (D) it has incomplete outer shell d-electrons(E) it has no electron in the d-orbital
D
64 Chlorine is produced commercially by (A) electrolysis of dilute HCl (B) electrolysis of brine (C)neutralization of HCl (D) heating potassium trioxochlorate (V) (E) action of dilute mineral acidson bleaching powder
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
5
65 Chlorine bromine and iodine resemble one another since they __ (A)dissolve in alkalis (B) reactviolently with H2 without heating (C)displace each other from solutions of their salts (D) aregases (E) are liquids
A
66 Liquid oxygen may be produced by condensation of air using this coolant (A) liquid phosphorus(B) liquid gas (C) liquid paraffin (D) liquid nitrogen (E) butane
D
67 One of these is another form of oxygen (A) hydroxide (B) ozone (C) peroxide (D) sulphoxide (E)water B
68 One of these metals is not an alkali metal (A) K (B) Cs (C) Sr (D) Rb (E) Fr C
70 The formation of ozone by reaction of O2 with atomic oxygen in UV light occurs in (A) upperatmosphere (B) inner atmosphere (C) stratosphere (D) hemisphere (E) none of these
A
71 The halogen which is chiefly produced commercially from sea water is ___ ( A) Fluorine (B)chlorine (C) Bromine (D) iodine (E) Astatine
B
72 The most stable allotropic form of sulphur at normal conditions is ___ ( A) monoclinic sulphur(B) rhombic sulphur (C) amorphous sulphur (D) plastic sulphur (E) ordinary sulphur
B
73 The products obtained when the following chemical reaction is completed and balancedarehellipHNO3 + Ca(OH)2 rarr ______ (A) CaNO3 + H2O (B) Ca(NO3)2 + 2 H2O (C) CaO + 2 NO2 + 3H2O(D) Ca + 2 NO3 + 2 H2O
B
74 What is the role of iron and Aluminium oxide in ammonia production (A) dehydrating agent(B) catalytic agent (C) oxidizing agent (D) bonding agent (E) preservative agent
B
75 When carbon IV oxide is bubbled through lime water the solution becomes milky dueformation of (A) Ca(HCO3)2 (B) CaCO3 (C) Ca(N03)2 (D)CaCl2 (E) CaSO4
B
76 Which of the following gases dissolves in water vapour to produce acid rain during rainfall (A)Oxygen (B) Carbon (II) oxide (C) Nitrogen (D) Sulphur (IV) oxide
D
77 Which of the following is not allotrope of carbon (A) diamond (B) graphite (C) buckminsterfullerene (D) all of the above (E) none of the above
E
78 Which oxide is amphiprotic (amphoteric) (A) MgO (B) NaO (C) CaO (D) ZnO (E) BeO D
79 Why will it always be more difficult to extract potassium ions from sea water than to extractmagnesium ions This is because (A) most potassium compounds are less soluble in water (B)most potassium compounds are quite soluble in water (C) presence of other alkali metal ionshas great influence on it (D) magnesium ion is an alkaline earth metal ion (E) None of theabove
B
80 ___________ can be used to test for reducing sugars (A) Iodine solution (B) bromine water (C)Fehlingrsquos solution (D) de-ionized water
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
6
81 2CH3COOH + Zn rarr The product of this reaction is (A) (CH3COO)2Zn + Zn (B) CH3COO CH3 +Zn (C) (CH3COO)2Zn + H2 (D) CH3COOH + CH4
C
82 A ketone reacts with hydroxylamine to give (A) a hydrazone (B) an alkanonitrile (C) a nitrosocompound (D) an oxime
D
83 Alkanoic acids are weak acids and ionises in solution to give (A) R+ + COOH (B) RCOO- + H+ (C)RCOO+ + H- (D) RCO+ + OH-
B
84 An excess of ethanol heated with concentrated H2SO4 at a temperature of 180oC is dehydratedto give mostly (A) ethane (B) ethene (C) ethanol (D) ethoxyethane
B
85 Butene can be distinguished from benzene by reaction with (A) Hydrochloric acid (B) Brominewater (C) Potassium sulphate (D) Sodium hydroxide
B
86 Detergent is more efficient than soap in cleansing clothes and dishes because of the followingreasons except that (A) the corresponding Ca and Mg compound formed is soluble in H2O (B)detergents are not affected by hardness of water (C) it cleans better than soap (D) it is lessexpensive
D
87 In the manufacture of soap industrially brine is used to__________the acid salt (A) oxidise(B) reduce (C) bleach (D) precipitate
D
88 Methane gas can be made from carbon (II) oxide gas according to the equation2CO(g) + 2H2(g) rarr CH4(g) + CO2(g) Calculate the mass of CO required to produce 875 x 1025
molecules of CH4 At masses C=12011 H= 1008 O = 15999 Avogadrorsquos no 6022 x1023molecules mole (A) 8140g (B) 4070g (C) 1600g (D) 3200g (E) 2035g
A
89 Potassium ethanoate is formed when (A) Methanoic acid reacts with KOH (B) Ethanoic acidreacts with KOH (C) Methanol reacts with KCO3 (D) Ethanol reacts with CH3COOH
B
90 Saponification is defined as (A) Acidic hydrolysis of fat or oil (B) Alkali hydrolysis of fat or oil(C) Condensation of two monomer units (D) Mixture of glacial ethanoic acid and excess ofsimple alkanol
B
91 Soaps and detergents have the same basic characteristics except that the carboxyl group of thefatty acid in detergent is replaced by (A) alcohol (B) sulphate or a sulphonate group (C) ester(D) acids
B
92 The relatively high boiling point of alkanols is due to (A) aliphatic character (B) ionic bonding(C) hydrogen bonding (D) covalent bonding
C
93 Two important sources of detergent are (A) fatoils and hydrocarbons (B) coal and cement (C)pulp and wood (D) water and gas
A
94 What is the process associated with conversion of vegetable oil to soap (A) Esterification (B)Saponification (C) hydrolysis (D) Acidification
B
95 When ethanal vapour is passed over manganese (II) ethanoate (manganese acetate) catalyst inthe presence of air the product is (A) ethanoate (B) ethanol (C) methanol (D) ethanoic acid
D
96 When KOH is used instead of NaOH in the production of soap it has the following advantagesexcept it gives (A) softer soap (B) harder soap (C) soap with lower melting point (D) moresoluble soap
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
7
97 When palm wine is left exposed to air for a few days it goes sour The bacteria in the airoxidises________ in palm wine to _________ (A) ethanol ethanoic acid (B) ethanoic acidethanol (C) ester ethanoic acid (D) ether ethanol
A
98 Which of the following is not true about benzoic acid (A) It is aromatic in nature (B) It can bemanufactured from methylbenzene (C) It has molecular formula C6H6COOH (D) It sublimesreadily
C
99 Which of the following reactions is correct (A) C6H5COOH + CaO rarr C6H5Ca + HCO3 (B)C6H5COOH + CaO rarr C6H6 + CaCO3 (C) C6H5COOH + PCl5 rarr C6H5Cl + H2PO4 (D) C6H5COOH +C2H5OH rarr C6H6 + C3H8COOH
B
100 Which of these is not a property of ethanedioic acid (A) It is a stronger acid than ethanoic acidbut weaker than inorganic acids (B) It is a reducing agent (C) It is an oxidising agent (D) It issoluble in cold water
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
USE OF ENGLISH
1
Read the passages below and answer the questions that follow
PASSAGE AEvery discernible observer could foresee the crisis which engulfed the Edo Houselast week Only a few days before reports were rife about the AC reaching out tosome PDP legislators to cross-carpet The intention being to gain a majority andthen assume the Speakership with the least constraint Zakawanu Garuba the thenSpeaker retorted with a fiat threatening to declare vacant the seat of any defectorThis in spite of the constitutional support for such action as evidenced forexample by the crisis that has torn the PDP apart in Edo State The party has twofactional chairmen in the state even though one is more vociferousThe desperate attempt by Garuba to cling to the Speakerrsquos chair is condemnable Hewas not being recalled from the legislature and so he still has his seat as a floormember As speaker he was only first among equals The Speakership is not hisbirthright With the defection of one PDP lawmaker to the AC the legislaturereconvened hours after the bloodbath and elected a protem Speaker whileimpeaching and suspending Garuba and a few others They are to be probed
(Adapted from The Guardian Thursday March 4 2011 p14)
1 Why did AC woo PDP membersA they are few in numberB they want speakership without stressC PDP members are faithfulD The House is tough
2 The legislators impeachedA GarubaB PDP lawmakersC Garuba and some PDP lawmakersD Garuba and some lawmwkers
3 According to the passage the constitution supportsA The speakerB DefectingC Edo StateD Factional chairmen
4 The lawmakers reconvenedA After the defection of a PDP memberB After the bloodbathC After suspending the SpeakerD After electing a protem Speaker
B
A
D
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
USE OF ENGLISH
2
5 At the end what happened to GarubaA He was vindicatedB He was indictedC He was honouredD He was humiliated
6 To cross-carpet as used in the passage means toA change partyB renew membership of a partyC change onersquos carpetD buy new carpet
7 The crisis in the Edo State House of Assembly could be predicted byA The lawmakersB Edo State indigenesC The protem SpeakerD All conscious observers
B
C
A
PASSAGE B
Nigeria has a troubled power sector which is however undergoing reforms thathopefully should usher in era of private sector dominance in terms of ownershipand management of generation and distribution In this transitory phase it is crucialto lay a foundation for local sourcing of vital inputs and make it the norm for theindustry That is the only way to prevent a replication of the trend in the oil and gassub-sector where capital flight is as much as $ 16 billion per annum as revealed bythe Petroleum Technology Development FundThe PHCN could legitimately insist on quality and standards in its procurement ofequipment and materials but what is playing out is an institutional orientationevinced in several pursuits of the PHCN that are contemptuous of Nigeriarsquosaspiration for local content development In 1998 the defunct National ElectricPower Authority defied a directive by the then Minister of Power and steel AlhajiBashir Dalhatu to source its costable components from Nigerian foundries some ofwhich are of high standards Actuated by a realization of idle capacity in thefoundries and the need to conserve foreign exchange the Minister appliedappropriate pressure on the management of NEPA but found his efforts frustratedThe acute shortage or inefficiency in the metering programme originated from thefact that the only local manufacturer then the Federal Government-ownedelectricity Meter Company in Zaria Kaduna State established in 1976 but sold toDantata Investments Limited in December 2002 is not performing(Adapted from The Punch Wednesday May 25 2011 Pg 18)
8 Why is there shortage of meterA Non-performance of PHCNB Non-performance of NEPAC Non-performance of the Federal Government-owned electricity
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
USE OF ENGLISH
3
Meter CompanyD Non-performance of Dantata Investment Ltd
9 According to the passage the solution to the problem in the power sector lies inA Sourcing for materials locallyB Getting costable componentsC Obeying the ministerD Getting $ 16 billion per annum
10 From the passage it is clear thatA There is money in the countryB There is shortage of electricity meterC NEPA is better than PHCND NEPA was formed in 1998
11 Which of these is not true of the power sectorA There is only one local manufacturer of electricity meterB The power sector is undergoing reformsC The problem of the power sector cannot be solvedD there was procurement of equipment and materials
12 Which of these is undergoing reformsA NEPAB PHCNC NigeriaD The power sector
13 A suitable title for this passage isA Nigeria and her problemsB NEPA versus PHCNC Electricity meterD Problems in the power sector
A
B
C
D
D
Choose the option that best completes the gap14 University students helliphelliphelliphelliphellipbehave well (A) can (B) should (C) may (D)
mustB
15 Gloria helliphelliphelliphellip have finished the project two days ago (A) must (B) may (C)can (D) supposed to
A
16 You are Goodluck (A) are you (B) arenrsquot you (C) arersquont you (D) donrsquotyou
B
17 He helliphelliphelliphelliphellip not come now (A) needs (B) needed (C) need (D) will need C18 Janet to know that we are all here (A) suppose (B) supposes (C) is
supposed (D) should supposeC
19 Let it be that there was no king in Ayegun (A)know (B) knew (C) known(D) knows
C
20 We shall see you soon (A) shall we (B) shanrsquot we (C) shouldnrsquot we (D)should we
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
USE OF ENGLISH
4
21 Neither of the presidential candidates suitable (A) are (B) is (C) is been(D) are been suitable
B
22 Ten miles ____ a great distance (A) is (B) are (C) is been A23 If I were the president I ask for the money (A) will (B) should (C) would
(D) canC
24 I will see you after I spoken with your supervisor (A) might have (B) have(C) will have (D) would have
B
25 ldquoYou - now see the directorrdquo the secretary told the visitors (A) can (B)may (C) should (D) would
B
26 She isnrsquot Gloria (A) is she (B) isnrsquot she (C) arenrsquot she (D) doesnrsquot she A27 We have a bus (A) didnrsquot we (B) havenrsquot we (C) doesnrsquot we (D) hasnrsquot
weB
28 I knew David let us down (A) may (B) will (C) might (D) can C29 You helliphelliphellip me last week (A) ought to see (B) ought to had seen (C) ought to
have seen (D) had to have seenC
30 Twenty dollars ___ enough for my lunch (A) are (B) is (c ) are just B31 The pests ____ our farm every year (A) invade (B) invades (c ) has invades A32 If I were the Governor I ask for the project (A) will (B) should (C) would
(D) canC
33 When helliphellip the Cleric today (A) doesarrives (B) doesarrived (C)doesarrive (D) do arrive
C
34 We shall see you soon (A) shall we (B) shanrsquot we (C) shouldnrsquot we (D)should we
B
35 You missed the match (A) donrsquot you (B) didnrsquot you (C) hadnrsquot you (D)doesnrsquot you
B
36 Walk the dog right now (A) walknrsquot you (B) will you (C)shall you(D)would you
B
37 I am a student (A) Irsquom I (B) arenrsquot I (C) isnrsquot I (D) wouldnrsquot I BPick out the oddwrong expression in each of the following
38 (A) I heard his supposed apology (B) I heard his unconvincing apology (C) Iheard his suppose apology (D) I heard he was supposed apology
D
39 (A) I suppose you know the way (B) I am supposed you know the way (C) Isuppose he knows the way (D) They suppose he knows the way
B
40 (A) I travel next week (B) I will travel next week (C) I suppose to travelnext week (D) I should travel next week
C41 (A) Having discovered the error he apologized (B) Having discovered the
error the apology was tendered (C) Having known the error he apologised(D) Having found out the error he tendered an apology B
42 (A) The job has been done (B) The job has been being done (C) They havedone the job (D) They can have done the job
D
43 (A) She must finish the project in two days (B) She must finish the project twodays ago (C) She must have finished the project two days ago (D) She ought tohave finished the project two days ago
B
44 (A) If I went in there I would beat the security officer (B) If I go in there Iwould beat the security officer (C) If I go in there I will beat the securityofficer (D) If I go in there I can beat the security officer
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
USE OF ENGLISH
5
Choose the option that most appropriately expresses the idea in theunderlined expression
45 My friendrsquos parentrsquos are magnanimous (A) rich and popular (B) sociable andlovable (C) kind and generous (D) wicked and stingy
C
46 My friend has an overbearing attitude toward me (A) patient (B) impatient(C) opinionated and domineering (D) considerate and respectful
C
47 There are a number of makeshift buildings in town (A) modern buildings (B)old fashion buildings (C) temporary buildings (D) permanent buildings
C
48 Post UME is a hurdle to cross (A) a necessary and simple exam to pass (B) anunnecessary and difficult exam to pass (C) an unnecessary but simple exam topass (D) a necessary and challenging exam to pass
D
49 His contribution to the project is invaluable (A) extremely useful (B) of novalue (C) of little value (D) can not be valued
A
50 That was a dawn-to-earth approach (A) poor (B) ordinary (C) practical (D)immodest
B
51 Concerning my admission I have to cross my fingers (A) wait and hope for thebest (B) wait in frustration (C) wait confidently (D) take some risk
A
52 My father is indifferent to my choice of University (A) supports (B) opposes(C) not decided (D) not concerned
D
53 We need an ad hoc arrangement towards the project (A) intelligent (B)advanced (C) permanent (D) temporary
D
54 The studentrsquos reply to the lecturer betrayed his rudeness (A) covered (B)showed (C) reduced (D) increased
C
55 His conduct in the last elections was above board (A) arrogant (B) honest (C)above average (D) excellent
C
56 That was a dispassionate decision (A) bias (B) personal (C) unaffected (D)ineffective
C
57 On the matter of worship some sit on the fence (A) go to the extreme (B) aredecisive (C) are fanatics (D) are undecided
D
Choose the option that is nearest in meaning to the word underlined58 In this matter we must be prepared to tolerate human frailty (A)
75 Her health deteriorated rapidly (A) worsened (B) improved (C) stagnated (D)declined
B
Which of the following sentences is correct76 (A) One should mind his business (B) One should mind onersquos business (C) One
should mind her businessB
77 (A) This case is between you and I (B) This case is between you and me (C)This case is between the two both of us
B
78 (A) With them around we have a great problem on our hands (B) With themaround we have a great problem on our hand (C) With them around wehave a great problem on hand
A
79 (A) The dog wagged itrsquos tail (B) The dog wagged its tail (C) The dog waggeditsrsquo tail
B
80 (A) A ten year old boy is missing (B) A ten-year-old boy is missing (C) A tenyear-old boy is missing
B
81 Choose the option that sounds the same with two (A) tool (B) too (C) tow (D)to
B
82 Choose the option that sounds the same with bear (A) bare (B) beer (C)bared (D) beard
B
83 Choose the option that sounds the same with the given word Key (A) kiss(B) quay (C) keyed (D) kissed
B
Choose the word that is correctly spelled84 (A) acomodation (B) accommodation (C) accomodation (D) acommodation B85 (A) embarrassment (B) embarassment (C) embarrasment (D) embarasment A86 (A) horrific (B) horific (C) horiffic (D) horriffic A87 As soon as Joy arrived she started looking for food The underlined
expression is an ----------- (A) adverbial phrase of reason (B) adverbial clauseof reason (C) adverbial phrase of time (D) adverbial clause of time
D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
USE OF ENGLISH
7
88 My friend a brilliant lecturer won many prizes The underlined expression isa(n) (A) adjectival clause (B) relative clause (C) appositive phrase (D)subject of lsquowonrsquo
C
89 I passed very well because I studied hard The underlined expression is a (A)relative clause introducer (B) linking verb (C) adverb of reason (D)subordinating conjunction
D
90 Bello and I love each other (A) preposition (B) reciprocal pronoun (C) nounphrase (D) adjectival phrase
B
91 I prefer writing to acting The underlined expressions is a(n) -------- (A) verb(B) participle (C) gerund (D) object
C
92 Having finished my assignment I started watching television The underlinedexpression is a(n) -------- (A) infinitive clause (B) gerund (C) participialphrase (D) noun clause
C
93 If you leave early yoursquoll meet Sola at home The underlined expression is a ----------- (A) nominal clause (B) verbal clause (C) conditional clause (D)adjectival clause
C
94 Wounded by a lion the hunter trudged home The underlined expression is a-----------(A) nominal clause (B) verbal clause (C) participial clause (D)adjectival clause
C
95 Irsquom proud of you The underlined expression functions as(A) prepositionalcomplement (B) adjectival complement (C) subject complement (D) verbalcomplement
B
96 A noun phrase lacks one of the following (A) noun (B) verb (C) adjective (D)adverb
B
97 Eve gave Adam an apple An apple in the sentence functions as------------(A)subject of the verb lsquogaversquo (B) direct object of the verb (C) indirect object ofthe verb (D) object complement
B
98 I wonder if you know where he lives This sentence is a(n) (A) thoughtfulstatement (B) polite command (C) indirect question (D) subtle exclamation
A
99 An example of gradable adjectives is hellip (A) each (B) beautiful (C) dead (D)live
B
100 A clause differs from a phrase because a clause contains helliphelliphellip (A) a largernumber of words (B) a fewer number of words (C) a finite verb (D) a non-finite verb
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
1
1 A ball is thrown up into the air At the highest point of its trajectory the ball (A) Is acceleratingdownwards (B) has zero acceleration (C) is accelerating upwards (D) is still moving upwards
B
2 A ball of mass 200 g moving with a velocity of 8 ms collides and sticks with another ball ofmass 300 g moving in the same direction with velocity 4 ms What is the common velocity ofthe balls after the collision (A) 56 ms-1 (B) 28 ms-1 (C) 112 ms-1 (D) 14 ms-1
A
3 A boy holds the end of a rubber cord from which hangs a solid metal ball if the boy whirls theball in a horizontal circle keeping his hand still If the rubber cord breaks when the ball is at apoint on the circle in what direction will the ball move (A) towards the hand of the boy Baway from the hand of the boy C in the direction of the tangent to the circle at the point ofbreak D None of the above
C
4 A force of 20 N applied parallel to the surface of horizontal table is just sufficient to make ablock of mass 4 kg set for motion Find the acceleration when the force is doubled (A) 2 ms-2
(B) 4 ms-2 (C) 5 ms-2 (D) 10 ms-2
C
5 A man walks 1 km due east and then 1 km due north His displacement is (A) 1 km N15degE (B) 1km N30degE (C) radic2 km N45degE (D) 2 km N75degE
C
6 A motor car moves with a velocity of 20 ms-1 on a rough horizontal road and covers adisplacement of 50 m Find the coefficient of dynamic friction between the type and theground (g = 10 ms-2) (A) 03 (B) 06 (C) 05 (D) 04
D
7 A physics student standing on the edge of a cliff throws a stone vertically downward with aninitial speed of 100 ms The instant before the stone hits the ground below it is traveling ata speed of 300 ms If the physics student were to throw the rock horizontally outward fromthe cliff instead with the same initial speed of 100 ms what is the magnitude of the velocityof the stone just before it hits the ground(A) 100 ms (B) 200 ms (C) 300 ms (D) 400 ms
C
8 A quantity is defined as the product of cross-sectional area and change in momentum per unitlength Which of the following is its SI unit (A) Nm (B) kgs-1 (C) kgm2s-1 (D) Nkgs-1
C
9 A rectangular concrete block 40 cm x 30 cm x 60 cm of mass 10 kg rests on a horizontal flatsurface What is the minimum pressure it can possibly exert on the surface (A) 8166 Nm-2
(B) 816 6 Nm2 (C) 4083 Nm-2 (D) 6084 Nm
C
10 A simple hydrometer consists of uniform cylinder suitably weighted to float upright in mostcommon liquids It is graduated to read the relative density of a liquid directly Which of thefollowing is NOT correct (A) When placed in a liquid it displaces exactly its own weight of theliquid (B) Its graduation increases from top to base (C) When placed in a liquid it displacesexactly its own volume of the liquid (D) The product of the volume and density of liquiddisplaced is equal to its mass
C
11 A stone which is dropped into a dry well hits the bottom in 22 s How deep is the well (Takeg=10ms) (A) 404 m (B) 24 m (C) 484 m (D) 242 m
D
12 A woman whose mass is 70 kg sits 24 m from the fulcrum of a seesaw At what distance fromthe fulcrum should a 60 kg man sit to balance the seesaw (A) 28 m (B) 24 m (C) 32 m (D)38 m
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
2
13 An air bubble trapped at a depth in a liquid rises to the surface Which of the following is trueabout its mass and density as it rises (A) Its mass and density increase (B) Its mass is constantwhile its density decreases (C) Its mass and density is constant (D) Its mass is constant whileits density increases
B
14 Complete the following sentence The operation of a hydraulic jack is an application of (A)Pascals principle B Archimedesrsquo principle (C) Bernoullis principle (D) irrotational flow
A
15 Complete the following statement Today the standard meter is defined in terms of (A) thedistance from the earthrsquos equator to the north pole (B) the wavelength of light emitted from akrypton atom (C) the wavelength of light emitted from a sodium atom (D) the speed of light
D
16 Convert 30 metre per second to centimeter per minute (A) 20000 cmmin (B) 180000cmmin (C) 120000 cmmin (D) 150000 cmmin
B
17 During a football match player A kicks the ball 40 m 30o E of S to player B who instantly kicks it30 m 60o E of N What is the magnitude of the resultant displacement of the ball (A) 30 m (B)40 m (C) 50 m (D) 60 m
C
18 How much work is done against gravity in sliding a 500g object through 2 m up a smooth planethat is inclined at 30o to the horizontal (g = 98 ms-2) (A) 98 J (B) 198 J (C) 162 J (D) 49 J
D
19 If a small body of mass m is moving with angular velocity ω in a circle of radius r what is itskinetic energy (A) mω r (B) m ω 2r2 (C) m ω r22 (D) m ω 2r22
D
20 In free fall two balls of masses 20 kg and 10 kg were dropped from a height If the ball withthe smaller mass reached the ground after 4 s what is the difference between the time thetwo balls reach the ground (A) 8 s (B) 2 s (C) 0 s (D) 4 s
C
21 In what distance can a 1500 kg automobile be stopped if the brake is applied when the speedis 20 ms and the coefficient of sliding friction is 07 between the tyres and the ground(A) 9810 m (B) 7167 m (C) 2915 m (D) 2010 m
C
22 The highest point of a simple pendulum bob is 5cm vertically above the lowest point as itswings to and fro between the two extreme ends At what velocity does it swing past thelowest point (equilibrium point) where the string is vertical (take g = 10 ms2) (A) 1 ms (B) 2ms (C) 5 ms (D) 10 ms
A
23 Three vectors A B and C add together to yield zero A + B + C = 0 The vectors A and C point inopposite directions and their magnitudes are related by the expression A = 2C Which one ofthe following conclusions is correct (A) A and B have equal magnitudes and point in oppositedirections (B) B and C have equal magnitudes and point in the same direction (C) B and Chave equal magnitudes and point in opposite directions (D) A and B point in the samedirection but A has twice the magnitude of B
B
24 Which of the following could be measured in the same units as force (A) Energydistance (B)Energy x distance (C) Energytime (D) Momentum x distance
A
25 Which of the following does not affect the pressure at a point beneath the surface of a liquid(A) Surface area of the liquid (B) Density of the liquid (C) Depth of the point below thesurface (D) Strength of the gravitational field
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
3
26 Which of the following pairs contains one vector and one scalar quantity (A) Displacementacceleration (B) Force kinetic energy (C) Momentum velocity (D) Power speed
B
27 Which of the following statements is correct (A) uniform speed always implies uniformvelocity (B) uniform speed always implies zero acceleration (C) uniform speed may imply non-zero acceleration (D) constant momentum implies constant acceleration
C
28 Which of the of the following is a measurement taken with Venier callipers (A) 20 cm (B)200 cm (C) 2000 cm (D) 20000 cm
B
29 Which of the units of the following physical quantities are derived I Area II Thrust IIIPressure IV Mass (A) I II III and IV (B) I II and III only (C) I II and IV only (D) I and II only
B
30 Which one of the following situations is not possibleA A body has zero velocity and non-zero accelerationB A body travels with a northward velocity and a northward accelerationC A body travels with a constant velocity and a time-varying accelerationD A body travels with a constant acceleration and a time-varying velocity
C
31If C is the thermal capacity of a material of mass m and S is its specific heat capacity then (A)C= sm (B) S = Cm (C) C = Sm (D) DS = ms
C
32 A black car can be more uncomfortably hot on a warm day than a white car because (A) it ishot on a warm day (B) a black object is a better absorber of heat (C) black cars have heatersinstalled in them (D) white cars have air conditioning systems installed in them
B
33 A little sag is left in overhead telephone wires (A) because taut wires do not conduct soundeasily (B) to allow for the effect of a rise in temperature due to heating effect of currentflowing through them (C) to allow for the effect of a rise in temperature of the surroundingatmosphere (D) to allow for the effect of a fall in temperature of the surroundingatmosphere
D
34 A piece of copper wire of length 100 cm at 30oC is heated to 120oC If its linear expansivity is18 times10-4 k its new length is (A) 1666 cm (B) 1016 cm (C) 1806 (D) 108 cm
B
35 A sample of a monatomic ideal gas is originally at 20 degC What is the final temperature of thegas if both the pressure and volume are doubled (A) 5 degC (B) 80 degC (C) 20 degC (D) 899 degC
B
36 A volatile liquid used for cooling purpose in refrigerator is (A) liquid ammonia (B) cold water(C) liquid nitrogen (D) liquid helium
A
37 Complete the following statement A temperature decrease of 30 Cdeg is equal to a temperaturedecrease of (A) 30 Fdeg (B) 17 Fdeg (C) 30 K (D) 86 Fdeg
D
38 Complete the following statement Bimetallic strips used as adjustable switches in electricappliances consist of metal strips that must have different (A) mass (B) volume (C) length(D) expansion coefficients
D
39 Heat can be transferred from one end of a metal rod in contact with heat to the other endwhich is in contact with heat through (A) Conduction (B) Convection (C) Radiation (D)Evaporation
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
4
40 Heat supplied or removed from a system which causes a change of state without a change intemperature is (A) Specific heat (B) Heat capacity (C) Latent heat (D) Boiling heat
C
41 How many atmospheres of pressure must a litre of gas initially at a pressure of 1 atmosphereand temperature -20oC be after it has been compressed to frac12 litre at 40oC A 247 atm(B) 45 atm (C) 80 atm (D) 38 atm (E) 168 atm
A
42 On a cold day a good conductor X feels colder to the torch than a poor conductor Y because(A) Y retains more heat than X (B) the temperature of X is lower than that of Y (C) X conductsheat from the body less rapidly than Y (D) X transfers heat from body more rapidly than Y
D
43 The boiling point of water does not depend on (A) the impurities in water (B) the externalpressure (C) the quantity of water (D) all of the above
C
44 The ice and steam points of a local liquid in glass thermometer are 10 a and 90a respectivelyWhat will the thermometer read when the temperature is 30 0C (A) 40a (B) 38a (C) 36a(D) 34a
D
45 The lower and upper fixed points on a thermometer are 40 and 120 respectively Its reading at60oC is (A) 60 (B) 40 (C) 160 (D) 88
D
46 The pressure exerted by a given mass of gas in a container (A) Decreases if the container isheated (B) Increases if the molecules of the gas move faster (C) Increases if the volume of thecontainer is doubled (D) Decreases as the kinetic energy of the gas molecules increases
B
47 The temperature in an electric iron is regulated by (A) thermometer (B) bimettalic strip (C)steel (D) conductor
B
48 Water has an anomalous behavior between 0o and 4oC Which of the following is correct (A)Mass of water increases between 0oC and 4oC (B) Density of water decreases between 0oC and4oC (C) Volume of water increases between 0oC and 4oC (D) Volume of water decreasesbetween 0oC and 4oC
D
49 What is the Celsius equivalent of 500deg F (A) 10deg C (B) 20deg C (C) 30deg C (D) 40deg C A
50 When water is heated in a glass vessel the level first falls and then rises because (A) Theapparent expansion of the water is initially small and later increases (B) There is anomalousexpansion of water (C)The glass vessel does not expand (D)Glass vessel expands first beforewater starts a more rapid expansion
D
51 Which of the following quantities of water has undergone the greatest change from its heatcontent at melting point (A) 05 kg of water at 3oC (B) 02 kg of water at 8oC (C) 0005 kg ofwater at 80oC (D) 01 kg of water at 12oC
B
52 Which would cause a more serious burn 30 g of steam or 30 g of liquid water both at 100 degC
and why is this so
(A) Water because it is denser than steam (B) Steam because of its specific heat capacity
(C) Steam because of its latent heat of vaporization (D) Water because its specific heat is
greater than that of steam
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
5
53 A certain radioactive element has a half life of 20 years How long will it take the activity tobecome frac14 of its original(A) 20 years (B) 40 years (C) 60 years (D) 80 years
B
54 A plane progressive wave is represented by xty 20100sin2 where all the symbols
have their usual meanings What is the velocity of the wave
(A) 500 m s-1 (B) 400 m s-1 (C) 200 m s-1 (D) 100 m s-1
A
55 A point on a stationary wave where there is no movement of the medium is called (A) Node(B) Antinode (C) Note (D) Amplitude
A
56 A uniform wave has a speed of 10ms and a period of 05 s The distance between two nearestcrests is (A) 02 m (B) 20 m (C) 2 m (D) 5 m
D
57 A vibrating string has a tension of 40 and produces a note of whenݖܪ200 plucked in themiddle When the length of string is unaltered and the tension is increased to160 thefrequency becomes(A) ݖܪ1600 (B) ݖܪ800 (C) ܪ400 (D) ݖܪ200
C
58 An organ pipe closed at one end is 80cm long Determine the frequency of the fundamentalnote assuming that the speed of sound in air is 340ms (A) 213Hz (B) 318Hz (C) 425Hz (D)106Hz
D
59 As transverse wave moves through a medium the particles of the medium (A) vibrate in apath parallel to the path of the wave (B) do not move (C) vibrate in a path perpendicular tothe path of the wave (D) vibrate at an angle of 60o to the path of the wave
C
60 The sound heard after the reflection of sound wave from a plane surface is known as (A) Echo(B) Refraction (C) Vibration (D) Revibration
A
61 Which of the following properties is not common to all waves (A) Reflection (B) interference(C) Diffraction (D) Polarization
D
62 Which of the following statements is true about electromagnetic waves (A) They arelongitudinal (B) They can be seen (C) They have the same frequency in vacuum (D) They travelat the same speed in a vacuum
D
63 Which one of the following statements concerning electromagnetic waves is false (A)Electromagnetic waves are longitudinal waves (B) Electromagnetic waves transfer energythrough space (C) The existence of electromagnetic waves was predicted by Maxwell (D)Electromagnetic waves can propagate through a material substance
A
64 Which one of the following statements concerning waves is false (A) A wave can have bothtransverse and longitudinal components (B) A wave carries energy from one place to another(C) A wave does not result in the bulk flow of the material of its medium (D) A transversewave is one in which the disturbance is parallel to the direction of travel
D
65 A light sensitive area at the back of the eye where images are formed is called (A) Yellow Spot(B) Iris (C) Ciliary Muscle (D) Retina
D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
6
66 A luminous object is placed at a given distance from a converging lens of focal length 12cm anda real image is produced Find the image distance if it is equal to the object distance (A) 6cm(B) 3cm (C) 12cm (D) 24cm
D
67 An object is placed 15 cm in front of a concave mirror of radius 40 cm The image formed is(A) virtual and 60 cm behind the mirror (B) real and 60 cm in front of the mirror (C) virtual and40 cm from the mirror (D) at infinity
B
68 How far from a concave mirror of radius 120 cm must an object be placed such that its erectimage is four times its natural size (A) 72 cm (B) 64 cm (C) 45 cm (D) 50 cm
C
69 How many images are formed when an object is placed in front of two plane mirrors that areinclined at angle 30o to each other (A) 0 (B) 6 (C) 11 (D) 12
C
70 Professor Peters walks directly toward a plane mirror at a speed of 025 ms Determine thespeed of the image relative to him(A) 013 ms (B) 050 ms (C) 025 ms (D) 075 ms
B
71 The angle of incidence in a denser medium when the angle of refraction in the less dense
72 The driving mirror is a (A) plane mirror (B) convex mirror (C) concave mirror (D) thick planemirror
B
73 The following are types of a converging lens except(A) biconvex (B) plano-convex (C) mini-convex (D) converging meniscus
C
74 When the Sun the earth and the moon are in line during their movement with the earth beingthe opaque object and casting its shadow on the moon we have (A) Lunar eclipse (B) Totaleclipse (C) Partial eclipse (D) Annular eclipse
A
75 Which of the following instruments could be used in finding angle of elevation of the sun (A)Periscope (B) Telescope (C) Kaleidoscope (D) Sextant
D
76 Which of the following optical instruments does not depend on the use of plane mirrors (A)Kaleidoscope (B) Simple microscope (C) Sextant (D) Simple periscope
B
77 Which of the following statements supports the assumption that light travels in straight lines(A) light can be diffracted (B) light can be reflected (C) a source of light produces
interferences patterns on a suitably placed screen (D) a source of light produces distinctshadows of opaque objects
D
78Which of the following is correct about nuclear fission It is (A) the splitting of a heavynucleus into two or more lighter particles (B) an agent used to slow down neutrons in acontrolled atomic chain reaction (C) combing light atomic nuclei to form heavy (D) thespontaneous disintegration occurring in the nucleus of certain atoms
A
79 A light energy E falls on a metal and the electrons with a maximum kinetic energy of 02eV areejected If the work function of the metal is 03eV what is the value of E (A) 010eV (B)006eV (C) 050eV (D) 150eV
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
7
80 A nucleus is unstable if (A) it has two or more isotopes (B) its binding energy is not sufficientto hold nuclear particles together (C) it is very light with very low density (D) it has nosignificant mass
B
81 A radioactive substance has a half life of 4 years If its activity today is 200 dps its activity in 8years from today is (A) 50 dps (B) 25 dps (C) 20 dps (D) 10 dps
A
82 A substance has a half-life of 3min After 6min the count rate was observed to be 400Whatwas its count rate at zero time (A) 2400 (B) 200 (C) 1200 (D) 1600
D
83 An element and its isotopes differ only in the number of (A) electrons (B) neutrons (C)protons (D) irons
B
84 Complete the following sentence When electrons from a heated filament accelerate throughvacuum toward a positive plate (A) only an electric field will be produced (B) only amagnetic field will be produced (C) electromagnetic waves will be produced (D) longitudinalwaves will be produced
C
85 Radioactive elements are (A) chemically reactive elements (B) noble elements (C) rare earthelements (D) elements that spontaneously emit radiation
D
86 The following radiations are electrically neutral except (A) α-rays (B) ϒ-rays (C) X- rays (D)neutrons
A
87 Upon which one of the following parameters does the energy of a photon depend (A) mass(B) polarization (C) amplitude (D) frequency
D
88 Which of the following is NOT true about cathode ray (A) It moves in a straight line (B) Itcauses fluorescence (C) It possesses a negative charge (D) It can produce -particles
D
89 Who proposed the planetary model of the nucleus (A) J J Thomson (B) Albert Einstein (C)Ernest Rutherford (D) Marie Curie
C
90 X- rays cannot be used (A) to take photographs of bone structure in the body (B) to detectfinger prints (C) to detect flaws in metal castings (D) to detect alterations to works of art
B
91 1 farad is equivalent to (A) 1 coulombvolt (B) 1 voltcoulomb (C) 1 joulescoulomb (D) 1amperesec (E) volts per unit charge
A
92 A 0 - 10mA galvanometer with a coil resistance of 30 ohm can be converted to a 0-10Aammeter by using (A) 003ohm series resistor (B) 999ohm shunt resistor (C) 003ohm shuntresistor (D) 999ohm series resistor
C
93 A battery has an internal resistance of 4 and an emf of 12V The terminal voltage when a loadof 20 Ω is connected across it is (A) 4 (B) 10 V (C) 20 V (D) 2V
B
94 A conducting sphere has a net charge of 48 1017 C What is the approximate number ofexcess electrons on the sphere if the fundamental natural charge is -16 x 10-19C (A) 100 (B)300 (C) 200 (D) 400
B
95 A magnet cannot be demagnetized by (A) heating (B) hammering (C) chemical treatment (D)the use of solenoid through which an alternating current is flowing
C
96 An ac voltage is connected to an RLC series circuit of resistance 5 Ω inductance 3 mH and acapacitance of 005 microF Calculate the resonance frequency (A) 110 kHz (B) 120 kHz (C)130 kHz (D) 140 kHz
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
8
97 An electric heater converts 1KJ of electrical energy to heat energy every 2 second with 100efficiency The power produced is (A) 05 KW (B) 2 KW (C) 1KW (D) 10W
A
98 Complete the following statement The electromotive force is (A) the maximum potentialdifference between the terminals of a battery (B) the force that accelerates electrons througha wire when a battery is connected to it (C) the force that accelerates protons through a wirewhen a battery is connected to it (D) the maximum capacitance between the terminals of abattery
A
99 If a charged body is moving in a circle on a horizontal plane what is the general direction ofthe resulting magnetic field (A) In the plane of the circle (B) At an angle 45o to the plane ofmotion (C) Along the perpendicular axis through the center of the circle (D) Along thetangent to the circle
C
100 If a resistor is halved in magnitude and the potential across it is tripled then the ratio of theold current to the new current is (A) 13 (B) 31 (C) 61 (D) 16
D
101 The angle between the earthrsquos magnetic field and the horizontal is called angle of (A)declination (B) dip (C) variation (D) inclination
B
102 The basic difference between the galvanometer and the electric motor is (A) The size of themagnetic fields (B) The presence of hair springs in the galvanometer (C) The soft ironarmature in the galvanometer (D) The couple formed on the parallel sides of the rectangularcoil in the
B
103 The electromotive force is in such a direction as to oppose the motion or charge producing itThis is a statement of (A) Faradayrsquos Law (B) Lenz Law (C) Maxwell Law (D) Amperersquos law
B
104 The potential difference across the ends of a wire is doubled in magnitude If Ohmrsquos law isobeyed one of the following statements concerning the resistance of the wire is true (A) Theresistance is one half of its original value (B) The resistance is twice its original value (C) Theresistance is not changed (D) The resistance increases by a factor of four
C
105 The process of adding impurity to a semiconductor to increase its conductivity is called (A)Doping (B) Annealing (C) Heating (D) Hardening
A
106 Which if the following combinations consists of intrinsic properties of materials (A) volumeand density (B) density and mass (C) resistance and resistivity (D) density and resistivity
C
107 Which of the following can be measured with a potentiometer (A) Emf of a secondary cell (B)Resistivity of a wire (C) Potential difference across a conductor (D) Resistance of a wire
A
108 Which of the following devices is odd in the list (A) thermocouple (B) potentiometer (C) dcgenerator (D) solar cell
B
109 Which of the following is an essential physical property of the wires used for making fuses (A)high thermal conductivity (B) low density (C) low melting point (D) low electrical resistivity
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
9
110 Which one of the following statements concerning the magnetic force on a charged particle ina magnetic field is true (A) It is a maximum if the particle is stationary (B) It is a maximum ifthe particle moves parallel to the field (C) It acts in the direction of motion for a positivelycharged particle (D) It depends on the component of the particles velocity that isperpendicular to the field
D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
1
1 A ball is thrown up into the air At the highest point of its trajectory the ball (A) Is acceleratingdownwards (B) has zero acceleration (C) is accelerating upwards (D) is still moving upwards
B
2 A ball of mass 200 g moving with a velocity of 8 ms collides and sticks with another ball ofmass 300 g moving in the same direction with velocity 4 ms What is the common velocity ofthe balls after the collision (A) 56 ms-1 (B) 28 ms-1 (C) 112 ms-1 (D) 14 ms-1
A
3 A boy holds the end of a rubber cord from which hangs a solid metal ball if the boy whirls theball in a horizontal circle keeping his hand still If the rubber cord breaks when the ball is at apoint on the circle in what direction will the ball move (A) towards the hand of the boy Baway from the hand of the boy C in the direction of the tangent to the circle at the point ofbreak D None of the above
C
4 A force of 20 N applied parallel to the surface of horizontal table is just sufficient to make ablock of mass 4 kg set for motion Find the acceleration when the force is doubled (A) 2 ms-2
(B) 4 ms-2 (C) 5 ms-2 (D) 10 ms-2
C
5 A man walks 1 km due east and then 1 km due north His displacement is (A) 1 km N15degE (B) 1km N30degE (C) radic2 km N45degE (D) 2 km N75degE
C
6 A motor car moves with a velocity of 20 ms-1 on a rough horizontal road and covers adisplacement of 50 m Find the coefficient of dynamic friction between the type and theground (g = 10 ms-2) (A) 03 (B) 06 (C) 05 (D) 04
D
7 A physics student standing on the edge of a cliff throws a stone vertically downward with aninitial speed of 100 ms The instant before the stone hits the ground below it is traveling ata speed of 300 ms If the physics student were to throw the rock horizontally outward fromthe cliff instead with the same initial speed of 100 ms what is the magnitude of the velocityof the stone just before it hits the ground(A) 100 ms (B) 200 ms (C) 300 ms (D) 400 ms
C
8 A quantity is defined as the product of cross-sectional area and change in momentum per unitlength Which of the following is its SI unit (A) Nm (B) kgs-1 (C) kgm2s-1 (D) Nkgs-1
C
9 A rectangular concrete block 40 cm x 30 cm x 60 cm of mass 10 kg rests on a horizontal flatsurface What is the minimum pressure it can possibly exert on the surface (A) 8166 Nm-2
(B) 816 6 Nm2 (C) 4083 Nm-2 (D) 6084 Nm
C
10 A simple hydrometer consists of uniform cylinder suitably weighted to float upright in mostcommon liquids It is graduated to read the relative density of a liquid directly Which of thefollowing is NOT correct (A) When placed in a liquid it displaces exactly its own weight of theliquid (B) Its graduation increases from top to base (C) When placed in a liquid it displacesexactly its own volume of the liquid (D) The product of the volume and density of liquiddisplaced is equal to its mass
C
11 A stone which is dropped into a dry well hits the bottom in 22 s How deep is the well (Takeg=10ms) (A) 404 m (B) 24 m (C) 484 m (D) 242 m
D
12 A woman whose mass is 70 kg sits 24 m from the fulcrum of a seesaw At what distance fromthe fulcrum should a 60 kg man sit to balance the seesaw (A) 28 m (B) 24 m (C) 32 m (D)38 m
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
2
13 An air bubble trapped at a depth in a liquid rises to the surface Which of the following is trueabout its mass and density as it rises (A) Its mass and density increase (B) Its mass is constantwhile its density decreases (C) Its mass and density is constant (D) Its mass is constant whileits density increases
B
14 Complete the following sentence The operation of a hydraulic jack is an application of (A)Pascals principle B Archimedesrsquo principle (C) Bernoullis principle (D) irrotational flow
A
15 Complete the following statement Today the standard meter is defined in terms of (A) thedistance from the earthrsquos equator to the north pole (B) the wavelength of light emitted from akrypton atom (C) the wavelength of light emitted from a sodium atom (D) the speed of light
D
16 Convert 30 metre per second to centimeter per minute (A) 20000 cmmin (B) 180000cmmin (C) 120000 cmmin (D) 150000 cmmin
B
17 During a football match player A kicks the ball 40 m 30o E of S to player B who instantly kicks it30 m 60o E of N What is the magnitude of the resultant displacement of the ball (A) 30 m (B)40 m (C) 50 m (D) 60 m
C
18 How much work is done against gravity in sliding a 500g object through 2 m up a smooth planethat is inclined at 30o to the horizontal (g = 98 ms-2) (A) 98 J (B) 198 J (C) 162 J (D) 49 J
D
19 If a small body of mass m is moving with angular velocity ω in a circle of radius r what is itskinetic energy (A) mω r (B) m ω 2r2 (C) m ω r22 (D) m ω 2r22
D
20 In free fall two balls of masses 20 kg and 10 kg were dropped from a height If the ball withthe smaller mass reached the ground after 4 s what is the difference between the time thetwo balls reach the ground (A) 8 s (B) 2 s (C) 0 s (D) 4 s
C
21 In what distance can a 1500 kg automobile be stopped if the brake is applied when the speedis 20 ms and the coefficient of sliding friction is 07 between the tyres and the ground(A) 9810 m (B) 7167 m (C) 2915 m (D) 2010 m
C
22 The highest point of a simple pendulum bob is 5cm vertically above the lowest point as itswings to and fro between the two extreme ends At what velocity does it swing past thelowest point (equilibrium point) where the string is vertical (take g = 10 ms2) (A) 1 ms (B) 2ms (C) 5 ms (D) 10 ms
A
23 Three vectors A B and C add together to yield zero A + B + C = 0 The vectors A and C point inopposite directions and their magnitudes are related by the expression A = 2C Which one ofthe following conclusions is correct (A) A and B have equal magnitudes and point in oppositedirections (B) B and C have equal magnitudes and point in the same direction (C) B and Chave equal magnitudes and point in opposite directions (D) A and B point in the samedirection but A has twice the magnitude of B
B
24 Which of the following could be measured in the same units as force (A) Energydistance (B)Energy x distance (C) Energytime (D) Momentum x distance
A
25 Which of the following does not affect the pressure at a point beneath the surface of a liquid(A) Surface area of the liquid (B) Density of the liquid (C) Depth of the point below thesurface (D) Strength of the gravitational field
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
3
26 Which of the following pairs contains one vector and one scalar quantity (A) Displacementacceleration (B) Force kinetic energy (C) Momentum velocity (D) Power speed
B
27 Which of the following statements is correct (A) uniform speed always implies uniformvelocity (B) uniform speed always implies zero acceleration (C) uniform speed may imply non-zero acceleration (D) constant momentum implies constant acceleration
C
28 Which of the of the following is a measurement taken with Venier callipers (A) 20 cm (B)200 cm (C) 2000 cm (D) 20000 cm
B
29 Which of the units of the following physical quantities are derived I Area II Thrust IIIPressure IV Mass (A) I II III and IV (B) I II and III only (C) I II and IV only (D) I and II only
B
30 Which one of the following situations is not possibleA A body has zero velocity and non-zero accelerationB A body travels with a northward velocity and a northward accelerationC A body travels with a constant velocity and a time-varying accelerationD A body travels with a constant acceleration and a time-varying velocity
C
31If C is the thermal capacity of a material of mass m and S is its specific heat capacity then (A)C= sm (B) S = Cm (C) C = Sm (D) DS = ms
C
32 A black car can be more uncomfortably hot on a warm day than a white car because (A) it ishot on a warm day (B) a black object is a better absorber of heat (C) black cars have heatersinstalled in them (D) white cars have air conditioning systems installed in them
B
33 A little sag is left in overhead telephone wires (A) because taut wires do not conduct soundeasily (B) to allow for the effect of a rise in temperature due to heating effect of currentflowing through them (C) to allow for the effect of a rise in temperature of the surroundingatmosphere (D) to allow for the effect of a fall in temperature of the surroundingatmosphere
D
34 A piece of copper wire of length 100 cm at 30oC is heated to 120oC If its linear expansivity is18 times10-4 k its new length is (A) 1666 cm (B) 1016 cm (C) 1806 (D) 108 cm
B
35 A sample of a monatomic ideal gas is originally at 20 degC What is the final temperature of thegas if both the pressure and volume are doubled (A) 5 degC (B) 80 degC (C) 20 degC (D) 899 degC
B
36 A volatile liquid used for cooling purpose in refrigerator is (A) liquid ammonia (B) cold water(C) liquid nitrogen (D) liquid helium
A
37 Complete the following statement A temperature decrease of 30 Cdeg is equal to a temperaturedecrease of (A) 30 Fdeg (B) 17 Fdeg (C) 30 K (D) 86 Fdeg
D
38 Complete the following statement Bimetallic strips used as adjustable switches in electricappliances consist of metal strips that must have different (A) mass (B) volume (C) length(D) expansion coefficients
D
39 Heat can be transferred from one end of a metal rod in contact with heat to the other endwhich is in contact with heat through (A) Conduction (B) Convection (C) Radiation (D)Evaporation
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
4
40 Heat supplied or removed from a system which causes a change of state without a change intemperature is (A) Specific heat (B) Heat capacity (C) Latent heat (D) Boiling heat
C
41 How many atmospheres of pressure must a litre of gas initially at a pressure of 1 atmosphereand temperature -20oC be after it has been compressed to frac12 litre at 40oC A 247 atm(B) 45 atm (C) 80 atm (D) 38 atm (E) 168 atm
A
42 On a cold day a good conductor X feels colder to the torch than a poor conductor Y because(A) Y retains more heat than X (B) the temperature of X is lower than that of Y (C) X conductsheat from the body less rapidly than Y (D) X transfers heat from body more rapidly than Y
D
43 The boiling point of water does not depend on (A) the impurities in water (B) the externalpressure (C) the quantity of water (D) all of the above
C
44 The ice and steam points of a local liquid in glass thermometer are 10 a and 90a respectivelyWhat will the thermometer read when the temperature is 30 0C (A) 40a (B) 38a (C) 36a(D) 34a
D
45 The lower and upper fixed points on a thermometer are 40 and 120 respectively Its reading at60oC is (A) 60 (B) 40 (C) 160 (D) 88
D
46 The pressure exerted by a given mass of gas in a container (A) Decreases if the container isheated (B) Increases if the molecules of the gas move faster (C) Increases if the volume of thecontainer is doubled (D) Decreases as the kinetic energy of the gas molecules increases
B
47 The temperature in an electric iron is regulated by (A) thermometer (B) bimettalic strip (C)steel (D) conductor
B
48 Water has an anomalous behavior between 0o and 4oC Which of the following is correct (A)Mass of water increases between 0oC and 4oC (B) Density of water decreases between 0oC and4oC (C) Volume of water increases between 0oC and 4oC (D) Volume of water decreasesbetween 0oC and 4oC
D
49 What is the Celsius equivalent of 500deg F (A) 10deg C (B) 20deg C (C) 30deg C (D) 40deg C A
50 When water is heated in a glass vessel the level first falls and then rises because (A) Theapparent expansion of the water is initially small and later increases (B) There is anomalousexpansion of water (C)The glass vessel does not expand (D)Glass vessel expands first beforewater starts a more rapid expansion
D
51 Which of the following quantities of water has undergone the greatest change from its heatcontent at melting point (A) 05 kg of water at 3oC (B) 02 kg of water at 8oC (C) 0005 kg ofwater at 80oC (D) 01 kg of water at 12oC
B
52 Which would cause a more serious burn 30 g of steam or 30 g of liquid water both at 100 degC
and why is this so
(A) Water because it is denser than steam (B) Steam because of its specific heat capacity
(C) Steam because of its latent heat of vaporization (D) Water because its specific heat is
greater than that of steam
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
5
53 A certain radioactive element has a half life of 20 years How long will it take the activity tobecome frac14 of its original(A) 20 years (B) 40 years (C) 60 years (D) 80 years
B
54 A plane progressive wave is represented by xty 20100sin2 where all the symbols
have their usual meanings What is the velocity of the wave
(A) 500 m s-1 (B) 400 m s-1 (C) 200 m s-1 (D) 100 m s-1
A
55 A point on a stationary wave where there is no movement of the medium is called (A) Node(B) Antinode (C) Note (D) Amplitude
A
56 A uniform wave has a speed of 10ms and a period of 05 s The distance between two nearestcrests is (A) 02 m (B) 20 m (C) 2 m (D) 5 m
D
57 A vibrating string has a tension of 40 and produces a note of whenݖܪ200 plucked in themiddle When the length of string is unaltered and the tension is increased to160 thefrequency becomes(A) ݖܪ1600 (B) ݖܪ800 (C) ܪ400 (D) ݖܪ200
C
58 An organ pipe closed at one end is 80cm long Determine the frequency of the fundamentalnote assuming that the speed of sound in air is 340ms (A) 213Hz (B) 318Hz (C) 425Hz (D)106Hz
D
59 As transverse wave moves through a medium the particles of the medium (A) vibrate in apath parallel to the path of the wave (B) do not move (C) vibrate in a path perpendicular tothe path of the wave (D) vibrate at an angle of 60o to the path of the wave
C
60 The sound heard after the reflection of sound wave from a plane surface is known as (A) Echo(B) Refraction (C) Vibration (D) Revibration
A
61 Which of the following properties is not common to all waves (A) Reflection (B) interference(C) Diffraction (D) Polarization
D
62 Which of the following statements is true about electromagnetic waves (A) They arelongitudinal (B) They can be seen (C) They have the same frequency in vacuum (D) They travelat the same speed in a vacuum
D
63 Which one of the following statements concerning electromagnetic waves is false (A)Electromagnetic waves are longitudinal waves (B) Electromagnetic waves transfer energythrough space (C) The existence of electromagnetic waves was predicted by Maxwell (D)Electromagnetic waves can propagate through a material substance
A
64 Which one of the following statements concerning waves is false (A) A wave can have bothtransverse and longitudinal components (B) A wave carries energy from one place to another(C) A wave does not result in the bulk flow of the material of its medium (D) A transversewave is one in which the disturbance is parallel to the direction of travel
D
65 A light sensitive area at the back of the eye where images are formed is called (A) Yellow Spot(B) Iris (C) Ciliary Muscle (D) Retina
D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
6
66 A luminous object is placed at a given distance from a converging lens of focal length 12cm anda real image is produced Find the image distance if it is equal to the object distance (A) 6cm(B) 3cm (C) 12cm (D) 24cm
D
67 An object is placed 15 cm in front of a concave mirror of radius 40 cm The image formed is(A) virtual and 60 cm behind the mirror (B) real and 60 cm in front of the mirror (C) virtual and40 cm from the mirror (D) at infinity
B
68 How far from a concave mirror of radius 120 cm must an object be placed such that its erectimage is four times its natural size (A) 72 cm (B) 64 cm (C) 45 cm (D) 50 cm
C
69 How many images are formed when an object is placed in front of two plane mirrors that areinclined at angle 30o to each other (A) 0 (B) 6 (C) 11 (D) 12
C
70 Professor Peters walks directly toward a plane mirror at a speed of 025 ms Determine thespeed of the image relative to him(A) 013 ms (B) 050 ms (C) 025 ms (D) 075 ms
B
71 The angle of incidence in a denser medium when the angle of refraction in the less dense
72 The driving mirror is a (A) plane mirror (B) convex mirror (C) concave mirror (D) thick planemirror
B
73 The following are types of a converging lens except(A) biconvex (B) plano-convex (C) mini-convex (D) converging meniscus
C
74 When the Sun the earth and the moon are in line during their movement with the earth beingthe opaque object and casting its shadow on the moon we have (A) Lunar eclipse (B) Totaleclipse (C) Partial eclipse (D) Annular eclipse
A
75 Which of the following instruments could be used in finding angle of elevation of the sun (A)Periscope (B) Telescope (C) Kaleidoscope (D) Sextant
D
76 Which of the following optical instruments does not depend on the use of plane mirrors (A)Kaleidoscope (B) Simple microscope (C) Sextant (D) Simple periscope
B
77 Which of the following statements supports the assumption that light travels in straight lines(A) light can be diffracted (B) light can be reflected (C) a source of light produces
interferences patterns on a suitably placed screen (D) a source of light produces distinctshadows of opaque objects
D
78Which of the following is correct about nuclear fission It is (A) the splitting of a heavynucleus into two or more lighter particles (B) an agent used to slow down neutrons in acontrolled atomic chain reaction (C) combing light atomic nuclei to form heavy (D) thespontaneous disintegration occurring in the nucleus of certain atoms
A
79 A light energy E falls on a metal and the electrons with a maximum kinetic energy of 02eV areejected If the work function of the metal is 03eV what is the value of E (A) 010eV (B)006eV (C) 050eV (D) 150eV
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
7
80 A nucleus is unstable if (A) it has two or more isotopes (B) its binding energy is not sufficientto hold nuclear particles together (C) it is very light with very low density (D) it has nosignificant mass
B
81 A radioactive substance has a half life of 4 years If its activity today is 200 dps its activity in 8years from today is (A) 50 dps (B) 25 dps (C) 20 dps (D) 10 dps
A
82 A substance has a half-life of 3min After 6min the count rate was observed to be 400Whatwas its count rate at zero time (A) 2400 (B) 200 (C) 1200 (D) 1600
D
83 An element and its isotopes differ only in the number of (A) electrons (B) neutrons (C)protons (D) irons
B
84 Complete the following sentence When electrons from a heated filament accelerate throughvacuum toward a positive plate (A) only an electric field will be produced (B) only amagnetic field will be produced (C) electromagnetic waves will be produced (D) longitudinalwaves will be produced
C
85 Radioactive elements are (A) chemically reactive elements (B) noble elements (C) rare earthelements (D) elements that spontaneously emit radiation
D
86 The following radiations are electrically neutral except (A) α-rays (B) ϒ-rays (C) X- rays (D)neutrons
A
87 Upon which one of the following parameters does the energy of a photon depend (A) mass(B) polarization (C) amplitude (D) frequency
D
88 Which of the following is NOT true about cathode ray (A) It moves in a straight line (B) Itcauses fluorescence (C) It possesses a negative charge (D) It can produce -particles
D
89 Who proposed the planetary model of the nucleus (A) J J Thomson (B) Albert Einstein (C)Ernest Rutherford (D) Marie Curie
C
90 X- rays cannot be used (A) to take photographs of bone structure in the body (B) to detectfinger prints (C) to detect flaws in metal castings (D) to detect alterations to works of art
B
91 1 farad is equivalent to (A) 1 coulombvolt (B) 1 voltcoulomb (C) 1 joulescoulomb (D) 1amperesec (E) volts per unit charge
A
92 A 0 - 10mA galvanometer with a coil resistance of 30 ohm can be converted to a 0-10Aammeter by using (A) 003ohm series resistor (B) 999ohm shunt resistor (C) 003ohm shuntresistor (D) 999ohm series resistor
C
93 A battery has an internal resistance of 4 and an emf of 12V The terminal voltage when a loadof 20 Ω is connected across it is (A) 4 (B) 10 V (C) 20 V (D) 2V
B
94 A conducting sphere has a net charge of 48 1017 C What is the approximate number ofexcess electrons on the sphere if the fundamental natural charge is -16 x 10-19C (A) 100 (B)300 (C) 200 (D) 400
B
95 A magnet cannot be demagnetized by (A) heating (B) hammering (C) chemical treatment (D)the use of solenoid through which an alternating current is flowing
C
96 An ac voltage is connected to an RLC series circuit of resistance 5 Ω inductance 3 mH and acapacitance of 005 microF Calculate the resonance frequency (A) 110 kHz (B) 120 kHz (C)130 kHz (D) 140 kHz
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
8
97 An electric heater converts 1KJ of electrical energy to heat energy every 2 second with 100efficiency The power produced is (A) 05 KW (B) 2 KW (C) 1KW (D) 10W
A
98 Complete the following statement The electromotive force is (A) the maximum potentialdifference between the terminals of a battery (B) the force that accelerates electrons througha wire when a battery is connected to it (C) the force that accelerates protons through a wirewhen a battery is connected to it (D) the maximum capacitance between the terminals of abattery
A
99 If a charged body is moving in a circle on a horizontal plane what is the general direction ofthe resulting magnetic field (A) In the plane of the circle (B) At an angle 45o to the plane ofmotion (C) Along the perpendicular axis through the center of the circle (D) Along thetangent to the circle
C
100 If a resistor is halved in magnitude and the potential across it is tripled then the ratio of theold current to the new current is (A) 13 (B) 31 (C) 61 (D) 16
D
101 The angle between the earthrsquos magnetic field and the horizontal is called angle of (A)declination (B) dip (C) variation (D) inclination
B
102 The basic difference between the galvanometer and the electric motor is (A) The size of themagnetic fields (B) The presence of hair springs in the galvanometer (C) The soft ironarmature in the galvanometer (D) The couple formed on the parallel sides of the rectangularcoil in the
B
103 The electromotive force is in such a direction as to oppose the motion or charge producing itThis is a statement of (A) Faradayrsquos Law (B) Lenz Law (C) Maxwell Law (D) Amperersquos law
B
104 The potential difference across the ends of a wire is doubled in magnitude If Ohmrsquos law isobeyed one of the following statements concerning the resistance of the wire is true (A) Theresistance is one half of its original value (B) The resistance is twice its original value (C) Theresistance is not changed (D) The resistance increases by a factor of four
C
105 The process of adding impurity to a semiconductor to increase its conductivity is called (A)Doping (B) Annealing (C) Heating (D) Hardening
A
106 Which if the following combinations consists of intrinsic properties of materials (A) volumeand density (B) density and mass (C) resistance and resistivity (D) density and resistivity
C
107 Which of the following can be measured with a potentiometer (A) Emf of a secondary cell (B)Resistivity of a wire (C) Potential difference across a conductor (D) Resistance of a wire
A
108 Which of the following devices is odd in the list (A) thermocouple (B) potentiometer (C) dcgenerator (D) solar cell
B
109 Which of the following is an essential physical property of the wires used for making fuses (A)high thermal conductivity (B) low density (C) low melting point (D) low electrical resistivity
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
9
110 Which one of the following statements concerning the magnetic force on a charged particle ina magnetic field is true (A) It is a maximum if the particle is stationary (B) It is a maximum ifthe particle moves parallel to the field (C) It acts in the direction of motion for a positivelycharged particle (D) It depends on the component of the particles velocity that isperpendicular to the field
D
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1
2 A tree species introduced from another country is called-------- (A) International species B
(B) Exotic species (C) Exogenous species (D) Crossbreed species
3 Agriculture can be broadly classified into and (A) Livestock Soil (B) Animal Soil C
(C) Animal Crop (D) Poultry Fruit
4 An insect vector is important because (A) it helps to habour and transmit pathogens which A
cause diseases (B) it helps pathogens to develop only at the egg stage (C) it helps to carry
pathogens to the environment for control (D) it is efficient in killing pathogens
5 Birds are important pests of (A) tree crops (B) legumes (C) Cereals (D) vegetables crops C
6 Broad spectrum pesticides are dangerous because (A) they kill all pests and other non- A
target organisms indiscriminately (B) they allow non-target organisms to survive (C) they
allow target organisms to survive (D) they kill target organisms only
7 Contact insecticides are used to control (A) pod borers of legumes (B) stem borers of C
cereal (C) leaf beetles of legumes (D) eel worm of legumes
8 Entomology is the (A) study of Insects (B) study of viruses (C) study of Nematodes (D) A
study of Bacteria
Bryophyte (D) Angiosperm
helliphelliphelliphelliphelliphelliphelliphellip is an example of plant propagated by leaf (A) Zoophyte (B) Allelopathy (C) D
AGRICULTURAL SCIENCE
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
SCIENCEAGRICULTURAL
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9 Nematology is the (A) study of Insects (B) study of Viruses (C) study of Nematodes (D) C
study of Bacteria
10 Olericulture involves the cultivation of helliphelliphelliphelliphelliphellip (A) Tropical fruits (B) Ornamental plants C
(c) Vegetables (d) Orchards
11 One of these is a natural agricultural resource (A) water (B) petroleum (C) calcium (D) A
potatoes
12 Pesticides that are translocated to plant parts such that pests that feed on them are A
poisoned are called A Systemic pesticides (B) Attractants (C) Fumigants (D)
Repellents
13 Pests of crops that feed by piercing and sucking plants include the following except (A) stem A
81 The female sheep is known as (A) ewe (B) lamb (C) sow (D) mare A
82 The largest part of the oviduct where egg white is formed is the (A) Isthmus (B) Infudibulum D
(C) Uterus (D) Magnum
83 The male reproductive hormone is called (A) Testosterone (B) Testis (C) Thiamine (D) A
Globulin (E) Progesterone
84 The process of eliminating undesirable birds from the flock is known as (A)Dubbing (B) C
Removing (C) Culling (D) Degrading
85 The volume of the seminal fluid in chicken is about helliphelliphelliphelliphelliphelliphellip (A) 10mls (B) 50mls (c) C
05mls (d) 010mls
86 What is poultry science (A) Study of chickens (B) Study of science (c) Study of goats (d) A
Study of cattle
87 What is the gestation period of a cow (A) 5 months (B) 18frac12 months (C) 9 months (D) 24 C
months (E) 15 weeks
88 Which branch of poultry industry is concerned with the production of various kinds of feed C
(A) Hatchery industry (B) Poultry processing and marketing (C) Milling Industry (D) Poultry
equipment
89 Which of the following fish preservation method is common in the Northern part of A
Nigeria (A) Sun-drying (B) Gas drying (C) Oven drying
90 Which of the following is monogastric animal (A) Cattle (B) Goat (C) Rabbit (D) Sheep C
91 A farmer purchased a sprayer for N15000 in 2004 at the end of fifth year he sold it for B
N5000 What is the salvage value (A) N10000 (B) N5000 (C) N15000 (D) N
3000
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
AGRICULTURAL SCIENCE
92 Agricultural extension got its name from (A) spreading of information (B) taking information B
to farmers on field (C) having farm extension (D) none of these
93 Equilibrium price is (A) the point at which quantity of a commodity equals quantity B
supplied (B) the price at which quantity demanded of a commodity equals quantity
supplied (C) the point at which market price of a commodity equals quantity supplied (D)
the price at which quantity demanded of a commodity equals market price
94 Farm-gate price is usually obtained through (A) The producer (B) Middlemen (C) A
Commodity Boards (D) Cooperatives
95 One of the factors that influence supply is (A) Income (B) prices of other products (C) D
social capital (D) level of technology
96 People-oriented extension programmes which generate ideas and activities from the D
grassroots is called (A) grassroots approach (B) top down approach (C) community
approach (D) bottom up approach
97 The law of demand states that (A) demand is directly related to price of a commodity (B) B
higher the price of a commodity leads to lower quantity demanded (C) the price of a
commodity is directly proportional to the amount supplied (D) None of the above
98 The loss in value of an asset due to wear and tear in the course of its use is known as C
(A) Appreciation (B) Evaluation (C) Depreciation (D) Salvage value
99 Which of the following is not a problem of agricultural marketing in Nigeria (A) Lack of C
transport facilities (B) Scattered sources of supply (C) High quantity of farm produce (D)
Lack of good packaging and processing facilities
100 Which of the following is not a subject area in Agricultural Economics (A) Agribusiness C
management (B) Farm management and accounting (C) Agronomy (D) Agricultural
development and policy
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
BIOLOGY
1
1 ____________ is an end product of digestion of fat (A) Glucose (B) Fatty acid (C) Amino acid (D)Fructose (E) Galactose
B
2 Asexual reproduction in Hydra sp is commonly by ____ (A) Binary fission b Fragmentation cBudding d Separation (E) Regeneration
C
3 Benedictrsquos solution is used to test for ___ (A) Carbohydrate (B) Lipid (C) Protein (D) Vitamins (E)Minerals
C
4 Pepsin is an enzyme that digests ___ (A) Starch (B) Sugar (C) Lipid (D) Fat (E) Protein E
5 The breakdown of large organic molecules into smaller simpler soluble molecules is called ndashndash (A)Excretion (B) Digestion (C) Absorption (D) Reproduction (E) Ingestion
B
6 The enzyme that curdles milk is_____________ (A) Pepsin (B) Ptyalin (C) Renin (D) Amylase(E) Trypsin
C
7 Which is the enzyme that begins digestion of starch in the mouth (A) Ptyalin (B) Maltase (C)Amylase (D) Sucrase (E) Lactase
A
8 A group of interacting populations in a particular habitat can be described as ___(A) biome (B)biosphere (C) community (D) population ecosystem (E) environment
C
9 A habitat can be defined as ___(A) a group of animals and plants living within a commonboundary (B) a place in which plants and animals live (C) a community living together in thesame place (D) different areas with a common animal and plant population (E) None of theabove
B
10 A symbiotic relationship in which one organism is completely dependent on another organism iscalled ____ (A) Parasitism (B) Commensalisms (C) Mutualism (D) Saprophytism (E) Competition
A
11 An association between two organisms where both members benefit is known as ___ (A)symbiosis (B) commensalism (C) ammensalism (D) mutualism (E) saprophytism
D
12 An instrument used in measuring the speed of wind is (A) a barometer (B) a wind gauge (C) awind vane (D) an anemometer (E) a hydrometer
D
13 At times hyenas feed on remains of animals killed by other animals At other times hyenasthemselves kill animals for food Therefore hyenas may best be described as ndashndash (A) scavengersand herbivores (B) scavengers and parasites (C) scavengers and predators (D) herbivores andpredators e herbivores and parasites
C
14 Autecology is defined as the study of interrelationship of (A) many species of organisms and theirenvironment (B) same species of organisms and their environment (C) organisms in theatmosphere (D) organisms under the earthrsquos surface (E)None of the above
B
15 Autotrophs are also described as ndashndash (A) Consumers (B) Decomposers (C) Carnivores (D)Producers (E) Herbivores
D
16 If three 30cm lengths of glass tubing are tightly packed with clay sand and loamy soilsrespectively and then stood in a beaker of water for one week the level of water will be (A)Lowest in the tube with clay (B) The same in all the tubes (C) Lowest in the tube with loamy soil(D) Highest in the tube with sandy soil (E) Lowest in the tube with sandy soil
E
17 In a community bacteria and fungi are referred to as ndashndash (A) producers (B) consumers (C)scavengers (D) tertiary consumers (E) decomposers
E
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
BIOLOGY
2
18 Puddles Ponds Rivers Seas and Oceans are grouped together as ndashndash (A) Ecosystem (B) Biosphere(C) Aquatic habitat (D) Terrestrial habitat (E) Marine environment
C
19 The feeding pattern in an ecosystem is calledhelliphelliphelliphellip (A) Pyramid of energy (B) Food web (C)Food chain (D) Pyramid of member (E) Ecology
B
20 The orderly changes that occur slowly and naturally in plant and animal communities in a givenarea over a period of time until a stable community is established is called ndashndash (A)Transformational change (B) ecological succession (C) survival of the fittest (D) weatherchange (E) environmental change
B
21 The sign + is used to indicate an association where an organism gains while 0 is used where anorganism is unaffected An association indicated as +0 is known as ndashndash (A) predation (B)commensalism (C) parasitism (D) competition (E) ammensalism
B
22 The sum total of all the roles an organism plays in a habitat is referred to as (A) ecology (B)ecosystem (C) habit (D) habitat (E) niche
E
23 Which of the following factors does not control population growth (A) Food shortage (B)Emigration (C) Predation (D) Abundance of food (E) Natural disaster
D
24 Which of the following statements best describe an ecosystem (A) A place where livingorganisms can live successfully (B) The interactions between living organism in a habitat and thenon-living part of the environment (C) A biological association between a plant and ananimal (D) A system of grouping organisms in a habitat (E) None of the above
B
25 Which of these represents a correct food chain in nature (A) Crustacea rarr diatom rarrfish rarr man (B) Diatom rarr crustacea rarr fish rarr man (C) Fish rarr crustacea rarr man rarr diatom (D) Diatom rarr fish rarr crustacea rarr man (E) None of the above
B
26 ___________ is involved in the mechanism of expelling water from the protozoans during theprocess of____________ (A) Contractile vacuole Osmoregulation (B) Contractile vacuolePhagocytosis (C) Food vacuole Ultrafilteration (D) Food vacuole Pinocytosis (E) Cell membranePinocytosis
A
27 ______________ is used for photosynthesis in Euglena sp (A) Reservoir (B) Nucleus (C)Chloroplast (D) Paramylon granule (E) Pellicle
C
28 A heart with four chambers is found in______________ (A) Fishes (B) Insects (C) Snails (D) Rats(E) Worms
D
29 Animal cell does not have a ____________ (A) Membrane (B) Nucleolus (C) Food Vacuole (D) Cellwall (E) Golgi body
D
30 Beriberi is caused by deficiency of vitamin_____________ (A) A (B) D (C) K (D) E (E) B E
31 Compound eyes are found in which of the animals below (A) Rat (B) Cow (C) Snail (D) Ant (E) Jellyfish
D
32 Dental formula of man consist of (A) i 22 c22 pm22 m33 (B) i11 c22 pm22 m33 (C)i22 c11 pm32 m22 (D) i22 c11 pm22 m22 (E) i22 c11 pm22 m33
E
33 During digestion of food passage of chyme through the duodenum enables it to become awatery liquid called__________ (A) Digested food (B) Chymatic product (C) Chyle (D) Solublefood (E) Dissolved food
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
BIOLOGY
3
34 Emulsification of fat and oils is caused by______________ (A) Lipase (B) Ptyalin (C) Trypsin (D)Maltase (E) Bile
E
35 Every mammal has (A) One Kidney (B) Two pairs of Kidneys (C) One pair of Kidneys (D) FourKidneys (E) None of the above
C
36 Faeces is removed from the body in a process called (A) Digestion (B) Egestion (C) Elimination(D) Excretion (E) Evacuation
B
37 Glomerulus is found in the______________ (A) Ovary (B) Testes (C) Brain (D) Kidney e)Stomach
D
38 In the respiratory system of man diffusion of gases takes place in (A) Trachea (B) Bronchi (C)Alveoli (D) Bronchioles (E) None of the above
C
39 Incisors are used for (A) Tearing food (B) Cutting food (C) Grinding food (D) Shearing food (E)Crushing food
B
40 Nematocysts are produced by special cells found in (A) Nematodes (B) Annelids (C)Platyhelminthes (D) Cnidarians (Coelenterates) (E) Arthropods
D
41 One of the following is not a function of the skin (A) Excretion (B) Protection (C) Homeostasis(D) Reproduction (E) Absorption of vitamin D
D
42 Open circulatory system is found in _____________ (A) Lizard (B) Toad (C) Fish (D) Insect (E)Chicken
D
43 Ovary is to the female reproductive system as________ is to the male reproductive system (A)Penis (B) Urethra (C) Testis (D) Cowperrsquos gland (E) Prostate gland
C
44 Possession of pinna is a characteristic feature of (A) Mammals (B) Reptiles (C) Fishes (D)Amphibians (E) All of the above
A
45 Tadpoles respire with (A) Lungs (B) Nostril (C) Gills (D) Spiracles (E) Siphon C
46 The excretory organ in the earthworm ishelliphelliphelliphellip (A) Malphigian tubule (B) Stoma (C)Nephriduim (D) Flame cells (E) Gills
C
47 The nerves that connect the eyes to the brain are called ndashndash (A) Cranial nerves (B) Optical nerves(C) Sensory nerves (D) Olfactory nerves (E) Optic nerves
E
48 The nerves that connect the eyes to the brain are called ndashndash (A) Cranial nerves (B) Optical nerves(C) Sensory nerves (D) Olfactory nerves (E) Optic nerves
E
49 The parasympathetic nervous system is involved in (A) Dilation of pupil of the eye (B) Controlthe activities of smooth muscles (C) Dilatation of the skin (D) Controls thinking in mammals (E)Increased metabolism
B
50 The part of the alimentary system of a bird where grinding of food occurs is (A) Crop (B)Stomach (C) Cloaca (D) Rectum (E) Gizzard
E
51 The part of the ear that contains receptors that convert the fluid motion into action potential iscalled ndashndash (A) Auditory nerve (B) Ossicles (C) Semicircular canals (D) Cochlea (E) Oval window
D
52 The thoracic region of the vertebral column is made up of __________ vertebrae (A) 5 (B) 7 (C) 4(D) 12 (E) 10
D
53 Which of the animal below is poikilothemic (A) Toad (B) Chicken (C) Bat (D) Lion (E) Dove A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
BIOLOGY
4
54 Which of the structures below is found in reptiles and birds (A) Scales (B) Legs (C) Beaks (D)Claws (E) All of the above
A
55 Which of these animals is photosynthetic (A) Paramecium sp (B) Amoeba sp (C) Euglena sp(D) Hydra sp (E) None of the above
C
56 Which of these organs regulate the amount of sugar in the blood (A) Liver (B) Kidney (C) Spleen(D) Lung (E) Pancreas
E
57 The basis for growth and asexual reproduction is (A) meiosis (B) cytokinesis (C) mitosis (D)Cytogenesis (E) Cell elongation
C
58 The process which ensures that the chromosome number for each species of organism remainconstant from generation to generation is called (A) fission (B) fusion (C) meiosis (D) mitosis(E) oogenesis
C
59 Which of the following is a major factor in variation among organisms (A) Inbreeding (B)Backcrossing (C) Test crossing (D) Sexual reproduction (E) Gene dominance
D
60 ____________ is an example of an invertebrate (A) Millipede (B) Fish (C) Toad (D) Snake (E) Skin A
61 ____________ is the odd one in the list below (A) Mosquito (B) Bee (C) Moth (D) Tick (E)Beetle
63 _____________ is an example of a unicellular organism (A) Amoeba sp (B) Hydra sp (C) Ascarissp (D) Taenia sp (E) Obelia sp
A
64 _____________ level is the highest level of organization in animals (A) System (B) Tissue (C)Organ (D) Cellular (E) Protoplasmic
A
65 Crocodiles are _____________ (A) Fishes (B) Amphibians (C) Mammals (D) Birds (E) None of theabove
E
66 The mutation theory of organic evolution was propounded by (A) Gregor Mendel (B) Hugo deVrics (C) Jean Lamarck (D) Charles Darwin (E) Robert Hookes
D
67 The theory of natural selection was developed by (A) Lamarck and Darwin (B) Darwin andWallace (C) Wallace and Mendel (D) Mendel and Lamarck (E) Hooke and Darwin
B
68 Which is the odd animal in the list below (A) Lizards (B) Snakes (C) Turtles (D) Tortoise (E) Toad E
69 Which of the following sources is not an evidence of evolution (A) Fossil records B Comparativeanatomy C Comparative embryology (D) Human behavior (E) None of the above
D
70 _______________ is an endoparasite (A) Earthworm (B) Tapeworm (C) Mosquito (D) Housefly (E)Tsetse fly
B
71 The causative agent of bird flu is a (A) Virus (B) Bacteria (C) Fungus (D) Protozoan (E) Ricketsia A
72 In lower plants like mosses the structure which performs the functions of roots of higher plantsis called (A) root hairs (B) rootlets (C) hyphae (D) rhizoids (E) thalli
D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
BIOLOGY
5
73 One common feature of fungi algae mosses and ferns is that they are (A) photosynthetic (B)show alternation of generation (C) can survive harsh weather conditions (D) have no seeds (E)conjugate
D
74 The following are major groups of the plant kingdom EXCEPT (A) Bryophyta (B) Chlorophyta (C)Pteridophyta (D) Spermatophyta (E) Thallophyta
B
75 _____________is a form of sexual reproduction (A) Grafting (B) Budding (C) Fission (D)Conjugation (E) Regeneration
D
76 Sexual reproduction in Spirogyra is called (A) Fertilization (B) Symbiosis (C) Conjugation (D)Reproduction (E) Mutualism
C
77 The carrier of the hereditary characters in plants is the (A) Cell (B) nucleus (C) chromosome (D)chloroplast (E) gene
E
78 All are necessary for photosynthesis except_____________ (A) Water (B) Chlorophyll (C)Sunlight (D) Carbon dioxide (E) Oxygen
E
79 Growing yam tendrils climb for support This growth response is (A) haptotropism (B) geotropism(C) phototropism (D) hydrotropism (E) chemotropism
A
80 Which is the correct order in an evolutionary sequence for the following plant groups (A)Bacteria rarr ferns rarr algae rarr mosses rarr seed plants (B) Bacteria rarr ferns rarr mosses rarr algae rarr seed plants (C) Bacteria rarr algae rarr mosses rarr ferns rarr seed plants (D) Bacteria rarr mosses rarr algae rarr ferns rarr seed plants (E) Seed plants rarr ferns rarr mosses rarr algae rarr bacteria
C
81 ------------ is not part of the whorls of a flower(A)calyx (B) corolla (C) androecium (D)Antheridium (E)Gynoecium
D
82 A dry fruit which can break into several parts each containing one seed is a (A) caryopsis (B)aggregate fruit (C) legume (D) follicle (E) schizocarp
E
83 A dry indehiscent winged fruit formed from one carpel is known as a (A) Schizocarp (B)Caryopsis (C) Samara (D) nut (E) Follicle
C
84 A true fruit is formed from (A) fertilized ovary and other floral parts (B) a fertilized ovary (C) afertilized ovary and calyx (D) a fertilized and fleshy receptacle (E) an unfertilized ovary and otherfloral parts
B
85 Irish potato is a (A) bulb (B) tap root (C) rhizome (D) root tuber (E) stem tuber D
86 One major difference between an Angiosperm and a Gymnosperm is that seeds in Gymnospermsare borne in (A) Cones (B) fruits (C) flowers (D) ovary (E) ovule
A
87 Reserved food material in the seed is stored in the (A) epicarp (B) endocarp (C) endosperm (D)mesocarp (E) all parts
C
88 What type of fruit is a mango fruit (A) Berry (B) Hesperidium (C) Drupe (D) Nut (E) Mango fruit C
89 Which of the following species exhibit an aerial root (A) Ficus (B) Centrosema (C) Antigonon(D) Lantana (E) Dahlia
A
90 Which of these plants has an emerginate apex (A) Bauhinia (B) Pistia (C) Ixora (D) Musa (E)Terminalia
A
91 Which plant stores food in its roots (A) Cassava (B) cocoyam (C) Irish potato (D) onion (E)yam
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
BIOLOGY
6
92 An example of Vascular tissues is -------------- (A) Trichome (B) Xylem (C) Stomata (D) Epidermis(E) Parenchyma
B
93 The living part of phloem tissue is (A) sieve plate (B) companion cell (C) sieve element (D)cytoplasm
B
94 Which of the following tissues are made up of dead cells (A) meristems (B) xylem vessels (C)cambium (D) mesophyll (E) palisade
B
95 A plant vacuole contains (A) dissolved chemicals sugars salts pigments and crystals (B) wasteproducts of metabolism DNA RNA and crystals (C) pigments crystals DNA and waste productsof metabolism (D) RNA DNA sugars and salts
A
96 Excessive loss of water in plants is known as (A) Osmosis (B) Osmoregulation (C) Transpiration (D)Excretion
C
97 Starch granules in plants is equivalent to _____________ granules in animals (A) Food (B)Chromatin (C) Lysosome (D) Mitochondria (E) Glycogen
E
98 Which of the following is a plant excretory product (A) Oil (B) Cytokinin (C) Resin (D)amino acids (E) gibberellins
C
99 A plant which grows on another without causing harm to the host plant is called ndashndash (A) aparasite (B) a saprophyte (C) an epiphyte (D) a predator (E) a prey
C
100 Plants which can survive in places where water supply is limited are (A) bryophytes (B)mesophytes (C) xerophytes (D) hydrophytes (E) pteridophytes
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
1
1 200 cm3 of air was passed over heated copper in a syringe several times to produce copper (II)oxide When cooled the final volume of air recorded was 158 cm3 Estimate the percentage ofoxygen in the air (A) 31 (B) 27 (C) 21 (D) 19
C
2 30cm3 of oxygen at 10 atmosphere pressures is placed in a 20dm3 container Calculate the newpressure if temperature is kept constant (A) 67 atm (B) 150 atm (C) 600 (D) 660
B
3 Bond dissociation energy of 500 KJ mol-1 may be assigned to (A) ionic bonding (B) covalentbonding (C) hydrogen bonding D) metallic bonding (E) van-der-waals bonding
A
4 A mixture of iron and sulphur can be separated by dissolving the mixture in __ (A) steam (B)dilute hydrochloric acid (C) dilute sodium hydroxide (D) benzene
B
5 A mixture of sand ammonium chloride and sodium chloride is best separated by __ (A)sublimation followed by addition of water and filtration (B) sublimation followed by addition ofwater and evaporation (C) addition of water followed by filtration and sublimation (D) additionof water followed by crystallization and sublimation
A
6 A pure solid usually melts __ (A) over a wide range of temperature (B) over a narrow range oftemperature (C) at a lower temperature than the impure one (D) at the same temperature asthe impure one
B
7 A small quantity of solid ammonium chloride was heated gently in a test tube the solidgradually disappeared to produce a mixture of two gases Later a white cloudy deposit wasobserved on the cooler part of the test tube The ammonium chloride is said to haveundergone __ (A) distillation (B) sublimation (C) precipitation (D) evaporation
B
8 CH4 has this geometry (A) trigonal (B) planar (C) tetrahedral (D) octahedral (E) linear C
9 Chlorine consisting of two isotopes of mass numbers 35 and 37 has an atomic mass of 355The relative abundance of the isotope of mass number 37 is ___ ( A)20 (B) 25 (C) 50 (D) 75
B
10 Elements P Q R S have 6 11 15 and 17 electrons respectively therefore (A) P will form anelectrovalent bond with R (B) Q will form a covalent bond with S (C)R will form an electrovalentbond with S (D) Q will form an electrovalent bond with S
D
11 In the oil drop experiment Millikan determined the (A) charge to mass ratio of the electron (B)mass of the electron (C) charge of the electron (D) mass of the proton
C
12 One of these atomic shells is the most stable (A) M (B) N (C) K (D) L (E) 0 C
13 Sieving is a technique used to separate mixtures containing 20 oxygen by volume Which ofthe reactants was in excess (A) Carbon (II) oxide (B) Oxygen (C) Carbon (IV) oxide (D) Nitrogen
A
14 The abnormally high boiling point of water is primarily due to (A) ionic bonding (B) covalentbonding (C) dative bonding (D) coordinate covalent bonding (E) hydrogen bonding
E
15 The energy required to remove an electron from the isolated gaseous atom is known as (A)electron affinity (B) bond energy (C) lonisation energy (D) electronegativity (E) electrovalency
C
16 The group that oxygen belongs to is collectively called (A) allotropes (B) halogens (C)chalcogens (D) alkenes (E) ozonides
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
2
17 The ideal gas equation is ___ ( A) P=nRT (B) PR =nVT (C) PV =gRT (D) V=kT (E) PV = K V A
18 The number of atoms in one mole of a substance is equal to (A) the atomic number (B) theAvogadrorsquos number (C) number of neutrons (D) number of electrons (E) gas constant
B
19 The number of electrons in the outermost shell of the atom represents its (A) period (B)number of shells (C) group (D) atomic number (E) electronegativity
C
20 The number of protons or electrons of an atom represents its (A) electronegativity (B) period(C) number of shells (D) group (E) atomic number
E
21 The partial pressure of oxygen in a sample of air is 500 mmHg If the total Pr pressure 780mmHg what is the mole fraction of the oxygen (A) 064 [B (B) 573 (C) 156 (D) 070 (E) 054
A
22 The periodic classification of the elements is an arrangement of the elements in order of their(A) atomic weights (B) isotopic weights (C) molecular weights (D) atomic numbers
D
23 The process of changing one element into another is called (A) radioisotope (B) radioactivity (C)dating (D) transmutation (E) nuclear reaction
D
24 The shapes of CO2 H2O and CH4 respectively are (A) bent linear and tetrahedral (B) benttetrahedral and linear (C) tetrahedral linear and bent (D) linear bent and tetrahedral
D
25 This compound exhibits ionic bonding (A) H20 (B) H2 (C) KC1 (D) NH3 (E) HF C
26 This type of bonding involves overlapping of orbitals during which electrons are shared (A)hydrogen bonding (B) covalent bonding (C) ionic bonding (D) metallic bonding (E) van-der-waals bonding
B
27 Which one of the following changes is physical (A) Adding iron filings to aerated water (B)Adding sodium metal to water (C) Cooling a solution of iron(II) sulphate to obtain the hydratedsalt (D) Cooling water to obtain ice
D
28 A side effect of soft water is that (A) it gives offensive taste (B) excess calcium is precipitated(C) it encourages the growth of bacteria (D) it attacks lead contained in pipes
D
29 Ammonia is very soluble in water because it is a an molecule (A) non-polar (B) polar (C)reactive (D) basic (E) acidic
B
30 Citrus fruits such as lemon and grape taste sour because they contain (A) ascorbic acid andcitric acid (B) citric acid and ascetic acid (C) citric acid and dilute HCl (D) citric acid and salicyclicacid (E) Sulphuric acid
A
31 Soap lather is an example of a colloid in which a (A) liquid is dispersed in gas (B) solid isdispersed in liquid (C) gas is dispersed in liquid (D) liquid is dispersed in liquid
C
32 The air around a petroleum refinery is most likely to contain(A) CO2 SO3 and N2O (B) CO2 COand N2O (C) SO2 CO and NO2 (D) PH3 H2O and CO2
C
33 The difference between colloids and suspensions is brought out clearly by the fact that whilecolloids (A) do not scatter light suspensions do (B) can be separated by filtration suspensionscannot be so separated (C) can be separated by a membrane suspensions cannot (D) do notsettle out on standing suspensions do
D
34 The following substances are non-electrolytes except (A) chloroform (B) sugar cane (C) aceticacid (D) NaCl (E) C and D
E
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
3
35 The hydrolysis of NH4Cl salt will give (A) acidic solution (B) neutral solution (C) basic solution(D) hot solution (E) all of the above
A
36 The pollutants that are likely to be present in an industrial environment are (A) H2S SO2 andoxides of nitrogen (B)NH3 HCl and CO (C) CO2 NH3 and H2S (D) dust NO and Cl2
A
37 What is the basicity of tetraoxosulphate (VI) acid (A) 2 (B) 1 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) 0 A
38 Which of the following gases is the most dangerous pollutant (A) Hydrogen sulphide (B)Carbon (IV) oxide (C) Sulphur (IV) oxide (D) Carbon (II) oxide
D
39 Which of the following ions is a pollutant in drinking water even in trace amount (A) Ca2+ (B)Hg2+ (C) Mg2+ (D) Fe2+
B
40 Which of the following is an example of a double salt (A) NH4Cl (B) alum (C) NaCO3 (D) AlCl3
(E) NaClB
41 016g of methane when burnt increases the temperature of 100g of water by 400(C) what isthe heat of combustion of methane if the heat capacity of water is 42 Jg-10C-1 (CH4=16) (A)1160kJmol-1 (B) 1180kJmol-1 (C) 1560kJmol-1 (D) 1600kJmol-1 (E) 1680kJmol-1
E
42 A charged car battery has ___ energy that can be converted into another energy called ___energy (A) Chemical electrical (B) mechanical chemical (C) heat mechanical (D) lightelectrical (E) light heat
A
43 Copper oxide is heated with charcoal to produce carbon monoxide and copper The reaction isan example of (A) both oxidation and reduction (B) neither oxidation and reduction (C)oxidation only (D) reduction only (E) neutralization
A
44 For each oxygen atom in hydrogen peroxide which acts as an oxidant there is an oxygen atomwhich acts as a an (A) Oxidant (B) reductant (C) oxidizing agent (D) catalyst (E) inhibitor
B
45 Given the change of phase CO2(g) changes to CO2(s) the entropy of the system (A) decreases(B) increases (C) remains the same
A
46 In which of the following is the entropy change positive (A) Reaction between an acid and abase (B) Addition of concentrated acid to water (C) Dissolution of sodium metal in water(D) Thermal dissociation of ammonium chloride
C
47 One of these elements is the best reducing agent (A) Pb (B) Rb (C) Al (D) In (E) N B
48 The name of the gas driven off at the negative electrode during the electrolysis of brine is ___( A) hydrogen (B) chlorine (C) oxygen (D) sodium (E) hydrogen chloride
B
49 The oxidation state of P in H2P2072- is ___ (A) -3 (B) +3 (C) +1 (D) +5 (E) -2 D
50 The oxidation state of S in Ca(HS03)2 is __ (A) +2 (B) -2 (C) +4 (D) -4 (E) +6 C
51 The oxidizing agent in the reaction 3Br2 + 6OH- = BrO3- + 5Br- + 3H2O is __ (A) Br2 (B) OH- (C)
BrO3- (D) e- (E) H2OA
52 When heat is absorbed during a chemical reaction the reaction is said to be ___(A) thermodynamic (B) exothermal (C) isothermal (D) endothermic (E) thermostatic
D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
4
53 Given the reaction at equilibrium 2CO(g) + O2(g) harr 2CO2(g) When the reaction is subjected tostress a change will occur in the concentration of (A) reactants only (B) products only (C)both reactants and products (D) neither reactants nor products
C
54 Given the reaction at equilibrium N2(g) + O2(g) harr 2NO(g) as the concentration of N2(g)increases the concentration of O2(g) will (A) decrease (B) increase (C) remains the same (D)vanishes (E) pours away
A
55 If a reaction is exothermic and there is a great disorder it means that (A) The reaction is in astate of equilibrium (B) There will be a large increase in free energy (C) There will be a largedecrease in free energy (D) The reaction is static
B
56 In the chemical reaction of A + B = C +D more of D is formed (A) if the concentration of A isreduced (B) if the concentration of B is reduced (C) if the concentration of C is reduced (D) ifthe concentration of C is increased (E) if it is continuously removed from the reaction mixture
E
57 In what way is equilibrium constant for the forward reaction related to that of the reversereaction (A) The addition of the two is expected to be one (B) The product of two isexpected to be one (C) The two equilibrium constants are identical (D) The product of thetwo is always greater than one
C
58 In which reaction will the point of equilibrium shift to the left when the pressure on the systemis increased (A) C(s) + O2(g) harr CO2(g) (B) CaCO3(s) harr CaO(s) + CO2(g) (C) 2Mg(s) + O2(g) harr 2MgO(s) (D) 2H2(g) + O2(g) harr2H2O(g)
B
59 The furring of kettles is caused by the presence in water of __ (A) calcium trioxocarbonate (IV)(B) calcium tetraoxosulphate (VI) (C) calcium hydroxide (D) calcium hydrogentrioxocarbonate(IV)
D
60 Which is a property of a reaction that has reached equilibrium (A) The amount of products isgreater than the amount of reactants (B) The amount of products is equal to the amount ofreactants (C) The rate of the forward reaction is greater than the rate of the reverse reaction(D) The rate of the forward reaction is equal to the rate of the reverse reaction
D
61 Which of the following combination of conditions many increase the rate of a chemicalreaction (A) Decrease in temperature increase in concentration of the reactant (B) Increase intemperature addition of a catalyst decrease in the surface area of the reactant (C) Increase intemperature increase in concentration addition of a catalyst and increase in the surface areaof the reactant (D) Decrease in temperature concentration and surface area of the reactants(E) Addition of catalyst and in the absence of light
C
62 ldquoQuicklimerdquo has the formula __ (A) Ca(OH)2 (B) CaO (C) CaCO3 (D) CaSO42H2O (E) CaCl2 B
63 A Transition metal is different from a non-transition metal because (A) it has an octetconfiguration (B) it is very stable (C) it is coloured (D) it has incomplete outer shell d-electrons(E) it has no electron in the d-orbital
D
64 Chlorine is produced commercially by (A) electrolysis of dilute HCl (B) electrolysis of brine (C)neutralization of HCl (D) heating potassium trioxochlorate (V) (E) action of dilute mineral acidson bleaching powder
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
5
65 Chlorine bromine and iodine resemble one another since they __ (A)dissolve in alkalis (B) reactviolently with H2 without heating (C)displace each other from solutions of their salts (D) aregases (E) are liquids
A
66 Liquid oxygen may be produced by condensation of air using this coolant (A) liquid phosphorus(B) liquid gas (C) liquid paraffin (D) liquid nitrogen (E) butane
D
67 One of these is another form of oxygen (A) hydroxide (B) ozone (C) peroxide (D) sulphoxide (E)water B
68 One of these metals is not an alkali metal (A) K (B) Cs (C) Sr (D) Rb (E) Fr C
70 The formation of ozone by reaction of O2 with atomic oxygen in UV light occurs in (A) upperatmosphere (B) inner atmosphere (C) stratosphere (D) hemisphere (E) none of these
A
71 The halogen which is chiefly produced commercially from sea water is ___ ( A) Fluorine (B)chlorine (C) Bromine (D) iodine (E) Astatine
B
72 The most stable allotropic form of sulphur at normal conditions is ___ ( A) monoclinic sulphur(B) rhombic sulphur (C) amorphous sulphur (D) plastic sulphur (E) ordinary sulphur
B
73 The products obtained when the following chemical reaction is completed and balancedarehellipHNO3 + Ca(OH)2 rarr ______ (A) CaNO3 + H2O (B) Ca(NO3)2 + 2 H2O (C) CaO + 2 NO2 + 3H2O(D) Ca + 2 NO3 + 2 H2O
B
74 What is the role of iron and Aluminium oxide in ammonia production (A) dehydrating agent(B) catalytic agent (C) oxidizing agent (D) bonding agent (E) preservative agent
B
75 When carbon IV oxide is bubbled through lime water the solution becomes milky dueformation of (A) Ca(HCO3)2 (B) CaCO3 (C) Ca(N03)2 (D)CaCl2 (E) CaSO4
B
76 Which of the following gases dissolves in water vapour to produce acid rain during rainfall (A)Oxygen (B) Carbon (II) oxide (C) Nitrogen (D) Sulphur (IV) oxide
D
77 Which of the following is not allotrope of carbon (A) diamond (B) graphite (C) buckminsterfullerene (D) all of the above (E) none of the above
E
78 Which oxide is amphiprotic (amphoteric) (A) MgO (B) NaO (C) CaO (D) ZnO (E) BeO D
79 Why will it always be more difficult to extract potassium ions from sea water than to extractmagnesium ions This is because (A) most potassium compounds are less soluble in water (B)most potassium compounds are quite soluble in water (C) presence of other alkali metal ionshas great influence on it (D) magnesium ion is an alkaline earth metal ion (E) None of theabove
B
80 ___________ can be used to test for reducing sugars (A) Iodine solution (B) bromine water (C)Fehlingrsquos solution (D) de-ionized water
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
6
81 2CH3COOH + Zn rarr The product of this reaction is (A) (CH3COO)2Zn + Zn (B) CH3COO CH3 +Zn (C) (CH3COO)2Zn + H2 (D) CH3COOH + CH4
C
82 A ketone reacts with hydroxylamine to give (A) a hydrazone (B) an alkanonitrile (C) a nitrosocompound (D) an oxime
D
83 Alkanoic acids are weak acids and ionises in solution to give (A) R+ + COOH (B) RCOO- + H+ (C)RCOO+ + H- (D) RCO+ + OH-
B
84 An excess of ethanol heated with concentrated H2SO4 at a temperature of 180oC is dehydratedto give mostly (A) ethane (B) ethene (C) ethanol (D) ethoxyethane
B
85 Butene can be distinguished from benzene by reaction with (A) Hydrochloric acid (B) Brominewater (C) Potassium sulphate (D) Sodium hydroxide
B
86 Detergent is more efficient than soap in cleansing clothes and dishes because of the followingreasons except that (A) the corresponding Ca and Mg compound formed is soluble in H2O (B)detergents are not affected by hardness of water (C) it cleans better than soap (D) it is lessexpensive
D
87 In the manufacture of soap industrially brine is used to__________the acid salt (A) oxidise(B) reduce (C) bleach (D) precipitate
D
88 Methane gas can be made from carbon (II) oxide gas according to the equation2CO(g) + 2H2(g) rarr CH4(g) + CO2(g) Calculate the mass of CO required to produce 875 x 1025
molecules of CH4 At masses C=12011 H= 1008 O = 15999 Avogadrorsquos no 6022 x1023molecules mole (A) 8140g (B) 4070g (C) 1600g (D) 3200g (E) 2035g
A
89 Potassium ethanoate is formed when (A) Methanoic acid reacts with KOH (B) Ethanoic acidreacts with KOH (C) Methanol reacts with KCO3 (D) Ethanol reacts with CH3COOH
B
90 Saponification is defined as (A) Acidic hydrolysis of fat or oil (B) Alkali hydrolysis of fat or oil(C) Condensation of two monomer units (D) Mixture of glacial ethanoic acid and excess ofsimple alkanol
B
91 Soaps and detergents have the same basic characteristics except that the carboxyl group of thefatty acid in detergent is replaced by (A) alcohol (B) sulphate or a sulphonate group (C) ester(D) acids
B
92 The relatively high boiling point of alkanols is due to (A) aliphatic character (B) ionic bonding(C) hydrogen bonding (D) covalent bonding
C
93 Two important sources of detergent are (A) fatoils and hydrocarbons (B) coal and cement (C)pulp and wood (D) water and gas
A
94 What is the process associated with conversion of vegetable oil to soap (A) Esterification (B)Saponification (C) hydrolysis (D) Acidification
B
95 When ethanal vapour is passed over manganese (II) ethanoate (manganese acetate) catalyst inthe presence of air the product is (A) ethanoate (B) ethanol (C) methanol (D) ethanoic acid
D
96 When KOH is used instead of NaOH in the production of soap it has the following advantagesexcept it gives (A) softer soap (B) harder soap (C) soap with lower melting point (D) moresoluble soap
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
7
97 When palm wine is left exposed to air for a few days it goes sour The bacteria in the airoxidises________ in palm wine to _________ (A) ethanol ethanoic acid (B) ethanoic acidethanol (C) ester ethanoic acid (D) ether ethanol
A
98 Which of the following is not true about benzoic acid (A) It is aromatic in nature (B) It can bemanufactured from methylbenzene (C) It has molecular formula C6H6COOH (D) It sublimesreadily
C
99 Which of the following reactions is correct (A) C6H5COOH + CaO rarr C6H5Ca + HCO3 (B)C6H5COOH + CaO rarr C6H6 + CaCO3 (C) C6H5COOH + PCl5 rarr C6H5Cl + H2PO4 (D) C6H5COOH +C2H5OH rarr C6H6 + C3H8COOH
B
100 Which of these is not a property of ethanedioic acid (A) It is a stronger acid than ethanoic acidbut weaker than inorganic acids (B) It is a reducing agent (C) It is an oxidising agent (D) It issoluble in cold water
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS STUDIES
1 Behold the people of Israel are too many come let us deal shrewdly with them lest they D
multiply In the statement the first step by the new king of Egypt was to (A) cast all
Hebrew male children into the Nile (B) impose heavy tax on them (C) kill all Hebrew male
children (D) set taskmasters over them to afflict them with burdens
2 I will go out as at other times and shake myself free When Samson made the statement C
above he was not aware that (A) the Philistines were upon him (B) he was bound with bronze
fetters (C) the LORD had left him (D) his eyes had been gouged out
3 Let the waters under the heavens be gathered together into one place and let the dry land D
appear In the statement above the dry land and the water refer to (A) earth and oceans (B)
firmament and seas (C) firmament and oceans (D) earth and seas
4 Seek out for me a woman who is a medium that I may go to her and inquire of her Saul A
made the statement above when he was confronted by the(A) Philistines (B) Ammonites (C)
Amalekites (D) Moabites
5 Why did you bring trouble on us The LORD brings trouble on you todayrdquo What happened to C
Achan after the statement above by Joshua (A) He was buried alive (B) He was put in chain
(C) He was stoned to death (D) He was flogged publicly
6 An unwise decision of Solomon was the issue of the (A) building of the palace (B) building of D
the temple (C) felling of timber (D) forced labour
7 David was anointed king over Judah at (A) Zuph (B) Bethlehem (C) Hebron (D) Gibeon C
8 For worshipping the molten calf God described the Israelites as (A) a stubborn nation (B) an C
unholy nation (C) a stiff-necked people (D) an unrighteous people
9 God blessed the seventh day and made it holy because (A) He rested on that day from all His A
work (B) Adam gave names to all living creatures on that day (C) it was a Sabbath day (D)
human beings were recreated on that day
10 God called Abraham when he was how many years old (A) 75 years old (B) 90 years old (C) A
100 years old (D) 120 years old
11 In order for the people of Israel to be ready to meet the LORD by the third day at Mount Sinai C
they were (A) not to drink alcohol (B) to wear white garments (C) to wash their garments
everyday (D) not to go near a woman
12 Joseph was put in prison in Egypt by Potiphar because (A) he slept with Potipharrsquos wife (B) he C
was very lazy (C) Potipharrsquos wife lied against Joseph (D) he stole Pharaohrsquos cup
13 Samuels lack of parental responsibility led to (A) The demand for a king in Israel (B) His A
untimely death at Ramah (C) The defeat of the Israelites in battle (D) The anointing of David
as king
14 Solomon attempted to kill Jeroboam because Jeroboam (A) Was more popular than him (B) D
Was not faithful as the officer in charge of labour (C) Did not report what was prophesied
concerning him (D) Was a threat to the throne
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS STUDIES
15 The first person that revealed to Eli the evil that would come to his home was(A) Joel (B) a B
man of God (C) a prophet from Shiloh (D) Samuel
16 The rainbow as the sign of Gods covenant with Noah implies(A) Providence (B) Reconciliation C
(C) mercy (D) Redemption
17 What did Gideon call the altar which he built to the LORD (A) The LORD is merciful (B) The B
LORD is peace (C) Jehovah Jireh (D) The LORD is great
18 What punishment did God give Solomon for his unwisemdash Policies (A) Jeroboam was
empowered by God to conquer him (B) He caused Rezon to demolish the high place which he
built (C) He raised up Hadad the Edo mite as an adversary against him (D) The kingdom was
torn from him and given to his servant D
19 What was Samsons major achievement as Israels leadermdash (A) He suppressed the Philistines
(B) He captured the city of Jericho (C) He saved the Israelites from the Amorites (D) He
secured permanent independence for Israel A
20 When God called Moses to deliver the Israelites he resisted because he could not speak and D
he was told to (A) perform some signs with his rod (B) wait for a sign from God (C) go with
Joshua who would speak for him (D) go with Aaron who would speak for him
21 When Moses struck the rock twice for water instead of speakingmdash to it God said to him that
he (A) would no longer see Him face to face (B) would not bring the Israelites to the promise
land (C)would not see His holiness (D)would roam in the wilderness for thirty years
B
22 When the Israelites left Egypt God did not let them use the shorter route through the land of
the Philistines becausemdash (A) the Philistines were waiting in ambush for them (B) they might
go back if they faced war (C) He wanted to confuse the Egyptian king (D) He wanted them to
suffer and appreciate Him B
23 Why did God accept David who killed Uriah and took his wife but rejected Saul who spared
King Agagmdash (A) David was from the favoured tribe of Judah while Saul was from Benjamin
(B) David was a man after Gods heart while Saul was His enemy (C) David was a singer of
praises while Saul was not (D) David humbled himself when he realized his sin but Saul was stubborn
D
24 And in the last days it shall be God declares that I will pour out my Spirit upon all B
flesh Peter quoted the statement above from the prophecy of (A) Ezekiel B) Joel (C)
Jeremiah (D) Isaiah
25 Am I God to kill and to make alive that this man sends words to me to cure a man of his B
leprosy Prophet Elisha responded to the kings reaction in the statement above by (A)
directing the nation of Israel to pray and fast (B) requesting the leper to come to his house (C)
directing the leper to go to River Jordan (D) asking the leper to offer a sacrifice
26 Behold I am the LORD the God of all flesh is anything too hard for me The statement C
above suggests that God is (A) merciful (B) awesome (C) most powerful (D) not changeable
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS STUDIES
27 Behold 1 am the LORD the God of all flesh is anything too hard for me The statement B
above suggests that God is (A) merciful (B) most powerful (C) awesome (D) not changeable
28 Do you understand what you are reading Philip asked the Ethiopian eunuch the question D
above when he found him reading the book of (A) Hosea (B) Ezekiel (C) Jeremiah (D)
Isaiah
29 My spirit shall not abide in man forever for he is flesh When God made the statement He D
concluded that mans days shall be (A) one hundred years (B) one hundred and fifty years
(C) eighty years (D) one hundred and twenty years
30 Test your servants for ten days let us be given vegetables to eat and water to drink In the C
statement above Daniel was talking to (A) King Darius (B) the chief of the eunuchs (C) the
steward of the chief eunuch (D) King Artaxerxes
31 According to Amos what did the Israelites do after God smote them with blight and mildew A
(A) They still did not return to him (B) They repented of their sins (C) They fasted and prayed
for healing (D) They cried unto the LORD
32 According to Prophet Jeremiah one of the promises of God was that He would give the D
Israelites (A) new priests (B) new commandments (C) kings after His own heart (D) shepherds
after His own heart
33 According to Proverbs a son that is attentive to a fathers instruction will (A) be rich (B) have C
eternal life (C) gain insight (D) be forgiven his sins
34 Consequent upon the murder of Naboth by Ahab and Jezebel God declared that (A) He
would require the blood of Naboth from Ahabrsquos hand (B) Ahabs descendants would never
ascend the throne in Israel (C) dogs would lick Ahabs blood where they had licked Naboth (D)
the sword would not depart from the house of Ahab
C
35 Ezekiel said that when the people of Israel turned away from all their sins they would (A) A
Surely live and not die (B) Be free from attack (C) Lead mankind to God (D) Return from
captivity
36 God had pity on the people of Nineveh because (A) they listened to Jonahs message (B) the C
king punished all the violent people in the land (C) they turned from their evil way (D) they
made sacrifices of sin offering to God
37 Immediately after the contest on Mount Carmel Elijah prayed and God answered him with B
(A) thunder (B) rainfall (C) a whirlwind (D) a heavy storm
38 In addition to the declaration of freedom to the exiles in Babylon King Cyrus ordered for (A) A
free will offering for the house of God in Jerusalem (B) the release of Jewish slaves in the
empire (C) security check on the Jews before departure (D) support from craftsmen in
Babylon
39 Joab and his soldiers entered the city quietly after defeating their enemy because (A) Absalom
and his soldiers were defeated (B) of the shameful death of Absalom (C) the king grieving for
his son (D) the king Was annoyed with them C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS STUDIES
40 Obadiah showed his great reverence for the LORD by (A) Handing over five hundred Baal D
prophets for slaughter (B) Falling on his face before Elijah (C) Hiding Elijah in a cave for two
years (D) Feeding the prophets of the LORD with bread and water
41 Prophet Amos told Israel to hate evil love good and establish justice in the gate so that God C
would (A) heal their diseases (B) give them good leaders (C) be gracious to them (D) multiply
their descendants
42 Prophet Hosea named his second child Not Pitied because God would no more pity the (A)
kings of Judah (B) kings of Israel (C) house of Judah (D) house of Israel
D
43 Prophet Hosea named his second child Not Pitied because God would no more pity the (A) D
kings of Judah (B) kings of Israel (C) house of Judah (D) house of Israel
44 Prophet Isaiah received his vision and call whenmdash (A) King Uzziah was deposed (B) King
Uzziah died (C) King Uzziah began to reign (D) Israel was in Babylonian captivity
B
45 Saul learnt from Samuels spirit that the LORD would (A) give the Philistines into his hands A
(B) afflict him with sickness (C) bless Isaacs future wife (D) pardon his iniquity
46 The destruction of Jerusalem by Nebuchadnezzar was a consequence of (A) Hezekiahs death
(B) Josiahs reforms (C) Israels stubbornness to God (D) Zedekiahs rebellion against Babylon
C
47 The effect that the faith of Shadrach Meshach and Abednego had on King Nebuchadnezzar D
and his subjects was that they (A) Refrained from persecuting the Jews in exile (B) Were
converted (C) Forsook their gods (D) Believed that there was no other god able to deliver
48 The Kingdom of Israel was divided because the (A) kingdom was too large to be administered D
(B) leadership wanted to create more nations (C) followership wanted more nations (D) last
two kings made unwise policies
49 The pronouncement of God on Josiah for being penitent was that (A) God would support him C
to repair the Temple (B) Josiah would conquer all his enemies (C) God would gather him to his
grave in peace (D) Josiah would have a peaceful reign
50 The scroll given to Ezekiel to eat at his call contained (A) Both praises and condemnation (B) B
Words of lamentation and mourning (C) Prescription for Temple worship (D) The expected
type of sacrifice
51 What did Asa do that was right in the eyes of the Lord(A) He removed all the idols of his A
father (B) He killed all the priests of Baal (C) His reign was peaceful (D) He killed all the
Baal worshippers
52 What did the Jews do when Nehemiah told them about his mission in Jerusalem (A) They D
praised God for sending him to rebuild Jerusalem (B) They informed Sanballat and Tobiah
about his plans (C) They were hostile to him and he became discouraged (D) They encouraged
one another to rise up and build the walls
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS STUDIES
53 but should write to them to abstain from the pollutions of idols and from unchastity and C
from what is strangled and from blood The statement above was made at the Council of
Jerusalem by (A) Philip (B) Simon (C) James (D) Peter
54 His office let another take The statement above refers to (A) Ananias (B) Judas Iscariot B
(C) Barnabas (D) John Mark
55 Truly I say to you not even In Israel have I found such faith The statement above by D
Jesus was made when He healed the (A) leper (B) blind man (C) demoniac (D) centurions
servant
56 Depart from me for I am a sinful man O Lord This statement was uttered by Peter at C
the (A) last supper (B) garden of Gethsemane (C) call of the disciples (D) transfiguration
57 If I tell you you will not believe and if I ask you you will not answer Jesus statement B
above was in response to a request by (A) King Herod (B) the chief priests and scribes (C)
Pontius Pilate (D) the Pharisees and Sadducees
58 If you are the Son of God throw yourself down from here for it is written He will give his A
angels charge of youhellip According to Luke the statement above was made by Satan during
Jesus(A) third temptation (B) crucifixion (C) Transfiguration (D) second temptation
59 Teacher do you not care if we perish Where was Jesus Christ when this question was D
asked (A) On the sea walking (B) In the wilderness (C) On the Mount of Olive (D) In the
ship asleep
60 Truly I say to you today you will be with me in paradise Jesus made the statement D
above to one of the criminals because he (A) respected Him (B) praised Him (C) rebuked his
partner (D) was repentant
61 Unbind him and let him go The statement was made by Jesus when (A) He raised to life A
the dead Lazarus (B) He healed the son of the widow at Nain (C) He healed the centurions
servant (D) a boy bound by Satan was brought to Him
62 Unless you are circumcised according to the custom of Moses you cannot be saved The D
statement above by some men from Judea necessitated the convening of the (A) church in
Jerusalem (B) council of elders (C) church in Judea (D) council in Jerusalem
63 You son of the devil you enemy of all righteousness full of all deceit and villainy This A
statement of Paul was addressed to (A) Elymas the magician (B) Paulus the proconsul (C)
Simon the Magician (D) Demetrius the silversmith
64 lsquo As long as I am in the world I am the light of the worldrsquo Jesus made the statement above A
on the occasion of (A) healing the man born blind (B) raising Lazarus from the dead (C)
restoring sight to blind Bartimaeus (D) walking on the sea before day break
65 According to Luke the Last Supper took place (A) on Mount Olive (B) In Jerusalem (C) in B
Jordan (D) in Bethlehem
66 According to Luke when Moses and Elijah appeared during the transfiguration they spoke of A
Jesusrsquo (A) departure (C) resurrection (B) second coming (D) trials
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS STUDIES
67 According to Matthew the stone on the tomb of Jesus was removed by (A) an angel (C) Mary A
Magdalene (B) a Roman soldier (D) Peter and John
68 According to Romans salvation is for those who (A) call upon the name of the Lord (B) are B
true worshippers of God (C) work in the Lords vineyard (D) Are persecuted for righteousness
69 According to the Gospel of John Jesus is the true vine while the vinedresser is (A) the Holy B
Spirit (B) His father (C) the gardener (D) His mother
70 And they arrested them and put them in custody until the morrow for it was already D
evening In the statement above the imprisoned persons were (A) Paul and John Mark (B)
Peter and Barnabas (C) Peter and Paul (D) Paul and Barnabas
71 Angel Gabriel told Zachariah that he would become dumb until John was born because he (A) D
looked down on the Angel (B) was advanced in age (C) disagreed with Elizabeth his wife (D)
did not believe Gods words
72 Following the death of Stephen the only group of believers not scattered by the great B
persecution was the (A) deacons (B) apostles (C) prophets (D) disciples
73 Following the resurrection of Jesus the Chief Priest and elders took counsel and bribed the A
guards to (A) say that the disciples stole the body of Jesus (B) keep the information away
from His disciples (C) keep the matter among themselves (D) report the matter immediately
to the rulers
74 In His Sermon on the Mount Jesus said that the poor in spirit are blessed for they would (A) C
be satisfied (B) be comforted on the last day (C) inherit the kingdom of heaven (D) inherit
the earth
75 In Luke at the Last Supper Jesus revealed His (A) resurrection (B) imminent sufferings (C) C
love for His disciples (D) ascension
76 In the country of the Gerasenes Jesus healed the (A) man possessed of demons (B) paralytic A
at the pool (C) leper (D) blind man
77 In the mission of the seventy Jesus told them that they were being sent out as sheep among D
wolves implying that they would (A) be sent to live among wolves (B) be as meek as sheep
(C) be properly equipped for the mission (D) encounter difficulties
78 In the story of the Transfiguration Moses and Elijah represented the (A) glory of God (B) old C
Testament saints (C) Law and the prophets (D) end of the age
79 Jesus raised to life the son of the widow of Nain because He (A) wanted the whole of Judea to C
know about him (B) wanted to show that He was a great prophet (C) had compassion on the
mother (D) loved the young man that died
80 Jesus reply to the devils first temptation of Him was _ (A) Him only shall you serve (B)
Man shall not live by bread alone (C) You shall not tempt the Lord your God (D)
You shall worship the Lord your God B
81 Jesus told the parable of the lost sheep in order to illustrate that (A) every believer ought to D
rejoice with those who rejoice (B) no person can hide from God (C) Gods love is unlimited
(D) there is joy in heaven over a sinner who repents
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS STUDIES
82 Jesus was at the wedding in Cana of Galilee because (A) He wanted to demonstrate His power B
(B) He was invited to the ceremony (C) the groom was His relation (D) the groom ran out of
wine
83 Jesus was tempted by the devil so as to (A) fulfill all righteousness (B) show His power over C
forces of nature (C) show that no one is above temptation (D) test the devils power
84 The Hebrew word Rabboni means (A) disciple (B) priest (C) master (D) Teacher D
85 The impact of Jesus miracle of turning water into wine was that the (A) servants were C
astonished (B) master of ceremony believed (C) disciples believed more in Him (D) people
glorified God
86 Where were the disciples of Jesus when He had a conversation with the Samaritan B
woman(A) They had gone to the city to preach the gospel (B) They had gone to the city to
buy food (C) They had gone to the mountain to pray (D) They had gone to wait for Him
87 According to Ephesians children who obey their parents in the Lord will (A) be happy (B) go C
to heaven (C) have long life (D) be great
88 According to Peter God shows no partiality but in every nation anyone who fears Him is (A) B
diligent before Him (B) acceptable to Him (C) holy before Him (D) righteous before Him
89 According to Romans the new life is comparable to Jesus (A) resurrection (B) ministry (C) A
ascension (D) crucifixion
90 According to Thessalonians the day of the Lord will not come unless the (A) living die first C
(B) scoffers come first (C) dead rise first (D) rebellion comes first
91 Busy bodies and those living in idleness in the church at Thessalonica were admonished to (A)
pray for those in authority for peace (B) do their work in quietness and earn a living (C) appeal
to those in authority to create jobs (D) endure persecution from their masters
B
92 In his teaching on partiality James declares that mercy triumphs over (A) judgment (B) A
righteousness (C) grace (D) faith
93 In Pauls arrangement of the spiritual gifts in Corinthians the last is (A) the utterance of B
wisdom (B) interpretation of tongues (C) gifts of healing (D) various kinds of tongues
94 In Romans Paul condemned sin taking over mortal bodies in the new life as instruments of B
69 In recent years Nigerian economy has been registering a spectacular growth inhelliphellip C
Sector in the last ten years (A) agriculture (B) education (C) telecommunication (D)
transport (E) distribution
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
ECONOMICS
70 Nigeria being a developing African country in the sub-Sahara has put together a C
development blue-print called Vision 202020 which can ensure that the country becomes
(A) one of the 20 developed countries by the year 2020 (B) an African economic lsquoTigerrsquo
by the year 2020 (C) one of the 20 largest economies in the world by the year 2020
(D) one of the 20 largest economies in sub-Saharan Africa by the year 2020 (E) one of
the 20 largest economies in the developing world by the year 2020
71 The major objective of economic growth is to (A) Redistribute income and other benefit D
of growth (B) Equalize opportunity for education and employment (C) Increase
aggregate expenditure on goods and services (D) Increase the real per capita income (E)
Increase access to education
72 The most common index used for measuring development is (A) The level of literacy (B) B
Per capita income (C) Nutritional levels (D) Population growth rate (E) International
development index
73 Which is NOT a direct effort to increase agricultural production in Nigeria (A) Operation B
Feed the Nation (B) Nigerian Youth Service Corps (C) Increased loans to farmers and
cooperatives (D) Research in Agriculture and extension services (E) Mechanization of
agriculture
74 Which of the following sectors of the economy is estimated to be the largest employer of B
labour in the country (A) Construction (B) Agriculture (C) Distribution (D) Mining and
petroleum (E) Transport and communications
75 Industries contribute to national economic development because they (A) Utilize local B
raw material (B) Employ an increasing number of labour (C) Provide recreational
facilities (D) Use modern machines which replace human labour (E) All of the above
76 Infant industries are (A) Baby food and baby clothing factories (B) Those which are D
introducing new products (C) Cases of arrested development (D) Industries temporarily
protected by tariffs barriers until mature enough to compete on world markets (E)
Industries that are allowed to remain permanent cases of adolescence
77 The export-promotion strategy is aimed at producing (A) Consumer goods originally C
imported (B) Machinery for industries (C) More goods for exports (D) More goods for
domestic consumption (E) Increasing export of goods needed in developed countries
78 Which of the following is NOT an advantage of localization of industries (A) Reaping of E
external economies (B) Development of a pool of skilled labour for the industry (C)
Development of subsidiary industries (D) Development of organized markets (E) Growth
of conurbations
79 The crucial factors which determines the location of petroleum refineries in Nigeria are B
availability of raw materials and (A) Capital (B) Political consideration (C) Nearness to
source of power (D) Labour (E) Availability of seaports
80 The petroleum industry in Nigeria is (A) The sole source of the nationrsquos revenue (B) The C
oldest industry in the country (C) The mainstay of the economy (D) A factor in the
decline in the nationrsquos foreign reserves (E) In the hand of NNPC
81 In a limited liability company the greatest risk is borne by (A) Shareholders debentures C
(B) Company executives (C) Ordinary shareholders (D) Preference shareholders (E)
Board of directors
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
ECONOMICS
82 In a public company shares are (A) Sold to one person only (B) Distributed freely (C) C
Advertised to members of the public for subscription (D) Disposed off by the Chief
Executive (E) none of the above
83 The advantage of the sole proprietorship is as follows (A) It is always successful (B) C
Continuity is no problem (C) Control and supervision is under one man (D) Funds are
easy to obtain (E) Inter-generational equity is assured
84 The maximum number of shareholders for a limited liability company is (A) Twenty (B) D
Seven (C) Five (D) Infinite (E) Limited to the number of individuals that are interested
85 Population density refers to (A) Densely populated urban centres (B) The total area D
divided by the total population (C) Densely populated rural areas (D) The total
population divided by the total area (E) All of the above
86 To calculate the annual natural growth rate of a countryrsquos population one has to know D
the countryrsquos annual birth rate and (A) The size of that country (B) The rate of
immigration into that country (C) The population census of that country (D) The annual
death rate (E) The gross domestic product (GDP) of the country
87 Which of the following is not true of the theory of optimum population A It is possible B
for a densely populated country to be under-populated if it has insufficient labour to
make the most effective use of its other factors B The quantity of labour which
combines with other factors gives the minimum output is known as optimum population
C The quantity of labour which combined with the other factors gives the maximum
output is known as optimum population D The test of over-population is whether it
exceeds the optimum E It is possible for a thinly populated country to be over-
populated if it has a poor supply of other factors
88 Which of the following is the standard concept of measuring and analyzing population E
growth (A) The rate of natural increase (B) The net migration rate (C) The rate of
population increase (D) The fertility rate (E) All of the above
89 Which of these would NOT increase the population of a country (A) Increase in death A
rate (B) Decrease in birth rate (C) Emigration (D) Migration (E) Better medical facilities
90 An improvement in the Nigeriarsquos terms of trade should (A) Lead to a fall in cost of her A
imports in terms of what she must sacrifice to obtain them (B) Make made-in-Nigeria
goods cheaper to buy (C) Increase Nigeriarsquos domestic output of commodities (D) Lead to
an increase in her exchange rates (E) Lead to an increase in Nigeriarsquos exports of
petroleum
91 By lsquotrade by barterrsquo we mean (A) Trade done by people in the villages (B) Exchange of D
goods for money (C) International trade (D) Exchange of goods for goods (E) The trade
of the Middle Ages
92 Gains from trade depends on (A) Comparative advantage (B) Absolute advantage (C) A
Distributive cost advantage (D) Absolute cost advantage (E) None of the above
93 International and inter-regional trade differ primarily because (A) Comparative B
advantage is relevant to the former but not to the latter (B) Products flow easily within
regions of a country (C) There are different resource supplies among countries of the
world (D) Of regulations from GATT (E) None of the above
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
ECONOMICS
94 Surplus in the balance of payments lead to (A) Inflation or increasing prices generally (B) B
Increase in foreign reserves (C) Decrease in foreign reserves (D) Government budget
surplus (E) None of the above
95 The expression lsquoTerms of Tradersquo is used to describe (A) The quality of exports (B) The D
direction of foreign trade (C) Terms of purchase on deferred payment basis (D) The rate
at which exports exchange for imports (E) Import licensing
96 The quantity of a currency that exchanges for a unit of another currency is called its (A) C
exchange value (B) barter value (C) exchange rate (D) market price (E) unit price
97 Under a system of freely floating exchange rates an increase in the international value of B
a countryrsquos currency will cause (A) its exports to rise (B) its imports to rise (C) gold to
flow into that country (D) its currency to be in surplus (E) devaluation
98 When a currency loses its value due to a government action to fix the quantity of the A
currency that exchanges for another currency there is (A) devaluation (B)
depreciation (C) inflation (D) fiscal deficit (E) none of the above
99 Which of the following items in the Balance of Payments Account is an invisible D
transaction (A) Imports of cars (B) Export of cocoa (C) Export of crude petroleum (D)
Tourism (E) Import of building materials
100 A major trading problems facing ECOWAS is (A) The absence of common currency (B) A
Political instability (C) High poverty level (D) Non-implementation of decisions (E)
Trade-related political crisis in Ivory coast
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
USE OF ENGLISH
1
Read the passages below and answer the questions that follow
PASSAGE AEvery discernible observer could foresee the crisis which engulfed the Edo Houselast week Only a few days before reports were rife about the AC reaching out tosome PDP legislators to cross-carpet The intention being to gain a majority andthen assume the Speakership with the least constraint Zakawanu Garuba the thenSpeaker retorted with a fiat threatening to declare vacant the seat of any defectorThis in spite of the constitutional support for such action as evidenced forexample by the crisis that has torn the PDP apart in Edo State The party has twofactional chairmen in the state even though one is more vociferousThe desperate attempt by Garuba to cling to the Speakerrsquos chair is condemnable Hewas not being recalled from the legislature and so he still has his seat as a floormember As speaker he was only first among equals The Speakership is not hisbirthright With the defection of one PDP lawmaker to the AC the legislaturereconvened hours after the bloodbath and elected a protem Speaker whileimpeaching and suspending Garuba and a few others They are to be probed
(Adapted from The Guardian Thursday March 4 2011 p14)
1 Why did AC woo PDP membersA they are few in numberB they want speakership without stressC PDP members are faithfulD The House is tough
2 The legislators impeachedA GarubaB PDP lawmakersC Garuba and some PDP lawmakersD Garuba and some lawmwkers
3 According to the passage the constitution supportsA The speakerB DefectingC Edo StateD Factional chairmen
4 The lawmakers reconvenedA After the defection of a PDP memberB After the bloodbathC After suspending the SpeakerD After electing a protem Speaker
B
A
D
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
USE OF ENGLISH
2
5 At the end what happened to GarubaA He was vindicatedB He was indictedC He was honouredD He was humiliated
6 To cross-carpet as used in the passage means toA change partyB renew membership of a partyC change onersquos carpetD buy new carpet
7 The crisis in the Edo State House of Assembly could be predicted byA The lawmakersB Edo State indigenesC The protem SpeakerD All conscious observers
B
C
A
PASSAGE B
Nigeria has a troubled power sector which is however undergoing reforms thathopefully should usher in era of private sector dominance in terms of ownershipand management of generation and distribution In this transitory phase it is crucialto lay a foundation for local sourcing of vital inputs and make it the norm for theindustry That is the only way to prevent a replication of the trend in the oil and gassub-sector where capital flight is as much as $ 16 billion per annum as revealed bythe Petroleum Technology Development FundThe PHCN could legitimately insist on quality and standards in its procurement ofequipment and materials but what is playing out is an institutional orientationevinced in several pursuits of the PHCN that are contemptuous of Nigeriarsquosaspiration for local content development In 1998 the defunct National ElectricPower Authority defied a directive by the then Minister of Power and steel AlhajiBashir Dalhatu to source its costable components from Nigerian foundries some ofwhich are of high standards Actuated by a realization of idle capacity in thefoundries and the need to conserve foreign exchange the Minister appliedappropriate pressure on the management of NEPA but found his efforts frustratedThe acute shortage or inefficiency in the metering programme originated from thefact that the only local manufacturer then the Federal Government-ownedelectricity Meter Company in Zaria Kaduna State established in 1976 but sold toDantata Investments Limited in December 2002 is not performing(Adapted from The Punch Wednesday May 25 2011 Pg 18)
8 Why is there shortage of meterA Non-performance of PHCNB Non-performance of NEPAC Non-performance of the Federal Government-owned electricity
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
USE OF ENGLISH
3
Meter CompanyD Non-performance of Dantata Investment Ltd
9 According to the passage the solution to the problem in the power sector lies inA Sourcing for materials locallyB Getting costable componentsC Obeying the ministerD Getting $ 16 billion per annum
10 From the passage it is clear thatA There is money in the countryB There is shortage of electricity meterC NEPA is better than PHCND NEPA was formed in 1998
11 Which of these is not true of the power sectorA There is only one local manufacturer of electricity meterB The power sector is undergoing reformsC The problem of the power sector cannot be solvedD there was procurement of equipment and materials
12 Which of these is undergoing reformsA NEPAB PHCNC NigeriaD The power sector
13 A suitable title for this passage isA Nigeria and her problemsB NEPA versus PHCNC Electricity meterD Problems in the power sector
A
B
C
D
D
Choose the option that best completes the gap14 University students helliphelliphelliphelliphellipbehave well (A) can (B) should (C) may (D)
mustB
15 Gloria helliphelliphelliphellip have finished the project two days ago (A) must (B) may (C)can (D) supposed to
A
16 You are Goodluck (A) are you (B) arenrsquot you (C) arersquont you (D) donrsquotyou
B
17 He helliphelliphelliphelliphellip not come now (A) needs (B) needed (C) need (D) will need C18 Janet to know that we are all here (A) suppose (B) supposes (C) is
supposed (D) should supposeC
19 Let it be that there was no king in Ayegun (A)know (B) knew (C) known(D) knows
C
20 We shall see you soon (A) shall we (B) shanrsquot we (C) shouldnrsquot we (D)should we
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
USE OF ENGLISH
4
21 Neither of the presidential candidates suitable (A) are (B) is (C) is been(D) are been suitable
B
22 Ten miles ____ a great distance (A) is (B) are (C) is been A23 If I were the president I ask for the money (A) will (B) should (C) would
(D) canC
24 I will see you after I spoken with your supervisor (A) might have (B) have(C) will have (D) would have
B
25 ldquoYou - now see the directorrdquo the secretary told the visitors (A) can (B)may (C) should (D) would
B
26 She isnrsquot Gloria (A) is she (B) isnrsquot she (C) arenrsquot she (D) doesnrsquot she A27 We have a bus (A) didnrsquot we (B) havenrsquot we (C) doesnrsquot we (D) hasnrsquot
weB
28 I knew David let us down (A) may (B) will (C) might (D) can C29 You helliphelliphellip me last week (A) ought to see (B) ought to had seen (C) ought to
have seen (D) had to have seenC
30 Twenty dollars ___ enough for my lunch (A) are (B) is (c ) are just B31 The pests ____ our farm every year (A) invade (B) invades (c ) has invades A32 If I were the Governor I ask for the project (A) will (B) should (C) would
(D) canC
33 When helliphellip the Cleric today (A) doesarrives (B) doesarrived (C)doesarrive (D) do arrive
C
34 We shall see you soon (A) shall we (B) shanrsquot we (C) shouldnrsquot we (D)should we
B
35 You missed the match (A) donrsquot you (B) didnrsquot you (C) hadnrsquot you (D)doesnrsquot you
B
36 Walk the dog right now (A) walknrsquot you (B) will you (C)shall you(D)would you
B
37 I am a student (A) Irsquom I (B) arenrsquot I (C) isnrsquot I (D) wouldnrsquot I BPick out the oddwrong expression in each of the following
38 (A) I heard his supposed apology (B) I heard his unconvincing apology (C) Iheard his suppose apology (D) I heard he was supposed apology
D
39 (A) I suppose you know the way (B) I am supposed you know the way (C) Isuppose he knows the way (D) They suppose he knows the way
B
40 (A) I travel next week (B) I will travel next week (C) I suppose to travelnext week (D) I should travel next week
C41 (A) Having discovered the error he apologized (B) Having discovered the
error the apology was tendered (C) Having known the error he apologised(D) Having found out the error he tendered an apology B
42 (A) The job has been done (B) The job has been being done (C) They havedone the job (D) They can have done the job
D
43 (A) She must finish the project in two days (B) She must finish the project twodays ago (C) She must have finished the project two days ago (D) She ought tohave finished the project two days ago
B
44 (A) If I went in there I would beat the security officer (B) If I go in there Iwould beat the security officer (C) If I go in there I will beat the securityofficer (D) If I go in there I can beat the security officer
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
USE OF ENGLISH
5
Choose the option that most appropriately expresses the idea in theunderlined expression
45 My friendrsquos parentrsquos are magnanimous (A) rich and popular (B) sociable andlovable (C) kind and generous (D) wicked and stingy
C
46 My friend has an overbearing attitude toward me (A) patient (B) impatient(C) opinionated and domineering (D) considerate and respectful
C
47 There are a number of makeshift buildings in town (A) modern buildings (B)old fashion buildings (C) temporary buildings (D) permanent buildings
C
48 Post UME is a hurdle to cross (A) a necessary and simple exam to pass (B) anunnecessary and difficult exam to pass (C) an unnecessary but simple exam topass (D) a necessary and challenging exam to pass
D
49 His contribution to the project is invaluable (A) extremely useful (B) of novalue (C) of little value (D) can not be valued
A
50 That was a dawn-to-earth approach (A) poor (B) ordinary (C) practical (D)immodest
B
51 Concerning my admission I have to cross my fingers (A) wait and hope for thebest (B) wait in frustration (C) wait confidently (D) take some risk
A
52 My father is indifferent to my choice of University (A) supports (B) opposes(C) not decided (D) not concerned
D
53 We need an ad hoc arrangement towards the project (A) intelligent (B)advanced (C) permanent (D) temporary
D
54 The studentrsquos reply to the lecturer betrayed his rudeness (A) covered (B)showed (C) reduced (D) increased
C
55 His conduct in the last elections was above board (A) arrogant (B) honest (C)above average (D) excellent
C
56 That was a dispassionate decision (A) bias (B) personal (C) unaffected (D)ineffective
C
57 On the matter of worship some sit on the fence (A) go to the extreme (B) aredecisive (C) are fanatics (D) are undecided
D
Choose the option that is nearest in meaning to the word underlined58 In this matter we must be prepared to tolerate human frailty (A)
75 Her health deteriorated rapidly (A) worsened (B) improved (C) stagnated (D)declined
B
Which of the following sentences is correct76 (A) One should mind his business (B) One should mind onersquos business (C) One
should mind her businessB
77 (A) This case is between you and I (B) This case is between you and me (C)This case is between the two both of us
B
78 (A) With them around we have a great problem on our hands (B) With themaround we have a great problem on our hand (C) With them around wehave a great problem on hand
A
79 (A) The dog wagged itrsquos tail (B) The dog wagged its tail (C) The dog waggeditsrsquo tail
B
80 (A) A ten year old boy is missing (B) A ten-year-old boy is missing (C) A tenyear-old boy is missing
B
81 Choose the option that sounds the same with two (A) tool (B) too (C) tow (D)to
B
82 Choose the option that sounds the same with bear (A) bare (B) beer (C)bared (D) beard
B
83 Choose the option that sounds the same with the given word Key (A) kiss(B) quay (C) keyed (D) kissed
B
Choose the word that is correctly spelled84 (A) acomodation (B) accommodation (C) accomodation (D) acommodation B85 (A) embarrassment (B) embarassment (C) embarrasment (D) embarasment A86 (A) horrific (B) horific (C) horiffic (D) horriffic A87 As soon as Joy arrived she started looking for food The underlined
expression is an ----------- (A) adverbial phrase of reason (B) adverbial clauseof reason (C) adverbial phrase of time (D) adverbial clause of time
D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
USE OF ENGLISH
7
88 My friend a brilliant lecturer won many prizes The underlined expression isa(n) (A) adjectival clause (B) relative clause (C) appositive phrase (D)subject of lsquowonrsquo
C
89 I passed very well because I studied hard The underlined expression is a (A)relative clause introducer (B) linking verb (C) adverb of reason (D)subordinating conjunction
D
90 Bello and I love each other (A) preposition (B) reciprocal pronoun (C) nounphrase (D) adjectival phrase
B
91 I prefer writing to acting The underlined expressions is a(n) -------- (A) verb(B) participle (C) gerund (D) object
C
92 Having finished my assignment I started watching television The underlinedexpression is a(n) -------- (A) infinitive clause (B) gerund (C) participialphrase (D) noun clause
C
93 If you leave early yoursquoll meet Sola at home The underlined expression is a ----------- (A) nominal clause (B) verbal clause (C) conditional clause (D)adjectival clause
C
94 Wounded by a lion the hunter trudged home The underlined expression is a-----------(A) nominal clause (B) verbal clause (C) participial clause (D)adjectival clause
C
95 Irsquom proud of you The underlined expression functions as(A) prepositionalcomplement (B) adjectival complement (C) subject complement (D) verbalcomplement
B
96 A noun phrase lacks one of the following (A) noun (B) verb (C) adjective (D)adverb
B
97 Eve gave Adam an apple An apple in the sentence functions as------------(A)subject of the verb lsquogaversquo (B) direct object of the verb (C) indirect object ofthe verb (D) object complement
B
98 I wonder if you know where he lives This sentence is a(n) (A) thoughtfulstatement (B) polite command (C) indirect question (D) subtle exclamation
A
99 An example of gradable adjectives is hellip (A) each (B) beautiful (C) dead (D)live
B
100 A clause differs from a phrase because a clause contains helliphelliphellip (A) a largernumber of words (B) a fewer number of words (C) a finite verb (D) a non-finite verb
C
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Information
the study of accounting leads to a challenging career (D) accounting provides gross profit accounting is useful in making decisions (B) accounting plays an important role in a society (C)
Themost importantreasonfor studying accounting is that (A) theinformation providedby A 8
71 A partnership on admitting a new member revalued the business land and building from N30 C
000 to N70 000 The difference of N40 000 should be (A) credited to land and building account
(B) debited to asset revaluation account (C) credited to asset revaluation account (D) credited
to profit and loss appropriate account
72 Adamu Babaji and Chukwu are in a partnership and they share profit and losses on ratio 321 D
Their respective capitals are N20000 N15000 N5000 on which they are entitled to interest
at 5 per annum The profit for the year before charging interest on capital amounts to
N5500 Calculate the profit for Adamu (A) N583 (B) N1000 (C) N1167 (D) N1750
73 In a partnership business the net profit serves as opening figure for (A) trading account D
(B) profit and loss account (C) current account (D) appropriation account
74 In the absence of a partnership agreement profits and losses are shared (A) in the ratio of B
capital (B) equally (C) in the ratio of drawings (D) according to services rendered
5
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
FINANCIAL ACCOUNTING
75 Interest on a partners drawings is debited to the (A) partners current account and credited to A the profit and loss appropriate account (B) profit and loss appropriation account and credited
to the partners current account (C) profit and loss account and credited to the partners
account (D) partners current account and credited to the profit and loss account
76 Partnersrsquo share of profit is credited to (a) a partnerrsquos current account (b) a partnerrsquos capital A
account (c) the profit and loss account (d) the profit and loss appropriation account
77 Which of the following is a strong feature of partnership (A) The life of the partnership is B
generally assumed to be indefinite (B) The owners are liable personally for all debts of the
business The transfer of ownership interest is frequent and easy to accomplish (D) The
partnership is complex to form because of many legal and reporting requirements
78 A bond acknowledging a loan to a company under the companyrsquos seal bearing a fixed rate of D
interest is known as (A) certificate (B) agreement (C) bank loan (D) debenture
79 Alabede (Nig) Limited issued 50000 ordinary shares if 1 each at a market value of N250 each C
The share premium is (A) N125000 (B) N100000 (C) N75000 (D) N50000
80 All but one of the following are examples of capital reserves (A) Share premium (B) D
99 Which of the following is the most critical factor of industrial location in modern world (A) Raw B
materials (B) Market (C) Transportation (D) Capital
100 Which of the following represent an urban- rural migration (A) a students from the village C
school gains admission to the university in the town (B) Moving to the urban centre for
medical services (C) Traveling from Lagos to the village on retirement (D) A civil servants gets
transferred from one town to another
6
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
GOVERNMENT
1
1 A key characteristic of the civil service is (A) Merit system (B) Patriotism (C) Quota system(D) Transparency
A
2 A major cause of inefficiency in public corporations is (A) inadequate patronage by membersof the public (B) absence of an enabling Act or law (C) political interference (D)competition from private firms
C
3 A major distinction between public corporations and private companies is that (A) Publiccorporations provide important services (B) Public corporations are large organizations (C)Public corporations are financed and controlled by government (D) Public corporations arenot involved in production of tangible goods
C
4 A primary agency of political socialization is (A) the government B the family C the massmedia D the School
B
5 A process that seeks to transfer ownership and control of public corporations to privateindividuals or organizations is called (A) Indigenization (B) Commercialization (C)Privatization (D) Acquisition
C
6 Adult male suffrage means that (A) All men who pay tax can vote (B) All adult males canvote (C) All men can vote (D) All adults can vote B
7 All of the following are obligations of citizens except (A) Obedience to laws (B) Voting (C)Giving alms to beggars (D) Payment of taxes
C
8 An electoral district is (A) A local government area (B) A ward (C) A polling booth (D) Aconstituency
D
9 Fascism was practiced in Italy under (A) Benito Masollini (B) Benito Mubarak (C) BenitoMussolini (D) Benito Mandela
C
10 Governmental powers are _________ in the US presidential system (A) absolutely separated(B)fused (C) absolutely fused (D) separated D
11 In a democracy franchise is limited by (A) Age (B) Sex (C) Wealth (D) Education A
12 In the civil service anonymity means that civil servants must (A) Not receive the credit orblame for any good (B) Serve any government impartially (C) Avoid nepotism andfavouritism (D) Be politically neutral
A
13 In which of the following set of countries is a dominant two-party system operated (A)Nigeria and Ghana (B) The United States and the United Kingdom (C) France and Germany(D) India and China
B
14 One of the advantages of direct election is that (A) it is too expensive and difficult to conduct(B) illiterates vote intelligently for their leaders (C) it makes representatives accountable tothe electors (D) it offers an opportunity to the electorate to demand for money
C
15 One of the following is not a feature of a modern state (A) Territorial landmass (B) Populationof People (C) Defined Territory (D) Sovereignty
A
16 One of the following is not a source of constitution (A) Customs and conventions (B) civilservice regulations (C) historical documents (D) judicial precedents
B
17 One of the objectives of a multiparty system is to (A) Eliminate corruption (B) Preventrigging (C) Provide alternatives (D) Avoid ethnicity
C
18 Political sovereignty lies with (A) Head of State (B) Head of Government (C) the Parliament(D) the electorate
D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
GOVERNMENT
2
19 Public corporations are established principally to (A) compete with private firms (B) Raiserevenue for the government (C) provide essential services for the public (D) Promote publicaccountability
C
20 Public opinion helps a government to (A) Monitor its socio-cultural policy (B) Monitor theeconomic situation in the country (C) Punish opposition to its policies (D) Develop thecountry in line with the peoplersquos aspirations
D
21 Roles that are expected to be performed by an individual in a country are (A) Elections (B)Duties (C) Rights (D) Services
B
22 Separation of powers denotes __________________ (A) Separation of governmental powersbut not separation of persons (B) Separation of governmental powers and Separation ofpersons (C) Separation of persons only (D) Separation of powers of government only
B
23 The assent of the President is required to convert aan ____ to law (A) Bill (B) Edict (C)Proclamation (D) Decree A
24 The branch of Government that sets agenda for other organs is known as (A) the bureaucracy(B) the legislature (C) the executive (D) the mass media
B
25 The capitalist economy is dictated by (A) Government economic blueprint (B) Consumersrsquorequirements (C) Diminishing returns (D) the forces of demand and supply
D
26 The central Legislative body in Britain is referred to as --------------------------- (A) NationalAssembly (B) Knesset (C) Parliament (D) Congress
C
27 The chairman of the committee that reviewed the 1988 civil service commission was (A)Chief PC Asiodu (B) Chief Edwin Clerk (C) Chief Allison Ayida (D) Chief Simeon Adebo
C
28 The highest grade in the civil service is known as (A) Executive cadre (B) Administrative cadre(C) Technical cadre (D) Clerical cadre
B
29 The law of libel limits a citizenrsquos right to freedom of (A) Association (B) Expression (C)Worship (D) Movement
B
30 The major advantage of the secret ballot is that (A) It ensures the anonymity of each voter(B) It is faster than other systems (C) Nobody can be prevented from voting (D) It extendsthe franchise to all adults
A
31 The permanent executive includes (A) Civil servants and not public servants (B) Civil servantsand politicians (C) all career officers that serve any government in power (D) elected andappointed politicians
C
32 The pressure group that resorts to unconventional methods to achieve its objectives is called(A) Institutional group (B) Interest group (C) Promotional group (D) Anomic group
D
33 The three fundamental rights of citizens are (A) Life liberty and property (B) Salvationproperty freedom of thought (C) Employment property and social security (D) Freeeducation employment and property
A
34 When a constitution is not difficult to amend it is said to be (A) Rigid (B) Systematic (C)Flexible (D) Federal
C
35 Which of the following best describes a sovereign state (A) a member of the African Union(B) Freedom from economic control (C) Geographical contiguity (D) Military political and
economic independence
D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
GOVERNMENT
3
36 Which of these is an element of state power (A) Geographical location population ampeconomic resources (B) Geographical location elite interests amp economic resources (C)Geographical location ethnicity amp economic resources (D) Geographical location politicalcrisis amp economic resources
A
37 Which of these is not a method of election (A) Simple majority (B) Proportionalrepresentation (C) Primary election (D) Co-option
D
38 ___________ plays rule adjudication role in Nigeria (A) The Civil Service (B) The Legislature(C) The Executive (D) The Judiciary
D
39 A two-party system of government is one in which (A) only one party performs multipartyfunctions (B) the elite dominate political parties (C) only few parties are allowed to operateby law (D) There are two major parties and other minor parties
D
40 An important agency for social control in the Igbo traditional society was the (A) Age-grade(B) Ozo-title holders (C) Council of Chiefs (D) Assembly of lineage heads
A
41 Educated elites in Nigeria did not like the system of indirect rule because it (A) Did not makeprovisions for them (B) Was exploitative and cumbersome (C) Made traditional rulers toopowerful (D) Was undemocratic and oppressive
C
42 Federalism in Nigeria is best seen as a way of promoting (a)Rapid economic development (B)unity in diversity (C) even national development (D) democracy
B
43 In Nigeria the civil service was first regionalized by the (A) Independence constitution (B)Richard constitution (C) Clifford constitution (D) Lyttleton constitution B
44 In the Hausa pre-colonial political system sovereignty was located in the (A) Alkali (B) Emir(C) Waziri (D) Galadima
B
45 In the pre-Colonial HausaFulani system the appointment of an Emir in the caliphate wasapproved by (A) Sultan of Sokoto and the Emir of Gwandu (B) Galadima and the Waziri (C)Sardauna of Sokoto and the Alkali (D) Sheu of Bornu and the Galadima
A
46 Nationalist activities in British West Africa increased after the second World War because (A)Of the expulsion of Kwane Nkrumah from Britain (B) Of the return of the educated elite fromabroad (C) Prices of commodities fell below expectation (D) Africans were nominated to theexecutive council
B47 Nigeria started to operate a real federal structure with the introduction of the (A) 1922 Clifford
constitution (B) 1946 Richard constitution (C) 1953 London conference (D) 1954 Lyteltonconstitution
49 One of the fundamental changes recommended by Adedotun Philips commission is (A)Frequent movement of staff (B) Standardization (C) Professionalization (D) Stagnation
C
50 One of the fundamental reversals made by the commission that reviewed the 1988 reform ofthe civil service was (A) Change of Director General to Permanent Secretaries (B) Changefrom Permanent Secretary to Director General (C) Change from Director General toPermanent Administrators (D) Permanent Professionals
A
51 The helliphelliphellipLocal government reforms recognized local government as the third tier ofgovernment (A) 1963 (B) 1976 (C) 1988 (D) 1989
B
52 The breakdown of the Macpherson constitution was partly caused by the crisis within the (A)NCNC (B) AG (C) NPC (D) NNDP
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
GOVERNMENT
4
53 The First Executive president of Nigeria was (A) Dr Nnamdi Azikiwe (B) Sir Abubakar TafawaBalewa (C) General Yakubu Gowon (D) Alhaji Sheu Shagari
D
54 The first military coup in Nigeria took place on mdash (A) July 15 1966 (B) July 27 1967 (C)January 15 1966 (D) January 13 1966 C
55 The first three political parties to be registered in the Fourth Republic were (A) ACN ANPPand PDP (B) AD APP and PDP (C) PPA PDP CAN (D) APGA CAN and PDPB B
56 The imposition of unitary form of administration by General Ironsi in 1966 led to (A) Moremilitary institutions (B) Return to civilian rule (C) Independence from British rule (D) civilunrest in the North
D
57 The institution that preserves civil liberty in Nigeria is the (A) Law Court (B) Civil ServiceCommission (C) Police Affairs Commission (D) Public Complaints Commission
A
58 The main opposition party during the First Republic was the (A) Northern Peoples Congress(B) Action Group (C) Northern Element Progressive Union (D) United Middle Belt Congress
B
59 The state created in Nigeria before 1966 was (A) East central state (B) Lagos state (C) Mid-Western state (D) North central state
C
60 The1964 federal election was contested by two major alliances of political parties amongthese (A) All Progressive Grand Alliance and the Northern Peoples Alliance (B) NigerianNational Alliance and United Progressive Grand Alliance (C) National Democratic Coalitionand Nigerian Peoples Alliance (D) National Democratic Alliance and Northern ElementsProgressive Union
B
61 Under the 1999 constitution of the Federal Republic of Nigeria there are a total ofhelliphelliphellip Localgovernment councils (A) 334 (B) 620 (C) 724 (D) 774 D
62 Which of the following ethnic groups had the best egalitarian traditional political system (A)Hausa Fulani (B) Yoruba (C) Igbo (D) Edo
C
63 which of the following is not a major problem of local government in Nigeria (A) Insufficientfunding and limited internally generated revenue (B) Interference and control by higher levelsof government (C) Lack of competent and qualified staff (D) lack of sufficient number oflocal government
D
64 Which of the following is not a reason for the adoption of a Federal System of government mdash(A) Cultural diversities (B) Security consideration (C) Economic consideration (D) Limitedresources D
65 Which of the following is not an example of a public corporation in Nigeria (A) NigerianRailway Corporation (B) Federal Radio Corporation of Nigeria (C) Federal Mortgage Bank ofNigeria (D) National Deposit Insurance Corporation
C
66 Which of the following statements is true about the 1963 and 1979 Constitutions (A) Bothhad provisions for the office of the president (B) Both had provision for the office of theconstitutional president (C) Both provided for the offices of prime minister and president(D) Both had provision for the office of an executive president
A
67 Which of these former Nigerian Heads of State was instrumental to the establishment ofECOWAS (A) Sanni Abacha (B) Yakubu Gowon (C) Olusegun Obasanjo (D) Tafawa Balewa
B
68 In 1975 Nigeria had a strained relationship with one of the following countries over the crisisin Angola (A) Britain (B) Israel (C) USA (D) Mexico
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
GOVERNMENT
5
69 Nigeriarsquos non ndash aligned posture was criticized on ground of the (A) Non ndash Proliferation Treaty(B) ECOWAS Treaty (C) Nuclear Test Ban Treaty (D) Anglo ndash Nigeria Defence Pact
D
70 The circumstance that led to the establishment of ECOWAS Monitoring Group (ECOMOG ) was(A) the bloody civil war in Nigeria (B) the bloody civil war in Liberia (C) the bloody civil war inSudan (D) the bloody civil war in all West African countries
B
71 The head of Nigeriarsquos foreign mission in a Commonwealth nation is best known and addressedas (A) Ambassador (B) Envoy (C) High commissioner (D) Representative
C
72 What determines Nigeriarsquos relations with other countries (A) Its national interest (B) Itslevel of democratization (C) Its citizens political sagacity (D) Its political culture
A
73 Which of the following best defines foreign policy (A) The ways in which some actors on thedomestic scene translate available power into policies designed to bring positive outcomes (B)The actions of a state towards the celestial environment (C) A set of objectives with regardsto the world beyond the borders of a given state and a set of strategies and tactics designed toachieve these objectives (D) The protection of the territorial integrity of a state
C74 Which of the following military regimes was credited with a dynamic foreign policy (A)
75 Which of these is an example of Nigeriarsquos external cultural relations (A) Exchange of studentswith friendly nations (B) Trade relationships with other countries (C) Financial and economicassistance to needy countries (D) Establishment of diplomatic missions in other countries
A
76 Which of these is correct about Nigeriarsquos foreign policy between 1960 and 1966 (A) It waspro-British (B) It was pro-American (C) It was pro-Soviet (D) It was pro-French
A
77 Which of these is NOT part of a countryrsquos core or vital interests (A) Economic viability (B)Political independence (C) Territorial integrity (D) Political brouhaha
D
78 Which of these is NOT the essence of foreign policy (A) Promotion and defence of a nationrsquosvital interest (B) Protection and promotion of a nationrsquos strategic interest (C) Protection andpromotion of the interest of the political leaders of a country (D) Promotion and defence ofthe economic interest of a nation
C
79 Which of these Nigerians has ever played a leading role in the operation of OPEC (A) AlhajiRilwanu Lukman (B) Prof Joe Garba (C) Prof Joy Ogwu (D) Gen Ike Nwachukwu
A
80 Which year was the Anglo-Nigerian defence pact abrogated (A) 1962 (B) 1963 (C) 1960 (D)1961
A
81 A major weakness of the Commonwealth is (A) lack of commitment by member states (B)lack of quorum at annual summits (C) poverty among member states (D) lack of democraticleadership A
82 An essential principle that guides the works of the United Nations (A) The regulation ofinternational trade (B) The protection of the United States of America against terrorism (C)Respect for sovereign equality of member states (D) The transfer of technology to developingcountries
C
83 In which of these International Organisations is African membership NOT possible (A)ECOWAS (B) EU (C) OPEC (D) Commonwealth
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
GOVERNMENT
6
84 Membership of the Commonwealth of Nations means (A) recognition of the Queen as theHead of the commonwealth and the republican states (B) recognition of the Queen as theHead of the commonwealth and not of the Republican States (C) recognition of the Queen asthe Head of the independent states and the republican states (D) recognition of the Queen asthe Head of all independent states
B85 One major achievement of OPEC is that (A) member nations are now formidable forces to be
reckoned with in international politics (B) world economic depression brought about fall in oilprice (C) there is a declining loyalty of its members (D) there are challenges posed by non ndashOPEC members
A
86 One of the following groups of states are all members of the ECOWAS (A) Nigerian Ghana andZaire (B) Guinea Togo and Cameroun (C) Guinea Bissau Burkina Faso and Cape Verde (D)Liberia Benin and Ethiopia C
87 The AU was formed by members of OAU (A) On 8th July 2002 at Durban South Africa (B) On8th July 2003 at Abuja Nigeria (C) On 8th July 2003 at Tripoli (D) On 8th June 2002 at AccraGhana
A
88 The first nation to become a republic within the Commonwealth of Nations is (A) Nigeria (B)Cyprus (C) Ghana (D) India D
89 The first summit of the African Union (AU) took place (A) On February 2 2004 at Addis AbabaEthiopia (B) On February 3 2003 at Addis Ababa Ethiopia (C) On February 3 2003 at AbujaNigeria (D) On February 2 2004 at Lagos Nigeria
B
90 The Non-aligned Movement was established at----------- in ---------- (A) Bombay 1955 (B)Bandung 1955 (C) Lagos 1972 (D) Addis Ababa 1955
B
91 The OAU adopted NEPAD during its summit held in (A) Abuja (B) Lusaka (C) Tunis (D) Cairo
D92 The organ charged with the responsibility of approving the annual budget of UNO is (A) The
Security Council (B) The International Court of Justice (C) the General Assembly (D) TheTrusteeship Council
C
93 To which of these blocs did Nigeria belong before the establishment of the OAU (A)Casablanca group (B) Monrovia group (C) Pan African group (D) African and Malagasy group
B
94 What is the full meaning of ECOWAS (A) Economic Community for Western African States (B)Economic Community of Western African States (C) Economic Community of West AfricanStates (D) Economic Community for West African States C
95 Where and when was the African Union inaugurated (A) Durban 2000 (B) Addis Ababa1963 (C) Lagos 1972 (D) Tripoli 2001
A
96 Which of the following is a functionally specialized global international organization (A)Organization of African Unity (B) United Nations (C) Food and Agriculture Organization (D)African Union
C
97 Which of the following is a specialized agency of the AU (A) The Assembly Conference (B) TheExecutive Council (C) African Court of Justice (D) The Commission
C
98 Which of the following is an apt definition of the Commonwealth of Nations (A) voluntaryassociation of the independent countries of the former British Colonies (B) association of freenations enjoying equal rights under the British (C) a free association of sovereign independentAfrican States (D) a voluntary association of countries that were formerly in the Frenchcolonial empire
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
GOVERNMENT
7
99 Which of the following is NOT a principal organ of the UNO (A) UNICEF (B) Security Council(C) Secretariat (D) General Assembly
A
100 Which of the following metamorphosed into the United Nations (A) International LabourOrganization (B) League of Nations (C) UNESCO (D) OAU
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
HISTORY
1 is the name of the political head of Zaria (A) Obi (B) Emir (C) Oba (D) Alaafin B
2 was the state which was thrown into anarchy and turmoil as a result of the opening of A
the Muni the sacred heritage by the king under the prompting of Muslim Missionaries (A)
Kanem (B) Salem (C) Njimi (D) Chad
3 Before getting to Nigeria River Niger passed across (A) Mali (B) Kanem (C) Chad (D) A
Morocco
4 Oba is the name of the political head of (A) Benin (B) Kano (C) Bornu (D) Sokoto A
5 The Amazon (female warriors ) Participated actively in defending which of these kingdoms (A) C
10 Scurvy is caused by the deficiency of (A) Protein (B) Vitamin D (C) Vitamin A (D) Vitamin C D
11 The dietary guide is to (A) Promote health (B) Promote disease (C) Promote sports (D)Promote too much eating
A
12 The fat soluble vitamins are (A) A B E and K (B) A D E and K (C) A C E and K (D) A D C and K B
13 The methods of cooking includes all except (A) Baking (B) Toasting (C )Boiling (D) None of theabove
D
14 Too much sugar in the body could lead to (A) Urinating (B) Heart disease (C) Liver disease (D)Diabetes
D
15 Vitamin D is for the (A) Formation of nerves (B) Formation of tissue (C) Formationof bones (D) Formation and digestion
C
16 Vitamin K performs the function of (A) Blood cell (B) Blood flow (C) Blood use (D) Blood clot D
17 Water soluble vitamins are (A) A C and B complex (B) A E and B complex (C) C and Bcomplex (D) A and B complex
C
18 What is an appetizer(A) Meal eaten after the main meal (B) Meal eaten as the second course meal (C) Meal eatenas the first course meal (D) Meal eaten as the last course meal
C
19 What is steaming (A) Cooking with water vapor (B) Cooking with water boiling (C) Cookingwith dry heat (D) All of the above
A
20 What is under nutrition (A) Consumption of less nutritious foods (B) Consumption ofadequate nutrients (C) Consumption of balance nutrients (D) Consumption of available foods
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
HOME ECONOMICS
2
21 Which is not a communicable disease (A) Measles (B) Marasmus (C) Chicken pox (D)Tuberculosis
B
22 Which is not a type of food storage (A) Moist storage (B) Dry storage (C) Refrigerator storage(D) Freezer storage
A
23 Which is the best method of cooking food to retain nutrient (A) Roasting (B) Boiling (C)Steaming (D) Frying
C
24 Which of these is not correct (A) Carbohydrate is to provide fat to the body (B) Protein is tobuild the body (C) Vitamin is to maintenance of metabolism in the body (D) Water is vital forlife
A
25 Which of these is responsible for proper bone formation (A) Protein (B) Carbohydrate (C)Calcium (D) Cobalamin
C
26 A group of people related by blood and living together is regarded as a (A) Community (B)Society (C) Home (D) Family
D
27 Disposal of household refuse should be done (A) Once a week (B) Every day (C) Twice a week(D) Once a week
B
28 Family can be identified as (A) Larger society (B) Community society (C) Nucleus of society(D) Entire society
C
29 Home Management involves (A) Addressing a home and making it a place of comfort andhappiness (B) Structuring a home and making it a place of comfort and happiness (C)Managing a home and making it a place of comfort and happiness (D) Dedicating a home andmaking it a place of comfort and happiness
C
30 Identify the steps in Home management (A) Planning organizing implementingEvaluation (B) Organizing planning implementing Evaluation (C) Implementing Planningorganizing Evaluation (D) Planning implementing organizing Evaluation
A
31 In choosing a curtain for the home we must consider all except (A) Colour of the wall (B)Colour of the ceiling (C) Colour of the furniture (D) Colour of all colours
D
32 In cleaning of the sitting room we must do all except (A) Open the windows (B) Close thewindows (C) Dust the furniture (D) Sweep the floor
B
33 Meal planning involves (A) Number to be served (B) Quantity of food to cook (C) Healthstatus of family members (D) All of the above
D
34 Money management depend on all except one (A) How money is dedicated (B) How moneyis utilized (C) How money is organized (D) How money is spent
A
35 Saving means (A) Money set aside for use in future (B) Money spent yesterday (C) Moneyspent last month (D) Money spent outside the budget
A
36 Steps in making family budget does not include (A) List all the commodities and servicesneeded (B) Estimate cost (C) Estimate the total expected income (D) Estimated money spent
D
37 Which is not a type of family system in Nigeria (A) Nuclear family (B) Polygamous family (C)Polyandry family (D) Extended family
C
38 Which is not a type of marriage in Nigeria (A) Christian marriage (B) Islamic marriage (C)Hindu marriage (D) Traditional marriage
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
HOME ECONOMICS
3
39 Whish of these is not a benefit of energy management (A) Energy is conserved (B) Eliminatesfatigue (C) Energy is fully used up (D) Reduces amount of time on a task
C
40 Choose a type of seam from these options (A) Run and stand (B) Run and fell (C) Close seam(D) English seam
C
41 Choose the most correct option (A) Clothing is the material used in sewing (B) Clothing is thefabric used in sewing (C) Clothing is the not material used in sewing (D) Clothing is the notthe fabric used in sewing
B
42 Dying a fabric will require most importantly (A) Colour (B) Table (C) Wax (D)Dye D
43 Natural fibres include only one of the options (A) Cotton (B) Linen (C) Wool (D) All of theabove
D
44 Stitches are divided into all except (A) Basic stitches (B) Embroidery (C) Permanent stitches (D)None of the above
46 Which is not a factor to consider in clothing selection (A) Sex (B) Age (C) Occupation (D) Hair D
47 Which of these is a basic stitch (A) Back stitch (B) Temporary stitch (C) French knot (D) Shellhem
A
48 Which of these is a factor to consider in clothing selection (A) Figure type (B) Figure cloth (C)Figure shoe (D) Figure choice
A
49 Which of these is not used in tie-dye (A) Water (B) Caustic soda (C) Soap (D) Hydrosulphide C
50 Wool is obtained from (A) Plant (B) Synthetic (C) Silk (D) Animal D
51 Determine the option that is not a career opportunity in Home Economics (A) Dietician (B)Researcher (C) Teacher (D) Jester
D
52 In family budgeting and expenditure Home Economics is related to ------------ discipline (A)Physics (B) Chemistry (C) Economics (D) Sociology
C
53 In interrelationship with family members Home Economics is related to ------------ discipline (A)Sociology (B) Psychology (C) Biology (D) Economics
A
54 In law of heat as applied to toaster iron Home Economics is related to ------------ discipline (A)Mathematics (B) Physics (C) Psychology (D) Biology
B
55 Someone who studied Family and child development can work as (A) Childhood Caterer inschools (B) Interior decorator in schools (C) Childhood Food vendor (D) Early Childhoodeducator
D
56 Someone who studied Food and Nutrition can work as a (A) Caterer (B) Doctor (C) Nurse (D)Vendor
A
57 The scope of Home Economics include (A) Food and Nutrition Home Economics Clothingand textile (B) Food and Nutrition Home management Clothing and textile (C) Food andNutrition Home management Fabric cutting (D) Food and Nutrition Home Design Clothingand textile
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
HOME ECONOMICS
4
58 What are the basic philosophy of Home Economics (A) How to improve only goods andservices used by individuals families and communities (B) How to determine only the needsof the individual family institution and community (C) How to become responsiblemember of families and communities (D) How to determine the need and improveindividual family institution and community
D
59 What is the basic philosophy of Home Economics (A) How to improve only goods and servicesused by individuals families and communities (B) How to determine only the needs of theindividual family institution and community (C) How to become responsible member offamilies and communities (D) How to determine the need and improve individual familyinstitution and community
D
60 A pregnant woman is carrying -------------- in her womb (A) Baby (B) Child (C) Foetus (D)Pregnancy
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
LITERATURE IN ENGLISH
1
1 Conceits more rich in matter than in wordsBrags of his substance not of ornament (ActIISCIV) The structure of this dramatic speech is an example of (A) paradoxicalstructure (B) parallel structure (C) circular thought pattern (D) antithesis
D
2 A drama form that teaches godliness righteousness and goodwill to all men among rulers andordinary citizens is called----- (A) sentimental comedy (B) heroic tragi-comedy (C) heroicfarce (D) satire
A
3 A dramatic composition in which many or all the words are sung is called---- (A) Oratorio (B)Opera (C) Comedy (D) Concert
B
4 A humorous play based on an unrealistic situation is considered in drama as--- (A) comedy(B) tragedy (C) farce (D) burlesque
C
5 A play is a tragedy when------------------ (A) the author presents life as a hopeless adventure (B)the main character dies before the play ends (C) there is much bloodshed in the play (D) aweakness in the main character leads to his downfall
D
6 A play that ends on a sad note is a ----------- (A)tragicomedy (B) comedy (C) tragedy (D)farce
C
7 A play that stirs readers to pity fear and laughter is called (A) tragicomedy (B) farce (C)absurd (D) melodrama
A
8 A play that tells a single story has one setting and takes place within a specified period is saidto-------- (A) be heavily moralistic (B) be clearly cohesive (C) possess the three unities (D)have tragic elements
C
9 A play which emphasizes laughter and amusement at the expense of credibility is called----(A) cartoon (B) elegy (C) comedy (D) farce
D
10 A play with a single character is called (A) solo-drama (B) monodrama(C) play let (D) All of the above
D
11 A tragic figure is a character who is (a) worthy of emulation (b) ennobled though suffering (c)unbending and irredeemable (d) completely transformed
C
12 A type of drama that celebrates or satirizes the follies of characters is called---- (A) comedy(B) tragedy (C) farce (D) tragicomedy
A
13 A type of drama that highlights suspense and romantic sentiment with characters who areusually either clearly good or bad is called ----(A) farce (B) melodrama (C) comedy (D)burlesque
B
14 According to Aristotle the key to tragedy is the concept of (A) cartharsis (B) chorus (C)representation(D) plot
A
15 Aristotlersquos word for a tragic herorsquos shortcoming is (a) hubris (b) harmatia (c) denouement(d) dilemma
B
16 As a comic dramatic piece a farce makes use of improbable situations and characters that are(A) exaggerated (B) extravagant (C) understanding (D) poor
A
17 Both comedy and tragedy have ------------- (A) climax (B) tragic hero (C) stanza (D) happyending
A
18 Farce can be described as a dramatic piece marked by----------- (A) movement from serious tothe light-hearted mood (B) comic and exaggerated actions (C) actions devoid of meaning (D)gloomy actions with momentary reliefs B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
LITERATURE IN ENGLISH
2
19 In ----- the major character is selfish devilish wicked and exploitative (A) Comedy (B)Tragicomedy (C) Farce (D) Melodrama
D
20 In a play tragic responses are brought to a head through three elements (A) reversalrecognition and suffering (B) weakness suffering and resolution (C) flaw fear andrecognition (D) reversal suffering and conclusion
A
21 In de Graftrsquos Sons and Daughters James Ofosu is treated with (A) ridicule (B)dramatic irony (C) sarcasm (D) melodramatic spectacle
B
22 In drama a flashback occurs when (A) a characterrsquos inner mind isrevealed (B) the playwright supplies a missing link in a characterrsquos past (C) a character dropsan idea that hints at the future (D) a character drops an idea that hints at the concealed past
D
23 In drama light furniture custom and make-up are part of (A) stage deacutecor (B)stage architectonics (C) stage proxemics (D) kineaesthetics
A
24 In most of Shakespearersquos drama when a character speaks in aside the act is referred to as (A) stream of consciousness (B) sleep-walking (C) soliloquy (D) monologue
C
25 In Romeo and Juliet Romeo died (A) of self-poison (B) being murdered byFriar Laurence (C) the capulet (D) unknown assassins
A
26 In Sons and Daughters Fosuwa symbolizes (A) tradition and the old order (B) modernity (C)youthful exuberance (D) patriarchy
A
27 In Sons and Daughters the character of James Ofosu symbolizes (A) poverty (B) old values (C)new values (D) wealth
B
28 In tragedy everything must be artistically balanced this means that (A) the setting must bein one place (B) nothing superfluous is included and nothing essential omitted (C) characterand action are in equal ratio (D) there should be equal ratio of male and female characters
B29 -------------is a drama form which depicts royal wickedness of English kings and queens (A)
Heroic drama (B) Heroic tragicomedy (C) Heroic farce (D) SatireA
30 -----------is a drama form which ends happily after a number of initial tragic occurrences areresolved (A) Tragicomedy (B) Melodrama (C) Heroic Drama (D) Farce
A
31 --------------is the drama form which ends up on a note of happiness after some initial minorproblems (A) Tragedy (B) Farce (C) Heroic drama D Comedy
D
32 Joe de Graft was a prominent playwright from (A) Ghana (B) Nigeria (C) Cameroon (D) SierraLeone
A
33 Melodrama is the genre of drama which is characterized by emphasis on theatricality over(A) characterization (B) plot (C) setting (D) point of view A
34 One basic feature of melodrama is (A) humour (B) high-spirit (C)triumph of vice over virtue (D) overcome of evil by good
C
35 One of the peculiar features of drama in general is ------------ (A) humour (B) satire (C)sarcasm (D) action
D
36 Romeo and Juliet portrays the (A) chaos and passion of being in love (B) moral situation of thesociety (C) happiness of falling in love (D) evitability of fate
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
LITERATURE IN ENGLISH
3
37 The first part of a Greek tragedy is called a prologue and is also a playrsquos (A) envoy (B)exposition (C) rising action (D) climax
B
38 The most basic feature of drama is helliphelliphelliphelliphelliphelliphelliphelliphelliphellip (A) monologue (B) suspense (C) action(D) plot
C
39 The play Romeo and Juliet begins with (A) serious argument (B) sincere love (C) streetfight (D) secret marriage
C
40 The play Romeo and Juliet is an example of (A) realistic comedy (B) romantic comedy (C)satiric comedy (D) ironic comedy
B
41 The term farce is now used to cover a form of drama which employs (A) mistaken identity(B) slapstick (C) reversal of roles (D) romantic plot
A
42 The tragic herorsquos flaw is called (A) hubris (B) harmatia (C) caesura (D)peripeteia B
43 The word ldquocastrdquo in a play refers to (A) Three of the actors (B) A few of the actors (C) All theactors (D) An exclusive social class in the play
C
44 Theatre of the absurd portrays people whose sufferings seem (A) unfortunate (B)ridiculous (C) indefinite (D) sympathetic
B
45 Tragecomedies developed in which century (A) 18th (B) 19th (C) 20th (D) 21st C C46 When a play includes witty and graceful situation it can be classified as (A) comedy of
manners (B) high comedy (C) low comedy (D) comedy of the absurdB
47 When the plot of a play begins in the middle and only unfolds the past through flashback it iscalled (A) complex-plot (B) media res (C) prefiguration (D) None of theforegoing
B
48 Which of the following is true of Opera (A) They are plays with elaborate music (B) They areplays with elaborate songs (C) They are plays with dance (D) A and B
D
49 Which of the following statements best describes comedy (A) A play in which nobody dies(B) A play which makes us laugh (C) A play in which the hero is a clown (D) A play which endshappily
D
50 A story in which the characters are animals but behave like human beings is a (A) fable (B)fairy tale (C) folktale (D) parable
A
51 Considering the way Nnu Egorsquos life ends in The Joys of Motherhood the title of the novel canbe said to be (A) ironic (B) ambiguous (C) sarcastic (D) euphemistic
A
52 In lsquoThe Old Man and the Medalrsquo when in answer to the question if she had slept well Kelaraanswered ldquoI counted the matting in the roofrdquo she meant that (A) she slept very well (B) shewas awake when she should have been sleeping (C) she was thinking of mending the roof (D)there was a hole in the roof
B53 In a novel the antagonist is usually called a (A) narrator (B) hero (C) villain (D) clown C
54 In Nineteen Eighty-four the most important character in the story is____ (A) Winston Smith(B) Julia (C) OrsquoBrien (D) Big Brother
A
55 In Nineteen Eighty-Four the poet is (A) OrsquoBrien (B) Ampleforth (C) Syme (D) Martin B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
LITERATURE IN ENGLISH
4
56 In The Joys of Motherhood Nnaife enlisted in the army because (A) he was running awayfrom his wives and children (B) his white employers had gone home to Europe leaving himjobless (C) he wanted to prove that he was a man (D) he was looking for adventure
B
57 In The Joys of MotherhoodNnu Ego at one point tried to commit suicide because (A)someone used witchcraft on her (B) her only child had just died (C) she could not bear theshame of being barren (D) she did not like Nnaifersquos appearance
B
58 In The Old Man and the Medal when in answer to the question if she had slept well Kelaraanswered ldquoI counted the matting in the roofrdquo she meant that (A) she slept very well (B) shewas awake when she should have been sleeping (C) she was thinking of mending the roof (D)there was a hole in the roof
B
59 Nineteen Eighty-four can be described as a _____ (A) political satire (B) comedy (C)tragedy (D) chronicle
A
60 The expression ldquoto break the leg of an anteloperdquo which is found in The Old Man and the Medalmeans______ (A) hunting (B) travelling (C) marriage (D) fighting
D
61 The Joys of Motherhood suggests that (A) sometimes men are irresponsible as fathers andhusbands (B) children always grow up to help their parents (C) husbands always appreciatehardworking wives (D) women care for their children but neglect their husbands
A
62 The major thematic preoccupation of Joys of Motherhood is (A) politics (B) economicemancipation (C) motherhood (D) colonialism
C
63 ldquoThe piercing chill I feel My dead wifersquos comb in our bedroom Under my heelrdquo(trans ByHarold Henderson) What is the form of the above poem (A) haiku (B) triplet (C) tercet (D)quatrain A
64 A sonnet is a poem of_____ lines (A) 15 (B) 14 (C) 16 (D) 12 B
65 A stanza of three lines linked by rhyme is called a________ (A) couplet (B) ballad (C) tercet(D) quatrain
C
66 From David Rubadirirsquos ldquoAn African Thunderstormrdquo ldquoClouds come hurrying with the windrdquocontains an example of (A) alliteration (B) assonance (C) enjambment (D) rhyme
A
67 In poetry double rhyme can be used to bring out (A) irony (B) unity (C) theme (D)conclusion
A
68 The stanzas which make up a ballad usually consists of_____lines (A) 7 (B) 8 (C) 4 (D) 9 C
69 The tone in lsquoHeritage of Liberationrsquo is_____ (A) lamentative (B) invocatory (C) explanatory(D) melancholic
B
70 The typical rhyme scheme of an English sonnet is (A) abab cdcd efef gg (B) abab cdcd eeffgg (C) abcd abcd efef gg (D) abcc abcd efff gg
A
71 The words ldquoproverdquo and ldquoaboverdquo are examples of the rhyme called (A) exact (B) half (C) eye(D) slant
C
72 When words in poetry rise and fall in a measured way it is referred to as________ (A) rhyme(B) rhythm (C) repetition (D) euphemism
B
73 Which of the following is NOT a form of poetic expression (A) Octet (B) Lyric (C) Sonnet (D)Elegy
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
LITERATURE IN ENGLISH
5
74 ______is the deliberate use of exaggeration for the sole purpose of humour in poetry (A)Simile (B) Hyperbole (C) Onomatopoeia (D) Oxymoron
B
75 A character who remains unchanged in a story is described as (A) round (B) flat (C) stock(D) dynamic
B
76 A figure of speech which refers to the repetition of the initial consonant sounds of poetry witha rhythmic effect is called_______ (A) alliteration (B) assonance (C) apostrophe (D)euphemism
A
77 A literary work that appropriates matter andor manner from a previous work is (A) archetype (B) imitation (C) adaptation (D) sub-text
C
78 A tragic plot consists of (A) many people in various disastrous events (B) important incidents(C) noble and ordinary characters (D) a self-contained and concentrated single action
D
79 An expression or word which stands for a whole is called_______ (A) metonymy (B) allegory(C) synecdoche (D) repetition
C
80 Assonance refers to the _______ (A) repetition of alphabets in a line of poetry (B) repetitionof vowels in a line (C) agreement of vowel sounds in a line (D) agreement of consonantsounds in a line
B
81 Characters whose role contribute to the movement of plot are called (A)Minor characters (B) free characters (C) central characters (D) round characters
C
82 Identical vowel sounds create one of the following (A) euphony (B) cacophony (C)alliteration (D) assonance
D
83 Identify the odd one out of the following helliphelliphelliphelliphelliphellip (A) Aside (B) Costume (C) Narrative(D) Stage
C
84 Identify the odd one out of the following (A) Deacutecor (B) costume (C) Make-up (D) Mime D
85 In a novel the location of the story is referred to as the (A) stage (B) exposition (C) subject(D) setting
D
86 Point out the odd item (A) Macbeth (B) Twelfth Night (C) The Concubine (D) Romeo andJuliet
C
87 Pregnant clouds Ride stately on its back The clouds are described as ldquopregnantrdquo because (A)no one knows what is in them (B) they look like a fat woman (C) they bring rainfall (D)they move clumsily
C
88 The antagonist in a tragedy is ------------ (A) any character in the tragedy (B) the wife of theprotagonist (C) the character who provides comic relief (D) the character set in opposition tothe main character D
89 The device whereby the narrator recalls something that happened in the past is (A)foreshadowing (B) flashback (C) epiphany (D) prologue
B
90 The first person narrative point of view is characterized by the frequent use of (A) presenttense (B) singular nouns (C) past tense (D) the pronouns ldquoIrdquo and ldquowerdquo
D
91 The most mimetic term in critical vocabulary is (A) plot (B) imitation (C)character (D) action
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
LITERATURE IN ENGLISH
6
92 The structure of a story which shows the cause and effect of events is the (A) denouement (B)climax (C) imagery (D) plot
D
93 When one scene leads to another in inextricable chain of relationships it is called (A)episodic play (B) caused play (C) metaphysical play (D) All of the above
B
94 I would Love you ten years before the Flood And you should if you please refuse Tillthe conversion of the Jews The literary device used in the above extract is (A) allusion (B)innuendo (C) satire (D) archetype A
95 ldquoThat pierced the fearful hollow of thine earrdquo is an example of (A) relativeclause (B) figure of speech (C) personification (D) noun clause D
96 ldquoWilt thou be gone It is not yet near day It was the nightingale and not the lark That piercedthe fearful hollow of thine earrdquo The first sentence here is an example of (A)interrogative sentence (B) apostrophe (C) rhetorical statement (D) request
C
97 From Andrew Marvellrsquos ldquoTo His Coy Mistressrdquo Had we but world enough and time Thiscoyness lady were no crime We could sit down and think which way To walk and pass ourlong loversquos day This poem opens in the lines above like a (A) Sonnet (B) praise poem (C)ballad (D) dramatic monologue
D
98 Identify the odd term (A) Enjambment (B) Rhyme (C) Plot (D) Alliteration C
99 In the village Screams of delighted children Toss and turn In the din of whirling wind Women Babies clinging on their backs Dart about In and out Madly The Wind whistlesby Whilst trees bend to let it pass In the above extract the movement of the women is (A)leisurely (B) hurried (C) orderly (D) slow
B100 Tossing up things on its tail Like a madman chasing nothing These lines contain an example
of a (A) metaphor (B) simile (C) metonymy (D) paradoxB
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
MATHEMATICS
1
1 (128 x 104 ) divide (64 x 102 ) equals(A) 2 x 10-5 (B) 2 x 10-1 (C) 2 x 100 (D) 2 x 101 (E) 2 x 105
D
2 A man and wife went to buy an article costing N400 The woman had 10 of the cost andthe man 40 of the remainder How much did they have altogether(A) N216 (B) N200 (C) N184 (D) N144 (E) N100
C
3 Add the same number to the numerator and denominator of 318 If the resulting fraction isfrac12 then the number added is(A) 13 (B) 14 (C) 15 (D) 12 (E) 11
D
4 After getting a rise of 15 a manrsquos new monthly salary is N345 How much per monthdid he earn before the increase(A) N330 (B) N39675 (C) N300 (D) N29325 (E) N360
C
5 Assuming loge 44 = 14816 and loge 77 = 20142 then the value of loge frac14 is(A) 05326 (B) 34958 (C) 04816 (D) 00142 (E) 13594
A
6 Evaluate ൫2 + 4ଵଶ൯ଶ
(A) frac14 (B) 54 (C) 94 (D) 4 (E) 9
C
7 Evaluate correct to 4 decimal places 82751 x 0015(A) 88415 (B) 124127 (C) 1241265 (D) 124120(E) 1141265
B
8 Express 130 kilometres per second in metres per hour(A) 78 x 105 (B) 468 x 106 (C) 7800000(D) 468 x 106 (E) 780 x 10-6
B
9 Find the square root of 170-20radic30 (A) 2radic10-5radic3 (B) 3radic5-8radic6 (C) 2radic5-5radic6 (D) 5radic5-2radic6 (E) 5radic10-2radic3
C
10 If (25)x-1 = 64(5frasl2)6 then x has the value(A) 7 (B) 4 (C) 32 (D) 64 (E) 5
B
11 If a circular paper disc is trimmed in such a way that its circumference is reduced in theratio 25 in what ratio is the surface area reduced(A) 8125 (B) 25 (C) 825 (D) 425 (E) 410
D
12 In base ten the number 101101 (base 2) equals(A) 15 (B) 4 (C) 45 (D) 32 (E) 90
C
13 Simplifyହ ୶ ଶହ౮షభ
ଵଶହ౮శభ
(A) 5ଶ୶ ଵ (B) 5୶ାଶ (C) 5ହ (D) 5୶ାଵ (E) 5ଷ
C
14 Simplify(ଵ)൫రయାଵమళ൯
(మଵమ)
(A) ଶଷ (B) ଵଷ (C) ଶ + 1 (D) a (E) ଵଷ
E
15 Simplify ଵଶଶℎଵଷ divide ହଶℎଷ
(A) ( ℎ)ଶ (B) ହଶℎ (C) ହସℎଽ (D)మ
ఱళ(E)
ଵ
మమ
A
16 Simplify 2ହ
ଵଶminus 1
x
ହ
(A) 16 (B) 1320 (C) 1130 (D) 94 (E) 53
A
17 Solve the system of equations 2௫ା௬ = 32 3ଷ௬௫ = 27(A) (3 2) (B) (-3 2) (C) (3 -2) (D) (-3 -2) (E) (2 2)
A
18 The annual profits of a transport business were divided between the two partners A and Bin the ratio 35 If B receives N3000 more than A the total profit was(A) N5000 (B) N1800 (C) N12000 (D) N24000 (E) N8000
C
19 The diameter of a metal rod is measured as 2340cm to four significant figures What is D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
MATHEMATICS
2
the maximum error in the measurement(A) 005cm (B) 05cm (C) 0045cm (D) 0005cm (E) 0004cm
20 The ratio of the price of a loaf of bread to the price of a packet of sugar in 1975 was r t in1980 the price of a loaf went up by 25 and that of a packet of sugar by 10 Their newratio is now(A) 40r50t (B) 44r50t (C) 50r44t (D) 55r44t (E) 44r55t
C
21 The sum of 378 and 113 is less than the difference between 38 and 123 by (A) 323 (B)5frac14 (C) 6frac12 (D) 0 (E) 818
C
22 Two distinct sectors in the same circle subtend 1000 and 300 respectively at the centre ofthe circle Their corresponding arcs are in the ratio
24 What is the number whose logarithm to base 10 is 3482(A) 2236 (B) 02228 (C) 2235 (D)
2237 (E) 002229
E
25 When a dealer sells a bicycle for N81 he makes a profit of 8 What did he pay for thebicycle
(A) N73 (B) N7452 (C) N75 (D) N7552 (E)N8748
C
26 Write the decimal number 39 to base 2(A) 100111 (B) 110111 (C) 111001 (D) 100101 (E) 195
A
27 A father is now three times as old as his son Twelve years ago he was six times as old ashis son How old are the son and the father(A) 20 and 45 (B) 100 and 150 (C) 45 and 65 (D) 35 and 75 (E) 20 and 60
E
28 A steel ball of radius 1cm is dropped into a cylinder of radius 2cm and height 4cm If thecylinder is now filled with water what is the volume of the water in the cylinder(A) cm3ߨ443 (B) 12 cm3ߨ (C) 383 cm3ߨ (D) 403 cm3ߨ (E) 3233 cm3ߨ
A
29 Find a two-digit number such that three times the tens digit is 2 less than twice the unitsdigit and twice the number is 20 greater than the number obtained by reversing the digits(A) 24 (B) 42 (C) 74 (D) 47 (E) 72
D
30 Find the roots of the equation minusଶݔ10 minusݔ13 3 = 0(A) x = 35 or ndashfrac12 (B) x = 310 or -1 (C) x = -310 or 1 (D) x = 15 or -32 (E) x= -15 or 32
E
31 If a function is defined by +ݔ) 1) = minusଶݔ3 +ݔ 4 find (0)(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 0 (D) 8 (E) 2
D
32 If sin x equals cosine x what is x in radians(A) π2 (B) π3 (C) π4 (D) π6 (E) π12
C
33 If x2 + 4 = 0 then x =(A) 4 (B) -4 (C) 2 (D) -2 (E) none of these
E
34 In a geometric progression the first term is 153 and the sixth term is 1727 the sum of thefirst four terms is(A) 8603 (B) 6803 (C) 6083 (D) 8063 (E) 68027
B
35 List all integer values of x satisfying the inequality minus1 lt minusݔ2 5 le 5(A) 2345 (B) 25 (C) 345 (D) 234 (E) 34
C
36 Make c the subject of the equation (+ ) +ହ
ௗminus 2 = 0 D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
MATHEMATICS
3
(A) = 2minus 5 minus (B) = 5 minus 2minus (C) = 5 minus 2minus (D) = 2minus 5 minus (E) = 2minus minus 5
(C) ndash +ݔ) +ݔ)(5 1) (D) minusݔ) 5)(1 minus (ݔ (E) +ݔ) 5)(1 minus (ݔ
D
41 The quantity (x + y) is a factor of A(A) ଶݔ + ଶݕ (B) minusଷݔ ଷݕ (C) minusଶݔ2 +ݕݔ3 minusଶݕ +ݔ 1(D) ଷݔ2 + minusݕଶݔ2 +ݕݔ minusݔ3 ଶݕ + ݕ3 (E) minusହݔ ହݕ
D
42 The set of values of x and y which satisfies the equations ltigtxltsupgt2ltsupgt - y - 1 = 0ltigt and ltigty ndash 2x + 2 = 0ltigt(A) 1 0 (B) 1 1 (C) 2 2 (D) 0 2 (E) 1 2
A
43 The solution of the equation minusଶݔ =ݔ2 8 is(A) x = 0 or 2 (B) x = -2 or 4 (C) x = 2 (D) x = -4 (E) x = 2 or 4
B
44 The solution of the quadratic equation ଶݔ + +ݔ = 0 is given by
(A) =ݔplusmnξ మସ
ଶ(B) =ݔ
plusmnξ మସ
ଶ(C) =ݔ
plusmnξ మସ
ଶ
(D) =ݔplusmnradicమାସ
ଶ(E) =ݔ
plusmnradicమସ
ଶ
A
45 The sum of the root of a quadratic equation isହ
46 Three numbers x y and z are connected by the relationships =ݕସ
ଽ+ݔ 1 and =ݖ
ସ
ଽ+ݕ 1
If x = 99 find z(A) 613 (B) 20 (C) 21 (D) 17649 (E) None of the above
C
47 What factor is common to all the expressions minusଶݔ ݔ ଶݔ2 + minusݔ 1 and minusଶݔ 1(A) x (B) x ndash 1 (C) x + 1 (D) No common factor (E) (2x ndash 1)
D
48 A canal has rectangular cross section of width 10cm and breadth 1m If water of uniformdensity 1gm cm-3 flows through it at a constant speed of 1000mm per minute the adjacentsea is
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
MATHEMATICS
4
(A) 100000 (B) 1000000 (C) 120000 (D) 30000 (E) 35000049 A cuboid has a diagonal of length 9cm and a square base of side 4cm What is its height
50 A cylinder of height h and radius r is open at one end Its surface area is(A) 2πrh (B) πr2h (C) 2πrh+2πr2 (D) πrh+πr2 (E) 2πrh+πr2
E
51 A pyramid is constructed on a cuboid The figure has(A) 12 faces (B) 13 vertices (C) 14 edges (D) 15 edges (E) 16 edges
E
52 A quadrant of a circle of radius 6cm is cut away from each corner of a rectangle 25cm longand 18cm wide Find the perimeter of the remaining figure(A) 38cm (B) (38 + (ߨ12 (C) (86 minus (ߨ12 (D) (86minus (ߨ6 (E) (86 +(ߨ12
B
53 A rectangular picture 6cm by 8cm is enclosed by a frame frac12cm wide Calculate the area ofthe frame(A) 15sqcm (B) 20sqcm (C) 13sqcm (D) 16sqcm (E) 17sqcm
A
54 A regular hexagon is constructed inside a circle of diameter 12cm The area of thehexagon is
56 A solid cylinder of radius 3cm has a total surface area of 36πcm2 Find its height(A) 2cm (B) 3cm (C) 4cm (D) 5cm (E) 6cm
B
57 A square of cardboard is taped at the perimeter by a piece of ribbon 20cm long What isthe area of the board(A) 20sqcm (B) 25sqcm (C) 36sqcm (D) 100sqcm (E) 16sqcm
B
58 A triangle has angles 300 150 and 1350 the side opposite to the angle 300 is length 6cmThe side opposite to the angle 1350 is equal to
61 Find the area of the curved surface of a cone whose base radius is 6cm and whoseheight is 8cm (Take π = 227) (A) 18857cm2 (B) 1320cm2 (C) 188cm2 (D) 18808cm2 (E) 100cm2
A
62 Find the total surface area of a solid cone of radius 2radic3cm and slanting side 4radic3cm
67 PQRS is a cyclic quadrilateral with PQ as diameter of the circle If PQS = 150 findQRS(A) 750 (B) 37frac120 (C) 127frac120 (D) 1050 (E) None of the above
D
68 The difference between the length and width of a rectangle is 6cm and the area is135cm2 What is the length(A) 25cm (B) 18cm (C) 15cm (D) 24cm (E) 27cm
C
69 At what value of x does the function y= -3 ndash 2x +x2 attain a minimum value(A) 4 (B) 2 (C) -1 (D) -4 (E) 1
84 7 pupils of average age 12 years leave a class of 25 pupils of average age 14 years If 6new pupils of average age 11 years join the class what is the average age of the pupils nowin the class(A) 13years (B) 12years 7frac12months (C) 13years 5months (D) 13years 10 months(E) 11 years
A
85 A bag contains 4 white balls and 6 red balls Two balls are taken from the bag withoutreplacement What is the probability that they are both red(A) 13 (B) 29 (C) 215 (D) 15 (E) 35
E
86 Bola chooses at random a number between 1 and 300 What is the probability that thenumber is divisible by 4(A) 13 (B) frac14 (C) 15 (D) 4300 (E) 1300
B
87 Determine the mean monthly salary of 50 employees of a company from the followingfrequency distribution
88 Find the mean deviation of 1 2 3 and 4(A) 25 (B) 20 (C) 10 (D) 15 (E) 12
C
89 If M represents the median and D the mode of the measurements 5 9 3 5 7 5 8then (M D) is(A) (6 5) (B) (5 8) (C) (5 7) (D) (5 5) (E) (7 5)
D
90 In a basket of fruits there are 6 grapes 11 bananas and 13 oranges If one fruit is chosen atrandom what is the probability that the fruit is either a grape or a banana
(A) 1730 (B) 1130 (C) 630 (D) 530 (E) 73
A
91 In a school 220 students offer Biology or Mathematics or both 125 offer Biology and 110Mathematics How many offer Biology but not Mathematics
(A) 95 (B) 80 (C) 125 (D) 110 (E) 120
D
92 In a school there are 35 students in Class 2A and 40 in class 2B The mean score for class2A in an English literature examination is 600 and that for 2B in the same paper is 525Find to one place of decimals the mean for the combined classes
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
MATHEMATICS
7
(A) 15 (B) 560 (C) 562 (D) 563 (E) 56593 In a soccer competition in one season a club had scored the following goals 2 0 3 3 2
1 4 0 0 5 1 0 2 2 1 3 1 4 and 1 The mean median and mode are respectively(A) 1 18 and 15 (B) 18 15 and 1 (C) 18 1 and 15 (D) 15 1 and 18 (E)15 18 and 1
B
94 In how many ways can 2 students be selected from a group of 5 students in a debatingcompetition (A) 25 ways (B) 10 ways (C) 15 ways (D) 20 ways (E)16 ways
D
95 The arithmetic mean of the ages of 30 pupils in a class is 153 years One boy leaves theclass and one girl is enrolled and the new average age of 30 pupils in the class becomes152 years How much older is the boy than the girl
(A) 30 years (B) 6 years (C) 9 years (D) 3 years (E) 1 year
D
96 The letters of the word ldquoMATRICULATIONrdquo are cut and put into a box One letter isdrawn at random from the box Find the probability of drawing a vowel(A) 713 (B) 513 (C) 613 (D) 813 (E) 413
C
97 The mean of the numbers 3 6 4 x and 7 is 5 Find the standard deviation
(A) radic2 (B) radic3 (C) 2 (D) 3 (E) 5
A
98 The weights of 30 new-born babies are given as follows 6 9 5 7 6 7 5 8 9 5 7 58 7 8 7 56 5 7 6 9 9 7 8 8 7 8 9 8 The mode is(A) 6 (B) 5 (C) 8 (D) 7 (E) 10
D
99 Thirty boys and x girls sat for a test The mean of the boysrsquo scores and that of the girlswere respectively 6 and 8 Find x if the total score was 468(A) 38 (B) 24 (C) 36 (D) 22 (E) 41
C
100 Two fair dice are rolled What is the probability that both show up the same number ofpoints (A) 136 (B) 736 (C) frac12 (D) 13 (E) 16
E
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
BIOLOGY
1
1 ____________ is an end product of digestion of fat (A) Glucose (B) Fatty acid (C) Amino acid (D)Fructose (E) Galactose
B
2 Asexual reproduction in Hydra sp is commonly by ____ (A) Binary fission b Fragmentation cBudding d Separation (E) Regeneration
C
3 Benedictrsquos solution is used to test for ___ (A) Carbohydrate (B) Lipid (C) Protein (D) Vitamins (E)Minerals
C
4 Pepsin is an enzyme that digests ___ (A) Starch (B) Sugar (C) Lipid (D) Fat (E) Protein E
5 The breakdown of large organic molecules into smaller simpler soluble molecules is called ndashndash (A)Excretion (B) Digestion (C) Absorption (D) Reproduction (E) Ingestion
B
6 The enzyme that curdles milk is_____________ (A) Pepsin (B) Ptyalin (C) Renin (D) Amylase(E) Trypsin
C
7 Which is the enzyme that begins digestion of starch in the mouth (A) Ptyalin (B) Maltase (C)Amylase (D) Sucrase (E) Lactase
A
8 A group of interacting populations in a particular habitat can be described as ___(A) biome (B)biosphere (C) community (D) population ecosystem (E) environment
C
9 A habitat can be defined as ___(A) a group of animals and plants living within a commonboundary (B) a place in which plants and animals live (C) a community living together in thesame place (D) different areas with a common animal and plant population (E) None of theabove
B
10 A symbiotic relationship in which one organism is completely dependent on another organism iscalled ____ (A) Parasitism (B) Commensalisms (C) Mutualism (D) Saprophytism (E) Competition
A
11 An association between two organisms where both members benefit is known as ___ (A)symbiosis (B) commensalism (C) ammensalism (D) mutualism (E) saprophytism
D
12 An instrument used in measuring the speed of wind is (A) a barometer (B) a wind gauge (C) awind vane (D) an anemometer (E) a hydrometer
D
13 At times hyenas feed on remains of animals killed by other animals At other times hyenasthemselves kill animals for food Therefore hyenas may best be described as ndashndash (A) scavengersand herbivores (B) scavengers and parasites (C) scavengers and predators (D) herbivores andpredators e herbivores and parasites
C
14 Autecology is defined as the study of interrelationship of (A) many species of organisms and theirenvironment (B) same species of organisms and their environment (C) organisms in theatmosphere (D) organisms under the earthrsquos surface (E)None of the above
B
15 Autotrophs are also described as ndashndash (A) Consumers (B) Decomposers (C) Carnivores (D)Producers (E) Herbivores
D
16 If three 30cm lengths of glass tubing are tightly packed with clay sand and loamy soilsrespectively and then stood in a beaker of water for one week the level of water will be (A)Lowest in the tube with clay (B) The same in all the tubes (C) Lowest in the tube with loamy soil(D) Highest in the tube with sandy soil (E) Lowest in the tube with sandy soil
E
17 In a community bacteria and fungi are referred to as ndashndash (A) producers (B) consumers (C)scavengers (D) tertiary consumers (E) decomposers
E
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
BIOLOGY
2
18 Puddles Ponds Rivers Seas and Oceans are grouped together as ndashndash (A) Ecosystem (B) Biosphere(C) Aquatic habitat (D) Terrestrial habitat (E) Marine environment
C
19 The feeding pattern in an ecosystem is calledhelliphelliphelliphellip (A) Pyramid of energy (B) Food web (C)Food chain (D) Pyramid of member (E) Ecology
B
20 The orderly changes that occur slowly and naturally in plant and animal communities in a givenarea over a period of time until a stable community is established is called ndashndash (A)Transformational change (B) ecological succession (C) survival of the fittest (D) weatherchange (E) environmental change
B
21 The sign + is used to indicate an association where an organism gains while 0 is used where anorganism is unaffected An association indicated as +0 is known as ndashndash (A) predation (B)commensalism (C) parasitism (D) competition (E) ammensalism
B
22 The sum total of all the roles an organism plays in a habitat is referred to as (A) ecology (B)ecosystem (C) habit (D) habitat (E) niche
E
23 Which of the following factors does not control population growth (A) Food shortage (B)Emigration (C) Predation (D) Abundance of food (E) Natural disaster
D
24 Which of the following statements best describe an ecosystem (A) A place where livingorganisms can live successfully (B) The interactions between living organism in a habitat and thenon-living part of the environment (C) A biological association between a plant and ananimal (D) A system of grouping organisms in a habitat (E) None of the above
B
25 Which of these represents a correct food chain in nature (A) Crustacea rarr diatom rarrfish rarr man (B) Diatom rarr crustacea rarr fish rarr man (C) Fish rarr crustacea rarr man rarr diatom (D) Diatom rarr fish rarr crustacea rarr man (E) None of the above
B
26 ___________ is involved in the mechanism of expelling water from the protozoans during theprocess of____________ (A) Contractile vacuole Osmoregulation (B) Contractile vacuolePhagocytosis (C) Food vacuole Ultrafilteration (D) Food vacuole Pinocytosis (E) Cell membranePinocytosis
A
27 ______________ is used for photosynthesis in Euglena sp (A) Reservoir (B) Nucleus (C)Chloroplast (D) Paramylon granule (E) Pellicle
C
28 A heart with four chambers is found in______________ (A) Fishes (B) Insects (C) Snails (D) Rats(E) Worms
D
29 Animal cell does not have a ____________ (A) Membrane (B) Nucleolus (C) Food Vacuole (D) Cellwall (E) Golgi body
D
30 Beriberi is caused by deficiency of vitamin_____________ (A) A (B) D (C) K (D) E (E) B E
31 Compound eyes are found in which of the animals below (A) Rat (B) Cow (C) Snail (D) Ant (E) Jellyfish
D
32 Dental formula of man consist of (A) i 22 c22 pm22 m33 (B) i11 c22 pm22 m33 (C)i22 c11 pm32 m22 (D) i22 c11 pm22 m22 (E) i22 c11 pm22 m33
E
33 During digestion of food passage of chyme through the duodenum enables it to become awatery liquid called__________ (A) Digested food (B) Chymatic product (C) Chyle (D) Solublefood (E) Dissolved food
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
BIOLOGY
3
34 Emulsification of fat and oils is caused by______________ (A) Lipase (B) Ptyalin (C) Trypsin (D)Maltase (E) Bile
E
35 Every mammal has (A) One Kidney (B) Two pairs of Kidneys (C) One pair of Kidneys (D) FourKidneys (E) None of the above
C
36 Faeces is removed from the body in a process called (A) Digestion (B) Egestion (C) Elimination(D) Excretion (E) Evacuation
B
37 Glomerulus is found in the______________ (A) Ovary (B) Testes (C) Brain (D) Kidney e)Stomach
D
38 In the respiratory system of man diffusion of gases takes place in (A) Trachea (B) Bronchi (C)Alveoli (D) Bronchioles (E) None of the above
C
39 Incisors are used for (A) Tearing food (B) Cutting food (C) Grinding food (D) Shearing food (E)Crushing food
B
40 Nematocysts are produced by special cells found in (A) Nematodes (B) Annelids (C)Platyhelminthes (D) Cnidarians (Coelenterates) (E) Arthropods
D
41 One of the following is not a function of the skin (A) Excretion (B) Protection (C) Homeostasis(D) Reproduction (E) Absorption of vitamin D
D
42 Open circulatory system is found in _____________ (A) Lizard (B) Toad (C) Fish (D) Insect (E)Chicken
D
43 Ovary is to the female reproductive system as________ is to the male reproductive system (A)Penis (B) Urethra (C) Testis (D) Cowperrsquos gland (E) Prostate gland
C
44 Possession of pinna is a characteristic feature of (A) Mammals (B) Reptiles (C) Fishes (D)Amphibians (E) All of the above
A
45 Tadpoles respire with (A) Lungs (B) Nostril (C) Gills (D) Spiracles (E) Siphon C
46 The excretory organ in the earthworm ishelliphelliphelliphellip (A) Malphigian tubule (B) Stoma (C)Nephriduim (D) Flame cells (E) Gills
C
47 The nerves that connect the eyes to the brain are called ndashndash (A) Cranial nerves (B) Optical nerves(C) Sensory nerves (D) Olfactory nerves (E) Optic nerves
E
48 The nerves that connect the eyes to the brain are called ndashndash (A) Cranial nerves (B) Optical nerves(C) Sensory nerves (D) Olfactory nerves (E) Optic nerves
E
49 The parasympathetic nervous system is involved in (A) Dilation of pupil of the eye (B) Controlthe activities of smooth muscles (C) Dilatation of the skin (D) Controls thinking in mammals (E)Increased metabolism
B
50 The part of the alimentary system of a bird where grinding of food occurs is (A) Crop (B)Stomach (C) Cloaca (D) Rectum (E) Gizzard
E
51 The part of the ear that contains receptors that convert the fluid motion into action potential iscalled ndashndash (A) Auditory nerve (B) Ossicles (C) Semicircular canals (D) Cochlea (E) Oval window
D
52 The thoracic region of the vertebral column is made up of __________ vertebrae (A) 5 (B) 7 (C) 4(D) 12 (E) 10
D
53 Which of the animal below is poikilothemic (A) Toad (B) Chicken (C) Bat (D) Lion (E) Dove A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
BIOLOGY
4
54 Which of the structures below is found in reptiles and birds (A) Scales (B) Legs (C) Beaks (D)Claws (E) All of the above
A
55 Which of these animals is photosynthetic (A) Paramecium sp (B) Amoeba sp (C) Euglena sp(D) Hydra sp (E) None of the above
C
56 Which of these organs regulate the amount of sugar in the blood (A) Liver (B) Kidney (C) Spleen(D) Lung (E) Pancreas
E
57 The basis for growth and asexual reproduction is (A) meiosis (B) cytokinesis (C) mitosis (D)Cytogenesis (E) Cell elongation
C
58 The process which ensures that the chromosome number for each species of organism remainconstant from generation to generation is called (A) fission (B) fusion (C) meiosis (D) mitosis(E) oogenesis
C
59 Which of the following is a major factor in variation among organisms (A) Inbreeding (B)Backcrossing (C) Test crossing (D) Sexual reproduction (E) Gene dominance
D
60 ____________ is an example of an invertebrate (A) Millipede (B) Fish (C) Toad (D) Snake (E) Skin A
61 ____________ is the odd one in the list below (A) Mosquito (B) Bee (C) Moth (D) Tick (E)Beetle
63 _____________ is an example of a unicellular organism (A) Amoeba sp (B) Hydra sp (C) Ascarissp (D) Taenia sp (E) Obelia sp
A
64 _____________ level is the highest level of organization in animals (A) System (B) Tissue (C)Organ (D) Cellular (E) Protoplasmic
A
65 Crocodiles are _____________ (A) Fishes (B) Amphibians (C) Mammals (D) Birds (E) None of theabove
E
66 The mutation theory of organic evolution was propounded by (A) Gregor Mendel (B) Hugo deVrics (C) Jean Lamarck (D) Charles Darwin (E) Robert Hookes
D
67 The theory of natural selection was developed by (A) Lamarck and Darwin (B) Darwin andWallace (C) Wallace and Mendel (D) Mendel and Lamarck (E) Hooke and Darwin
B
68 Which is the odd animal in the list below (A) Lizards (B) Snakes (C) Turtles (D) Tortoise (E) Toad E
69 Which of the following sources is not an evidence of evolution (A) Fossil records B Comparativeanatomy C Comparative embryology (D) Human behavior (E) None of the above
D
70 _______________ is an endoparasite (A) Earthworm (B) Tapeworm (C) Mosquito (D) Housefly (E)Tsetse fly
B
71 The causative agent of bird flu is a (A) Virus (B) Bacteria (C) Fungus (D) Protozoan (E) Ricketsia A
72 In lower plants like mosses the structure which performs the functions of roots of higher plantsis called (A) root hairs (B) rootlets (C) hyphae (D) rhizoids (E) thalli
D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
BIOLOGY
5
73 One common feature of fungi algae mosses and ferns is that they are (A) photosynthetic (B)show alternation of generation (C) can survive harsh weather conditions (D) have no seeds (E)conjugate
D
74 The following are major groups of the plant kingdom EXCEPT (A) Bryophyta (B) Chlorophyta (C)Pteridophyta (D) Spermatophyta (E) Thallophyta
B
75 _____________is a form of sexual reproduction (A) Grafting (B) Budding (C) Fission (D)Conjugation (E) Regeneration
D
76 Sexual reproduction in Spirogyra is called (A) Fertilization (B) Symbiosis (C) Conjugation (D)Reproduction (E) Mutualism
C
77 The carrier of the hereditary characters in plants is the (A) Cell (B) nucleus (C) chromosome (D)chloroplast (E) gene
E
78 All are necessary for photosynthesis except_____________ (A) Water (B) Chlorophyll (C)Sunlight (D) Carbon dioxide (E) Oxygen
E
79 Growing yam tendrils climb for support This growth response is (A) haptotropism (B) geotropism(C) phototropism (D) hydrotropism (E) chemotropism
A
80 Which is the correct order in an evolutionary sequence for the following plant groups (A)Bacteria rarr ferns rarr algae rarr mosses rarr seed plants (B) Bacteria rarr ferns rarr mosses rarr algae rarr seed plants (C) Bacteria rarr algae rarr mosses rarr ferns rarr seed plants (D) Bacteria rarr mosses rarr algae rarr ferns rarr seed plants (E) Seed plants rarr ferns rarr mosses rarr algae rarr bacteria
C
81 ------------ is not part of the whorls of a flower(A)calyx (B) corolla (C) androecium (D)Antheridium (E)Gynoecium
D
82 A dry fruit which can break into several parts each containing one seed is a (A) caryopsis (B)aggregate fruit (C) legume (D) follicle (E) schizocarp
E
83 A dry indehiscent winged fruit formed from one carpel is known as a (A) Schizocarp (B)Caryopsis (C) Samara (D) nut (E) Follicle
C
84 A true fruit is formed from (A) fertilized ovary and other floral parts (B) a fertilized ovary (C) afertilized ovary and calyx (D) a fertilized and fleshy receptacle (E) an unfertilized ovary and otherfloral parts
B
85 Irish potato is a (A) bulb (B) tap root (C) rhizome (D) root tuber (E) stem tuber D
86 One major difference between an Angiosperm and a Gymnosperm is that seeds in Gymnospermsare borne in (A) Cones (B) fruits (C) flowers (D) ovary (E) ovule
A
87 Reserved food material in the seed is stored in the (A) epicarp (B) endocarp (C) endosperm (D)mesocarp (E) all parts
C
88 What type of fruit is a mango fruit (A) Berry (B) Hesperidium (C) Drupe (D) Nut (E) Mango fruit C
89 Which of the following species exhibit an aerial root (A) Ficus (B) Centrosema (C) Antigonon(D) Lantana (E) Dahlia
A
90 Which of these plants has an emerginate apex (A) Bauhinia (B) Pistia (C) Ixora (D) Musa (E)Terminalia
A
91 Which plant stores food in its roots (A) Cassava (B) cocoyam (C) Irish potato (D) onion (E)yam
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
BIOLOGY
6
92 An example of Vascular tissues is -------------- (A) Trichome (B) Xylem (C) Stomata (D) Epidermis(E) Parenchyma
B
93 The living part of phloem tissue is (A) sieve plate (B) companion cell (C) sieve element (D)cytoplasm
B
94 Which of the following tissues are made up of dead cells (A) meristems (B) xylem vessels (C)cambium (D) mesophyll (E) palisade
B
95 A plant vacuole contains (A) dissolved chemicals sugars salts pigments and crystals (B) wasteproducts of metabolism DNA RNA and crystals (C) pigments crystals DNA and waste productsof metabolism (D) RNA DNA sugars and salts
A
96 Excessive loss of water in plants is known as (A) Osmosis (B) Osmoregulation (C) Transpiration (D)Excretion
C
97 Starch granules in plants is equivalent to _____________ granules in animals (A) Food (B)Chromatin (C) Lysosome (D) Mitochondria (E) Glycogen
E
98 Which of the following is a plant excretory product (A) Oil (B) Cytokinin (C) Resin (D)amino acids (E) gibberellins
C
99 A plant which grows on another without causing harm to the host plant is called ndashndash (A) aparasite (B) a saprophyte (C) an epiphyte (D) a predator (E) a prey
C
100 Plants which can survive in places where water supply is limited are (A) bryophytes (B)mesophytes (C) xerophytes (D) hydrophytes (E) pteridophytes
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
1
1 200 cm3 of air was passed over heated copper in a syringe several times to produce copper (II)oxide When cooled the final volume of air recorded was 158 cm3 Estimate the percentage ofoxygen in the air (A) 31 (B) 27 (C) 21 (D) 19
C
2 30cm3 of oxygen at 10 atmosphere pressures is placed in a 20dm3 container Calculate the newpressure if temperature is kept constant (A) 67 atm (B) 150 atm (C) 600 (D) 660
B
3 Bond dissociation energy of 500 KJ mol-1 may be assigned to (A) ionic bonding (B) covalentbonding (C) hydrogen bonding D) metallic bonding (E) van-der-waals bonding
A
4 A mixture of iron and sulphur can be separated by dissolving the mixture in __ (A) steam (B)dilute hydrochloric acid (C) dilute sodium hydroxide (D) benzene
B
5 A mixture of sand ammonium chloride and sodium chloride is best separated by __ (A)sublimation followed by addition of water and filtration (B) sublimation followed by addition ofwater and evaporation (C) addition of water followed by filtration and sublimation (D) additionof water followed by crystallization and sublimation
A
6 A pure solid usually melts __ (A) over a wide range of temperature (B) over a narrow range oftemperature (C) at a lower temperature than the impure one (D) at the same temperature asthe impure one
B
7 A small quantity of solid ammonium chloride was heated gently in a test tube the solidgradually disappeared to produce a mixture of two gases Later a white cloudy deposit wasobserved on the cooler part of the test tube The ammonium chloride is said to haveundergone __ (A) distillation (B) sublimation (C) precipitation (D) evaporation
B
8 CH4 has this geometry (A) trigonal (B) planar (C) tetrahedral (D) octahedral (E) linear C
9 Chlorine consisting of two isotopes of mass numbers 35 and 37 has an atomic mass of 355The relative abundance of the isotope of mass number 37 is ___ ( A)20 (B) 25 (C) 50 (D) 75
B
10 Elements P Q R S have 6 11 15 and 17 electrons respectively therefore (A) P will form anelectrovalent bond with R (B) Q will form a covalent bond with S (C)R will form an electrovalentbond with S (D) Q will form an electrovalent bond with S
D
11 In the oil drop experiment Millikan determined the (A) charge to mass ratio of the electron (B)mass of the electron (C) charge of the electron (D) mass of the proton
C
12 One of these atomic shells is the most stable (A) M (B) N (C) K (D) L (E) 0 C
13 Sieving is a technique used to separate mixtures containing 20 oxygen by volume Which ofthe reactants was in excess (A) Carbon (II) oxide (B) Oxygen (C) Carbon (IV) oxide (D) Nitrogen
A
14 The abnormally high boiling point of water is primarily due to (A) ionic bonding (B) covalentbonding (C) dative bonding (D) coordinate covalent bonding (E) hydrogen bonding
E
15 The energy required to remove an electron from the isolated gaseous atom is known as (A)electron affinity (B) bond energy (C) lonisation energy (D) electronegativity (E) electrovalency
C
16 The group that oxygen belongs to is collectively called (A) allotropes (B) halogens (C)chalcogens (D) alkenes (E) ozonides
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
2
17 The ideal gas equation is ___ ( A) P=nRT (B) PR =nVT (C) PV =gRT (D) V=kT (E) PV = K V A
18 The number of atoms in one mole of a substance is equal to (A) the atomic number (B) theAvogadrorsquos number (C) number of neutrons (D) number of electrons (E) gas constant
B
19 The number of electrons in the outermost shell of the atom represents its (A) period (B)number of shells (C) group (D) atomic number (E) electronegativity
C
20 The number of protons or electrons of an atom represents its (A) electronegativity (B) period(C) number of shells (D) group (E) atomic number
E
21 The partial pressure of oxygen in a sample of air is 500 mmHg If the total Pr pressure 780mmHg what is the mole fraction of the oxygen (A) 064 [B (B) 573 (C) 156 (D) 070 (E) 054
A
22 The periodic classification of the elements is an arrangement of the elements in order of their(A) atomic weights (B) isotopic weights (C) molecular weights (D) atomic numbers
D
23 The process of changing one element into another is called (A) radioisotope (B) radioactivity (C)dating (D) transmutation (E) nuclear reaction
D
24 The shapes of CO2 H2O and CH4 respectively are (A) bent linear and tetrahedral (B) benttetrahedral and linear (C) tetrahedral linear and bent (D) linear bent and tetrahedral
D
25 This compound exhibits ionic bonding (A) H20 (B) H2 (C) KC1 (D) NH3 (E) HF C
26 This type of bonding involves overlapping of orbitals during which electrons are shared (A)hydrogen bonding (B) covalent bonding (C) ionic bonding (D) metallic bonding (E) van-der-waals bonding
B
27 Which one of the following changes is physical (A) Adding iron filings to aerated water (B)Adding sodium metal to water (C) Cooling a solution of iron(II) sulphate to obtain the hydratedsalt (D) Cooling water to obtain ice
D
28 A side effect of soft water is that (A) it gives offensive taste (B) excess calcium is precipitated(C) it encourages the growth of bacteria (D) it attacks lead contained in pipes
D
29 Ammonia is very soluble in water because it is a an molecule (A) non-polar (B) polar (C)reactive (D) basic (E) acidic
B
30 Citrus fruits such as lemon and grape taste sour because they contain (A) ascorbic acid andcitric acid (B) citric acid and ascetic acid (C) citric acid and dilute HCl (D) citric acid and salicyclicacid (E) Sulphuric acid
A
31 Soap lather is an example of a colloid in which a (A) liquid is dispersed in gas (B) solid isdispersed in liquid (C) gas is dispersed in liquid (D) liquid is dispersed in liquid
C
32 The air around a petroleum refinery is most likely to contain(A) CO2 SO3 and N2O (B) CO2 COand N2O (C) SO2 CO and NO2 (D) PH3 H2O and CO2
C
33 The difference between colloids and suspensions is brought out clearly by the fact that whilecolloids (A) do not scatter light suspensions do (B) can be separated by filtration suspensionscannot be so separated (C) can be separated by a membrane suspensions cannot (D) do notsettle out on standing suspensions do
D
34 The following substances are non-electrolytes except (A) chloroform (B) sugar cane (C) aceticacid (D) NaCl (E) C and D
E
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
3
35 The hydrolysis of NH4Cl salt will give (A) acidic solution (B) neutral solution (C) basic solution(D) hot solution (E) all of the above
A
36 The pollutants that are likely to be present in an industrial environment are (A) H2S SO2 andoxides of nitrogen (B)NH3 HCl and CO (C) CO2 NH3 and H2S (D) dust NO and Cl2
A
37 What is the basicity of tetraoxosulphate (VI) acid (A) 2 (B) 1 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) 0 A
38 Which of the following gases is the most dangerous pollutant (A) Hydrogen sulphide (B)Carbon (IV) oxide (C) Sulphur (IV) oxide (D) Carbon (II) oxide
D
39 Which of the following ions is a pollutant in drinking water even in trace amount (A) Ca2+ (B)Hg2+ (C) Mg2+ (D) Fe2+
B
40 Which of the following is an example of a double salt (A) NH4Cl (B) alum (C) NaCO3 (D) AlCl3
(E) NaClB
41 016g of methane when burnt increases the temperature of 100g of water by 400(C) what isthe heat of combustion of methane if the heat capacity of water is 42 Jg-10C-1 (CH4=16) (A)1160kJmol-1 (B) 1180kJmol-1 (C) 1560kJmol-1 (D) 1600kJmol-1 (E) 1680kJmol-1
E
42 A charged car battery has ___ energy that can be converted into another energy called ___energy (A) Chemical electrical (B) mechanical chemical (C) heat mechanical (D) lightelectrical (E) light heat
A
43 Copper oxide is heated with charcoal to produce carbon monoxide and copper The reaction isan example of (A) both oxidation and reduction (B) neither oxidation and reduction (C)oxidation only (D) reduction only (E) neutralization
A
44 For each oxygen atom in hydrogen peroxide which acts as an oxidant there is an oxygen atomwhich acts as a an (A) Oxidant (B) reductant (C) oxidizing agent (D) catalyst (E) inhibitor
B
45 Given the change of phase CO2(g) changes to CO2(s) the entropy of the system (A) decreases(B) increases (C) remains the same
A
46 In which of the following is the entropy change positive (A) Reaction between an acid and abase (B) Addition of concentrated acid to water (C) Dissolution of sodium metal in water(D) Thermal dissociation of ammonium chloride
C
47 One of these elements is the best reducing agent (A) Pb (B) Rb (C) Al (D) In (E) N B
48 The name of the gas driven off at the negative electrode during the electrolysis of brine is ___( A) hydrogen (B) chlorine (C) oxygen (D) sodium (E) hydrogen chloride
B
49 The oxidation state of P in H2P2072- is ___ (A) -3 (B) +3 (C) +1 (D) +5 (E) -2 D
50 The oxidation state of S in Ca(HS03)2 is __ (A) +2 (B) -2 (C) +4 (D) -4 (E) +6 C
51 The oxidizing agent in the reaction 3Br2 + 6OH- = BrO3- + 5Br- + 3H2O is __ (A) Br2 (B) OH- (C)
BrO3- (D) e- (E) H2OA
52 When heat is absorbed during a chemical reaction the reaction is said to be ___(A) thermodynamic (B) exothermal (C) isothermal (D) endothermic (E) thermostatic
D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
4
53 Given the reaction at equilibrium 2CO(g) + O2(g) harr 2CO2(g) When the reaction is subjected tostress a change will occur in the concentration of (A) reactants only (B) products only (C)both reactants and products (D) neither reactants nor products
C
54 Given the reaction at equilibrium N2(g) + O2(g) harr 2NO(g) as the concentration of N2(g)increases the concentration of O2(g) will (A) decrease (B) increase (C) remains the same (D)vanishes (E) pours away
A
55 If a reaction is exothermic and there is a great disorder it means that (A) The reaction is in astate of equilibrium (B) There will be a large increase in free energy (C) There will be a largedecrease in free energy (D) The reaction is static
B
56 In the chemical reaction of A + B = C +D more of D is formed (A) if the concentration of A isreduced (B) if the concentration of B is reduced (C) if the concentration of C is reduced (D) ifthe concentration of C is increased (E) if it is continuously removed from the reaction mixture
E
57 In what way is equilibrium constant for the forward reaction related to that of the reversereaction (A) The addition of the two is expected to be one (B) The product of two isexpected to be one (C) The two equilibrium constants are identical (D) The product of thetwo is always greater than one
C
58 In which reaction will the point of equilibrium shift to the left when the pressure on the systemis increased (A) C(s) + O2(g) harr CO2(g) (B) CaCO3(s) harr CaO(s) + CO2(g) (C) 2Mg(s) + O2(g) harr 2MgO(s) (D) 2H2(g) + O2(g) harr2H2O(g)
B
59 The furring of kettles is caused by the presence in water of __ (A) calcium trioxocarbonate (IV)(B) calcium tetraoxosulphate (VI) (C) calcium hydroxide (D) calcium hydrogentrioxocarbonate(IV)
D
60 Which is a property of a reaction that has reached equilibrium (A) The amount of products isgreater than the amount of reactants (B) The amount of products is equal to the amount ofreactants (C) The rate of the forward reaction is greater than the rate of the reverse reaction(D) The rate of the forward reaction is equal to the rate of the reverse reaction
D
61 Which of the following combination of conditions many increase the rate of a chemicalreaction (A) Decrease in temperature increase in concentration of the reactant (B) Increase intemperature addition of a catalyst decrease in the surface area of the reactant (C) Increase intemperature increase in concentration addition of a catalyst and increase in the surface areaof the reactant (D) Decrease in temperature concentration and surface area of the reactants(E) Addition of catalyst and in the absence of light
C
62 ldquoQuicklimerdquo has the formula __ (A) Ca(OH)2 (B) CaO (C) CaCO3 (D) CaSO42H2O (E) CaCl2 B
63 A Transition metal is different from a non-transition metal because (A) it has an octetconfiguration (B) it is very stable (C) it is coloured (D) it has incomplete outer shell d-electrons(E) it has no electron in the d-orbital
D
64 Chlorine is produced commercially by (A) electrolysis of dilute HCl (B) electrolysis of brine (C)neutralization of HCl (D) heating potassium trioxochlorate (V) (E) action of dilute mineral acidson bleaching powder
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
5
65 Chlorine bromine and iodine resemble one another since they __ (A)dissolve in alkalis (B) reactviolently with H2 without heating (C)displace each other from solutions of their salts (D) aregases (E) are liquids
A
66 Liquid oxygen may be produced by condensation of air using this coolant (A) liquid phosphorus(B) liquid gas (C) liquid paraffin (D) liquid nitrogen (E) butane
D
67 One of these is another form of oxygen (A) hydroxide (B) ozone (C) peroxide (D) sulphoxide (E)water B
68 One of these metals is not an alkali metal (A) K (B) Cs (C) Sr (D) Rb (E) Fr C
70 The formation of ozone by reaction of O2 with atomic oxygen in UV light occurs in (A) upperatmosphere (B) inner atmosphere (C) stratosphere (D) hemisphere (E) none of these
A
71 The halogen which is chiefly produced commercially from sea water is ___ ( A) Fluorine (B)chlorine (C) Bromine (D) iodine (E) Astatine
B
72 The most stable allotropic form of sulphur at normal conditions is ___ ( A) monoclinic sulphur(B) rhombic sulphur (C) amorphous sulphur (D) plastic sulphur (E) ordinary sulphur
B
73 The products obtained when the following chemical reaction is completed and balancedarehellipHNO3 + Ca(OH)2 rarr ______ (A) CaNO3 + H2O (B) Ca(NO3)2 + 2 H2O (C) CaO + 2 NO2 + 3H2O(D) Ca + 2 NO3 + 2 H2O
B
74 What is the role of iron and Aluminium oxide in ammonia production (A) dehydrating agent(B) catalytic agent (C) oxidizing agent (D) bonding agent (E) preservative agent
B
75 When carbon IV oxide is bubbled through lime water the solution becomes milky dueformation of (A) Ca(HCO3)2 (B) CaCO3 (C) Ca(N03)2 (D)CaCl2 (E) CaSO4
B
76 Which of the following gases dissolves in water vapour to produce acid rain during rainfall (A)Oxygen (B) Carbon (II) oxide (C) Nitrogen (D) Sulphur (IV) oxide
D
77 Which of the following is not allotrope of carbon (A) diamond (B) graphite (C) buckminsterfullerene (D) all of the above (E) none of the above
E
78 Which oxide is amphiprotic (amphoteric) (A) MgO (B) NaO (C) CaO (D) ZnO (E) BeO D
79 Why will it always be more difficult to extract potassium ions from sea water than to extractmagnesium ions This is because (A) most potassium compounds are less soluble in water (B)most potassium compounds are quite soluble in water (C) presence of other alkali metal ionshas great influence on it (D) magnesium ion is an alkaline earth metal ion (E) None of theabove
B
80 ___________ can be used to test for reducing sugars (A) Iodine solution (B) bromine water (C)Fehlingrsquos solution (D) de-ionized water
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
6
81 2CH3COOH + Zn rarr The product of this reaction is (A) (CH3COO)2Zn + Zn (B) CH3COO CH3 +Zn (C) (CH3COO)2Zn + H2 (D) CH3COOH + CH4
C
82 A ketone reacts with hydroxylamine to give (A) a hydrazone (B) an alkanonitrile (C) a nitrosocompound (D) an oxime
D
83 Alkanoic acids are weak acids and ionises in solution to give (A) R+ + COOH (B) RCOO- + H+ (C)RCOO+ + H- (D) RCO+ + OH-
B
84 An excess of ethanol heated with concentrated H2SO4 at a temperature of 180oC is dehydratedto give mostly (A) ethane (B) ethene (C) ethanol (D) ethoxyethane
B
85 Butene can be distinguished from benzene by reaction with (A) Hydrochloric acid (B) Brominewater (C) Potassium sulphate (D) Sodium hydroxide
B
86 Detergent is more efficient than soap in cleansing clothes and dishes because of the followingreasons except that (A) the corresponding Ca and Mg compound formed is soluble in H2O (B)detergents are not affected by hardness of water (C) it cleans better than soap (D) it is lessexpensive
D
87 In the manufacture of soap industrially brine is used to__________the acid salt (A) oxidise(B) reduce (C) bleach (D) precipitate
D
88 Methane gas can be made from carbon (II) oxide gas according to the equation2CO(g) + 2H2(g) rarr CH4(g) + CO2(g) Calculate the mass of CO required to produce 875 x 1025
molecules of CH4 At masses C=12011 H= 1008 O = 15999 Avogadrorsquos no 6022 x1023molecules mole (A) 8140g (B) 4070g (C) 1600g (D) 3200g (E) 2035g
A
89 Potassium ethanoate is formed when (A) Methanoic acid reacts with KOH (B) Ethanoic acidreacts with KOH (C) Methanol reacts with KCO3 (D) Ethanol reacts with CH3COOH
B
90 Saponification is defined as (A) Acidic hydrolysis of fat or oil (B) Alkali hydrolysis of fat or oil(C) Condensation of two monomer units (D) Mixture of glacial ethanoic acid and excess ofsimple alkanol
B
91 Soaps and detergents have the same basic characteristics except that the carboxyl group of thefatty acid in detergent is replaced by (A) alcohol (B) sulphate or a sulphonate group (C) ester(D) acids
B
92 The relatively high boiling point of alkanols is due to (A) aliphatic character (B) ionic bonding(C) hydrogen bonding (D) covalent bonding
C
93 Two important sources of detergent are (A) fatoils and hydrocarbons (B) coal and cement (C)pulp and wood (D) water and gas
A
94 What is the process associated with conversion of vegetable oil to soap (A) Esterification (B)Saponification (C) hydrolysis (D) Acidification
B
95 When ethanal vapour is passed over manganese (II) ethanoate (manganese acetate) catalyst inthe presence of air the product is (A) ethanoate (B) ethanol (C) methanol (D) ethanoic acid
D
96 When KOH is used instead of NaOH in the production of soap it has the following advantagesexcept it gives (A) softer soap (B) harder soap (C) soap with lower melting point (D) moresoluble soap
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
7
97 When palm wine is left exposed to air for a few days it goes sour The bacteria in the airoxidises________ in palm wine to _________ (A) ethanol ethanoic acid (B) ethanoic acidethanol (C) ester ethanoic acid (D) ether ethanol
A
98 Which of the following is not true about benzoic acid (A) It is aromatic in nature (B) It can bemanufactured from methylbenzene (C) It has molecular formula C6H6COOH (D) It sublimesreadily
C
99 Which of the following reactions is correct (A) C6H5COOH + CaO rarr C6H5Ca + HCO3 (B)C6H5COOH + CaO rarr C6H6 + CaCO3 (C) C6H5COOH + PCl5 rarr C6H5Cl + H2PO4 (D) C6H5COOH +C2H5OH rarr C6H6 + C3H8COOH
B
100 Which of these is not a property of ethanedioic acid (A) It is a stronger acid than ethanoic acidbut weaker than inorganic acids (B) It is a reducing agent (C) It is an oxidising agent (D) It issoluble in cold water
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
USE OF ENGLISH
1
Read the passages below and answer the questions that follow
PASSAGE AEvery discernible observer could foresee the crisis which engulfed the Edo Houselast week Only a few days before reports were rife about the AC reaching out tosome PDP legislators to cross-carpet The intention being to gain a majority andthen assume the Speakership with the least constraint Zakawanu Garuba the thenSpeaker retorted with a fiat threatening to declare vacant the seat of any defectorThis in spite of the constitutional support for such action as evidenced forexample by the crisis that has torn the PDP apart in Edo State The party has twofactional chairmen in the state even though one is more vociferousThe desperate attempt by Garuba to cling to the Speakerrsquos chair is condemnable Hewas not being recalled from the legislature and so he still has his seat as a floormember As speaker he was only first among equals The Speakership is not hisbirthright With the defection of one PDP lawmaker to the AC the legislaturereconvened hours after the bloodbath and elected a protem Speaker whileimpeaching and suspending Garuba and a few others They are to be probed
(Adapted from The Guardian Thursday March 4 2011 p14)
1 Why did AC woo PDP membersA they are few in numberB they want speakership without stressC PDP members are faithfulD The House is tough
2 The legislators impeachedA GarubaB PDP lawmakersC Garuba and some PDP lawmakersD Garuba and some lawmwkers
3 According to the passage the constitution supportsA The speakerB DefectingC Edo StateD Factional chairmen
4 The lawmakers reconvenedA After the defection of a PDP memberB After the bloodbathC After suspending the SpeakerD After electing a protem Speaker
B
A
D
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
USE OF ENGLISH
2
5 At the end what happened to GarubaA He was vindicatedB He was indictedC He was honouredD He was humiliated
6 To cross-carpet as used in the passage means toA change partyB renew membership of a partyC change onersquos carpetD buy new carpet
7 The crisis in the Edo State House of Assembly could be predicted byA The lawmakersB Edo State indigenesC The protem SpeakerD All conscious observers
B
C
A
PASSAGE B
Nigeria has a troubled power sector which is however undergoing reforms thathopefully should usher in era of private sector dominance in terms of ownershipand management of generation and distribution In this transitory phase it is crucialto lay a foundation for local sourcing of vital inputs and make it the norm for theindustry That is the only way to prevent a replication of the trend in the oil and gassub-sector where capital flight is as much as $ 16 billion per annum as revealed bythe Petroleum Technology Development FundThe PHCN could legitimately insist on quality and standards in its procurement ofequipment and materials but what is playing out is an institutional orientationevinced in several pursuits of the PHCN that are contemptuous of Nigeriarsquosaspiration for local content development In 1998 the defunct National ElectricPower Authority defied a directive by the then Minister of Power and steel AlhajiBashir Dalhatu to source its costable components from Nigerian foundries some ofwhich are of high standards Actuated by a realization of idle capacity in thefoundries and the need to conserve foreign exchange the Minister appliedappropriate pressure on the management of NEPA but found his efforts frustratedThe acute shortage or inefficiency in the metering programme originated from thefact that the only local manufacturer then the Federal Government-ownedelectricity Meter Company in Zaria Kaduna State established in 1976 but sold toDantata Investments Limited in December 2002 is not performing(Adapted from The Punch Wednesday May 25 2011 Pg 18)
8 Why is there shortage of meterA Non-performance of PHCNB Non-performance of NEPAC Non-performance of the Federal Government-owned electricity
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
USE OF ENGLISH
3
Meter CompanyD Non-performance of Dantata Investment Ltd
9 According to the passage the solution to the problem in the power sector lies inA Sourcing for materials locallyB Getting costable componentsC Obeying the ministerD Getting $ 16 billion per annum
10 From the passage it is clear thatA There is money in the countryB There is shortage of electricity meterC NEPA is better than PHCND NEPA was formed in 1998
11 Which of these is not true of the power sectorA There is only one local manufacturer of electricity meterB The power sector is undergoing reformsC The problem of the power sector cannot be solvedD there was procurement of equipment and materials
12 Which of these is undergoing reformsA NEPAB PHCNC NigeriaD The power sector
13 A suitable title for this passage isA Nigeria and her problemsB NEPA versus PHCNC Electricity meterD Problems in the power sector
A
B
C
D
D
Choose the option that best completes the gap14 University students helliphelliphelliphelliphellipbehave well (A) can (B) should (C) may (D)
mustB
15 Gloria helliphelliphelliphellip have finished the project two days ago (A) must (B) may (C)can (D) supposed to
A
16 You are Goodluck (A) are you (B) arenrsquot you (C) arersquont you (D) donrsquotyou
B
17 He helliphelliphelliphelliphellip not come now (A) needs (B) needed (C) need (D) will need C18 Janet to know that we are all here (A) suppose (B) supposes (C) is
supposed (D) should supposeC
19 Let it be that there was no king in Ayegun (A)know (B) knew (C) known(D) knows
C
20 We shall see you soon (A) shall we (B) shanrsquot we (C) shouldnrsquot we (D)should we
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
USE OF ENGLISH
4
21 Neither of the presidential candidates suitable (A) are (B) is (C) is been(D) are been suitable
B
22 Ten miles ____ a great distance (A) is (B) are (C) is been A23 If I were the president I ask for the money (A) will (B) should (C) would
(D) canC
24 I will see you after I spoken with your supervisor (A) might have (B) have(C) will have (D) would have
B
25 ldquoYou - now see the directorrdquo the secretary told the visitors (A) can (B)may (C) should (D) would
B
26 She isnrsquot Gloria (A) is she (B) isnrsquot she (C) arenrsquot she (D) doesnrsquot she A27 We have a bus (A) didnrsquot we (B) havenrsquot we (C) doesnrsquot we (D) hasnrsquot
weB
28 I knew David let us down (A) may (B) will (C) might (D) can C29 You helliphelliphellip me last week (A) ought to see (B) ought to had seen (C) ought to
have seen (D) had to have seenC
30 Twenty dollars ___ enough for my lunch (A) are (B) is (c ) are just B31 The pests ____ our farm every year (A) invade (B) invades (c ) has invades A32 If I were the Governor I ask for the project (A) will (B) should (C) would
(D) canC
33 When helliphellip the Cleric today (A) doesarrives (B) doesarrived (C)doesarrive (D) do arrive
C
34 We shall see you soon (A) shall we (B) shanrsquot we (C) shouldnrsquot we (D)should we
B
35 You missed the match (A) donrsquot you (B) didnrsquot you (C) hadnrsquot you (D)doesnrsquot you
B
36 Walk the dog right now (A) walknrsquot you (B) will you (C)shall you(D)would you
B
37 I am a student (A) Irsquom I (B) arenrsquot I (C) isnrsquot I (D) wouldnrsquot I BPick out the oddwrong expression in each of the following
38 (A) I heard his supposed apology (B) I heard his unconvincing apology (C) Iheard his suppose apology (D) I heard he was supposed apology
D
39 (A) I suppose you know the way (B) I am supposed you know the way (C) Isuppose he knows the way (D) They suppose he knows the way
B
40 (A) I travel next week (B) I will travel next week (C) I suppose to travelnext week (D) I should travel next week
C41 (A) Having discovered the error he apologized (B) Having discovered the
error the apology was tendered (C) Having known the error he apologised(D) Having found out the error he tendered an apology B
42 (A) The job has been done (B) The job has been being done (C) They havedone the job (D) They can have done the job
D
43 (A) She must finish the project in two days (B) She must finish the project twodays ago (C) She must have finished the project two days ago (D) She ought tohave finished the project two days ago
B
44 (A) If I went in there I would beat the security officer (B) If I go in there Iwould beat the security officer (C) If I go in there I will beat the securityofficer (D) If I go in there I can beat the security officer
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
USE OF ENGLISH
5
Choose the option that most appropriately expresses the idea in theunderlined expression
45 My friendrsquos parentrsquos are magnanimous (A) rich and popular (B) sociable andlovable (C) kind and generous (D) wicked and stingy
C
46 My friend has an overbearing attitude toward me (A) patient (B) impatient(C) opinionated and domineering (D) considerate and respectful
C
47 There are a number of makeshift buildings in town (A) modern buildings (B)old fashion buildings (C) temporary buildings (D) permanent buildings
C
48 Post UME is a hurdle to cross (A) a necessary and simple exam to pass (B) anunnecessary and difficult exam to pass (C) an unnecessary but simple exam topass (D) a necessary and challenging exam to pass
D
49 His contribution to the project is invaluable (A) extremely useful (B) of novalue (C) of little value (D) can not be valued
A
50 That was a dawn-to-earth approach (A) poor (B) ordinary (C) practical (D)immodest
B
51 Concerning my admission I have to cross my fingers (A) wait and hope for thebest (B) wait in frustration (C) wait confidently (D) take some risk
A
52 My father is indifferent to my choice of University (A) supports (B) opposes(C) not decided (D) not concerned
D
53 We need an ad hoc arrangement towards the project (A) intelligent (B)advanced (C) permanent (D) temporary
D
54 The studentrsquos reply to the lecturer betrayed his rudeness (A) covered (B)showed (C) reduced (D) increased
C
55 His conduct in the last elections was above board (A) arrogant (B) honest (C)above average (D) excellent
C
56 That was a dispassionate decision (A) bias (B) personal (C) unaffected (D)ineffective
C
57 On the matter of worship some sit on the fence (A) go to the extreme (B) aredecisive (C) are fanatics (D) are undecided
D
Choose the option that is nearest in meaning to the word underlined58 In this matter we must be prepared to tolerate human frailty (A)
75 Her health deteriorated rapidly (A) worsened (B) improved (C) stagnated (D)declined
B
Which of the following sentences is correct76 (A) One should mind his business (B) One should mind onersquos business (C) One
should mind her businessB
77 (A) This case is between you and I (B) This case is between you and me (C)This case is between the two both of us
B
78 (A) With them around we have a great problem on our hands (B) With themaround we have a great problem on our hand (C) With them around wehave a great problem on hand
A
79 (A) The dog wagged itrsquos tail (B) The dog wagged its tail (C) The dog waggeditsrsquo tail
B
80 (A) A ten year old boy is missing (B) A ten-year-old boy is missing (C) A tenyear-old boy is missing
B
81 Choose the option that sounds the same with two (A) tool (B) too (C) tow (D)to
B
82 Choose the option that sounds the same with bear (A) bare (B) beer (C)bared (D) beard
B
83 Choose the option that sounds the same with the given word Key (A) kiss(B) quay (C) keyed (D) kissed
B
Choose the word that is correctly spelled84 (A) acomodation (B) accommodation (C) accomodation (D) acommodation B85 (A) embarrassment (B) embarassment (C) embarrasment (D) embarasment A86 (A) horrific (B) horific (C) horiffic (D) horriffic A87 As soon as Joy arrived she started looking for food The underlined
expression is an ----------- (A) adverbial phrase of reason (B) adverbial clauseof reason (C) adverbial phrase of time (D) adverbial clause of time
D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
USE OF ENGLISH
7
88 My friend a brilliant lecturer won many prizes The underlined expression isa(n) (A) adjectival clause (B) relative clause (C) appositive phrase (D)subject of lsquowonrsquo
C
89 I passed very well because I studied hard The underlined expression is a (A)relative clause introducer (B) linking verb (C) adverb of reason (D)subordinating conjunction
D
90 Bello and I love each other (A) preposition (B) reciprocal pronoun (C) nounphrase (D) adjectival phrase
B
91 I prefer writing to acting The underlined expressions is a(n) -------- (A) verb(B) participle (C) gerund (D) object
C
92 Having finished my assignment I started watching television The underlinedexpression is a(n) -------- (A) infinitive clause (B) gerund (C) participialphrase (D) noun clause
C
93 If you leave early yoursquoll meet Sola at home The underlined expression is a ----------- (A) nominal clause (B) verbal clause (C) conditional clause (D)adjectival clause
C
94 Wounded by a lion the hunter trudged home The underlined expression is a-----------(A) nominal clause (B) verbal clause (C) participial clause (D)adjectival clause
C
95 Irsquom proud of you The underlined expression functions as(A) prepositionalcomplement (B) adjectival complement (C) subject complement (D) verbalcomplement
B
96 A noun phrase lacks one of the following (A) noun (B) verb (C) adjective (D)adverb
B
97 Eve gave Adam an apple An apple in the sentence functions as------------(A)subject of the verb lsquogaversquo (B) direct object of the verb (C) indirect object ofthe verb (D) object complement
B
98 I wonder if you know where he lives This sentence is a(n) (A) thoughtfulstatement (B) polite command (C) indirect question (D) subtle exclamation
A
99 An example of gradable adjectives is hellip (A) each (B) beautiful (C) dead (D)live
B
100 A clause differs from a phrase because a clause contains helliphelliphellip (A) a largernumber of words (B) a fewer number of words (C) a finite verb (D) a non-finite verb
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
1
1 A ball is thrown up into the air At the highest point of its trajectory the ball (A) Is acceleratingdownwards (B) has zero acceleration (C) is accelerating upwards (D) is still moving upwards
B
2 A ball of mass 200 g moving with a velocity of 8 ms collides and sticks with another ball ofmass 300 g moving in the same direction with velocity 4 ms What is the common velocity ofthe balls after the collision (A) 56 ms-1 (B) 28 ms-1 (C) 112 ms-1 (D) 14 ms-1
A
3 A boy holds the end of a rubber cord from which hangs a solid metal ball if the boy whirls theball in a horizontal circle keeping his hand still If the rubber cord breaks when the ball is at apoint on the circle in what direction will the ball move (A) towards the hand of the boy Baway from the hand of the boy C in the direction of the tangent to the circle at the point ofbreak D None of the above
C
4 A force of 20 N applied parallel to the surface of horizontal table is just sufficient to make ablock of mass 4 kg set for motion Find the acceleration when the force is doubled (A) 2 ms-2
(B) 4 ms-2 (C) 5 ms-2 (D) 10 ms-2
C
5 A man walks 1 km due east and then 1 km due north His displacement is (A) 1 km N15degE (B) 1km N30degE (C) radic2 km N45degE (D) 2 km N75degE
C
6 A motor car moves with a velocity of 20 ms-1 on a rough horizontal road and covers adisplacement of 50 m Find the coefficient of dynamic friction between the type and theground (g = 10 ms-2) (A) 03 (B) 06 (C) 05 (D) 04
D
7 A physics student standing on the edge of a cliff throws a stone vertically downward with aninitial speed of 100 ms The instant before the stone hits the ground below it is traveling ata speed of 300 ms If the physics student were to throw the rock horizontally outward fromthe cliff instead with the same initial speed of 100 ms what is the magnitude of the velocityof the stone just before it hits the ground(A) 100 ms (B) 200 ms (C) 300 ms (D) 400 ms
C
8 A quantity is defined as the product of cross-sectional area and change in momentum per unitlength Which of the following is its SI unit (A) Nm (B) kgs-1 (C) kgm2s-1 (D) Nkgs-1
C
9 A rectangular concrete block 40 cm x 30 cm x 60 cm of mass 10 kg rests on a horizontal flatsurface What is the minimum pressure it can possibly exert on the surface (A) 8166 Nm-2
(B) 816 6 Nm2 (C) 4083 Nm-2 (D) 6084 Nm
C
10 A simple hydrometer consists of uniform cylinder suitably weighted to float upright in mostcommon liquids It is graduated to read the relative density of a liquid directly Which of thefollowing is NOT correct (A) When placed in a liquid it displaces exactly its own weight of theliquid (B) Its graduation increases from top to base (C) When placed in a liquid it displacesexactly its own volume of the liquid (D) The product of the volume and density of liquiddisplaced is equal to its mass
C
11 A stone which is dropped into a dry well hits the bottom in 22 s How deep is the well (Takeg=10ms) (A) 404 m (B) 24 m (C) 484 m (D) 242 m
D
12 A woman whose mass is 70 kg sits 24 m from the fulcrum of a seesaw At what distance fromthe fulcrum should a 60 kg man sit to balance the seesaw (A) 28 m (B) 24 m (C) 32 m (D)38 m
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
2
13 An air bubble trapped at a depth in a liquid rises to the surface Which of the following is trueabout its mass and density as it rises (A) Its mass and density increase (B) Its mass is constantwhile its density decreases (C) Its mass and density is constant (D) Its mass is constant whileits density increases
B
14 Complete the following sentence The operation of a hydraulic jack is an application of (A)Pascals principle B Archimedesrsquo principle (C) Bernoullis principle (D) irrotational flow
A
15 Complete the following statement Today the standard meter is defined in terms of (A) thedistance from the earthrsquos equator to the north pole (B) the wavelength of light emitted from akrypton atom (C) the wavelength of light emitted from a sodium atom (D) the speed of light
D
16 Convert 30 metre per second to centimeter per minute (A) 20000 cmmin (B) 180000cmmin (C) 120000 cmmin (D) 150000 cmmin
B
17 During a football match player A kicks the ball 40 m 30o E of S to player B who instantly kicks it30 m 60o E of N What is the magnitude of the resultant displacement of the ball (A) 30 m (B)40 m (C) 50 m (D) 60 m
C
18 How much work is done against gravity in sliding a 500g object through 2 m up a smooth planethat is inclined at 30o to the horizontal (g = 98 ms-2) (A) 98 J (B) 198 J (C) 162 J (D) 49 J
D
19 If a small body of mass m is moving with angular velocity ω in a circle of radius r what is itskinetic energy (A) mω r (B) m ω 2r2 (C) m ω r22 (D) m ω 2r22
D
20 In free fall two balls of masses 20 kg and 10 kg were dropped from a height If the ball withthe smaller mass reached the ground after 4 s what is the difference between the time thetwo balls reach the ground (A) 8 s (B) 2 s (C) 0 s (D) 4 s
C
21 In what distance can a 1500 kg automobile be stopped if the brake is applied when the speedis 20 ms and the coefficient of sliding friction is 07 between the tyres and the ground(A) 9810 m (B) 7167 m (C) 2915 m (D) 2010 m
C
22 The highest point of a simple pendulum bob is 5cm vertically above the lowest point as itswings to and fro between the two extreme ends At what velocity does it swing past thelowest point (equilibrium point) where the string is vertical (take g = 10 ms2) (A) 1 ms (B) 2ms (C) 5 ms (D) 10 ms
A
23 Three vectors A B and C add together to yield zero A + B + C = 0 The vectors A and C point inopposite directions and their magnitudes are related by the expression A = 2C Which one ofthe following conclusions is correct (A) A and B have equal magnitudes and point in oppositedirections (B) B and C have equal magnitudes and point in the same direction (C) B and Chave equal magnitudes and point in opposite directions (D) A and B point in the samedirection but A has twice the magnitude of B
B
24 Which of the following could be measured in the same units as force (A) Energydistance (B)Energy x distance (C) Energytime (D) Momentum x distance
A
25 Which of the following does not affect the pressure at a point beneath the surface of a liquid(A) Surface area of the liquid (B) Density of the liquid (C) Depth of the point below thesurface (D) Strength of the gravitational field
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
3
26 Which of the following pairs contains one vector and one scalar quantity (A) Displacementacceleration (B) Force kinetic energy (C) Momentum velocity (D) Power speed
B
27 Which of the following statements is correct (A) uniform speed always implies uniformvelocity (B) uniform speed always implies zero acceleration (C) uniform speed may imply non-zero acceleration (D) constant momentum implies constant acceleration
C
28 Which of the of the following is a measurement taken with Venier callipers (A) 20 cm (B)200 cm (C) 2000 cm (D) 20000 cm
B
29 Which of the units of the following physical quantities are derived I Area II Thrust IIIPressure IV Mass (A) I II III and IV (B) I II and III only (C) I II and IV only (D) I and II only
B
30 Which one of the following situations is not possibleA A body has zero velocity and non-zero accelerationB A body travels with a northward velocity and a northward accelerationC A body travels with a constant velocity and a time-varying accelerationD A body travels with a constant acceleration and a time-varying velocity
C
31If C is the thermal capacity of a material of mass m and S is its specific heat capacity then (A)C= sm (B) S = Cm (C) C = Sm (D) DS = ms
C
32 A black car can be more uncomfortably hot on a warm day than a white car because (A) it ishot on a warm day (B) a black object is a better absorber of heat (C) black cars have heatersinstalled in them (D) white cars have air conditioning systems installed in them
B
33 A little sag is left in overhead telephone wires (A) because taut wires do not conduct soundeasily (B) to allow for the effect of a rise in temperature due to heating effect of currentflowing through them (C) to allow for the effect of a rise in temperature of the surroundingatmosphere (D) to allow for the effect of a fall in temperature of the surroundingatmosphere
D
34 A piece of copper wire of length 100 cm at 30oC is heated to 120oC If its linear expansivity is18 times10-4 k its new length is (A) 1666 cm (B) 1016 cm (C) 1806 (D) 108 cm
B
35 A sample of a monatomic ideal gas is originally at 20 degC What is the final temperature of thegas if both the pressure and volume are doubled (A) 5 degC (B) 80 degC (C) 20 degC (D) 899 degC
B
36 A volatile liquid used for cooling purpose in refrigerator is (A) liquid ammonia (B) cold water(C) liquid nitrogen (D) liquid helium
A
37 Complete the following statement A temperature decrease of 30 Cdeg is equal to a temperaturedecrease of (A) 30 Fdeg (B) 17 Fdeg (C) 30 K (D) 86 Fdeg
D
38 Complete the following statement Bimetallic strips used as adjustable switches in electricappliances consist of metal strips that must have different (A) mass (B) volume (C) length(D) expansion coefficients
D
39 Heat can be transferred from one end of a metal rod in contact with heat to the other endwhich is in contact with heat through (A) Conduction (B) Convection (C) Radiation (D)Evaporation
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
4
40 Heat supplied or removed from a system which causes a change of state without a change intemperature is (A) Specific heat (B) Heat capacity (C) Latent heat (D) Boiling heat
C
41 How many atmospheres of pressure must a litre of gas initially at a pressure of 1 atmosphereand temperature -20oC be after it has been compressed to frac12 litre at 40oC A 247 atm(B) 45 atm (C) 80 atm (D) 38 atm (E) 168 atm
A
42 On a cold day a good conductor X feels colder to the torch than a poor conductor Y because(A) Y retains more heat than X (B) the temperature of X is lower than that of Y (C) X conductsheat from the body less rapidly than Y (D) X transfers heat from body more rapidly than Y
D
43 The boiling point of water does not depend on (A) the impurities in water (B) the externalpressure (C) the quantity of water (D) all of the above
C
44 The ice and steam points of a local liquid in glass thermometer are 10 a and 90a respectivelyWhat will the thermometer read when the temperature is 30 0C (A) 40a (B) 38a (C) 36a(D) 34a
D
45 The lower and upper fixed points on a thermometer are 40 and 120 respectively Its reading at60oC is (A) 60 (B) 40 (C) 160 (D) 88
D
46 The pressure exerted by a given mass of gas in a container (A) Decreases if the container isheated (B) Increases if the molecules of the gas move faster (C) Increases if the volume of thecontainer is doubled (D) Decreases as the kinetic energy of the gas molecules increases
B
47 The temperature in an electric iron is regulated by (A) thermometer (B) bimettalic strip (C)steel (D) conductor
B
48 Water has an anomalous behavior between 0o and 4oC Which of the following is correct (A)Mass of water increases between 0oC and 4oC (B) Density of water decreases between 0oC and4oC (C) Volume of water increases between 0oC and 4oC (D) Volume of water decreasesbetween 0oC and 4oC
D
49 What is the Celsius equivalent of 500deg F (A) 10deg C (B) 20deg C (C) 30deg C (D) 40deg C A
50 When water is heated in a glass vessel the level first falls and then rises because (A) Theapparent expansion of the water is initially small and later increases (B) There is anomalousexpansion of water (C)The glass vessel does not expand (D)Glass vessel expands first beforewater starts a more rapid expansion
D
51 Which of the following quantities of water has undergone the greatest change from its heatcontent at melting point (A) 05 kg of water at 3oC (B) 02 kg of water at 8oC (C) 0005 kg ofwater at 80oC (D) 01 kg of water at 12oC
B
52 Which would cause a more serious burn 30 g of steam or 30 g of liquid water both at 100 degC
and why is this so
(A) Water because it is denser than steam (B) Steam because of its specific heat capacity
(C) Steam because of its latent heat of vaporization (D) Water because its specific heat is
greater than that of steam
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
5
53 A certain radioactive element has a half life of 20 years How long will it take the activity tobecome frac14 of its original(A) 20 years (B) 40 years (C) 60 years (D) 80 years
B
54 A plane progressive wave is represented by xty 20100sin2 where all the symbols
have their usual meanings What is the velocity of the wave
(A) 500 m s-1 (B) 400 m s-1 (C) 200 m s-1 (D) 100 m s-1
A
55 A point on a stationary wave where there is no movement of the medium is called (A) Node(B) Antinode (C) Note (D) Amplitude
A
56 A uniform wave has a speed of 10ms and a period of 05 s The distance between two nearestcrests is (A) 02 m (B) 20 m (C) 2 m (D) 5 m
D
57 A vibrating string has a tension of 40 and produces a note of whenݖܪ200 plucked in themiddle When the length of string is unaltered and the tension is increased to160 thefrequency becomes(A) ݖܪ1600 (B) ݖܪ800 (C) ܪ400 (D) ݖܪ200
C
58 An organ pipe closed at one end is 80cm long Determine the frequency of the fundamentalnote assuming that the speed of sound in air is 340ms (A) 213Hz (B) 318Hz (C) 425Hz (D)106Hz
D
59 As transverse wave moves through a medium the particles of the medium (A) vibrate in apath parallel to the path of the wave (B) do not move (C) vibrate in a path perpendicular tothe path of the wave (D) vibrate at an angle of 60o to the path of the wave
C
60 The sound heard after the reflection of sound wave from a plane surface is known as (A) Echo(B) Refraction (C) Vibration (D) Revibration
A
61 Which of the following properties is not common to all waves (A) Reflection (B) interference(C) Diffraction (D) Polarization
D
62 Which of the following statements is true about electromagnetic waves (A) They arelongitudinal (B) They can be seen (C) They have the same frequency in vacuum (D) They travelat the same speed in a vacuum
D
63 Which one of the following statements concerning electromagnetic waves is false (A)Electromagnetic waves are longitudinal waves (B) Electromagnetic waves transfer energythrough space (C) The existence of electromagnetic waves was predicted by Maxwell (D)Electromagnetic waves can propagate through a material substance
A
64 Which one of the following statements concerning waves is false (A) A wave can have bothtransverse and longitudinal components (B) A wave carries energy from one place to another(C) A wave does not result in the bulk flow of the material of its medium (D) A transversewave is one in which the disturbance is parallel to the direction of travel
D
65 A light sensitive area at the back of the eye where images are formed is called (A) Yellow Spot(B) Iris (C) Ciliary Muscle (D) Retina
D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
6
66 A luminous object is placed at a given distance from a converging lens of focal length 12cm anda real image is produced Find the image distance if it is equal to the object distance (A) 6cm(B) 3cm (C) 12cm (D) 24cm
D
67 An object is placed 15 cm in front of a concave mirror of radius 40 cm The image formed is(A) virtual and 60 cm behind the mirror (B) real and 60 cm in front of the mirror (C) virtual and40 cm from the mirror (D) at infinity
B
68 How far from a concave mirror of radius 120 cm must an object be placed such that its erectimage is four times its natural size (A) 72 cm (B) 64 cm (C) 45 cm (D) 50 cm
C
69 How many images are formed when an object is placed in front of two plane mirrors that areinclined at angle 30o to each other (A) 0 (B) 6 (C) 11 (D) 12
C
70 Professor Peters walks directly toward a plane mirror at a speed of 025 ms Determine thespeed of the image relative to him(A) 013 ms (B) 050 ms (C) 025 ms (D) 075 ms
B
71 The angle of incidence in a denser medium when the angle of refraction in the less dense
72 The driving mirror is a (A) plane mirror (B) convex mirror (C) concave mirror (D) thick planemirror
B
73 The following are types of a converging lens except(A) biconvex (B) plano-convex (C) mini-convex (D) converging meniscus
C
74 When the Sun the earth and the moon are in line during their movement with the earth beingthe opaque object and casting its shadow on the moon we have (A) Lunar eclipse (B) Totaleclipse (C) Partial eclipse (D) Annular eclipse
A
75 Which of the following instruments could be used in finding angle of elevation of the sun (A)Periscope (B) Telescope (C) Kaleidoscope (D) Sextant
D
76 Which of the following optical instruments does not depend on the use of plane mirrors (A)Kaleidoscope (B) Simple microscope (C) Sextant (D) Simple periscope
B
77 Which of the following statements supports the assumption that light travels in straight lines(A) light can be diffracted (B) light can be reflected (C) a source of light produces
interferences patterns on a suitably placed screen (D) a source of light produces distinctshadows of opaque objects
D
78Which of the following is correct about nuclear fission It is (A) the splitting of a heavynucleus into two or more lighter particles (B) an agent used to slow down neutrons in acontrolled atomic chain reaction (C) combing light atomic nuclei to form heavy (D) thespontaneous disintegration occurring in the nucleus of certain atoms
A
79 A light energy E falls on a metal and the electrons with a maximum kinetic energy of 02eV areejected If the work function of the metal is 03eV what is the value of E (A) 010eV (B)006eV (C) 050eV (D) 150eV
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
7
80 A nucleus is unstable if (A) it has two or more isotopes (B) its binding energy is not sufficientto hold nuclear particles together (C) it is very light with very low density (D) it has nosignificant mass
B
81 A radioactive substance has a half life of 4 years If its activity today is 200 dps its activity in 8years from today is (A) 50 dps (B) 25 dps (C) 20 dps (D) 10 dps
A
82 A substance has a half-life of 3min After 6min the count rate was observed to be 400Whatwas its count rate at zero time (A) 2400 (B) 200 (C) 1200 (D) 1600
D
83 An element and its isotopes differ only in the number of (A) electrons (B) neutrons (C)protons (D) irons
B
84 Complete the following sentence When electrons from a heated filament accelerate throughvacuum toward a positive plate (A) only an electric field will be produced (B) only amagnetic field will be produced (C) electromagnetic waves will be produced (D) longitudinalwaves will be produced
C
85 Radioactive elements are (A) chemically reactive elements (B) noble elements (C) rare earthelements (D) elements that spontaneously emit radiation
D
86 The following radiations are electrically neutral except (A) α-rays (B) ϒ-rays (C) X- rays (D)neutrons
A
87 Upon which one of the following parameters does the energy of a photon depend (A) mass(B) polarization (C) amplitude (D) frequency
D
88 Which of the following is NOT true about cathode ray (A) It moves in a straight line (B) Itcauses fluorescence (C) It possesses a negative charge (D) It can produce -particles
D
89 Who proposed the planetary model of the nucleus (A) J J Thomson (B) Albert Einstein (C)Ernest Rutherford (D) Marie Curie
C
90 X- rays cannot be used (A) to take photographs of bone structure in the body (B) to detectfinger prints (C) to detect flaws in metal castings (D) to detect alterations to works of art
B
91 1 farad is equivalent to (A) 1 coulombvolt (B) 1 voltcoulomb (C) 1 joulescoulomb (D) 1amperesec (E) volts per unit charge
A
92 A 0 - 10mA galvanometer with a coil resistance of 30 ohm can be converted to a 0-10Aammeter by using (A) 003ohm series resistor (B) 999ohm shunt resistor (C) 003ohm shuntresistor (D) 999ohm series resistor
C
93 A battery has an internal resistance of 4 and an emf of 12V The terminal voltage when a loadof 20 Ω is connected across it is (A) 4 (B) 10 V (C) 20 V (D) 2V
B
94 A conducting sphere has a net charge of 48 1017 C What is the approximate number ofexcess electrons on the sphere if the fundamental natural charge is -16 x 10-19C (A) 100 (B)300 (C) 200 (D) 400
B
95 A magnet cannot be demagnetized by (A) heating (B) hammering (C) chemical treatment (D)the use of solenoid through which an alternating current is flowing
C
96 An ac voltage is connected to an RLC series circuit of resistance 5 Ω inductance 3 mH and acapacitance of 005 microF Calculate the resonance frequency (A) 110 kHz (B) 120 kHz (C)130 kHz (D) 140 kHz
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
8
97 An electric heater converts 1KJ of electrical energy to heat energy every 2 second with 100efficiency The power produced is (A) 05 KW (B) 2 KW (C) 1KW (D) 10W
A
98 Complete the following statement The electromotive force is (A) the maximum potentialdifference between the terminals of a battery (B) the force that accelerates electrons througha wire when a battery is connected to it (C) the force that accelerates protons through a wirewhen a battery is connected to it (D) the maximum capacitance between the terminals of abattery
A
99 If a charged body is moving in a circle on a horizontal plane what is the general direction ofthe resulting magnetic field (A) In the plane of the circle (B) At an angle 45o to the plane ofmotion (C) Along the perpendicular axis through the center of the circle (D) Along thetangent to the circle
C
100 If a resistor is halved in magnitude and the potential across it is tripled then the ratio of theold current to the new current is (A) 13 (B) 31 (C) 61 (D) 16
D
101 The angle between the earthrsquos magnetic field and the horizontal is called angle of (A)declination (B) dip (C) variation (D) inclination
B
102 The basic difference between the galvanometer and the electric motor is (A) The size of themagnetic fields (B) The presence of hair springs in the galvanometer (C) The soft ironarmature in the galvanometer (D) The couple formed on the parallel sides of the rectangularcoil in the
B
103 The electromotive force is in such a direction as to oppose the motion or charge producing itThis is a statement of (A) Faradayrsquos Law (B) Lenz Law (C) Maxwell Law (D) Amperersquos law
B
104 The potential difference across the ends of a wire is doubled in magnitude If Ohmrsquos law isobeyed one of the following statements concerning the resistance of the wire is true (A) Theresistance is one half of its original value (B) The resistance is twice its original value (C) Theresistance is not changed (D) The resistance increases by a factor of four
C
105 The process of adding impurity to a semiconductor to increase its conductivity is called (A)Doping (B) Annealing (C) Heating (D) Hardening
A
106 Which if the following combinations consists of intrinsic properties of materials (A) volumeand density (B) density and mass (C) resistance and resistivity (D) density and resistivity
C
107 Which of the following can be measured with a potentiometer (A) Emf of a secondary cell (B)Resistivity of a wire (C) Potential difference across a conductor (D) Resistance of a wire
A
108 Which of the following devices is odd in the list (A) thermocouple (B) potentiometer (C) dcgenerator (D) solar cell
B
109 Which of the following is an essential physical property of the wires used for making fuses (A)high thermal conductivity (B) low density (C) low melting point (D) low electrical resistivity
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
9
110 Which one of the following statements concerning the magnetic force on a charged particle ina magnetic field is true (A) It is a maximum if the particle is stationary (B) It is a maximum ifthe particle moves parallel to the field (C) It acts in the direction of motion for a positivelycharged particle (D) It depends on the component of the particles velocity that isperpendicular to the field
D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
1
1 A ball is thrown up into the air At the highest point of its trajectory the ball (A) Is acceleratingdownwards (B) has zero acceleration (C) is accelerating upwards (D) is still moving upwards
B
2 A ball of mass 200 g moving with a velocity of 8 ms collides and sticks with another ball ofmass 300 g moving in the same direction with velocity 4 ms What is the common velocity ofthe balls after the collision (A) 56 ms-1 (B) 28 ms-1 (C) 112 ms-1 (D) 14 ms-1
A
3 A boy holds the end of a rubber cord from which hangs a solid metal ball if the boy whirls theball in a horizontal circle keeping his hand still If the rubber cord breaks when the ball is at apoint on the circle in what direction will the ball move (A) towards the hand of the boy Baway from the hand of the boy C in the direction of the tangent to the circle at the point ofbreak D None of the above
C
4 A force of 20 N applied parallel to the surface of horizontal table is just sufficient to make ablock of mass 4 kg set for motion Find the acceleration when the force is doubled (A) 2 ms-2
(B) 4 ms-2 (C) 5 ms-2 (D) 10 ms-2
C
5 A man walks 1 km due east and then 1 km due north His displacement is (A) 1 km N15degE (B) 1km N30degE (C) radic2 km N45degE (D) 2 km N75degE
C
6 A motor car moves with a velocity of 20 ms-1 on a rough horizontal road and covers adisplacement of 50 m Find the coefficient of dynamic friction between the type and theground (g = 10 ms-2) (A) 03 (B) 06 (C) 05 (D) 04
D
7 A physics student standing on the edge of a cliff throws a stone vertically downward with aninitial speed of 100 ms The instant before the stone hits the ground below it is traveling ata speed of 300 ms If the physics student were to throw the rock horizontally outward fromthe cliff instead with the same initial speed of 100 ms what is the magnitude of the velocityof the stone just before it hits the ground(A) 100 ms (B) 200 ms (C) 300 ms (D) 400 ms
C
8 A quantity is defined as the product of cross-sectional area and change in momentum per unitlength Which of the following is its SI unit (A) Nm (B) kgs-1 (C) kgm2s-1 (D) Nkgs-1
C
9 A rectangular concrete block 40 cm x 30 cm x 60 cm of mass 10 kg rests on a horizontal flatsurface What is the minimum pressure it can possibly exert on the surface (A) 8166 Nm-2
(B) 816 6 Nm2 (C) 4083 Nm-2 (D) 6084 Nm
C
10 A simple hydrometer consists of uniform cylinder suitably weighted to float upright in mostcommon liquids It is graduated to read the relative density of a liquid directly Which of thefollowing is NOT correct (A) When placed in a liquid it displaces exactly its own weight of theliquid (B) Its graduation increases from top to base (C) When placed in a liquid it displacesexactly its own volume of the liquid (D) The product of the volume and density of liquiddisplaced is equal to its mass
C
11 A stone which is dropped into a dry well hits the bottom in 22 s How deep is the well (Takeg=10ms) (A) 404 m (B) 24 m (C) 484 m (D) 242 m
D
12 A woman whose mass is 70 kg sits 24 m from the fulcrum of a seesaw At what distance fromthe fulcrum should a 60 kg man sit to balance the seesaw (A) 28 m (B) 24 m (C) 32 m (D)38 m
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
2
13 An air bubble trapped at a depth in a liquid rises to the surface Which of the following is trueabout its mass and density as it rises (A) Its mass and density increase (B) Its mass is constantwhile its density decreases (C) Its mass and density is constant (D) Its mass is constant whileits density increases
B
14 Complete the following sentence The operation of a hydraulic jack is an application of (A)Pascals principle B Archimedesrsquo principle (C) Bernoullis principle (D) irrotational flow
A
15 Complete the following statement Today the standard meter is defined in terms of (A) thedistance from the earthrsquos equator to the north pole (B) the wavelength of light emitted from akrypton atom (C) the wavelength of light emitted from a sodium atom (D) the speed of light
D
16 Convert 30 metre per second to centimeter per minute (A) 20000 cmmin (B) 180000cmmin (C) 120000 cmmin (D) 150000 cmmin
B
17 During a football match player A kicks the ball 40 m 30o E of S to player B who instantly kicks it30 m 60o E of N What is the magnitude of the resultant displacement of the ball (A) 30 m (B)40 m (C) 50 m (D) 60 m
C
18 How much work is done against gravity in sliding a 500g object through 2 m up a smooth planethat is inclined at 30o to the horizontal (g = 98 ms-2) (A) 98 J (B) 198 J (C) 162 J (D) 49 J
D
19 If a small body of mass m is moving with angular velocity ω in a circle of radius r what is itskinetic energy (A) mω r (B) m ω 2r2 (C) m ω r22 (D) m ω 2r22
D
20 In free fall two balls of masses 20 kg and 10 kg were dropped from a height If the ball withthe smaller mass reached the ground after 4 s what is the difference between the time thetwo balls reach the ground (A) 8 s (B) 2 s (C) 0 s (D) 4 s
C
21 In what distance can a 1500 kg automobile be stopped if the brake is applied when the speedis 20 ms and the coefficient of sliding friction is 07 between the tyres and the ground(A) 9810 m (B) 7167 m (C) 2915 m (D) 2010 m
C
22 The highest point of a simple pendulum bob is 5cm vertically above the lowest point as itswings to and fro between the two extreme ends At what velocity does it swing past thelowest point (equilibrium point) where the string is vertical (take g = 10 ms2) (A) 1 ms (B) 2ms (C) 5 ms (D) 10 ms
A
23 Three vectors A B and C add together to yield zero A + B + C = 0 The vectors A and C point inopposite directions and their magnitudes are related by the expression A = 2C Which one ofthe following conclusions is correct (A) A and B have equal magnitudes and point in oppositedirections (B) B and C have equal magnitudes and point in the same direction (C) B and Chave equal magnitudes and point in opposite directions (D) A and B point in the samedirection but A has twice the magnitude of B
B
24 Which of the following could be measured in the same units as force (A) Energydistance (B)Energy x distance (C) Energytime (D) Momentum x distance
A
25 Which of the following does not affect the pressure at a point beneath the surface of a liquid(A) Surface area of the liquid (B) Density of the liquid (C) Depth of the point below thesurface (D) Strength of the gravitational field
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
3
26 Which of the following pairs contains one vector and one scalar quantity (A) Displacementacceleration (B) Force kinetic energy (C) Momentum velocity (D) Power speed
B
27 Which of the following statements is correct (A) uniform speed always implies uniformvelocity (B) uniform speed always implies zero acceleration (C) uniform speed may imply non-zero acceleration (D) constant momentum implies constant acceleration
C
28 Which of the of the following is a measurement taken with Venier callipers (A) 20 cm (B)200 cm (C) 2000 cm (D) 20000 cm
B
29 Which of the units of the following physical quantities are derived I Area II Thrust IIIPressure IV Mass (A) I II III and IV (B) I II and III only (C) I II and IV only (D) I and II only
B
30 Which one of the following situations is not possibleA A body has zero velocity and non-zero accelerationB A body travels with a northward velocity and a northward accelerationC A body travels with a constant velocity and a time-varying accelerationD A body travels with a constant acceleration and a time-varying velocity
C
31If C is the thermal capacity of a material of mass m and S is its specific heat capacity then (A)C= sm (B) S = Cm (C) C = Sm (D) DS = ms
C
32 A black car can be more uncomfortably hot on a warm day than a white car because (A) it ishot on a warm day (B) a black object is a better absorber of heat (C) black cars have heatersinstalled in them (D) white cars have air conditioning systems installed in them
B
33 A little sag is left in overhead telephone wires (A) because taut wires do not conduct soundeasily (B) to allow for the effect of a rise in temperature due to heating effect of currentflowing through them (C) to allow for the effect of a rise in temperature of the surroundingatmosphere (D) to allow for the effect of a fall in temperature of the surroundingatmosphere
D
34 A piece of copper wire of length 100 cm at 30oC is heated to 120oC If its linear expansivity is18 times10-4 k its new length is (A) 1666 cm (B) 1016 cm (C) 1806 (D) 108 cm
B
35 A sample of a monatomic ideal gas is originally at 20 degC What is the final temperature of thegas if both the pressure and volume are doubled (A) 5 degC (B) 80 degC (C) 20 degC (D) 899 degC
B
36 A volatile liquid used for cooling purpose in refrigerator is (A) liquid ammonia (B) cold water(C) liquid nitrogen (D) liquid helium
A
37 Complete the following statement A temperature decrease of 30 Cdeg is equal to a temperaturedecrease of (A) 30 Fdeg (B) 17 Fdeg (C) 30 K (D) 86 Fdeg
D
38 Complete the following statement Bimetallic strips used as adjustable switches in electricappliances consist of metal strips that must have different (A) mass (B) volume (C) length(D) expansion coefficients
D
39 Heat can be transferred from one end of a metal rod in contact with heat to the other endwhich is in contact with heat through (A) Conduction (B) Convection (C) Radiation (D)Evaporation
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
4
40 Heat supplied or removed from a system which causes a change of state without a change intemperature is (A) Specific heat (B) Heat capacity (C) Latent heat (D) Boiling heat
C
41 How many atmospheres of pressure must a litre of gas initially at a pressure of 1 atmosphereand temperature -20oC be after it has been compressed to frac12 litre at 40oC A 247 atm(B) 45 atm (C) 80 atm (D) 38 atm (E) 168 atm
A
42 On a cold day a good conductor X feels colder to the torch than a poor conductor Y because(A) Y retains more heat than X (B) the temperature of X is lower than that of Y (C) X conductsheat from the body less rapidly than Y (D) X transfers heat from body more rapidly than Y
D
43 The boiling point of water does not depend on (A) the impurities in water (B) the externalpressure (C) the quantity of water (D) all of the above
C
44 The ice and steam points of a local liquid in glass thermometer are 10 a and 90a respectivelyWhat will the thermometer read when the temperature is 30 0C (A) 40a (B) 38a (C) 36a(D) 34a
D
45 The lower and upper fixed points on a thermometer are 40 and 120 respectively Its reading at60oC is (A) 60 (B) 40 (C) 160 (D) 88
D
46 The pressure exerted by a given mass of gas in a container (A) Decreases if the container isheated (B) Increases if the molecules of the gas move faster (C) Increases if the volume of thecontainer is doubled (D) Decreases as the kinetic energy of the gas molecules increases
B
47 The temperature in an electric iron is regulated by (A) thermometer (B) bimettalic strip (C)steel (D) conductor
B
48 Water has an anomalous behavior between 0o and 4oC Which of the following is correct (A)Mass of water increases between 0oC and 4oC (B) Density of water decreases between 0oC and4oC (C) Volume of water increases between 0oC and 4oC (D) Volume of water decreasesbetween 0oC and 4oC
D
49 What is the Celsius equivalent of 500deg F (A) 10deg C (B) 20deg C (C) 30deg C (D) 40deg C A
50 When water is heated in a glass vessel the level first falls and then rises because (A) Theapparent expansion of the water is initially small and later increases (B) There is anomalousexpansion of water (C)The glass vessel does not expand (D)Glass vessel expands first beforewater starts a more rapid expansion
D
51 Which of the following quantities of water has undergone the greatest change from its heatcontent at melting point (A) 05 kg of water at 3oC (B) 02 kg of water at 8oC (C) 0005 kg ofwater at 80oC (D) 01 kg of water at 12oC
B
52 Which would cause a more serious burn 30 g of steam or 30 g of liquid water both at 100 degC
and why is this so
(A) Water because it is denser than steam (B) Steam because of its specific heat capacity
(C) Steam because of its latent heat of vaporization (D) Water because its specific heat is
greater than that of steam
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
5
53 A certain radioactive element has a half life of 20 years How long will it take the activity tobecome frac14 of its original(A) 20 years (B) 40 years (C) 60 years (D) 80 years
B
54 A plane progressive wave is represented by xty 20100sin2 where all the symbols
have their usual meanings What is the velocity of the wave
(A) 500 m s-1 (B) 400 m s-1 (C) 200 m s-1 (D) 100 m s-1
A
55 A point on a stationary wave where there is no movement of the medium is called (A) Node(B) Antinode (C) Note (D) Amplitude
A
56 A uniform wave has a speed of 10ms and a period of 05 s The distance between two nearestcrests is (A) 02 m (B) 20 m (C) 2 m (D) 5 m
D
57 A vibrating string has a tension of 40 and produces a note of whenݖܪ200 plucked in themiddle When the length of string is unaltered and the tension is increased to160 thefrequency becomes(A) ݖܪ1600 (B) ݖܪ800 (C) ܪ400 (D) ݖܪ200
C
58 An organ pipe closed at one end is 80cm long Determine the frequency of the fundamentalnote assuming that the speed of sound in air is 340ms (A) 213Hz (B) 318Hz (C) 425Hz (D)106Hz
D
59 As transverse wave moves through a medium the particles of the medium (A) vibrate in apath parallel to the path of the wave (B) do not move (C) vibrate in a path perpendicular tothe path of the wave (D) vibrate at an angle of 60o to the path of the wave
C
60 The sound heard after the reflection of sound wave from a plane surface is known as (A) Echo(B) Refraction (C) Vibration (D) Revibration
A
61 Which of the following properties is not common to all waves (A) Reflection (B) interference(C) Diffraction (D) Polarization
D
62 Which of the following statements is true about electromagnetic waves (A) They arelongitudinal (B) They can be seen (C) They have the same frequency in vacuum (D) They travelat the same speed in a vacuum
D
63 Which one of the following statements concerning electromagnetic waves is false (A)Electromagnetic waves are longitudinal waves (B) Electromagnetic waves transfer energythrough space (C) The existence of electromagnetic waves was predicted by Maxwell (D)Electromagnetic waves can propagate through a material substance
A
64 Which one of the following statements concerning waves is false (A) A wave can have bothtransverse and longitudinal components (B) A wave carries energy from one place to another(C) A wave does not result in the bulk flow of the material of its medium (D) A transversewave is one in which the disturbance is parallel to the direction of travel
D
65 A light sensitive area at the back of the eye where images are formed is called (A) Yellow Spot(B) Iris (C) Ciliary Muscle (D) Retina
D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
6
66 A luminous object is placed at a given distance from a converging lens of focal length 12cm anda real image is produced Find the image distance if it is equal to the object distance (A) 6cm(B) 3cm (C) 12cm (D) 24cm
D
67 An object is placed 15 cm in front of a concave mirror of radius 40 cm The image formed is(A) virtual and 60 cm behind the mirror (B) real and 60 cm in front of the mirror (C) virtual and40 cm from the mirror (D) at infinity
B
68 How far from a concave mirror of radius 120 cm must an object be placed such that its erectimage is four times its natural size (A) 72 cm (B) 64 cm (C) 45 cm (D) 50 cm
C
69 How many images are formed when an object is placed in front of two plane mirrors that areinclined at angle 30o to each other (A) 0 (B) 6 (C) 11 (D) 12
C
70 Professor Peters walks directly toward a plane mirror at a speed of 025 ms Determine thespeed of the image relative to him(A) 013 ms (B) 050 ms (C) 025 ms (D) 075 ms
B
71 The angle of incidence in a denser medium when the angle of refraction in the less dense
72 The driving mirror is a (A) plane mirror (B) convex mirror (C) concave mirror (D) thick planemirror
B
73 The following are types of a converging lens except(A) biconvex (B) plano-convex (C) mini-convex (D) converging meniscus
C
74 When the Sun the earth and the moon are in line during their movement with the earth beingthe opaque object and casting its shadow on the moon we have (A) Lunar eclipse (B) Totaleclipse (C) Partial eclipse (D) Annular eclipse
A
75 Which of the following instruments could be used in finding angle of elevation of the sun (A)Periscope (B) Telescope (C) Kaleidoscope (D) Sextant
D
76 Which of the following optical instruments does not depend on the use of plane mirrors (A)Kaleidoscope (B) Simple microscope (C) Sextant (D) Simple periscope
B
77 Which of the following statements supports the assumption that light travels in straight lines(A) light can be diffracted (B) light can be reflected (C) a source of light produces
interferences patterns on a suitably placed screen (D) a source of light produces distinctshadows of opaque objects
D
78Which of the following is correct about nuclear fission It is (A) the splitting of a heavynucleus into two or more lighter particles (B) an agent used to slow down neutrons in acontrolled atomic chain reaction (C) combing light atomic nuclei to form heavy (D) thespontaneous disintegration occurring in the nucleus of certain atoms
A
79 A light energy E falls on a metal and the electrons with a maximum kinetic energy of 02eV areejected If the work function of the metal is 03eV what is the value of E (A) 010eV (B)006eV (C) 050eV (D) 150eV
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
7
80 A nucleus is unstable if (A) it has two or more isotopes (B) its binding energy is not sufficientto hold nuclear particles together (C) it is very light with very low density (D) it has nosignificant mass
B
81 A radioactive substance has a half life of 4 years If its activity today is 200 dps its activity in 8years from today is (A) 50 dps (B) 25 dps (C) 20 dps (D) 10 dps
A
82 A substance has a half-life of 3min After 6min the count rate was observed to be 400Whatwas its count rate at zero time (A) 2400 (B) 200 (C) 1200 (D) 1600
D
83 An element and its isotopes differ only in the number of (A) electrons (B) neutrons (C)protons (D) irons
B
84 Complete the following sentence When electrons from a heated filament accelerate throughvacuum toward a positive plate (A) only an electric field will be produced (B) only amagnetic field will be produced (C) electromagnetic waves will be produced (D) longitudinalwaves will be produced
C
85 Radioactive elements are (A) chemically reactive elements (B) noble elements (C) rare earthelements (D) elements that spontaneously emit radiation
D
86 The following radiations are electrically neutral except (A) α-rays (B) ϒ-rays (C) X- rays (D)neutrons
A
87 Upon which one of the following parameters does the energy of a photon depend (A) mass(B) polarization (C) amplitude (D) frequency
D
88 Which of the following is NOT true about cathode ray (A) It moves in a straight line (B) Itcauses fluorescence (C) It possesses a negative charge (D) It can produce -particles
D
89 Who proposed the planetary model of the nucleus (A) J J Thomson (B) Albert Einstein (C)Ernest Rutherford (D) Marie Curie
C
90 X- rays cannot be used (A) to take photographs of bone structure in the body (B) to detectfinger prints (C) to detect flaws in metal castings (D) to detect alterations to works of art
B
91 1 farad is equivalent to (A) 1 coulombvolt (B) 1 voltcoulomb (C) 1 joulescoulomb (D) 1amperesec (E) volts per unit charge
A
92 A 0 - 10mA galvanometer with a coil resistance of 30 ohm can be converted to a 0-10Aammeter by using (A) 003ohm series resistor (B) 999ohm shunt resistor (C) 003ohm shuntresistor (D) 999ohm series resistor
C
93 A battery has an internal resistance of 4 and an emf of 12V The terminal voltage when a loadof 20 Ω is connected across it is (A) 4 (B) 10 V (C) 20 V (D) 2V
B
94 A conducting sphere has a net charge of 48 1017 C What is the approximate number ofexcess electrons on the sphere if the fundamental natural charge is -16 x 10-19C (A) 100 (B)300 (C) 200 (D) 400
B
95 A magnet cannot be demagnetized by (A) heating (B) hammering (C) chemical treatment (D)the use of solenoid through which an alternating current is flowing
C
96 An ac voltage is connected to an RLC series circuit of resistance 5 Ω inductance 3 mH and acapacitance of 005 microF Calculate the resonance frequency (A) 110 kHz (B) 120 kHz (C)130 kHz (D) 140 kHz
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
8
97 An electric heater converts 1KJ of electrical energy to heat energy every 2 second with 100efficiency The power produced is (A) 05 KW (B) 2 KW (C) 1KW (D) 10W
A
98 Complete the following statement The electromotive force is (A) the maximum potentialdifference between the terminals of a battery (B) the force that accelerates electrons througha wire when a battery is connected to it (C) the force that accelerates protons through a wirewhen a battery is connected to it (D) the maximum capacitance between the terminals of abattery
A
99 If a charged body is moving in a circle on a horizontal plane what is the general direction ofthe resulting magnetic field (A) In the plane of the circle (B) At an angle 45o to the plane ofmotion (C) Along the perpendicular axis through the center of the circle (D) Along thetangent to the circle
C
100 If a resistor is halved in magnitude and the potential across it is tripled then the ratio of theold current to the new current is (A) 13 (B) 31 (C) 61 (D) 16
D
101 The angle between the earthrsquos magnetic field and the horizontal is called angle of (A)declination (B) dip (C) variation (D) inclination
B
102 The basic difference between the galvanometer and the electric motor is (A) The size of themagnetic fields (B) The presence of hair springs in the galvanometer (C) The soft ironarmature in the galvanometer (D) The couple formed on the parallel sides of the rectangularcoil in the
B
103 The electromotive force is in such a direction as to oppose the motion or charge producing itThis is a statement of (A) Faradayrsquos Law (B) Lenz Law (C) Maxwell Law (D) Amperersquos law
B
104 The potential difference across the ends of a wire is doubled in magnitude If Ohmrsquos law isobeyed one of the following statements concerning the resistance of the wire is true (A) Theresistance is one half of its original value (B) The resistance is twice its original value (C) Theresistance is not changed (D) The resistance increases by a factor of four
C
105 The process of adding impurity to a semiconductor to increase its conductivity is called (A)Doping (B) Annealing (C) Heating (D) Hardening
A
106 Which if the following combinations consists of intrinsic properties of materials (A) volumeand density (B) density and mass (C) resistance and resistivity (D) density and resistivity
C
107 Which of the following can be measured with a potentiometer (A) Emf of a secondary cell (B)Resistivity of a wire (C) Potential difference across a conductor (D) Resistance of a wire
A
108 Which of the following devices is odd in the list (A) thermocouple (B) potentiometer (C) dcgenerator (D) solar cell
B
109 Which of the following is an essential physical property of the wires used for making fuses (A)high thermal conductivity (B) low density (C) low melting point (D) low electrical resistivity
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
9
110 Which one of the following statements concerning the magnetic force on a charged particle ina magnetic field is true (A) It is a maximum if the particle is stationary (B) It is a maximum ifthe particle moves parallel to the field (C) It acts in the direction of motion for a positivelycharged particle (D) It depends on the component of the particles velocity that isperpendicular to the field
D
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9 Nematology is the (A) study of Insects (B) study of Viruses (C) study of Nematodes (D) C
study of Bacteria
10 Olericulture involves the cultivation of helliphelliphelliphelliphelliphellip (A) Tropical fruits (B) Ornamental plants C
(c) Vegetables (d) Orchards
11 One of these is a natural agricultural resource (A) water (B) petroleum (C) calcium (D) A
potatoes
12 Pesticides that are translocated to plant parts such that pests that feed on them are A
poisoned are called A Systemic pesticides (B) Attractants (C) Fumigants (D)
Repellents
13 Pests of crops that feed by piercing and sucking plants include the following except (A) stem A
81 The female sheep is known as (A) ewe (B) lamb (C) sow (D) mare A
82 The largest part of the oviduct where egg white is formed is the (A) Isthmus (B) Infudibulum D
(C) Uterus (D) Magnum
83 The male reproductive hormone is called (A) Testosterone (B) Testis (C) Thiamine (D) A
Globulin (E) Progesterone
84 The process of eliminating undesirable birds from the flock is known as (A)Dubbing (B) C
Removing (C) Culling (D) Degrading
85 The volume of the seminal fluid in chicken is about helliphelliphelliphelliphelliphelliphellip (A) 10mls (B) 50mls (c) C
05mls (d) 010mls
86 What is poultry science (A) Study of chickens (B) Study of science (c) Study of goats (d) A
Study of cattle
87 What is the gestation period of a cow (A) 5 months (B) 18frac12 months (C) 9 months (D) 24 C
months (E) 15 weeks
88 Which branch of poultry industry is concerned with the production of various kinds of feed C
(A) Hatchery industry (B) Poultry processing and marketing (C) Milling Industry (D) Poultry
equipment
89 Which of the following fish preservation method is common in the Northern part of A
Nigeria (A) Sun-drying (B) Gas drying (C) Oven drying
90 Which of the following is monogastric animal (A) Cattle (B) Goat (C) Rabbit (D) Sheep C
91 A farmer purchased a sprayer for N15000 in 2004 at the end of fifth year he sold it for B
N5000 What is the salvage value (A) N10000 (B) N5000 (C) N15000 (D) N
3000
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
AGRICULTURAL SCIENCE
92 Agricultural extension got its name from (A) spreading of information (B) taking information B
to farmers on field (C) having farm extension (D) none of these
93 Equilibrium price is (A) the point at which quantity of a commodity equals quantity B
supplied (B) the price at which quantity demanded of a commodity equals quantity
supplied (C) the point at which market price of a commodity equals quantity supplied (D)
the price at which quantity demanded of a commodity equals market price
94 Farm-gate price is usually obtained through (A) The producer (B) Middlemen (C) A
Commodity Boards (D) Cooperatives
95 One of the factors that influence supply is (A) Income (B) prices of other products (C) D
social capital (D) level of technology
96 People-oriented extension programmes which generate ideas and activities from the D
grassroots is called (A) grassroots approach (B) top down approach (C) community
approach (D) bottom up approach
97 The law of demand states that (A) demand is directly related to price of a commodity (B) B
higher the price of a commodity leads to lower quantity demanded (C) the price of a
commodity is directly proportional to the amount supplied (D) None of the above
98 The loss in value of an asset due to wear and tear in the course of its use is known as C
(A) Appreciation (B) Evaluation (C) Depreciation (D) Salvage value
99 Which of the following is not a problem of agricultural marketing in Nigeria (A) Lack of C
transport facilities (B) Scattered sources of supply (C) High quantity of farm produce (D)
Lack of good packaging and processing facilities
100 Which of the following is not a subject area in Agricultural Economics (A) Agribusiness C
management (B) Farm management and accounting (C) Agronomy (D) Agricultural
development and policy
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
BIOLOGY
1
1 ____________ is an end product of digestion of fat (A) Glucose (B) Fatty acid (C) Amino acid (D)Fructose (E) Galactose
B
2 Asexual reproduction in Hydra sp is commonly by ____ (A) Binary fission b Fragmentation cBudding d Separation (E) Regeneration
C
3 Benedictrsquos solution is used to test for ___ (A) Carbohydrate (B) Lipid (C) Protein (D) Vitamins (E)Minerals
C
4 Pepsin is an enzyme that digests ___ (A) Starch (B) Sugar (C) Lipid (D) Fat (E) Protein E
5 The breakdown of large organic molecules into smaller simpler soluble molecules is called ndashndash (A)Excretion (B) Digestion (C) Absorption (D) Reproduction (E) Ingestion
B
6 The enzyme that curdles milk is_____________ (A) Pepsin (B) Ptyalin (C) Renin (D) Amylase(E) Trypsin
C
7 Which is the enzyme that begins digestion of starch in the mouth (A) Ptyalin (B) Maltase (C)Amylase (D) Sucrase (E) Lactase
A
8 A group of interacting populations in a particular habitat can be described as ___(A) biome (B)biosphere (C) community (D) population ecosystem (E) environment
C
9 A habitat can be defined as ___(A) a group of animals and plants living within a commonboundary (B) a place in which plants and animals live (C) a community living together in thesame place (D) different areas with a common animal and plant population (E) None of theabove
B
10 A symbiotic relationship in which one organism is completely dependent on another organism iscalled ____ (A) Parasitism (B) Commensalisms (C) Mutualism (D) Saprophytism (E) Competition
A
11 An association between two organisms where both members benefit is known as ___ (A)symbiosis (B) commensalism (C) ammensalism (D) mutualism (E) saprophytism
D
12 An instrument used in measuring the speed of wind is (A) a barometer (B) a wind gauge (C) awind vane (D) an anemometer (E) a hydrometer
D
13 At times hyenas feed on remains of animals killed by other animals At other times hyenasthemselves kill animals for food Therefore hyenas may best be described as ndashndash (A) scavengersand herbivores (B) scavengers and parasites (C) scavengers and predators (D) herbivores andpredators e herbivores and parasites
C
14 Autecology is defined as the study of interrelationship of (A) many species of organisms and theirenvironment (B) same species of organisms and their environment (C) organisms in theatmosphere (D) organisms under the earthrsquos surface (E)None of the above
B
15 Autotrophs are also described as ndashndash (A) Consumers (B) Decomposers (C) Carnivores (D)Producers (E) Herbivores
D
16 If three 30cm lengths of glass tubing are tightly packed with clay sand and loamy soilsrespectively and then stood in a beaker of water for one week the level of water will be (A)Lowest in the tube with clay (B) The same in all the tubes (C) Lowest in the tube with loamy soil(D) Highest in the tube with sandy soil (E) Lowest in the tube with sandy soil
E
17 In a community bacteria and fungi are referred to as ndashndash (A) producers (B) consumers (C)scavengers (D) tertiary consumers (E) decomposers
E
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
BIOLOGY
2
18 Puddles Ponds Rivers Seas and Oceans are grouped together as ndashndash (A) Ecosystem (B) Biosphere(C) Aquatic habitat (D) Terrestrial habitat (E) Marine environment
C
19 The feeding pattern in an ecosystem is calledhelliphelliphelliphellip (A) Pyramid of energy (B) Food web (C)Food chain (D) Pyramid of member (E) Ecology
B
20 The orderly changes that occur slowly and naturally in plant and animal communities in a givenarea over a period of time until a stable community is established is called ndashndash (A)Transformational change (B) ecological succession (C) survival of the fittest (D) weatherchange (E) environmental change
B
21 The sign + is used to indicate an association where an organism gains while 0 is used where anorganism is unaffected An association indicated as +0 is known as ndashndash (A) predation (B)commensalism (C) parasitism (D) competition (E) ammensalism
B
22 The sum total of all the roles an organism plays in a habitat is referred to as (A) ecology (B)ecosystem (C) habit (D) habitat (E) niche
E
23 Which of the following factors does not control population growth (A) Food shortage (B)Emigration (C) Predation (D) Abundance of food (E) Natural disaster
D
24 Which of the following statements best describe an ecosystem (A) A place where livingorganisms can live successfully (B) The interactions between living organism in a habitat and thenon-living part of the environment (C) A biological association between a plant and ananimal (D) A system of grouping organisms in a habitat (E) None of the above
B
25 Which of these represents a correct food chain in nature (A) Crustacea rarr diatom rarrfish rarr man (B) Diatom rarr crustacea rarr fish rarr man (C) Fish rarr crustacea rarr man rarr diatom (D) Diatom rarr fish rarr crustacea rarr man (E) None of the above
B
26 ___________ is involved in the mechanism of expelling water from the protozoans during theprocess of____________ (A) Contractile vacuole Osmoregulation (B) Contractile vacuolePhagocytosis (C) Food vacuole Ultrafilteration (D) Food vacuole Pinocytosis (E) Cell membranePinocytosis
A
27 ______________ is used for photosynthesis in Euglena sp (A) Reservoir (B) Nucleus (C)Chloroplast (D) Paramylon granule (E) Pellicle
C
28 A heart with four chambers is found in______________ (A) Fishes (B) Insects (C) Snails (D) Rats(E) Worms
D
29 Animal cell does not have a ____________ (A) Membrane (B) Nucleolus (C) Food Vacuole (D) Cellwall (E) Golgi body
D
30 Beriberi is caused by deficiency of vitamin_____________ (A) A (B) D (C) K (D) E (E) B E
31 Compound eyes are found in which of the animals below (A) Rat (B) Cow (C) Snail (D) Ant (E) Jellyfish
D
32 Dental formula of man consist of (A) i 22 c22 pm22 m33 (B) i11 c22 pm22 m33 (C)i22 c11 pm32 m22 (D) i22 c11 pm22 m22 (E) i22 c11 pm22 m33
E
33 During digestion of food passage of chyme through the duodenum enables it to become awatery liquid called__________ (A) Digested food (B) Chymatic product (C) Chyle (D) Solublefood (E) Dissolved food
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
BIOLOGY
3
34 Emulsification of fat and oils is caused by______________ (A) Lipase (B) Ptyalin (C) Trypsin (D)Maltase (E) Bile
E
35 Every mammal has (A) One Kidney (B) Two pairs of Kidneys (C) One pair of Kidneys (D) FourKidneys (E) None of the above
C
36 Faeces is removed from the body in a process called (A) Digestion (B) Egestion (C) Elimination(D) Excretion (E) Evacuation
B
37 Glomerulus is found in the______________ (A) Ovary (B) Testes (C) Brain (D) Kidney e)Stomach
D
38 In the respiratory system of man diffusion of gases takes place in (A) Trachea (B) Bronchi (C)Alveoli (D) Bronchioles (E) None of the above
C
39 Incisors are used for (A) Tearing food (B) Cutting food (C) Grinding food (D) Shearing food (E)Crushing food
B
40 Nematocysts are produced by special cells found in (A) Nematodes (B) Annelids (C)Platyhelminthes (D) Cnidarians (Coelenterates) (E) Arthropods
D
41 One of the following is not a function of the skin (A) Excretion (B) Protection (C) Homeostasis(D) Reproduction (E) Absorption of vitamin D
D
42 Open circulatory system is found in _____________ (A) Lizard (B) Toad (C) Fish (D) Insect (E)Chicken
D
43 Ovary is to the female reproductive system as________ is to the male reproductive system (A)Penis (B) Urethra (C) Testis (D) Cowperrsquos gland (E) Prostate gland
C
44 Possession of pinna is a characteristic feature of (A) Mammals (B) Reptiles (C) Fishes (D)Amphibians (E) All of the above
A
45 Tadpoles respire with (A) Lungs (B) Nostril (C) Gills (D) Spiracles (E) Siphon C
46 The excretory organ in the earthworm ishelliphelliphelliphellip (A) Malphigian tubule (B) Stoma (C)Nephriduim (D) Flame cells (E) Gills
C
47 The nerves that connect the eyes to the brain are called ndashndash (A) Cranial nerves (B) Optical nerves(C) Sensory nerves (D) Olfactory nerves (E) Optic nerves
E
48 The nerves that connect the eyes to the brain are called ndashndash (A) Cranial nerves (B) Optical nerves(C) Sensory nerves (D) Olfactory nerves (E) Optic nerves
E
49 The parasympathetic nervous system is involved in (A) Dilation of pupil of the eye (B) Controlthe activities of smooth muscles (C) Dilatation of the skin (D) Controls thinking in mammals (E)Increased metabolism
B
50 The part of the alimentary system of a bird where grinding of food occurs is (A) Crop (B)Stomach (C) Cloaca (D) Rectum (E) Gizzard
E
51 The part of the ear that contains receptors that convert the fluid motion into action potential iscalled ndashndash (A) Auditory nerve (B) Ossicles (C) Semicircular canals (D) Cochlea (E) Oval window
D
52 The thoracic region of the vertebral column is made up of __________ vertebrae (A) 5 (B) 7 (C) 4(D) 12 (E) 10
D
53 Which of the animal below is poikilothemic (A) Toad (B) Chicken (C) Bat (D) Lion (E) Dove A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
BIOLOGY
4
54 Which of the structures below is found in reptiles and birds (A) Scales (B) Legs (C) Beaks (D)Claws (E) All of the above
A
55 Which of these animals is photosynthetic (A) Paramecium sp (B) Amoeba sp (C) Euglena sp(D) Hydra sp (E) None of the above
C
56 Which of these organs regulate the amount of sugar in the blood (A) Liver (B) Kidney (C) Spleen(D) Lung (E) Pancreas
E
57 The basis for growth and asexual reproduction is (A) meiosis (B) cytokinesis (C) mitosis (D)Cytogenesis (E) Cell elongation
C
58 The process which ensures that the chromosome number for each species of organism remainconstant from generation to generation is called (A) fission (B) fusion (C) meiosis (D) mitosis(E) oogenesis
C
59 Which of the following is a major factor in variation among organisms (A) Inbreeding (B)Backcrossing (C) Test crossing (D) Sexual reproduction (E) Gene dominance
D
60 ____________ is an example of an invertebrate (A) Millipede (B) Fish (C) Toad (D) Snake (E) Skin A
61 ____________ is the odd one in the list below (A) Mosquito (B) Bee (C) Moth (D) Tick (E)Beetle
63 _____________ is an example of a unicellular organism (A) Amoeba sp (B) Hydra sp (C) Ascarissp (D) Taenia sp (E) Obelia sp
A
64 _____________ level is the highest level of organization in animals (A) System (B) Tissue (C)Organ (D) Cellular (E) Protoplasmic
A
65 Crocodiles are _____________ (A) Fishes (B) Amphibians (C) Mammals (D) Birds (E) None of theabove
E
66 The mutation theory of organic evolution was propounded by (A) Gregor Mendel (B) Hugo deVrics (C) Jean Lamarck (D) Charles Darwin (E) Robert Hookes
D
67 The theory of natural selection was developed by (A) Lamarck and Darwin (B) Darwin andWallace (C) Wallace and Mendel (D) Mendel and Lamarck (E) Hooke and Darwin
B
68 Which is the odd animal in the list below (A) Lizards (B) Snakes (C) Turtles (D) Tortoise (E) Toad E
69 Which of the following sources is not an evidence of evolution (A) Fossil records B Comparativeanatomy C Comparative embryology (D) Human behavior (E) None of the above
D
70 _______________ is an endoparasite (A) Earthworm (B) Tapeworm (C) Mosquito (D) Housefly (E)Tsetse fly
B
71 The causative agent of bird flu is a (A) Virus (B) Bacteria (C) Fungus (D) Protozoan (E) Ricketsia A
72 In lower plants like mosses the structure which performs the functions of roots of higher plantsis called (A) root hairs (B) rootlets (C) hyphae (D) rhizoids (E) thalli
D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
BIOLOGY
5
73 One common feature of fungi algae mosses and ferns is that they are (A) photosynthetic (B)show alternation of generation (C) can survive harsh weather conditions (D) have no seeds (E)conjugate
D
74 The following are major groups of the plant kingdom EXCEPT (A) Bryophyta (B) Chlorophyta (C)Pteridophyta (D) Spermatophyta (E) Thallophyta
B
75 _____________is a form of sexual reproduction (A) Grafting (B) Budding (C) Fission (D)Conjugation (E) Regeneration
D
76 Sexual reproduction in Spirogyra is called (A) Fertilization (B) Symbiosis (C) Conjugation (D)Reproduction (E) Mutualism
C
77 The carrier of the hereditary characters in plants is the (A) Cell (B) nucleus (C) chromosome (D)chloroplast (E) gene
E
78 All are necessary for photosynthesis except_____________ (A) Water (B) Chlorophyll (C)Sunlight (D) Carbon dioxide (E) Oxygen
E
79 Growing yam tendrils climb for support This growth response is (A) haptotropism (B) geotropism(C) phototropism (D) hydrotropism (E) chemotropism
A
80 Which is the correct order in an evolutionary sequence for the following plant groups (A)Bacteria rarr ferns rarr algae rarr mosses rarr seed plants (B) Bacteria rarr ferns rarr mosses rarr algae rarr seed plants (C) Bacteria rarr algae rarr mosses rarr ferns rarr seed plants (D) Bacteria rarr mosses rarr algae rarr ferns rarr seed plants (E) Seed plants rarr ferns rarr mosses rarr algae rarr bacteria
C
81 ------------ is not part of the whorls of a flower(A)calyx (B) corolla (C) androecium (D)Antheridium (E)Gynoecium
D
82 A dry fruit which can break into several parts each containing one seed is a (A) caryopsis (B)aggregate fruit (C) legume (D) follicle (E) schizocarp
E
83 A dry indehiscent winged fruit formed from one carpel is known as a (A) Schizocarp (B)Caryopsis (C) Samara (D) nut (E) Follicle
C
84 A true fruit is formed from (A) fertilized ovary and other floral parts (B) a fertilized ovary (C) afertilized ovary and calyx (D) a fertilized and fleshy receptacle (E) an unfertilized ovary and otherfloral parts
B
85 Irish potato is a (A) bulb (B) tap root (C) rhizome (D) root tuber (E) stem tuber D
86 One major difference between an Angiosperm and a Gymnosperm is that seeds in Gymnospermsare borne in (A) Cones (B) fruits (C) flowers (D) ovary (E) ovule
A
87 Reserved food material in the seed is stored in the (A) epicarp (B) endocarp (C) endosperm (D)mesocarp (E) all parts
C
88 What type of fruit is a mango fruit (A) Berry (B) Hesperidium (C) Drupe (D) Nut (E) Mango fruit C
89 Which of the following species exhibit an aerial root (A) Ficus (B) Centrosema (C) Antigonon(D) Lantana (E) Dahlia
A
90 Which of these plants has an emerginate apex (A) Bauhinia (B) Pistia (C) Ixora (D) Musa (E)Terminalia
A
91 Which plant stores food in its roots (A) Cassava (B) cocoyam (C) Irish potato (D) onion (E)yam
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
BIOLOGY
6
92 An example of Vascular tissues is -------------- (A) Trichome (B) Xylem (C) Stomata (D) Epidermis(E) Parenchyma
B
93 The living part of phloem tissue is (A) sieve plate (B) companion cell (C) sieve element (D)cytoplasm
B
94 Which of the following tissues are made up of dead cells (A) meristems (B) xylem vessels (C)cambium (D) mesophyll (E) palisade
B
95 A plant vacuole contains (A) dissolved chemicals sugars salts pigments and crystals (B) wasteproducts of metabolism DNA RNA and crystals (C) pigments crystals DNA and waste productsof metabolism (D) RNA DNA sugars and salts
A
96 Excessive loss of water in plants is known as (A) Osmosis (B) Osmoregulation (C) Transpiration (D)Excretion
C
97 Starch granules in plants is equivalent to _____________ granules in animals (A) Food (B)Chromatin (C) Lysosome (D) Mitochondria (E) Glycogen
E
98 Which of the following is a plant excretory product (A) Oil (B) Cytokinin (C) Resin (D)amino acids (E) gibberellins
C
99 A plant which grows on another without causing harm to the host plant is called ndashndash (A) aparasite (B) a saprophyte (C) an epiphyte (D) a predator (E) a prey
C
100 Plants which can survive in places where water supply is limited are (A) bryophytes (B)mesophytes (C) xerophytes (D) hydrophytes (E) pteridophytes
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
1
1 200 cm3 of air was passed over heated copper in a syringe several times to produce copper (II)oxide When cooled the final volume of air recorded was 158 cm3 Estimate the percentage ofoxygen in the air (A) 31 (B) 27 (C) 21 (D) 19
C
2 30cm3 of oxygen at 10 atmosphere pressures is placed in a 20dm3 container Calculate the newpressure if temperature is kept constant (A) 67 atm (B) 150 atm (C) 600 (D) 660
B
3 Bond dissociation energy of 500 KJ mol-1 may be assigned to (A) ionic bonding (B) covalentbonding (C) hydrogen bonding D) metallic bonding (E) van-der-waals bonding
A
4 A mixture of iron and sulphur can be separated by dissolving the mixture in __ (A) steam (B)dilute hydrochloric acid (C) dilute sodium hydroxide (D) benzene
B
5 A mixture of sand ammonium chloride and sodium chloride is best separated by __ (A)sublimation followed by addition of water and filtration (B) sublimation followed by addition ofwater and evaporation (C) addition of water followed by filtration and sublimation (D) additionof water followed by crystallization and sublimation
A
6 A pure solid usually melts __ (A) over a wide range of temperature (B) over a narrow range oftemperature (C) at a lower temperature than the impure one (D) at the same temperature asthe impure one
B
7 A small quantity of solid ammonium chloride was heated gently in a test tube the solidgradually disappeared to produce a mixture of two gases Later a white cloudy deposit wasobserved on the cooler part of the test tube The ammonium chloride is said to haveundergone __ (A) distillation (B) sublimation (C) precipitation (D) evaporation
B
8 CH4 has this geometry (A) trigonal (B) planar (C) tetrahedral (D) octahedral (E) linear C
9 Chlorine consisting of two isotopes of mass numbers 35 and 37 has an atomic mass of 355The relative abundance of the isotope of mass number 37 is ___ ( A)20 (B) 25 (C) 50 (D) 75
B
10 Elements P Q R S have 6 11 15 and 17 electrons respectively therefore (A) P will form anelectrovalent bond with R (B) Q will form a covalent bond with S (C)R will form an electrovalentbond with S (D) Q will form an electrovalent bond with S
D
11 In the oil drop experiment Millikan determined the (A) charge to mass ratio of the electron (B)mass of the electron (C) charge of the electron (D) mass of the proton
C
12 One of these atomic shells is the most stable (A) M (B) N (C) K (D) L (E) 0 C
13 Sieving is a technique used to separate mixtures containing 20 oxygen by volume Which ofthe reactants was in excess (A) Carbon (II) oxide (B) Oxygen (C) Carbon (IV) oxide (D) Nitrogen
A
14 The abnormally high boiling point of water is primarily due to (A) ionic bonding (B) covalentbonding (C) dative bonding (D) coordinate covalent bonding (E) hydrogen bonding
E
15 The energy required to remove an electron from the isolated gaseous atom is known as (A)electron affinity (B) bond energy (C) lonisation energy (D) electronegativity (E) electrovalency
C
16 The group that oxygen belongs to is collectively called (A) allotropes (B) halogens (C)chalcogens (D) alkenes (E) ozonides
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
2
17 The ideal gas equation is ___ ( A) P=nRT (B) PR =nVT (C) PV =gRT (D) V=kT (E) PV = K V A
18 The number of atoms in one mole of a substance is equal to (A) the atomic number (B) theAvogadrorsquos number (C) number of neutrons (D) number of electrons (E) gas constant
B
19 The number of electrons in the outermost shell of the atom represents its (A) period (B)number of shells (C) group (D) atomic number (E) electronegativity
C
20 The number of protons or electrons of an atom represents its (A) electronegativity (B) period(C) number of shells (D) group (E) atomic number
E
21 The partial pressure of oxygen in a sample of air is 500 mmHg If the total Pr pressure 780mmHg what is the mole fraction of the oxygen (A) 064 [B (B) 573 (C) 156 (D) 070 (E) 054
A
22 The periodic classification of the elements is an arrangement of the elements in order of their(A) atomic weights (B) isotopic weights (C) molecular weights (D) atomic numbers
D
23 The process of changing one element into another is called (A) radioisotope (B) radioactivity (C)dating (D) transmutation (E) nuclear reaction
D
24 The shapes of CO2 H2O and CH4 respectively are (A) bent linear and tetrahedral (B) benttetrahedral and linear (C) tetrahedral linear and bent (D) linear bent and tetrahedral
D
25 This compound exhibits ionic bonding (A) H20 (B) H2 (C) KC1 (D) NH3 (E) HF C
26 This type of bonding involves overlapping of orbitals during which electrons are shared (A)hydrogen bonding (B) covalent bonding (C) ionic bonding (D) metallic bonding (E) van-der-waals bonding
B
27 Which one of the following changes is physical (A) Adding iron filings to aerated water (B)Adding sodium metal to water (C) Cooling a solution of iron(II) sulphate to obtain the hydratedsalt (D) Cooling water to obtain ice
D
28 A side effect of soft water is that (A) it gives offensive taste (B) excess calcium is precipitated(C) it encourages the growth of bacteria (D) it attacks lead contained in pipes
D
29 Ammonia is very soluble in water because it is a an molecule (A) non-polar (B) polar (C)reactive (D) basic (E) acidic
B
30 Citrus fruits such as lemon and grape taste sour because they contain (A) ascorbic acid andcitric acid (B) citric acid and ascetic acid (C) citric acid and dilute HCl (D) citric acid and salicyclicacid (E) Sulphuric acid
A
31 Soap lather is an example of a colloid in which a (A) liquid is dispersed in gas (B) solid isdispersed in liquid (C) gas is dispersed in liquid (D) liquid is dispersed in liquid
C
32 The air around a petroleum refinery is most likely to contain(A) CO2 SO3 and N2O (B) CO2 COand N2O (C) SO2 CO and NO2 (D) PH3 H2O and CO2
C
33 The difference between colloids and suspensions is brought out clearly by the fact that whilecolloids (A) do not scatter light suspensions do (B) can be separated by filtration suspensionscannot be so separated (C) can be separated by a membrane suspensions cannot (D) do notsettle out on standing suspensions do
D
34 The following substances are non-electrolytes except (A) chloroform (B) sugar cane (C) aceticacid (D) NaCl (E) C and D
E
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
3
35 The hydrolysis of NH4Cl salt will give (A) acidic solution (B) neutral solution (C) basic solution(D) hot solution (E) all of the above
A
36 The pollutants that are likely to be present in an industrial environment are (A) H2S SO2 andoxides of nitrogen (B)NH3 HCl and CO (C) CO2 NH3 and H2S (D) dust NO and Cl2
A
37 What is the basicity of tetraoxosulphate (VI) acid (A) 2 (B) 1 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) 0 A
38 Which of the following gases is the most dangerous pollutant (A) Hydrogen sulphide (B)Carbon (IV) oxide (C) Sulphur (IV) oxide (D) Carbon (II) oxide
D
39 Which of the following ions is a pollutant in drinking water even in trace amount (A) Ca2+ (B)Hg2+ (C) Mg2+ (D) Fe2+
B
40 Which of the following is an example of a double salt (A) NH4Cl (B) alum (C) NaCO3 (D) AlCl3
(E) NaClB
41 016g of methane when burnt increases the temperature of 100g of water by 400(C) what isthe heat of combustion of methane if the heat capacity of water is 42 Jg-10C-1 (CH4=16) (A)1160kJmol-1 (B) 1180kJmol-1 (C) 1560kJmol-1 (D) 1600kJmol-1 (E) 1680kJmol-1
E
42 A charged car battery has ___ energy that can be converted into another energy called ___energy (A) Chemical electrical (B) mechanical chemical (C) heat mechanical (D) lightelectrical (E) light heat
A
43 Copper oxide is heated with charcoal to produce carbon monoxide and copper The reaction isan example of (A) both oxidation and reduction (B) neither oxidation and reduction (C)oxidation only (D) reduction only (E) neutralization
A
44 For each oxygen atom in hydrogen peroxide which acts as an oxidant there is an oxygen atomwhich acts as a an (A) Oxidant (B) reductant (C) oxidizing agent (D) catalyst (E) inhibitor
B
45 Given the change of phase CO2(g) changes to CO2(s) the entropy of the system (A) decreases(B) increases (C) remains the same
A
46 In which of the following is the entropy change positive (A) Reaction between an acid and abase (B) Addition of concentrated acid to water (C) Dissolution of sodium metal in water(D) Thermal dissociation of ammonium chloride
C
47 One of these elements is the best reducing agent (A) Pb (B) Rb (C) Al (D) In (E) N B
48 The name of the gas driven off at the negative electrode during the electrolysis of brine is ___( A) hydrogen (B) chlorine (C) oxygen (D) sodium (E) hydrogen chloride
B
49 The oxidation state of P in H2P2072- is ___ (A) -3 (B) +3 (C) +1 (D) +5 (E) -2 D
50 The oxidation state of S in Ca(HS03)2 is __ (A) +2 (B) -2 (C) +4 (D) -4 (E) +6 C
51 The oxidizing agent in the reaction 3Br2 + 6OH- = BrO3- + 5Br- + 3H2O is __ (A) Br2 (B) OH- (C)
BrO3- (D) e- (E) H2OA
52 When heat is absorbed during a chemical reaction the reaction is said to be ___(A) thermodynamic (B) exothermal (C) isothermal (D) endothermic (E) thermostatic
D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
4
53 Given the reaction at equilibrium 2CO(g) + O2(g) harr 2CO2(g) When the reaction is subjected tostress a change will occur in the concentration of (A) reactants only (B) products only (C)both reactants and products (D) neither reactants nor products
C
54 Given the reaction at equilibrium N2(g) + O2(g) harr 2NO(g) as the concentration of N2(g)increases the concentration of O2(g) will (A) decrease (B) increase (C) remains the same (D)vanishes (E) pours away
A
55 If a reaction is exothermic and there is a great disorder it means that (A) The reaction is in astate of equilibrium (B) There will be a large increase in free energy (C) There will be a largedecrease in free energy (D) The reaction is static
B
56 In the chemical reaction of A + B = C +D more of D is formed (A) if the concentration of A isreduced (B) if the concentration of B is reduced (C) if the concentration of C is reduced (D) ifthe concentration of C is increased (E) if it is continuously removed from the reaction mixture
E
57 In what way is equilibrium constant for the forward reaction related to that of the reversereaction (A) The addition of the two is expected to be one (B) The product of two isexpected to be one (C) The two equilibrium constants are identical (D) The product of thetwo is always greater than one
C
58 In which reaction will the point of equilibrium shift to the left when the pressure on the systemis increased (A) C(s) + O2(g) harr CO2(g) (B) CaCO3(s) harr CaO(s) + CO2(g) (C) 2Mg(s) + O2(g) harr 2MgO(s) (D) 2H2(g) + O2(g) harr2H2O(g)
B
59 The furring of kettles is caused by the presence in water of __ (A) calcium trioxocarbonate (IV)(B) calcium tetraoxosulphate (VI) (C) calcium hydroxide (D) calcium hydrogentrioxocarbonate(IV)
D
60 Which is a property of a reaction that has reached equilibrium (A) The amount of products isgreater than the amount of reactants (B) The amount of products is equal to the amount ofreactants (C) The rate of the forward reaction is greater than the rate of the reverse reaction(D) The rate of the forward reaction is equal to the rate of the reverse reaction
D
61 Which of the following combination of conditions many increase the rate of a chemicalreaction (A) Decrease in temperature increase in concentration of the reactant (B) Increase intemperature addition of a catalyst decrease in the surface area of the reactant (C) Increase intemperature increase in concentration addition of a catalyst and increase in the surface areaof the reactant (D) Decrease in temperature concentration and surface area of the reactants(E) Addition of catalyst and in the absence of light
C
62 ldquoQuicklimerdquo has the formula __ (A) Ca(OH)2 (B) CaO (C) CaCO3 (D) CaSO42H2O (E) CaCl2 B
63 A Transition metal is different from a non-transition metal because (A) it has an octetconfiguration (B) it is very stable (C) it is coloured (D) it has incomplete outer shell d-electrons(E) it has no electron in the d-orbital
D
64 Chlorine is produced commercially by (A) electrolysis of dilute HCl (B) electrolysis of brine (C)neutralization of HCl (D) heating potassium trioxochlorate (V) (E) action of dilute mineral acidson bleaching powder
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
5
65 Chlorine bromine and iodine resemble one another since they __ (A)dissolve in alkalis (B) reactviolently with H2 without heating (C)displace each other from solutions of their salts (D) aregases (E) are liquids
A
66 Liquid oxygen may be produced by condensation of air using this coolant (A) liquid phosphorus(B) liquid gas (C) liquid paraffin (D) liquid nitrogen (E) butane
D
67 One of these is another form of oxygen (A) hydroxide (B) ozone (C) peroxide (D) sulphoxide (E)water B
68 One of these metals is not an alkali metal (A) K (B) Cs (C) Sr (D) Rb (E) Fr C
70 The formation of ozone by reaction of O2 with atomic oxygen in UV light occurs in (A) upperatmosphere (B) inner atmosphere (C) stratosphere (D) hemisphere (E) none of these
A
71 The halogen which is chiefly produced commercially from sea water is ___ ( A) Fluorine (B)chlorine (C) Bromine (D) iodine (E) Astatine
B
72 The most stable allotropic form of sulphur at normal conditions is ___ ( A) monoclinic sulphur(B) rhombic sulphur (C) amorphous sulphur (D) plastic sulphur (E) ordinary sulphur
B
73 The products obtained when the following chemical reaction is completed and balancedarehellipHNO3 + Ca(OH)2 rarr ______ (A) CaNO3 + H2O (B) Ca(NO3)2 + 2 H2O (C) CaO + 2 NO2 + 3H2O(D) Ca + 2 NO3 + 2 H2O
B
74 What is the role of iron and Aluminium oxide in ammonia production (A) dehydrating agent(B) catalytic agent (C) oxidizing agent (D) bonding agent (E) preservative agent
B
75 When carbon IV oxide is bubbled through lime water the solution becomes milky dueformation of (A) Ca(HCO3)2 (B) CaCO3 (C) Ca(N03)2 (D)CaCl2 (E) CaSO4
B
76 Which of the following gases dissolves in water vapour to produce acid rain during rainfall (A)Oxygen (B) Carbon (II) oxide (C) Nitrogen (D) Sulphur (IV) oxide
D
77 Which of the following is not allotrope of carbon (A) diamond (B) graphite (C) buckminsterfullerene (D) all of the above (E) none of the above
E
78 Which oxide is amphiprotic (amphoteric) (A) MgO (B) NaO (C) CaO (D) ZnO (E) BeO D
79 Why will it always be more difficult to extract potassium ions from sea water than to extractmagnesium ions This is because (A) most potassium compounds are less soluble in water (B)most potassium compounds are quite soluble in water (C) presence of other alkali metal ionshas great influence on it (D) magnesium ion is an alkaline earth metal ion (E) None of theabove
B
80 ___________ can be used to test for reducing sugars (A) Iodine solution (B) bromine water (C)Fehlingrsquos solution (D) de-ionized water
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
6
81 2CH3COOH + Zn rarr The product of this reaction is (A) (CH3COO)2Zn + Zn (B) CH3COO CH3 +Zn (C) (CH3COO)2Zn + H2 (D) CH3COOH + CH4
C
82 A ketone reacts with hydroxylamine to give (A) a hydrazone (B) an alkanonitrile (C) a nitrosocompound (D) an oxime
D
83 Alkanoic acids are weak acids and ionises in solution to give (A) R+ + COOH (B) RCOO- + H+ (C)RCOO+ + H- (D) RCO+ + OH-
B
84 An excess of ethanol heated with concentrated H2SO4 at a temperature of 180oC is dehydratedto give mostly (A) ethane (B) ethene (C) ethanol (D) ethoxyethane
B
85 Butene can be distinguished from benzene by reaction with (A) Hydrochloric acid (B) Brominewater (C) Potassium sulphate (D) Sodium hydroxide
B
86 Detergent is more efficient than soap in cleansing clothes and dishes because of the followingreasons except that (A) the corresponding Ca and Mg compound formed is soluble in H2O (B)detergents are not affected by hardness of water (C) it cleans better than soap (D) it is lessexpensive
D
87 In the manufacture of soap industrially brine is used to__________the acid salt (A) oxidise(B) reduce (C) bleach (D) precipitate
D
88 Methane gas can be made from carbon (II) oxide gas according to the equation2CO(g) + 2H2(g) rarr CH4(g) + CO2(g) Calculate the mass of CO required to produce 875 x 1025
molecules of CH4 At masses C=12011 H= 1008 O = 15999 Avogadrorsquos no 6022 x1023molecules mole (A) 8140g (B) 4070g (C) 1600g (D) 3200g (E) 2035g
A
89 Potassium ethanoate is formed when (A) Methanoic acid reacts with KOH (B) Ethanoic acidreacts with KOH (C) Methanol reacts with KCO3 (D) Ethanol reacts with CH3COOH
B
90 Saponification is defined as (A) Acidic hydrolysis of fat or oil (B) Alkali hydrolysis of fat or oil(C) Condensation of two monomer units (D) Mixture of glacial ethanoic acid and excess ofsimple alkanol
B
91 Soaps and detergents have the same basic characteristics except that the carboxyl group of thefatty acid in detergent is replaced by (A) alcohol (B) sulphate or a sulphonate group (C) ester(D) acids
B
92 The relatively high boiling point of alkanols is due to (A) aliphatic character (B) ionic bonding(C) hydrogen bonding (D) covalent bonding
C
93 Two important sources of detergent are (A) fatoils and hydrocarbons (B) coal and cement (C)pulp and wood (D) water and gas
A
94 What is the process associated with conversion of vegetable oil to soap (A) Esterification (B)Saponification (C) hydrolysis (D) Acidification
B
95 When ethanal vapour is passed over manganese (II) ethanoate (manganese acetate) catalyst inthe presence of air the product is (A) ethanoate (B) ethanol (C) methanol (D) ethanoic acid
D
96 When KOH is used instead of NaOH in the production of soap it has the following advantagesexcept it gives (A) softer soap (B) harder soap (C) soap with lower melting point (D) moresoluble soap
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
7
97 When palm wine is left exposed to air for a few days it goes sour The bacteria in the airoxidises________ in palm wine to _________ (A) ethanol ethanoic acid (B) ethanoic acidethanol (C) ester ethanoic acid (D) ether ethanol
A
98 Which of the following is not true about benzoic acid (A) It is aromatic in nature (B) It can bemanufactured from methylbenzene (C) It has molecular formula C6H6COOH (D) It sublimesreadily
C
99 Which of the following reactions is correct (A) C6H5COOH + CaO rarr C6H5Ca + HCO3 (B)C6H5COOH + CaO rarr C6H6 + CaCO3 (C) C6H5COOH + PCl5 rarr C6H5Cl + H2PO4 (D) C6H5COOH +C2H5OH rarr C6H6 + C3H8COOH
B
100 Which of these is not a property of ethanedioic acid (A) It is a stronger acid than ethanoic acidbut weaker than inorganic acids (B) It is a reducing agent (C) It is an oxidising agent (D) It issoluble in cold water
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS STUDIES
1 Behold the people of Israel are too many come let us deal shrewdly with them lest they D
multiply In the statement the first step by the new king of Egypt was to (A) cast all
Hebrew male children into the Nile (B) impose heavy tax on them (C) kill all Hebrew male
children (D) set taskmasters over them to afflict them with burdens
2 I will go out as at other times and shake myself free When Samson made the statement C
above he was not aware that (A) the Philistines were upon him (B) he was bound with bronze
fetters (C) the LORD had left him (D) his eyes had been gouged out
3 Let the waters under the heavens be gathered together into one place and let the dry land D
appear In the statement above the dry land and the water refer to (A) earth and oceans (B)
firmament and seas (C) firmament and oceans (D) earth and seas
4 Seek out for me a woman who is a medium that I may go to her and inquire of her Saul A
made the statement above when he was confronted by the(A) Philistines (B) Ammonites (C)
Amalekites (D) Moabites
5 Why did you bring trouble on us The LORD brings trouble on you todayrdquo What happened to C
Achan after the statement above by Joshua (A) He was buried alive (B) He was put in chain
(C) He was stoned to death (D) He was flogged publicly
6 An unwise decision of Solomon was the issue of the (A) building of the palace (B) building of D
the temple (C) felling of timber (D) forced labour
7 David was anointed king over Judah at (A) Zuph (B) Bethlehem (C) Hebron (D) Gibeon C
8 For worshipping the molten calf God described the Israelites as (A) a stubborn nation (B) an C
unholy nation (C) a stiff-necked people (D) an unrighteous people
9 God blessed the seventh day and made it holy because (A) He rested on that day from all His A
work (B) Adam gave names to all living creatures on that day (C) it was a Sabbath day (D)
human beings were recreated on that day
10 God called Abraham when he was how many years old (A) 75 years old (B) 90 years old (C) A
100 years old (D) 120 years old
11 In order for the people of Israel to be ready to meet the LORD by the third day at Mount Sinai C
they were (A) not to drink alcohol (B) to wear white garments (C) to wash their garments
everyday (D) not to go near a woman
12 Joseph was put in prison in Egypt by Potiphar because (A) he slept with Potipharrsquos wife (B) he C
was very lazy (C) Potipharrsquos wife lied against Joseph (D) he stole Pharaohrsquos cup
13 Samuels lack of parental responsibility led to (A) The demand for a king in Israel (B) His A
untimely death at Ramah (C) The defeat of the Israelites in battle (D) The anointing of David
as king
14 Solomon attempted to kill Jeroboam because Jeroboam (A) Was more popular than him (B) D
Was not faithful as the officer in charge of labour (C) Did not report what was prophesied
concerning him (D) Was a threat to the throne
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS STUDIES
15 The first person that revealed to Eli the evil that would come to his home was(A) Joel (B) a B
man of God (C) a prophet from Shiloh (D) Samuel
16 The rainbow as the sign of Gods covenant with Noah implies(A) Providence (B) Reconciliation C
(C) mercy (D) Redemption
17 What did Gideon call the altar which he built to the LORD (A) The LORD is merciful (B) The B
LORD is peace (C) Jehovah Jireh (D) The LORD is great
18 What punishment did God give Solomon for his unwisemdash Policies (A) Jeroboam was
empowered by God to conquer him (B) He caused Rezon to demolish the high place which he
built (C) He raised up Hadad the Edo mite as an adversary against him (D) The kingdom was
torn from him and given to his servant D
19 What was Samsons major achievement as Israels leadermdash (A) He suppressed the Philistines
(B) He captured the city of Jericho (C) He saved the Israelites from the Amorites (D) He
secured permanent independence for Israel A
20 When God called Moses to deliver the Israelites he resisted because he could not speak and D
he was told to (A) perform some signs with his rod (B) wait for a sign from God (C) go with
Joshua who would speak for him (D) go with Aaron who would speak for him
21 When Moses struck the rock twice for water instead of speakingmdash to it God said to him that
he (A) would no longer see Him face to face (B) would not bring the Israelites to the promise
land (C)would not see His holiness (D)would roam in the wilderness for thirty years
B
22 When the Israelites left Egypt God did not let them use the shorter route through the land of
the Philistines becausemdash (A) the Philistines were waiting in ambush for them (B) they might
go back if they faced war (C) He wanted to confuse the Egyptian king (D) He wanted them to
suffer and appreciate Him B
23 Why did God accept David who killed Uriah and took his wife but rejected Saul who spared
King Agagmdash (A) David was from the favoured tribe of Judah while Saul was from Benjamin
(B) David was a man after Gods heart while Saul was His enemy (C) David was a singer of
praises while Saul was not (D) David humbled himself when he realized his sin but Saul was stubborn
D
24 And in the last days it shall be God declares that I will pour out my Spirit upon all B
flesh Peter quoted the statement above from the prophecy of (A) Ezekiel B) Joel (C)
Jeremiah (D) Isaiah
25 Am I God to kill and to make alive that this man sends words to me to cure a man of his B
leprosy Prophet Elisha responded to the kings reaction in the statement above by (A)
directing the nation of Israel to pray and fast (B) requesting the leper to come to his house (C)
directing the leper to go to River Jordan (D) asking the leper to offer a sacrifice
26 Behold I am the LORD the God of all flesh is anything too hard for me The statement C
above suggests that God is (A) merciful (B) awesome (C) most powerful (D) not changeable
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS STUDIES
27 Behold 1 am the LORD the God of all flesh is anything too hard for me The statement B
above suggests that God is (A) merciful (B) most powerful (C) awesome (D) not changeable
28 Do you understand what you are reading Philip asked the Ethiopian eunuch the question D
above when he found him reading the book of (A) Hosea (B) Ezekiel (C) Jeremiah (D)
Isaiah
29 My spirit shall not abide in man forever for he is flesh When God made the statement He D
concluded that mans days shall be (A) one hundred years (B) one hundred and fifty years
(C) eighty years (D) one hundred and twenty years
30 Test your servants for ten days let us be given vegetables to eat and water to drink In the C
statement above Daniel was talking to (A) King Darius (B) the chief of the eunuchs (C) the
steward of the chief eunuch (D) King Artaxerxes
31 According to Amos what did the Israelites do after God smote them with blight and mildew A
(A) They still did not return to him (B) They repented of their sins (C) They fasted and prayed
for healing (D) They cried unto the LORD
32 According to Prophet Jeremiah one of the promises of God was that He would give the D
Israelites (A) new priests (B) new commandments (C) kings after His own heart (D) shepherds
after His own heart
33 According to Proverbs a son that is attentive to a fathers instruction will (A) be rich (B) have C
eternal life (C) gain insight (D) be forgiven his sins
34 Consequent upon the murder of Naboth by Ahab and Jezebel God declared that (A) He
would require the blood of Naboth from Ahabrsquos hand (B) Ahabs descendants would never
ascend the throne in Israel (C) dogs would lick Ahabs blood where they had licked Naboth (D)
the sword would not depart from the house of Ahab
C
35 Ezekiel said that when the people of Israel turned away from all their sins they would (A) A
Surely live and not die (B) Be free from attack (C) Lead mankind to God (D) Return from
captivity
36 God had pity on the people of Nineveh because (A) they listened to Jonahs message (B) the C
king punished all the violent people in the land (C) they turned from their evil way (D) they
made sacrifices of sin offering to God
37 Immediately after the contest on Mount Carmel Elijah prayed and God answered him with B
(A) thunder (B) rainfall (C) a whirlwind (D) a heavy storm
38 In addition to the declaration of freedom to the exiles in Babylon King Cyrus ordered for (A) A
free will offering for the house of God in Jerusalem (B) the release of Jewish slaves in the
empire (C) security check on the Jews before departure (D) support from craftsmen in
Babylon
39 Joab and his soldiers entered the city quietly after defeating their enemy because (A) Absalom
and his soldiers were defeated (B) of the shameful death of Absalom (C) the king grieving for
his son (D) the king Was annoyed with them C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS STUDIES
40 Obadiah showed his great reverence for the LORD by (A) Handing over five hundred Baal D
prophets for slaughter (B) Falling on his face before Elijah (C) Hiding Elijah in a cave for two
years (D) Feeding the prophets of the LORD with bread and water
41 Prophet Amos told Israel to hate evil love good and establish justice in the gate so that God C
would (A) heal their diseases (B) give them good leaders (C) be gracious to them (D) multiply
their descendants
42 Prophet Hosea named his second child Not Pitied because God would no more pity the (A)
kings of Judah (B) kings of Israel (C) house of Judah (D) house of Israel
D
43 Prophet Hosea named his second child Not Pitied because God would no more pity the (A) D
kings of Judah (B) kings of Israel (C) house of Judah (D) house of Israel
44 Prophet Isaiah received his vision and call whenmdash (A) King Uzziah was deposed (B) King
Uzziah died (C) King Uzziah began to reign (D) Israel was in Babylonian captivity
B
45 Saul learnt from Samuels spirit that the LORD would (A) give the Philistines into his hands A
(B) afflict him with sickness (C) bless Isaacs future wife (D) pardon his iniquity
46 The destruction of Jerusalem by Nebuchadnezzar was a consequence of (A) Hezekiahs death
(B) Josiahs reforms (C) Israels stubbornness to God (D) Zedekiahs rebellion against Babylon
C
47 The effect that the faith of Shadrach Meshach and Abednego had on King Nebuchadnezzar D
and his subjects was that they (A) Refrained from persecuting the Jews in exile (B) Were
converted (C) Forsook their gods (D) Believed that there was no other god able to deliver
48 The Kingdom of Israel was divided because the (A) kingdom was too large to be administered D
(B) leadership wanted to create more nations (C) followership wanted more nations (D) last
two kings made unwise policies
49 The pronouncement of God on Josiah for being penitent was that (A) God would support him C
to repair the Temple (B) Josiah would conquer all his enemies (C) God would gather him to his
grave in peace (D) Josiah would have a peaceful reign
50 The scroll given to Ezekiel to eat at his call contained (A) Both praises and condemnation (B) B
Words of lamentation and mourning (C) Prescription for Temple worship (D) The expected
type of sacrifice
51 What did Asa do that was right in the eyes of the Lord(A) He removed all the idols of his A
father (B) He killed all the priests of Baal (C) His reign was peaceful (D) He killed all the
Baal worshippers
52 What did the Jews do when Nehemiah told them about his mission in Jerusalem (A) They D
praised God for sending him to rebuild Jerusalem (B) They informed Sanballat and Tobiah
about his plans (C) They were hostile to him and he became discouraged (D) They encouraged
one another to rise up and build the walls
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS STUDIES
53 but should write to them to abstain from the pollutions of idols and from unchastity and C
from what is strangled and from blood The statement above was made at the Council of
Jerusalem by (A) Philip (B) Simon (C) James (D) Peter
54 His office let another take The statement above refers to (A) Ananias (B) Judas Iscariot B
(C) Barnabas (D) John Mark
55 Truly I say to you not even In Israel have I found such faith The statement above by D
Jesus was made when He healed the (A) leper (B) blind man (C) demoniac (D) centurions
servant
56 Depart from me for I am a sinful man O Lord This statement was uttered by Peter at C
the (A) last supper (B) garden of Gethsemane (C) call of the disciples (D) transfiguration
57 If I tell you you will not believe and if I ask you you will not answer Jesus statement B
above was in response to a request by (A) King Herod (B) the chief priests and scribes (C)
Pontius Pilate (D) the Pharisees and Sadducees
58 If you are the Son of God throw yourself down from here for it is written He will give his A
angels charge of youhellip According to Luke the statement above was made by Satan during
Jesus(A) third temptation (B) crucifixion (C) Transfiguration (D) second temptation
59 Teacher do you not care if we perish Where was Jesus Christ when this question was D
asked (A) On the sea walking (B) In the wilderness (C) On the Mount of Olive (D) In the
ship asleep
60 Truly I say to you today you will be with me in paradise Jesus made the statement D
above to one of the criminals because he (A) respected Him (B) praised Him (C) rebuked his
partner (D) was repentant
61 Unbind him and let him go The statement was made by Jesus when (A) He raised to life A
the dead Lazarus (B) He healed the son of the widow at Nain (C) He healed the centurions
servant (D) a boy bound by Satan was brought to Him
62 Unless you are circumcised according to the custom of Moses you cannot be saved The D
statement above by some men from Judea necessitated the convening of the (A) church in
Jerusalem (B) council of elders (C) church in Judea (D) council in Jerusalem
63 You son of the devil you enemy of all righteousness full of all deceit and villainy This A
statement of Paul was addressed to (A) Elymas the magician (B) Paulus the proconsul (C)
Simon the Magician (D) Demetrius the silversmith
64 lsquo As long as I am in the world I am the light of the worldrsquo Jesus made the statement above A
on the occasion of (A) healing the man born blind (B) raising Lazarus from the dead (C)
restoring sight to blind Bartimaeus (D) walking on the sea before day break
65 According to Luke the Last Supper took place (A) on Mount Olive (B) In Jerusalem (C) in B
Jordan (D) in Bethlehem
66 According to Luke when Moses and Elijah appeared during the transfiguration they spoke of A
Jesusrsquo (A) departure (C) resurrection (B) second coming (D) trials
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS STUDIES
67 According to Matthew the stone on the tomb of Jesus was removed by (A) an angel (C) Mary A
Magdalene (B) a Roman soldier (D) Peter and John
68 According to Romans salvation is for those who (A) call upon the name of the Lord (B) are B
true worshippers of God (C) work in the Lords vineyard (D) Are persecuted for righteousness
69 According to the Gospel of John Jesus is the true vine while the vinedresser is (A) the Holy B
Spirit (B) His father (C) the gardener (D) His mother
70 And they arrested them and put them in custody until the morrow for it was already D
evening In the statement above the imprisoned persons were (A) Paul and John Mark (B)
Peter and Barnabas (C) Peter and Paul (D) Paul and Barnabas
71 Angel Gabriel told Zachariah that he would become dumb until John was born because he (A) D
looked down on the Angel (B) was advanced in age (C) disagreed with Elizabeth his wife (D)
did not believe Gods words
72 Following the death of Stephen the only group of believers not scattered by the great B
persecution was the (A) deacons (B) apostles (C) prophets (D) disciples
73 Following the resurrection of Jesus the Chief Priest and elders took counsel and bribed the A
guards to (A) say that the disciples stole the body of Jesus (B) keep the information away
from His disciples (C) keep the matter among themselves (D) report the matter immediately
to the rulers
74 In His Sermon on the Mount Jesus said that the poor in spirit are blessed for they would (A) C
be satisfied (B) be comforted on the last day (C) inherit the kingdom of heaven (D) inherit
the earth
75 In Luke at the Last Supper Jesus revealed His (A) resurrection (B) imminent sufferings (C) C
love for His disciples (D) ascension
76 In the country of the Gerasenes Jesus healed the (A) man possessed of demons (B) paralytic A
at the pool (C) leper (D) blind man
77 In the mission of the seventy Jesus told them that they were being sent out as sheep among D
wolves implying that they would (A) be sent to live among wolves (B) be as meek as sheep
(C) be properly equipped for the mission (D) encounter difficulties
78 In the story of the Transfiguration Moses and Elijah represented the (A) glory of God (B) old C
Testament saints (C) Law and the prophets (D) end of the age
79 Jesus raised to life the son of the widow of Nain because He (A) wanted the whole of Judea to C
know about him (B) wanted to show that He was a great prophet (C) had compassion on the
mother (D) loved the young man that died
80 Jesus reply to the devils first temptation of Him was _ (A) Him only shall you serve (B)
Man shall not live by bread alone (C) You shall not tempt the Lord your God (D)
You shall worship the Lord your God B
81 Jesus told the parable of the lost sheep in order to illustrate that (A) every believer ought to D
rejoice with those who rejoice (B) no person can hide from God (C) Gods love is unlimited
(D) there is joy in heaven over a sinner who repents
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS STUDIES
82 Jesus was at the wedding in Cana of Galilee because (A) He wanted to demonstrate His power B
(B) He was invited to the ceremony (C) the groom was His relation (D) the groom ran out of
wine
83 Jesus was tempted by the devil so as to (A) fulfill all righteousness (B) show His power over C
forces of nature (C) show that no one is above temptation (D) test the devils power
84 The Hebrew word Rabboni means (A) disciple (B) priest (C) master (D) Teacher D
85 The impact of Jesus miracle of turning water into wine was that the (A) servants were C
astonished (B) master of ceremony believed (C) disciples believed more in Him (D) people
glorified God
86 Where were the disciples of Jesus when He had a conversation with the Samaritan B
woman(A) They had gone to the city to preach the gospel (B) They had gone to the city to
buy food (C) They had gone to the mountain to pray (D) They had gone to wait for Him
87 According to Ephesians children who obey their parents in the Lord will (A) be happy (B) go C
to heaven (C) have long life (D) be great
88 According to Peter God shows no partiality but in every nation anyone who fears Him is (A) B
diligent before Him (B) acceptable to Him (C) holy before Him (D) righteous before Him
89 According to Romans the new life is comparable to Jesus (A) resurrection (B) ministry (C) A
ascension (D) crucifixion
90 According to Thessalonians the day of the Lord will not come unless the (A) living die first C
(B) scoffers come first (C) dead rise first (D) rebellion comes first
91 Busy bodies and those living in idleness in the church at Thessalonica were admonished to (A)
pray for those in authority for peace (B) do their work in quietness and earn a living (C) appeal
to those in authority to create jobs (D) endure persecution from their masters
B
92 In his teaching on partiality James declares that mercy triumphs over (A) judgment (B) A
righteousness (C) grace (D) faith
93 In Pauls arrangement of the spiritual gifts in Corinthians the last is (A) the utterance of B
wisdom (B) interpretation of tongues (C) gifts of healing (D) various kinds of tongues
94 In Romans Paul condemned sin taking over mortal bodies in the new life as instruments of B
69 In recent years Nigerian economy has been registering a spectacular growth inhelliphellip C
Sector in the last ten years (A) agriculture (B) education (C) telecommunication (D)
transport (E) distribution
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
ECONOMICS
70 Nigeria being a developing African country in the sub-Sahara has put together a C
development blue-print called Vision 202020 which can ensure that the country becomes
(A) one of the 20 developed countries by the year 2020 (B) an African economic lsquoTigerrsquo
by the year 2020 (C) one of the 20 largest economies in the world by the year 2020
(D) one of the 20 largest economies in sub-Saharan Africa by the year 2020 (E) one of
the 20 largest economies in the developing world by the year 2020
71 The major objective of economic growth is to (A) Redistribute income and other benefit D
of growth (B) Equalize opportunity for education and employment (C) Increase
aggregate expenditure on goods and services (D) Increase the real per capita income (E)
Increase access to education
72 The most common index used for measuring development is (A) The level of literacy (B) B
Per capita income (C) Nutritional levels (D) Population growth rate (E) International
development index
73 Which is NOT a direct effort to increase agricultural production in Nigeria (A) Operation B
Feed the Nation (B) Nigerian Youth Service Corps (C) Increased loans to farmers and
cooperatives (D) Research in Agriculture and extension services (E) Mechanization of
agriculture
74 Which of the following sectors of the economy is estimated to be the largest employer of B
labour in the country (A) Construction (B) Agriculture (C) Distribution (D) Mining and
petroleum (E) Transport and communications
75 Industries contribute to national economic development because they (A) Utilize local B
raw material (B) Employ an increasing number of labour (C) Provide recreational
facilities (D) Use modern machines which replace human labour (E) All of the above
76 Infant industries are (A) Baby food and baby clothing factories (B) Those which are D
introducing new products (C) Cases of arrested development (D) Industries temporarily
protected by tariffs barriers until mature enough to compete on world markets (E)
Industries that are allowed to remain permanent cases of adolescence
77 The export-promotion strategy is aimed at producing (A) Consumer goods originally C
imported (B) Machinery for industries (C) More goods for exports (D) More goods for
domestic consumption (E) Increasing export of goods needed in developed countries
78 Which of the following is NOT an advantage of localization of industries (A) Reaping of E
external economies (B) Development of a pool of skilled labour for the industry (C)
Development of subsidiary industries (D) Development of organized markets (E) Growth
of conurbations
79 The crucial factors which determines the location of petroleum refineries in Nigeria are B
availability of raw materials and (A) Capital (B) Political consideration (C) Nearness to
source of power (D) Labour (E) Availability of seaports
80 The petroleum industry in Nigeria is (A) The sole source of the nationrsquos revenue (B) The C
oldest industry in the country (C) The mainstay of the economy (D) A factor in the
decline in the nationrsquos foreign reserves (E) In the hand of NNPC
81 In a limited liability company the greatest risk is borne by (A) Shareholders debentures C
(B) Company executives (C) Ordinary shareholders (D) Preference shareholders (E)
Board of directors
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
ECONOMICS
82 In a public company shares are (A) Sold to one person only (B) Distributed freely (C) C
Advertised to members of the public for subscription (D) Disposed off by the Chief
Executive (E) none of the above
83 The advantage of the sole proprietorship is as follows (A) It is always successful (B) C
Continuity is no problem (C) Control and supervision is under one man (D) Funds are
easy to obtain (E) Inter-generational equity is assured
84 The maximum number of shareholders for a limited liability company is (A) Twenty (B) D
Seven (C) Five (D) Infinite (E) Limited to the number of individuals that are interested
85 Population density refers to (A) Densely populated urban centres (B) The total area D
divided by the total population (C) Densely populated rural areas (D) The total
population divided by the total area (E) All of the above
86 To calculate the annual natural growth rate of a countryrsquos population one has to know D
the countryrsquos annual birth rate and (A) The size of that country (B) The rate of
immigration into that country (C) The population census of that country (D) The annual
death rate (E) The gross domestic product (GDP) of the country
87 Which of the following is not true of the theory of optimum population A It is possible B
for a densely populated country to be under-populated if it has insufficient labour to
make the most effective use of its other factors B The quantity of labour which
combines with other factors gives the minimum output is known as optimum population
C The quantity of labour which combined with the other factors gives the maximum
output is known as optimum population D The test of over-population is whether it
exceeds the optimum E It is possible for a thinly populated country to be over-
populated if it has a poor supply of other factors
88 Which of the following is the standard concept of measuring and analyzing population E
growth (A) The rate of natural increase (B) The net migration rate (C) The rate of
population increase (D) The fertility rate (E) All of the above
89 Which of these would NOT increase the population of a country (A) Increase in death A
rate (B) Decrease in birth rate (C) Emigration (D) Migration (E) Better medical facilities
90 An improvement in the Nigeriarsquos terms of trade should (A) Lead to a fall in cost of her A
imports in terms of what she must sacrifice to obtain them (B) Make made-in-Nigeria
goods cheaper to buy (C) Increase Nigeriarsquos domestic output of commodities (D) Lead to
an increase in her exchange rates (E) Lead to an increase in Nigeriarsquos exports of
petroleum
91 By lsquotrade by barterrsquo we mean (A) Trade done by people in the villages (B) Exchange of D
goods for money (C) International trade (D) Exchange of goods for goods (E) The trade
of the Middle Ages
92 Gains from trade depends on (A) Comparative advantage (B) Absolute advantage (C) A
Distributive cost advantage (D) Absolute cost advantage (E) None of the above
93 International and inter-regional trade differ primarily because (A) Comparative B
advantage is relevant to the former but not to the latter (B) Products flow easily within
regions of a country (C) There are different resource supplies among countries of the
world (D) Of regulations from GATT (E) None of the above
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
ECONOMICS
94 Surplus in the balance of payments lead to (A) Inflation or increasing prices generally (B) B
Increase in foreign reserves (C) Decrease in foreign reserves (D) Government budget
surplus (E) None of the above
95 The expression lsquoTerms of Tradersquo is used to describe (A) The quality of exports (B) The D
direction of foreign trade (C) Terms of purchase on deferred payment basis (D) The rate
at which exports exchange for imports (E) Import licensing
96 The quantity of a currency that exchanges for a unit of another currency is called its (A) C
exchange value (B) barter value (C) exchange rate (D) market price (E) unit price
97 Under a system of freely floating exchange rates an increase in the international value of B
a countryrsquos currency will cause (A) its exports to rise (B) its imports to rise (C) gold to
flow into that country (D) its currency to be in surplus (E) devaluation
98 When a currency loses its value due to a government action to fix the quantity of the A
currency that exchanges for another currency there is (A) devaluation (B)
depreciation (C) inflation (D) fiscal deficit (E) none of the above
99 Which of the following items in the Balance of Payments Account is an invisible D
transaction (A) Imports of cars (B) Export of cocoa (C) Export of crude petroleum (D)
Tourism (E) Import of building materials
100 A major trading problems facing ECOWAS is (A) The absence of common currency (B) A
Political instability (C) High poverty level (D) Non-implementation of decisions (E)
Trade-related political crisis in Ivory coast
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
USE OF ENGLISH
1
Read the passages below and answer the questions that follow
PASSAGE AEvery discernible observer could foresee the crisis which engulfed the Edo Houselast week Only a few days before reports were rife about the AC reaching out tosome PDP legislators to cross-carpet The intention being to gain a majority andthen assume the Speakership with the least constraint Zakawanu Garuba the thenSpeaker retorted with a fiat threatening to declare vacant the seat of any defectorThis in spite of the constitutional support for such action as evidenced forexample by the crisis that has torn the PDP apart in Edo State The party has twofactional chairmen in the state even though one is more vociferousThe desperate attempt by Garuba to cling to the Speakerrsquos chair is condemnable Hewas not being recalled from the legislature and so he still has his seat as a floormember As speaker he was only first among equals The Speakership is not hisbirthright With the defection of one PDP lawmaker to the AC the legislaturereconvened hours after the bloodbath and elected a protem Speaker whileimpeaching and suspending Garuba and a few others They are to be probed
(Adapted from The Guardian Thursday March 4 2011 p14)
1 Why did AC woo PDP membersA they are few in numberB they want speakership without stressC PDP members are faithfulD The House is tough
2 The legislators impeachedA GarubaB PDP lawmakersC Garuba and some PDP lawmakersD Garuba and some lawmwkers
3 According to the passage the constitution supportsA The speakerB DefectingC Edo StateD Factional chairmen
4 The lawmakers reconvenedA After the defection of a PDP memberB After the bloodbathC After suspending the SpeakerD After electing a protem Speaker
B
A
D
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
USE OF ENGLISH
2
5 At the end what happened to GarubaA He was vindicatedB He was indictedC He was honouredD He was humiliated
6 To cross-carpet as used in the passage means toA change partyB renew membership of a partyC change onersquos carpetD buy new carpet
7 The crisis in the Edo State House of Assembly could be predicted byA The lawmakersB Edo State indigenesC The protem SpeakerD All conscious observers
B
C
A
PASSAGE B
Nigeria has a troubled power sector which is however undergoing reforms thathopefully should usher in era of private sector dominance in terms of ownershipand management of generation and distribution In this transitory phase it is crucialto lay a foundation for local sourcing of vital inputs and make it the norm for theindustry That is the only way to prevent a replication of the trend in the oil and gassub-sector where capital flight is as much as $ 16 billion per annum as revealed bythe Petroleum Technology Development FundThe PHCN could legitimately insist on quality and standards in its procurement ofequipment and materials but what is playing out is an institutional orientationevinced in several pursuits of the PHCN that are contemptuous of Nigeriarsquosaspiration for local content development In 1998 the defunct National ElectricPower Authority defied a directive by the then Minister of Power and steel AlhajiBashir Dalhatu to source its costable components from Nigerian foundries some ofwhich are of high standards Actuated by a realization of idle capacity in thefoundries and the need to conserve foreign exchange the Minister appliedappropriate pressure on the management of NEPA but found his efforts frustratedThe acute shortage or inefficiency in the metering programme originated from thefact that the only local manufacturer then the Federal Government-ownedelectricity Meter Company in Zaria Kaduna State established in 1976 but sold toDantata Investments Limited in December 2002 is not performing(Adapted from The Punch Wednesday May 25 2011 Pg 18)
8 Why is there shortage of meterA Non-performance of PHCNB Non-performance of NEPAC Non-performance of the Federal Government-owned electricity
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
USE OF ENGLISH
3
Meter CompanyD Non-performance of Dantata Investment Ltd
9 According to the passage the solution to the problem in the power sector lies inA Sourcing for materials locallyB Getting costable componentsC Obeying the ministerD Getting $ 16 billion per annum
10 From the passage it is clear thatA There is money in the countryB There is shortage of electricity meterC NEPA is better than PHCND NEPA was formed in 1998
11 Which of these is not true of the power sectorA There is only one local manufacturer of electricity meterB The power sector is undergoing reformsC The problem of the power sector cannot be solvedD there was procurement of equipment and materials
12 Which of these is undergoing reformsA NEPAB PHCNC NigeriaD The power sector
13 A suitable title for this passage isA Nigeria and her problemsB NEPA versus PHCNC Electricity meterD Problems in the power sector
A
B
C
D
D
Choose the option that best completes the gap14 University students helliphelliphelliphelliphellipbehave well (A) can (B) should (C) may (D)
mustB
15 Gloria helliphelliphelliphellip have finished the project two days ago (A) must (B) may (C)can (D) supposed to
A
16 You are Goodluck (A) are you (B) arenrsquot you (C) arersquont you (D) donrsquotyou
B
17 He helliphelliphelliphelliphellip not come now (A) needs (B) needed (C) need (D) will need C18 Janet to know that we are all here (A) suppose (B) supposes (C) is
supposed (D) should supposeC
19 Let it be that there was no king in Ayegun (A)know (B) knew (C) known(D) knows
C
20 We shall see you soon (A) shall we (B) shanrsquot we (C) shouldnrsquot we (D)should we
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
USE OF ENGLISH
4
21 Neither of the presidential candidates suitable (A) are (B) is (C) is been(D) are been suitable
B
22 Ten miles ____ a great distance (A) is (B) are (C) is been A23 If I were the president I ask for the money (A) will (B) should (C) would
(D) canC
24 I will see you after I spoken with your supervisor (A) might have (B) have(C) will have (D) would have
B
25 ldquoYou - now see the directorrdquo the secretary told the visitors (A) can (B)may (C) should (D) would
B
26 She isnrsquot Gloria (A) is she (B) isnrsquot she (C) arenrsquot she (D) doesnrsquot she A27 We have a bus (A) didnrsquot we (B) havenrsquot we (C) doesnrsquot we (D) hasnrsquot
weB
28 I knew David let us down (A) may (B) will (C) might (D) can C29 You helliphelliphellip me last week (A) ought to see (B) ought to had seen (C) ought to
have seen (D) had to have seenC
30 Twenty dollars ___ enough for my lunch (A) are (B) is (c ) are just B31 The pests ____ our farm every year (A) invade (B) invades (c ) has invades A32 If I were the Governor I ask for the project (A) will (B) should (C) would
(D) canC
33 When helliphellip the Cleric today (A) doesarrives (B) doesarrived (C)doesarrive (D) do arrive
C
34 We shall see you soon (A) shall we (B) shanrsquot we (C) shouldnrsquot we (D)should we
B
35 You missed the match (A) donrsquot you (B) didnrsquot you (C) hadnrsquot you (D)doesnrsquot you
B
36 Walk the dog right now (A) walknrsquot you (B) will you (C)shall you(D)would you
B
37 I am a student (A) Irsquom I (B) arenrsquot I (C) isnrsquot I (D) wouldnrsquot I BPick out the oddwrong expression in each of the following
38 (A) I heard his supposed apology (B) I heard his unconvincing apology (C) Iheard his suppose apology (D) I heard he was supposed apology
D
39 (A) I suppose you know the way (B) I am supposed you know the way (C) Isuppose he knows the way (D) They suppose he knows the way
B
40 (A) I travel next week (B) I will travel next week (C) I suppose to travelnext week (D) I should travel next week
C41 (A) Having discovered the error he apologized (B) Having discovered the
error the apology was tendered (C) Having known the error he apologised(D) Having found out the error he tendered an apology B
42 (A) The job has been done (B) The job has been being done (C) They havedone the job (D) They can have done the job
D
43 (A) She must finish the project in two days (B) She must finish the project twodays ago (C) She must have finished the project two days ago (D) She ought tohave finished the project two days ago
B
44 (A) If I went in there I would beat the security officer (B) If I go in there Iwould beat the security officer (C) If I go in there I will beat the securityofficer (D) If I go in there I can beat the security officer
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
USE OF ENGLISH
5
Choose the option that most appropriately expresses the idea in theunderlined expression
45 My friendrsquos parentrsquos are magnanimous (A) rich and popular (B) sociable andlovable (C) kind and generous (D) wicked and stingy
C
46 My friend has an overbearing attitude toward me (A) patient (B) impatient(C) opinionated and domineering (D) considerate and respectful
C
47 There are a number of makeshift buildings in town (A) modern buildings (B)old fashion buildings (C) temporary buildings (D) permanent buildings
C
48 Post UME is a hurdle to cross (A) a necessary and simple exam to pass (B) anunnecessary and difficult exam to pass (C) an unnecessary but simple exam topass (D) a necessary and challenging exam to pass
D
49 His contribution to the project is invaluable (A) extremely useful (B) of novalue (C) of little value (D) can not be valued
A
50 That was a dawn-to-earth approach (A) poor (B) ordinary (C) practical (D)immodest
B
51 Concerning my admission I have to cross my fingers (A) wait and hope for thebest (B) wait in frustration (C) wait confidently (D) take some risk
A
52 My father is indifferent to my choice of University (A) supports (B) opposes(C) not decided (D) not concerned
D
53 We need an ad hoc arrangement towards the project (A) intelligent (B)advanced (C) permanent (D) temporary
D
54 The studentrsquos reply to the lecturer betrayed his rudeness (A) covered (B)showed (C) reduced (D) increased
C
55 His conduct in the last elections was above board (A) arrogant (B) honest (C)above average (D) excellent
C
56 That was a dispassionate decision (A) bias (B) personal (C) unaffected (D)ineffective
C
57 On the matter of worship some sit on the fence (A) go to the extreme (B) aredecisive (C) are fanatics (D) are undecided
D
Choose the option that is nearest in meaning to the word underlined58 In this matter we must be prepared to tolerate human frailty (A)
75 Her health deteriorated rapidly (A) worsened (B) improved (C) stagnated (D)declined
B
Which of the following sentences is correct76 (A) One should mind his business (B) One should mind onersquos business (C) One
should mind her businessB
77 (A) This case is between you and I (B) This case is between you and me (C)This case is between the two both of us
B
78 (A) With them around we have a great problem on our hands (B) With themaround we have a great problem on our hand (C) With them around wehave a great problem on hand
A
79 (A) The dog wagged itrsquos tail (B) The dog wagged its tail (C) The dog waggeditsrsquo tail
B
80 (A) A ten year old boy is missing (B) A ten-year-old boy is missing (C) A tenyear-old boy is missing
B
81 Choose the option that sounds the same with two (A) tool (B) too (C) tow (D)to
B
82 Choose the option that sounds the same with bear (A) bare (B) beer (C)bared (D) beard
B
83 Choose the option that sounds the same with the given word Key (A) kiss(B) quay (C) keyed (D) kissed
B
Choose the word that is correctly spelled84 (A) acomodation (B) accommodation (C) accomodation (D) acommodation B85 (A) embarrassment (B) embarassment (C) embarrasment (D) embarasment A86 (A) horrific (B) horific (C) horiffic (D) horriffic A87 As soon as Joy arrived she started looking for food The underlined
expression is an ----------- (A) adverbial phrase of reason (B) adverbial clauseof reason (C) adverbial phrase of time (D) adverbial clause of time
D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
USE OF ENGLISH
7
88 My friend a brilliant lecturer won many prizes The underlined expression isa(n) (A) adjectival clause (B) relative clause (C) appositive phrase (D)subject of lsquowonrsquo
C
89 I passed very well because I studied hard The underlined expression is a (A)relative clause introducer (B) linking verb (C) adverb of reason (D)subordinating conjunction
D
90 Bello and I love each other (A) preposition (B) reciprocal pronoun (C) nounphrase (D) adjectival phrase
B
91 I prefer writing to acting The underlined expressions is a(n) -------- (A) verb(B) participle (C) gerund (D) object
C
92 Having finished my assignment I started watching television The underlinedexpression is a(n) -------- (A) infinitive clause (B) gerund (C) participialphrase (D) noun clause
C
93 If you leave early yoursquoll meet Sola at home The underlined expression is a ----------- (A) nominal clause (B) verbal clause (C) conditional clause (D)adjectival clause
C
94 Wounded by a lion the hunter trudged home The underlined expression is a-----------(A) nominal clause (B) verbal clause (C) participial clause (D)adjectival clause
C
95 Irsquom proud of you The underlined expression functions as(A) prepositionalcomplement (B) adjectival complement (C) subject complement (D) verbalcomplement
B
96 A noun phrase lacks one of the following (A) noun (B) verb (C) adjective (D)adverb
B
97 Eve gave Adam an apple An apple in the sentence functions as------------(A)subject of the verb lsquogaversquo (B) direct object of the verb (C) indirect object ofthe verb (D) object complement
B
98 I wonder if you know where he lives This sentence is a(n) (A) thoughtfulstatement (B) polite command (C) indirect question (D) subtle exclamation
A
99 An example of gradable adjectives is hellip (A) each (B) beautiful (C) dead (D)live
B
100 A clause differs from a phrase because a clause contains helliphelliphellip (A) a largernumber of words (B) a fewer number of words (C) a finite verb (D) a non-finite verb
C
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Information
the study of accounting leads to a challenging career (D) accounting provides gross profit accounting is useful in making decisions (B) accounting plays an important role in a society (C)
Themost importantreasonfor studying accounting is that (A) theinformation providedby A 8
71 A partnership on admitting a new member revalued the business land and building from N30 C
000 to N70 000 The difference of N40 000 should be (A) credited to land and building account
(B) debited to asset revaluation account (C) credited to asset revaluation account (D) credited
to profit and loss appropriate account
72 Adamu Babaji and Chukwu are in a partnership and they share profit and losses on ratio 321 D
Their respective capitals are N20000 N15000 N5000 on which they are entitled to interest
at 5 per annum The profit for the year before charging interest on capital amounts to
N5500 Calculate the profit for Adamu (A) N583 (B) N1000 (C) N1167 (D) N1750
73 In a partnership business the net profit serves as opening figure for (A) trading account D
(B) profit and loss account (C) current account (D) appropriation account
74 In the absence of a partnership agreement profits and losses are shared (A) in the ratio of B
capital (B) equally (C) in the ratio of drawings (D) according to services rendered
5
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
FINANCIAL ACCOUNTING
75 Interest on a partners drawings is debited to the (A) partners current account and credited to A the profit and loss appropriate account (B) profit and loss appropriation account and credited
to the partners current account (C) profit and loss account and credited to the partners
account (D) partners current account and credited to the profit and loss account
76 Partnersrsquo share of profit is credited to (a) a partnerrsquos current account (b) a partnerrsquos capital A
account (c) the profit and loss account (d) the profit and loss appropriation account
77 Which of the following is a strong feature of partnership (A) The life of the partnership is B
generally assumed to be indefinite (B) The owners are liable personally for all debts of the
business The transfer of ownership interest is frequent and easy to accomplish (D) The
partnership is complex to form because of many legal and reporting requirements
78 A bond acknowledging a loan to a company under the companyrsquos seal bearing a fixed rate of D
interest is known as (A) certificate (B) agreement (C) bank loan (D) debenture
79 Alabede (Nig) Limited issued 50000 ordinary shares if 1 each at a market value of N250 each C
The share premium is (A) N125000 (B) N100000 (C) N75000 (D) N50000
80 All but one of the following are examples of capital reserves (A) Share premium (B) D
99 Which of the following is the most critical factor of industrial location in modern world (A) Raw B
materials (B) Market (C) Transportation (D) Capital
100 Which of the following represent an urban- rural migration (A) a students from the village C
school gains admission to the university in the town (B) Moving to the urban centre for
medical services (C) Traveling from Lagos to the village on retirement (D) A civil servants gets
transferred from one town to another
6
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
GOVERNMENT
1
1 A key characteristic of the civil service is (A) Merit system (B) Patriotism (C) Quota system(D) Transparency
A
2 A major cause of inefficiency in public corporations is (A) inadequate patronage by membersof the public (B) absence of an enabling Act or law (C) political interference (D)competition from private firms
C
3 A major distinction between public corporations and private companies is that (A) Publiccorporations provide important services (B) Public corporations are large organizations (C)Public corporations are financed and controlled by government (D) Public corporations arenot involved in production of tangible goods
C
4 A primary agency of political socialization is (A) the government B the family C the massmedia D the School
B
5 A process that seeks to transfer ownership and control of public corporations to privateindividuals or organizations is called (A) Indigenization (B) Commercialization (C)Privatization (D) Acquisition
C
6 Adult male suffrage means that (A) All men who pay tax can vote (B) All adult males canvote (C) All men can vote (D) All adults can vote B
7 All of the following are obligations of citizens except (A) Obedience to laws (B) Voting (C)Giving alms to beggars (D) Payment of taxes
C
8 An electoral district is (A) A local government area (B) A ward (C) A polling booth (D) Aconstituency
D
9 Fascism was practiced in Italy under (A) Benito Masollini (B) Benito Mubarak (C) BenitoMussolini (D) Benito Mandela
C
10 Governmental powers are _________ in the US presidential system (A) absolutely separated(B)fused (C) absolutely fused (D) separated D
11 In a democracy franchise is limited by (A) Age (B) Sex (C) Wealth (D) Education A
12 In the civil service anonymity means that civil servants must (A) Not receive the credit orblame for any good (B) Serve any government impartially (C) Avoid nepotism andfavouritism (D) Be politically neutral
A
13 In which of the following set of countries is a dominant two-party system operated (A)Nigeria and Ghana (B) The United States and the United Kingdom (C) France and Germany(D) India and China
B
14 One of the advantages of direct election is that (A) it is too expensive and difficult to conduct(B) illiterates vote intelligently for their leaders (C) it makes representatives accountable tothe electors (D) it offers an opportunity to the electorate to demand for money
C
15 One of the following is not a feature of a modern state (A) Territorial landmass (B) Populationof People (C) Defined Territory (D) Sovereignty
A
16 One of the following is not a source of constitution (A) Customs and conventions (B) civilservice regulations (C) historical documents (D) judicial precedents
B
17 One of the objectives of a multiparty system is to (A) Eliminate corruption (B) Preventrigging (C) Provide alternatives (D) Avoid ethnicity
C
18 Political sovereignty lies with (A) Head of State (B) Head of Government (C) the Parliament(D) the electorate
D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
GOVERNMENT
2
19 Public corporations are established principally to (A) compete with private firms (B) Raiserevenue for the government (C) provide essential services for the public (D) Promote publicaccountability
C
20 Public opinion helps a government to (A) Monitor its socio-cultural policy (B) Monitor theeconomic situation in the country (C) Punish opposition to its policies (D) Develop thecountry in line with the peoplersquos aspirations
D
21 Roles that are expected to be performed by an individual in a country are (A) Elections (B)Duties (C) Rights (D) Services
B
22 Separation of powers denotes __________________ (A) Separation of governmental powersbut not separation of persons (B) Separation of governmental powers and Separation ofpersons (C) Separation of persons only (D) Separation of powers of government only
B
23 The assent of the President is required to convert aan ____ to law (A) Bill (B) Edict (C)Proclamation (D) Decree A
24 The branch of Government that sets agenda for other organs is known as (A) the bureaucracy(B) the legislature (C) the executive (D) the mass media
B
25 The capitalist economy is dictated by (A) Government economic blueprint (B) Consumersrsquorequirements (C) Diminishing returns (D) the forces of demand and supply
D
26 The central Legislative body in Britain is referred to as --------------------------- (A) NationalAssembly (B) Knesset (C) Parliament (D) Congress
C
27 The chairman of the committee that reviewed the 1988 civil service commission was (A)Chief PC Asiodu (B) Chief Edwin Clerk (C) Chief Allison Ayida (D) Chief Simeon Adebo
C
28 The highest grade in the civil service is known as (A) Executive cadre (B) Administrative cadre(C) Technical cadre (D) Clerical cadre
B
29 The law of libel limits a citizenrsquos right to freedom of (A) Association (B) Expression (C)Worship (D) Movement
B
30 The major advantage of the secret ballot is that (A) It ensures the anonymity of each voter(B) It is faster than other systems (C) Nobody can be prevented from voting (D) It extendsthe franchise to all adults
A
31 The permanent executive includes (A) Civil servants and not public servants (B) Civil servantsand politicians (C) all career officers that serve any government in power (D) elected andappointed politicians
C
32 The pressure group that resorts to unconventional methods to achieve its objectives is called(A) Institutional group (B) Interest group (C) Promotional group (D) Anomic group
D
33 The three fundamental rights of citizens are (A) Life liberty and property (B) Salvationproperty freedom of thought (C) Employment property and social security (D) Freeeducation employment and property
A
34 When a constitution is not difficult to amend it is said to be (A) Rigid (B) Systematic (C)Flexible (D) Federal
C
35 Which of the following best describes a sovereign state (A) a member of the African Union(B) Freedom from economic control (C) Geographical contiguity (D) Military political and
economic independence
D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
GOVERNMENT
3
36 Which of these is an element of state power (A) Geographical location population ampeconomic resources (B) Geographical location elite interests amp economic resources (C)Geographical location ethnicity amp economic resources (D) Geographical location politicalcrisis amp economic resources
A
37 Which of these is not a method of election (A) Simple majority (B) Proportionalrepresentation (C) Primary election (D) Co-option
D
38 ___________ plays rule adjudication role in Nigeria (A) The Civil Service (B) The Legislature(C) The Executive (D) The Judiciary
D
39 A two-party system of government is one in which (A) only one party performs multipartyfunctions (B) the elite dominate political parties (C) only few parties are allowed to operateby law (D) There are two major parties and other minor parties
D
40 An important agency for social control in the Igbo traditional society was the (A) Age-grade(B) Ozo-title holders (C) Council of Chiefs (D) Assembly of lineage heads
A
41 Educated elites in Nigeria did not like the system of indirect rule because it (A) Did not makeprovisions for them (B) Was exploitative and cumbersome (C) Made traditional rulers toopowerful (D) Was undemocratic and oppressive
C
42 Federalism in Nigeria is best seen as a way of promoting (a)Rapid economic development (B)unity in diversity (C) even national development (D) democracy
B
43 In Nigeria the civil service was first regionalized by the (A) Independence constitution (B)Richard constitution (C) Clifford constitution (D) Lyttleton constitution B
44 In the Hausa pre-colonial political system sovereignty was located in the (A) Alkali (B) Emir(C) Waziri (D) Galadima
B
45 In the pre-Colonial HausaFulani system the appointment of an Emir in the caliphate wasapproved by (A) Sultan of Sokoto and the Emir of Gwandu (B) Galadima and the Waziri (C)Sardauna of Sokoto and the Alkali (D) Sheu of Bornu and the Galadima
A
46 Nationalist activities in British West Africa increased after the second World War because (A)Of the expulsion of Kwane Nkrumah from Britain (B) Of the return of the educated elite fromabroad (C) Prices of commodities fell below expectation (D) Africans were nominated to theexecutive council
B47 Nigeria started to operate a real federal structure with the introduction of the (A) 1922 Clifford
constitution (B) 1946 Richard constitution (C) 1953 London conference (D) 1954 Lyteltonconstitution
49 One of the fundamental changes recommended by Adedotun Philips commission is (A)Frequent movement of staff (B) Standardization (C) Professionalization (D) Stagnation
C
50 One of the fundamental reversals made by the commission that reviewed the 1988 reform ofthe civil service was (A) Change of Director General to Permanent Secretaries (B) Changefrom Permanent Secretary to Director General (C) Change from Director General toPermanent Administrators (D) Permanent Professionals
A
51 The helliphelliphellipLocal government reforms recognized local government as the third tier ofgovernment (A) 1963 (B) 1976 (C) 1988 (D) 1989
B
52 The breakdown of the Macpherson constitution was partly caused by the crisis within the (A)NCNC (B) AG (C) NPC (D) NNDP
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
GOVERNMENT
4
53 The First Executive president of Nigeria was (A) Dr Nnamdi Azikiwe (B) Sir Abubakar TafawaBalewa (C) General Yakubu Gowon (D) Alhaji Sheu Shagari
D
54 The first military coup in Nigeria took place on mdash (A) July 15 1966 (B) July 27 1967 (C)January 15 1966 (D) January 13 1966 C
55 The first three political parties to be registered in the Fourth Republic were (A) ACN ANPPand PDP (B) AD APP and PDP (C) PPA PDP CAN (D) APGA CAN and PDPB B
56 The imposition of unitary form of administration by General Ironsi in 1966 led to (A) Moremilitary institutions (B) Return to civilian rule (C) Independence from British rule (D) civilunrest in the North
D
57 The institution that preserves civil liberty in Nigeria is the (A) Law Court (B) Civil ServiceCommission (C) Police Affairs Commission (D) Public Complaints Commission
A
58 The main opposition party during the First Republic was the (A) Northern Peoples Congress(B) Action Group (C) Northern Element Progressive Union (D) United Middle Belt Congress
B
59 The state created in Nigeria before 1966 was (A) East central state (B) Lagos state (C) Mid-Western state (D) North central state
C
60 The1964 federal election was contested by two major alliances of political parties amongthese (A) All Progressive Grand Alliance and the Northern Peoples Alliance (B) NigerianNational Alliance and United Progressive Grand Alliance (C) National Democratic Coalitionand Nigerian Peoples Alliance (D) National Democratic Alliance and Northern ElementsProgressive Union
B
61 Under the 1999 constitution of the Federal Republic of Nigeria there are a total ofhelliphelliphellip Localgovernment councils (A) 334 (B) 620 (C) 724 (D) 774 D
62 Which of the following ethnic groups had the best egalitarian traditional political system (A)Hausa Fulani (B) Yoruba (C) Igbo (D) Edo
C
63 which of the following is not a major problem of local government in Nigeria (A) Insufficientfunding and limited internally generated revenue (B) Interference and control by higher levelsof government (C) Lack of competent and qualified staff (D) lack of sufficient number oflocal government
D
64 Which of the following is not a reason for the adoption of a Federal System of government mdash(A) Cultural diversities (B) Security consideration (C) Economic consideration (D) Limitedresources D
65 Which of the following is not an example of a public corporation in Nigeria (A) NigerianRailway Corporation (B) Federal Radio Corporation of Nigeria (C) Federal Mortgage Bank ofNigeria (D) National Deposit Insurance Corporation
C
66 Which of the following statements is true about the 1963 and 1979 Constitutions (A) Bothhad provisions for the office of the president (B) Both had provision for the office of theconstitutional president (C) Both provided for the offices of prime minister and president(D) Both had provision for the office of an executive president
A
67 Which of these former Nigerian Heads of State was instrumental to the establishment ofECOWAS (A) Sanni Abacha (B) Yakubu Gowon (C) Olusegun Obasanjo (D) Tafawa Balewa
B
68 In 1975 Nigeria had a strained relationship with one of the following countries over the crisisin Angola (A) Britain (B) Israel (C) USA (D) Mexico
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
GOVERNMENT
5
69 Nigeriarsquos non ndash aligned posture was criticized on ground of the (A) Non ndash Proliferation Treaty(B) ECOWAS Treaty (C) Nuclear Test Ban Treaty (D) Anglo ndash Nigeria Defence Pact
D
70 The circumstance that led to the establishment of ECOWAS Monitoring Group (ECOMOG ) was(A) the bloody civil war in Nigeria (B) the bloody civil war in Liberia (C) the bloody civil war inSudan (D) the bloody civil war in all West African countries
B
71 The head of Nigeriarsquos foreign mission in a Commonwealth nation is best known and addressedas (A) Ambassador (B) Envoy (C) High commissioner (D) Representative
C
72 What determines Nigeriarsquos relations with other countries (A) Its national interest (B) Itslevel of democratization (C) Its citizens political sagacity (D) Its political culture
A
73 Which of the following best defines foreign policy (A) The ways in which some actors on thedomestic scene translate available power into policies designed to bring positive outcomes (B)The actions of a state towards the celestial environment (C) A set of objectives with regardsto the world beyond the borders of a given state and a set of strategies and tactics designed toachieve these objectives (D) The protection of the territorial integrity of a state
C74 Which of the following military regimes was credited with a dynamic foreign policy (A)
75 Which of these is an example of Nigeriarsquos external cultural relations (A) Exchange of studentswith friendly nations (B) Trade relationships with other countries (C) Financial and economicassistance to needy countries (D) Establishment of diplomatic missions in other countries
A
76 Which of these is correct about Nigeriarsquos foreign policy between 1960 and 1966 (A) It waspro-British (B) It was pro-American (C) It was pro-Soviet (D) It was pro-French
A
77 Which of these is NOT part of a countryrsquos core or vital interests (A) Economic viability (B)Political independence (C) Territorial integrity (D) Political brouhaha
D
78 Which of these is NOT the essence of foreign policy (A) Promotion and defence of a nationrsquosvital interest (B) Protection and promotion of a nationrsquos strategic interest (C) Protection andpromotion of the interest of the political leaders of a country (D) Promotion and defence ofthe economic interest of a nation
C
79 Which of these Nigerians has ever played a leading role in the operation of OPEC (A) AlhajiRilwanu Lukman (B) Prof Joe Garba (C) Prof Joy Ogwu (D) Gen Ike Nwachukwu
A
80 Which year was the Anglo-Nigerian defence pact abrogated (A) 1962 (B) 1963 (C) 1960 (D)1961
A
81 A major weakness of the Commonwealth is (A) lack of commitment by member states (B)lack of quorum at annual summits (C) poverty among member states (D) lack of democraticleadership A
82 An essential principle that guides the works of the United Nations (A) The regulation ofinternational trade (B) The protection of the United States of America against terrorism (C)Respect for sovereign equality of member states (D) The transfer of technology to developingcountries
C
83 In which of these International Organisations is African membership NOT possible (A)ECOWAS (B) EU (C) OPEC (D) Commonwealth
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
GOVERNMENT
6
84 Membership of the Commonwealth of Nations means (A) recognition of the Queen as theHead of the commonwealth and the republican states (B) recognition of the Queen as theHead of the commonwealth and not of the Republican States (C) recognition of the Queen asthe Head of the independent states and the republican states (D) recognition of the Queen asthe Head of all independent states
B85 One major achievement of OPEC is that (A) member nations are now formidable forces to be
reckoned with in international politics (B) world economic depression brought about fall in oilprice (C) there is a declining loyalty of its members (D) there are challenges posed by non ndashOPEC members
A
86 One of the following groups of states are all members of the ECOWAS (A) Nigerian Ghana andZaire (B) Guinea Togo and Cameroun (C) Guinea Bissau Burkina Faso and Cape Verde (D)Liberia Benin and Ethiopia C
87 The AU was formed by members of OAU (A) On 8th July 2002 at Durban South Africa (B) On8th July 2003 at Abuja Nigeria (C) On 8th July 2003 at Tripoli (D) On 8th June 2002 at AccraGhana
A
88 The first nation to become a republic within the Commonwealth of Nations is (A) Nigeria (B)Cyprus (C) Ghana (D) India D
89 The first summit of the African Union (AU) took place (A) On February 2 2004 at Addis AbabaEthiopia (B) On February 3 2003 at Addis Ababa Ethiopia (C) On February 3 2003 at AbujaNigeria (D) On February 2 2004 at Lagos Nigeria
B
90 The Non-aligned Movement was established at----------- in ---------- (A) Bombay 1955 (B)Bandung 1955 (C) Lagos 1972 (D) Addis Ababa 1955
B
91 The OAU adopted NEPAD during its summit held in (A) Abuja (B) Lusaka (C) Tunis (D) Cairo
D92 The organ charged with the responsibility of approving the annual budget of UNO is (A) The
Security Council (B) The International Court of Justice (C) the General Assembly (D) TheTrusteeship Council
C
93 To which of these blocs did Nigeria belong before the establishment of the OAU (A)Casablanca group (B) Monrovia group (C) Pan African group (D) African and Malagasy group
B
94 What is the full meaning of ECOWAS (A) Economic Community for Western African States (B)Economic Community of Western African States (C) Economic Community of West AfricanStates (D) Economic Community for West African States C
95 Where and when was the African Union inaugurated (A) Durban 2000 (B) Addis Ababa1963 (C) Lagos 1972 (D) Tripoli 2001
A
96 Which of the following is a functionally specialized global international organization (A)Organization of African Unity (B) United Nations (C) Food and Agriculture Organization (D)African Union
C
97 Which of the following is a specialized agency of the AU (A) The Assembly Conference (B) TheExecutive Council (C) African Court of Justice (D) The Commission
C
98 Which of the following is an apt definition of the Commonwealth of Nations (A) voluntaryassociation of the independent countries of the former British Colonies (B) association of freenations enjoying equal rights under the British (C) a free association of sovereign independentAfrican States (D) a voluntary association of countries that were formerly in the Frenchcolonial empire
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
GOVERNMENT
7
99 Which of the following is NOT a principal organ of the UNO (A) UNICEF (B) Security Council(C) Secretariat (D) General Assembly
A
100 Which of the following metamorphosed into the United Nations (A) International LabourOrganization (B) League of Nations (C) UNESCO (D) OAU
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
HISTORY
1 is the name of the political head of Zaria (A) Obi (B) Emir (C) Oba (D) Alaafin B
2 was the state which was thrown into anarchy and turmoil as a result of the opening of A
the Muni the sacred heritage by the king under the prompting of Muslim Missionaries (A)
Kanem (B) Salem (C) Njimi (D) Chad
3 Before getting to Nigeria River Niger passed across (A) Mali (B) Kanem (C) Chad (D) A
Morocco
4 Oba is the name of the political head of (A) Benin (B) Kano (C) Bornu (D) Sokoto A
5 The Amazon (female warriors ) Participated actively in defending which of these kingdoms (A) C
10 Scurvy is caused by the deficiency of (A) Protein (B) Vitamin D (C) Vitamin A (D) Vitamin C D
11 The dietary guide is to (A) Promote health (B) Promote disease (C) Promote sports (D)Promote too much eating
A
12 The fat soluble vitamins are (A) A B E and K (B) A D E and K (C) A C E and K (D) A D C and K B
13 The methods of cooking includes all except (A) Baking (B) Toasting (C )Boiling (D) None of theabove
D
14 Too much sugar in the body could lead to (A) Urinating (B) Heart disease (C) Liver disease (D)Diabetes
D
15 Vitamin D is for the (A) Formation of nerves (B) Formation of tissue (C) Formationof bones (D) Formation and digestion
C
16 Vitamin K performs the function of (A) Blood cell (B) Blood flow (C) Blood use (D) Blood clot D
17 Water soluble vitamins are (A) A C and B complex (B) A E and B complex (C) C and Bcomplex (D) A and B complex
C
18 What is an appetizer(A) Meal eaten after the main meal (B) Meal eaten as the second course meal (C) Meal eatenas the first course meal (D) Meal eaten as the last course meal
C
19 What is steaming (A) Cooking with water vapor (B) Cooking with water boiling (C) Cookingwith dry heat (D) All of the above
A
20 What is under nutrition (A) Consumption of less nutritious foods (B) Consumption ofadequate nutrients (C) Consumption of balance nutrients (D) Consumption of available foods
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
HOME ECONOMICS
2
21 Which is not a communicable disease (A) Measles (B) Marasmus (C) Chicken pox (D)Tuberculosis
B
22 Which is not a type of food storage (A) Moist storage (B) Dry storage (C) Refrigerator storage(D) Freezer storage
A
23 Which is the best method of cooking food to retain nutrient (A) Roasting (B) Boiling (C)Steaming (D) Frying
C
24 Which of these is not correct (A) Carbohydrate is to provide fat to the body (B) Protein is tobuild the body (C) Vitamin is to maintenance of metabolism in the body (D) Water is vital forlife
A
25 Which of these is responsible for proper bone formation (A) Protein (B) Carbohydrate (C)Calcium (D) Cobalamin
C
26 A group of people related by blood and living together is regarded as a (A) Community (B)Society (C) Home (D) Family
D
27 Disposal of household refuse should be done (A) Once a week (B) Every day (C) Twice a week(D) Once a week
B
28 Family can be identified as (A) Larger society (B) Community society (C) Nucleus of society(D) Entire society
C
29 Home Management involves (A) Addressing a home and making it a place of comfort andhappiness (B) Structuring a home and making it a place of comfort and happiness (C)Managing a home and making it a place of comfort and happiness (D) Dedicating a home andmaking it a place of comfort and happiness
C
30 Identify the steps in Home management (A) Planning organizing implementingEvaluation (B) Organizing planning implementing Evaluation (C) Implementing Planningorganizing Evaluation (D) Planning implementing organizing Evaluation
A
31 In choosing a curtain for the home we must consider all except (A) Colour of the wall (B)Colour of the ceiling (C) Colour of the furniture (D) Colour of all colours
D
32 In cleaning of the sitting room we must do all except (A) Open the windows (B) Close thewindows (C) Dust the furniture (D) Sweep the floor
B
33 Meal planning involves (A) Number to be served (B) Quantity of food to cook (C) Healthstatus of family members (D) All of the above
D
34 Money management depend on all except one (A) How money is dedicated (B) How moneyis utilized (C) How money is organized (D) How money is spent
A
35 Saving means (A) Money set aside for use in future (B) Money spent yesterday (C) Moneyspent last month (D) Money spent outside the budget
A
36 Steps in making family budget does not include (A) List all the commodities and servicesneeded (B) Estimate cost (C) Estimate the total expected income (D) Estimated money spent
D
37 Which is not a type of family system in Nigeria (A) Nuclear family (B) Polygamous family (C)Polyandry family (D) Extended family
C
38 Which is not a type of marriage in Nigeria (A) Christian marriage (B) Islamic marriage (C)Hindu marriage (D) Traditional marriage
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
HOME ECONOMICS
3
39 Whish of these is not a benefit of energy management (A) Energy is conserved (B) Eliminatesfatigue (C) Energy is fully used up (D) Reduces amount of time on a task
C
40 Choose a type of seam from these options (A) Run and stand (B) Run and fell (C) Close seam(D) English seam
C
41 Choose the most correct option (A) Clothing is the material used in sewing (B) Clothing is thefabric used in sewing (C) Clothing is the not material used in sewing (D) Clothing is the notthe fabric used in sewing
B
42 Dying a fabric will require most importantly (A) Colour (B) Table (C) Wax (D)Dye D
43 Natural fibres include only one of the options (A) Cotton (B) Linen (C) Wool (D) All of theabove
D
44 Stitches are divided into all except (A) Basic stitches (B) Embroidery (C) Permanent stitches (D)None of the above
46 Which is not a factor to consider in clothing selection (A) Sex (B) Age (C) Occupation (D) Hair D
47 Which of these is a basic stitch (A) Back stitch (B) Temporary stitch (C) French knot (D) Shellhem
A
48 Which of these is a factor to consider in clothing selection (A) Figure type (B) Figure cloth (C)Figure shoe (D) Figure choice
A
49 Which of these is not used in tie-dye (A) Water (B) Caustic soda (C) Soap (D) Hydrosulphide C
50 Wool is obtained from (A) Plant (B) Synthetic (C) Silk (D) Animal D
51 Determine the option that is not a career opportunity in Home Economics (A) Dietician (B)Researcher (C) Teacher (D) Jester
D
52 In family budgeting and expenditure Home Economics is related to ------------ discipline (A)Physics (B) Chemistry (C) Economics (D) Sociology
C
53 In interrelationship with family members Home Economics is related to ------------ discipline (A)Sociology (B) Psychology (C) Biology (D) Economics
A
54 In law of heat as applied to toaster iron Home Economics is related to ------------ discipline (A)Mathematics (B) Physics (C) Psychology (D) Biology
B
55 Someone who studied Family and child development can work as (A) Childhood Caterer inschools (B) Interior decorator in schools (C) Childhood Food vendor (D) Early Childhoodeducator
D
56 Someone who studied Food and Nutrition can work as a (A) Caterer (B) Doctor (C) Nurse (D)Vendor
A
57 The scope of Home Economics include (A) Food and Nutrition Home Economics Clothingand textile (B) Food and Nutrition Home management Clothing and textile (C) Food andNutrition Home management Fabric cutting (D) Food and Nutrition Home Design Clothingand textile
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
HOME ECONOMICS
4
58 What are the basic philosophy of Home Economics (A) How to improve only goods andservices used by individuals families and communities (B) How to determine only the needsof the individual family institution and community (C) How to become responsiblemember of families and communities (D) How to determine the need and improveindividual family institution and community
D
59 What is the basic philosophy of Home Economics (A) How to improve only goods and servicesused by individuals families and communities (B) How to determine only the needs of theindividual family institution and community (C) How to become responsible member offamilies and communities (D) How to determine the need and improve individual familyinstitution and community
D
60 A pregnant woman is carrying -------------- in her womb (A) Baby (B) Child (C) Foetus (D)Pregnancy
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
LITERATURE IN ENGLISH
1
1 Conceits more rich in matter than in wordsBrags of his substance not of ornament (ActIISCIV) The structure of this dramatic speech is an example of (A) paradoxicalstructure (B) parallel structure (C) circular thought pattern (D) antithesis
D
2 A drama form that teaches godliness righteousness and goodwill to all men among rulers andordinary citizens is called----- (A) sentimental comedy (B) heroic tragi-comedy (C) heroicfarce (D) satire
A
3 A dramatic composition in which many or all the words are sung is called---- (A) Oratorio (B)Opera (C) Comedy (D) Concert
B
4 A humorous play based on an unrealistic situation is considered in drama as--- (A) comedy(B) tragedy (C) farce (D) burlesque
C
5 A play is a tragedy when------------------ (A) the author presents life as a hopeless adventure (B)the main character dies before the play ends (C) there is much bloodshed in the play (D) aweakness in the main character leads to his downfall
D
6 A play that ends on a sad note is a ----------- (A)tragicomedy (B) comedy (C) tragedy (D)farce
C
7 A play that stirs readers to pity fear and laughter is called (A) tragicomedy (B) farce (C)absurd (D) melodrama
A
8 A play that tells a single story has one setting and takes place within a specified period is saidto-------- (A) be heavily moralistic (B) be clearly cohesive (C) possess the three unities (D)have tragic elements
C
9 A play which emphasizes laughter and amusement at the expense of credibility is called----(A) cartoon (B) elegy (C) comedy (D) farce
D
10 A play with a single character is called (A) solo-drama (B) monodrama(C) play let (D) All of the above
D
11 A tragic figure is a character who is (a) worthy of emulation (b) ennobled though suffering (c)unbending and irredeemable (d) completely transformed
C
12 A type of drama that celebrates or satirizes the follies of characters is called---- (A) comedy(B) tragedy (C) farce (D) tragicomedy
A
13 A type of drama that highlights suspense and romantic sentiment with characters who areusually either clearly good or bad is called ----(A) farce (B) melodrama (C) comedy (D)burlesque
B
14 According to Aristotle the key to tragedy is the concept of (A) cartharsis (B) chorus (C)representation(D) plot
A
15 Aristotlersquos word for a tragic herorsquos shortcoming is (a) hubris (b) harmatia (c) denouement(d) dilemma
B
16 As a comic dramatic piece a farce makes use of improbable situations and characters that are(A) exaggerated (B) extravagant (C) understanding (D) poor
A
17 Both comedy and tragedy have ------------- (A) climax (B) tragic hero (C) stanza (D) happyending
A
18 Farce can be described as a dramatic piece marked by----------- (A) movement from serious tothe light-hearted mood (B) comic and exaggerated actions (C) actions devoid of meaning (D)gloomy actions with momentary reliefs B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
LITERATURE IN ENGLISH
2
19 In ----- the major character is selfish devilish wicked and exploitative (A) Comedy (B)Tragicomedy (C) Farce (D) Melodrama
D
20 In a play tragic responses are brought to a head through three elements (A) reversalrecognition and suffering (B) weakness suffering and resolution (C) flaw fear andrecognition (D) reversal suffering and conclusion
A
21 In de Graftrsquos Sons and Daughters James Ofosu is treated with (A) ridicule (B)dramatic irony (C) sarcasm (D) melodramatic spectacle
B
22 In drama a flashback occurs when (A) a characterrsquos inner mind isrevealed (B) the playwright supplies a missing link in a characterrsquos past (C) a character dropsan idea that hints at the future (D) a character drops an idea that hints at the concealed past
D
23 In drama light furniture custom and make-up are part of (A) stage deacutecor (B)stage architectonics (C) stage proxemics (D) kineaesthetics
A
24 In most of Shakespearersquos drama when a character speaks in aside the act is referred to as (A) stream of consciousness (B) sleep-walking (C) soliloquy (D) monologue
C
25 In Romeo and Juliet Romeo died (A) of self-poison (B) being murdered byFriar Laurence (C) the capulet (D) unknown assassins
A
26 In Sons and Daughters Fosuwa symbolizes (A) tradition and the old order (B) modernity (C)youthful exuberance (D) patriarchy
A
27 In Sons and Daughters the character of James Ofosu symbolizes (A) poverty (B) old values (C)new values (D) wealth
B
28 In tragedy everything must be artistically balanced this means that (A) the setting must bein one place (B) nothing superfluous is included and nothing essential omitted (C) characterand action are in equal ratio (D) there should be equal ratio of male and female characters
B29 -------------is a drama form which depicts royal wickedness of English kings and queens (A)
Heroic drama (B) Heroic tragicomedy (C) Heroic farce (D) SatireA
30 -----------is a drama form which ends happily after a number of initial tragic occurrences areresolved (A) Tragicomedy (B) Melodrama (C) Heroic Drama (D) Farce
A
31 --------------is the drama form which ends up on a note of happiness after some initial minorproblems (A) Tragedy (B) Farce (C) Heroic drama D Comedy
D
32 Joe de Graft was a prominent playwright from (A) Ghana (B) Nigeria (C) Cameroon (D) SierraLeone
A
33 Melodrama is the genre of drama which is characterized by emphasis on theatricality over(A) characterization (B) plot (C) setting (D) point of view A
34 One basic feature of melodrama is (A) humour (B) high-spirit (C)triumph of vice over virtue (D) overcome of evil by good
C
35 One of the peculiar features of drama in general is ------------ (A) humour (B) satire (C)sarcasm (D) action
D
36 Romeo and Juliet portrays the (A) chaos and passion of being in love (B) moral situation of thesociety (C) happiness of falling in love (D) evitability of fate
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
LITERATURE IN ENGLISH
3
37 The first part of a Greek tragedy is called a prologue and is also a playrsquos (A) envoy (B)exposition (C) rising action (D) climax
B
38 The most basic feature of drama is helliphelliphelliphelliphelliphelliphelliphelliphelliphellip (A) monologue (B) suspense (C) action(D) plot
C
39 The play Romeo and Juliet begins with (A) serious argument (B) sincere love (C) streetfight (D) secret marriage
C
40 The play Romeo and Juliet is an example of (A) realistic comedy (B) romantic comedy (C)satiric comedy (D) ironic comedy
B
41 The term farce is now used to cover a form of drama which employs (A) mistaken identity(B) slapstick (C) reversal of roles (D) romantic plot
A
42 The tragic herorsquos flaw is called (A) hubris (B) harmatia (C) caesura (D)peripeteia B
43 The word ldquocastrdquo in a play refers to (A) Three of the actors (B) A few of the actors (C) All theactors (D) An exclusive social class in the play
C
44 Theatre of the absurd portrays people whose sufferings seem (A) unfortunate (B)ridiculous (C) indefinite (D) sympathetic
B
45 Tragecomedies developed in which century (A) 18th (B) 19th (C) 20th (D) 21st C C46 When a play includes witty and graceful situation it can be classified as (A) comedy of
manners (B) high comedy (C) low comedy (D) comedy of the absurdB
47 When the plot of a play begins in the middle and only unfolds the past through flashback it iscalled (A) complex-plot (B) media res (C) prefiguration (D) None of theforegoing
B
48 Which of the following is true of Opera (A) They are plays with elaborate music (B) They areplays with elaborate songs (C) They are plays with dance (D) A and B
D
49 Which of the following statements best describes comedy (A) A play in which nobody dies(B) A play which makes us laugh (C) A play in which the hero is a clown (D) A play which endshappily
D
50 A story in which the characters are animals but behave like human beings is a (A) fable (B)fairy tale (C) folktale (D) parable
A
51 Considering the way Nnu Egorsquos life ends in The Joys of Motherhood the title of the novel canbe said to be (A) ironic (B) ambiguous (C) sarcastic (D) euphemistic
A
52 In lsquoThe Old Man and the Medalrsquo when in answer to the question if she had slept well Kelaraanswered ldquoI counted the matting in the roofrdquo she meant that (A) she slept very well (B) shewas awake when she should have been sleeping (C) she was thinking of mending the roof (D)there was a hole in the roof
B53 In a novel the antagonist is usually called a (A) narrator (B) hero (C) villain (D) clown C
54 In Nineteen Eighty-four the most important character in the story is____ (A) Winston Smith(B) Julia (C) OrsquoBrien (D) Big Brother
A
55 In Nineteen Eighty-Four the poet is (A) OrsquoBrien (B) Ampleforth (C) Syme (D) Martin B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
LITERATURE IN ENGLISH
4
56 In The Joys of Motherhood Nnaife enlisted in the army because (A) he was running awayfrom his wives and children (B) his white employers had gone home to Europe leaving himjobless (C) he wanted to prove that he was a man (D) he was looking for adventure
B
57 In The Joys of MotherhoodNnu Ego at one point tried to commit suicide because (A)someone used witchcraft on her (B) her only child had just died (C) she could not bear theshame of being barren (D) she did not like Nnaifersquos appearance
B
58 In The Old Man and the Medal when in answer to the question if she had slept well Kelaraanswered ldquoI counted the matting in the roofrdquo she meant that (A) she slept very well (B) shewas awake when she should have been sleeping (C) she was thinking of mending the roof (D)there was a hole in the roof
B
59 Nineteen Eighty-four can be described as a _____ (A) political satire (B) comedy (C)tragedy (D) chronicle
A
60 The expression ldquoto break the leg of an anteloperdquo which is found in The Old Man and the Medalmeans______ (A) hunting (B) travelling (C) marriage (D) fighting
D
61 The Joys of Motherhood suggests that (A) sometimes men are irresponsible as fathers andhusbands (B) children always grow up to help their parents (C) husbands always appreciatehardworking wives (D) women care for their children but neglect their husbands
A
62 The major thematic preoccupation of Joys of Motherhood is (A) politics (B) economicemancipation (C) motherhood (D) colonialism
C
63 ldquoThe piercing chill I feel My dead wifersquos comb in our bedroom Under my heelrdquo(trans ByHarold Henderson) What is the form of the above poem (A) haiku (B) triplet (C) tercet (D)quatrain A
64 A sonnet is a poem of_____ lines (A) 15 (B) 14 (C) 16 (D) 12 B
65 A stanza of three lines linked by rhyme is called a________ (A) couplet (B) ballad (C) tercet(D) quatrain
C
66 From David Rubadirirsquos ldquoAn African Thunderstormrdquo ldquoClouds come hurrying with the windrdquocontains an example of (A) alliteration (B) assonance (C) enjambment (D) rhyme
A
67 In poetry double rhyme can be used to bring out (A) irony (B) unity (C) theme (D)conclusion
A
68 The stanzas which make up a ballad usually consists of_____lines (A) 7 (B) 8 (C) 4 (D) 9 C
69 The tone in lsquoHeritage of Liberationrsquo is_____ (A) lamentative (B) invocatory (C) explanatory(D) melancholic
B
70 The typical rhyme scheme of an English sonnet is (A) abab cdcd efef gg (B) abab cdcd eeffgg (C) abcd abcd efef gg (D) abcc abcd efff gg
A
71 The words ldquoproverdquo and ldquoaboverdquo are examples of the rhyme called (A) exact (B) half (C) eye(D) slant
C
72 When words in poetry rise and fall in a measured way it is referred to as________ (A) rhyme(B) rhythm (C) repetition (D) euphemism
B
73 Which of the following is NOT a form of poetic expression (A) Octet (B) Lyric (C) Sonnet (D)Elegy
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
LITERATURE IN ENGLISH
5
74 ______is the deliberate use of exaggeration for the sole purpose of humour in poetry (A)Simile (B) Hyperbole (C) Onomatopoeia (D) Oxymoron
B
75 A character who remains unchanged in a story is described as (A) round (B) flat (C) stock(D) dynamic
B
76 A figure of speech which refers to the repetition of the initial consonant sounds of poetry witha rhythmic effect is called_______ (A) alliteration (B) assonance (C) apostrophe (D)euphemism
A
77 A literary work that appropriates matter andor manner from a previous work is (A) archetype (B) imitation (C) adaptation (D) sub-text
C
78 A tragic plot consists of (A) many people in various disastrous events (B) important incidents(C) noble and ordinary characters (D) a self-contained and concentrated single action
D
79 An expression or word which stands for a whole is called_______ (A) metonymy (B) allegory(C) synecdoche (D) repetition
C
80 Assonance refers to the _______ (A) repetition of alphabets in a line of poetry (B) repetitionof vowels in a line (C) agreement of vowel sounds in a line (D) agreement of consonantsounds in a line
B
81 Characters whose role contribute to the movement of plot are called (A)Minor characters (B) free characters (C) central characters (D) round characters
C
82 Identical vowel sounds create one of the following (A) euphony (B) cacophony (C)alliteration (D) assonance
D
83 Identify the odd one out of the following helliphelliphelliphelliphelliphellip (A) Aside (B) Costume (C) Narrative(D) Stage
C
84 Identify the odd one out of the following (A) Deacutecor (B) costume (C) Make-up (D) Mime D
85 In a novel the location of the story is referred to as the (A) stage (B) exposition (C) subject(D) setting
D
86 Point out the odd item (A) Macbeth (B) Twelfth Night (C) The Concubine (D) Romeo andJuliet
C
87 Pregnant clouds Ride stately on its back The clouds are described as ldquopregnantrdquo because (A)no one knows what is in them (B) they look like a fat woman (C) they bring rainfall (D)they move clumsily
C
88 The antagonist in a tragedy is ------------ (A) any character in the tragedy (B) the wife of theprotagonist (C) the character who provides comic relief (D) the character set in opposition tothe main character D
89 The device whereby the narrator recalls something that happened in the past is (A)foreshadowing (B) flashback (C) epiphany (D) prologue
B
90 The first person narrative point of view is characterized by the frequent use of (A) presenttense (B) singular nouns (C) past tense (D) the pronouns ldquoIrdquo and ldquowerdquo
D
91 The most mimetic term in critical vocabulary is (A) plot (B) imitation (C)character (D) action
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
LITERATURE IN ENGLISH
6
92 The structure of a story which shows the cause and effect of events is the (A) denouement (B)climax (C) imagery (D) plot
D
93 When one scene leads to another in inextricable chain of relationships it is called (A)episodic play (B) caused play (C) metaphysical play (D) All of the above
B
94 I would Love you ten years before the Flood And you should if you please refuse Tillthe conversion of the Jews The literary device used in the above extract is (A) allusion (B)innuendo (C) satire (D) archetype A
95 ldquoThat pierced the fearful hollow of thine earrdquo is an example of (A) relativeclause (B) figure of speech (C) personification (D) noun clause D
96 ldquoWilt thou be gone It is not yet near day It was the nightingale and not the lark That piercedthe fearful hollow of thine earrdquo The first sentence here is an example of (A)interrogative sentence (B) apostrophe (C) rhetorical statement (D) request
C
97 From Andrew Marvellrsquos ldquoTo His Coy Mistressrdquo Had we but world enough and time Thiscoyness lady were no crime We could sit down and think which way To walk and pass ourlong loversquos day This poem opens in the lines above like a (A) Sonnet (B) praise poem (C)ballad (D) dramatic monologue
D
98 Identify the odd term (A) Enjambment (B) Rhyme (C) Plot (D) Alliteration C
99 In the village Screams of delighted children Toss and turn In the din of whirling wind Women Babies clinging on their backs Dart about In and out Madly The Wind whistlesby Whilst trees bend to let it pass In the above extract the movement of the women is (A)leisurely (B) hurried (C) orderly (D) slow
B100 Tossing up things on its tail Like a madman chasing nothing These lines contain an example
of a (A) metaphor (B) simile (C) metonymy (D) paradoxB
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
MATHEMATICS
1
1 (128 x 104 ) divide (64 x 102 ) equals(A) 2 x 10-5 (B) 2 x 10-1 (C) 2 x 100 (D) 2 x 101 (E) 2 x 105
D
2 A man and wife went to buy an article costing N400 The woman had 10 of the cost andthe man 40 of the remainder How much did they have altogether(A) N216 (B) N200 (C) N184 (D) N144 (E) N100
C
3 Add the same number to the numerator and denominator of 318 If the resulting fraction isfrac12 then the number added is(A) 13 (B) 14 (C) 15 (D) 12 (E) 11
D
4 After getting a rise of 15 a manrsquos new monthly salary is N345 How much per monthdid he earn before the increase(A) N330 (B) N39675 (C) N300 (D) N29325 (E) N360
C
5 Assuming loge 44 = 14816 and loge 77 = 20142 then the value of loge frac14 is(A) 05326 (B) 34958 (C) 04816 (D) 00142 (E) 13594
A
6 Evaluate ൫2 + 4ଵଶ൯ଶ
(A) frac14 (B) 54 (C) 94 (D) 4 (E) 9
C
7 Evaluate correct to 4 decimal places 82751 x 0015(A) 88415 (B) 124127 (C) 1241265 (D) 124120(E) 1141265
B
8 Express 130 kilometres per second in metres per hour(A) 78 x 105 (B) 468 x 106 (C) 7800000(D) 468 x 106 (E) 780 x 10-6
B
9 Find the square root of 170-20radic30 (A) 2radic10-5radic3 (B) 3radic5-8radic6 (C) 2radic5-5radic6 (D) 5radic5-2radic6 (E) 5radic10-2radic3
C
10 If (25)x-1 = 64(5frasl2)6 then x has the value(A) 7 (B) 4 (C) 32 (D) 64 (E) 5
B
11 If a circular paper disc is trimmed in such a way that its circumference is reduced in theratio 25 in what ratio is the surface area reduced(A) 8125 (B) 25 (C) 825 (D) 425 (E) 410
D
12 In base ten the number 101101 (base 2) equals(A) 15 (B) 4 (C) 45 (D) 32 (E) 90
C
13 Simplifyହ ୶ ଶହ౮షభ
ଵଶହ౮శభ
(A) 5ଶ୶ ଵ (B) 5୶ାଶ (C) 5ହ (D) 5୶ାଵ (E) 5ଷ
C
14 Simplify(ଵ)൫రయାଵమళ൯
(మଵమ)
(A) ଶଷ (B) ଵଷ (C) ଶ + 1 (D) a (E) ଵଷ
E
15 Simplify ଵଶଶℎଵଷ divide ହଶℎଷ
(A) ( ℎ)ଶ (B) ହଶℎ (C) ହସℎଽ (D)మ
ఱళ(E)
ଵ
మమ
A
16 Simplify 2ହ
ଵଶminus 1
x
ହ
(A) 16 (B) 1320 (C) 1130 (D) 94 (E) 53
A
17 Solve the system of equations 2௫ା௬ = 32 3ଷ௬௫ = 27(A) (3 2) (B) (-3 2) (C) (3 -2) (D) (-3 -2) (E) (2 2)
A
18 The annual profits of a transport business were divided between the two partners A and Bin the ratio 35 If B receives N3000 more than A the total profit was(A) N5000 (B) N1800 (C) N12000 (D) N24000 (E) N8000
C
19 The diameter of a metal rod is measured as 2340cm to four significant figures What is D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
MATHEMATICS
2
the maximum error in the measurement(A) 005cm (B) 05cm (C) 0045cm (D) 0005cm (E) 0004cm
20 The ratio of the price of a loaf of bread to the price of a packet of sugar in 1975 was r t in1980 the price of a loaf went up by 25 and that of a packet of sugar by 10 Their newratio is now(A) 40r50t (B) 44r50t (C) 50r44t (D) 55r44t (E) 44r55t
C
21 The sum of 378 and 113 is less than the difference between 38 and 123 by (A) 323 (B)5frac14 (C) 6frac12 (D) 0 (E) 818
C
22 Two distinct sectors in the same circle subtend 1000 and 300 respectively at the centre ofthe circle Their corresponding arcs are in the ratio
24 What is the number whose logarithm to base 10 is 3482(A) 2236 (B) 02228 (C) 2235 (D)
2237 (E) 002229
E
25 When a dealer sells a bicycle for N81 he makes a profit of 8 What did he pay for thebicycle
(A) N73 (B) N7452 (C) N75 (D) N7552 (E)N8748
C
26 Write the decimal number 39 to base 2(A) 100111 (B) 110111 (C) 111001 (D) 100101 (E) 195
A
27 A father is now three times as old as his son Twelve years ago he was six times as old ashis son How old are the son and the father(A) 20 and 45 (B) 100 and 150 (C) 45 and 65 (D) 35 and 75 (E) 20 and 60
E
28 A steel ball of radius 1cm is dropped into a cylinder of radius 2cm and height 4cm If thecylinder is now filled with water what is the volume of the water in the cylinder(A) cm3ߨ443 (B) 12 cm3ߨ (C) 383 cm3ߨ (D) 403 cm3ߨ (E) 3233 cm3ߨ
A
29 Find a two-digit number such that three times the tens digit is 2 less than twice the unitsdigit and twice the number is 20 greater than the number obtained by reversing the digits(A) 24 (B) 42 (C) 74 (D) 47 (E) 72
D
30 Find the roots of the equation minusଶݔ10 minusݔ13 3 = 0(A) x = 35 or ndashfrac12 (B) x = 310 or -1 (C) x = -310 or 1 (D) x = 15 or -32 (E) x= -15 or 32
E
31 If a function is defined by +ݔ) 1) = minusଶݔ3 +ݔ 4 find (0)(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 0 (D) 8 (E) 2
D
32 If sin x equals cosine x what is x in radians(A) π2 (B) π3 (C) π4 (D) π6 (E) π12
C
33 If x2 + 4 = 0 then x =(A) 4 (B) -4 (C) 2 (D) -2 (E) none of these
E
34 In a geometric progression the first term is 153 and the sixth term is 1727 the sum of thefirst four terms is(A) 8603 (B) 6803 (C) 6083 (D) 8063 (E) 68027
B
35 List all integer values of x satisfying the inequality minus1 lt minusݔ2 5 le 5(A) 2345 (B) 25 (C) 345 (D) 234 (E) 34
C
36 Make c the subject of the equation (+ ) +ହ
ௗminus 2 = 0 D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
MATHEMATICS
3
(A) = 2minus 5 minus (B) = 5 minus 2minus (C) = 5 minus 2minus (D) = 2minus 5 minus (E) = 2minus minus 5
(C) ndash +ݔ) +ݔ)(5 1) (D) minusݔ) 5)(1 minus (ݔ (E) +ݔ) 5)(1 minus (ݔ
D
41 The quantity (x + y) is a factor of A(A) ଶݔ + ଶݕ (B) minusଷݔ ଷݕ (C) minusଶݔ2 +ݕݔ3 minusଶݕ +ݔ 1(D) ଷݔ2 + minusݕଶݔ2 +ݕݔ minusݔ3 ଶݕ + ݕ3 (E) minusହݔ ହݕ
D
42 The set of values of x and y which satisfies the equations ltigtxltsupgt2ltsupgt - y - 1 = 0ltigt and ltigty ndash 2x + 2 = 0ltigt(A) 1 0 (B) 1 1 (C) 2 2 (D) 0 2 (E) 1 2
A
43 The solution of the equation minusଶݔ =ݔ2 8 is(A) x = 0 or 2 (B) x = -2 or 4 (C) x = 2 (D) x = -4 (E) x = 2 or 4
B
44 The solution of the quadratic equation ଶݔ + +ݔ = 0 is given by
(A) =ݔplusmnξ మସ
ଶ(B) =ݔ
plusmnξ మସ
ଶ(C) =ݔ
plusmnξ మସ
ଶ
(D) =ݔplusmnradicమାସ
ଶ(E) =ݔ
plusmnradicమସ
ଶ
A
45 The sum of the root of a quadratic equation isହ
46 Three numbers x y and z are connected by the relationships =ݕସ
ଽ+ݔ 1 and =ݖ
ସ
ଽ+ݕ 1
If x = 99 find z(A) 613 (B) 20 (C) 21 (D) 17649 (E) None of the above
C
47 What factor is common to all the expressions minusଶݔ ݔ ଶݔ2 + minusݔ 1 and minusଶݔ 1(A) x (B) x ndash 1 (C) x + 1 (D) No common factor (E) (2x ndash 1)
D
48 A canal has rectangular cross section of width 10cm and breadth 1m If water of uniformdensity 1gm cm-3 flows through it at a constant speed of 1000mm per minute the adjacentsea is
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
MATHEMATICS
4
(A) 100000 (B) 1000000 (C) 120000 (D) 30000 (E) 35000049 A cuboid has a diagonal of length 9cm and a square base of side 4cm What is its height
50 A cylinder of height h and radius r is open at one end Its surface area is(A) 2πrh (B) πr2h (C) 2πrh+2πr2 (D) πrh+πr2 (E) 2πrh+πr2
E
51 A pyramid is constructed on a cuboid The figure has(A) 12 faces (B) 13 vertices (C) 14 edges (D) 15 edges (E) 16 edges
E
52 A quadrant of a circle of radius 6cm is cut away from each corner of a rectangle 25cm longand 18cm wide Find the perimeter of the remaining figure(A) 38cm (B) (38 + (ߨ12 (C) (86 minus (ߨ12 (D) (86minus (ߨ6 (E) (86 +(ߨ12
B
53 A rectangular picture 6cm by 8cm is enclosed by a frame frac12cm wide Calculate the area ofthe frame(A) 15sqcm (B) 20sqcm (C) 13sqcm (D) 16sqcm (E) 17sqcm
A
54 A regular hexagon is constructed inside a circle of diameter 12cm The area of thehexagon is
56 A solid cylinder of radius 3cm has a total surface area of 36πcm2 Find its height(A) 2cm (B) 3cm (C) 4cm (D) 5cm (E) 6cm
B
57 A square of cardboard is taped at the perimeter by a piece of ribbon 20cm long What isthe area of the board(A) 20sqcm (B) 25sqcm (C) 36sqcm (D) 100sqcm (E) 16sqcm
B
58 A triangle has angles 300 150 and 1350 the side opposite to the angle 300 is length 6cmThe side opposite to the angle 1350 is equal to
61 Find the area of the curved surface of a cone whose base radius is 6cm and whoseheight is 8cm (Take π = 227) (A) 18857cm2 (B) 1320cm2 (C) 188cm2 (D) 18808cm2 (E) 100cm2
A
62 Find the total surface area of a solid cone of radius 2radic3cm and slanting side 4radic3cm
67 PQRS is a cyclic quadrilateral with PQ as diameter of the circle If PQS = 150 findQRS(A) 750 (B) 37frac120 (C) 127frac120 (D) 1050 (E) None of the above
D
68 The difference between the length and width of a rectangle is 6cm and the area is135cm2 What is the length(A) 25cm (B) 18cm (C) 15cm (D) 24cm (E) 27cm
C
69 At what value of x does the function y= -3 ndash 2x +x2 attain a minimum value(A) 4 (B) 2 (C) -1 (D) -4 (E) 1
84 7 pupils of average age 12 years leave a class of 25 pupils of average age 14 years If 6new pupils of average age 11 years join the class what is the average age of the pupils nowin the class(A) 13years (B) 12years 7frac12months (C) 13years 5months (D) 13years 10 months(E) 11 years
A
85 A bag contains 4 white balls and 6 red balls Two balls are taken from the bag withoutreplacement What is the probability that they are both red(A) 13 (B) 29 (C) 215 (D) 15 (E) 35
E
86 Bola chooses at random a number between 1 and 300 What is the probability that thenumber is divisible by 4(A) 13 (B) frac14 (C) 15 (D) 4300 (E) 1300
B
87 Determine the mean monthly salary of 50 employees of a company from the followingfrequency distribution
88 Find the mean deviation of 1 2 3 and 4(A) 25 (B) 20 (C) 10 (D) 15 (E) 12
C
89 If M represents the median and D the mode of the measurements 5 9 3 5 7 5 8then (M D) is(A) (6 5) (B) (5 8) (C) (5 7) (D) (5 5) (E) (7 5)
D
90 In a basket of fruits there are 6 grapes 11 bananas and 13 oranges If one fruit is chosen atrandom what is the probability that the fruit is either a grape or a banana
(A) 1730 (B) 1130 (C) 630 (D) 530 (E) 73
A
91 In a school 220 students offer Biology or Mathematics or both 125 offer Biology and 110Mathematics How many offer Biology but not Mathematics
(A) 95 (B) 80 (C) 125 (D) 110 (E) 120
D
92 In a school there are 35 students in Class 2A and 40 in class 2B The mean score for class2A in an English literature examination is 600 and that for 2B in the same paper is 525Find to one place of decimals the mean for the combined classes
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
MATHEMATICS
7
(A) 15 (B) 560 (C) 562 (D) 563 (E) 56593 In a soccer competition in one season a club had scored the following goals 2 0 3 3 2
1 4 0 0 5 1 0 2 2 1 3 1 4 and 1 The mean median and mode are respectively(A) 1 18 and 15 (B) 18 15 and 1 (C) 18 1 and 15 (D) 15 1 and 18 (E)15 18 and 1
B
94 In how many ways can 2 students be selected from a group of 5 students in a debatingcompetition (A) 25 ways (B) 10 ways (C) 15 ways (D) 20 ways (E)16 ways
D
95 The arithmetic mean of the ages of 30 pupils in a class is 153 years One boy leaves theclass and one girl is enrolled and the new average age of 30 pupils in the class becomes152 years How much older is the boy than the girl
(A) 30 years (B) 6 years (C) 9 years (D) 3 years (E) 1 year
D
96 The letters of the word ldquoMATRICULATIONrdquo are cut and put into a box One letter isdrawn at random from the box Find the probability of drawing a vowel(A) 713 (B) 513 (C) 613 (D) 813 (E) 413
C
97 The mean of the numbers 3 6 4 x and 7 is 5 Find the standard deviation
(A) radic2 (B) radic3 (C) 2 (D) 3 (E) 5
A
98 The weights of 30 new-born babies are given as follows 6 9 5 7 6 7 5 8 9 5 7 58 7 8 7 56 5 7 6 9 9 7 8 8 7 8 9 8 The mode is(A) 6 (B) 5 (C) 8 (D) 7 (E) 10
D
99 Thirty boys and x girls sat for a test The mean of the boysrsquo scores and that of the girlswere respectively 6 and 8 Find x if the total score was 468(A) 38 (B) 24 (C) 36 (D) 22 (E) 41
C
100 Two fair dice are rolled What is the probability that both show up the same number ofpoints (A) 136 (B) 736 (C) frac12 (D) 13 (E) 16
E
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
BIOLOGY
1
1 ____________ is an end product of digestion of fat (A) Glucose (B) Fatty acid (C) Amino acid (D)Fructose (E) Galactose
B
2 Asexual reproduction in Hydra sp is commonly by ____ (A) Binary fission b Fragmentation cBudding d Separation (E) Regeneration
C
3 Benedictrsquos solution is used to test for ___ (A) Carbohydrate (B) Lipid (C) Protein (D) Vitamins (E)Minerals
C
4 Pepsin is an enzyme that digests ___ (A) Starch (B) Sugar (C) Lipid (D) Fat (E) Protein E
5 The breakdown of large organic molecules into smaller simpler soluble molecules is called ndashndash (A)Excretion (B) Digestion (C) Absorption (D) Reproduction (E) Ingestion
B
6 The enzyme that curdles milk is_____________ (A) Pepsin (B) Ptyalin (C) Renin (D) Amylase(E) Trypsin
C
7 Which is the enzyme that begins digestion of starch in the mouth (A) Ptyalin (B) Maltase (C)Amylase (D) Sucrase (E) Lactase
A
8 A group of interacting populations in a particular habitat can be described as ___(A) biome (B)biosphere (C) community (D) population ecosystem (E) environment
C
9 A habitat can be defined as ___(A) a group of animals and plants living within a commonboundary (B) a place in which plants and animals live (C) a community living together in thesame place (D) different areas with a common animal and plant population (E) None of theabove
B
10 A symbiotic relationship in which one organism is completely dependent on another organism iscalled ____ (A) Parasitism (B) Commensalisms (C) Mutualism (D) Saprophytism (E) Competition
A
11 An association between two organisms where both members benefit is known as ___ (A)symbiosis (B) commensalism (C) ammensalism (D) mutualism (E) saprophytism
D
12 An instrument used in measuring the speed of wind is (A) a barometer (B) a wind gauge (C) awind vane (D) an anemometer (E) a hydrometer
D
13 At times hyenas feed on remains of animals killed by other animals At other times hyenasthemselves kill animals for food Therefore hyenas may best be described as ndashndash (A) scavengersand herbivores (B) scavengers and parasites (C) scavengers and predators (D) herbivores andpredators e herbivores and parasites
C
14 Autecology is defined as the study of interrelationship of (A) many species of organisms and theirenvironment (B) same species of organisms and their environment (C) organisms in theatmosphere (D) organisms under the earthrsquos surface (E)None of the above
B
15 Autotrophs are also described as ndashndash (A) Consumers (B) Decomposers (C) Carnivores (D)Producers (E) Herbivores
D
16 If three 30cm lengths of glass tubing are tightly packed with clay sand and loamy soilsrespectively and then stood in a beaker of water for one week the level of water will be (A)Lowest in the tube with clay (B) The same in all the tubes (C) Lowest in the tube with loamy soil(D) Highest in the tube with sandy soil (E) Lowest in the tube with sandy soil
E
17 In a community bacteria and fungi are referred to as ndashndash (A) producers (B) consumers (C)scavengers (D) tertiary consumers (E) decomposers
E
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
BIOLOGY
2
18 Puddles Ponds Rivers Seas and Oceans are grouped together as ndashndash (A) Ecosystem (B) Biosphere(C) Aquatic habitat (D) Terrestrial habitat (E) Marine environment
C
19 The feeding pattern in an ecosystem is calledhelliphelliphelliphellip (A) Pyramid of energy (B) Food web (C)Food chain (D) Pyramid of member (E) Ecology
B
20 The orderly changes that occur slowly and naturally in plant and animal communities in a givenarea over a period of time until a stable community is established is called ndashndash (A)Transformational change (B) ecological succession (C) survival of the fittest (D) weatherchange (E) environmental change
B
21 The sign + is used to indicate an association where an organism gains while 0 is used where anorganism is unaffected An association indicated as +0 is known as ndashndash (A) predation (B)commensalism (C) parasitism (D) competition (E) ammensalism
B
22 The sum total of all the roles an organism plays in a habitat is referred to as (A) ecology (B)ecosystem (C) habit (D) habitat (E) niche
E
23 Which of the following factors does not control population growth (A) Food shortage (B)Emigration (C) Predation (D) Abundance of food (E) Natural disaster
D
24 Which of the following statements best describe an ecosystem (A) A place where livingorganisms can live successfully (B) The interactions between living organism in a habitat and thenon-living part of the environment (C) A biological association between a plant and ananimal (D) A system of grouping organisms in a habitat (E) None of the above
B
25 Which of these represents a correct food chain in nature (A) Crustacea rarr diatom rarrfish rarr man (B) Diatom rarr crustacea rarr fish rarr man (C) Fish rarr crustacea rarr man rarr diatom (D) Diatom rarr fish rarr crustacea rarr man (E) None of the above
B
26 ___________ is involved in the mechanism of expelling water from the protozoans during theprocess of____________ (A) Contractile vacuole Osmoregulation (B) Contractile vacuolePhagocytosis (C) Food vacuole Ultrafilteration (D) Food vacuole Pinocytosis (E) Cell membranePinocytosis
A
27 ______________ is used for photosynthesis in Euglena sp (A) Reservoir (B) Nucleus (C)Chloroplast (D) Paramylon granule (E) Pellicle
C
28 A heart with four chambers is found in______________ (A) Fishes (B) Insects (C) Snails (D) Rats(E) Worms
D
29 Animal cell does not have a ____________ (A) Membrane (B) Nucleolus (C) Food Vacuole (D) Cellwall (E) Golgi body
D
30 Beriberi is caused by deficiency of vitamin_____________ (A) A (B) D (C) K (D) E (E) B E
31 Compound eyes are found in which of the animals below (A) Rat (B) Cow (C) Snail (D) Ant (E) Jellyfish
D
32 Dental formula of man consist of (A) i 22 c22 pm22 m33 (B) i11 c22 pm22 m33 (C)i22 c11 pm32 m22 (D) i22 c11 pm22 m22 (E) i22 c11 pm22 m33
E
33 During digestion of food passage of chyme through the duodenum enables it to become awatery liquid called__________ (A) Digested food (B) Chymatic product (C) Chyle (D) Solublefood (E) Dissolved food
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
BIOLOGY
3
34 Emulsification of fat and oils is caused by______________ (A) Lipase (B) Ptyalin (C) Trypsin (D)Maltase (E) Bile
E
35 Every mammal has (A) One Kidney (B) Two pairs of Kidneys (C) One pair of Kidneys (D) FourKidneys (E) None of the above
C
36 Faeces is removed from the body in a process called (A) Digestion (B) Egestion (C) Elimination(D) Excretion (E) Evacuation
B
37 Glomerulus is found in the______________ (A) Ovary (B) Testes (C) Brain (D) Kidney e)Stomach
D
38 In the respiratory system of man diffusion of gases takes place in (A) Trachea (B) Bronchi (C)Alveoli (D) Bronchioles (E) None of the above
C
39 Incisors are used for (A) Tearing food (B) Cutting food (C) Grinding food (D) Shearing food (E)Crushing food
B
40 Nematocysts are produced by special cells found in (A) Nematodes (B) Annelids (C)Platyhelminthes (D) Cnidarians (Coelenterates) (E) Arthropods
D
41 One of the following is not a function of the skin (A) Excretion (B) Protection (C) Homeostasis(D) Reproduction (E) Absorption of vitamin D
D
42 Open circulatory system is found in _____________ (A) Lizard (B) Toad (C) Fish (D) Insect (E)Chicken
D
43 Ovary is to the female reproductive system as________ is to the male reproductive system (A)Penis (B) Urethra (C) Testis (D) Cowperrsquos gland (E) Prostate gland
C
44 Possession of pinna is a characteristic feature of (A) Mammals (B) Reptiles (C) Fishes (D)Amphibians (E) All of the above
A
45 Tadpoles respire with (A) Lungs (B) Nostril (C) Gills (D) Spiracles (E) Siphon C
46 The excretory organ in the earthworm ishelliphelliphelliphellip (A) Malphigian tubule (B) Stoma (C)Nephriduim (D) Flame cells (E) Gills
C
47 The nerves that connect the eyes to the brain are called ndashndash (A) Cranial nerves (B) Optical nerves(C) Sensory nerves (D) Olfactory nerves (E) Optic nerves
E
48 The nerves that connect the eyes to the brain are called ndashndash (A) Cranial nerves (B) Optical nerves(C) Sensory nerves (D) Olfactory nerves (E) Optic nerves
E
49 The parasympathetic nervous system is involved in (A) Dilation of pupil of the eye (B) Controlthe activities of smooth muscles (C) Dilatation of the skin (D) Controls thinking in mammals (E)Increased metabolism
B
50 The part of the alimentary system of a bird where grinding of food occurs is (A) Crop (B)Stomach (C) Cloaca (D) Rectum (E) Gizzard
E
51 The part of the ear that contains receptors that convert the fluid motion into action potential iscalled ndashndash (A) Auditory nerve (B) Ossicles (C) Semicircular canals (D) Cochlea (E) Oval window
D
52 The thoracic region of the vertebral column is made up of __________ vertebrae (A) 5 (B) 7 (C) 4(D) 12 (E) 10
D
53 Which of the animal below is poikilothemic (A) Toad (B) Chicken (C) Bat (D) Lion (E) Dove A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
BIOLOGY
4
54 Which of the structures below is found in reptiles and birds (A) Scales (B) Legs (C) Beaks (D)Claws (E) All of the above
A
55 Which of these animals is photosynthetic (A) Paramecium sp (B) Amoeba sp (C) Euglena sp(D) Hydra sp (E) None of the above
C
56 Which of these organs regulate the amount of sugar in the blood (A) Liver (B) Kidney (C) Spleen(D) Lung (E) Pancreas
E
57 The basis for growth and asexual reproduction is (A) meiosis (B) cytokinesis (C) mitosis (D)Cytogenesis (E) Cell elongation
C
58 The process which ensures that the chromosome number for each species of organism remainconstant from generation to generation is called (A) fission (B) fusion (C) meiosis (D) mitosis(E) oogenesis
C
59 Which of the following is a major factor in variation among organisms (A) Inbreeding (B)Backcrossing (C) Test crossing (D) Sexual reproduction (E) Gene dominance
D
60 ____________ is an example of an invertebrate (A) Millipede (B) Fish (C) Toad (D) Snake (E) Skin A
61 ____________ is the odd one in the list below (A) Mosquito (B) Bee (C) Moth (D) Tick (E)Beetle
63 _____________ is an example of a unicellular organism (A) Amoeba sp (B) Hydra sp (C) Ascarissp (D) Taenia sp (E) Obelia sp
A
64 _____________ level is the highest level of organization in animals (A) System (B) Tissue (C)Organ (D) Cellular (E) Protoplasmic
A
65 Crocodiles are _____________ (A) Fishes (B) Amphibians (C) Mammals (D) Birds (E) None of theabove
E
66 The mutation theory of organic evolution was propounded by (A) Gregor Mendel (B) Hugo deVrics (C) Jean Lamarck (D) Charles Darwin (E) Robert Hookes
D
67 The theory of natural selection was developed by (A) Lamarck and Darwin (B) Darwin andWallace (C) Wallace and Mendel (D) Mendel and Lamarck (E) Hooke and Darwin
B
68 Which is the odd animal in the list below (A) Lizards (B) Snakes (C) Turtles (D) Tortoise (E) Toad E
69 Which of the following sources is not an evidence of evolution (A) Fossil records B Comparativeanatomy C Comparative embryology (D) Human behavior (E) None of the above
D
70 _______________ is an endoparasite (A) Earthworm (B) Tapeworm (C) Mosquito (D) Housefly (E)Tsetse fly
B
71 The causative agent of bird flu is a (A) Virus (B) Bacteria (C) Fungus (D) Protozoan (E) Ricketsia A
72 In lower plants like mosses the structure which performs the functions of roots of higher plantsis called (A) root hairs (B) rootlets (C) hyphae (D) rhizoids (E) thalli
D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
BIOLOGY
5
73 One common feature of fungi algae mosses and ferns is that they are (A) photosynthetic (B)show alternation of generation (C) can survive harsh weather conditions (D) have no seeds (E)conjugate
D
74 The following are major groups of the plant kingdom EXCEPT (A) Bryophyta (B) Chlorophyta (C)Pteridophyta (D) Spermatophyta (E) Thallophyta
B
75 _____________is a form of sexual reproduction (A) Grafting (B) Budding (C) Fission (D)Conjugation (E) Regeneration
D
76 Sexual reproduction in Spirogyra is called (A) Fertilization (B) Symbiosis (C) Conjugation (D)Reproduction (E) Mutualism
C
77 The carrier of the hereditary characters in plants is the (A) Cell (B) nucleus (C) chromosome (D)chloroplast (E) gene
E
78 All are necessary for photosynthesis except_____________ (A) Water (B) Chlorophyll (C)Sunlight (D) Carbon dioxide (E) Oxygen
E
79 Growing yam tendrils climb for support This growth response is (A) haptotropism (B) geotropism(C) phototropism (D) hydrotropism (E) chemotropism
A
80 Which is the correct order in an evolutionary sequence for the following plant groups (A)Bacteria rarr ferns rarr algae rarr mosses rarr seed plants (B) Bacteria rarr ferns rarr mosses rarr algae rarr seed plants (C) Bacteria rarr algae rarr mosses rarr ferns rarr seed plants (D) Bacteria rarr mosses rarr algae rarr ferns rarr seed plants (E) Seed plants rarr ferns rarr mosses rarr algae rarr bacteria
C
81 ------------ is not part of the whorls of a flower(A)calyx (B) corolla (C) androecium (D)Antheridium (E)Gynoecium
D
82 A dry fruit which can break into several parts each containing one seed is a (A) caryopsis (B)aggregate fruit (C) legume (D) follicle (E) schizocarp
E
83 A dry indehiscent winged fruit formed from one carpel is known as a (A) Schizocarp (B)Caryopsis (C) Samara (D) nut (E) Follicle
C
84 A true fruit is formed from (A) fertilized ovary and other floral parts (B) a fertilized ovary (C) afertilized ovary and calyx (D) a fertilized and fleshy receptacle (E) an unfertilized ovary and otherfloral parts
B
85 Irish potato is a (A) bulb (B) tap root (C) rhizome (D) root tuber (E) stem tuber D
86 One major difference between an Angiosperm and a Gymnosperm is that seeds in Gymnospermsare borne in (A) Cones (B) fruits (C) flowers (D) ovary (E) ovule
A
87 Reserved food material in the seed is stored in the (A) epicarp (B) endocarp (C) endosperm (D)mesocarp (E) all parts
C
88 What type of fruit is a mango fruit (A) Berry (B) Hesperidium (C) Drupe (D) Nut (E) Mango fruit C
89 Which of the following species exhibit an aerial root (A) Ficus (B) Centrosema (C) Antigonon(D) Lantana (E) Dahlia
A
90 Which of these plants has an emerginate apex (A) Bauhinia (B) Pistia (C) Ixora (D) Musa (E)Terminalia
A
91 Which plant stores food in its roots (A) Cassava (B) cocoyam (C) Irish potato (D) onion (E)yam
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
BIOLOGY
6
92 An example of Vascular tissues is -------------- (A) Trichome (B) Xylem (C) Stomata (D) Epidermis(E) Parenchyma
B
93 The living part of phloem tissue is (A) sieve plate (B) companion cell (C) sieve element (D)cytoplasm
B
94 Which of the following tissues are made up of dead cells (A) meristems (B) xylem vessels (C)cambium (D) mesophyll (E) palisade
B
95 A plant vacuole contains (A) dissolved chemicals sugars salts pigments and crystals (B) wasteproducts of metabolism DNA RNA and crystals (C) pigments crystals DNA and waste productsof metabolism (D) RNA DNA sugars and salts
A
96 Excessive loss of water in plants is known as (A) Osmosis (B) Osmoregulation (C) Transpiration (D)Excretion
C
97 Starch granules in plants is equivalent to _____________ granules in animals (A) Food (B)Chromatin (C) Lysosome (D) Mitochondria (E) Glycogen
E
98 Which of the following is a plant excretory product (A) Oil (B) Cytokinin (C) Resin (D)amino acids (E) gibberellins
C
99 A plant which grows on another without causing harm to the host plant is called ndashndash (A) aparasite (B) a saprophyte (C) an epiphyte (D) a predator (E) a prey
C
100 Plants which can survive in places where water supply is limited are (A) bryophytes (B)mesophytes (C) xerophytes (D) hydrophytes (E) pteridophytes
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
1
1 200 cm3 of air was passed over heated copper in a syringe several times to produce copper (II)oxide When cooled the final volume of air recorded was 158 cm3 Estimate the percentage ofoxygen in the air (A) 31 (B) 27 (C) 21 (D) 19
C
2 30cm3 of oxygen at 10 atmosphere pressures is placed in a 20dm3 container Calculate the newpressure if temperature is kept constant (A) 67 atm (B) 150 atm (C) 600 (D) 660
B
3 Bond dissociation energy of 500 KJ mol-1 may be assigned to (A) ionic bonding (B) covalentbonding (C) hydrogen bonding D) metallic bonding (E) van-der-waals bonding
A
4 A mixture of iron and sulphur can be separated by dissolving the mixture in __ (A) steam (B)dilute hydrochloric acid (C) dilute sodium hydroxide (D) benzene
B
5 A mixture of sand ammonium chloride and sodium chloride is best separated by __ (A)sublimation followed by addition of water and filtration (B) sublimation followed by addition ofwater and evaporation (C) addition of water followed by filtration and sublimation (D) additionof water followed by crystallization and sublimation
A
6 A pure solid usually melts __ (A) over a wide range of temperature (B) over a narrow range oftemperature (C) at a lower temperature than the impure one (D) at the same temperature asthe impure one
B
7 A small quantity of solid ammonium chloride was heated gently in a test tube the solidgradually disappeared to produce a mixture of two gases Later a white cloudy deposit wasobserved on the cooler part of the test tube The ammonium chloride is said to haveundergone __ (A) distillation (B) sublimation (C) precipitation (D) evaporation
B
8 CH4 has this geometry (A) trigonal (B) planar (C) tetrahedral (D) octahedral (E) linear C
9 Chlorine consisting of two isotopes of mass numbers 35 and 37 has an atomic mass of 355The relative abundance of the isotope of mass number 37 is ___ ( A)20 (B) 25 (C) 50 (D) 75
B
10 Elements P Q R S have 6 11 15 and 17 electrons respectively therefore (A) P will form anelectrovalent bond with R (B) Q will form a covalent bond with S (C)R will form an electrovalentbond with S (D) Q will form an electrovalent bond with S
D
11 In the oil drop experiment Millikan determined the (A) charge to mass ratio of the electron (B)mass of the electron (C) charge of the electron (D) mass of the proton
C
12 One of these atomic shells is the most stable (A) M (B) N (C) K (D) L (E) 0 C
13 Sieving is a technique used to separate mixtures containing 20 oxygen by volume Which ofthe reactants was in excess (A) Carbon (II) oxide (B) Oxygen (C) Carbon (IV) oxide (D) Nitrogen
A
14 The abnormally high boiling point of water is primarily due to (A) ionic bonding (B) covalentbonding (C) dative bonding (D) coordinate covalent bonding (E) hydrogen bonding
E
15 The energy required to remove an electron from the isolated gaseous atom is known as (A)electron affinity (B) bond energy (C) lonisation energy (D) electronegativity (E) electrovalency
C
16 The group that oxygen belongs to is collectively called (A) allotropes (B) halogens (C)chalcogens (D) alkenes (E) ozonides
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
2
17 The ideal gas equation is ___ ( A) P=nRT (B) PR =nVT (C) PV =gRT (D) V=kT (E) PV = K V A
18 The number of atoms in one mole of a substance is equal to (A) the atomic number (B) theAvogadrorsquos number (C) number of neutrons (D) number of electrons (E) gas constant
B
19 The number of electrons in the outermost shell of the atom represents its (A) period (B)number of shells (C) group (D) atomic number (E) electronegativity
C
20 The number of protons or electrons of an atom represents its (A) electronegativity (B) period(C) number of shells (D) group (E) atomic number
E
21 The partial pressure of oxygen in a sample of air is 500 mmHg If the total Pr pressure 780mmHg what is the mole fraction of the oxygen (A) 064 [B (B) 573 (C) 156 (D) 070 (E) 054
A
22 The periodic classification of the elements is an arrangement of the elements in order of their(A) atomic weights (B) isotopic weights (C) molecular weights (D) atomic numbers
D
23 The process of changing one element into another is called (A) radioisotope (B) radioactivity (C)dating (D) transmutation (E) nuclear reaction
D
24 The shapes of CO2 H2O and CH4 respectively are (A) bent linear and tetrahedral (B) benttetrahedral and linear (C) tetrahedral linear and bent (D) linear bent and tetrahedral
D
25 This compound exhibits ionic bonding (A) H20 (B) H2 (C) KC1 (D) NH3 (E) HF C
26 This type of bonding involves overlapping of orbitals during which electrons are shared (A)hydrogen bonding (B) covalent bonding (C) ionic bonding (D) metallic bonding (E) van-der-waals bonding
B
27 Which one of the following changes is physical (A) Adding iron filings to aerated water (B)Adding sodium metal to water (C) Cooling a solution of iron(II) sulphate to obtain the hydratedsalt (D) Cooling water to obtain ice
D
28 A side effect of soft water is that (A) it gives offensive taste (B) excess calcium is precipitated(C) it encourages the growth of bacteria (D) it attacks lead contained in pipes
D
29 Ammonia is very soluble in water because it is a an molecule (A) non-polar (B) polar (C)reactive (D) basic (E) acidic
B
30 Citrus fruits such as lemon and grape taste sour because they contain (A) ascorbic acid andcitric acid (B) citric acid and ascetic acid (C) citric acid and dilute HCl (D) citric acid and salicyclicacid (E) Sulphuric acid
A
31 Soap lather is an example of a colloid in which a (A) liquid is dispersed in gas (B) solid isdispersed in liquid (C) gas is dispersed in liquid (D) liquid is dispersed in liquid
C
32 The air around a petroleum refinery is most likely to contain(A) CO2 SO3 and N2O (B) CO2 COand N2O (C) SO2 CO and NO2 (D) PH3 H2O and CO2
C
33 The difference between colloids and suspensions is brought out clearly by the fact that whilecolloids (A) do not scatter light suspensions do (B) can be separated by filtration suspensionscannot be so separated (C) can be separated by a membrane suspensions cannot (D) do notsettle out on standing suspensions do
D
34 The following substances are non-electrolytes except (A) chloroform (B) sugar cane (C) aceticacid (D) NaCl (E) C and D
E
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
3
35 The hydrolysis of NH4Cl salt will give (A) acidic solution (B) neutral solution (C) basic solution(D) hot solution (E) all of the above
A
36 The pollutants that are likely to be present in an industrial environment are (A) H2S SO2 andoxides of nitrogen (B)NH3 HCl and CO (C) CO2 NH3 and H2S (D) dust NO and Cl2
A
37 What is the basicity of tetraoxosulphate (VI) acid (A) 2 (B) 1 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) 0 A
38 Which of the following gases is the most dangerous pollutant (A) Hydrogen sulphide (B)Carbon (IV) oxide (C) Sulphur (IV) oxide (D) Carbon (II) oxide
D
39 Which of the following ions is a pollutant in drinking water even in trace amount (A) Ca2+ (B)Hg2+ (C) Mg2+ (D) Fe2+
B
40 Which of the following is an example of a double salt (A) NH4Cl (B) alum (C) NaCO3 (D) AlCl3
(E) NaClB
41 016g of methane when burnt increases the temperature of 100g of water by 400(C) what isthe heat of combustion of methane if the heat capacity of water is 42 Jg-10C-1 (CH4=16) (A)1160kJmol-1 (B) 1180kJmol-1 (C) 1560kJmol-1 (D) 1600kJmol-1 (E) 1680kJmol-1
E
42 A charged car battery has ___ energy that can be converted into another energy called ___energy (A) Chemical electrical (B) mechanical chemical (C) heat mechanical (D) lightelectrical (E) light heat
A
43 Copper oxide is heated with charcoal to produce carbon monoxide and copper The reaction isan example of (A) both oxidation and reduction (B) neither oxidation and reduction (C)oxidation only (D) reduction only (E) neutralization
A
44 For each oxygen atom in hydrogen peroxide which acts as an oxidant there is an oxygen atomwhich acts as a an (A) Oxidant (B) reductant (C) oxidizing agent (D) catalyst (E) inhibitor
B
45 Given the change of phase CO2(g) changes to CO2(s) the entropy of the system (A) decreases(B) increases (C) remains the same
A
46 In which of the following is the entropy change positive (A) Reaction between an acid and abase (B) Addition of concentrated acid to water (C) Dissolution of sodium metal in water(D) Thermal dissociation of ammonium chloride
C
47 One of these elements is the best reducing agent (A) Pb (B) Rb (C) Al (D) In (E) N B
48 The name of the gas driven off at the negative electrode during the electrolysis of brine is ___( A) hydrogen (B) chlorine (C) oxygen (D) sodium (E) hydrogen chloride
B
49 The oxidation state of P in H2P2072- is ___ (A) -3 (B) +3 (C) +1 (D) +5 (E) -2 D
50 The oxidation state of S in Ca(HS03)2 is __ (A) +2 (B) -2 (C) +4 (D) -4 (E) +6 C
51 The oxidizing agent in the reaction 3Br2 + 6OH- = BrO3- + 5Br- + 3H2O is __ (A) Br2 (B) OH- (C)
BrO3- (D) e- (E) H2OA
52 When heat is absorbed during a chemical reaction the reaction is said to be ___(A) thermodynamic (B) exothermal (C) isothermal (D) endothermic (E) thermostatic
D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
4
53 Given the reaction at equilibrium 2CO(g) + O2(g) harr 2CO2(g) When the reaction is subjected tostress a change will occur in the concentration of (A) reactants only (B) products only (C)both reactants and products (D) neither reactants nor products
C
54 Given the reaction at equilibrium N2(g) + O2(g) harr 2NO(g) as the concentration of N2(g)increases the concentration of O2(g) will (A) decrease (B) increase (C) remains the same (D)vanishes (E) pours away
A
55 If a reaction is exothermic and there is a great disorder it means that (A) The reaction is in astate of equilibrium (B) There will be a large increase in free energy (C) There will be a largedecrease in free energy (D) The reaction is static
B
56 In the chemical reaction of A + B = C +D more of D is formed (A) if the concentration of A isreduced (B) if the concentration of B is reduced (C) if the concentration of C is reduced (D) ifthe concentration of C is increased (E) if it is continuously removed from the reaction mixture
E
57 In what way is equilibrium constant for the forward reaction related to that of the reversereaction (A) The addition of the two is expected to be one (B) The product of two isexpected to be one (C) The two equilibrium constants are identical (D) The product of thetwo is always greater than one
C
58 In which reaction will the point of equilibrium shift to the left when the pressure on the systemis increased (A) C(s) + O2(g) harr CO2(g) (B) CaCO3(s) harr CaO(s) + CO2(g) (C) 2Mg(s) + O2(g) harr 2MgO(s) (D) 2H2(g) + O2(g) harr2H2O(g)
B
59 The furring of kettles is caused by the presence in water of __ (A) calcium trioxocarbonate (IV)(B) calcium tetraoxosulphate (VI) (C) calcium hydroxide (D) calcium hydrogentrioxocarbonate(IV)
D
60 Which is a property of a reaction that has reached equilibrium (A) The amount of products isgreater than the amount of reactants (B) The amount of products is equal to the amount ofreactants (C) The rate of the forward reaction is greater than the rate of the reverse reaction(D) The rate of the forward reaction is equal to the rate of the reverse reaction
D
61 Which of the following combination of conditions many increase the rate of a chemicalreaction (A) Decrease in temperature increase in concentration of the reactant (B) Increase intemperature addition of a catalyst decrease in the surface area of the reactant (C) Increase intemperature increase in concentration addition of a catalyst and increase in the surface areaof the reactant (D) Decrease in temperature concentration and surface area of the reactants(E) Addition of catalyst and in the absence of light
C
62 ldquoQuicklimerdquo has the formula __ (A) Ca(OH)2 (B) CaO (C) CaCO3 (D) CaSO42H2O (E) CaCl2 B
63 A Transition metal is different from a non-transition metal because (A) it has an octetconfiguration (B) it is very stable (C) it is coloured (D) it has incomplete outer shell d-electrons(E) it has no electron in the d-orbital
D
64 Chlorine is produced commercially by (A) electrolysis of dilute HCl (B) electrolysis of brine (C)neutralization of HCl (D) heating potassium trioxochlorate (V) (E) action of dilute mineral acidson bleaching powder
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
5
65 Chlorine bromine and iodine resemble one another since they __ (A)dissolve in alkalis (B) reactviolently with H2 without heating (C)displace each other from solutions of their salts (D) aregases (E) are liquids
A
66 Liquid oxygen may be produced by condensation of air using this coolant (A) liquid phosphorus(B) liquid gas (C) liquid paraffin (D) liquid nitrogen (E) butane
D
67 One of these is another form of oxygen (A) hydroxide (B) ozone (C) peroxide (D) sulphoxide (E)water B
68 One of these metals is not an alkali metal (A) K (B) Cs (C) Sr (D) Rb (E) Fr C
70 The formation of ozone by reaction of O2 with atomic oxygen in UV light occurs in (A) upperatmosphere (B) inner atmosphere (C) stratosphere (D) hemisphere (E) none of these
A
71 The halogen which is chiefly produced commercially from sea water is ___ ( A) Fluorine (B)chlorine (C) Bromine (D) iodine (E) Astatine
B
72 The most stable allotropic form of sulphur at normal conditions is ___ ( A) monoclinic sulphur(B) rhombic sulphur (C) amorphous sulphur (D) plastic sulphur (E) ordinary sulphur
B
73 The products obtained when the following chemical reaction is completed and balancedarehellipHNO3 + Ca(OH)2 rarr ______ (A) CaNO3 + H2O (B) Ca(NO3)2 + 2 H2O (C) CaO + 2 NO2 + 3H2O(D) Ca + 2 NO3 + 2 H2O
B
74 What is the role of iron and Aluminium oxide in ammonia production (A) dehydrating agent(B) catalytic agent (C) oxidizing agent (D) bonding agent (E) preservative agent
B
75 When carbon IV oxide is bubbled through lime water the solution becomes milky dueformation of (A) Ca(HCO3)2 (B) CaCO3 (C) Ca(N03)2 (D)CaCl2 (E) CaSO4
B
76 Which of the following gases dissolves in water vapour to produce acid rain during rainfall (A)Oxygen (B) Carbon (II) oxide (C) Nitrogen (D) Sulphur (IV) oxide
D
77 Which of the following is not allotrope of carbon (A) diamond (B) graphite (C) buckminsterfullerene (D) all of the above (E) none of the above
E
78 Which oxide is amphiprotic (amphoteric) (A) MgO (B) NaO (C) CaO (D) ZnO (E) BeO D
79 Why will it always be more difficult to extract potassium ions from sea water than to extractmagnesium ions This is because (A) most potassium compounds are less soluble in water (B)most potassium compounds are quite soluble in water (C) presence of other alkali metal ionshas great influence on it (D) magnesium ion is an alkaline earth metal ion (E) None of theabove
B
80 ___________ can be used to test for reducing sugars (A) Iodine solution (B) bromine water (C)Fehlingrsquos solution (D) de-ionized water
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
6
81 2CH3COOH + Zn rarr The product of this reaction is (A) (CH3COO)2Zn + Zn (B) CH3COO CH3 +Zn (C) (CH3COO)2Zn + H2 (D) CH3COOH + CH4
C
82 A ketone reacts with hydroxylamine to give (A) a hydrazone (B) an alkanonitrile (C) a nitrosocompound (D) an oxime
D
83 Alkanoic acids are weak acids and ionises in solution to give (A) R+ + COOH (B) RCOO- + H+ (C)RCOO+ + H- (D) RCO+ + OH-
B
84 An excess of ethanol heated with concentrated H2SO4 at a temperature of 180oC is dehydratedto give mostly (A) ethane (B) ethene (C) ethanol (D) ethoxyethane
B
85 Butene can be distinguished from benzene by reaction with (A) Hydrochloric acid (B) Brominewater (C) Potassium sulphate (D) Sodium hydroxide
B
86 Detergent is more efficient than soap in cleansing clothes and dishes because of the followingreasons except that (A) the corresponding Ca and Mg compound formed is soluble in H2O (B)detergents are not affected by hardness of water (C) it cleans better than soap (D) it is lessexpensive
D
87 In the manufacture of soap industrially brine is used to__________the acid salt (A) oxidise(B) reduce (C) bleach (D) precipitate
D
88 Methane gas can be made from carbon (II) oxide gas according to the equation2CO(g) + 2H2(g) rarr CH4(g) + CO2(g) Calculate the mass of CO required to produce 875 x 1025
molecules of CH4 At masses C=12011 H= 1008 O = 15999 Avogadrorsquos no 6022 x1023molecules mole (A) 8140g (B) 4070g (C) 1600g (D) 3200g (E) 2035g
A
89 Potassium ethanoate is formed when (A) Methanoic acid reacts with KOH (B) Ethanoic acidreacts with KOH (C) Methanol reacts with KCO3 (D) Ethanol reacts with CH3COOH
B
90 Saponification is defined as (A) Acidic hydrolysis of fat or oil (B) Alkali hydrolysis of fat or oil(C) Condensation of two monomer units (D) Mixture of glacial ethanoic acid and excess ofsimple alkanol
B
91 Soaps and detergents have the same basic characteristics except that the carboxyl group of thefatty acid in detergent is replaced by (A) alcohol (B) sulphate or a sulphonate group (C) ester(D) acids
B
92 The relatively high boiling point of alkanols is due to (A) aliphatic character (B) ionic bonding(C) hydrogen bonding (D) covalent bonding
C
93 Two important sources of detergent are (A) fatoils and hydrocarbons (B) coal and cement (C)pulp and wood (D) water and gas
A
94 What is the process associated with conversion of vegetable oil to soap (A) Esterification (B)Saponification (C) hydrolysis (D) Acidification
B
95 When ethanal vapour is passed over manganese (II) ethanoate (manganese acetate) catalyst inthe presence of air the product is (A) ethanoate (B) ethanol (C) methanol (D) ethanoic acid
D
96 When KOH is used instead of NaOH in the production of soap it has the following advantagesexcept it gives (A) softer soap (B) harder soap (C) soap with lower melting point (D) moresoluble soap
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
7
97 When palm wine is left exposed to air for a few days it goes sour The bacteria in the airoxidises________ in palm wine to _________ (A) ethanol ethanoic acid (B) ethanoic acidethanol (C) ester ethanoic acid (D) ether ethanol
A
98 Which of the following is not true about benzoic acid (A) It is aromatic in nature (B) It can bemanufactured from methylbenzene (C) It has molecular formula C6H6COOH (D) It sublimesreadily
C
99 Which of the following reactions is correct (A) C6H5COOH + CaO rarr C6H5Ca + HCO3 (B)C6H5COOH + CaO rarr C6H6 + CaCO3 (C) C6H5COOH + PCl5 rarr C6H5Cl + H2PO4 (D) C6H5COOH +C2H5OH rarr C6H6 + C3H8COOH
B
100 Which of these is not a property of ethanedioic acid (A) It is a stronger acid than ethanoic acidbut weaker than inorganic acids (B) It is a reducing agent (C) It is an oxidising agent (D) It issoluble in cold water
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
USE OF ENGLISH
1
Read the passages below and answer the questions that follow
PASSAGE AEvery discernible observer could foresee the crisis which engulfed the Edo Houselast week Only a few days before reports were rife about the AC reaching out tosome PDP legislators to cross-carpet The intention being to gain a majority andthen assume the Speakership with the least constraint Zakawanu Garuba the thenSpeaker retorted with a fiat threatening to declare vacant the seat of any defectorThis in spite of the constitutional support for such action as evidenced forexample by the crisis that has torn the PDP apart in Edo State The party has twofactional chairmen in the state even though one is more vociferousThe desperate attempt by Garuba to cling to the Speakerrsquos chair is condemnable Hewas not being recalled from the legislature and so he still has his seat as a floormember As speaker he was only first among equals The Speakership is not hisbirthright With the defection of one PDP lawmaker to the AC the legislaturereconvened hours after the bloodbath and elected a protem Speaker whileimpeaching and suspending Garuba and a few others They are to be probed
(Adapted from The Guardian Thursday March 4 2011 p14)
1 Why did AC woo PDP membersA they are few in numberB they want speakership without stressC PDP members are faithfulD The House is tough
2 The legislators impeachedA GarubaB PDP lawmakersC Garuba and some PDP lawmakersD Garuba and some lawmwkers
3 According to the passage the constitution supportsA The speakerB DefectingC Edo StateD Factional chairmen
4 The lawmakers reconvenedA After the defection of a PDP memberB After the bloodbathC After suspending the SpeakerD After electing a protem Speaker
B
A
D
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
USE OF ENGLISH
2
5 At the end what happened to GarubaA He was vindicatedB He was indictedC He was honouredD He was humiliated
6 To cross-carpet as used in the passage means toA change partyB renew membership of a partyC change onersquos carpetD buy new carpet
7 The crisis in the Edo State House of Assembly could be predicted byA The lawmakersB Edo State indigenesC The protem SpeakerD All conscious observers
B
C
A
PASSAGE B
Nigeria has a troubled power sector which is however undergoing reforms thathopefully should usher in era of private sector dominance in terms of ownershipand management of generation and distribution In this transitory phase it is crucialto lay a foundation for local sourcing of vital inputs and make it the norm for theindustry That is the only way to prevent a replication of the trend in the oil and gassub-sector where capital flight is as much as $ 16 billion per annum as revealed bythe Petroleum Technology Development FundThe PHCN could legitimately insist on quality and standards in its procurement ofequipment and materials but what is playing out is an institutional orientationevinced in several pursuits of the PHCN that are contemptuous of Nigeriarsquosaspiration for local content development In 1998 the defunct National ElectricPower Authority defied a directive by the then Minister of Power and steel AlhajiBashir Dalhatu to source its costable components from Nigerian foundries some ofwhich are of high standards Actuated by a realization of idle capacity in thefoundries and the need to conserve foreign exchange the Minister appliedappropriate pressure on the management of NEPA but found his efforts frustratedThe acute shortage or inefficiency in the metering programme originated from thefact that the only local manufacturer then the Federal Government-ownedelectricity Meter Company in Zaria Kaduna State established in 1976 but sold toDantata Investments Limited in December 2002 is not performing(Adapted from The Punch Wednesday May 25 2011 Pg 18)
8 Why is there shortage of meterA Non-performance of PHCNB Non-performance of NEPAC Non-performance of the Federal Government-owned electricity
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
USE OF ENGLISH
3
Meter CompanyD Non-performance of Dantata Investment Ltd
9 According to the passage the solution to the problem in the power sector lies inA Sourcing for materials locallyB Getting costable componentsC Obeying the ministerD Getting $ 16 billion per annum
10 From the passage it is clear thatA There is money in the countryB There is shortage of electricity meterC NEPA is better than PHCND NEPA was formed in 1998
11 Which of these is not true of the power sectorA There is only one local manufacturer of electricity meterB The power sector is undergoing reformsC The problem of the power sector cannot be solvedD there was procurement of equipment and materials
12 Which of these is undergoing reformsA NEPAB PHCNC NigeriaD The power sector
13 A suitable title for this passage isA Nigeria and her problemsB NEPA versus PHCNC Electricity meterD Problems in the power sector
A
B
C
D
D
Choose the option that best completes the gap14 University students helliphelliphelliphelliphellipbehave well (A) can (B) should (C) may (D)
mustB
15 Gloria helliphelliphelliphellip have finished the project two days ago (A) must (B) may (C)can (D) supposed to
A
16 You are Goodluck (A) are you (B) arenrsquot you (C) arersquont you (D) donrsquotyou
B
17 He helliphelliphelliphelliphellip not come now (A) needs (B) needed (C) need (D) will need C18 Janet to know that we are all here (A) suppose (B) supposes (C) is
supposed (D) should supposeC
19 Let it be that there was no king in Ayegun (A)know (B) knew (C) known(D) knows
C
20 We shall see you soon (A) shall we (B) shanrsquot we (C) shouldnrsquot we (D)should we
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
USE OF ENGLISH
4
21 Neither of the presidential candidates suitable (A) are (B) is (C) is been(D) are been suitable
B
22 Ten miles ____ a great distance (A) is (B) are (C) is been A23 If I were the president I ask for the money (A) will (B) should (C) would
(D) canC
24 I will see you after I spoken with your supervisor (A) might have (B) have(C) will have (D) would have
B
25 ldquoYou - now see the directorrdquo the secretary told the visitors (A) can (B)may (C) should (D) would
B
26 She isnrsquot Gloria (A) is she (B) isnrsquot she (C) arenrsquot she (D) doesnrsquot she A27 We have a bus (A) didnrsquot we (B) havenrsquot we (C) doesnrsquot we (D) hasnrsquot
weB
28 I knew David let us down (A) may (B) will (C) might (D) can C29 You helliphelliphellip me last week (A) ought to see (B) ought to had seen (C) ought to
have seen (D) had to have seenC
30 Twenty dollars ___ enough for my lunch (A) are (B) is (c ) are just B31 The pests ____ our farm every year (A) invade (B) invades (c ) has invades A32 If I were the Governor I ask for the project (A) will (B) should (C) would
(D) canC
33 When helliphellip the Cleric today (A) doesarrives (B) doesarrived (C)doesarrive (D) do arrive
C
34 We shall see you soon (A) shall we (B) shanrsquot we (C) shouldnrsquot we (D)should we
B
35 You missed the match (A) donrsquot you (B) didnrsquot you (C) hadnrsquot you (D)doesnrsquot you
B
36 Walk the dog right now (A) walknrsquot you (B) will you (C)shall you(D)would you
B
37 I am a student (A) Irsquom I (B) arenrsquot I (C) isnrsquot I (D) wouldnrsquot I BPick out the oddwrong expression in each of the following
38 (A) I heard his supposed apology (B) I heard his unconvincing apology (C) Iheard his suppose apology (D) I heard he was supposed apology
D
39 (A) I suppose you know the way (B) I am supposed you know the way (C) Isuppose he knows the way (D) They suppose he knows the way
B
40 (A) I travel next week (B) I will travel next week (C) I suppose to travelnext week (D) I should travel next week
C41 (A) Having discovered the error he apologized (B) Having discovered the
error the apology was tendered (C) Having known the error he apologised(D) Having found out the error he tendered an apology B
42 (A) The job has been done (B) The job has been being done (C) They havedone the job (D) They can have done the job
D
43 (A) She must finish the project in two days (B) She must finish the project twodays ago (C) She must have finished the project two days ago (D) She ought tohave finished the project two days ago
B
44 (A) If I went in there I would beat the security officer (B) If I go in there Iwould beat the security officer (C) If I go in there I will beat the securityofficer (D) If I go in there I can beat the security officer
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
USE OF ENGLISH
5
Choose the option that most appropriately expresses the idea in theunderlined expression
45 My friendrsquos parentrsquos are magnanimous (A) rich and popular (B) sociable andlovable (C) kind and generous (D) wicked and stingy
C
46 My friend has an overbearing attitude toward me (A) patient (B) impatient(C) opinionated and domineering (D) considerate and respectful
C
47 There are a number of makeshift buildings in town (A) modern buildings (B)old fashion buildings (C) temporary buildings (D) permanent buildings
C
48 Post UME is a hurdle to cross (A) a necessary and simple exam to pass (B) anunnecessary and difficult exam to pass (C) an unnecessary but simple exam topass (D) a necessary and challenging exam to pass
D
49 His contribution to the project is invaluable (A) extremely useful (B) of novalue (C) of little value (D) can not be valued
A
50 That was a dawn-to-earth approach (A) poor (B) ordinary (C) practical (D)immodest
B
51 Concerning my admission I have to cross my fingers (A) wait and hope for thebest (B) wait in frustration (C) wait confidently (D) take some risk
A
52 My father is indifferent to my choice of University (A) supports (B) opposes(C) not decided (D) not concerned
D
53 We need an ad hoc arrangement towards the project (A) intelligent (B)advanced (C) permanent (D) temporary
D
54 The studentrsquos reply to the lecturer betrayed his rudeness (A) covered (B)showed (C) reduced (D) increased
C
55 His conduct in the last elections was above board (A) arrogant (B) honest (C)above average (D) excellent
C
56 That was a dispassionate decision (A) bias (B) personal (C) unaffected (D)ineffective
C
57 On the matter of worship some sit on the fence (A) go to the extreme (B) aredecisive (C) are fanatics (D) are undecided
D
Choose the option that is nearest in meaning to the word underlined58 In this matter we must be prepared to tolerate human frailty (A)
75 Her health deteriorated rapidly (A) worsened (B) improved (C) stagnated (D)declined
B
Which of the following sentences is correct76 (A) One should mind his business (B) One should mind onersquos business (C) One
should mind her businessB
77 (A) This case is between you and I (B) This case is between you and me (C)This case is between the two both of us
B
78 (A) With them around we have a great problem on our hands (B) With themaround we have a great problem on our hand (C) With them around wehave a great problem on hand
A
79 (A) The dog wagged itrsquos tail (B) The dog wagged its tail (C) The dog waggeditsrsquo tail
B
80 (A) A ten year old boy is missing (B) A ten-year-old boy is missing (C) A tenyear-old boy is missing
B
81 Choose the option that sounds the same with two (A) tool (B) too (C) tow (D)to
B
82 Choose the option that sounds the same with bear (A) bare (B) beer (C)bared (D) beard
B
83 Choose the option that sounds the same with the given word Key (A) kiss(B) quay (C) keyed (D) kissed
B
Choose the word that is correctly spelled84 (A) acomodation (B) accommodation (C) accomodation (D) acommodation B85 (A) embarrassment (B) embarassment (C) embarrasment (D) embarasment A86 (A) horrific (B) horific (C) horiffic (D) horriffic A87 As soon as Joy arrived she started looking for food The underlined
expression is an ----------- (A) adverbial phrase of reason (B) adverbial clauseof reason (C) adverbial phrase of time (D) adverbial clause of time
D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
USE OF ENGLISH
7
88 My friend a brilliant lecturer won many prizes The underlined expression isa(n) (A) adjectival clause (B) relative clause (C) appositive phrase (D)subject of lsquowonrsquo
C
89 I passed very well because I studied hard The underlined expression is a (A)relative clause introducer (B) linking verb (C) adverb of reason (D)subordinating conjunction
D
90 Bello and I love each other (A) preposition (B) reciprocal pronoun (C) nounphrase (D) adjectival phrase
B
91 I prefer writing to acting The underlined expressions is a(n) -------- (A) verb(B) participle (C) gerund (D) object
C
92 Having finished my assignment I started watching television The underlinedexpression is a(n) -------- (A) infinitive clause (B) gerund (C) participialphrase (D) noun clause
C
93 If you leave early yoursquoll meet Sola at home The underlined expression is a ----------- (A) nominal clause (B) verbal clause (C) conditional clause (D)adjectival clause
C
94 Wounded by a lion the hunter trudged home The underlined expression is a-----------(A) nominal clause (B) verbal clause (C) participial clause (D)adjectival clause
C
95 Irsquom proud of you The underlined expression functions as(A) prepositionalcomplement (B) adjectival complement (C) subject complement (D) verbalcomplement
B
96 A noun phrase lacks one of the following (A) noun (B) verb (C) adjective (D)adverb
B
97 Eve gave Adam an apple An apple in the sentence functions as------------(A)subject of the verb lsquogaversquo (B) direct object of the verb (C) indirect object ofthe verb (D) object complement
B
98 I wonder if you know where he lives This sentence is a(n) (A) thoughtfulstatement (B) polite command (C) indirect question (D) subtle exclamation
A
99 An example of gradable adjectives is hellip (A) each (B) beautiful (C) dead (D)live
B
100 A clause differs from a phrase because a clause contains helliphelliphellip (A) a largernumber of words (B) a fewer number of words (C) a finite verb (D) a non-finite verb
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
1
1 A ball is thrown up into the air At the highest point of its trajectory the ball (A) Is acceleratingdownwards (B) has zero acceleration (C) is accelerating upwards (D) is still moving upwards
B
2 A ball of mass 200 g moving with a velocity of 8 ms collides and sticks with another ball ofmass 300 g moving in the same direction with velocity 4 ms What is the common velocity ofthe balls after the collision (A) 56 ms-1 (B) 28 ms-1 (C) 112 ms-1 (D) 14 ms-1
A
3 A boy holds the end of a rubber cord from which hangs a solid metal ball if the boy whirls theball in a horizontal circle keeping his hand still If the rubber cord breaks when the ball is at apoint on the circle in what direction will the ball move (A) towards the hand of the boy Baway from the hand of the boy C in the direction of the tangent to the circle at the point ofbreak D None of the above
C
4 A force of 20 N applied parallel to the surface of horizontal table is just sufficient to make ablock of mass 4 kg set for motion Find the acceleration when the force is doubled (A) 2 ms-2
(B) 4 ms-2 (C) 5 ms-2 (D) 10 ms-2
C
5 A man walks 1 km due east and then 1 km due north His displacement is (A) 1 km N15degE (B) 1km N30degE (C) radic2 km N45degE (D) 2 km N75degE
C
6 A motor car moves with a velocity of 20 ms-1 on a rough horizontal road and covers adisplacement of 50 m Find the coefficient of dynamic friction between the type and theground (g = 10 ms-2) (A) 03 (B) 06 (C) 05 (D) 04
D
7 A physics student standing on the edge of a cliff throws a stone vertically downward with aninitial speed of 100 ms The instant before the stone hits the ground below it is traveling ata speed of 300 ms If the physics student were to throw the rock horizontally outward fromthe cliff instead with the same initial speed of 100 ms what is the magnitude of the velocityof the stone just before it hits the ground(A) 100 ms (B) 200 ms (C) 300 ms (D) 400 ms
C
8 A quantity is defined as the product of cross-sectional area and change in momentum per unitlength Which of the following is its SI unit (A) Nm (B) kgs-1 (C) kgm2s-1 (D) Nkgs-1
C
9 A rectangular concrete block 40 cm x 30 cm x 60 cm of mass 10 kg rests on a horizontal flatsurface What is the minimum pressure it can possibly exert on the surface (A) 8166 Nm-2
(B) 816 6 Nm2 (C) 4083 Nm-2 (D) 6084 Nm
C
10 A simple hydrometer consists of uniform cylinder suitably weighted to float upright in mostcommon liquids It is graduated to read the relative density of a liquid directly Which of thefollowing is NOT correct (A) When placed in a liquid it displaces exactly its own weight of theliquid (B) Its graduation increases from top to base (C) When placed in a liquid it displacesexactly its own volume of the liquid (D) The product of the volume and density of liquiddisplaced is equal to its mass
C
11 A stone which is dropped into a dry well hits the bottom in 22 s How deep is the well (Takeg=10ms) (A) 404 m (B) 24 m (C) 484 m (D) 242 m
D
12 A woman whose mass is 70 kg sits 24 m from the fulcrum of a seesaw At what distance fromthe fulcrum should a 60 kg man sit to balance the seesaw (A) 28 m (B) 24 m (C) 32 m (D)38 m
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
2
13 An air bubble trapped at a depth in a liquid rises to the surface Which of the following is trueabout its mass and density as it rises (A) Its mass and density increase (B) Its mass is constantwhile its density decreases (C) Its mass and density is constant (D) Its mass is constant whileits density increases
B
14 Complete the following sentence The operation of a hydraulic jack is an application of (A)Pascals principle B Archimedesrsquo principle (C) Bernoullis principle (D) irrotational flow
A
15 Complete the following statement Today the standard meter is defined in terms of (A) thedistance from the earthrsquos equator to the north pole (B) the wavelength of light emitted from akrypton atom (C) the wavelength of light emitted from a sodium atom (D) the speed of light
D
16 Convert 30 metre per second to centimeter per minute (A) 20000 cmmin (B) 180000cmmin (C) 120000 cmmin (D) 150000 cmmin
B
17 During a football match player A kicks the ball 40 m 30o E of S to player B who instantly kicks it30 m 60o E of N What is the magnitude of the resultant displacement of the ball (A) 30 m (B)40 m (C) 50 m (D) 60 m
C
18 How much work is done against gravity in sliding a 500g object through 2 m up a smooth planethat is inclined at 30o to the horizontal (g = 98 ms-2) (A) 98 J (B) 198 J (C) 162 J (D) 49 J
D
19 If a small body of mass m is moving with angular velocity ω in a circle of radius r what is itskinetic energy (A) mω r (B) m ω 2r2 (C) m ω r22 (D) m ω 2r22
D
20 In free fall two balls of masses 20 kg and 10 kg were dropped from a height If the ball withthe smaller mass reached the ground after 4 s what is the difference between the time thetwo balls reach the ground (A) 8 s (B) 2 s (C) 0 s (D) 4 s
C
21 In what distance can a 1500 kg automobile be stopped if the brake is applied when the speedis 20 ms and the coefficient of sliding friction is 07 between the tyres and the ground(A) 9810 m (B) 7167 m (C) 2915 m (D) 2010 m
C
22 The highest point of a simple pendulum bob is 5cm vertically above the lowest point as itswings to and fro between the two extreme ends At what velocity does it swing past thelowest point (equilibrium point) where the string is vertical (take g = 10 ms2) (A) 1 ms (B) 2ms (C) 5 ms (D) 10 ms
A
23 Three vectors A B and C add together to yield zero A + B + C = 0 The vectors A and C point inopposite directions and their magnitudes are related by the expression A = 2C Which one ofthe following conclusions is correct (A) A and B have equal magnitudes and point in oppositedirections (B) B and C have equal magnitudes and point in the same direction (C) B and Chave equal magnitudes and point in opposite directions (D) A and B point in the samedirection but A has twice the magnitude of B
B
24 Which of the following could be measured in the same units as force (A) Energydistance (B)Energy x distance (C) Energytime (D) Momentum x distance
A
25 Which of the following does not affect the pressure at a point beneath the surface of a liquid(A) Surface area of the liquid (B) Density of the liquid (C) Depth of the point below thesurface (D) Strength of the gravitational field
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
3
26 Which of the following pairs contains one vector and one scalar quantity (A) Displacementacceleration (B) Force kinetic energy (C) Momentum velocity (D) Power speed
B
27 Which of the following statements is correct (A) uniform speed always implies uniformvelocity (B) uniform speed always implies zero acceleration (C) uniform speed may imply non-zero acceleration (D) constant momentum implies constant acceleration
C
28 Which of the of the following is a measurement taken with Venier callipers (A) 20 cm (B)200 cm (C) 2000 cm (D) 20000 cm
B
29 Which of the units of the following physical quantities are derived I Area II Thrust IIIPressure IV Mass (A) I II III and IV (B) I II and III only (C) I II and IV only (D) I and II only
B
30 Which one of the following situations is not possibleA A body has zero velocity and non-zero accelerationB A body travels with a northward velocity and a northward accelerationC A body travels with a constant velocity and a time-varying accelerationD A body travels with a constant acceleration and a time-varying velocity
C
31If C is the thermal capacity of a material of mass m and S is its specific heat capacity then (A)C= sm (B) S = Cm (C) C = Sm (D) DS = ms
C
32 A black car can be more uncomfortably hot on a warm day than a white car because (A) it ishot on a warm day (B) a black object is a better absorber of heat (C) black cars have heatersinstalled in them (D) white cars have air conditioning systems installed in them
B
33 A little sag is left in overhead telephone wires (A) because taut wires do not conduct soundeasily (B) to allow for the effect of a rise in temperature due to heating effect of currentflowing through them (C) to allow for the effect of a rise in temperature of the surroundingatmosphere (D) to allow for the effect of a fall in temperature of the surroundingatmosphere
D
34 A piece of copper wire of length 100 cm at 30oC is heated to 120oC If its linear expansivity is18 times10-4 k its new length is (A) 1666 cm (B) 1016 cm (C) 1806 (D) 108 cm
B
35 A sample of a monatomic ideal gas is originally at 20 degC What is the final temperature of thegas if both the pressure and volume are doubled (A) 5 degC (B) 80 degC (C) 20 degC (D) 899 degC
B
36 A volatile liquid used for cooling purpose in refrigerator is (A) liquid ammonia (B) cold water(C) liquid nitrogen (D) liquid helium
A
37 Complete the following statement A temperature decrease of 30 Cdeg is equal to a temperaturedecrease of (A) 30 Fdeg (B) 17 Fdeg (C) 30 K (D) 86 Fdeg
D
38 Complete the following statement Bimetallic strips used as adjustable switches in electricappliances consist of metal strips that must have different (A) mass (B) volume (C) length(D) expansion coefficients
D
39 Heat can be transferred from one end of a metal rod in contact with heat to the other endwhich is in contact with heat through (A) Conduction (B) Convection (C) Radiation (D)Evaporation
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
4
40 Heat supplied or removed from a system which causes a change of state without a change intemperature is (A) Specific heat (B) Heat capacity (C) Latent heat (D) Boiling heat
C
41 How many atmospheres of pressure must a litre of gas initially at a pressure of 1 atmosphereand temperature -20oC be after it has been compressed to frac12 litre at 40oC A 247 atm(B) 45 atm (C) 80 atm (D) 38 atm (E) 168 atm
A
42 On a cold day a good conductor X feels colder to the torch than a poor conductor Y because(A) Y retains more heat than X (B) the temperature of X is lower than that of Y (C) X conductsheat from the body less rapidly than Y (D) X transfers heat from body more rapidly than Y
D
43 The boiling point of water does not depend on (A) the impurities in water (B) the externalpressure (C) the quantity of water (D) all of the above
C
44 The ice and steam points of a local liquid in glass thermometer are 10 a and 90a respectivelyWhat will the thermometer read when the temperature is 30 0C (A) 40a (B) 38a (C) 36a(D) 34a
D
45 The lower and upper fixed points on a thermometer are 40 and 120 respectively Its reading at60oC is (A) 60 (B) 40 (C) 160 (D) 88
D
46 The pressure exerted by a given mass of gas in a container (A) Decreases if the container isheated (B) Increases if the molecules of the gas move faster (C) Increases if the volume of thecontainer is doubled (D) Decreases as the kinetic energy of the gas molecules increases
B
47 The temperature in an electric iron is regulated by (A) thermometer (B) bimettalic strip (C)steel (D) conductor
B
48 Water has an anomalous behavior between 0o and 4oC Which of the following is correct (A)Mass of water increases between 0oC and 4oC (B) Density of water decreases between 0oC and4oC (C) Volume of water increases between 0oC and 4oC (D) Volume of water decreasesbetween 0oC and 4oC
D
49 What is the Celsius equivalent of 500deg F (A) 10deg C (B) 20deg C (C) 30deg C (D) 40deg C A
50 When water is heated in a glass vessel the level first falls and then rises because (A) Theapparent expansion of the water is initially small and later increases (B) There is anomalousexpansion of water (C)The glass vessel does not expand (D)Glass vessel expands first beforewater starts a more rapid expansion
D
51 Which of the following quantities of water has undergone the greatest change from its heatcontent at melting point (A) 05 kg of water at 3oC (B) 02 kg of water at 8oC (C) 0005 kg ofwater at 80oC (D) 01 kg of water at 12oC
B
52 Which would cause a more serious burn 30 g of steam or 30 g of liquid water both at 100 degC
and why is this so
(A) Water because it is denser than steam (B) Steam because of its specific heat capacity
(C) Steam because of its latent heat of vaporization (D) Water because its specific heat is
greater than that of steam
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
5
53 A certain radioactive element has a half life of 20 years How long will it take the activity tobecome frac14 of its original(A) 20 years (B) 40 years (C) 60 years (D) 80 years
B
54 A plane progressive wave is represented by xty 20100sin2 where all the symbols
have their usual meanings What is the velocity of the wave
(A) 500 m s-1 (B) 400 m s-1 (C) 200 m s-1 (D) 100 m s-1
A
55 A point on a stationary wave where there is no movement of the medium is called (A) Node(B) Antinode (C) Note (D) Amplitude
A
56 A uniform wave has a speed of 10ms and a period of 05 s The distance between two nearestcrests is (A) 02 m (B) 20 m (C) 2 m (D) 5 m
D
57 A vibrating string has a tension of 40 and produces a note of whenݖܪ200 plucked in themiddle When the length of string is unaltered and the tension is increased to160 thefrequency becomes(A) ݖܪ1600 (B) ݖܪ800 (C) ܪ400 (D) ݖܪ200
C
58 An organ pipe closed at one end is 80cm long Determine the frequency of the fundamentalnote assuming that the speed of sound in air is 340ms (A) 213Hz (B) 318Hz (C) 425Hz (D)106Hz
D
59 As transverse wave moves through a medium the particles of the medium (A) vibrate in apath parallel to the path of the wave (B) do not move (C) vibrate in a path perpendicular tothe path of the wave (D) vibrate at an angle of 60o to the path of the wave
C
60 The sound heard after the reflection of sound wave from a plane surface is known as (A) Echo(B) Refraction (C) Vibration (D) Revibration
A
61 Which of the following properties is not common to all waves (A) Reflection (B) interference(C) Diffraction (D) Polarization
D
62 Which of the following statements is true about electromagnetic waves (A) They arelongitudinal (B) They can be seen (C) They have the same frequency in vacuum (D) They travelat the same speed in a vacuum
D
63 Which one of the following statements concerning electromagnetic waves is false (A)Electromagnetic waves are longitudinal waves (B) Electromagnetic waves transfer energythrough space (C) The existence of electromagnetic waves was predicted by Maxwell (D)Electromagnetic waves can propagate through a material substance
A
64 Which one of the following statements concerning waves is false (A) A wave can have bothtransverse and longitudinal components (B) A wave carries energy from one place to another(C) A wave does not result in the bulk flow of the material of its medium (D) A transversewave is one in which the disturbance is parallel to the direction of travel
D
65 A light sensitive area at the back of the eye where images are formed is called (A) Yellow Spot(B) Iris (C) Ciliary Muscle (D) Retina
D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
6
66 A luminous object is placed at a given distance from a converging lens of focal length 12cm anda real image is produced Find the image distance if it is equal to the object distance (A) 6cm(B) 3cm (C) 12cm (D) 24cm
D
67 An object is placed 15 cm in front of a concave mirror of radius 40 cm The image formed is(A) virtual and 60 cm behind the mirror (B) real and 60 cm in front of the mirror (C) virtual and40 cm from the mirror (D) at infinity
B
68 How far from a concave mirror of radius 120 cm must an object be placed such that its erectimage is four times its natural size (A) 72 cm (B) 64 cm (C) 45 cm (D) 50 cm
C
69 How many images are formed when an object is placed in front of two plane mirrors that areinclined at angle 30o to each other (A) 0 (B) 6 (C) 11 (D) 12
C
70 Professor Peters walks directly toward a plane mirror at a speed of 025 ms Determine thespeed of the image relative to him(A) 013 ms (B) 050 ms (C) 025 ms (D) 075 ms
B
71 The angle of incidence in a denser medium when the angle of refraction in the less dense
72 The driving mirror is a (A) plane mirror (B) convex mirror (C) concave mirror (D) thick planemirror
B
73 The following are types of a converging lens except(A) biconvex (B) plano-convex (C) mini-convex (D) converging meniscus
C
74 When the Sun the earth and the moon are in line during their movement with the earth beingthe opaque object and casting its shadow on the moon we have (A) Lunar eclipse (B) Totaleclipse (C) Partial eclipse (D) Annular eclipse
A
75 Which of the following instruments could be used in finding angle of elevation of the sun (A)Periscope (B) Telescope (C) Kaleidoscope (D) Sextant
D
76 Which of the following optical instruments does not depend on the use of plane mirrors (A)Kaleidoscope (B) Simple microscope (C) Sextant (D) Simple periscope
B
77 Which of the following statements supports the assumption that light travels in straight lines(A) light can be diffracted (B) light can be reflected (C) a source of light produces
interferences patterns on a suitably placed screen (D) a source of light produces distinctshadows of opaque objects
D
78Which of the following is correct about nuclear fission It is (A) the splitting of a heavynucleus into two or more lighter particles (B) an agent used to slow down neutrons in acontrolled atomic chain reaction (C) combing light atomic nuclei to form heavy (D) thespontaneous disintegration occurring in the nucleus of certain atoms
A
79 A light energy E falls on a metal and the electrons with a maximum kinetic energy of 02eV areejected If the work function of the metal is 03eV what is the value of E (A) 010eV (B)006eV (C) 050eV (D) 150eV
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
7
80 A nucleus is unstable if (A) it has two or more isotopes (B) its binding energy is not sufficientto hold nuclear particles together (C) it is very light with very low density (D) it has nosignificant mass
B
81 A radioactive substance has a half life of 4 years If its activity today is 200 dps its activity in 8years from today is (A) 50 dps (B) 25 dps (C) 20 dps (D) 10 dps
A
82 A substance has a half-life of 3min After 6min the count rate was observed to be 400Whatwas its count rate at zero time (A) 2400 (B) 200 (C) 1200 (D) 1600
D
83 An element and its isotopes differ only in the number of (A) electrons (B) neutrons (C)protons (D) irons
B
84 Complete the following sentence When electrons from a heated filament accelerate throughvacuum toward a positive plate (A) only an electric field will be produced (B) only amagnetic field will be produced (C) electromagnetic waves will be produced (D) longitudinalwaves will be produced
C
85 Radioactive elements are (A) chemically reactive elements (B) noble elements (C) rare earthelements (D) elements that spontaneously emit radiation
D
86 The following radiations are electrically neutral except (A) α-rays (B) ϒ-rays (C) X- rays (D)neutrons
A
87 Upon which one of the following parameters does the energy of a photon depend (A) mass(B) polarization (C) amplitude (D) frequency
D
88 Which of the following is NOT true about cathode ray (A) It moves in a straight line (B) Itcauses fluorescence (C) It possesses a negative charge (D) It can produce -particles
D
89 Who proposed the planetary model of the nucleus (A) J J Thomson (B) Albert Einstein (C)Ernest Rutherford (D) Marie Curie
C
90 X- rays cannot be used (A) to take photographs of bone structure in the body (B) to detectfinger prints (C) to detect flaws in metal castings (D) to detect alterations to works of art
B
91 1 farad is equivalent to (A) 1 coulombvolt (B) 1 voltcoulomb (C) 1 joulescoulomb (D) 1amperesec (E) volts per unit charge
A
92 A 0 - 10mA galvanometer with a coil resistance of 30 ohm can be converted to a 0-10Aammeter by using (A) 003ohm series resistor (B) 999ohm shunt resistor (C) 003ohm shuntresistor (D) 999ohm series resistor
C
93 A battery has an internal resistance of 4 and an emf of 12V The terminal voltage when a loadof 20 Ω is connected across it is (A) 4 (B) 10 V (C) 20 V (D) 2V
B
94 A conducting sphere has a net charge of 48 1017 C What is the approximate number ofexcess electrons on the sphere if the fundamental natural charge is -16 x 10-19C (A) 100 (B)300 (C) 200 (D) 400
B
95 A magnet cannot be demagnetized by (A) heating (B) hammering (C) chemical treatment (D)the use of solenoid through which an alternating current is flowing
C
96 An ac voltage is connected to an RLC series circuit of resistance 5 Ω inductance 3 mH and acapacitance of 005 microF Calculate the resonance frequency (A) 110 kHz (B) 120 kHz (C)130 kHz (D) 140 kHz
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
8
97 An electric heater converts 1KJ of electrical energy to heat energy every 2 second with 100efficiency The power produced is (A) 05 KW (B) 2 KW (C) 1KW (D) 10W
A
98 Complete the following statement The electromotive force is (A) the maximum potentialdifference between the terminals of a battery (B) the force that accelerates electrons througha wire when a battery is connected to it (C) the force that accelerates protons through a wirewhen a battery is connected to it (D) the maximum capacitance between the terminals of abattery
A
99 If a charged body is moving in a circle on a horizontal plane what is the general direction ofthe resulting magnetic field (A) In the plane of the circle (B) At an angle 45o to the plane ofmotion (C) Along the perpendicular axis through the center of the circle (D) Along thetangent to the circle
C
100 If a resistor is halved in magnitude and the potential across it is tripled then the ratio of theold current to the new current is (A) 13 (B) 31 (C) 61 (D) 16
D
101 The angle between the earthrsquos magnetic field and the horizontal is called angle of (A)declination (B) dip (C) variation (D) inclination
B
102 The basic difference between the galvanometer and the electric motor is (A) The size of themagnetic fields (B) The presence of hair springs in the galvanometer (C) The soft ironarmature in the galvanometer (D) The couple formed on the parallel sides of the rectangularcoil in the
B
103 The electromotive force is in such a direction as to oppose the motion or charge producing itThis is a statement of (A) Faradayrsquos Law (B) Lenz Law (C) Maxwell Law (D) Amperersquos law
B
104 The potential difference across the ends of a wire is doubled in magnitude If Ohmrsquos law isobeyed one of the following statements concerning the resistance of the wire is true (A) Theresistance is one half of its original value (B) The resistance is twice its original value (C) Theresistance is not changed (D) The resistance increases by a factor of four
C
105 The process of adding impurity to a semiconductor to increase its conductivity is called (A)Doping (B) Annealing (C) Heating (D) Hardening
A
106 Which if the following combinations consists of intrinsic properties of materials (A) volumeand density (B) density and mass (C) resistance and resistivity (D) density and resistivity
C
107 Which of the following can be measured with a potentiometer (A) Emf of a secondary cell (B)Resistivity of a wire (C) Potential difference across a conductor (D) Resistance of a wire
A
108 Which of the following devices is odd in the list (A) thermocouple (B) potentiometer (C) dcgenerator (D) solar cell
B
109 Which of the following is an essential physical property of the wires used for making fuses (A)high thermal conductivity (B) low density (C) low melting point (D) low electrical resistivity
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
9
110 Which one of the following statements concerning the magnetic force on a charged particle ina magnetic field is true (A) It is a maximum if the particle is stationary (B) It is a maximum ifthe particle moves parallel to the field (C) It acts in the direction of motion for a positivelycharged particle (D) It depends on the component of the particles velocity that isperpendicular to the field
D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
1
1 A ball is thrown up into the air At the highest point of its trajectory the ball (A) Is acceleratingdownwards (B) has zero acceleration (C) is accelerating upwards (D) is still moving upwards
B
2 A ball of mass 200 g moving with a velocity of 8 ms collides and sticks with another ball ofmass 300 g moving in the same direction with velocity 4 ms What is the common velocity ofthe balls after the collision (A) 56 ms-1 (B) 28 ms-1 (C) 112 ms-1 (D) 14 ms-1
A
3 A boy holds the end of a rubber cord from which hangs a solid metal ball if the boy whirls theball in a horizontal circle keeping his hand still If the rubber cord breaks when the ball is at apoint on the circle in what direction will the ball move (A) towards the hand of the boy Baway from the hand of the boy C in the direction of the tangent to the circle at the point ofbreak D None of the above
C
4 A force of 20 N applied parallel to the surface of horizontal table is just sufficient to make ablock of mass 4 kg set for motion Find the acceleration when the force is doubled (A) 2 ms-2
(B) 4 ms-2 (C) 5 ms-2 (D) 10 ms-2
C
5 A man walks 1 km due east and then 1 km due north His displacement is (A) 1 km N15degE (B) 1km N30degE (C) radic2 km N45degE (D) 2 km N75degE
C
6 A motor car moves with a velocity of 20 ms-1 on a rough horizontal road and covers adisplacement of 50 m Find the coefficient of dynamic friction between the type and theground (g = 10 ms-2) (A) 03 (B) 06 (C) 05 (D) 04
D
7 A physics student standing on the edge of a cliff throws a stone vertically downward with aninitial speed of 100 ms The instant before the stone hits the ground below it is traveling ata speed of 300 ms If the physics student were to throw the rock horizontally outward fromthe cliff instead with the same initial speed of 100 ms what is the magnitude of the velocityof the stone just before it hits the ground(A) 100 ms (B) 200 ms (C) 300 ms (D) 400 ms
C
8 A quantity is defined as the product of cross-sectional area and change in momentum per unitlength Which of the following is its SI unit (A) Nm (B) kgs-1 (C) kgm2s-1 (D) Nkgs-1
C
9 A rectangular concrete block 40 cm x 30 cm x 60 cm of mass 10 kg rests on a horizontal flatsurface What is the minimum pressure it can possibly exert on the surface (A) 8166 Nm-2
(B) 816 6 Nm2 (C) 4083 Nm-2 (D) 6084 Nm
C
10 A simple hydrometer consists of uniform cylinder suitably weighted to float upright in mostcommon liquids It is graduated to read the relative density of a liquid directly Which of thefollowing is NOT correct (A) When placed in a liquid it displaces exactly its own weight of theliquid (B) Its graduation increases from top to base (C) When placed in a liquid it displacesexactly its own volume of the liquid (D) The product of the volume and density of liquiddisplaced is equal to its mass
C
11 A stone which is dropped into a dry well hits the bottom in 22 s How deep is the well (Takeg=10ms) (A) 404 m (B) 24 m (C) 484 m (D) 242 m
D
12 A woman whose mass is 70 kg sits 24 m from the fulcrum of a seesaw At what distance fromthe fulcrum should a 60 kg man sit to balance the seesaw (A) 28 m (B) 24 m (C) 32 m (D)38 m
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
2
13 An air bubble trapped at a depth in a liquid rises to the surface Which of the following is trueabout its mass and density as it rises (A) Its mass and density increase (B) Its mass is constantwhile its density decreases (C) Its mass and density is constant (D) Its mass is constant whileits density increases
B
14 Complete the following sentence The operation of a hydraulic jack is an application of (A)Pascals principle B Archimedesrsquo principle (C) Bernoullis principle (D) irrotational flow
A
15 Complete the following statement Today the standard meter is defined in terms of (A) thedistance from the earthrsquos equator to the north pole (B) the wavelength of light emitted from akrypton atom (C) the wavelength of light emitted from a sodium atom (D) the speed of light
D
16 Convert 30 metre per second to centimeter per minute (A) 20000 cmmin (B) 180000cmmin (C) 120000 cmmin (D) 150000 cmmin
B
17 During a football match player A kicks the ball 40 m 30o E of S to player B who instantly kicks it30 m 60o E of N What is the magnitude of the resultant displacement of the ball (A) 30 m (B)40 m (C) 50 m (D) 60 m
C
18 How much work is done against gravity in sliding a 500g object through 2 m up a smooth planethat is inclined at 30o to the horizontal (g = 98 ms-2) (A) 98 J (B) 198 J (C) 162 J (D) 49 J
D
19 If a small body of mass m is moving with angular velocity ω in a circle of radius r what is itskinetic energy (A) mω r (B) m ω 2r2 (C) m ω r22 (D) m ω 2r22
D
20 In free fall two balls of masses 20 kg and 10 kg were dropped from a height If the ball withthe smaller mass reached the ground after 4 s what is the difference between the time thetwo balls reach the ground (A) 8 s (B) 2 s (C) 0 s (D) 4 s
C
21 In what distance can a 1500 kg automobile be stopped if the brake is applied when the speedis 20 ms and the coefficient of sliding friction is 07 between the tyres and the ground(A) 9810 m (B) 7167 m (C) 2915 m (D) 2010 m
C
22 The highest point of a simple pendulum bob is 5cm vertically above the lowest point as itswings to and fro between the two extreme ends At what velocity does it swing past thelowest point (equilibrium point) where the string is vertical (take g = 10 ms2) (A) 1 ms (B) 2ms (C) 5 ms (D) 10 ms
A
23 Three vectors A B and C add together to yield zero A + B + C = 0 The vectors A and C point inopposite directions and their magnitudes are related by the expression A = 2C Which one ofthe following conclusions is correct (A) A and B have equal magnitudes and point in oppositedirections (B) B and C have equal magnitudes and point in the same direction (C) B and Chave equal magnitudes and point in opposite directions (D) A and B point in the samedirection but A has twice the magnitude of B
B
24 Which of the following could be measured in the same units as force (A) Energydistance (B)Energy x distance (C) Energytime (D) Momentum x distance
A
25 Which of the following does not affect the pressure at a point beneath the surface of a liquid(A) Surface area of the liquid (B) Density of the liquid (C) Depth of the point below thesurface (D) Strength of the gravitational field
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
3
26 Which of the following pairs contains one vector and one scalar quantity (A) Displacementacceleration (B) Force kinetic energy (C) Momentum velocity (D) Power speed
B
27 Which of the following statements is correct (A) uniform speed always implies uniformvelocity (B) uniform speed always implies zero acceleration (C) uniform speed may imply non-zero acceleration (D) constant momentum implies constant acceleration
C
28 Which of the of the following is a measurement taken with Venier callipers (A) 20 cm (B)200 cm (C) 2000 cm (D) 20000 cm
B
29 Which of the units of the following physical quantities are derived I Area II Thrust IIIPressure IV Mass (A) I II III and IV (B) I II and III only (C) I II and IV only (D) I and II only
B
30 Which one of the following situations is not possibleA A body has zero velocity and non-zero accelerationB A body travels with a northward velocity and a northward accelerationC A body travels with a constant velocity and a time-varying accelerationD A body travels with a constant acceleration and a time-varying velocity
C
31If C is the thermal capacity of a material of mass m and S is its specific heat capacity then (A)C= sm (B) S = Cm (C) C = Sm (D) DS = ms
C
32 A black car can be more uncomfortably hot on a warm day than a white car because (A) it ishot on a warm day (B) a black object is a better absorber of heat (C) black cars have heatersinstalled in them (D) white cars have air conditioning systems installed in them
B
33 A little sag is left in overhead telephone wires (A) because taut wires do not conduct soundeasily (B) to allow for the effect of a rise in temperature due to heating effect of currentflowing through them (C) to allow for the effect of a rise in temperature of the surroundingatmosphere (D) to allow for the effect of a fall in temperature of the surroundingatmosphere
D
34 A piece of copper wire of length 100 cm at 30oC is heated to 120oC If its linear expansivity is18 times10-4 k its new length is (A) 1666 cm (B) 1016 cm (C) 1806 (D) 108 cm
B
35 A sample of a monatomic ideal gas is originally at 20 degC What is the final temperature of thegas if both the pressure and volume are doubled (A) 5 degC (B) 80 degC (C) 20 degC (D) 899 degC
B
36 A volatile liquid used for cooling purpose in refrigerator is (A) liquid ammonia (B) cold water(C) liquid nitrogen (D) liquid helium
A
37 Complete the following statement A temperature decrease of 30 Cdeg is equal to a temperaturedecrease of (A) 30 Fdeg (B) 17 Fdeg (C) 30 K (D) 86 Fdeg
D
38 Complete the following statement Bimetallic strips used as adjustable switches in electricappliances consist of metal strips that must have different (A) mass (B) volume (C) length(D) expansion coefficients
D
39 Heat can be transferred from one end of a metal rod in contact with heat to the other endwhich is in contact with heat through (A) Conduction (B) Convection (C) Radiation (D)Evaporation
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
4
40 Heat supplied or removed from a system which causes a change of state without a change intemperature is (A) Specific heat (B) Heat capacity (C) Latent heat (D) Boiling heat
C
41 How many atmospheres of pressure must a litre of gas initially at a pressure of 1 atmosphereand temperature -20oC be after it has been compressed to frac12 litre at 40oC A 247 atm(B) 45 atm (C) 80 atm (D) 38 atm (E) 168 atm
A
42 On a cold day a good conductor X feels colder to the torch than a poor conductor Y because(A) Y retains more heat than X (B) the temperature of X is lower than that of Y (C) X conductsheat from the body less rapidly than Y (D) X transfers heat from body more rapidly than Y
D
43 The boiling point of water does not depend on (A) the impurities in water (B) the externalpressure (C) the quantity of water (D) all of the above
C
44 The ice and steam points of a local liquid in glass thermometer are 10 a and 90a respectivelyWhat will the thermometer read when the temperature is 30 0C (A) 40a (B) 38a (C) 36a(D) 34a
D
45 The lower and upper fixed points on a thermometer are 40 and 120 respectively Its reading at60oC is (A) 60 (B) 40 (C) 160 (D) 88
D
46 The pressure exerted by a given mass of gas in a container (A) Decreases if the container isheated (B) Increases if the molecules of the gas move faster (C) Increases if the volume of thecontainer is doubled (D) Decreases as the kinetic energy of the gas molecules increases
B
47 The temperature in an electric iron is regulated by (A) thermometer (B) bimettalic strip (C)steel (D) conductor
B
48 Water has an anomalous behavior between 0o and 4oC Which of the following is correct (A)Mass of water increases between 0oC and 4oC (B) Density of water decreases between 0oC and4oC (C) Volume of water increases between 0oC and 4oC (D) Volume of water decreasesbetween 0oC and 4oC
D
49 What is the Celsius equivalent of 500deg F (A) 10deg C (B) 20deg C (C) 30deg C (D) 40deg C A
50 When water is heated in a glass vessel the level first falls and then rises because (A) Theapparent expansion of the water is initially small and later increases (B) There is anomalousexpansion of water (C)The glass vessel does not expand (D)Glass vessel expands first beforewater starts a more rapid expansion
D
51 Which of the following quantities of water has undergone the greatest change from its heatcontent at melting point (A) 05 kg of water at 3oC (B) 02 kg of water at 8oC (C) 0005 kg ofwater at 80oC (D) 01 kg of water at 12oC
B
52 Which would cause a more serious burn 30 g of steam or 30 g of liquid water both at 100 degC
and why is this so
(A) Water because it is denser than steam (B) Steam because of its specific heat capacity
(C) Steam because of its latent heat of vaporization (D) Water because its specific heat is
greater than that of steam
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
5
53 A certain radioactive element has a half life of 20 years How long will it take the activity tobecome frac14 of its original(A) 20 years (B) 40 years (C) 60 years (D) 80 years
B
54 A plane progressive wave is represented by xty 20100sin2 where all the symbols
have their usual meanings What is the velocity of the wave
(A) 500 m s-1 (B) 400 m s-1 (C) 200 m s-1 (D) 100 m s-1
A
55 A point on a stationary wave where there is no movement of the medium is called (A) Node(B) Antinode (C) Note (D) Amplitude
A
56 A uniform wave has a speed of 10ms and a period of 05 s The distance between two nearestcrests is (A) 02 m (B) 20 m (C) 2 m (D) 5 m
D
57 A vibrating string has a tension of 40 and produces a note of whenݖܪ200 plucked in themiddle When the length of string is unaltered and the tension is increased to160 thefrequency becomes(A) ݖܪ1600 (B) ݖܪ800 (C) ܪ400 (D) ݖܪ200
C
58 An organ pipe closed at one end is 80cm long Determine the frequency of the fundamentalnote assuming that the speed of sound in air is 340ms (A) 213Hz (B) 318Hz (C) 425Hz (D)106Hz
D
59 As transverse wave moves through a medium the particles of the medium (A) vibrate in apath parallel to the path of the wave (B) do not move (C) vibrate in a path perpendicular tothe path of the wave (D) vibrate at an angle of 60o to the path of the wave
C
60 The sound heard after the reflection of sound wave from a plane surface is known as (A) Echo(B) Refraction (C) Vibration (D) Revibration
A
61 Which of the following properties is not common to all waves (A) Reflection (B) interference(C) Diffraction (D) Polarization
D
62 Which of the following statements is true about electromagnetic waves (A) They arelongitudinal (B) They can be seen (C) They have the same frequency in vacuum (D) They travelat the same speed in a vacuum
D
63 Which one of the following statements concerning electromagnetic waves is false (A)Electromagnetic waves are longitudinal waves (B) Electromagnetic waves transfer energythrough space (C) The existence of electromagnetic waves was predicted by Maxwell (D)Electromagnetic waves can propagate through a material substance
A
64 Which one of the following statements concerning waves is false (A) A wave can have bothtransverse and longitudinal components (B) A wave carries energy from one place to another(C) A wave does not result in the bulk flow of the material of its medium (D) A transversewave is one in which the disturbance is parallel to the direction of travel
D
65 A light sensitive area at the back of the eye where images are formed is called (A) Yellow Spot(B) Iris (C) Ciliary Muscle (D) Retina
D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
6
66 A luminous object is placed at a given distance from a converging lens of focal length 12cm anda real image is produced Find the image distance if it is equal to the object distance (A) 6cm(B) 3cm (C) 12cm (D) 24cm
D
67 An object is placed 15 cm in front of a concave mirror of radius 40 cm The image formed is(A) virtual and 60 cm behind the mirror (B) real and 60 cm in front of the mirror (C) virtual and40 cm from the mirror (D) at infinity
B
68 How far from a concave mirror of radius 120 cm must an object be placed such that its erectimage is four times its natural size (A) 72 cm (B) 64 cm (C) 45 cm (D) 50 cm
C
69 How many images are formed when an object is placed in front of two plane mirrors that areinclined at angle 30o to each other (A) 0 (B) 6 (C) 11 (D) 12
C
70 Professor Peters walks directly toward a plane mirror at a speed of 025 ms Determine thespeed of the image relative to him(A) 013 ms (B) 050 ms (C) 025 ms (D) 075 ms
B
71 The angle of incidence in a denser medium when the angle of refraction in the less dense
72 The driving mirror is a (A) plane mirror (B) convex mirror (C) concave mirror (D) thick planemirror
B
73 The following are types of a converging lens except(A) biconvex (B) plano-convex (C) mini-convex (D) converging meniscus
C
74 When the Sun the earth and the moon are in line during their movement with the earth beingthe opaque object and casting its shadow on the moon we have (A) Lunar eclipse (B) Totaleclipse (C) Partial eclipse (D) Annular eclipse
A
75 Which of the following instruments could be used in finding angle of elevation of the sun (A)Periscope (B) Telescope (C) Kaleidoscope (D) Sextant
D
76 Which of the following optical instruments does not depend on the use of plane mirrors (A)Kaleidoscope (B) Simple microscope (C) Sextant (D) Simple periscope
B
77 Which of the following statements supports the assumption that light travels in straight lines(A) light can be diffracted (B) light can be reflected (C) a source of light produces
interferences patterns on a suitably placed screen (D) a source of light produces distinctshadows of opaque objects
D
78Which of the following is correct about nuclear fission It is (A) the splitting of a heavynucleus into two or more lighter particles (B) an agent used to slow down neutrons in acontrolled atomic chain reaction (C) combing light atomic nuclei to form heavy (D) thespontaneous disintegration occurring in the nucleus of certain atoms
A
79 A light energy E falls on a metal and the electrons with a maximum kinetic energy of 02eV areejected If the work function of the metal is 03eV what is the value of E (A) 010eV (B)006eV (C) 050eV (D) 150eV
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
7
80 A nucleus is unstable if (A) it has two or more isotopes (B) its binding energy is not sufficientto hold nuclear particles together (C) it is very light with very low density (D) it has nosignificant mass
B
81 A radioactive substance has a half life of 4 years If its activity today is 200 dps its activity in 8years from today is (A) 50 dps (B) 25 dps (C) 20 dps (D) 10 dps
A
82 A substance has a half-life of 3min After 6min the count rate was observed to be 400Whatwas its count rate at zero time (A) 2400 (B) 200 (C) 1200 (D) 1600
D
83 An element and its isotopes differ only in the number of (A) electrons (B) neutrons (C)protons (D) irons
B
84 Complete the following sentence When electrons from a heated filament accelerate throughvacuum toward a positive plate (A) only an electric field will be produced (B) only amagnetic field will be produced (C) electromagnetic waves will be produced (D) longitudinalwaves will be produced
C
85 Radioactive elements are (A) chemically reactive elements (B) noble elements (C) rare earthelements (D) elements that spontaneously emit radiation
D
86 The following radiations are electrically neutral except (A) α-rays (B) ϒ-rays (C) X- rays (D)neutrons
A
87 Upon which one of the following parameters does the energy of a photon depend (A) mass(B) polarization (C) amplitude (D) frequency
D
88 Which of the following is NOT true about cathode ray (A) It moves in a straight line (B) Itcauses fluorescence (C) It possesses a negative charge (D) It can produce -particles
D
89 Who proposed the planetary model of the nucleus (A) J J Thomson (B) Albert Einstein (C)Ernest Rutherford (D) Marie Curie
C
90 X- rays cannot be used (A) to take photographs of bone structure in the body (B) to detectfinger prints (C) to detect flaws in metal castings (D) to detect alterations to works of art
B
91 1 farad is equivalent to (A) 1 coulombvolt (B) 1 voltcoulomb (C) 1 joulescoulomb (D) 1amperesec (E) volts per unit charge
A
92 A 0 - 10mA galvanometer with a coil resistance of 30 ohm can be converted to a 0-10Aammeter by using (A) 003ohm series resistor (B) 999ohm shunt resistor (C) 003ohm shuntresistor (D) 999ohm series resistor
C
93 A battery has an internal resistance of 4 and an emf of 12V The terminal voltage when a loadof 20 Ω is connected across it is (A) 4 (B) 10 V (C) 20 V (D) 2V
B
94 A conducting sphere has a net charge of 48 1017 C What is the approximate number ofexcess electrons on the sphere if the fundamental natural charge is -16 x 10-19C (A) 100 (B)300 (C) 200 (D) 400
B
95 A magnet cannot be demagnetized by (A) heating (B) hammering (C) chemical treatment (D)the use of solenoid through which an alternating current is flowing
C
96 An ac voltage is connected to an RLC series circuit of resistance 5 Ω inductance 3 mH and acapacitance of 005 microF Calculate the resonance frequency (A) 110 kHz (B) 120 kHz (C)130 kHz (D) 140 kHz
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
8
97 An electric heater converts 1KJ of electrical energy to heat energy every 2 second with 100efficiency The power produced is (A) 05 KW (B) 2 KW (C) 1KW (D) 10W
A
98 Complete the following statement The electromotive force is (A) the maximum potentialdifference between the terminals of a battery (B) the force that accelerates electrons througha wire when a battery is connected to it (C) the force that accelerates protons through a wirewhen a battery is connected to it (D) the maximum capacitance between the terminals of abattery
A
99 If a charged body is moving in a circle on a horizontal plane what is the general direction ofthe resulting magnetic field (A) In the plane of the circle (B) At an angle 45o to the plane ofmotion (C) Along the perpendicular axis through the center of the circle (D) Along thetangent to the circle
C
100 If a resistor is halved in magnitude and the potential across it is tripled then the ratio of theold current to the new current is (A) 13 (B) 31 (C) 61 (D) 16
D
101 The angle between the earthrsquos magnetic field and the horizontal is called angle of (A)declination (B) dip (C) variation (D) inclination
B
102 The basic difference between the galvanometer and the electric motor is (A) The size of themagnetic fields (B) The presence of hair springs in the galvanometer (C) The soft ironarmature in the galvanometer (D) The couple formed on the parallel sides of the rectangularcoil in the
B
103 The electromotive force is in such a direction as to oppose the motion or charge producing itThis is a statement of (A) Faradayrsquos Law (B) Lenz Law (C) Maxwell Law (D) Amperersquos law
B
104 The potential difference across the ends of a wire is doubled in magnitude If Ohmrsquos law isobeyed one of the following statements concerning the resistance of the wire is true (A) Theresistance is one half of its original value (B) The resistance is twice its original value (C) Theresistance is not changed (D) The resistance increases by a factor of four
C
105 The process of adding impurity to a semiconductor to increase its conductivity is called (A)Doping (B) Annealing (C) Heating (D) Hardening
A
106 Which if the following combinations consists of intrinsic properties of materials (A) volumeand density (B) density and mass (C) resistance and resistivity (D) density and resistivity
C
107 Which of the following can be measured with a potentiometer (A) Emf of a secondary cell (B)Resistivity of a wire (C) Potential difference across a conductor (D) Resistance of a wire
A
108 Which of the following devices is odd in the list (A) thermocouple (B) potentiometer (C) dcgenerator (D) solar cell
B
109 Which of the following is an essential physical property of the wires used for making fuses (A)high thermal conductivity (B) low density (C) low melting point (D) low electrical resistivity
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
9
110 Which one of the following statements concerning the magnetic force on a charged particle ina magnetic field is true (A) It is a maximum if the particle is stationary (B) It is a maximum ifthe particle moves parallel to the field (C) It acts in the direction of motion for a positivelycharged particle (D) It depends on the component of the particles velocity that isperpendicular to the field
D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
AGRICULTURAL SCIENCE
18 The following are examples of formulated pesticide product except (A) dusts eg Actellic B
81 The female sheep is known as (A) ewe (B) lamb (C) sow (D) mare A
82 The largest part of the oviduct where egg white is formed is the (A) Isthmus (B) Infudibulum D
(C) Uterus (D) Magnum
83 The male reproductive hormone is called (A) Testosterone (B) Testis (C) Thiamine (D) A
Globulin (E) Progesterone
84 The process of eliminating undesirable birds from the flock is known as (A)Dubbing (B) C
Removing (C) Culling (D) Degrading
85 The volume of the seminal fluid in chicken is about helliphelliphelliphelliphelliphelliphellip (A) 10mls (B) 50mls (c) C
05mls (d) 010mls
86 What is poultry science (A) Study of chickens (B) Study of science (c) Study of goats (d) A
Study of cattle
87 What is the gestation period of a cow (A) 5 months (B) 18frac12 months (C) 9 months (D) 24 C
months (E) 15 weeks
88 Which branch of poultry industry is concerned with the production of various kinds of feed C
(A) Hatchery industry (B) Poultry processing and marketing (C) Milling Industry (D) Poultry
equipment
89 Which of the following fish preservation method is common in the Northern part of A
Nigeria (A) Sun-drying (B) Gas drying (C) Oven drying
90 Which of the following is monogastric animal (A) Cattle (B) Goat (C) Rabbit (D) Sheep C
91 A farmer purchased a sprayer for N15000 in 2004 at the end of fifth year he sold it for B
N5000 What is the salvage value (A) N10000 (B) N5000 (C) N15000 (D) N
3000
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
AGRICULTURAL SCIENCE
92 Agricultural extension got its name from (A) spreading of information (B) taking information B
to farmers on field (C) having farm extension (D) none of these
93 Equilibrium price is (A) the point at which quantity of a commodity equals quantity B
supplied (B) the price at which quantity demanded of a commodity equals quantity
supplied (C) the point at which market price of a commodity equals quantity supplied (D)
the price at which quantity demanded of a commodity equals market price
94 Farm-gate price is usually obtained through (A) The producer (B) Middlemen (C) A
Commodity Boards (D) Cooperatives
95 One of the factors that influence supply is (A) Income (B) prices of other products (C) D
social capital (D) level of technology
96 People-oriented extension programmes which generate ideas and activities from the D
grassroots is called (A) grassroots approach (B) top down approach (C) community
approach (D) bottom up approach
97 The law of demand states that (A) demand is directly related to price of a commodity (B) B
higher the price of a commodity leads to lower quantity demanded (C) the price of a
commodity is directly proportional to the amount supplied (D) None of the above
98 The loss in value of an asset due to wear and tear in the course of its use is known as C
(A) Appreciation (B) Evaluation (C) Depreciation (D) Salvage value
99 Which of the following is not a problem of agricultural marketing in Nigeria (A) Lack of C
transport facilities (B) Scattered sources of supply (C) High quantity of farm produce (D)
Lack of good packaging and processing facilities
100 Which of the following is not a subject area in Agricultural Economics (A) Agribusiness C
management (B) Farm management and accounting (C) Agronomy (D) Agricultural
development and policy
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
BIOLOGY
1
1 ____________ is an end product of digestion of fat (A) Glucose (B) Fatty acid (C) Amino acid (D)Fructose (E) Galactose
B
2 Asexual reproduction in Hydra sp is commonly by ____ (A) Binary fission b Fragmentation cBudding d Separation (E) Regeneration
C
3 Benedictrsquos solution is used to test for ___ (A) Carbohydrate (B) Lipid (C) Protein (D) Vitamins (E)Minerals
C
4 Pepsin is an enzyme that digests ___ (A) Starch (B) Sugar (C) Lipid (D) Fat (E) Protein E
5 The breakdown of large organic molecules into smaller simpler soluble molecules is called ndashndash (A)Excretion (B) Digestion (C) Absorption (D) Reproduction (E) Ingestion
B
6 The enzyme that curdles milk is_____________ (A) Pepsin (B) Ptyalin (C) Renin (D) Amylase(E) Trypsin
C
7 Which is the enzyme that begins digestion of starch in the mouth (A) Ptyalin (B) Maltase (C)Amylase (D) Sucrase (E) Lactase
A
8 A group of interacting populations in a particular habitat can be described as ___(A) biome (B)biosphere (C) community (D) population ecosystem (E) environment
C
9 A habitat can be defined as ___(A) a group of animals and plants living within a commonboundary (B) a place in which plants and animals live (C) a community living together in thesame place (D) different areas with a common animal and plant population (E) None of theabove
B
10 A symbiotic relationship in which one organism is completely dependent on another organism iscalled ____ (A) Parasitism (B) Commensalisms (C) Mutualism (D) Saprophytism (E) Competition
A
11 An association between two organisms where both members benefit is known as ___ (A)symbiosis (B) commensalism (C) ammensalism (D) mutualism (E) saprophytism
D
12 An instrument used in measuring the speed of wind is (A) a barometer (B) a wind gauge (C) awind vane (D) an anemometer (E) a hydrometer
D
13 At times hyenas feed on remains of animals killed by other animals At other times hyenasthemselves kill animals for food Therefore hyenas may best be described as ndashndash (A) scavengersand herbivores (B) scavengers and parasites (C) scavengers and predators (D) herbivores andpredators e herbivores and parasites
C
14 Autecology is defined as the study of interrelationship of (A) many species of organisms and theirenvironment (B) same species of organisms and their environment (C) organisms in theatmosphere (D) organisms under the earthrsquos surface (E)None of the above
B
15 Autotrophs are also described as ndashndash (A) Consumers (B) Decomposers (C) Carnivores (D)Producers (E) Herbivores
D
16 If three 30cm lengths of glass tubing are tightly packed with clay sand and loamy soilsrespectively and then stood in a beaker of water for one week the level of water will be (A)Lowest in the tube with clay (B) The same in all the tubes (C) Lowest in the tube with loamy soil(D) Highest in the tube with sandy soil (E) Lowest in the tube with sandy soil
E
17 In a community bacteria and fungi are referred to as ndashndash (A) producers (B) consumers (C)scavengers (D) tertiary consumers (E) decomposers
E
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
BIOLOGY
2
18 Puddles Ponds Rivers Seas and Oceans are grouped together as ndashndash (A) Ecosystem (B) Biosphere(C) Aquatic habitat (D) Terrestrial habitat (E) Marine environment
C
19 The feeding pattern in an ecosystem is calledhelliphelliphelliphellip (A) Pyramid of energy (B) Food web (C)Food chain (D) Pyramid of member (E) Ecology
B
20 The orderly changes that occur slowly and naturally in plant and animal communities in a givenarea over a period of time until a stable community is established is called ndashndash (A)Transformational change (B) ecological succession (C) survival of the fittest (D) weatherchange (E) environmental change
B
21 The sign + is used to indicate an association where an organism gains while 0 is used where anorganism is unaffected An association indicated as +0 is known as ndashndash (A) predation (B)commensalism (C) parasitism (D) competition (E) ammensalism
B
22 The sum total of all the roles an organism plays in a habitat is referred to as (A) ecology (B)ecosystem (C) habit (D) habitat (E) niche
E
23 Which of the following factors does not control population growth (A) Food shortage (B)Emigration (C) Predation (D) Abundance of food (E) Natural disaster
D
24 Which of the following statements best describe an ecosystem (A) A place where livingorganisms can live successfully (B) The interactions between living organism in a habitat and thenon-living part of the environment (C) A biological association between a plant and ananimal (D) A system of grouping organisms in a habitat (E) None of the above
B
25 Which of these represents a correct food chain in nature (A) Crustacea rarr diatom rarrfish rarr man (B) Diatom rarr crustacea rarr fish rarr man (C) Fish rarr crustacea rarr man rarr diatom (D) Diatom rarr fish rarr crustacea rarr man (E) None of the above
B
26 ___________ is involved in the mechanism of expelling water from the protozoans during theprocess of____________ (A) Contractile vacuole Osmoregulation (B) Contractile vacuolePhagocytosis (C) Food vacuole Ultrafilteration (D) Food vacuole Pinocytosis (E) Cell membranePinocytosis
A
27 ______________ is used for photosynthesis in Euglena sp (A) Reservoir (B) Nucleus (C)Chloroplast (D) Paramylon granule (E) Pellicle
C
28 A heart with four chambers is found in______________ (A) Fishes (B) Insects (C) Snails (D) Rats(E) Worms
D
29 Animal cell does not have a ____________ (A) Membrane (B) Nucleolus (C) Food Vacuole (D) Cellwall (E) Golgi body
D
30 Beriberi is caused by deficiency of vitamin_____________ (A) A (B) D (C) K (D) E (E) B E
31 Compound eyes are found in which of the animals below (A) Rat (B) Cow (C) Snail (D) Ant (E) Jellyfish
D
32 Dental formula of man consist of (A) i 22 c22 pm22 m33 (B) i11 c22 pm22 m33 (C)i22 c11 pm32 m22 (D) i22 c11 pm22 m22 (E) i22 c11 pm22 m33
E
33 During digestion of food passage of chyme through the duodenum enables it to become awatery liquid called__________ (A) Digested food (B) Chymatic product (C) Chyle (D) Solublefood (E) Dissolved food
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
BIOLOGY
3
34 Emulsification of fat and oils is caused by______________ (A) Lipase (B) Ptyalin (C) Trypsin (D)Maltase (E) Bile
E
35 Every mammal has (A) One Kidney (B) Two pairs of Kidneys (C) One pair of Kidneys (D) FourKidneys (E) None of the above
C
36 Faeces is removed from the body in a process called (A) Digestion (B) Egestion (C) Elimination(D) Excretion (E) Evacuation
B
37 Glomerulus is found in the______________ (A) Ovary (B) Testes (C) Brain (D) Kidney e)Stomach
D
38 In the respiratory system of man diffusion of gases takes place in (A) Trachea (B) Bronchi (C)Alveoli (D) Bronchioles (E) None of the above
C
39 Incisors are used for (A) Tearing food (B) Cutting food (C) Grinding food (D) Shearing food (E)Crushing food
B
40 Nematocysts are produced by special cells found in (A) Nematodes (B) Annelids (C)Platyhelminthes (D) Cnidarians (Coelenterates) (E) Arthropods
D
41 One of the following is not a function of the skin (A) Excretion (B) Protection (C) Homeostasis(D) Reproduction (E) Absorption of vitamin D
D
42 Open circulatory system is found in _____________ (A) Lizard (B) Toad (C) Fish (D) Insect (E)Chicken
D
43 Ovary is to the female reproductive system as________ is to the male reproductive system (A)Penis (B) Urethra (C) Testis (D) Cowperrsquos gland (E) Prostate gland
C
44 Possession of pinna is a characteristic feature of (A) Mammals (B) Reptiles (C) Fishes (D)Amphibians (E) All of the above
A
45 Tadpoles respire with (A) Lungs (B) Nostril (C) Gills (D) Spiracles (E) Siphon C
46 The excretory organ in the earthworm ishelliphelliphelliphellip (A) Malphigian tubule (B) Stoma (C)Nephriduim (D) Flame cells (E) Gills
C
47 The nerves that connect the eyes to the brain are called ndashndash (A) Cranial nerves (B) Optical nerves(C) Sensory nerves (D) Olfactory nerves (E) Optic nerves
E
48 The nerves that connect the eyes to the brain are called ndashndash (A) Cranial nerves (B) Optical nerves(C) Sensory nerves (D) Olfactory nerves (E) Optic nerves
E
49 The parasympathetic nervous system is involved in (A) Dilation of pupil of the eye (B) Controlthe activities of smooth muscles (C) Dilatation of the skin (D) Controls thinking in mammals (E)Increased metabolism
B
50 The part of the alimentary system of a bird where grinding of food occurs is (A) Crop (B)Stomach (C) Cloaca (D) Rectum (E) Gizzard
E
51 The part of the ear that contains receptors that convert the fluid motion into action potential iscalled ndashndash (A) Auditory nerve (B) Ossicles (C) Semicircular canals (D) Cochlea (E) Oval window
D
52 The thoracic region of the vertebral column is made up of __________ vertebrae (A) 5 (B) 7 (C) 4(D) 12 (E) 10
D
53 Which of the animal below is poikilothemic (A) Toad (B) Chicken (C) Bat (D) Lion (E) Dove A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
BIOLOGY
4
54 Which of the structures below is found in reptiles and birds (A) Scales (B) Legs (C) Beaks (D)Claws (E) All of the above
A
55 Which of these animals is photosynthetic (A) Paramecium sp (B) Amoeba sp (C) Euglena sp(D) Hydra sp (E) None of the above
C
56 Which of these organs regulate the amount of sugar in the blood (A) Liver (B) Kidney (C) Spleen(D) Lung (E) Pancreas
E
57 The basis for growth and asexual reproduction is (A) meiosis (B) cytokinesis (C) mitosis (D)Cytogenesis (E) Cell elongation
C
58 The process which ensures that the chromosome number for each species of organism remainconstant from generation to generation is called (A) fission (B) fusion (C) meiosis (D) mitosis(E) oogenesis
C
59 Which of the following is a major factor in variation among organisms (A) Inbreeding (B)Backcrossing (C) Test crossing (D) Sexual reproduction (E) Gene dominance
D
60 ____________ is an example of an invertebrate (A) Millipede (B) Fish (C) Toad (D) Snake (E) Skin A
61 ____________ is the odd one in the list below (A) Mosquito (B) Bee (C) Moth (D) Tick (E)Beetle
63 _____________ is an example of a unicellular organism (A) Amoeba sp (B) Hydra sp (C) Ascarissp (D) Taenia sp (E) Obelia sp
A
64 _____________ level is the highest level of organization in animals (A) System (B) Tissue (C)Organ (D) Cellular (E) Protoplasmic
A
65 Crocodiles are _____________ (A) Fishes (B) Amphibians (C) Mammals (D) Birds (E) None of theabove
E
66 The mutation theory of organic evolution was propounded by (A) Gregor Mendel (B) Hugo deVrics (C) Jean Lamarck (D) Charles Darwin (E) Robert Hookes
D
67 The theory of natural selection was developed by (A) Lamarck and Darwin (B) Darwin andWallace (C) Wallace and Mendel (D) Mendel and Lamarck (E) Hooke and Darwin
B
68 Which is the odd animal in the list below (A) Lizards (B) Snakes (C) Turtles (D) Tortoise (E) Toad E
69 Which of the following sources is not an evidence of evolution (A) Fossil records B Comparativeanatomy C Comparative embryology (D) Human behavior (E) None of the above
D
70 _______________ is an endoparasite (A) Earthworm (B) Tapeworm (C) Mosquito (D) Housefly (E)Tsetse fly
B
71 The causative agent of bird flu is a (A) Virus (B) Bacteria (C) Fungus (D) Protozoan (E) Ricketsia A
72 In lower plants like mosses the structure which performs the functions of roots of higher plantsis called (A) root hairs (B) rootlets (C) hyphae (D) rhizoids (E) thalli
D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
BIOLOGY
5
73 One common feature of fungi algae mosses and ferns is that they are (A) photosynthetic (B)show alternation of generation (C) can survive harsh weather conditions (D) have no seeds (E)conjugate
D
74 The following are major groups of the plant kingdom EXCEPT (A) Bryophyta (B) Chlorophyta (C)Pteridophyta (D) Spermatophyta (E) Thallophyta
B
75 _____________is a form of sexual reproduction (A) Grafting (B) Budding (C) Fission (D)Conjugation (E) Regeneration
D
76 Sexual reproduction in Spirogyra is called (A) Fertilization (B) Symbiosis (C) Conjugation (D)Reproduction (E) Mutualism
C
77 The carrier of the hereditary characters in plants is the (A) Cell (B) nucleus (C) chromosome (D)chloroplast (E) gene
E
78 All are necessary for photosynthesis except_____________ (A) Water (B) Chlorophyll (C)Sunlight (D) Carbon dioxide (E) Oxygen
E
79 Growing yam tendrils climb for support This growth response is (A) haptotropism (B) geotropism(C) phototropism (D) hydrotropism (E) chemotropism
A
80 Which is the correct order in an evolutionary sequence for the following plant groups (A)Bacteria rarr ferns rarr algae rarr mosses rarr seed plants (B) Bacteria rarr ferns rarr mosses rarr algae rarr seed plants (C) Bacteria rarr algae rarr mosses rarr ferns rarr seed plants (D) Bacteria rarr mosses rarr algae rarr ferns rarr seed plants (E) Seed plants rarr ferns rarr mosses rarr algae rarr bacteria
C
81 ------------ is not part of the whorls of a flower(A)calyx (B) corolla (C) androecium (D)Antheridium (E)Gynoecium
D
82 A dry fruit which can break into several parts each containing one seed is a (A) caryopsis (B)aggregate fruit (C) legume (D) follicle (E) schizocarp
E
83 A dry indehiscent winged fruit formed from one carpel is known as a (A) Schizocarp (B)Caryopsis (C) Samara (D) nut (E) Follicle
C
84 A true fruit is formed from (A) fertilized ovary and other floral parts (B) a fertilized ovary (C) afertilized ovary and calyx (D) a fertilized and fleshy receptacle (E) an unfertilized ovary and otherfloral parts
B
85 Irish potato is a (A) bulb (B) tap root (C) rhizome (D) root tuber (E) stem tuber D
86 One major difference between an Angiosperm and a Gymnosperm is that seeds in Gymnospermsare borne in (A) Cones (B) fruits (C) flowers (D) ovary (E) ovule
A
87 Reserved food material in the seed is stored in the (A) epicarp (B) endocarp (C) endosperm (D)mesocarp (E) all parts
C
88 What type of fruit is a mango fruit (A) Berry (B) Hesperidium (C) Drupe (D) Nut (E) Mango fruit C
89 Which of the following species exhibit an aerial root (A) Ficus (B) Centrosema (C) Antigonon(D) Lantana (E) Dahlia
A
90 Which of these plants has an emerginate apex (A) Bauhinia (B) Pistia (C) Ixora (D) Musa (E)Terminalia
A
91 Which plant stores food in its roots (A) Cassava (B) cocoyam (C) Irish potato (D) onion (E)yam
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
BIOLOGY
6
92 An example of Vascular tissues is -------------- (A) Trichome (B) Xylem (C) Stomata (D) Epidermis(E) Parenchyma
B
93 The living part of phloem tissue is (A) sieve plate (B) companion cell (C) sieve element (D)cytoplasm
B
94 Which of the following tissues are made up of dead cells (A) meristems (B) xylem vessels (C)cambium (D) mesophyll (E) palisade
B
95 A plant vacuole contains (A) dissolved chemicals sugars salts pigments and crystals (B) wasteproducts of metabolism DNA RNA and crystals (C) pigments crystals DNA and waste productsof metabolism (D) RNA DNA sugars and salts
A
96 Excessive loss of water in plants is known as (A) Osmosis (B) Osmoregulation (C) Transpiration (D)Excretion
C
97 Starch granules in plants is equivalent to _____________ granules in animals (A) Food (B)Chromatin (C) Lysosome (D) Mitochondria (E) Glycogen
E
98 Which of the following is a plant excretory product (A) Oil (B) Cytokinin (C) Resin (D)amino acids (E) gibberellins
C
99 A plant which grows on another without causing harm to the host plant is called ndashndash (A) aparasite (B) a saprophyte (C) an epiphyte (D) a predator (E) a prey
C
100 Plants which can survive in places where water supply is limited are (A) bryophytes (B)mesophytes (C) xerophytes (D) hydrophytes (E) pteridophytes
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
1
1 200 cm3 of air was passed over heated copper in a syringe several times to produce copper (II)oxide When cooled the final volume of air recorded was 158 cm3 Estimate the percentage ofoxygen in the air (A) 31 (B) 27 (C) 21 (D) 19
C
2 30cm3 of oxygen at 10 atmosphere pressures is placed in a 20dm3 container Calculate the newpressure if temperature is kept constant (A) 67 atm (B) 150 atm (C) 600 (D) 660
B
3 Bond dissociation energy of 500 KJ mol-1 may be assigned to (A) ionic bonding (B) covalentbonding (C) hydrogen bonding D) metallic bonding (E) van-der-waals bonding
A
4 A mixture of iron and sulphur can be separated by dissolving the mixture in __ (A) steam (B)dilute hydrochloric acid (C) dilute sodium hydroxide (D) benzene
B
5 A mixture of sand ammonium chloride and sodium chloride is best separated by __ (A)sublimation followed by addition of water and filtration (B) sublimation followed by addition ofwater and evaporation (C) addition of water followed by filtration and sublimation (D) additionof water followed by crystallization and sublimation
A
6 A pure solid usually melts __ (A) over a wide range of temperature (B) over a narrow range oftemperature (C) at a lower temperature than the impure one (D) at the same temperature asthe impure one
B
7 A small quantity of solid ammonium chloride was heated gently in a test tube the solidgradually disappeared to produce a mixture of two gases Later a white cloudy deposit wasobserved on the cooler part of the test tube The ammonium chloride is said to haveundergone __ (A) distillation (B) sublimation (C) precipitation (D) evaporation
B
8 CH4 has this geometry (A) trigonal (B) planar (C) tetrahedral (D) octahedral (E) linear C
9 Chlorine consisting of two isotopes of mass numbers 35 and 37 has an atomic mass of 355The relative abundance of the isotope of mass number 37 is ___ ( A)20 (B) 25 (C) 50 (D) 75
B
10 Elements P Q R S have 6 11 15 and 17 electrons respectively therefore (A) P will form anelectrovalent bond with R (B) Q will form a covalent bond with S (C)R will form an electrovalentbond with S (D) Q will form an electrovalent bond with S
D
11 In the oil drop experiment Millikan determined the (A) charge to mass ratio of the electron (B)mass of the electron (C) charge of the electron (D) mass of the proton
C
12 One of these atomic shells is the most stable (A) M (B) N (C) K (D) L (E) 0 C
13 Sieving is a technique used to separate mixtures containing 20 oxygen by volume Which ofthe reactants was in excess (A) Carbon (II) oxide (B) Oxygen (C) Carbon (IV) oxide (D) Nitrogen
A
14 The abnormally high boiling point of water is primarily due to (A) ionic bonding (B) covalentbonding (C) dative bonding (D) coordinate covalent bonding (E) hydrogen bonding
E
15 The energy required to remove an electron from the isolated gaseous atom is known as (A)electron affinity (B) bond energy (C) lonisation energy (D) electronegativity (E) electrovalency
C
16 The group that oxygen belongs to is collectively called (A) allotropes (B) halogens (C)chalcogens (D) alkenes (E) ozonides
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
2
17 The ideal gas equation is ___ ( A) P=nRT (B) PR =nVT (C) PV =gRT (D) V=kT (E) PV = K V A
18 The number of atoms in one mole of a substance is equal to (A) the atomic number (B) theAvogadrorsquos number (C) number of neutrons (D) number of electrons (E) gas constant
B
19 The number of electrons in the outermost shell of the atom represents its (A) period (B)number of shells (C) group (D) atomic number (E) electronegativity
C
20 The number of protons or electrons of an atom represents its (A) electronegativity (B) period(C) number of shells (D) group (E) atomic number
E
21 The partial pressure of oxygen in a sample of air is 500 mmHg If the total Pr pressure 780mmHg what is the mole fraction of the oxygen (A) 064 [B (B) 573 (C) 156 (D) 070 (E) 054
A
22 The periodic classification of the elements is an arrangement of the elements in order of their(A) atomic weights (B) isotopic weights (C) molecular weights (D) atomic numbers
D
23 The process of changing one element into another is called (A) radioisotope (B) radioactivity (C)dating (D) transmutation (E) nuclear reaction
D
24 The shapes of CO2 H2O and CH4 respectively are (A) bent linear and tetrahedral (B) benttetrahedral and linear (C) tetrahedral linear and bent (D) linear bent and tetrahedral
D
25 This compound exhibits ionic bonding (A) H20 (B) H2 (C) KC1 (D) NH3 (E) HF C
26 This type of bonding involves overlapping of orbitals during which electrons are shared (A)hydrogen bonding (B) covalent bonding (C) ionic bonding (D) metallic bonding (E) van-der-waals bonding
B
27 Which one of the following changes is physical (A) Adding iron filings to aerated water (B)Adding sodium metal to water (C) Cooling a solution of iron(II) sulphate to obtain the hydratedsalt (D) Cooling water to obtain ice
D
28 A side effect of soft water is that (A) it gives offensive taste (B) excess calcium is precipitated(C) it encourages the growth of bacteria (D) it attacks lead contained in pipes
D
29 Ammonia is very soluble in water because it is a an molecule (A) non-polar (B) polar (C)reactive (D) basic (E) acidic
B
30 Citrus fruits such as lemon and grape taste sour because they contain (A) ascorbic acid andcitric acid (B) citric acid and ascetic acid (C) citric acid and dilute HCl (D) citric acid and salicyclicacid (E) Sulphuric acid
A
31 Soap lather is an example of a colloid in which a (A) liquid is dispersed in gas (B) solid isdispersed in liquid (C) gas is dispersed in liquid (D) liquid is dispersed in liquid
C
32 The air around a petroleum refinery is most likely to contain(A) CO2 SO3 and N2O (B) CO2 COand N2O (C) SO2 CO and NO2 (D) PH3 H2O and CO2
C
33 The difference between colloids and suspensions is brought out clearly by the fact that whilecolloids (A) do not scatter light suspensions do (B) can be separated by filtration suspensionscannot be so separated (C) can be separated by a membrane suspensions cannot (D) do notsettle out on standing suspensions do
D
34 The following substances are non-electrolytes except (A) chloroform (B) sugar cane (C) aceticacid (D) NaCl (E) C and D
E
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
3
35 The hydrolysis of NH4Cl salt will give (A) acidic solution (B) neutral solution (C) basic solution(D) hot solution (E) all of the above
A
36 The pollutants that are likely to be present in an industrial environment are (A) H2S SO2 andoxides of nitrogen (B)NH3 HCl and CO (C) CO2 NH3 and H2S (D) dust NO and Cl2
A
37 What is the basicity of tetraoxosulphate (VI) acid (A) 2 (B) 1 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) 0 A
38 Which of the following gases is the most dangerous pollutant (A) Hydrogen sulphide (B)Carbon (IV) oxide (C) Sulphur (IV) oxide (D) Carbon (II) oxide
D
39 Which of the following ions is a pollutant in drinking water even in trace amount (A) Ca2+ (B)Hg2+ (C) Mg2+ (D) Fe2+
B
40 Which of the following is an example of a double salt (A) NH4Cl (B) alum (C) NaCO3 (D) AlCl3
(E) NaClB
41 016g of methane when burnt increases the temperature of 100g of water by 400(C) what isthe heat of combustion of methane if the heat capacity of water is 42 Jg-10C-1 (CH4=16) (A)1160kJmol-1 (B) 1180kJmol-1 (C) 1560kJmol-1 (D) 1600kJmol-1 (E) 1680kJmol-1
E
42 A charged car battery has ___ energy that can be converted into another energy called ___energy (A) Chemical electrical (B) mechanical chemical (C) heat mechanical (D) lightelectrical (E) light heat
A
43 Copper oxide is heated with charcoal to produce carbon monoxide and copper The reaction isan example of (A) both oxidation and reduction (B) neither oxidation and reduction (C)oxidation only (D) reduction only (E) neutralization
A
44 For each oxygen atom in hydrogen peroxide which acts as an oxidant there is an oxygen atomwhich acts as a an (A) Oxidant (B) reductant (C) oxidizing agent (D) catalyst (E) inhibitor
B
45 Given the change of phase CO2(g) changes to CO2(s) the entropy of the system (A) decreases(B) increases (C) remains the same
A
46 In which of the following is the entropy change positive (A) Reaction between an acid and abase (B) Addition of concentrated acid to water (C) Dissolution of sodium metal in water(D) Thermal dissociation of ammonium chloride
C
47 One of these elements is the best reducing agent (A) Pb (B) Rb (C) Al (D) In (E) N B
48 The name of the gas driven off at the negative electrode during the electrolysis of brine is ___( A) hydrogen (B) chlorine (C) oxygen (D) sodium (E) hydrogen chloride
B
49 The oxidation state of P in H2P2072- is ___ (A) -3 (B) +3 (C) +1 (D) +5 (E) -2 D
50 The oxidation state of S in Ca(HS03)2 is __ (A) +2 (B) -2 (C) +4 (D) -4 (E) +6 C
51 The oxidizing agent in the reaction 3Br2 + 6OH- = BrO3- + 5Br- + 3H2O is __ (A) Br2 (B) OH- (C)
BrO3- (D) e- (E) H2OA
52 When heat is absorbed during a chemical reaction the reaction is said to be ___(A) thermodynamic (B) exothermal (C) isothermal (D) endothermic (E) thermostatic
D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
4
53 Given the reaction at equilibrium 2CO(g) + O2(g) harr 2CO2(g) When the reaction is subjected tostress a change will occur in the concentration of (A) reactants only (B) products only (C)both reactants and products (D) neither reactants nor products
C
54 Given the reaction at equilibrium N2(g) + O2(g) harr 2NO(g) as the concentration of N2(g)increases the concentration of O2(g) will (A) decrease (B) increase (C) remains the same (D)vanishes (E) pours away
A
55 If a reaction is exothermic and there is a great disorder it means that (A) The reaction is in astate of equilibrium (B) There will be a large increase in free energy (C) There will be a largedecrease in free energy (D) The reaction is static
B
56 In the chemical reaction of A + B = C +D more of D is formed (A) if the concentration of A isreduced (B) if the concentration of B is reduced (C) if the concentration of C is reduced (D) ifthe concentration of C is increased (E) if it is continuously removed from the reaction mixture
E
57 In what way is equilibrium constant for the forward reaction related to that of the reversereaction (A) The addition of the two is expected to be one (B) The product of two isexpected to be one (C) The two equilibrium constants are identical (D) The product of thetwo is always greater than one
C
58 In which reaction will the point of equilibrium shift to the left when the pressure on the systemis increased (A) C(s) + O2(g) harr CO2(g) (B) CaCO3(s) harr CaO(s) + CO2(g) (C) 2Mg(s) + O2(g) harr 2MgO(s) (D) 2H2(g) + O2(g) harr2H2O(g)
B
59 The furring of kettles is caused by the presence in water of __ (A) calcium trioxocarbonate (IV)(B) calcium tetraoxosulphate (VI) (C) calcium hydroxide (D) calcium hydrogentrioxocarbonate(IV)
D
60 Which is a property of a reaction that has reached equilibrium (A) The amount of products isgreater than the amount of reactants (B) The amount of products is equal to the amount ofreactants (C) The rate of the forward reaction is greater than the rate of the reverse reaction(D) The rate of the forward reaction is equal to the rate of the reverse reaction
D
61 Which of the following combination of conditions many increase the rate of a chemicalreaction (A) Decrease in temperature increase in concentration of the reactant (B) Increase intemperature addition of a catalyst decrease in the surface area of the reactant (C) Increase intemperature increase in concentration addition of a catalyst and increase in the surface areaof the reactant (D) Decrease in temperature concentration and surface area of the reactants(E) Addition of catalyst and in the absence of light
C
62 ldquoQuicklimerdquo has the formula __ (A) Ca(OH)2 (B) CaO (C) CaCO3 (D) CaSO42H2O (E) CaCl2 B
63 A Transition metal is different from a non-transition metal because (A) it has an octetconfiguration (B) it is very stable (C) it is coloured (D) it has incomplete outer shell d-electrons(E) it has no electron in the d-orbital
D
64 Chlorine is produced commercially by (A) electrolysis of dilute HCl (B) electrolysis of brine (C)neutralization of HCl (D) heating potassium trioxochlorate (V) (E) action of dilute mineral acidson bleaching powder
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
5
65 Chlorine bromine and iodine resemble one another since they __ (A)dissolve in alkalis (B) reactviolently with H2 without heating (C)displace each other from solutions of their salts (D) aregases (E) are liquids
A
66 Liquid oxygen may be produced by condensation of air using this coolant (A) liquid phosphorus(B) liquid gas (C) liquid paraffin (D) liquid nitrogen (E) butane
D
67 One of these is another form of oxygen (A) hydroxide (B) ozone (C) peroxide (D) sulphoxide (E)water B
68 One of these metals is not an alkali metal (A) K (B) Cs (C) Sr (D) Rb (E) Fr C
70 The formation of ozone by reaction of O2 with atomic oxygen in UV light occurs in (A) upperatmosphere (B) inner atmosphere (C) stratosphere (D) hemisphere (E) none of these
A
71 The halogen which is chiefly produced commercially from sea water is ___ ( A) Fluorine (B)chlorine (C) Bromine (D) iodine (E) Astatine
B
72 The most stable allotropic form of sulphur at normal conditions is ___ ( A) monoclinic sulphur(B) rhombic sulphur (C) amorphous sulphur (D) plastic sulphur (E) ordinary sulphur
B
73 The products obtained when the following chemical reaction is completed and balancedarehellipHNO3 + Ca(OH)2 rarr ______ (A) CaNO3 + H2O (B) Ca(NO3)2 + 2 H2O (C) CaO + 2 NO2 + 3H2O(D) Ca + 2 NO3 + 2 H2O
B
74 What is the role of iron and Aluminium oxide in ammonia production (A) dehydrating agent(B) catalytic agent (C) oxidizing agent (D) bonding agent (E) preservative agent
B
75 When carbon IV oxide is bubbled through lime water the solution becomes milky dueformation of (A) Ca(HCO3)2 (B) CaCO3 (C) Ca(N03)2 (D)CaCl2 (E) CaSO4
B
76 Which of the following gases dissolves in water vapour to produce acid rain during rainfall (A)Oxygen (B) Carbon (II) oxide (C) Nitrogen (D) Sulphur (IV) oxide
D
77 Which of the following is not allotrope of carbon (A) diamond (B) graphite (C) buckminsterfullerene (D) all of the above (E) none of the above
E
78 Which oxide is amphiprotic (amphoteric) (A) MgO (B) NaO (C) CaO (D) ZnO (E) BeO D
79 Why will it always be more difficult to extract potassium ions from sea water than to extractmagnesium ions This is because (A) most potassium compounds are less soluble in water (B)most potassium compounds are quite soluble in water (C) presence of other alkali metal ionshas great influence on it (D) magnesium ion is an alkaline earth metal ion (E) None of theabove
B
80 ___________ can be used to test for reducing sugars (A) Iodine solution (B) bromine water (C)Fehlingrsquos solution (D) de-ionized water
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
6
81 2CH3COOH + Zn rarr The product of this reaction is (A) (CH3COO)2Zn + Zn (B) CH3COO CH3 +Zn (C) (CH3COO)2Zn + H2 (D) CH3COOH + CH4
C
82 A ketone reacts with hydroxylamine to give (A) a hydrazone (B) an alkanonitrile (C) a nitrosocompound (D) an oxime
D
83 Alkanoic acids are weak acids and ionises in solution to give (A) R+ + COOH (B) RCOO- + H+ (C)RCOO+ + H- (D) RCO+ + OH-
B
84 An excess of ethanol heated with concentrated H2SO4 at a temperature of 180oC is dehydratedto give mostly (A) ethane (B) ethene (C) ethanol (D) ethoxyethane
B
85 Butene can be distinguished from benzene by reaction with (A) Hydrochloric acid (B) Brominewater (C) Potassium sulphate (D) Sodium hydroxide
B
86 Detergent is more efficient than soap in cleansing clothes and dishes because of the followingreasons except that (A) the corresponding Ca and Mg compound formed is soluble in H2O (B)detergents are not affected by hardness of water (C) it cleans better than soap (D) it is lessexpensive
D
87 In the manufacture of soap industrially brine is used to__________the acid salt (A) oxidise(B) reduce (C) bleach (D) precipitate
D
88 Methane gas can be made from carbon (II) oxide gas according to the equation2CO(g) + 2H2(g) rarr CH4(g) + CO2(g) Calculate the mass of CO required to produce 875 x 1025
molecules of CH4 At masses C=12011 H= 1008 O = 15999 Avogadrorsquos no 6022 x1023molecules mole (A) 8140g (B) 4070g (C) 1600g (D) 3200g (E) 2035g
A
89 Potassium ethanoate is formed when (A) Methanoic acid reacts with KOH (B) Ethanoic acidreacts with KOH (C) Methanol reacts with KCO3 (D) Ethanol reacts with CH3COOH
B
90 Saponification is defined as (A) Acidic hydrolysis of fat or oil (B) Alkali hydrolysis of fat or oil(C) Condensation of two monomer units (D) Mixture of glacial ethanoic acid and excess ofsimple alkanol
B
91 Soaps and detergents have the same basic characteristics except that the carboxyl group of thefatty acid in detergent is replaced by (A) alcohol (B) sulphate or a sulphonate group (C) ester(D) acids
B
92 The relatively high boiling point of alkanols is due to (A) aliphatic character (B) ionic bonding(C) hydrogen bonding (D) covalent bonding
C
93 Two important sources of detergent are (A) fatoils and hydrocarbons (B) coal and cement (C)pulp and wood (D) water and gas
A
94 What is the process associated with conversion of vegetable oil to soap (A) Esterification (B)Saponification (C) hydrolysis (D) Acidification
B
95 When ethanal vapour is passed over manganese (II) ethanoate (manganese acetate) catalyst inthe presence of air the product is (A) ethanoate (B) ethanol (C) methanol (D) ethanoic acid
D
96 When KOH is used instead of NaOH in the production of soap it has the following advantagesexcept it gives (A) softer soap (B) harder soap (C) soap with lower melting point (D) moresoluble soap
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
7
97 When palm wine is left exposed to air for a few days it goes sour The bacteria in the airoxidises________ in palm wine to _________ (A) ethanol ethanoic acid (B) ethanoic acidethanol (C) ester ethanoic acid (D) ether ethanol
A
98 Which of the following is not true about benzoic acid (A) It is aromatic in nature (B) It can bemanufactured from methylbenzene (C) It has molecular formula C6H6COOH (D) It sublimesreadily
C
99 Which of the following reactions is correct (A) C6H5COOH + CaO rarr C6H5Ca + HCO3 (B)C6H5COOH + CaO rarr C6H6 + CaCO3 (C) C6H5COOH + PCl5 rarr C6H5Cl + H2PO4 (D) C6H5COOH +C2H5OH rarr C6H6 + C3H8COOH
B
100 Which of these is not a property of ethanedioic acid (A) It is a stronger acid than ethanoic acidbut weaker than inorganic acids (B) It is a reducing agent (C) It is an oxidising agent (D) It issoluble in cold water
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS STUDIES
1 Behold the people of Israel are too many come let us deal shrewdly with them lest they D
multiply In the statement the first step by the new king of Egypt was to (A) cast all
Hebrew male children into the Nile (B) impose heavy tax on them (C) kill all Hebrew male
children (D) set taskmasters over them to afflict them with burdens
2 I will go out as at other times and shake myself free When Samson made the statement C
above he was not aware that (A) the Philistines were upon him (B) he was bound with bronze
fetters (C) the LORD had left him (D) his eyes had been gouged out
3 Let the waters under the heavens be gathered together into one place and let the dry land D
appear In the statement above the dry land and the water refer to (A) earth and oceans (B)
firmament and seas (C) firmament and oceans (D) earth and seas
4 Seek out for me a woman who is a medium that I may go to her and inquire of her Saul A
made the statement above when he was confronted by the(A) Philistines (B) Ammonites (C)
Amalekites (D) Moabites
5 Why did you bring trouble on us The LORD brings trouble on you todayrdquo What happened to C
Achan after the statement above by Joshua (A) He was buried alive (B) He was put in chain
(C) He was stoned to death (D) He was flogged publicly
6 An unwise decision of Solomon was the issue of the (A) building of the palace (B) building of D
the temple (C) felling of timber (D) forced labour
7 David was anointed king over Judah at (A) Zuph (B) Bethlehem (C) Hebron (D) Gibeon C
8 For worshipping the molten calf God described the Israelites as (A) a stubborn nation (B) an C
unholy nation (C) a stiff-necked people (D) an unrighteous people
9 God blessed the seventh day and made it holy because (A) He rested on that day from all His A
work (B) Adam gave names to all living creatures on that day (C) it was a Sabbath day (D)
human beings were recreated on that day
10 God called Abraham when he was how many years old (A) 75 years old (B) 90 years old (C) A
100 years old (D) 120 years old
11 In order for the people of Israel to be ready to meet the LORD by the third day at Mount Sinai C
they were (A) not to drink alcohol (B) to wear white garments (C) to wash their garments
everyday (D) not to go near a woman
12 Joseph was put in prison in Egypt by Potiphar because (A) he slept with Potipharrsquos wife (B) he C
was very lazy (C) Potipharrsquos wife lied against Joseph (D) he stole Pharaohrsquos cup
13 Samuels lack of parental responsibility led to (A) The demand for a king in Israel (B) His A
untimely death at Ramah (C) The defeat of the Israelites in battle (D) The anointing of David
as king
14 Solomon attempted to kill Jeroboam because Jeroboam (A) Was more popular than him (B) D
Was not faithful as the officer in charge of labour (C) Did not report what was prophesied
concerning him (D) Was a threat to the throne
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS STUDIES
15 The first person that revealed to Eli the evil that would come to his home was(A) Joel (B) a B
man of God (C) a prophet from Shiloh (D) Samuel
16 The rainbow as the sign of Gods covenant with Noah implies(A) Providence (B) Reconciliation C
(C) mercy (D) Redemption
17 What did Gideon call the altar which he built to the LORD (A) The LORD is merciful (B) The B
LORD is peace (C) Jehovah Jireh (D) The LORD is great
18 What punishment did God give Solomon for his unwisemdash Policies (A) Jeroboam was
empowered by God to conquer him (B) He caused Rezon to demolish the high place which he
built (C) He raised up Hadad the Edo mite as an adversary against him (D) The kingdom was
torn from him and given to his servant D
19 What was Samsons major achievement as Israels leadermdash (A) He suppressed the Philistines
(B) He captured the city of Jericho (C) He saved the Israelites from the Amorites (D) He
secured permanent independence for Israel A
20 When God called Moses to deliver the Israelites he resisted because he could not speak and D
he was told to (A) perform some signs with his rod (B) wait for a sign from God (C) go with
Joshua who would speak for him (D) go with Aaron who would speak for him
21 When Moses struck the rock twice for water instead of speakingmdash to it God said to him that
he (A) would no longer see Him face to face (B) would not bring the Israelites to the promise
land (C)would not see His holiness (D)would roam in the wilderness for thirty years
B
22 When the Israelites left Egypt God did not let them use the shorter route through the land of
the Philistines becausemdash (A) the Philistines were waiting in ambush for them (B) they might
go back if they faced war (C) He wanted to confuse the Egyptian king (D) He wanted them to
suffer and appreciate Him B
23 Why did God accept David who killed Uriah and took his wife but rejected Saul who spared
King Agagmdash (A) David was from the favoured tribe of Judah while Saul was from Benjamin
(B) David was a man after Gods heart while Saul was His enemy (C) David was a singer of
praises while Saul was not (D) David humbled himself when he realized his sin but Saul was stubborn
D
24 And in the last days it shall be God declares that I will pour out my Spirit upon all B
flesh Peter quoted the statement above from the prophecy of (A) Ezekiel B) Joel (C)
Jeremiah (D) Isaiah
25 Am I God to kill and to make alive that this man sends words to me to cure a man of his B
leprosy Prophet Elisha responded to the kings reaction in the statement above by (A)
directing the nation of Israel to pray and fast (B) requesting the leper to come to his house (C)
directing the leper to go to River Jordan (D) asking the leper to offer a sacrifice
26 Behold I am the LORD the God of all flesh is anything too hard for me The statement C
above suggests that God is (A) merciful (B) awesome (C) most powerful (D) not changeable
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS STUDIES
27 Behold 1 am the LORD the God of all flesh is anything too hard for me The statement B
above suggests that God is (A) merciful (B) most powerful (C) awesome (D) not changeable
28 Do you understand what you are reading Philip asked the Ethiopian eunuch the question D
above when he found him reading the book of (A) Hosea (B) Ezekiel (C) Jeremiah (D)
Isaiah
29 My spirit shall not abide in man forever for he is flesh When God made the statement He D
concluded that mans days shall be (A) one hundred years (B) one hundred and fifty years
(C) eighty years (D) one hundred and twenty years
30 Test your servants for ten days let us be given vegetables to eat and water to drink In the C
statement above Daniel was talking to (A) King Darius (B) the chief of the eunuchs (C) the
steward of the chief eunuch (D) King Artaxerxes
31 According to Amos what did the Israelites do after God smote them with blight and mildew A
(A) They still did not return to him (B) They repented of their sins (C) They fasted and prayed
for healing (D) They cried unto the LORD
32 According to Prophet Jeremiah one of the promises of God was that He would give the D
Israelites (A) new priests (B) new commandments (C) kings after His own heart (D) shepherds
after His own heart
33 According to Proverbs a son that is attentive to a fathers instruction will (A) be rich (B) have C
eternal life (C) gain insight (D) be forgiven his sins
34 Consequent upon the murder of Naboth by Ahab and Jezebel God declared that (A) He
would require the blood of Naboth from Ahabrsquos hand (B) Ahabs descendants would never
ascend the throne in Israel (C) dogs would lick Ahabs blood where they had licked Naboth (D)
the sword would not depart from the house of Ahab
C
35 Ezekiel said that when the people of Israel turned away from all their sins they would (A) A
Surely live and not die (B) Be free from attack (C) Lead mankind to God (D) Return from
captivity
36 God had pity on the people of Nineveh because (A) they listened to Jonahs message (B) the C
king punished all the violent people in the land (C) they turned from their evil way (D) they
made sacrifices of sin offering to God
37 Immediately after the contest on Mount Carmel Elijah prayed and God answered him with B
(A) thunder (B) rainfall (C) a whirlwind (D) a heavy storm
38 In addition to the declaration of freedom to the exiles in Babylon King Cyrus ordered for (A) A
free will offering for the house of God in Jerusalem (B) the release of Jewish slaves in the
empire (C) security check on the Jews before departure (D) support from craftsmen in
Babylon
39 Joab and his soldiers entered the city quietly after defeating their enemy because (A) Absalom
and his soldiers were defeated (B) of the shameful death of Absalom (C) the king grieving for
his son (D) the king Was annoyed with them C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS STUDIES
40 Obadiah showed his great reverence for the LORD by (A) Handing over five hundred Baal D
prophets for slaughter (B) Falling on his face before Elijah (C) Hiding Elijah in a cave for two
years (D) Feeding the prophets of the LORD with bread and water
41 Prophet Amos told Israel to hate evil love good and establish justice in the gate so that God C
would (A) heal their diseases (B) give them good leaders (C) be gracious to them (D) multiply
their descendants
42 Prophet Hosea named his second child Not Pitied because God would no more pity the (A)
kings of Judah (B) kings of Israel (C) house of Judah (D) house of Israel
D
43 Prophet Hosea named his second child Not Pitied because God would no more pity the (A) D
kings of Judah (B) kings of Israel (C) house of Judah (D) house of Israel
44 Prophet Isaiah received his vision and call whenmdash (A) King Uzziah was deposed (B) King
Uzziah died (C) King Uzziah began to reign (D) Israel was in Babylonian captivity
B
45 Saul learnt from Samuels spirit that the LORD would (A) give the Philistines into his hands A
(B) afflict him with sickness (C) bless Isaacs future wife (D) pardon his iniquity
46 The destruction of Jerusalem by Nebuchadnezzar was a consequence of (A) Hezekiahs death
(B) Josiahs reforms (C) Israels stubbornness to God (D) Zedekiahs rebellion against Babylon
C
47 The effect that the faith of Shadrach Meshach and Abednego had on King Nebuchadnezzar D
and his subjects was that they (A) Refrained from persecuting the Jews in exile (B) Were
converted (C) Forsook their gods (D) Believed that there was no other god able to deliver
48 The Kingdom of Israel was divided because the (A) kingdom was too large to be administered D
(B) leadership wanted to create more nations (C) followership wanted more nations (D) last
two kings made unwise policies
49 The pronouncement of God on Josiah for being penitent was that (A) God would support him C
to repair the Temple (B) Josiah would conquer all his enemies (C) God would gather him to his
grave in peace (D) Josiah would have a peaceful reign
50 The scroll given to Ezekiel to eat at his call contained (A) Both praises and condemnation (B) B
Words of lamentation and mourning (C) Prescription for Temple worship (D) The expected
type of sacrifice
51 What did Asa do that was right in the eyes of the Lord(A) He removed all the idols of his A
father (B) He killed all the priests of Baal (C) His reign was peaceful (D) He killed all the
Baal worshippers
52 What did the Jews do when Nehemiah told them about his mission in Jerusalem (A) They D
praised God for sending him to rebuild Jerusalem (B) They informed Sanballat and Tobiah
about his plans (C) They were hostile to him and he became discouraged (D) They encouraged
one another to rise up and build the walls
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS STUDIES
53 but should write to them to abstain from the pollutions of idols and from unchastity and C
from what is strangled and from blood The statement above was made at the Council of
Jerusalem by (A) Philip (B) Simon (C) James (D) Peter
54 His office let another take The statement above refers to (A) Ananias (B) Judas Iscariot B
(C) Barnabas (D) John Mark
55 Truly I say to you not even In Israel have I found such faith The statement above by D
Jesus was made when He healed the (A) leper (B) blind man (C) demoniac (D) centurions
servant
56 Depart from me for I am a sinful man O Lord This statement was uttered by Peter at C
the (A) last supper (B) garden of Gethsemane (C) call of the disciples (D) transfiguration
57 If I tell you you will not believe and if I ask you you will not answer Jesus statement B
above was in response to a request by (A) King Herod (B) the chief priests and scribes (C)
Pontius Pilate (D) the Pharisees and Sadducees
58 If you are the Son of God throw yourself down from here for it is written He will give his A
angels charge of youhellip According to Luke the statement above was made by Satan during
Jesus(A) third temptation (B) crucifixion (C) Transfiguration (D) second temptation
59 Teacher do you not care if we perish Where was Jesus Christ when this question was D
asked (A) On the sea walking (B) In the wilderness (C) On the Mount of Olive (D) In the
ship asleep
60 Truly I say to you today you will be with me in paradise Jesus made the statement D
above to one of the criminals because he (A) respected Him (B) praised Him (C) rebuked his
partner (D) was repentant
61 Unbind him and let him go The statement was made by Jesus when (A) He raised to life A
the dead Lazarus (B) He healed the son of the widow at Nain (C) He healed the centurions
servant (D) a boy bound by Satan was brought to Him
62 Unless you are circumcised according to the custom of Moses you cannot be saved The D
statement above by some men from Judea necessitated the convening of the (A) church in
Jerusalem (B) council of elders (C) church in Judea (D) council in Jerusalem
63 You son of the devil you enemy of all righteousness full of all deceit and villainy This A
statement of Paul was addressed to (A) Elymas the magician (B) Paulus the proconsul (C)
Simon the Magician (D) Demetrius the silversmith
64 lsquo As long as I am in the world I am the light of the worldrsquo Jesus made the statement above A
on the occasion of (A) healing the man born blind (B) raising Lazarus from the dead (C)
restoring sight to blind Bartimaeus (D) walking on the sea before day break
65 According to Luke the Last Supper took place (A) on Mount Olive (B) In Jerusalem (C) in B
Jordan (D) in Bethlehem
66 According to Luke when Moses and Elijah appeared during the transfiguration they spoke of A
Jesusrsquo (A) departure (C) resurrection (B) second coming (D) trials
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS STUDIES
67 According to Matthew the stone on the tomb of Jesus was removed by (A) an angel (C) Mary A
Magdalene (B) a Roman soldier (D) Peter and John
68 According to Romans salvation is for those who (A) call upon the name of the Lord (B) are B
true worshippers of God (C) work in the Lords vineyard (D) Are persecuted for righteousness
69 According to the Gospel of John Jesus is the true vine while the vinedresser is (A) the Holy B
Spirit (B) His father (C) the gardener (D) His mother
70 And they arrested them and put them in custody until the morrow for it was already D
evening In the statement above the imprisoned persons were (A) Paul and John Mark (B)
Peter and Barnabas (C) Peter and Paul (D) Paul and Barnabas
71 Angel Gabriel told Zachariah that he would become dumb until John was born because he (A) D
looked down on the Angel (B) was advanced in age (C) disagreed with Elizabeth his wife (D)
did not believe Gods words
72 Following the death of Stephen the only group of believers not scattered by the great B
persecution was the (A) deacons (B) apostles (C) prophets (D) disciples
73 Following the resurrection of Jesus the Chief Priest and elders took counsel and bribed the A
guards to (A) say that the disciples stole the body of Jesus (B) keep the information away
from His disciples (C) keep the matter among themselves (D) report the matter immediately
to the rulers
74 In His Sermon on the Mount Jesus said that the poor in spirit are blessed for they would (A) C
be satisfied (B) be comforted on the last day (C) inherit the kingdom of heaven (D) inherit
the earth
75 In Luke at the Last Supper Jesus revealed His (A) resurrection (B) imminent sufferings (C) C
love for His disciples (D) ascension
76 In the country of the Gerasenes Jesus healed the (A) man possessed of demons (B) paralytic A
at the pool (C) leper (D) blind man
77 In the mission of the seventy Jesus told them that they were being sent out as sheep among D
wolves implying that they would (A) be sent to live among wolves (B) be as meek as sheep
(C) be properly equipped for the mission (D) encounter difficulties
78 In the story of the Transfiguration Moses and Elijah represented the (A) glory of God (B) old C
Testament saints (C) Law and the prophets (D) end of the age
79 Jesus raised to life the son of the widow of Nain because He (A) wanted the whole of Judea to C
know about him (B) wanted to show that He was a great prophet (C) had compassion on the
mother (D) loved the young man that died
80 Jesus reply to the devils first temptation of Him was _ (A) Him only shall you serve (B)
Man shall not live by bread alone (C) You shall not tempt the Lord your God (D)
You shall worship the Lord your God B
81 Jesus told the parable of the lost sheep in order to illustrate that (A) every believer ought to D
rejoice with those who rejoice (B) no person can hide from God (C) Gods love is unlimited
(D) there is joy in heaven over a sinner who repents
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS STUDIES
82 Jesus was at the wedding in Cana of Galilee because (A) He wanted to demonstrate His power B
(B) He was invited to the ceremony (C) the groom was His relation (D) the groom ran out of
wine
83 Jesus was tempted by the devil so as to (A) fulfill all righteousness (B) show His power over C
forces of nature (C) show that no one is above temptation (D) test the devils power
84 The Hebrew word Rabboni means (A) disciple (B) priest (C) master (D) Teacher D
85 The impact of Jesus miracle of turning water into wine was that the (A) servants were C
astonished (B) master of ceremony believed (C) disciples believed more in Him (D) people
glorified God
86 Where were the disciples of Jesus when He had a conversation with the Samaritan B
woman(A) They had gone to the city to preach the gospel (B) They had gone to the city to
buy food (C) They had gone to the mountain to pray (D) They had gone to wait for Him
87 According to Ephesians children who obey their parents in the Lord will (A) be happy (B) go C
to heaven (C) have long life (D) be great
88 According to Peter God shows no partiality but in every nation anyone who fears Him is (A) B
diligent before Him (B) acceptable to Him (C) holy before Him (D) righteous before Him
89 According to Romans the new life is comparable to Jesus (A) resurrection (B) ministry (C) A
ascension (D) crucifixion
90 According to Thessalonians the day of the Lord will not come unless the (A) living die first C
(B) scoffers come first (C) dead rise first (D) rebellion comes first
91 Busy bodies and those living in idleness in the church at Thessalonica were admonished to (A)
pray for those in authority for peace (B) do their work in quietness and earn a living (C) appeal
to those in authority to create jobs (D) endure persecution from their masters
B
92 In his teaching on partiality James declares that mercy triumphs over (A) judgment (B) A
righteousness (C) grace (D) faith
93 In Pauls arrangement of the spiritual gifts in Corinthians the last is (A) the utterance of B
wisdom (B) interpretation of tongues (C) gifts of healing (D) various kinds of tongues
94 In Romans Paul condemned sin taking over mortal bodies in the new life as instruments of B
69 In recent years Nigerian economy has been registering a spectacular growth inhelliphellip C
Sector in the last ten years (A) agriculture (B) education (C) telecommunication (D)
transport (E) distribution
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
ECONOMICS
70 Nigeria being a developing African country in the sub-Sahara has put together a C
development blue-print called Vision 202020 which can ensure that the country becomes
(A) one of the 20 developed countries by the year 2020 (B) an African economic lsquoTigerrsquo
by the year 2020 (C) one of the 20 largest economies in the world by the year 2020
(D) one of the 20 largest economies in sub-Saharan Africa by the year 2020 (E) one of
the 20 largest economies in the developing world by the year 2020
71 The major objective of economic growth is to (A) Redistribute income and other benefit D
of growth (B) Equalize opportunity for education and employment (C) Increase
aggregate expenditure on goods and services (D) Increase the real per capita income (E)
Increase access to education
72 The most common index used for measuring development is (A) The level of literacy (B) B
Per capita income (C) Nutritional levels (D) Population growth rate (E) International
development index
73 Which is NOT a direct effort to increase agricultural production in Nigeria (A) Operation B
Feed the Nation (B) Nigerian Youth Service Corps (C) Increased loans to farmers and
cooperatives (D) Research in Agriculture and extension services (E) Mechanization of
agriculture
74 Which of the following sectors of the economy is estimated to be the largest employer of B
labour in the country (A) Construction (B) Agriculture (C) Distribution (D) Mining and
petroleum (E) Transport and communications
75 Industries contribute to national economic development because they (A) Utilize local B
raw material (B) Employ an increasing number of labour (C) Provide recreational
facilities (D) Use modern machines which replace human labour (E) All of the above
76 Infant industries are (A) Baby food and baby clothing factories (B) Those which are D
introducing new products (C) Cases of arrested development (D) Industries temporarily
protected by tariffs barriers until mature enough to compete on world markets (E)
Industries that are allowed to remain permanent cases of adolescence
77 The export-promotion strategy is aimed at producing (A) Consumer goods originally C
imported (B) Machinery for industries (C) More goods for exports (D) More goods for
domestic consumption (E) Increasing export of goods needed in developed countries
78 Which of the following is NOT an advantage of localization of industries (A) Reaping of E
external economies (B) Development of a pool of skilled labour for the industry (C)
Development of subsidiary industries (D) Development of organized markets (E) Growth
of conurbations
79 The crucial factors which determines the location of petroleum refineries in Nigeria are B
availability of raw materials and (A) Capital (B) Political consideration (C) Nearness to
source of power (D) Labour (E) Availability of seaports
80 The petroleum industry in Nigeria is (A) The sole source of the nationrsquos revenue (B) The C
oldest industry in the country (C) The mainstay of the economy (D) A factor in the
decline in the nationrsquos foreign reserves (E) In the hand of NNPC
81 In a limited liability company the greatest risk is borne by (A) Shareholders debentures C
(B) Company executives (C) Ordinary shareholders (D) Preference shareholders (E)
Board of directors
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
ECONOMICS
82 In a public company shares are (A) Sold to one person only (B) Distributed freely (C) C
Advertised to members of the public for subscription (D) Disposed off by the Chief
Executive (E) none of the above
83 The advantage of the sole proprietorship is as follows (A) It is always successful (B) C
Continuity is no problem (C) Control and supervision is under one man (D) Funds are
easy to obtain (E) Inter-generational equity is assured
84 The maximum number of shareholders for a limited liability company is (A) Twenty (B) D
Seven (C) Five (D) Infinite (E) Limited to the number of individuals that are interested
85 Population density refers to (A) Densely populated urban centres (B) The total area D
divided by the total population (C) Densely populated rural areas (D) The total
population divided by the total area (E) All of the above
86 To calculate the annual natural growth rate of a countryrsquos population one has to know D
the countryrsquos annual birth rate and (A) The size of that country (B) The rate of
immigration into that country (C) The population census of that country (D) The annual
death rate (E) The gross domestic product (GDP) of the country
87 Which of the following is not true of the theory of optimum population A It is possible B
for a densely populated country to be under-populated if it has insufficient labour to
make the most effective use of its other factors B The quantity of labour which
combines with other factors gives the minimum output is known as optimum population
C The quantity of labour which combined with the other factors gives the maximum
output is known as optimum population D The test of over-population is whether it
exceeds the optimum E It is possible for a thinly populated country to be over-
populated if it has a poor supply of other factors
88 Which of the following is the standard concept of measuring and analyzing population E
growth (A) The rate of natural increase (B) The net migration rate (C) The rate of
population increase (D) The fertility rate (E) All of the above
89 Which of these would NOT increase the population of a country (A) Increase in death A
rate (B) Decrease in birth rate (C) Emigration (D) Migration (E) Better medical facilities
90 An improvement in the Nigeriarsquos terms of trade should (A) Lead to a fall in cost of her A
imports in terms of what she must sacrifice to obtain them (B) Make made-in-Nigeria
goods cheaper to buy (C) Increase Nigeriarsquos domestic output of commodities (D) Lead to
an increase in her exchange rates (E) Lead to an increase in Nigeriarsquos exports of
petroleum
91 By lsquotrade by barterrsquo we mean (A) Trade done by people in the villages (B) Exchange of D
goods for money (C) International trade (D) Exchange of goods for goods (E) The trade
of the Middle Ages
92 Gains from trade depends on (A) Comparative advantage (B) Absolute advantage (C) A
Distributive cost advantage (D) Absolute cost advantage (E) None of the above
93 International and inter-regional trade differ primarily because (A) Comparative B
advantage is relevant to the former but not to the latter (B) Products flow easily within
regions of a country (C) There are different resource supplies among countries of the
world (D) Of regulations from GATT (E) None of the above
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
ECONOMICS
94 Surplus in the balance of payments lead to (A) Inflation or increasing prices generally (B) B
Increase in foreign reserves (C) Decrease in foreign reserves (D) Government budget
surplus (E) None of the above
95 The expression lsquoTerms of Tradersquo is used to describe (A) The quality of exports (B) The D
direction of foreign trade (C) Terms of purchase on deferred payment basis (D) The rate
at which exports exchange for imports (E) Import licensing
96 The quantity of a currency that exchanges for a unit of another currency is called its (A) C
exchange value (B) barter value (C) exchange rate (D) market price (E) unit price
97 Under a system of freely floating exchange rates an increase in the international value of B
a countryrsquos currency will cause (A) its exports to rise (B) its imports to rise (C) gold to
flow into that country (D) its currency to be in surplus (E) devaluation
98 When a currency loses its value due to a government action to fix the quantity of the A
currency that exchanges for another currency there is (A) devaluation (B)
depreciation (C) inflation (D) fiscal deficit (E) none of the above
99 Which of the following items in the Balance of Payments Account is an invisible D
transaction (A) Imports of cars (B) Export of cocoa (C) Export of crude petroleum (D)
Tourism (E) Import of building materials
100 A major trading problems facing ECOWAS is (A) The absence of common currency (B) A
Political instability (C) High poverty level (D) Non-implementation of decisions (E)
Trade-related political crisis in Ivory coast
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
USE OF ENGLISH
1
Read the passages below and answer the questions that follow
PASSAGE AEvery discernible observer could foresee the crisis which engulfed the Edo Houselast week Only a few days before reports were rife about the AC reaching out tosome PDP legislators to cross-carpet The intention being to gain a majority andthen assume the Speakership with the least constraint Zakawanu Garuba the thenSpeaker retorted with a fiat threatening to declare vacant the seat of any defectorThis in spite of the constitutional support for such action as evidenced forexample by the crisis that has torn the PDP apart in Edo State The party has twofactional chairmen in the state even though one is more vociferousThe desperate attempt by Garuba to cling to the Speakerrsquos chair is condemnable Hewas not being recalled from the legislature and so he still has his seat as a floormember As speaker he was only first among equals The Speakership is not hisbirthright With the defection of one PDP lawmaker to the AC the legislaturereconvened hours after the bloodbath and elected a protem Speaker whileimpeaching and suspending Garuba and a few others They are to be probed
(Adapted from The Guardian Thursday March 4 2011 p14)
1 Why did AC woo PDP membersA they are few in numberB they want speakership without stressC PDP members are faithfulD The House is tough
2 The legislators impeachedA GarubaB PDP lawmakersC Garuba and some PDP lawmakersD Garuba and some lawmwkers
3 According to the passage the constitution supportsA The speakerB DefectingC Edo StateD Factional chairmen
4 The lawmakers reconvenedA After the defection of a PDP memberB After the bloodbathC After suspending the SpeakerD After electing a protem Speaker
B
A
D
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
USE OF ENGLISH
2
5 At the end what happened to GarubaA He was vindicatedB He was indictedC He was honouredD He was humiliated
6 To cross-carpet as used in the passage means toA change partyB renew membership of a partyC change onersquos carpetD buy new carpet
7 The crisis in the Edo State House of Assembly could be predicted byA The lawmakersB Edo State indigenesC The protem SpeakerD All conscious observers
B
C
A
PASSAGE B
Nigeria has a troubled power sector which is however undergoing reforms thathopefully should usher in era of private sector dominance in terms of ownershipand management of generation and distribution In this transitory phase it is crucialto lay a foundation for local sourcing of vital inputs and make it the norm for theindustry That is the only way to prevent a replication of the trend in the oil and gassub-sector where capital flight is as much as $ 16 billion per annum as revealed bythe Petroleum Technology Development FundThe PHCN could legitimately insist on quality and standards in its procurement ofequipment and materials but what is playing out is an institutional orientationevinced in several pursuits of the PHCN that are contemptuous of Nigeriarsquosaspiration for local content development In 1998 the defunct National ElectricPower Authority defied a directive by the then Minister of Power and steel AlhajiBashir Dalhatu to source its costable components from Nigerian foundries some ofwhich are of high standards Actuated by a realization of idle capacity in thefoundries and the need to conserve foreign exchange the Minister appliedappropriate pressure on the management of NEPA but found his efforts frustratedThe acute shortage or inefficiency in the metering programme originated from thefact that the only local manufacturer then the Federal Government-ownedelectricity Meter Company in Zaria Kaduna State established in 1976 but sold toDantata Investments Limited in December 2002 is not performing(Adapted from The Punch Wednesday May 25 2011 Pg 18)
8 Why is there shortage of meterA Non-performance of PHCNB Non-performance of NEPAC Non-performance of the Federal Government-owned electricity
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
USE OF ENGLISH
3
Meter CompanyD Non-performance of Dantata Investment Ltd
9 According to the passage the solution to the problem in the power sector lies inA Sourcing for materials locallyB Getting costable componentsC Obeying the ministerD Getting $ 16 billion per annum
10 From the passage it is clear thatA There is money in the countryB There is shortage of electricity meterC NEPA is better than PHCND NEPA was formed in 1998
11 Which of these is not true of the power sectorA There is only one local manufacturer of electricity meterB The power sector is undergoing reformsC The problem of the power sector cannot be solvedD there was procurement of equipment and materials
12 Which of these is undergoing reformsA NEPAB PHCNC NigeriaD The power sector
13 A suitable title for this passage isA Nigeria and her problemsB NEPA versus PHCNC Electricity meterD Problems in the power sector
A
B
C
D
D
Choose the option that best completes the gap14 University students helliphelliphelliphelliphellipbehave well (A) can (B) should (C) may (D)
mustB
15 Gloria helliphelliphelliphellip have finished the project two days ago (A) must (B) may (C)can (D) supposed to
A
16 You are Goodluck (A) are you (B) arenrsquot you (C) arersquont you (D) donrsquotyou
B
17 He helliphelliphelliphelliphellip not come now (A) needs (B) needed (C) need (D) will need C18 Janet to know that we are all here (A) suppose (B) supposes (C) is
supposed (D) should supposeC
19 Let it be that there was no king in Ayegun (A)know (B) knew (C) known(D) knows
C
20 We shall see you soon (A) shall we (B) shanrsquot we (C) shouldnrsquot we (D)should we
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
USE OF ENGLISH
4
21 Neither of the presidential candidates suitable (A) are (B) is (C) is been(D) are been suitable
B
22 Ten miles ____ a great distance (A) is (B) are (C) is been A23 If I were the president I ask for the money (A) will (B) should (C) would
(D) canC
24 I will see you after I spoken with your supervisor (A) might have (B) have(C) will have (D) would have
B
25 ldquoYou - now see the directorrdquo the secretary told the visitors (A) can (B)may (C) should (D) would
B
26 She isnrsquot Gloria (A) is she (B) isnrsquot she (C) arenrsquot she (D) doesnrsquot she A27 We have a bus (A) didnrsquot we (B) havenrsquot we (C) doesnrsquot we (D) hasnrsquot
weB
28 I knew David let us down (A) may (B) will (C) might (D) can C29 You helliphelliphellip me last week (A) ought to see (B) ought to had seen (C) ought to
have seen (D) had to have seenC
30 Twenty dollars ___ enough for my lunch (A) are (B) is (c ) are just B31 The pests ____ our farm every year (A) invade (B) invades (c ) has invades A32 If I were the Governor I ask for the project (A) will (B) should (C) would
(D) canC
33 When helliphellip the Cleric today (A) doesarrives (B) doesarrived (C)doesarrive (D) do arrive
C
34 We shall see you soon (A) shall we (B) shanrsquot we (C) shouldnrsquot we (D)should we
B
35 You missed the match (A) donrsquot you (B) didnrsquot you (C) hadnrsquot you (D)doesnrsquot you
B
36 Walk the dog right now (A) walknrsquot you (B) will you (C)shall you(D)would you
B
37 I am a student (A) Irsquom I (B) arenrsquot I (C) isnrsquot I (D) wouldnrsquot I BPick out the oddwrong expression in each of the following
38 (A) I heard his supposed apology (B) I heard his unconvincing apology (C) Iheard his suppose apology (D) I heard he was supposed apology
D
39 (A) I suppose you know the way (B) I am supposed you know the way (C) Isuppose he knows the way (D) They suppose he knows the way
B
40 (A) I travel next week (B) I will travel next week (C) I suppose to travelnext week (D) I should travel next week
C41 (A) Having discovered the error he apologized (B) Having discovered the
error the apology was tendered (C) Having known the error he apologised(D) Having found out the error he tendered an apology B
42 (A) The job has been done (B) The job has been being done (C) They havedone the job (D) They can have done the job
D
43 (A) She must finish the project in two days (B) She must finish the project twodays ago (C) She must have finished the project two days ago (D) She ought tohave finished the project two days ago
B
44 (A) If I went in there I would beat the security officer (B) If I go in there Iwould beat the security officer (C) If I go in there I will beat the securityofficer (D) If I go in there I can beat the security officer
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
USE OF ENGLISH
5
Choose the option that most appropriately expresses the idea in theunderlined expression
45 My friendrsquos parentrsquos are magnanimous (A) rich and popular (B) sociable andlovable (C) kind and generous (D) wicked and stingy
C
46 My friend has an overbearing attitude toward me (A) patient (B) impatient(C) opinionated and domineering (D) considerate and respectful
C
47 There are a number of makeshift buildings in town (A) modern buildings (B)old fashion buildings (C) temporary buildings (D) permanent buildings
C
48 Post UME is a hurdle to cross (A) a necessary and simple exam to pass (B) anunnecessary and difficult exam to pass (C) an unnecessary but simple exam topass (D) a necessary and challenging exam to pass
D
49 His contribution to the project is invaluable (A) extremely useful (B) of novalue (C) of little value (D) can not be valued
A
50 That was a dawn-to-earth approach (A) poor (B) ordinary (C) practical (D)immodest
B
51 Concerning my admission I have to cross my fingers (A) wait and hope for thebest (B) wait in frustration (C) wait confidently (D) take some risk
A
52 My father is indifferent to my choice of University (A) supports (B) opposes(C) not decided (D) not concerned
D
53 We need an ad hoc arrangement towards the project (A) intelligent (B)advanced (C) permanent (D) temporary
D
54 The studentrsquos reply to the lecturer betrayed his rudeness (A) covered (B)showed (C) reduced (D) increased
C
55 His conduct in the last elections was above board (A) arrogant (B) honest (C)above average (D) excellent
C
56 That was a dispassionate decision (A) bias (B) personal (C) unaffected (D)ineffective
C
57 On the matter of worship some sit on the fence (A) go to the extreme (B) aredecisive (C) are fanatics (D) are undecided
D
Choose the option that is nearest in meaning to the word underlined58 In this matter we must be prepared to tolerate human frailty (A)
75 Her health deteriorated rapidly (A) worsened (B) improved (C) stagnated (D)declined
B
Which of the following sentences is correct76 (A) One should mind his business (B) One should mind onersquos business (C) One
should mind her businessB
77 (A) This case is between you and I (B) This case is between you and me (C)This case is between the two both of us
B
78 (A) With them around we have a great problem on our hands (B) With themaround we have a great problem on our hand (C) With them around wehave a great problem on hand
A
79 (A) The dog wagged itrsquos tail (B) The dog wagged its tail (C) The dog waggeditsrsquo tail
B
80 (A) A ten year old boy is missing (B) A ten-year-old boy is missing (C) A tenyear-old boy is missing
B
81 Choose the option that sounds the same with two (A) tool (B) too (C) tow (D)to
B
82 Choose the option that sounds the same with bear (A) bare (B) beer (C)bared (D) beard
B
83 Choose the option that sounds the same with the given word Key (A) kiss(B) quay (C) keyed (D) kissed
B
Choose the word that is correctly spelled84 (A) acomodation (B) accommodation (C) accomodation (D) acommodation B85 (A) embarrassment (B) embarassment (C) embarrasment (D) embarasment A86 (A) horrific (B) horific (C) horiffic (D) horriffic A87 As soon as Joy arrived she started looking for food The underlined
expression is an ----------- (A) adverbial phrase of reason (B) adverbial clauseof reason (C) adverbial phrase of time (D) adverbial clause of time
D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
USE OF ENGLISH
7
88 My friend a brilliant lecturer won many prizes The underlined expression isa(n) (A) adjectival clause (B) relative clause (C) appositive phrase (D)subject of lsquowonrsquo
C
89 I passed very well because I studied hard The underlined expression is a (A)relative clause introducer (B) linking verb (C) adverb of reason (D)subordinating conjunction
D
90 Bello and I love each other (A) preposition (B) reciprocal pronoun (C) nounphrase (D) adjectival phrase
B
91 I prefer writing to acting The underlined expressions is a(n) -------- (A) verb(B) participle (C) gerund (D) object
C
92 Having finished my assignment I started watching television The underlinedexpression is a(n) -------- (A) infinitive clause (B) gerund (C) participialphrase (D) noun clause
C
93 If you leave early yoursquoll meet Sola at home The underlined expression is a ----------- (A) nominal clause (B) verbal clause (C) conditional clause (D)adjectival clause
C
94 Wounded by a lion the hunter trudged home The underlined expression is a-----------(A) nominal clause (B) verbal clause (C) participial clause (D)adjectival clause
C
95 Irsquom proud of you The underlined expression functions as(A) prepositionalcomplement (B) adjectival complement (C) subject complement (D) verbalcomplement
B
96 A noun phrase lacks one of the following (A) noun (B) verb (C) adjective (D)adverb
B
97 Eve gave Adam an apple An apple in the sentence functions as------------(A)subject of the verb lsquogaversquo (B) direct object of the verb (C) indirect object ofthe verb (D) object complement
B
98 I wonder if you know where he lives This sentence is a(n) (A) thoughtfulstatement (B) polite command (C) indirect question (D) subtle exclamation
A
99 An example of gradable adjectives is hellip (A) each (B) beautiful (C) dead (D)live
B
100 A clause differs from a phrase because a clause contains helliphelliphellip (A) a largernumber of words (B) a fewer number of words (C) a finite verb (D) a non-finite verb
C
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Information
the study of accounting leads to a challenging career (D) accounting provides gross profit accounting is useful in making decisions (B) accounting plays an important role in a society (C)
Themost importantreasonfor studying accounting is that (A) theinformation providedby A 8
71 A partnership on admitting a new member revalued the business land and building from N30 C
000 to N70 000 The difference of N40 000 should be (A) credited to land and building account
(B) debited to asset revaluation account (C) credited to asset revaluation account (D) credited
to profit and loss appropriate account
72 Adamu Babaji and Chukwu are in a partnership and they share profit and losses on ratio 321 D
Their respective capitals are N20000 N15000 N5000 on which they are entitled to interest
at 5 per annum The profit for the year before charging interest on capital amounts to
N5500 Calculate the profit for Adamu (A) N583 (B) N1000 (C) N1167 (D) N1750
73 In a partnership business the net profit serves as opening figure for (A) trading account D
(B) profit and loss account (C) current account (D) appropriation account
74 In the absence of a partnership agreement profits and losses are shared (A) in the ratio of B
capital (B) equally (C) in the ratio of drawings (D) according to services rendered
5
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
FINANCIAL ACCOUNTING
75 Interest on a partners drawings is debited to the (A) partners current account and credited to A the profit and loss appropriate account (B) profit and loss appropriation account and credited
to the partners current account (C) profit and loss account and credited to the partners
account (D) partners current account and credited to the profit and loss account
76 Partnersrsquo share of profit is credited to (a) a partnerrsquos current account (b) a partnerrsquos capital A
account (c) the profit and loss account (d) the profit and loss appropriation account
77 Which of the following is a strong feature of partnership (A) The life of the partnership is B
generally assumed to be indefinite (B) The owners are liable personally for all debts of the
business The transfer of ownership interest is frequent and easy to accomplish (D) The
partnership is complex to form because of many legal and reporting requirements
78 A bond acknowledging a loan to a company under the companyrsquos seal bearing a fixed rate of D
interest is known as (A) certificate (B) agreement (C) bank loan (D) debenture
79 Alabede (Nig) Limited issued 50000 ordinary shares if 1 each at a market value of N250 each C
The share premium is (A) N125000 (B) N100000 (C) N75000 (D) N50000
80 All but one of the following are examples of capital reserves (A) Share premium (B) D
99 Which of the following is the most critical factor of industrial location in modern world (A) Raw B
materials (B) Market (C) Transportation (D) Capital
100 Which of the following represent an urban- rural migration (A) a students from the village C
school gains admission to the university in the town (B) Moving to the urban centre for
medical services (C) Traveling from Lagos to the village on retirement (D) A civil servants gets
transferred from one town to another
6
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
GOVERNMENT
1
1 A key characteristic of the civil service is (A) Merit system (B) Patriotism (C) Quota system(D) Transparency
A
2 A major cause of inefficiency in public corporations is (A) inadequate patronage by membersof the public (B) absence of an enabling Act or law (C) political interference (D)competition from private firms
C
3 A major distinction between public corporations and private companies is that (A) Publiccorporations provide important services (B) Public corporations are large organizations (C)Public corporations are financed and controlled by government (D) Public corporations arenot involved in production of tangible goods
C
4 A primary agency of political socialization is (A) the government B the family C the massmedia D the School
B
5 A process that seeks to transfer ownership and control of public corporations to privateindividuals or organizations is called (A) Indigenization (B) Commercialization (C)Privatization (D) Acquisition
C
6 Adult male suffrage means that (A) All men who pay tax can vote (B) All adult males canvote (C) All men can vote (D) All adults can vote B
7 All of the following are obligations of citizens except (A) Obedience to laws (B) Voting (C)Giving alms to beggars (D) Payment of taxes
C
8 An electoral district is (A) A local government area (B) A ward (C) A polling booth (D) Aconstituency
D
9 Fascism was practiced in Italy under (A) Benito Masollini (B) Benito Mubarak (C) BenitoMussolini (D) Benito Mandela
C
10 Governmental powers are _________ in the US presidential system (A) absolutely separated(B)fused (C) absolutely fused (D) separated D
11 In a democracy franchise is limited by (A) Age (B) Sex (C) Wealth (D) Education A
12 In the civil service anonymity means that civil servants must (A) Not receive the credit orblame for any good (B) Serve any government impartially (C) Avoid nepotism andfavouritism (D) Be politically neutral
A
13 In which of the following set of countries is a dominant two-party system operated (A)Nigeria and Ghana (B) The United States and the United Kingdom (C) France and Germany(D) India and China
B
14 One of the advantages of direct election is that (A) it is too expensive and difficult to conduct(B) illiterates vote intelligently for their leaders (C) it makes representatives accountable tothe electors (D) it offers an opportunity to the electorate to demand for money
C
15 One of the following is not a feature of a modern state (A) Territorial landmass (B) Populationof People (C) Defined Territory (D) Sovereignty
A
16 One of the following is not a source of constitution (A) Customs and conventions (B) civilservice regulations (C) historical documents (D) judicial precedents
B
17 One of the objectives of a multiparty system is to (A) Eliminate corruption (B) Preventrigging (C) Provide alternatives (D) Avoid ethnicity
C
18 Political sovereignty lies with (A) Head of State (B) Head of Government (C) the Parliament(D) the electorate
D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
GOVERNMENT
2
19 Public corporations are established principally to (A) compete with private firms (B) Raiserevenue for the government (C) provide essential services for the public (D) Promote publicaccountability
C
20 Public opinion helps a government to (A) Monitor its socio-cultural policy (B) Monitor theeconomic situation in the country (C) Punish opposition to its policies (D) Develop thecountry in line with the peoplersquos aspirations
D
21 Roles that are expected to be performed by an individual in a country are (A) Elections (B)Duties (C) Rights (D) Services
B
22 Separation of powers denotes __________________ (A) Separation of governmental powersbut not separation of persons (B) Separation of governmental powers and Separation ofpersons (C) Separation of persons only (D) Separation of powers of government only
B
23 The assent of the President is required to convert aan ____ to law (A) Bill (B) Edict (C)Proclamation (D) Decree A
24 The branch of Government that sets agenda for other organs is known as (A) the bureaucracy(B) the legislature (C) the executive (D) the mass media
B
25 The capitalist economy is dictated by (A) Government economic blueprint (B) Consumersrsquorequirements (C) Diminishing returns (D) the forces of demand and supply
D
26 The central Legislative body in Britain is referred to as --------------------------- (A) NationalAssembly (B) Knesset (C) Parliament (D) Congress
C
27 The chairman of the committee that reviewed the 1988 civil service commission was (A)Chief PC Asiodu (B) Chief Edwin Clerk (C) Chief Allison Ayida (D) Chief Simeon Adebo
C
28 The highest grade in the civil service is known as (A) Executive cadre (B) Administrative cadre(C) Technical cadre (D) Clerical cadre
B
29 The law of libel limits a citizenrsquos right to freedom of (A) Association (B) Expression (C)Worship (D) Movement
B
30 The major advantage of the secret ballot is that (A) It ensures the anonymity of each voter(B) It is faster than other systems (C) Nobody can be prevented from voting (D) It extendsthe franchise to all adults
A
31 The permanent executive includes (A) Civil servants and not public servants (B) Civil servantsand politicians (C) all career officers that serve any government in power (D) elected andappointed politicians
C
32 The pressure group that resorts to unconventional methods to achieve its objectives is called(A) Institutional group (B) Interest group (C) Promotional group (D) Anomic group
D
33 The three fundamental rights of citizens are (A) Life liberty and property (B) Salvationproperty freedom of thought (C) Employment property and social security (D) Freeeducation employment and property
A
34 When a constitution is not difficult to amend it is said to be (A) Rigid (B) Systematic (C)Flexible (D) Federal
C
35 Which of the following best describes a sovereign state (A) a member of the African Union(B) Freedom from economic control (C) Geographical contiguity (D) Military political and
economic independence
D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
GOVERNMENT
3
36 Which of these is an element of state power (A) Geographical location population ampeconomic resources (B) Geographical location elite interests amp economic resources (C)Geographical location ethnicity amp economic resources (D) Geographical location politicalcrisis amp economic resources
A
37 Which of these is not a method of election (A) Simple majority (B) Proportionalrepresentation (C) Primary election (D) Co-option
D
38 ___________ plays rule adjudication role in Nigeria (A) The Civil Service (B) The Legislature(C) The Executive (D) The Judiciary
D
39 A two-party system of government is one in which (A) only one party performs multipartyfunctions (B) the elite dominate political parties (C) only few parties are allowed to operateby law (D) There are two major parties and other minor parties
D
40 An important agency for social control in the Igbo traditional society was the (A) Age-grade(B) Ozo-title holders (C) Council of Chiefs (D) Assembly of lineage heads
A
41 Educated elites in Nigeria did not like the system of indirect rule because it (A) Did not makeprovisions for them (B) Was exploitative and cumbersome (C) Made traditional rulers toopowerful (D) Was undemocratic and oppressive
C
42 Federalism in Nigeria is best seen as a way of promoting (a)Rapid economic development (B)unity in diversity (C) even national development (D) democracy
B
43 In Nigeria the civil service was first regionalized by the (A) Independence constitution (B)Richard constitution (C) Clifford constitution (D) Lyttleton constitution B
44 In the Hausa pre-colonial political system sovereignty was located in the (A) Alkali (B) Emir(C) Waziri (D) Galadima
B
45 In the pre-Colonial HausaFulani system the appointment of an Emir in the caliphate wasapproved by (A) Sultan of Sokoto and the Emir of Gwandu (B) Galadima and the Waziri (C)Sardauna of Sokoto and the Alkali (D) Sheu of Bornu and the Galadima
A
46 Nationalist activities in British West Africa increased after the second World War because (A)Of the expulsion of Kwane Nkrumah from Britain (B) Of the return of the educated elite fromabroad (C) Prices of commodities fell below expectation (D) Africans were nominated to theexecutive council
B47 Nigeria started to operate a real federal structure with the introduction of the (A) 1922 Clifford
constitution (B) 1946 Richard constitution (C) 1953 London conference (D) 1954 Lyteltonconstitution
49 One of the fundamental changes recommended by Adedotun Philips commission is (A)Frequent movement of staff (B) Standardization (C) Professionalization (D) Stagnation
C
50 One of the fundamental reversals made by the commission that reviewed the 1988 reform ofthe civil service was (A) Change of Director General to Permanent Secretaries (B) Changefrom Permanent Secretary to Director General (C) Change from Director General toPermanent Administrators (D) Permanent Professionals
A
51 The helliphelliphellipLocal government reforms recognized local government as the third tier ofgovernment (A) 1963 (B) 1976 (C) 1988 (D) 1989
B
52 The breakdown of the Macpherson constitution was partly caused by the crisis within the (A)NCNC (B) AG (C) NPC (D) NNDP
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
GOVERNMENT
4
53 The First Executive president of Nigeria was (A) Dr Nnamdi Azikiwe (B) Sir Abubakar TafawaBalewa (C) General Yakubu Gowon (D) Alhaji Sheu Shagari
D
54 The first military coup in Nigeria took place on mdash (A) July 15 1966 (B) July 27 1967 (C)January 15 1966 (D) January 13 1966 C
55 The first three political parties to be registered in the Fourth Republic were (A) ACN ANPPand PDP (B) AD APP and PDP (C) PPA PDP CAN (D) APGA CAN and PDPB B
56 The imposition of unitary form of administration by General Ironsi in 1966 led to (A) Moremilitary institutions (B) Return to civilian rule (C) Independence from British rule (D) civilunrest in the North
D
57 The institution that preserves civil liberty in Nigeria is the (A) Law Court (B) Civil ServiceCommission (C) Police Affairs Commission (D) Public Complaints Commission
A
58 The main opposition party during the First Republic was the (A) Northern Peoples Congress(B) Action Group (C) Northern Element Progressive Union (D) United Middle Belt Congress
B
59 The state created in Nigeria before 1966 was (A) East central state (B) Lagos state (C) Mid-Western state (D) North central state
C
60 The1964 federal election was contested by two major alliances of political parties amongthese (A) All Progressive Grand Alliance and the Northern Peoples Alliance (B) NigerianNational Alliance and United Progressive Grand Alliance (C) National Democratic Coalitionand Nigerian Peoples Alliance (D) National Democratic Alliance and Northern ElementsProgressive Union
B
61 Under the 1999 constitution of the Federal Republic of Nigeria there are a total ofhelliphelliphellip Localgovernment councils (A) 334 (B) 620 (C) 724 (D) 774 D
62 Which of the following ethnic groups had the best egalitarian traditional political system (A)Hausa Fulani (B) Yoruba (C) Igbo (D) Edo
C
63 which of the following is not a major problem of local government in Nigeria (A) Insufficientfunding and limited internally generated revenue (B) Interference and control by higher levelsof government (C) Lack of competent and qualified staff (D) lack of sufficient number oflocal government
D
64 Which of the following is not a reason for the adoption of a Federal System of government mdash(A) Cultural diversities (B) Security consideration (C) Economic consideration (D) Limitedresources D
65 Which of the following is not an example of a public corporation in Nigeria (A) NigerianRailway Corporation (B) Federal Radio Corporation of Nigeria (C) Federal Mortgage Bank ofNigeria (D) National Deposit Insurance Corporation
C
66 Which of the following statements is true about the 1963 and 1979 Constitutions (A) Bothhad provisions for the office of the president (B) Both had provision for the office of theconstitutional president (C) Both provided for the offices of prime minister and president(D) Both had provision for the office of an executive president
A
67 Which of these former Nigerian Heads of State was instrumental to the establishment ofECOWAS (A) Sanni Abacha (B) Yakubu Gowon (C) Olusegun Obasanjo (D) Tafawa Balewa
B
68 In 1975 Nigeria had a strained relationship with one of the following countries over the crisisin Angola (A) Britain (B) Israel (C) USA (D) Mexico
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
GOVERNMENT
5
69 Nigeriarsquos non ndash aligned posture was criticized on ground of the (A) Non ndash Proliferation Treaty(B) ECOWAS Treaty (C) Nuclear Test Ban Treaty (D) Anglo ndash Nigeria Defence Pact
D
70 The circumstance that led to the establishment of ECOWAS Monitoring Group (ECOMOG ) was(A) the bloody civil war in Nigeria (B) the bloody civil war in Liberia (C) the bloody civil war inSudan (D) the bloody civil war in all West African countries
B
71 The head of Nigeriarsquos foreign mission in a Commonwealth nation is best known and addressedas (A) Ambassador (B) Envoy (C) High commissioner (D) Representative
C
72 What determines Nigeriarsquos relations with other countries (A) Its national interest (B) Itslevel of democratization (C) Its citizens political sagacity (D) Its political culture
A
73 Which of the following best defines foreign policy (A) The ways in which some actors on thedomestic scene translate available power into policies designed to bring positive outcomes (B)The actions of a state towards the celestial environment (C) A set of objectives with regardsto the world beyond the borders of a given state and a set of strategies and tactics designed toachieve these objectives (D) The protection of the territorial integrity of a state
C74 Which of the following military regimes was credited with a dynamic foreign policy (A)
75 Which of these is an example of Nigeriarsquos external cultural relations (A) Exchange of studentswith friendly nations (B) Trade relationships with other countries (C) Financial and economicassistance to needy countries (D) Establishment of diplomatic missions in other countries
A
76 Which of these is correct about Nigeriarsquos foreign policy between 1960 and 1966 (A) It waspro-British (B) It was pro-American (C) It was pro-Soviet (D) It was pro-French
A
77 Which of these is NOT part of a countryrsquos core or vital interests (A) Economic viability (B)Political independence (C) Territorial integrity (D) Political brouhaha
D
78 Which of these is NOT the essence of foreign policy (A) Promotion and defence of a nationrsquosvital interest (B) Protection and promotion of a nationrsquos strategic interest (C) Protection andpromotion of the interest of the political leaders of a country (D) Promotion and defence ofthe economic interest of a nation
C
79 Which of these Nigerians has ever played a leading role in the operation of OPEC (A) AlhajiRilwanu Lukman (B) Prof Joe Garba (C) Prof Joy Ogwu (D) Gen Ike Nwachukwu
A
80 Which year was the Anglo-Nigerian defence pact abrogated (A) 1962 (B) 1963 (C) 1960 (D)1961
A
81 A major weakness of the Commonwealth is (A) lack of commitment by member states (B)lack of quorum at annual summits (C) poverty among member states (D) lack of democraticleadership A
82 An essential principle that guides the works of the United Nations (A) The regulation ofinternational trade (B) The protection of the United States of America against terrorism (C)Respect for sovereign equality of member states (D) The transfer of technology to developingcountries
C
83 In which of these International Organisations is African membership NOT possible (A)ECOWAS (B) EU (C) OPEC (D) Commonwealth
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
GOVERNMENT
6
84 Membership of the Commonwealth of Nations means (A) recognition of the Queen as theHead of the commonwealth and the republican states (B) recognition of the Queen as theHead of the commonwealth and not of the Republican States (C) recognition of the Queen asthe Head of the independent states and the republican states (D) recognition of the Queen asthe Head of all independent states
B85 One major achievement of OPEC is that (A) member nations are now formidable forces to be
reckoned with in international politics (B) world economic depression brought about fall in oilprice (C) there is a declining loyalty of its members (D) there are challenges posed by non ndashOPEC members
A
86 One of the following groups of states are all members of the ECOWAS (A) Nigerian Ghana andZaire (B) Guinea Togo and Cameroun (C) Guinea Bissau Burkina Faso and Cape Verde (D)Liberia Benin and Ethiopia C
87 The AU was formed by members of OAU (A) On 8th July 2002 at Durban South Africa (B) On8th July 2003 at Abuja Nigeria (C) On 8th July 2003 at Tripoli (D) On 8th June 2002 at AccraGhana
A
88 The first nation to become a republic within the Commonwealth of Nations is (A) Nigeria (B)Cyprus (C) Ghana (D) India D
89 The first summit of the African Union (AU) took place (A) On February 2 2004 at Addis AbabaEthiopia (B) On February 3 2003 at Addis Ababa Ethiopia (C) On February 3 2003 at AbujaNigeria (D) On February 2 2004 at Lagos Nigeria
B
90 The Non-aligned Movement was established at----------- in ---------- (A) Bombay 1955 (B)Bandung 1955 (C) Lagos 1972 (D) Addis Ababa 1955
B
91 The OAU adopted NEPAD during its summit held in (A) Abuja (B) Lusaka (C) Tunis (D) Cairo
D92 The organ charged with the responsibility of approving the annual budget of UNO is (A) The
Security Council (B) The International Court of Justice (C) the General Assembly (D) TheTrusteeship Council
C
93 To which of these blocs did Nigeria belong before the establishment of the OAU (A)Casablanca group (B) Monrovia group (C) Pan African group (D) African and Malagasy group
B
94 What is the full meaning of ECOWAS (A) Economic Community for Western African States (B)Economic Community of Western African States (C) Economic Community of West AfricanStates (D) Economic Community for West African States C
95 Where and when was the African Union inaugurated (A) Durban 2000 (B) Addis Ababa1963 (C) Lagos 1972 (D) Tripoli 2001
A
96 Which of the following is a functionally specialized global international organization (A)Organization of African Unity (B) United Nations (C) Food and Agriculture Organization (D)African Union
C
97 Which of the following is a specialized agency of the AU (A) The Assembly Conference (B) TheExecutive Council (C) African Court of Justice (D) The Commission
C
98 Which of the following is an apt definition of the Commonwealth of Nations (A) voluntaryassociation of the independent countries of the former British Colonies (B) association of freenations enjoying equal rights under the British (C) a free association of sovereign independentAfrican States (D) a voluntary association of countries that were formerly in the Frenchcolonial empire
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
GOVERNMENT
7
99 Which of the following is NOT a principal organ of the UNO (A) UNICEF (B) Security Council(C) Secretariat (D) General Assembly
A
100 Which of the following metamorphosed into the United Nations (A) International LabourOrganization (B) League of Nations (C) UNESCO (D) OAU
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
HISTORY
1 is the name of the political head of Zaria (A) Obi (B) Emir (C) Oba (D) Alaafin B
2 was the state which was thrown into anarchy and turmoil as a result of the opening of A
the Muni the sacred heritage by the king under the prompting of Muslim Missionaries (A)
Kanem (B) Salem (C) Njimi (D) Chad
3 Before getting to Nigeria River Niger passed across (A) Mali (B) Kanem (C) Chad (D) A
Morocco
4 Oba is the name of the political head of (A) Benin (B) Kano (C) Bornu (D) Sokoto A
5 The Amazon (female warriors ) Participated actively in defending which of these kingdoms (A) C
10 Scurvy is caused by the deficiency of (A) Protein (B) Vitamin D (C) Vitamin A (D) Vitamin C D
11 The dietary guide is to (A) Promote health (B) Promote disease (C) Promote sports (D)Promote too much eating
A
12 The fat soluble vitamins are (A) A B E and K (B) A D E and K (C) A C E and K (D) A D C and K B
13 The methods of cooking includes all except (A) Baking (B) Toasting (C )Boiling (D) None of theabove
D
14 Too much sugar in the body could lead to (A) Urinating (B) Heart disease (C) Liver disease (D)Diabetes
D
15 Vitamin D is for the (A) Formation of nerves (B) Formation of tissue (C) Formationof bones (D) Formation and digestion
C
16 Vitamin K performs the function of (A) Blood cell (B) Blood flow (C) Blood use (D) Blood clot D
17 Water soluble vitamins are (A) A C and B complex (B) A E and B complex (C) C and Bcomplex (D) A and B complex
C
18 What is an appetizer(A) Meal eaten after the main meal (B) Meal eaten as the second course meal (C) Meal eatenas the first course meal (D) Meal eaten as the last course meal
C
19 What is steaming (A) Cooking with water vapor (B) Cooking with water boiling (C) Cookingwith dry heat (D) All of the above
A
20 What is under nutrition (A) Consumption of less nutritious foods (B) Consumption ofadequate nutrients (C) Consumption of balance nutrients (D) Consumption of available foods
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
HOME ECONOMICS
2
21 Which is not a communicable disease (A) Measles (B) Marasmus (C) Chicken pox (D)Tuberculosis
B
22 Which is not a type of food storage (A) Moist storage (B) Dry storage (C) Refrigerator storage(D) Freezer storage
A
23 Which is the best method of cooking food to retain nutrient (A) Roasting (B) Boiling (C)Steaming (D) Frying
C
24 Which of these is not correct (A) Carbohydrate is to provide fat to the body (B) Protein is tobuild the body (C) Vitamin is to maintenance of metabolism in the body (D) Water is vital forlife
A
25 Which of these is responsible for proper bone formation (A) Protein (B) Carbohydrate (C)Calcium (D) Cobalamin
C
26 A group of people related by blood and living together is regarded as a (A) Community (B)Society (C) Home (D) Family
D
27 Disposal of household refuse should be done (A) Once a week (B) Every day (C) Twice a week(D) Once a week
B
28 Family can be identified as (A) Larger society (B) Community society (C) Nucleus of society(D) Entire society
C
29 Home Management involves (A) Addressing a home and making it a place of comfort andhappiness (B) Structuring a home and making it a place of comfort and happiness (C)Managing a home and making it a place of comfort and happiness (D) Dedicating a home andmaking it a place of comfort and happiness
C
30 Identify the steps in Home management (A) Planning organizing implementingEvaluation (B) Organizing planning implementing Evaluation (C) Implementing Planningorganizing Evaluation (D) Planning implementing organizing Evaluation
A
31 In choosing a curtain for the home we must consider all except (A) Colour of the wall (B)Colour of the ceiling (C) Colour of the furniture (D) Colour of all colours
D
32 In cleaning of the sitting room we must do all except (A) Open the windows (B) Close thewindows (C) Dust the furniture (D) Sweep the floor
B
33 Meal planning involves (A) Number to be served (B) Quantity of food to cook (C) Healthstatus of family members (D) All of the above
D
34 Money management depend on all except one (A) How money is dedicated (B) How moneyis utilized (C) How money is organized (D) How money is spent
A
35 Saving means (A) Money set aside for use in future (B) Money spent yesterday (C) Moneyspent last month (D) Money spent outside the budget
A
36 Steps in making family budget does not include (A) List all the commodities and servicesneeded (B) Estimate cost (C) Estimate the total expected income (D) Estimated money spent
D
37 Which is not a type of family system in Nigeria (A) Nuclear family (B) Polygamous family (C)Polyandry family (D) Extended family
C
38 Which is not a type of marriage in Nigeria (A) Christian marriage (B) Islamic marriage (C)Hindu marriage (D) Traditional marriage
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
HOME ECONOMICS
3
39 Whish of these is not a benefit of energy management (A) Energy is conserved (B) Eliminatesfatigue (C) Energy is fully used up (D) Reduces amount of time on a task
C
40 Choose a type of seam from these options (A) Run and stand (B) Run and fell (C) Close seam(D) English seam
C
41 Choose the most correct option (A) Clothing is the material used in sewing (B) Clothing is thefabric used in sewing (C) Clothing is the not material used in sewing (D) Clothing is the notthe fabric used in sewing
B
42 Dying a fabric will require most importantly (A) Colour (B) Table (C) Wax (D)Dye D
43 Natural fibres include only one of the options (A) Cotton (B) Linen (C) Wool (D) All of theabove
D
44 Stitches are divided into all except (A) Basic stitches (B) Embroidery (C) Permanent stitches (D)None of the above
46 Which is not a factor to consider in clothing selection (A) Sex (B) Age (C) Occupation (D) Hair D
47 Which of these is a basic stitch (A) Back stitch (B) Temporary stitch (C) French knot (D) Shellhem
A
48 Which of these is a factor to consider in clothing selection (A) Figure type (B) Figure cloth (C)Figure shoe (D) Figure choice
A
49 Which of these is not used in tie-dye (A) Water (B) Caustic soda (C) Soap (D) Hydrosulphide C
50 Wool is obtained from (A) Plant (B) Synthetic (C) Silk (D) Animal D
51 Determine the option that is not a career opportunity in Home Economics (A) Dietician (B)Researcher (C) Teacher (D) Jester
D
52 In family budgeting and expenditure Home Economics is related to ------------ discipline (A)Physics (B) Chemistry (C) Economics (D) Sociology
C
53 In interrelationship with family members Home Economics is related to ------------ discipline (A)Sociology (B) Psychology (C) Biology (D) Economics
A
54 In law of heat as applied to toaster iron Home Economics is related to ------------ discipline (A)Mathematics (B) Physics (C) Psychology (D) Biology
B
55 Someone who studied Family and child development can work as (A) Childhood Caterer inschools (B) Interior decorator in schools (C) Childhood Food vendor (D) Early Childhoodeducator
D
56 Someone who studied Food and Nutrition can work as a (A) Caterer (B) Doctor (C) Nurse (D)Vendor
A
57 The scope of Home Economics include (A) Food and Nutrition Home Economics Clothingand textile (B) Food and Nutrition Home management Clothing and textile (C) Food andNutrition Home management Fabric cutting (D) Food and Nutrition Home Design Clothingand textile
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
HOME ECONOMICS
4
58 What are the basic philosophy of Home Economics (A) How to improve only goods andservices used by individuals families and communities (B) How to determine only the needsof the individual family institution and community (C) How to become responsiblemember of families and communities (D) How to determine the need and improveindividual family institution and community
D
59 What is the basic philosophy of Home Economics (A) How to improve only goods and servicesused by individuals families and communities (B) How to determine only the needs of theindividual family institution and community (C) How to become responsible member offamilies and communities (D) How to determine the need and improve individual familyinstitution and community
D
60 A pregnant woman is carrying -------------- in her womb (A) Baby (B) Child (C) Foetus (D)Pregnancy
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
LITERATURE IN ENGLISH
1
1 Conceits more rich in matter than in wordsBrags of his substance not of ornament (ActIISCIV) The structure of this dramatic speech is an example of (A) paradoxicalstructure (B) parallel structure (C) circular thought pattern (D) antithesis
D
2 A drama form that teaches godliness righteousness and goodwill to all men among rulers andordinary citizens is called----- (A) sentimental comedy (B) heroic tragi-comedy (C) heroicfarce (D) satire
A
3 A dramatic composition in which many or all the words are sung is called---- (A) Oratorio (B)Opera (C) Comedy (D) Concert
B
4 A humorous play based on an unrealistic situation is considered in drama as--- (A) comedy(B) tragedy (C) farce (D) burlesque
C
5 A play is a tragedy when------------------ (A) the author presents life as a hopeless adventure (B)the main character dies before the play ends (C) there is much bloodshed in the play (D) aweakness in the main character leads to his downfall
D
6 A play that ends on a sad note is a ----------- (A)tragicomedy (B) comedy (C) tragedy (D)farce
C
7 A play that stirs readers to pity fear and laughter is called (A) tragicomedy (B) farce (C)absurd (D) melodrama
A
8 A play that tells a single story has one setting and takes place within a specified period is saidto-------- (A) be heavily moralistic (B) be clearly cohesive (C) possess the three unities (D)have tragic elements
C
9 A play which emphasizes laughter and amusement at the expense of credibility is called----(A) cartoon (B) elegy (C) comedy (D) farce
D
10 A play with a single character is called (A) solo-drama (B) monodrama(C) play let (D) All of the above
D
11 A tragic figure is a character who is (a) worthy of emulation (b) ennobled though suffering (c)unbending and irredeemable (d) completely transformed
C
12 A type of drama that celebrates or satirizes the follies of characters is called---- (A) comedy(B) tragedy (C) farce (D) tragicomedy
A
13 A type of drama that highlights suspense and romantic sentiment with characters who areusually either clearly good or bad is called ----(A) farce (B) melodrama (C) comedy (D)burlesque
B
14 According to Aristotle the key to tragedy is the concept of (A) cartharsis (B) chorus (C)representation(D) plot
A
15 Aristotlersquos word for a tragic herorsquos shortcoming is (a) hubris (b) harmatia (c) denouement(d) dilemma
B
16 As a comic dramatic piece a farce makes use of improbable situations and characters that are(A) exaggerated (B) extravagant (C) understanding (D) poor
A
17 Both comedy and tragedy have ------------- (A) climax (B) tragic hero (C) stanza (D) happyending
A
18 Farce can be described as a dramatic piece marked by----------- (A) movement from serious tothe light-hearted mood (B) comic and exaggerated actions (C) actions devoid of meaning (D)gloomy actions with momentary reliefs B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
LITERATURE IN ENGLISH
2
19 In ----- the major character is selfish devilish wicked and exploitative (A) Comedy (B)Tragicomedy (C) Farce (D) Melodrama
D
20 In a play tragic responses are brought to a head through three elements (A) reversalrecognition and suffering (B) weakness suffering and resolution (C) flaw fear andrecognition (D) reversal suffering and conclusion
A
21 In de Graftrsquos Sons and Daughters James Ofosu is treated with (A) ridicule (B)dramatic irony (C) sarcasm (D) melodramatic spectacle
B
22 In drama a flashback occurs when (A) a characterrsquos inner mind isrevealed (B) the playwright supplies a missing link in a characterrsquos past (C) a character dropsan idea that hints at the future (D) a character drops an idea that hints at the concealed past
D
23 In drama light furniture custom and make-up are part of (A) stage deacutecor (B)stage architectonics (C) stage proxemics (D) kineaesthetics
A
24 In most of Shakespearersquos drama when a character speaks in aside the act is referred to as (A) stream of consciousness (B) sleep-walking (C) soliloquy (D) monologue
C
25 In Romeo and Juliet Romeo died (A) of self-poison (B) being murdered byFriar Laurence (C) the capulet (D) unknown assassins
A
26 In Sons and Daughters Fosuwa symbolizes (A) tradition and the old order (B) modernity (C)youthful exuberance (D) patriarchy
A
27 In Sons and Daughters the character of James Ofosu symbolizes (A) poverty (B) old values (C)new values (D) wealth
B
28 In tragedy everything must be artistically balanced this means that (A) the setting must bein one place (B) nothing superfluous is included and nothing essential omitted (C) characterand action are in equal ratio (D) there should be equal ratio of male and female characters
B29 -------------is a drama form which depicts royal wickedness of English kings and queens (A)
Heroic drama (B) Heroic tragicomedy (C) Heroic farce (D) SatireA
30 -----------is a drama form which ends happily after a number of initial tragic occurrences areresolved (A) Tragicomedy (B) Melodrama (C) Heroic Drama (D) Farce
A
31 --------------is the drama form which ends up on a note of happiness after some initial minorproblems (A) Tragedy (B) Farce (C) Heroic drama D Comedy
D
32 Joe de Graft was a prominent playwright from (A) Ghana (B) Nigeria (C) Cameroon (D) SierraLeone
A
33 Melodrama is the genre of drama which is characterized by emphasis on theatricality over(A) characterization (B) plot (C) setting (D) point of view A
34 One basic feature of melodrama is (A) humour (B) high-spirit (C)triumph of vice over virtue (D) overcome of evil by good
C
35 One of the peculiar features of drama in general is ------------ (A) humour (B) satire (C)sarcasm (D) action
D
36 Romeo and Juliet portrays the (A) chaos and passion of being in love (B) moral situation of thesociety (C) happiness of falling in love (D) evitability of fate
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
LITERATURE IN ENGLISH
3
37 The first part of a Greek tragedy is called a prologue and is also a playrsquos (A) envoy (B)exposition (C) rising action (D) climax
B
38 The most basic feature of drama is helliphelliphelliphelliphelliphelliphelliphelliphelliphellip (A) monologue (B) suspense (C) action(D) plot
C
39 The play Romeo and Juliet begins with (A) serious argument (B) sincere love (C) streetfight (D) secret marriage
C
40 The play Romeo and Juliet is an example of (A) realistic comedy (B) romantic comedy (C)satiric comedy (D) ironic comedy
B
41 The term farce is now used to cover a form of drama which employs (A) mistaken identity(B) slapstick (C) reversal of roles (D) romantic plot
A
42 The tragic herorsquos flaw is called (A) hubris (B) harmatia (C) caesura (D)peripeteia B
43 The word ldquocastrdquo in a play refers to (A) Three of the actors (B) A few of the actors (C) All theactors (D) An exclusive social class in the play
C
44 Theatre of the absurd portrays people whose sufferings seem (A) unfortunate (B)ridiculous (C) indefinite (D) sympathetic
B
45 Tragecomedies developed in which century (A) 18th (B) 19th (C) 20th (D) 21st C C46 When a play includes witty and graceful situation it can be classified as (A) comedy of
manners (B) high comedy (C) low comedy (D) comedy of the absurdB
47 When the plot of a play begins in the middle and only unfolds the past through flashback it iscalled (A) complex-plot (B) media res (C) prefiguration (D) None of theforegoing
B
48 Which of the following is true of Opera (A) They are plays with elaborate music (B) They areplays with elaborate songs (C) They are plays with dance (D) A and B
D
49 Which of the following statements best describes comedy (A) A play in which nobody dies(B) A play which makes us laugh (C) A play in which the hero is a clown (D) A play which endshappily
D
50 A story in which the characters are animals but behave like human beings is a (A) fable (B)fairy tale (C) folktale (D) parable
A
51 Considering the way Nnu Egorsquos life ends in The Joys of Motherhood the title of the novel canbe said to be (A) ironic (B) ambiguous (C) sarcastic (D) euphemistic
A
52 In lsquoThe Old Man and the Medalrsquo when in answer to the question if she had slept well Kelaraanswered ldquoI counted the matting in the roofrdquo she meant that (A) she slept very well (B) shewas awake when she should have been sleeping (C) she was thinking of mending the roof (D)there was a hole in the roof
B53 In a novel the antagonist is usually called a (A) narrator (B) hero (C) villain (D) clown C
54 In Nineteen Eighty-four the most important character in the story is____ (A) Winston Smith(B) Julia (C) OrsquoBrien (D) Big Brother
A
55 In Nineteen Eighty-Four the poet is (A) OrsquoBrien (B) Ampleforth (C) Syme (D) Martin B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
LITERATURE IN ENGLISH
4
56 In The Joys of Motherhood Nnaife enlisted in the army because (A) he was running awayfrom his wives and children (B) his white employers had gone home to Europe leaving himjobless (C) he wanted to prove that he was a man (D) he was looking for adventure
B
57 In The Joys of MotherhoodNnu Ego at one point tried to commit suicide because (A)someone used witchcraft on her (B) her only child had just died (C) she could not bear theshame of being barren (D) she did not like Nnaifersquos appearance
B
58 In The Old Man and the Medal when in answer to the question if she had slept well Kelaraanswered ldquoI counted the matting in the roofrdquo she meant that (A) she slept very well (B) shewas awake when she should have been sleeping (C) she was thinking of mending the roof (D)there was a hole in the roof
B
59 Nineteen Eighty-four can be described as a _____ (A) political satire (B) comedy (C)tragedy (D) chronicle
A
60 The expression ldquoto break the leg of an anteloperdquo which is found in The Old Man and the Medalmeans______ (A) hunting (B) travelling (C) marriage (D) fighting
D
61 The Joys of Motherhood suggests that (A) sometimes men are irresponsible as fathers andhusbands (B) children always grow up to help their parents (C) husbands always appreciatehardworking wives (D) women care for their children but neglect their husbands
A
62 The major thematic preoccupation of Joys of Motherhood is (A) politics (B) economicemancipation (C) motherhood (D) colonialism
C
63 ldquoThe piercing chill I feel My dead wifersquos comb in our bedroom Under my heelrdquo(trans ByHarold Henderson) What is the form of the above poem (A) haiku (B) triplet (C) tercet (D)quatrain A
64 A sonnet is a poem of_____ lines (A) 15 (B) 14 (C) 16 (D) 12 B
65 A stanza of three lines linked by rhyme is called a________ (A) couplet (B) ballad (C) tercet(D) quatrain
C
66 From David Rubadirirsquos ldquoAn African Thunderstormrdquo ldquoClouds come hurrying with the windrdquocontains an example of (A) alliteration (B) assonance (C) enjambment (D) rhyme
A
67 In poetry double rhyme can be used to bring out (A) irony (B) unity (C) theme (D)conclusion
A
68 The stanzas which make up a ballad usually consists of_____lines (A) 7 (B) 8 (C) 4 (D) 9 C
69 The tone in lsquoHeritage of Liberationrsquo is_____ (A) lamentative (B) invocatory (C) explanatory(D) melancholic
B
70 The typical rhyme scheme of an English sonnet is (A) abab cdcd efef gg (B) abab cdcd eeffgg (C) abcd abcd efef gg (D) abcc abcd efff gg
A
71 The words ldquoproverdquo and ldquoaboverdquo are examples of the rhyme called (A) exact (B) half (C) eye(D) slant
C
72 When words in poetry rise and fall in a measured way it is referred to as________ (A) rhyme(B) rhythm (C) repetition (D) euphemism
B
73 Which of the following is NOT a form of poetic expression (A) Octet (B) Lyric (C) Sonnet (D)Elegy
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
LITERATURE IN ENGLISH
5
74 ______is the deliberate use of exaggeration for the sole purpose of humour in poetry (A)Simile (B) Hyperbole (C) Onomatopoeia (D) Oxymoron
B
75 A character who remains unchanged in a story is described as (A) round (B) flat (C) stock(D) dynamic
B
76 A figure of speech which refers to the repetition of the initial consonant sounds of poetry witha rhythmic effect is called_______ (A) alliteration (B) assonance (C) apostrophe (D)euphemism
A
77 A literary work that appropriates matter andor manner from a previous work is (A) archetype (B) imitation (C) adaptation (D) sub-text
C
78 A tragic plot consists of (A) many people in various disastrous events (B) important incidents(C) noble and ordinary characters (D) a self-contained and concentrated single action
D
79 An expression or word which stands for a whole is called_______ (A) metonymy (B) allegory(C) synecdoche (D) repetition
C
80 Assonance refers to the _______ (A) repetition of alphabets in a line of poetry (B) repetitionof vowels in a line (C) agreement of vowel sounds in a line (D) agreement of consonantsounds in a line
B
81 Characters whose role contribute to the movement of plot are called (A)Minor characters (B) free characters (C) central characters (D) round characters
C
82 Identical vowel sounds create one of the following (A) euphony (B) cacophony (C)alliteration (D) assonance
D
83 Identify the odd one out of the following helliphelliphelliphelliphelliphellip (A) Aside (B) Costume (C) Narrative(D) Stage
C
84 Identify the odd one out of the following (A) Deacutecor (B) costume (C) Make-up (D) Mime D
85 In a novel the location of the story is referred to as the (A) stage (B) exposition (C) subject(D) setting
D
86 Point out the odd item (A) Macbeth (B) Twelfth Night (C) The Concubine (D) Romeo andJuliet
C
87 Pregnant clouds Ride stately on its back The clouds are described as ldquopregnantrdquo because (A)no one knows what is in them (B) they look like a fat woman (C) they bring rainfall (D)they move clumsily
C
88 The antagonist in a tragedy is ------------ (A) any character in the tragedy (B) the wife of theprotagonist (C) the character who provides comic relief (D) the character set in opposition tothe main character D
89 The device whereby the narrator recalls something that happened in the past is (A)foreshadowing (B) flashback (C) epiphany (D) prologue
B
90 The first person narrative point of view is characterized by the frequent use of (A) presenttense (B) singular nouns (C) past tense (D) the pronouns ldquoIrdquo and ldquowerdquo
D
91 The most mimetic term in critical vocabulary is (A) plot (B) imitation (C)character (D) action
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
LITERATURE IN ENGLISH
6
92 The structure of a story which shows the cause and effect of events is the (A) denouement (B)climax (C) imagery (D) plot
D
93 When one scene leads to another in inextricable chain of relationships it is called (A)episodic play (B) caused play (C) metaphysical play (D) All of the above
B
94 I would Love you ten years before the Flood And you should if you please refuse Tillthe conversion of the Jews The literary device used in the above extract is (A) allusion (B)innuendo (C) satire (D) archetype A
95 ldquoThat pierced the fearful hollow of thine earrdquo is an example of (A) relativeclause (B) figure of speech (C) personification (D) noun clause D
96 ldquoWilt thou be gone It is not yet near day It was the nightingale and not the lark That piercedthe fearful hollow of thine earrdquo The first sentence here is an example of (A)interrogative sentence (B) apostrophe (C) rhetorical statement (D) request
C
97 From Andrew Marvellrsquos ldquoTo His Coy Mistressrdquo Had we but world enough and time Thiscoyness lady were no crime We could sit down and think which way To walk and pass ourlong loversquos day This poem opens in the lines above like a (A) Sonnet (B) praise poem (C)ballad (D) dramatic monologue
D
98 Identify the odd term (A) Enjambment (B) Rhyme (C) Plot (D) Alliteration C
99 In the village Screams of delighted children Toss and turn In the din of whirling wind Women Babies clinging on their backs Dart about In and out Madly The Wind whistlesby Whilst trees bend to let it pass In the above extract the movement of the women is (A)leisurely (B) hurried (C) orderly (D) slow
B100 Tossing up things on its tail Like a madman chasing nothing These lines contain an example
of a (A) metaphor (B) simile (C) metonymy (D) paradoxB
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
MATHEMATICS
1
1 (128 x 104 ) divide (64 x 102 ) equals(A) 2 x 10-5 (B) 2 x 10-1 (C) 2 x 100 (D) 2 x 101 (E) 2 x 105
D
2 A man and wife went to buy an article costing N400 The woman had 10 of the cost andthe man 40 of the remainder How much did they have altogether(A) N216 (B) N200 (C) N184 (D) N144 (E) N100
C
3 Add the same number to the numerator and denominator of 318 If the resulting fraction isfrac12 then the number added is(A) 13 (B) 14 (C) 15 (D) 12 (E) 11
D
4 After getting a rise of 15 a manrsquos new monthly salary is N345 How much per monthdid he earn before the increase(A) N330 (B) N39675 (C) N300 (D) N29325 (E) N360
C
5 Assuming loge 44 = 14816 and loge 77 = 20142 then the value of loge frac14 is(A) 05326 (B) 34958 (C) 04816 (D) 00142 (E) 13594
A
6 Evaluate ൫2 + 4ଵଶ൯ଶ
(A) frac14 (B) 54 (C) 94 (D) 4 (E) 9
C
7 Evaluate correct to 4 decimal places 82751 x 0015(A) 88415 (B) 124127 (C) 1241265 (D) 124120(E) 1141265
B
8 Express 130 kilometres per second in metres per hour(A) 78 x 105 (B) 468 x 106 (C) 7800000(D) 468 x 106 (E) 780 x 10-6
B
9 Find the square root of 170-20radic30 (A) 2radic10-5radic3 (B) 3radic5-8radic6 (C) 2radic5-5radic6 (D) 5radic5-2radic6 (E) 5radic10-2radic3
C
10 If (25)x-1 = 64(5frasl2)6 then x has the value(A) 7 (B) 4 (C) 32 (D) 64 (E) 5
B
11 If a circular paper disc is trimmed in such a way that its circumference is reduced in theratio 25 in what ratio is the surface area reduced(A) 8125 (B) 25 (C) 825 (D) 425 (E) 410
D
12 In base ten the number 101101 (base 2) equals(A) 15 (B) 4 (C) 45 (D) 32 (E) 90
C
13 Simplifyହ ୶ ଶହ౮షభ
ଵଶହ౮శభ
(A) 5ଶ୶ ଵ (B) 5୶ାଶ (C) 5ହ (D) 5୶ାଵ (E) 5ଷ
C
14 Simplify(ଵ)൫రయାଵమళ൯
(మଵమ)
(A) ଶଷ (B) ଵଷ (C) ଶ + 1 (D) a (E) ଵଷ
E
15 Simplify ଵଶଶℎଵଷ divide ହଶℎଷ
(A) ( ℎ)ଶ (B) ହଶℎ (C) ହସℎଽ (D)మ
ఱళ(E)
ଵ
మమ
A
16 Simplify 2ହ
ଵଶminus 1
x
ହ
(A) 16 (B) 1320 (C) 1130 (D) 94 (E) 53
A
17 Solve the system of equations 2௫ା௬ = 32 3ଷ௬௫ = 27(A) (3 2) (B) (-3 2) (C) (3 -2) (D) (-3 -2) (E) (2 2)
A
18 The annual profits of a transport business were divided between the two partners A and Bin the ratio 35 If B receives N3000 more than A the total profit was(A) N5000 (B) N1800 (C) N12000 (D) N24000 (E) N8000
C
19 The diameter of a metal rod is measured as 2340cm to four significant figures What is D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
MATHEMATICS
2
the maximum error in the measurement(A) 005cm (B) 05cm (C) 0045cm (D) 0005cm (E) 0004cm
20 The ratio of the price of a loaf of bread to the price of a packet of sugar in 1975 was r t in1980 the price of a loaf went up by 25 and that of a packet of sugar by 10 Their newratio is now(A) 40r50t (B) 44r50t (C) 50r44t (D) 55r44t (E) 44r55t
C
21 The sum of 378 and 113 is less than the difference between 38 and 123 by (A) 323 (B)5frac14 (C) 6frac12 (D) 0 (E) 818
C
22 Two distinct sectors in the same circle subtend 1000 and 300 respectively at the centre ofthe circle Their corresponding arcs are in the ratio
24 What is the number whose logarithm to base 10 is 3482(A) 2236 (B) 02228 (C) 2235 (D)
2237 (E) 002229
E
25 When a dealer sells a bicycle for N81 he makes a profit of 8 What did he pay for thebicycle
(A) N73 (B) N7452 (C) N75 (D) N7552 (E)N8748
C
26 Write the decimal number 39 to base 2(A) 100111 (B) 110111 (C) 111001 (D) 100101 (E) 195
A
27 A father is now three times as old as his son Twelve years ago he was six times as old ashis son How old are the son and the father(A) 20 and 45 (B) 100 and 150 (C) 45 and 65 (D) 35 and 75 (E) 20 and 60
E
28 A steel ball of radius 1cm is dropped into a cylinder of radius 2cm and height 4cm If thecylinder is now filled with water what is the volume of the water in the cylinder(A) cm3ߨ443 (B) 12 cm3ߨ (C) 383 cm3ߨ (D) 403 cm3ߨ (E) 3233 cm3ߨ
A
29 Find a two-digit number such that three times the tens digit is 2 less than twice the unitsdigit and twice the number is 20 greater than the number obtained by reversing the digits(A) 24 (B) 42 (C) 74 (D) 47 (E) 72
D
30 Find the roots of the equation minusଶݔ10 minusݔ13 3 = 0(A) x = 35 or ndashfrac12 (B) x = 310 or -1 (C) x = -310 or 1 (D) x = 15 or -32 (E) x= -15 or 32
E
31 If a function is defined by +ݔ) 1) = minusଶݔ3 +ݔ 4 find (0)(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 0 (D) 8 (E) 2
D
32 If sin x equals cosine x what is x in radians(A) π2 (B) π3 (C) π4 (D) π6 (E) π12
C
33 If x2 + 4 = 0 then x =(A) 4 (B) -4 (C) 2 (D) -2 (E) none of these
E
34 In a geometric progression the first term is 153 and the sixth term is 1727 the sum of thefirst four terms is(A) 8603 (B) 6803 (C) 6083 (D) 8063 (E) 68027
B
35 List all integer values of x satisfying the inequality minus1 lt minusݔ2 5 le 5(A) 2345 (B) 25 (C) 345 (D) 234 (E) 34
C
36 Make c the subject of the equation (+ ) +ହ
ௗminus 2 = 0 D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
MATHEMATICS
3
(A) = 2minus 5 minus (B) = 5 minus 2minus (C) = 5 minus 2minus (D) = 2minus 5 minus (E) = 2minus minus 5
(C) ndash +ݔ) +ݔ)(5 1) (D) minusݔ) 5)(1 minus (ݔ (E) +ݔ) 5)(1 minus (ݔ
D
41 The quantity (x + y) is a factor of A(A) ଶݔ + ଶݕ (B) minusଷݔ ଷݕ (C) minusଶݔ2 +ݕݔ3 minusଶݕ +ݔ 1(D) ଷݔ2 + minusݕଶݔ2 +ݕݔ minusݔ3 ଶݕ + ݕ3 (E) minusହݔ ହݕ
D
42 The set of values of x and y which satisfies the equations ltigtxltsupgt2ltsupgt - y - 1 = 0ltigt and ltigty ndash 2x + 2 = 0ltigt(A) 1 0 (B) 1 1 (C) 2 2 (D) 0 2 (E) 1 2
A
43 The solution of the equation minusଶݔ =ݔ2 8 is(A) x = 0 or 2 (B) x = -2 or 4 (C) x = 2 (D) x = -4 (E) x = 2 or 4
B
44 The solution of the quadratic equation ଶݔ + +ݔ = 0 is given by
(A) =ݔplusmnξ మସ
ଶ(B) =ݔ
plusmnξ మସ
ଶ(C) =ݔ
plusmnξ మସ
ଶ
(D) =ݔplusmnradicమାସ
ଶ(E) =ݔ
plusmnradicమସ
ଶ
A
45 The sum of the root of a quadratic equation isହ
46 Three numbers x y and z are connected by the relationships =ݕସ
ଽ+ݔ 1 and =ݖ
ସ
ଽ+ݕ 1
If x = 99 find z(A) 613 (B) 20 (C) 21 (D) 17649 (E) None of the above
C
47 What factor is common to all the expressions minusଶݔ ݔ ଶݔ2 + minusݔ 1 and minusଶݔ 1(A) x (B) x ndash 1 (C) x + 1 (D) No common factor (E) (2x ndash 1)
D
48 A canal has rectangular cross section of width 10cm and breadth 1m If water of uniformdensity 1gm cm-3 flows through it at a constant speed of 1000mm per minute the adjacentsea is
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
MATHEMATICS
4
(A) 100000 (B) 1000000 (C) 120000 (D) 30000 (E) 35000049 A cuboid has a diagonal of length 9cm and a square base of side 4cm What is its height
50 A cylinder of height h and radius r is open at one end Its surface area is(A) 2πrh (B) πr2h (C) 2πrh+2πr2 (D) πrh+πr2 (E) 2πrh+πr2
E
51 A pyramid is constructed on a cuboid The figure has(A) 12 faces (B) 13 vertices (C) 14 edges (D) 15 edges (E) 16 edges
E
52 A quadrant of a circle of radius 6cm is cut away from each corner of a rectangle 25cm longand 18cm wide Find the perimeter of the remaining figure(A) 38cm (B) (38 + (ߨ12 (C) (86 minus (ߨ12 (D) (86minus (ߨ6 (E) (86 +(ߨ12
B
53 A rectangular picture 6cm by 8cm is enclosed by a frame frac12cm wide Calculate the area ofthe frame(A) 15sqcm (B) 20sqcm (C) 13sqcm (D) 16sqcm (E) 17sqcm
A
54 A regular hexagon is constructed inside a circle of diameter 12cm The area of thehexagon is
56 A solid cylinder of radius 3cm has a total surface area of 36πcm2 Find its height(A) 2cm (B) 3cm (C) 4cm (D) 5cm (E) 6cm
B
57 A square of cardboard is taped at the perimeter by a piece of ribbon 20cm long What isthe area of the board(A) 20sqcm (B) 25sqcm (C) 36sqcm (D) 100sqcm (E) 16sqcm
B
58 A triangle has angles 300 150 and 1350 the side opposite to the angle 300 is length 6cmThe side opposite to the angle 1350 is equal to
61 Find the area of the curved surface of a cone whose base radius is 6cm and whoseheight is 8cm (Take π = 227) (A) 18857cm2 (B) 1320cm2 (C) 188cm2 (D) 18808cm2 (E) 100cm2
A
62 Find the total surface area of a solid cone of radius 2radic3cm and slanting side 4radic3cm
67 PQRS is a cyclic quadrilateral with PQ as diameter of the circle If PQS = 150 findQRS(A) 750 (B) 37frac120 (C) 127frac120 (D) 1050 (E) None of the above
D
68 The difference between the length and width of a rectangle is 6cm and the area is135cm2 What is the length(A) 25cm (B) 18cm (C) 15cm (D) 24cm (E) 27cm
C
69 At what value of x does the function y= -3 ndash 2x +x2 attain a minimum value(A) 4 (B) 2 (C) -1 (D) -4 (E) 1
84 7 pupils of average age 12 years leave a class of 25 pupils of average age 14 years If 6new pupils of average age 11 years join the class what is the average age of the pupils nowin the class(A) 13years (B) 12years 7frac12months (C) 13years 5months (D) 13years 10 months(E) 11 years
A
85 A bag contains 4 white balls and 6 red balls Two balls are taken from the bag withoutreplacement What is the probability that they are both red(A) 13 (B) 29 (C) 215 (D) 15 (E) 35
E
86 Bola chooses at random a number between 1 and 300 What is the probability that thenumber is divisible by 4(A) 13 (B) frac14 (C) 15 (D) 4300 (E) 1300
B
87 Determine the mean monthly salary of 50 employees of a company from the followingfrequency distribution
88 Find the mean deviation of 1 2 3 and 4(A) 25 (B) 20 (C) 10 (D) 15 (E) 12
C
89 If M represents the median and D the mode of the measurements 5 9 3 5 7 5 8then (M D) is(A) (6 5) (B) (5 8) (C) (5 7) (D) (5 5) (E) (7 5)
D
90 In a basket of fruits there are 6 grapes 11 bananas and 13 oranges If one fruit is chosen atrandom what is the probability that the fruit is either a grape or a banana
(A) 1730 (B) 1130 (C) 630 (D) 530 (E) 73
A
91 In a school 220 students offer Biology or Mathematics or both 125 offer Biology and 110Mathematics How many offer Biology but not Mathematics
(A) 95 (B) 80 (C) 125 (D) 110 (E) 120
D
92 In a school there are 35 students in Class 2A and 40 in class 2B The mean score for class2A in an English literature examination is 600 and that for 2B in the same paper is 525Find to one place of decimals the mean for the combined classes
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
MATHEMATICS
7
(A) 15 (B) 560 (C) 562 (D) 563 (E) 56593 In a soccer competition in one season a club had scored the following goals 2 0 3 3 2
1 4 0 0 5 1 0 2 2 1 3 1 4 and 1 The mean median and mode are respectively(A) 1 18 and 15 (B) 18 15 and 1 (C) 18 1 and 15 (D) 15 1 and 18 (E)15 18 and 1
B
94 In how many ways can 2 students be selected from a group of 5 students in a debatingcompetition (A) 25 ways (B) 10 ways (C) 15 ways (D) 20 ways (E)16 ways
D
95 The arithmetic mean of the ages of 30 pupils in a class is 153 years One boy leaves theclass and one girl is enrolled and the new average age of 30 pupils in the class becomes152 years How much older is the boy than the girl
(A) 30 years (B) 6 years (C) 9 years (D) 3 years (E) 1 year
D
96 The letters of the word ldquoMATRICULATIONrdquo are cut and put into a box One letter isdrawn at random from the box Find the probability of drawing a vowel(A) 713 (B) 513 (C) 613 (D) 813 (E) 413
C
97 The mean of the numbers 3 6 4 x and 7 is 5 Find the standard deviation
(A) radic2 (B) radic3 (C) 2 (D) 3 (E) 5
A
98 The weights of 30 new-born babies are given as follows 6 9 5 7 6 7 5 8 9 5 7 58 7 8 7 56 5 7 6 9 9 7 8 8 7 8 9 8 The mode is(A) 6 (B) 5 (C) 8 (D) 7 (E) 10
D
99 Thirty boys and x girls sat for a test The mean of the boysrsquo scores and that of the girlswere respectively 6 and 8 Find x if the total score was 468(A) 38 (B) 24 (C) 36 (D) 22 (E) 41
C
100 Two fair dice are rolled What is the probability that both show up the same number ofpoints (A) 136 (B) 736 (C) frac12 (D) 13 (E) 16
E
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
BIOLOGY
1
1 ____________ is an end product of digestion of fat (A) Glucose (B) Fatty acid (C) Amino acid (D)Fructose (E) Galactose
B
2 Asexual reproduction in Hydra sp is commonly by ____ (A) Binary fission b Fragmentation cBudding d Separation (E) Regeneration
C
3 Benedictrsquos solution is used to test for ___ (A) Carbohydrate (B) Lipid (C) Protein (D) Vitamins (E)Minerals
C
4 Pepsin is an enzyme that digests ___ (A) Starch (B) Sugar (C) Lipid (D) Fat (E) Protein E
5 The breakdown of large organic molecules into smaller simpler soluble molecules is called ndashndash (A)Excretion (B) Digestion (C) Absorption (D) Reproduction (E) Ingestion
B
6 The enzyme that curdles milk is_____________ (A) Pepsin (B) Ptyalin (C) Renin (D) Amylase(E) Trypsin
C
7 Which is the enzyme that begins digestion of starch in the mouth (A) Ptyalin (B) Maltase (C)Amylase (D) Sucrase (E) Lactase
A
8 A group of interacting populations in a particular habitat can be described as ___(A) biome (B)biosphere (C) community (D) population ecosystem (E) environment
C
9 A habitat can be defined as ___(A) a group of animals and plants living within a commonboundary (B) a place in which plants and animals live (C) a community living together in thesame place (D) different areas with a common animal and plant population (E) None of theabove
B
10 A symbiotic relationship in which one organism is completely dependent on another organism iscalled ____ (A) Parasitism (B) Commensalisms (C) Mutualism (D) Saprophytism (E) Competition
A
11 An association between two organisms where both members benefit is known as ___ (A)symbiosis (B) commensalism (C) ammensalism (D) mutualism (E) saprophytism
D
12 An instrument used in measuring the speed of wind is (A) a barometer (B) a wind gauge (C) awind vane (D) an anemometer (E) a hydrometer
D
13 At times hyenas feed on remains of animals killed by other animals At other times hyenasthemselves kill animals for food Therefore hyenas may best be described as ndashndash (A) scavengersand herbivores (B) scavengers and parasites (C) scavengers and predators (D) herbivores andpredators e herbivores and parasites
C
14 Autecology is defined as the study of interrelationship of (A) many species of organisms and theirenvironment (B) same species of organisms and their environment (C) organisms in theatmosphere (D) organisms under the earthrsquos surface (E)None of the above
B
15 Autotrophs are also described as ndashndash (A) Consumers (B) Decomposers (C) Carnivores (D)Producers (E) Herbivores
D
16 If three 30cm lengths of glass tubing are tightly packed with clay sand and loamy soilsrespectively and then stood in a beaker of water for one week the level of water will be (A)Lowest in the tube with clay (B) The same in all the tubes (C) Lowest in the tube with loamy soil(D) Highest in the tube with sandy soil (E) Lowest in the tube with sandy soil
E
17 In a community bacteria and fungi are referred to as ndashndash (A) producers (B) consumers (C)scavengers (D) tertiary consumers (E) decomposers
E
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
BIOLOGY
2
18 Puddles Ponds Rivers Seas and Oceans are grouped together as ndashndash (A) Ecosystem (B) Biosphere(C) Aquatic habitat (D) Terrestrial habitat (E) Marine environment
C
19 The feeding pattern in an ecosystem is calledhelliphelliphelliphellip (A) Pyramid of energy (B) Food web (C)Food chain (D) Pyramid of member (E) Ecology
B
20 The orderly changes that occur slowly and naturally in plant and animal communities in a givenarea over a period of time until a stable community is established is called ndashndash (A)Transformational change (B) ecological succession (C) survival of the fittest (D) weatherchange (E) environmental change
B
21 The sign + is used to indicate an association where an organism gains while 0 is used where anorganism is unaffected An association indicated as +0 is known as ndashndash (A) predation (B)commensalism (C) parasitism (D) competition (E) ammensalism
B
22 The sum total of all the roles an organism plays in a habitat is referred to as (A) ecology (B)ecosystem (C) habit (D) habitat (E) niche
E
23 Which of the following factors does not control population growth (A) Food shortage (B)Emigration (C) Predation (D) Abundance of food (E) Natural disaster
D
24 Which of the following statements best describe an ecosystem (A) A place where livingorganisms can live successfully (B) The interactions between living organism in a habitat and thenon-living part of the environment (C) A biological association between a plant and ananimal (D) A system of grouping organisms in a habitat (E) None of the above
B
25 Which of these represents a correct food chain in nature (A) Crustacea rarr diatom rarrfish rarr man (B) Diatom rarr crustacea rarr fish rarr man (C) Fish rarr crustacea rarr man rarr diatom (D) Diatom rarr fish rarr crustacea rarr man (E) None of the above
B
26 ___________ is involved in the mechanism of expelling water from the protozoans during theprocess of____________ (A) Contractile vacuole Osmoregulation (B) Contractile vacuolePhagocytosis (C) Food vacuole Ultrafilteration (D) Food vacuole Pinocytosis (E) Cell membranePinocytosis
A
27 ______________ is used for photosynthesis in Euglena sp (A) Reservoir (B) Nucleus (C)Chloroplast (D) Paramylon granule (E) Pellicle
C
28 A heart with four chambers is found in______________ (A) Fishes (B) Insects (C) Snails (D) Rats(E) Worms
D
29 Animal cell does not have a ____________ (A) Membrane (B) Nucleolus (C) Food Vacuole (D) Cellwall (E) Golgi body
D
30 Beriberi is caused by deficiency of vitamin_____________ (A) A (B) D (C) K (D) E (E) B E
31 Compound eyes are found in which of the animals below (A) Rat (B) Cow (C) Snail (D) Ant (E) Jellyfish
D
32 Dental formula of man consist of (A) i 22 c22 pm22 m33 (B) i11 c22 pm22 m33 (C)i22 c11 pm32 m22 (D) i22 c11 pm22 m22 (E) i22 c11 pm22 m33
E
33 During digestion of food passage of chyme through the duodenum enables it to become awatery liquid called__________ (A) Digested food (B) Chymatic product (C) Chyle (D) Solublefood (E) Dissolved food
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
BIOLOGY
3
34 Emulsification of fat and oils is caused by______________ (A) Lipase (B) Ptyalin (C) Trypsin (D)Maltase (E) Bile
E
35 Every mammal has (A) One Kidney (B) Two pairs of Kidneys (C) One pair of Kidneys (D) FourKidneys (E) None of the above
C
36 Faeces is removed from the body in a process called (A) Digestion (B) Egestion (C) Elimination(D) Excretion (E) Evacuation
B
37 Glomerulus is found in the______________ (A) Ovary (B) Testes (C) Brain (D) Kidney e)Stomach
D
38 In the respiratory system of man diffusion of gases takes place in (A) Trachea (B) Bronchi (C)Alveoli (D) Bronchioles (E) None of the above
C
39 Incisors are used for (A) Tearing food (B) Cutting food (C) Grinding food (D) Shearing food (E)Crushing food
B
40 Nematocysts are produced by special cells found in (A) Nematodes (B) Annelids (C)Platyhelminthes (D) Cnidarians (Coelenterates) (E) Arthropods
D
41 One of the following is not a function of the skin (A) Excretion (B) Protection (C) Homeostasis(D) Reproduction (E) Absorption of vitamin D
D
42 Open circulatory system is found in _____________ (A) Lizard (B) Toad (C) Fish (D) Insect (E)Chicken
D
43 Ovary is to the female reproductive system as________ is to the male reproductive system (A)Penis (B) Urethra (C) Testis (D) Cowperrsquos gland (E) Prostate gland
C
44 Possession of pinna is a characteristic feature of (A) Mammals (B) Reptiles (C) Fishes (D)Amphibians (E) All of the above
A
45 Tadpoles respire with (A) Lungs (B) Nostril (C) Gills (D) Spiracles (E) Siphon C
46 The excretory organ in the earthworm ishelliphelliphelliphellip (A) Malphigian tubule (B) Stoma (C)Nephriduim (D) Flame cells (E) Gills
C
47 The nerves that connect the eyes to the brain are called ndashndash (A) Cranial nerves (B) Optical nerves(C) Sensory nerves (D) Olfactory nerves (E) Optic nerves
E
48 The nerves that connect the eyes to the brain are called ndashndash (A) Cranial nerves (B) Optical nerves(C) Sensory nerves (D) Olfactory nerves (E) Optic nerves
E
49 The parasympathetic nervous system is involved in (A) Dilation of pupil of the eye (B) Controlthe activities of smooth muscles (C) Dilatation of the skin (D) Controls thinking in mammals (E)Increased metabolism
B
50 The part of the alimentary system of a bird where grinding of food occurs is (A) Crop (B)Stomach (C) Cloaca (D) Rectum (E) Gizzard
E
51 The part of the ear that contains receptors that convert the fluid motion into action potential iscalled ndashndash (A) Auditory nerve (B) Ossicles (C) Semicircular canals (D) Cochlea (E) Oval window
D
52 The thoracic region of the vertebral column is made up of __________ vertebrae (A) 5 (B) 7 (C) 4(D) 12 (E) 10
D
53 Which of the animal below is poikilothemic (A) Toad (B) Chicken (C) Bat (D) Lion (E) Dove A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
BIOLOGY
4
54 Which of the structures below is found in reptiles and birds (A) Scales (B) Legs (C) Beaks (D)Claws (E) All of the above
A
55 Which of these animals is photosynthetic (A) Paramecium sp (B) Amoeba sp (C) Euglena sp(D) Hydra sp (E) None of the above
C
56 Which of these organs regulate the amount of sugar in the blood (A) Liver (B) Kidney (C) Spleen(D) Lung (E) Pancreas
E
57 The basis for growth and asexual reproduction is (A) meiosis (B) cytokinesis (C) mitosis (D)Cytogenesis (E) Cell elongation
C
58 The process which ensures that the chromosome number for each species of organism remainconstant from generation to generation is called (A) fission (B) fusion (C) meiosis (D) mitosis(E) oogenesis
C
59 Which of the following is a major factor in variation among organisms (A) Inbreeding (B)Backcrossing (C) Test crossing (D) Sexual reproduction (E) Gene dominance
D
60 ____________ is an example of an invertebrate (A) Millipede (B) Fish (C) Toad (D) Snake (E) Skin A
61 ____________ is the odd one in the list below (A) Mosquito (B) Bee (C) Moth (D) Tick (E)Beetle
63 _____________ is an example of a unicellular organism (A) Amoeba sp (B) Hydra sp (C) Ascarissp (D) Taenia sp (E) Obelia sp
A
64 _____________ level is the highest level of organization in animals (A) System (B) Tissue (C)Organ (D) Cellular (E) Protoplasmic
A
65 Crocodiles are _____________ (A) Fishes (B) Amphibians (C) Mammals (D) Birds (E) None of theabove
E
66 The mutation theory of organic evolution was propounded by (A) Gregor Mendel (B) Hugo deVrics (C) Jean Lamarck (D) Charles Darwin (E) Robert Hookes
D
67 The theory of natural selection was developed by (A) Lamarck and Darwin (B) Darwin andWallace (C) Wallace and Mendel (D) Mendel and Lamarck (E) Hooke and Darwin
B
68 Which is the odd animal in the list below (A) Lizards (B) Snakes (C) Turtles (D) Tortoise (E) Toad E
69 Which of the following sources is not an evidence of evolution (A) Fossil records B Comparativeanatomy C Comparative embryology (D) Human behavior (E) None of the above
D
70 _______________ is an endoparasite (A) Earthworm (B) Tapeworm (C) Mosquito (D) Housefly (E)Tsetse fly
B
71 The causative agent of bird flu is a (A) Virus (B) Bacteria (C) Fungus (D) Protozoan (E) Ricketsia A
72 In lower plants like mosses the structure which performs the functions of roots of higher plantsis called (A) root hairs (B) rootlets (C) hyphae (D) rhizoids (E) thalli
D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
BIOLOGY
5
73 One common feature of fungi algae mosses and ferns is that they are (A) photosynthetic (B)show alternation of generation (C) can survive harsh weather conditions (D) have no seeds (E)conjugate
D
74 The following are major groups of the plant kingdom EXCEPT (A) Bryophyta (B) Chlorophyta (C)Pteridophyta (D) Spermatophyta (E) Thallophyta
B
75 _____________is a form of sexual reproduction (A) Grafting (B) Budding (C) Fission (D)Conjugation (E) Regeneration
D
76 Sexual reproduction in Spirogyra is called (A) Fertilization (B) Symbiosis (C) Conjugation (D)Reproduction (E) Mutualism
C
77 The carrier of the hereditary characters in plants is the (A) Cell (B) nucleus (C) chromosome (D)chloroplast (E) gene
E
78 All are necessary for photosynthesis except_____________ (A) Water (B) Chlorophyll (C)Sunlight (D) Carbon dioxide (E) Oxygen
E
79 Growing yam tendrils climb for support This growth response is (A) haptotropism (B) geotropism(C) phototropism (D) hydrotropism (E) chemotropism
A
80 Which is the correct order in an evolutionary sequence for the following plant groups (A)Bacteria rarr ferns rarr algae rarr mosses rarr seed plants (B) Bacteria rarr ferns rarr mosses rarr algae rarr seed plants (C) Bacteria rarr algae rarr mosses rarr ferns rarr seed plants (D) Bacteria rarr mosses rarr algae rarr ferns rarr seed plants (E) Seed plants rarr ferns rarr mosses rarr algae rarr bacteria
C
81 ------------ is not part of the whorls of a flower(A)calyx (B) corolla (C) androecium (D)Antheridium (E)Gynoecium
D
82 A dry fruit which can break into several parts each containing one seed is a (A) caryopsis (B)aggregate fruit (C) legume (D) follicle (E) schizocarp
E
83 A dry indehiscent winged fruit formed from one carpel is known as a (A) Schizocarp (B)Caryopsis (C) Samara (D) nut (E) Follicle
C
84 A true fruit is formed from (A) fertilized ovary and other floral parts (B) a fertilized ovary (C) afertilized ovary and calyx (D) a fertilized and fleshy receptacle (E) an unfertilized ovary and otherfloral parts
B
85 Irish potato is a (A) bulb (B) tap root (C) rhizome (D) root tuber (E) stem tuber D
86 One major difference between an Angiosperm and a Gymnosperm is that seeds in Gymnospermsare borne in (A) Cones (B) fruits (C) flowers (D) ovary (E) ovule
A
87 Reserved food material in the seed is stored in the (A) epicarp (B) endocarp (C) endosperm (D)mesocarp (E) all parts
C
88 What type of fruit is a mango fruit (A) Berry (B) Hesperidium (C) Drupe (D) Nut (E) Mango fruit C
89 Which of the following species exhibit an aerial root (A) Ficus (B) Centrosema (C) Antigonon(D) Lantana (E) Dahlia
A
90 Which of these plants has an emerginate apex (A) Bauhinia (B) Pistia (C) Ixora (D) Musa (E)Terminalia
A
91 Which plant stores food in its roots (A) Cassava (B) cocoyam (C) Irish potato (D) onion (E)yam
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
BIOLOGY
6
92 An example of Vascular tissues is -------------- (A) Trichome (B) Xylem (C) Stomata (D) Epidermis(E) Parenchyma
B
93 The living part of phloem tissue is (A) sieve plate (B) companion cell (C) sieve element (D)cytoplasm
B
94 Which of the following tissues are made up of dead cells (A) meristems (B) xylem vessels (C)cambium (D) mesophyll (E) palisade
B
95 A plant vacuole contains (A) dissolved chemicals sugars salts pigments and crystals (B) wasteproducts of metabolism DNA RNA and crystals (C) pigments crystals DNA and waste productsof metabolism (D) RNA DNA sugars and salts
A
96 Excessive loss of water in plants is known as (A) Osmosis (B) Osmoregulation (C) Transpiration (D)Excretion
C
97 Starch granules in plants is equivalent to _____________ granules in animals (A) Food (B)Chromatin (C) Lysosome (D) Mitochondria (E) Glycogen
E
98 Which of the following is a plant excretory product (A) Oil (B) Cytokinin (C) Resin (D)amino acids (E) gibberellins
C
99 A plant which grows on another without causing harm to the host plant is called ndashndash (A) aparasite (B) a saprophyte (C) an epiphyte (D) a predator (E) a prey
C
100 Plants which can survive in places where water supply is limited are (A) bryophytes (B)mesophytes (C) xerophytes (D) hydrophytes (E) pteridophytes
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
1
1 200 cm3 of air was passed over heated copper in a syringe several times to produce copper (II)oxide When cooled the final volume of air recorded was 158 cm3 Estimate the percentage ofoxygen in the air (A) 31 (B) 27 (C) 21 (D) 19
C
2 30cm3 of oxygen at 10 atmosphere pressures is placed in a 20dm3 container Calculate the newpressure if temperature is kept constant (A) 67 atm (B) 150 atm (C) 600 (D) 660
B
3 Bond dissociation energy of 500 KJ mol-1 may be assigned to (A) ionic bonding (B) covalentbonding (C) hydrogen bonding D) metallic bonding (E) van-der-waals bonding
A
4 A mixture of iron and sulphur can be separated by dissolving the mixture in __ (A) steam (B)dilute hydrochloric acid (C) dilute sodium hydroxide (D) benzene
B
5 A mixture of sand ammonium chloride and sodium chloride is best separated by __ (A)sublimation followed by addition of water and filtration (B) sublimation followed by addition ofwater and evaporation (C) addition of water followed by filtration and sublimation (D) additionof water followed by crystallization and sublimation
A
6 A pure solid usually melts __ (A) over a wide range of temperature (B) over a narrow range oftemperature (C) at a lower temperature than the impure one (D) at the same temperature asthe impure one
B
7 A small quantity of solid ammonium chloride was heated gently in a test tube the solidgradually disappeared to produce a mixture of two gases Later a white cloudy deposit wasobserved on the cooler part of the test tube The ammonium chloride is said to haveundergone __ (A) distillation (B) sublimation (C) precipitation (D) evaporation
B
8 CH4 has this geometry (A) trigonal (B) planar (C) tetrahedral (D) octahedral (E) linear C
9 Chlorine consisting of two isotopes of mass numbers 35 and 37 has an atomic mass of 355The relative abundance of the isotope of mass number 37 is ___ ( A)20 (B) 25 (C) 50 (D) 75
B
10 Elements P Q R S have 6 11 15 and 17 electrons respectively therefore (A) P will form anelectrovalent bond with R (B) Q will form a covalent bond with S (C)R will form an electrovalentbond with S (D) Q will form an electrovalent bond with S
D
11 In the oil drop experiment Millikan determined the (A) charge to mass ratio of the electron (B)mass of the electron (C) charge of the electron (D) mass of the proton
C
12 One of these atomic shells is the most stable (A) M (B) N (C) K (D) L (E) 0 C
13 Sieving is a technique used to separate mixtures containing 20 oxygen by volume Which ofthe reactants was in excess (A) Carbon (II) oxide (B) Oxygen (C) Carbon (IV) oxide (D) Nitrogen
A
14 The abnormally high boiling point of water is primarily due to (A) ionic bonding (B) covalentbonding (C) dative bonding (D) coordinate covalent bonding (E) hydrogen bonding
E
15 The energy required to remove an electron from the isolated gaseous atom is known as (A)electron affinity (B) bond energy (C) lonisation energy (D) electronegativity (E) electrovalency
C
16 The group that oxygen belongs to is collectively called (A) allotropes (B) halogens (C)chalcogens (D) alkenes (E) ozonides
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
2
17 The ideal gas equation is ___ ( A) P=nRT (B) PR =nVT (C) PV =gRT (D) V=kT (E) PV = K V A
18 The number of atoms in one mole of a substance is equal to (A) the atomic number (B) theAvogadrorsquos number (C) number of neutrons (D) number of electrons (E) gas constant
B
19 The number of electrons in the outermost shell of the atom represents its (A) period (B)number of shells (C) group (D) atomic number (E) electronegativity
C
20 The number of protons or electrons of an atom represents its (A) electronegativity (B) period(C) number of shells (D) group (E) atomic number
E
21 The partial pressure of oxygen in a sample of air is 500 mmHg If the total Pr pressure 780mmHg what is the mole fraction of the oxygen (A) 064 [B (B) 573 (C) 156 (D) 070 (E) 054
A
22 The periodic classification of the elements is an arrangement of the elements in order of their(A) atomic weights (B) isotopic weights (C) molecular weights (D) atomic numbers
D
23 The process of changing one element into another is called (A) radioisotope (B) radioactivity (C)dating (D) transmutation (E) nuclear reaction
D
24 The shapes of CO2 H2O and CH4 respectively are (A) bent linear and tetrahedral (B) benttetrahedral and linear (C) tetrahedral linear and bent (D) linear bent and tetrahedral
D
25 This compound exhibits ionic bonding (A) H20 (B) H2 (C) KC1 (D) NH3 (E) HF C
26 This type of bonding involves overlapping of orbitals during which electrons are shared (A)hydrogen bonding (B) covalent bonding (C) ionic bonding (D) metallic bonding (E) van-der-waals bonding
B
27 Which one of the following changes is physical (A) Adding iron filings to aerated water (B)Adding sodium metal to water (C) Cooling a solution of iron(II) sulphate to obtain the hydratedsalt (D) Cooling water to obtain ice
D
28 A side effect of soft water is that (A) it gives offensive taste (B) excess calcium is precipitated(C) it encourages the growth of bacteria (D) it attacks lead contained in pipes
D
29 Ammonia is very soluble in water because it is a an molecule (A) non-polar (B) polar (C)reactive (D) basic (E) acidic
B
30 Citrus fruits such as lemon and grape taste sour because they contain (A) ascorbic acid andcitric acid (B) citric acid and ascetic acid (C) citric acid and dilute HCl (D) citric acid and salicyclicacid (E) Sulphuric acid
A
31 Soap lather is an example of a colloid in which a (A) liquid is dispersed in gas (B) solid isdispersed in liquid (C) gas is dispersed in liquid (D) liquid is dispersed in liquid
C
32 The air around a petroleum refinery is most likely to contain(A) CO2 SO3 and N2O (B) CO2 COand N2O (C) SO2 CO and NO2 (D) PH3 H2O and CO2
C
33 The difference between colloids and suspensions is brought out clearly by the fact that whilecolloids (A) do not scatter light suspensions do (B) can be separated by filtration suspensionscannot be so separated (C) can be separated by a membrane suspensions cannot (D) do notsettle out on standing suspensions do
D
34 The following substances are non-electrolytes except (A) chloroform (B) sugar cane (C) aceticacid (D) NaCl (E) C and D
E
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
3
35 The hydrolysis of NH4Cl salt will give (A) acidic solution (B) neutral solution (C) basic solution(D) hot solution (E) all of the above
A
36 The pollutants that are likely to be present in an industrial environment are (A) H2S SO2 andoxides of nitrogen (B)NH3 HCl and CO (C) CO2 NH3 and H2S (D) dust NO and Cl2
A
37 What is the basicity of tetraoxosulphate (VI) acid (A) 2 (B) 1 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) 0 A
38 Which of the following gases is the most dangerous pollutant (A) Hydrogen sulphide (B)Carbon (IV) oxide (C) Sulphur (IV) oxide (D) Carbon (II) oxide
D
39 Which of the following ions is a pollutant in drinking water even in trace amount (A) Ca2+ (B)Hg2+ (C) Mg2+ (D) Fe2+
B
40 Which of the following is an example of a double salt (A) NH4Cl (B) alum (C) NaCO3 (D) AlCl3
(E) NaClB
41 016g of methane when burnt increases the temperature of 100g of water by 400(C) what isthe heat of combustion of methane if the heat capacity of water is 42 Jg-10C-1 (CH4=16) (A)1160kJmol-1 (B) 1180kJmol-1 (C) 1560kJmol-1 (D) 1600kJmol-1 (E) 1680kJmol-1
E
42 A charged car battery has ___ energy that can be converted into another energy called ___energy (A) Chemical electrical (B) mechanical chemical (C) heat mechanical (D) lightelectrical (E) light heat
A
43 Copper oxide is heated with charcoal to produce carbon monoxide and copper The reaction isan example of (A) both oxidation and reduction (B) neither oxidation and reduction (C)oxidation only (D) reduction only (E) neutralization
A
44 For each oxygen atom in hydrogen peroxide which acts as an oxidant there is an oxygen atomwhich acts as a an (A) Oxidant (B) reductant (C) oxidizing agent (D) catalyst (E) inhibitor
B
45 Given the change of phase CO2(g) changes to CO2(s) the entropy of the system (A) decreases(B) increases (C) remains the same
A
46 In which of the following is the entropy change positive (A) Reaction between an acid and abase (B) Addition of concentrated acid to water (C) Dissolution of sodium metal in water(D) Thermal dissociation of ammonium chloride
C
47 One of these elements is the best reducing agent (A) Pb (B) Rb (C) Al (D) In (E) N B
48 The name of the gas driven off at the negative electrode during the electrolysis of brine is ___( A) hydrogen (B) chlorine (C) oxygen (D) sodium (E) hydrogen chloride
B
49 The oxidation state of P in H2P2072- is ___ (A) -3 (B) +3 (C) +1 (D) +5 (E) -2 D
50 The oxidation state of S in Ca(HS03)2 is __ (A) +2 (B) -2 (C) +4 (D) -4 (E) +6 C
51 The oxidizing agent in the reaction 3Br2 + 6OH- = BrO3- + 5Br- + 3H2O is __ (A) Br2 (B) OH- (C)
BrO3- (D) e- (E) H2OA
52 When heat is absorbed during a chemical reaction the reaction is said to be ___(A) thermodynamic (B) exothermal (C) isothermal (D) endothermic (E) thermostatic
D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
4
53 Given the reaction at equilibrium 2CO(g) + O2(g) harr 2CO2(g) When the reaction is subjected tostress a change will occur in the concentration of (A) reactants only (B) products only (C)both reactants and products (D) neither reactants nor products
C
54 Given the reaction at equilibrium N2(g) + O2(g) harr 2NO(g) as the concentration of N2(g)increases the concentration of O2(g) will (A) decrease (B) increase (C) remains the same (D)vanishes (E) pours away
A
55 If a reaction is exothermic and there is a great disorder it means that (A) The reaction is in astate of equilibrium (B) There will be a large increase in free energy (C) There will be a largedecrease in free energy (D) The reaction is static
B
56 In the chemical reaction of A + B = C +D more of D is formed (A) if the concentration of A isreduced (B) if the concentration of B is reduced (C) if the concentration of C is reduced (D) ifthe concentration of C is increased (E) if it is continuously removed from the reaction mixture
E
57 In what way is equilibrium constant for the forward reaction related to that of the reversereaction (A) The addition of the two is expected to be one (B) The product of two isexpected to be one (C) The two equilibrium constants are identical (D) The product of thetwo is always greater than one
C
58 In which reaction will the point of equilibrium shift to the left when the pressure on the systemis increased (A) C(s) + O2(g) harr CO2(g) (B) CaCO3(s) harr CaO(s) + CO2(g) (C) 2Mg(s) + O2(g) harr 2MgO(s) (D) 2H2(g) + O2(g) harr2H2O(g)
B
59 The furring of kettles is caused by the presence in water of __ (A) calcium trioxocarbonate (IV)(B) calcium tetraoxosulphate (VI) (C) calcium hydroxide (D) calcium hydrogentrioxocarbonate(IV)
D
60 Which is a property of a reaction that has reached equilibrium (A) The amount of products isgreater than the amount of reactants (B) The amount of products is equal to the amount ofreactants (C) The rate of the forward reaction is greater than the rate of the reverse reaction(D) The rate of the forward reaction is equal to the rate of the reverse reaction
D
61 Which of the following combination of conditions many increase the rate of a chemicalreaction (A) Decrease in temperature increase in concentration of the reactant (B) Increase intemperature addition of a catalyst decrease in the surface area of the reactant (C) Increase intemperature increase in concentration addition of a catalyst and increase in the surface areaof the reactant (D) Decrease in temperature concentration and surface area of the reactants(E) Addition of catalyst and in the absence of light
C
62 ldquoQuicklimerdquo has the formula __ (A) Ca(OH)2 (B) CaO (C) CaCO3 (D) CaSO42H2O (E) CaCl2 B
63 A Transition metal is different from a non-transition metal because (A) it has an octetconfiguration (B) it is very stable (C) it is coloured (D) it has incomplete outer shell d-electrons(E) it has no electron in the d-orbital
D
64 Chlorine is produced commercially by (A) electrolysis of dilute HCl (B) electrolysis of brine (C)neutralization of HCl (D) heating potassium trioxochlorate (V) (E) action of dilute mineral acidson bleaching powder
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
5
65 Chlorine bromine and iodine resemble one another since they __ (A)dissolve in alkalis (B) reactviolently with H2 without heating (C)displace each other from solutions of their salts (D) aregases (E) are liquids
A
66 Liquid oxygen may be produced by condensation of air using this coolant (A) liquid phosphorus(B) liquid gas (C) liquid paraffin (D) liquid nitrogen (E) butane
D
67 One of these is another form of oxygen (A) hydroxide (B) ozone (C) peroxide (D) sulphoxide (E)water B
68 One of these metals is not an alkali metal (A) K (B) Cs (C) Sr (D) Rb (E) Fr C
70 The formation of ozone by reaction of O2 with atomic oxygen in UV light occurs in (A) upperatmosphere (B) inner atmosphere (C) stratosphere (D) hemisphere (E) none of these
A
71 The halogen which is chiefly produced commercially from sea water is ___ ( A) Fluorine (B)chlorine (C) Bromine (D) iodine (E) Astatine
B
72 The most stable allotropic form of sulphur at normal conditions is ___ ( A) monoclinic sulphur(B) rhombic sulphur (C) amorphous sulphur (D) plastic sulphur (E) ordinary sulphur
B
73 The products obtained when the following chemical reaction is completed and balancedarehellipHNO3 + Ca(OH)2 rarr ______ (A) CaNO3 + H2O (B) Ca(NO3)2 + 2 H2O (C) CaO + 2 NO2 + 3H2O(D) Ca + 2 NO3 + 2 H2O
B
74 What is the role of iron and Aluminium oxide in ammonia production (A) dehydrating agent(B) catalytic agent (C) oxidizing agent (D) bonding agent (E) preservative agent
B
75 When carbon IV oxide is bubbled through lime water the solution becomes milky dueformation of (A) Ca(HCO3)2 (B) CaCO3 (C) Ca(N03)2 (D)CaCl2 (E) CaSO4
B
76 Which of the following gases dissolves in water vapour to produce acid rain during rainfall (A)Oxygen (B) Carbon (II) oxide (C) Nitrogen (D) Sulphur (IV) oxide
D
77 Which of the following is not allotrope of carbon (A) diamond (B) graphite (C) buckminsterfullerene (D) all of the above (E) none of the above
E
78 Which oxide is amphiprotic (amphoteric) (A) MgO (B) NaO (C) CaO (D) ZnO (E) BeO D
79 Why will it always be more difficult to extract potassium ions from sea water than to extractmagnesium ions This is because (A) most potassium compounds are less soluble in water (B)most potassium compounds are quite soluble in water (C) presence of other alkali metal ionshas great influence on it (D) magnesium ion is an alkaline earth metal ion (E) None of theabove
B
80 ___________ can be used to test for reducing sugars (A) Iodine solution (B) bromine water (C)Fehlingrsquos solution (D) de-ionized water
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
6
81 2CH3COOH + Zn rarr The product of this reaction is (A) (CH3COO)2Zn + Zn (B) CH3COO CH3 +Zn (C) (CH3COO)2Zn + H2 (D) CH3COOH + CH4
C
82 A ketone reacts with hydroxylamine to give (A) a hydrazone (B) an alkanonitrile (C) a nitrosocompound (D) an oxime
D
83 Alkanoic acids are weak acids and ionises in solution to give (A) R+ + COOH (B) RCOO- + H+ (C)RCOO+ + H- (D) RCO+ + OH-
B
84 An excess of ethanol heated with concentrated H2SO4 at a temperature of 180oC is dehydratedto give mostly (A) ethane (B) ethene (C) ethanol (D) ethoxyethane
B
85 Butene can be distinguished from benzene by reaction with (A) Hydrochloric acid (B) Brominewater (C) Potassium sulphate (D) Sodium hydroxide
B
86 Detergent is more efficient than soap in cleansing clothes and dishes because of the followingreasons except that (A) the corresponding Ca and Mg compound formed is soluble in H2O (B)detergents are not affected by hardness of water (C) it cleans better than soap (D) it is lessexpensive
D
87 In the manufacture of soap industrially brine is used to__________the acid salt (A) oxidise(B) reduce (C) bleach (D) precipitate
D
88 Methane gas can be made from carbon (II) oxide gas according to the equation2CO(g) + 2H2(g) rarr CH4(g) + CO2(g) Calculate the mass of CO required to produce 875 x 1025
molecules of CH4 At masses C=12011 H= 1008 O = 15999 Avogadrorsquos no 6022 x1023molecules mole (A) 8140g (B) 4070g (C) 1600g (D) 3200g (E) 2035g
A
89 Potassium ethanoate is formed when (A) Methanoic acid reacts with KOH (B) Ethanoic acidreacts with KOH (C) Methanol reacts with KCO3 (D) Ethanol reacts with CH3COOH
B
90 Saponification is defined as (A) Acidic hydrolysis of fat or oil (B) Alkali hydrolysis of fat or oil(C) Condensation of two monomer units (D) Mixture of glacial ethanoic acid and excess ofsimple alkanol
B
91 Soaps and detergents have the same basic characteristics except that the carboxyl group of thefatty acid in detergent is replaced by (A) alcohol (B) sulphate or a sulphonate group (C) ester(D) acids
B
92 The relatively high boiling point of alkanols is due to (A) aliphatic character (B) ionic bonding(C) hydrogen bonding (D) covalent bonding
C
93 Two important sources of detergent are (A) fatoils and hydrocarbons (B) coal and cement (C)pulp and wood (D) water and gas
A
94 What is the process associated with conversion of vegetable oil to soap (A) Esterification (B)Saponification (C) hydrolysis (D) Acidification
B
95 When ethanal vapour is passed over manganese (II) ethanoate (manganese acetate) catalyst inthe presence of air the product is (A) ethanoate (B) ethanol (C) methanol (D) ethanoic acid
D
96 When KOH is used instead of NaOH in the production of soap it has the following advantagesexcept it gives (A) softer soap (B) harder soap (C) soap with lower melting point (D) moresoluble soap
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
7
97 When palm wine is left exposed to air for a few days it goes sour The bacteria in the airoxidises________ in palm wine to _________ (A) ethanol ethanoic acid (B) ethanoic acidethanol (C) ester ethanoic acid (D) ether ethanol
A
98 Which of the following is not true about benzoic acid (A) It is aromatic in nature (B) It can bemanufactured from methylbenzene (C) It has molecular formula C6H6COOH (D) It sublimesreadily
C
99 Which of the following reactions is correct (A) C6H5COOH + CaO rarr C6H5Ca + HCO3 (B)C6H5COOH + CaO rarr C6H6 + CaCO3 (C) C6H5COOH + PCl5 rarr C6H5Cl + H2PO4 (D) C6H5COOH +C2H5OH rarr C6H6 + C3H8COOH
B
100 Which of these is not a property of ethanedioic acid (A) It is a stronger acid than ethanoic acidbut weaker than inorganic acids (B) It is a reducing agent (C) It is an oxidising agent (D) It issoluble in cold water
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
USE OF ENGLISH
1
Read the passages below and answer the questions that follow
PASSAGE AEvery discernible observer could foresee the crisis which engulfed the Edo Houselast week Only a few days before reports were rife about the AC reaching out tosome PDP legislators to cross-carpet The intention being to gain a majority andthen assume the Speakership with the least constraint Zakawanu Garuba the thenSpeaker retorted with a fiat threatening to declare vacant the seat of any defectorThis in spite of the constitutional support for such action as evidenced forexample by the crisis that has torn the PDP apart in Edo State The party has twofactional chairmen in the state even though one is more vociferousThe desperate attempt by Garuba to cling to the Speakerrsquos chair is condemnable Hewas not being recalled from the legislature and so he still has his seat as a floormember As speaker he was only first among equals The Speakership is not hisbirthright With the defection of one PDP lawmaker to the AC the legislaturereconvened hours after the bloodbath and elected a protem Speaker whileimpeaching and suspending Garuba and a few others They are to be probed
(Adapted from The Guardian Thursday March 4 2011 p14)
1 Why did AC woo PDP membersA they are few in numberB they want speakership without stressC PDP members are faithfulD The House is tough
2 The legislators impeachedA GarubaB PDP lawmakersC Garuba and some PDP lawmakersD Garuba and some lawmwkers
3 According to the passage the constitution supportsA The speakerB DefectingC Edo StateD Factional chairmen
4 The lawmakers reconvenedA After the defection of a PDP memberB After the bloodbathC After suspending the SpeakerD After electing a protem Speaker
B
A
D
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
USE OF ENGLISH
2
5 At the end what happened to GarubaA He was vindicatedB He was indictedC He was honouredD He was humiliated
6 To cross-carpet as used in the passage means toA change partyB renew membership of a partyC change onersquos carpetD buy new carpet
7 The crisis in the Edo State House of Assembly could be predicted byA The lawmakersB Edo State indigenesC The protem SpeakerD All conscious observers
B
C
A
PASSAGE B
Nigeria has a troubled power sector which is however undergoing reforms thathopefully should usher in era of private sector dominance in terms of ownershipand management of generation and distribution In this transitory phase it is crucialto lay a foundation for local sourcing of vital inputs and make it the norm for theindustry That is the only way to prevent a replication of the trend in the oil and gassub-sector where capital flight is as much as $ 16 billion per annum as revealed bythe Petroleum Technology Development FundThe PHCN could legitimately insist on quality and standards in its procurement ofequipment and materials but what is playing out is an institutional orientationevinced in several pursuits of the PHCN that are contemptuous of Nigeriarsquosaspiration for local content development In 1998 the defunct National ElectricPower Authority defied a directive by the then Minister of Power and steel AlhajiBashir Dalhatu to source its costable components from Nigerian foundries some ofwhich are of high standards Actuated by a realization of idle capacity in thefoundries and the need to conserve foreign exchange the Minister appliedappropriate pressure on the management of NEPA but found his efforts frustratedThe acute shortage or inefficiency in the metering programme originated from thefact that the only local manufacturer then the Federal Government-ownedelectricity Meter Company in Zaria Kaduna State established in 1976 but sold toDantata Investments Limited in December 2002 is not performing(Adapted from The Punch Wednesday May 25 2011 Pg 18)
8 Why is there shortage of meterA Non-performance of PHCNB Non-performance of NEPAC Non-performance of the Federal Government-owned electricity
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
USE OF ENGLISH
3
Meter CompanyD Non-performance of Dantata Investment Ltd
9 According to the passage the solution to the problem in the power sector lies inA Sourcing for materials locallyB Getting costable componentsC Obeying the ministerD Getting $ 16 billion per annum
10 From the passage it is clear thatA There is money in the countryB There is shortage of electricity meterC NEPA is better than PHCND NEPA was formed in 1998
11 Which of these is not true of the power sectorA There is only one local manufacturer of electricity meterB The power sector is undergoing reformsC The problem of the power sector cannot be solvedD there was procurement of equipment and materials
12 Which of these is undergoing reformsA NEPAB PHCNC NigeriaD The power sector
13 A suitable title for this passage isA Nigeria and her problemsB NEPA versus PHCNC Electricity meterD Problems in the power sector
A
B
C
D
D
Choose the option that best completes the gap14 University students helliphelliphelliphelliphellipbehave well (A) can (B) should (C) may (D)
mustB
15 Gloria helliphelliphelliphellip have finished the project two days ago (A) must (B) may (C)can (D) supposed to
A
16 You are Goodluck (A) are you (B) arenrsquot you (C) arersquont you (D) donrsquotyou
B
17 He helliphelliphelliphelliphellip not come now (A) needs (B) needed (C) need (D) will need C18 Janet to know that we are all here (A) suppose (B) supposes (C) is
supposed (D) should supposeC
19 Let it be that there was no king in Ayegun (A)know (B) knew (C) known(D) knows
C
20 We shall see you soon (A) shall we (B) shanrsquot we (C) shouldnrsquot we (D)should we
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
USE OF ENGLISH
4
21 Neither of the presidential candidates suitable (A) are (B) is (C) is been(D) are been suitable
B
22 Ten miles ____ a great distance (A) is (B) are (C) is been A23 If I were the president I ask for the money (A) will (B) should (C) would
(D) canC
24 I will see you after I spoken with your supervisor (A) might have (B) have(C) will have (D) would have
B
25 ldquoYou - now see the directorrdquo the secretary told the visitors (A) can (B)may (C) should (D) would
B
26 She isnrsquot Gloria (A) is she (B) isnrsquot she (C) arenrsquot she (D) doesnrsquot she A27 We have a bus (A) didnrsquot we (B) havenrsquot we (C) doesnrsquot we (D) hasnrsquot
weB
28 I knew David let us down (A) may (B) will (C) might (D) can C29 You helliphelliphellip me last week (A) ought to see (B) ought to had seen (C) ought to
have seen (D) had to have seenC
30 Twenty dollars ___ enough for my lunch (A) are (B) is (c ) are just B31 The pests ____ our farm every year (A) invade (B) invades (c ) has invades A32 If I were the Governor I ask for the project (A) will (B) should (C) would
(D) canC
33 When helliphellip the Cleric today (A) doesarrives (B) doesarrived (C)doesarrive (D) do arrive
C
34 We shall see you soon (A) shall we (B) shanrsquot we (C) shouldnrsquot we (D)should we
B
35 You missed the match (A) donrsquot you (B) didnrsquot you (C) hadnrsquot you (D)doesnrsquot you
B
36 Walk the dog right now (A) walknrsquot you (B) will you (C)shall you(D)would you
B
37 I am a student (A) Irsquom I (B) arenrsquot I (C) isnrsquot I (D) wouldnrsquot I BPick out the oddwrong expression in each of the following
38 (A) I heard his supposed apology (B) I heard his unconvincing apology (C) Iheard his suppose apology (D) I heard he was supposed apology
D
39 (A) I suppose you know the way (B) I am supposed you know the way (C) Isuppose he knows the way (D) They suppose he knows the way
B
40 (A) I travel next week (B) I will travel next week (C) I suppose to travelnext week (D) I should travel next week
C41 (A) Having discovered the error he apologized (B) Having discovered the
error the apology was tendered (C) Having known the error he apologised(D) Having found out the error he tendered an apology B
42 (A) The job has been done (B) The job has been being done (C) They havedone the job (D) They can have done the job
D
43 (A) She must finish the project in two days (B) She must finish the project twodays ago (C) She must have finished the project two days ago (D) She ought tohave finished the project two days ago
B
44 (A) If I went in there I would beat the security officer (B) If I go in there Iwould beat the security officer (C) If I go in there I will beat the securityofficer (D) If I go in there I can beat the security officer
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
USE OF ENGLISH
5
Choose the option that most appropriately expresses the idea in theunderlined expression
45 My friendrsquos parentrsquos are magnanimous (A) rich and popular (B) sociable andlovable (C) kind and generous (D) wicked and stingy
C
46 My friend has an overbearing attitude toward me (A) patient (B) impatient(C) opinionated and domineering (D) considerate and respectful
C
47 There are a number of makeshift buildings in town (A) modern buildings (B)old fashion buildings (C) temporary buildings (D) permanent buildings
C
48 Post UME is a hurdle to cross (A) a necessary and simple exam to pass (B) anunnecessary and difficult exam to pass (C) an unnecessary but simple exam topass (D) a necessary and challenging exam to pass
D
49 His contribution to the project is invaluable (A) extremely useful (B) of novalue (C) of little value (D) can not be valued
A
50 That was a dawn-to-earth approach (A) poor (B) ordinary (C) practical (D)immodest
B
51 Concerning my admission I have to cross my fingers (A) wait and hope for thebest (B) wait in frustration (C) wait confidently (D) take some risk
A
52 My father is indifferent to my choice of University (A) supports (B) opposes(C) not decided (D) not concerned
D
53 We need an ad hoc arrangement towards the project (A) intelligent (B)advanced (C) permanent (D) temporary
D
54 The studentrsquos reply to the lecturer betrayed his rudeness (A) covered (B)showed (C) reduced (D) increased
C
55 His conduct in the last elections was above board (A) arrogant (B) honest (C)above average (D) excellent
C
56 That was a dispassionate decision (A) bias (B) personal (C) unaffected (D)ineffective
C
57 On the matter of worship some sit on the fence (A) go to the extreme (B) aredecisive (C) are fanatics (D) are undecided
D
Choose the option that is nearest in meaning to the word underlined58 In this matter we must be prepared to tolerate human frailty (A)
75 Her health deteriorated rapidly (A) worsened (B) improved (C) stagnated (D)declined
B
Which of the following sentences is correct76 (A) One should mind his business (B) One should mind onersquos business (C) One
should mind her businessB
77 (A) This case is between you and I (B) This case is between you and me (C)This case is between the two both of us
B
78 (A) With them around we have a great problem on our hands (B) With themaround we have a great problem on our hand (C) With them around wehave a great problem on hand
A
79 (A) The dog wagged itrsquos tail (B) The dog wagged its tail (C) The dog waggeditsrsquo tail
B
80 (A) A ten year old boy is missing (B) A ten-year-old boy is missing (C) A tenyear-old boy is missing
B
81 Choose the option that sounds the same with two (A) tool (B) too (C) tow (D)to
B
82 Choose the option that sounds the same with bear (A) bare (B) beer (C)bared (D) beard
B
83 Choose the option that sounds the same with the given word Key (A) kiss(B) quay (C) keyed (D) kissed
B
Choose the word that is correctly spelled84 (A) acomodation (B) accommodation (C) accomodation (D) acommodation B85 (A) embarrassment (B) embarassment (C) embarrasment (D) embarasment A86 (A) horrific (B) horific (C) horiffic (D) horriffic A87 As soon as Joy arrived she started looking for food The underlined
expression is an ----------- (A) adverbial phrase of reason (B) adverbial clauseof reason (C) adverbial phrase of time (D) adverbial clause of time
D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
USE OF ENGLISH
7
88 My friend a brilliant lecturer won many prizes The underlined expression isa(n) (A) adjectival clause (B) relative clause (C) appositive phrase (D)subject of lsquowonrsquo
C
89 I passed very well because I studied hard The underlined expression is a (A)relative clause introducer (B) linking verb (C) adverb of reason (D)subordinating conjunction
D
90 Bello and I love each other (A) preposition (B) reciprocal pronoun (C) nounphrase (D) adjectival phrase
B
91 I prefer writing to acting The underlined expressions is a(n) -------- (A) verb(B) participle (C) gerund (D) object
C
92 Having finished my assignment I started watching television The underlinedexpression is a(n) -------- (A) infinitive clause (B) gerund (C) participialphrase (D) noun clause
C
93 If you leave early yoursquoll meet Sola at home The underlined expression is a ----------- (A) nominal clause (B) verbal clause (C) conditional clause (D)adjectival clause
C
94 Wounded by a lion the hunter trudged home The underlined expression is a-----------(A) nominal clause (B) verbal clause (C) participial clause (D)adjectival clause
C
95 Irsquom proud of you The underlined expression functions as(A) prepositionalcomplement (B) adjectival complement (C) subject complement (D) verbalcomplement
B
96 A noun phrase lacks one of the following (A) noun (B) verb (C) adjective (D)adverb
B
97 Eve gave Adam an apple An apple in the sentence functions as------------(A)subject of the verb lsquogaversquo (B) direct object of the verb (C) indirect object ofthe verb (D) object complement
B
98 I wonder if you know where he lives This sentence is a(n) (A) thoughtfulstatement (B) polite command (C) indirect question (D) subtle exclamation
A
99 An example of gradable adjectives is hellip (A) each (B) beautiful (C) dead (D)live
B
100 A clause differs from a phrase because a clause contains helliphelliphellip (A) a largernumber of words (B) a fewer number of words (C) a finite verb (D) a non-finite verb
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
1
1 A ball is thrown up into the air At the highest point of its trajectory the ball (A) Is acceleratingdownwards (B) has zero acceleration (C) is accelerating upwards (D) is still moving upwards
B
2 A ball of mass 200 g moving with a velocity of 8 ms collides and sticks with another ball ofmass 300 g moving in the same direction with velocity 4 ms What is the common velocity ofthe balls after the collision (A) 56 ms-1 (B) 28 ms-1 (C) 112 ms-1 (D) 14 ms-1
A
3 A boy holds the end of a rubber cord from which hangs a solid metal ball if the boy whirls theball in a horizontal circle keeping his hand still If the rubber cord breaks when the ball is at apoint on the circle in what direction will the ball move (A) towards the hand of the boy Baway from the hand of the boy C in the direction of the tangent to the circle at the point ofbreak D None of the above
C
4 A force of 20 N applied parallel to the surface of horizontal table is just sufficient to make ablock of mass 4 kg set for motion Find the acceleration when the force is doubled (A) 2 ms-2
(B) 4 ms-2 (C) 5 ms-2 (D) 10 ms-2
C
5 A man walks 1 km due east and then 1 km due north His displacement is (A) 1 km N15degE (B) 1km N30degE (C) radic2 km N45degE (D) 2 km N75degE
C
6 A motor car moves with a velocity of 20 ms-1 on a rough horizontal road and covers adisplacement of 50 m Find the coefficient of dynamic friction between the type and theground (g = 10 ms-2) (A) 03 (B) 06 (C) 05 (D) 04
D
7 A physics student standing on the edge of a cliff throws a stone vertically downward with aninitial speed of 100 ms The instant before the stone hits the ground below it is traveling ata speed of 300 ms If the physics student were to throw the rock horizontally outward fromthe cliff instead with the same initial speed of 100 ms what is the magnitude of the velocityof the stone just before it hits the ground(A) 100 ms (B) 200 ms (C) 300 ms (D) 400 ms
C
8 A quantity is defined as the product of cross-sectional area and change in momentum per unitlength Which of the following is its SI unit (A) Nm (B) kgs-1 (C) kgm2s-1 (D) Nkgs-1
C
9 A rectangular concrete block 40 cm x 30 cm x 60 cm of mass 10 kg rests on a horizontal flatsurface What is the minimum pressure it can possibly exert on the surface (A) 8166 Nm-2
(B) 816 6 Nm2 (C) 4083 Nm-2 (D) 6084 Nm
C
10 A simple hydrometer consists of uniform cylinder suitably weighted to float upright in mostcommon liquids It is graduated to read the relative density of a liquid directly Which of thefollowing is NOT correct (A) When placed in a liquid it displaces exactly its own weight of theliquid (B) Its graduation increases from top to base (C) When placed in a liquid it displacesexactly its own volume of the liquid (D) The product of the volume and density of liquiddisplaced is equal to its mass
C
11 A stone which is dropped into a dry well hits the bottom in 22 s How deep is the well (Takeg=10ms) (A) 404 m (B) 24 m (C) 484 m (D) 242 m
D
12 A woman whose mass is 70 kg sits 24 m from the fulcrum of a seesaw At what distance fromthe fulcrum should a 60 kg man sit to balance the seesaw (A) 28 m (B) 24 m (C) 32 m (D)38 m
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
2
13 An air bubble trapped at a depth in a liquid rises to the surface Which of the following is trueabout its mass and density as it rises (A) Its mass and density increase (B) Its mass is constantwhile its density decreases (C) Its mass and density is constant (D) Its mass is constant whileits density increases
B
14 Complete the following sentence The operation of a hydraulic jack is an application of (A)Pascals principle B Archimedesrsquo principle (C) Bernoullis principle (D) irrotational flow
A
15 Complete the following statement Today the standard meter is defined in terms of (A) thedistance from the earthrsquos equator to the north pole (B) the wavelength of light emitted from akrypton atom (C) the wavelength of light emitted from a sodium atom (D) the speed of light
D
16 Convert 30 metre per second to centimeter per minute (A) 20000 cmmin (B) 180000cmmin (C) 120000 cmmin (D) 150000 cmmin
B
17 During a football match player A kicks the ball 40 m 30o E of S to player B who instantly kicks it30 m 60o E of N What is the magnitude of the resultant displacement of the ball (A) 30 m (B)40 m (C) 50 m (D) 60 m
C
18 How much work is done against gravity in sliding a 500g object through 2 m up a smooth planethat is inclined at 30o to the horizontal (g = 98 ms-2) (A) 98 J (B) 198 J (C) 162 J (D) 49 J
D
19 If a small body of mass m is moving with angular velocity ω in a circle of radius r what is itskinetic energy (A) mω r (B) m ω 2r2 (C) m ω r22 (D) m ω 2r22
D
20 In free fall two balls of masses 20 kg and 10 kg were dropped from a height If the ball withthe smaller mass reached the ground after 4 s what is the difference between the time thetwo balls reach the ground (A) 8 s (B) 2 s (C) 0 s (D) 4 s
C
21 In what distance can a 1500 kg automobile be stopped if the brake is applied when the speedis 20 ms and the coefficient of sliding friction is 07 between the tyres and the ground(A) 9810 m (B) 7167 m (C) 2915 m (D) 2010 m
C
22 The highest point of a simple pendulum bob is 5cm vertically above the lowest point as itswings to and fro between the two extreme ends At what velocity does it swing past thelowest point (equilibrium point) where the string is vertical (take g = 10 ms2) (A) 1 ms (B) 2ms (C) 5 ms (D) 10 ms
A
23 Three vectors A B and C add together to yield zero A + B + C = 0 The vectors A and C point inopposite directions and their magnitudes are related by the expression A = 2C Which one ofthe following conclusions is correct (A) A and B have equal magnitudes and point in oppositedirections (B) B and C have equal magnitudes and point in the same direction (C) B and Chave equal magnitudes and point in opposite directions (D) A and B point in the samedirection but A has twice the magnitude of B
B
24 Which of the following could be measured in the same units as force (A) Energydistance (B)Energy x distance (C) Energytime (D) Momentum x distance
A
25 Which of the following does not affect the pressure at a point beneath the surface of a liquid(A) Surface area of the liquid (B) Density of the liquid (C) Depth of the point below thesurface (D) Strength of the gravitational field
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
3
26 Which of the following pairs contains one vector and one scalar quantity (A) Displacementacceleration (B) Force kinetic energy (C) Momentum velocity (D) Power speed
B
27 Which of the following statements is correct (A) uniform speed always implies uniformvelocity (B) uniform speed always implies zero acceleration (C) uniform speed may imply non-zero acceleration (D) constant momentum implies constant acceleration
C
28 Which of the of the following is a measurement taken with Venier callipers (A) 20 cm (B)200 cm (C) 2000 cm (D) 20000 cm
B
29 Which of the units of the following physical quantities are derived I Area II Thrust IIIPressure IV Mass (A) I II III and IV (B) I II and III only (C) I II and IV only (D) I and II only
B
30 Which one of the following situations is not possibleA A body has zero velocity and non-zero accelerationB A body travels with a northward velocity and a northward accelerationC A body travels with a constant velocity and a time-varying accelerationD A body travels with a constant acceleration and a time-varying velocity
C
31If C is the thermal capacity of a material of mass m and S is its specific heat capacity then (A)C= sm (B) S = Cm (C) C = Sm (D) DS = ms
C
32 A black car can be more uncomfortably hot on a warm day than a white car because (A) it ishot on a warm day (B) a black object is a better absorber of heat (C) black cars have heatersinstalled in them (D) white cars have air conditioning systems installed in them
B
33 A little sag is left in overhead telephone wires (A) because taut wires do not conduct soundeasily (B) to allow for the effect of a rise in temperature due to heating effect of currentflowing through them (C) to allow for the effect of a rise in temperature of the surroundingatmosphere (D) to allow for the effect of a fall in temperature of the surroundingatmosphere
D
34 A piece of copper wire of length 100 cm at 30oC is heated to 120oC If its linear expansivity is18 times10-4 k its new length is (A) 1666 cm (B) 1016 cm (C) 1806 (D) 108 cm
B
35 A sample of a monatomic ideal gas is originally at 20 degC What is the final temperature of thegas if both the pressure and volume are doubled (A) 5 degC (B) 80 degC (C) 20 degC (D) 899 degC
B
36 A volatile liquid used for cooling purpose in refrigerator is (A) liquid ammonia (B) cold water(C) liquid nitrogen (D) liquid helium
A
37 Complete the following statement A temperature decrease of 30 Cdeg is equal to a temperaturedecrease of (A) 30 Fdeg (B) 17 Fdeg (C) 30 K (D) 86 Fdeg
D
38 Complete the following statement Bimetallic strips used as adjustable switches in electricappliances consist of metal strips that must have different (A) mass (B) volume (C) length(D) expansion coefficients
D
39 Heat can be transferred from one end of a metal rod in contact with heat to the other endwhich is in contact with heat through (A) Conduction (B) Convection (C) Radiation (D)Evaporation
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
4
40 Heat supplied or removed from a system which causes a change of state without a change intemperature is (A) Specific heat (B) Heat capacity (C) Latent heat (D) Boiling heat
C
41 How many atmospheres of pressure must a litre of gas initially at a pressure of 1 atmosphereand temperature -20oC be after it has been compressed to frac12 litre at 40oC A 247 atm(B) 45 atm (C) 80 atm (D) 38 atm (E) 168 atm
A
42 On a cold day a good conductor X feels colder to the torch than a poor conductor Y because(A) Y retains more heat than X (B) the temperature of X is lower than that of Y (C) X conductsheat from the body less rapidly than Y (D) X transfers heat from body more rapidly than Y
D
43 The boiling point of water does not depend on (A) the impurities in water (B) the externalpressure (C) the quantity of water (D) all of the above
C
44 The ice and steam points of a local liquid in glass thermometer are 10 a and 90a respectivelyWhat will the thermometer read when the temperature is 30 0C (A) 40a (B) 38a (C) 36a(D) 34a
D
45 The lower and upper fixed points on a thermometer are 40 and 120 respectively Its reading at60oC is (A) 60 (B) 40 (C) 160 (D) 88
D
46 The pressure exerted by a given mass of gas in a container (A) Decreases if the container isheated (B) Increases if the molecules of the gas move faster (C) Increases if the volume of thecontainer is doubled (D) Decreases as the kinetic energy of the gas molecules increases
B
47 The temperature in an electric iron is regulated by (A) thermometer (B) bimettalic strip (C)steel (D) conductor
B
48 Water has an anomalous behavior between 0o and 4oC Which of the following is correct (A)Mass of water increases between 0oC and 4oC (B) Density of water decreases between 0oC and4oC (C) Volume of water increases between 0oC and 4oC (D) Volume of water decreasesbetween 0oC and 4oC
D
49 What is the Celsius equivalent of 500deg F (A) 10deg C (B) 20deg C (C) 30deg C (D) 40deg C A
50 When water is heated in a glass vessel the level first falls and then rises because (A) Theapparent expansion of the water is initially small and later increases (B) There is anomalousexpansion of water (C)The glass vessel does not expand (D)Glass vessel expands first beforewater starts a more rapid expansion
D
51 Which of the following quantities of water has undergone the greatest change from its heatcontent at melting point (A) 05 kg of water at 3oC (B) 02 kg of water at 8oC (C) 0005 kg ofwater at 80oC (D) 01 kg of water at 12oC
B
52 Which would cause a more serious burn 30 g of steam or 30 g of liquid water both at 100 degC
and why is this so
(A) Water because it is denser than steam (B) Steam because of its specific heat capacity
(C) Steam because of its latent heat of vaporization (D) Water because its specific heat is
greater than that of steam
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
5
53 A certain radioactive element has a half life of 20 years How long will it take the activity tobecome frac14 of its original(A) 20 years (B) 40 years (C) 60 years (D) 80 years
B
54 A plane progressive wave is represented by xty 20100sin2 where all the symbols
have their usual meanings What is the velocity of the wave
(A) 500 m s-1 (B) 400 m s-1 (C) 200 m s-1 (D) 100 m s-1
A
55 A point on a stationary wave where there is no movement of the medium is called (A) Node(B) Antinode (C) Note (D) Amplitude
A
56 A uniform wave has a speed of 10ms and a period of 05 s The distance between two nearestcrests is (A) 02 m (B) 20 m (C) 2 m (D) 5 m
D
57 A vibrating string has a tension of 40 and produces a note of whenݖܪ200 plucked in themiddle When the length of string is unaltered and the tension is increased to160 thefrequency becomes(A) ݖܪ1600 (B) ݖܪ800 (C) ܪ400 (D) ݖܪ200
C
58 An organ pipe closed at one end is 80cm long Determine the frequency of the fundamentalnote assuming that the speed of sound in air is 340ms (A) 213Hz (B) 318Hz (C) 425Hz (D)106Hz
D
59 As transverse wave moves through a medium the particles of the medium (A) vibrate in apath parallel to the path of the wave (B) do not move (C) vibrate in a path perpendicular tothe path of the wave (D) vibrate at an angle of 60o to the path of the wave
C
60 The sound heard after the reflection of sound wave from a plane surface is known as (A) Echo(B) Refraction (C) Vibration (D) Revibration
A
61 Which of the following properties is not common to all waves (A) Reflection (B) interference(C) Diffraction (D) Polarization
D
62 Which of the following statements is true about electromagnetic waves (A) They arelongitudinal (B) They can be seen (C) They have the same frequency in vacuum (D) They travelat the same speed in a vacuum
D
63 Which one of the following statements concerning electromagnetic waves is false (A)Electromagnetic waves are longitudinal waves (B) Electromagnetic waves transfer energythrough space (C) The existence of electromagnetic waves was predicted by Maxwell (D)Electromagnetic waves can propagate through a material substance
A
64 Which one of the following statements concerning waves is false (A) A wave can have bothtransverse and longitudinal components (B) A wave carries energy from one place to another(C) A wave does not result in the bulk flow of the material of its medium (D) A transversewave is one in which the disturbance is parallel to the direction of travel
D
65 A light sensitive area at the back of the eye where images are formed is called (A) Yellow Spot(B) Iris (C) Ciliary Muscle (D) Retina
D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
6
66 A luminous object is placed at a given distance from a converging lens of focal length 12cm anda real image is produced Find the image distance if it is equal to the object distance (A) 6cm(B) 3cm (C) 12cm (D) 24cm
D
67 An object is placed 15 cm in front of a concave mirror of radius 40 cm The image formed is(A) virtual and 60 cm behind the mirror (B) real and 60 cm in front of the mirror (C) virtual and40 cm from the mirror (D) at infinity
B
68 How far from a concave mirror of radius 120 cm must an object be placed such that its erectimage is four times its natural size (A) 72 cm (B) 64 cm (C) 45 cm (D) 50 cm
C
69 How many images are formed when an object is placed in front of two plane mirrors that areinclined at angle 30o to each other (A) 0 (B) 6 (C) 11 (D) 12
C
70 Professor Peters walks directly toward a plane mirror at a speed of 025 ms Determine thespeed of the image relative to him(A) 013 ms (B) 050 ms (C) 025 ms (D) 075 ms
B
71 The angle of incidence in a denser medium when the angle of refraction in the less dense
72 The driving mirror is a (A) plane mirror (B) convex mirror (C) concave mirror (D) thick planemirror
B
73 The following are types of a converging lens except(A) biconvex (B) plano-convex (C) mini-convex (D) converging meniscus
C
74 When the Sun the earth and the moon are in line during their movement with the earth beingthe opaque object and casting its shadow on the moon we have (A) Lunar eclipse (B) Totaleclipse (C) Partial eclipse (D) Annular eclipse
A
75 Which of the following instruments could be used in finding angle of elevation of the sun (A)Periscope (B) Telescope (C) Kaleidoscope (D) Sextant
D
76 Which of the following optical instruments does not depend on the use of plane mirrors (A)Kaleidoscope (B) Simple microscope (C) Sextant (D) Simple periscope
B
77 Which of the following statements supports the assumption that light travels in straight lines(A) light can be diffracted (B) light can be reflected (C) a source of light produces
interferences patterns on a suitably placed screen (D) a source of light produces distinctshadows of opaque objects
D
78Which of the following is correct about nuclear fission It is (A) the splitting of a heavynucleus into two or more lighter particles (B) an agent used to slow down neutrons in acontrolled atomic chain reaction (C) combing light atomic nuclei to form heavy (D) thespontaneous disintegration occurring in the nucleus of certain atoms
A
79 A light energy E falls on a metal and the electrons with a maximum kinetic energy of 02eV areejected If the work function of the metal is 03eV what is the value of E (A) 010eV (B)006eV (C) 050eV (D) 150eV
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
7
80 A nucleus is unstable if (A) it has two or more isotopes (B) its binding energy is not sufficientto hold nuclear particles together (C) it is very light with very low density (D) it has nosignificant mass
B
81 A radioactive substance has a half life of 4 years If its activity today is 200 dps its activity in 8years from today is (A) 50 dps (B) 25 dps (C) 20 dps (D) 10 dps
A
82 A substance has a half-life of 3min After 6min the count rate was observed to be 400Whatwas its count rate at zero time (A) 2400 (B) 200 (C) 1200 (D) 1600
D
83 An element and its isotopes differ only in the number of (A) electrons (B) neutrons (C)protons (D) irons
B
84 Complete the following sentence When electrons from a heated filament accelerate throughvacuum toward a positive plate (A) only an electric field will be produced (B) only amagnetic field will be produced (C) electromagnetic waves will be produced (D) longitudinalwaves will be produced
C
85 Radioactive elements are (A) chemically reactive elements (B) noble elements (C) rare earthelements (D) elements that spontaneously emit radiation
D
86 The following radiations are electrically neutral except (A) α-rays (B) ϒ-rays (C) X- rays (D)neutrons
A
87 Upon which one of the following parameters does the energy of a photon depend (A) mass(B) polarization (C) amplitude (D) frequency
D
88 Which of the following is NOT true about cathode ray (A) It moves in a straight line (B) Itcauses fluorescence (C) It possesses a negative charge (D) It can produce -particles
D
89 Who proposed the planetary model of the nucleus (A) J J Thomson (B) Albert Einstein (C)Ernest Rutherford (D) Marie Curie
C
90 X- rays cannot be used (A) to take photographs of bone structure in the body (B) to detectfinger prints (C) to detect flaws in metal castings (D) to detect alterations to works of art
B
91 1 farad is equivalent to (A) 1 coulombvolt (B) 1 voltcoulomb (C) 1 joulescoulomb (D) 1amperesec (E) volts per unit charge
A
92 A 0 - 10mA galvanometer with a coil resistance of 30 ohm can be converted to a 0-10Aammeter by using (A) 003ohm series resistor (B) 999ohm shunt resistor (C) 003ohm shuntresistor (D) 999ohm series resistor
C
93 A battery has an internal resistance of 4 and an emf of 12V The terminal voltage when a loadof 20 Ω is connected across it is (A) 4 (B) 10 V (C) 20 V (D) 2V
B
94 A conducting sphere has a net charge of 48 1017 C What is the approximate number ofexcess electrons on the sphere if the fundamental natural charge is -16 x 10-19C (A) 100 (B)300 (C) 200 (D) 400
B
95 A magnet cannot be demagnetized by (A) heating (B) hammering (C) chemical treatment (D)the use of solenoid through which an alternating current is flowing
C
96 An ac voltage is connected to an RLC series circuit of resistance 5 Ω inductance 3 mH and acapacitance of 005 microF Calculate the resonance frequency (A) 110 kHz (B) 120 kHz (C)130 kHz (D) 140 kHz
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
8
97 An electric heater converts 1KJ of electrical energy to heat energy every 2 second with 100efficiency The power produced is (A) 05 KW (B) 2 KW (C) 1KW (D) 10W
A
98 Complete the following statement The electromotive force is (A) the maximum potentialdifference between the terminals of a battery (B) the force that accelerates electrons througha wire when a battery is connected to it (C) the force that accelerates protons through a wirewhen a battery is connected to it (D) the maximum capacitance between the terminals of abattery
A
99 If a charged body is moving in a circle on a horizontal plane what is the general direction ofthe resulting magnetic field (A) In the plane of the circle (B) At an angle 45o to the plane ofmotion (C) Along the perpendicular axis through the center of the circle (D) Along thetangent to the circle
C
100 If a resistor is halved in magnitude and the potential across it is tripled then the ratio of theold current to the new current is (A) 13 (B) 31 (C) 61 (D) 16
D
101 The angle between the earthrsquos magnetic field and the horizontal is called angle of (A)declination (B) dip (C) variation (D) inclination
B
102 The basic difference between the galvanometer and the electric motor is (A) The size of themagnetic fields (B) The presence of hair springs in the galvanometer (C) The soft ironarmature in the galvanometer (D) The couple formed on the parallel sides of the rectangularcoil in the
B
103 The electromotive force is in such a direction as to oppose the motion or charge producing itThis is a statement of (A) Faradayrsquos Law (B) Lenz Law (C) Maxwell Law (D) Amperersquos law
B
104 The potential difference across the ends of a wire is doubled in magnitude If Ohmrsquos law isobeyed one of the following statements concerning the resistance of the wire is true (A) Theresistance is one half of its original value (B) The resistance is twice its original value (C) Theresistance is not changed (D) The resistance increases by a factor of four
C
105 The process of adding impurity to a semiconductor to increase its conductivity is called (A)Doping (B) Annealing (C) Heating (D) Hardening
A
106 Which if the following combinations consists of intrinsic properties of materials (A) volumeand density (B) density and mass (C) resistance and resistivity (D) density and resistivity
C
107 Which of the following can be measured with a potentiometer (A) Emf of a secondary cell (B)Resistivity of a wire (C) Potential difference across a conductor (D) Resistance of a wire
A
108 Which of the following devices is odd in the list (A) thermocouple (B) potentiometer (C) dcgenerator (D) solar cell
B
109 Which of the following is an essential physical property of the wires used for making fuses (A)high thermal conductivity (B) low density (C) low melting point (D) low electrical resistivity
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
9
110 Which one of the following statements concerning the magnetic force on a charged particle ina magnetic field is true (A) It is a maximum if the particle is stationary (B) It is a maximum ifthe particle moves parallel to the field (C) It acts in the direction of motion for a positivelycharged particle (D) It depends on the component of the particles velocity that isperpendicular to the field
D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
1
1 A ball is thrown up into the air At the highest point of its trajectory the ball (A) Is acceleratingdownwards (B) has zero acceleration (C) is accelerating upwards (D) is still moving upwards
B
2 A ball of mass 200 g moving with a velocity of 8 ms collides and sticks with another ball ofmass 300 g moving in the same direction with velocity 4 ms What is the common velocity ofthe balls after the collision (A) 56 ms-1 (B) 28 ms-1 (C) 112 ms-1 (D) 14 ms-1
A
3 A boy holds the end of a rubber cord from which hangs a solid metal ball if the boy whirls theball in a horizontal circle keeping his hand still If the rubber cord breaks when the ball is at apoint on the circle in what direction will the ball move (A) towards the hand of the boy Baway from the hand of the boy C in the direction of the tangent to the circle at the point ofbreak D None of the above
C
4 A force of 20 N applied parallel to the surface of horizontal table is just sufficient to make ablock of mass 4 kg set for motion Find the acceleration when the force is doubled (A) 2 ms-2
(B) 4 ms-2 (C) 5 ms-2 (D) 10 ms-2
C
5 A man walks 1 km due east and then 1 km due north His displacement is (A) 1 km N15degE (B) 1km N30degE (C) radic2 km N45degE (D) 2 km N75degE
C
6 A motor car moves with a velocity of 20 ms-1 on a rough horizontal road and covers adisplacement of 50 m Find the coefficient of dynamic friction between the type and theground (g = 10 ms-2) (A) 03 (B) 06 (C) 05 (D) 04
D
7 A physics student standing on the edge of a cliff throws a stone vertically downward with aninitial speed of 100 ms The instant before the stone hits the ground below it is traveling ata speed of 300 ms If the physics student were to throw the rock horizontally outward fromthe cliff instead with the same initial speed of 100 ms what is the magnitude of the velocityof the stone just before it hits the ground(A) 100 ms (B) 200 ms (C) 300 ms (D) 400 ms
C
8 A quantity is defined as the product of cross-sectional area and change in momentum per unitlength Which of the following is its SI unit (A) Nm (B) kgs-1 (C) kgm2s-1 (D) Nkgs-1
C
9 A rectangular concrete block 40 cm x 30 cm x 60 cm of mass 10 kg rests on a horizontal flatsurface What is the minimum pressure it can possibly exert on the surface (A) 8166 Nm-2
(B) 816 6 Nm2 (C) 4083 Nm-2 (D) 6084 Nm
C
10 A simple hydrometer consists of uniform cylinder suitably weighted to float upright in mostcommon liquids It is graduated to read the relative density of a liquid directly Which of thefollowing is NOT correct (A) When placed in a liquid it displaces exactly its own weight of theliquid (B) Its graduation increases from top to base (C) When placed in a liquid it displacesexactly its own volume of the liquid (D) The product of the volume and density of liquiddisplaced is equal to its mass
C
11 A stone which is dropped into a dry well hits the bottom in 22 s How deep is the well (Takeg=10ms) (A) 404 m (B) 24 m (C) 484 m (D) 242 m
D
12 A woman whose mass is 70 kg sits 24 m from the fulcrum of a seesaw At what distance fromthe fulcrum should a 60 kg man sit to balance the seesaw (A) 28 m (B) 24 m (C) 32 m (D)38 m
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
2
13 An air bubble trapped at a depth in a liquid rises to the surface Which of the following is trueabout its mass and density as it rises (A) Its mass and density increase (B) Its mass is constantwhile its density decreases (C) Its mass and density is constant (D) Its mass is constant whileits density increases
B
14 Complete the following sentence The operation of a hydraulic jack is an application of (A)Pascals principle B Archimedesrsquo principle (C) Bernoullis principle (D) irrotational flow
A
15 Complete the following statement Today the standard meter is defined in terms of (A) thedistance from the earthrsquos equator to the north pole (B) the wavelength of light emitted from akrypton atom (C) the wavelength of light emitted from a sodium atom (D) the speed of light
D
16 Convert 30 metre per second to centimeter per minute (A) 20000 cmmin (B) 180000cmmin (C) 120000 cmmin (D) 150000 cmmin
B
17 During a football match player A kicks the ball 40 m 30o E of S to player B who instantly kicks it30 m 60o E of N What is the magnitude of the resultant displacement of the ball (A) 30 m (B)40 m (C) 50 m (D) 60 m
C
18 How much work is done against gravity in sliding a 500g object through 2 m up a smooth planethat is inclined at 30o to the horizontal (g = 98 ms-2) (A) 98 J (B) 198 J (C) 162 J (D) 49 J
D
19 If a small body of mass m is moving with angular velocity ω in a circle of radius r what is itskinetic energy (A) mω r (B) m ω 2r2 (C) m ω r22 (D) m ω 2r22
D
20 In free fall two balls of masses 20 kg and 10 kg were dropped from a height If the ball withthe smaller mass reached the ground after 4 s what is the difference between the time thetwo balls reach the ground (A) 8 s (B) 2 s (C) 0 s (D) 4 s
C
21 In what distance can a 1500 kg automobile be stopped if the brake is applied when the speedis 20 ms and the coefficient of sliding friction is 07 between the tyres and the ground(A) 9810 m (B) 7167 m (C) 2915 m (D) 2010 m
C
22 The highest point of a simple pendulum bob is 5cm vertically above the lowest point as itswings to and fro between the two extreme ends At what velocity does it swing past thelowest point (equilibrium point) where the string is vertical (take g = 10 ms2) (A) 1 ms (B) 2ms (C) 5 ms (D) 10 ms
A
23 Three vectors A B and C add together to yield zero A + B + C = 0 The vectors A and C point inopposite directions and their magnitudes are related by the expression A = 2C Which one ofthe following conclusions is correct (A) A and B have equal magnitudes and point in oppositedirections (B) B and C have equal magnitudes and point in the same direction (C) B and Chave equal magnitudes and point in opposite directions (D) A and B point in the samedirection but A has twice the magnitude of B
B
24 Which of the following could be measured in the same units as force (A) Energydistance (B)Energy x distance (C) Energytime (D) Momentum x distance
A
25 Which of the following does not affect the pressure at a point beneath the surface of a liquid(A) Surface area of the liquid (B) Density of the liquid (C) Depth of the point below thesurface (D) Strength of the gravitational field
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
3
26 Which of the following pairs contains one vector and one scalar quantity (A) Displacementacceleration (B) Force kinetic energy (C) Momentum velocity (D) Power speed
B
27 Which of the following statements is correct (A) uniform speed always implies uniformvelocity (B) uniform speed always implies zero acceleration (C) uniform speed may imply non-zero acceleration (D) constant momentum implies constant acceleration
C
28 Which of the of the following is a measurement taken with Venier callipers (A) 20 cm (B)200 cm (C) 2000 cm (D) 20000 cm
B
29 Which of the units of the following physical quantities are derived I Area II Thrust IIIPressure IV Mass (A) I II III and IV (B) I II and III only (C) I II and IV only (D) I and II only
B
30 Which one of the following situations is not possibleA A body has zero velocity and non-zero accelerationB A body travels with a northward velocity and a northward accelerationC A body travels with a constant velocity and a time-varying accelerationD A body travels with a constant acceleration and a time-varying velocity
C
31If C is the thermal capacity of a material of mass m and S is its specific heat capacity then (A)C= sm (B) S = Cm (C) C = Sm (D) DS = ms
C
32 A black car can be more uncomfortably hot on a warm day than a white car because (A) it ishot on a warm day (B) a black object is a better absorber of heat (C) black cars have heatersinstalled in them (D) white cars have air conditioning systems installed in them
B
33 A little sag is left in overhead telephone wires (A) because taut wires do not conduct soundeasily (B) to allow for the effect of a rise in temperature due to heating effect of currentflowing through them (C) to allow for the effect of a rise in temperature of the surroundingatmosphere (D) to allow for the effect of a fall in temperature of the surroundingatmosphere
D
34 A piece of copper wire of length 100 cm at 30oC is heated to 120oC If its linear expansivity is18 times10-4 k its new length is (A) 1666 cm (B) 1016 cm (C) 1806 (D) 108 cm
B
35 A sample of a monatomic ideal gas is originally at 20 degC What is the final temperature of thegas if both the pressure and volume are doubled (A) 5 degC (B) 80 degC (C) 20 degC (D) 899 degC
B
36 A volatile liquid used for cooling purpose in refrigerator is (A) liquid ammonia (B) cold water(C) liquid nitrogen (D) liquid helium
A
37 Complete the following statement A temperature decrease of 30 Cdeg is equal to a temperaturedecrease of (A) 30 Fdeg (B) 17 Fdeg (C) 30 K (D) 86 Fdeg
D
38 Complete the following statement Bimetallic strips used as adjustable switches in electricappliances consist of metal strips that must have different (A) mass (B) volume (C) length(D) expansion coefficients
D
39 Heat can be transferred from one end of a metal rod in contact with heat to the other endwhich is in contact with heat through (A) Conduction (B) Convection (C) Radiation (D)Evaporation
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
4
40 Heat supplied or removed from a system which causes a change of state without a change intemperature is (A) Specific heat (B) Heat capacity (C) Latent heat (D) Boiling heat
C
41 How many atmospheres of pressure must a litre of gas initially at a pressure of 1 atmosphereand temperature -20oC be after it has been compressed to frac12 litre at 40oC A 247 atm(B) 45 atm (C) 80 atm (D) 38 atm (E) 168 atm
A
42 On a cold day a good conductor X feels colder to the torch than a poor conductor Y because(A) Y retains more heat than X (B) the temperature of X is lower than that of Y (C) X conductsheat from the body less rapidly than Y (D) X transfers heat from body more rapidly than Y
D
43 The boiling point of water does not depend on (A) the impurities in water (B) the externalpressure (C) the quantity of water (D) all of the above
C
44 The ice and steam points of a local liquid in glass thermometer are 10 a and 90a respectivelyWhat will the thermometer read when the temperature is 30 0C (A) 40a (B) 38a (C) 36a(D) 34a
D
45 The lower and upper fixed points on a thermometer are 40 and 120 respectively Its reading at60oC is (A) 60 (B) 40 (C) 160 (D) 88
D
46 The pressure exerted by a given mass of gas in a container (A) Decreases if the container isheated (B) Increases if the molecules of the gas move faster (C) Increases if the volume of thecontainer is doubled (D) Decreases as the kinetic energy of the gas molecules increases
B
47 The temperature in an electric iron is regulated by (A) thermometer (B) bimettalic strip (C)steel (D) conductor
B
48 Water has an anomalous behavior between 0o and 4oC Which of the following is correct (A)Mass of water increases between 0oC and 4oC (B) Density of water decreases between 0oC and4oC (C) Volume of water increases between 0oC and 4oC (D) Volume of water decreasesbetween 0oC and 4oC
D
49 What is the Celsius equivalent of 500deg F (A) 10deg C (B) 20deg C (C) 30deg C (D) 40deg C A
50 When water is heated in a glass vessel the level first falls and then rises because (A) Theapparent expansion of the water is initially small and later increases (B) There is anomalousexpansion of water (C)The glass vessel does not expand (D)Glass vessel expands first beforewater starts a more rapid expansion
D
51 Which of the following quantities of water has undergone the greatest change from its heatcontent at melting point (A) 05 kg of water at 3oC (B) 02 kg of water at 8oC (C) 0005 kg ofwater at 80oC (D) 01 kg of water at 12oC
B
52 Which would cause a more serious burn 30 g of steam or 30 g of liquid water both at 100 degC
and why is this so
(A) Water because it is denser than steam (B) Steam because of its specific heat capacity
(C) Steam because of its latent heat of vaporization (D) Water because its specific heat is
greater than that of steam
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
5
53 A certain radioactive element has a half life of 20 years How long will it take the activity tobecome frac14 of its original(A) 20 years (B) 40 years (C) 60 years (D) 80 years
B
54 A plane progressive wave is represented by xty 20100sin2 where all the symbols
have their usual meanings What is the velocity of the wave
(A) 500 m s-1 (B) 400 m s-1 (C) 200 m s-1 (D) 100 m s-1
A
55 A point on a stationary wave where there is no movement of the medium is called (A) Node(B) Antinode (C) Note (D) Amplitude
A
56 A uniform wave has a speed of 10ms and a period of 05 s The distance between two nearestcrests is (A) 02 m (B) 20 m (C) 2 m (D) 5 m
D
57 A vibrating string has a tension of 40 and produces a note of whenݖܪ200 plucked in themiddle When the length of string is unaltered and the tension is increased to160 thefrequency becomes(A) ݖܪ1600 (B) ݖܪ800 (C) ܪ400 (D) ݖܪ200
C
58 An organ pipe closed at one end is 80cm long Determine the frequency of the fundamentalnote assuming that the speed of sound in air is 340ms (A) 213Hz (B) 318Hz (C) 425Hz (D)106Hz
D
59 As transverse wave moves through a medium the particles of the medium (A) vibrate in apath parallel to the path of the wave (B) do not move (C) vibrate in a path perpendicular tothe path of the wave (D) vibrate at an angle of 60o to the path of the wave
C
60 The sound heard after the reflection of sound wave from a plane surface is known as (A) Echo(B) Refraction (C) Vibration (D) Revibration
A
61 Which of the following properties is not common to all waves (A) Reflection (B) interference(C) Diffraction (D) Polarization
D
62 Which of the following statements is true about electromagnetic waves (A) They arelongitudinal (B) They can be seen (C) They have the same frequency in vacuum (D) They travelat the same speed in a vacuum
D
63 Which one of the following statements concerning electromagnetic waves is false (A)Electromagnetic waves are longitudinal waves (B) Electromagnetic waves transfer energythrough space (C) The existence of electromagnetic waves was predicted by Maxwell (D)Electromagnetic waves can propagate through a material substance
A
64 Which one of the following statements concerning waves is false (A) A wave can have bothtransverse and longitudinal components (B) A wave carries energy from one place to another(C) A wave does not result in the bulk flow of the material of its medium (D) A transversewave is one in which the disturbance is parallel to the direction of travel
D
65 A light sensitive area at the back of the eye where images are formed is called (A) Yellow Spot(B) Iris (C) Ciliary Muscle (D) Retina
D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
6
66 A luminous object is placed at a given distance from a converging lens of focal length 12cm anda real image is produced Find the image distance if it is equal to the object distance (A) 6cm(B) 3cm (C) 12cm (D) 24cm
D
67 An object is placed 15 cm in front of a concave mirror of radius 40 cm The image formed is(A) virtual and 60 cm behind the mirror (B) real and 60 cm in front of the mirror (C) virtual and40 cm from the mirror (D) at infinity
B
68 How far from a concave mirror of radius 120 cm must an object be placed such that its erectimage is four times its natural size (A) 72 cm (B) 64 cm (C) 45 cm (D) 50 cm
C
69 How many images are formed when an object is placed in front of two plane mirrors that areinclined at angle 30o to each other (A) 0 (B) 6 (C) 11 (D) 12
C
70 Professor Peters walks directly toward a plane mirror at a speed of 025 ms Determine thespeed of the image relative to him(A) 013 ms (B) 050 ms (C) 025 ms (D) 075 ms
B
71 The angle of incidence in a denser medium when the angle of refraction in the less dense
72 The driving mirror is a (A) plane mirror (B) convex mirror (C) concave mirror (D) thick planemirror
B
73 The following are types of a converging lens except(A) biconvex (B) plano-convex (C) mini-convex (D) converging meniscus
C
74 When the Sun the earth and the moon are in line during their movement with the earth beingthe opaque object and casting its shadow on the moon we have (A) Lunar eclipse (B) Totaleclipse (C) Partial eclipse (D) Annular eclipse
A
75 Which of the following instruments could be used in finding angle of elevation of the sun (A)Periscope (B) Telescope (C) Kaleidoscope (D) Sextant
D
76 Which of the following optical instruments does not depend on the use of plane mirrors (A)Kaleidoscope (B) Simple microscope (C) Sextant (D) Simple periscope
B
77 Which of the following statements supports the assumption that light travels in straight lines(A) light can be diffracted (B) light can be reflected (C) a source of light produces
interferences patterns on a suitably placed screen (D) a source of light produces distinctshadows of opaque objects
D
78Which of the following is correct about nuclear fission It is (A) the splitting of a heavynucleus into two or more lighter particles (B) an agent used to slow down neutrons in acontrolled atomic chain reaction (C) combing light atomic nuclei to form heavy (D) thespontaneous disintegration occurring in the nucleus of certain atoms
A
79 A light energy E falls on a metal and the electrons with a maximum kinetic energy of 02eV areejected If the work function of the metal is 03eV what is the value of E (A) 010eV (B)006eV (C) 050eV (D) 150eV
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
7
80 A nucleus is unstable if (A) it has two or more isotopes (B) its binding energy is not sufficientto hold nuclear particles together (C) it is very light with very low density (D) it has nosignificant mass
B
81 A radioactive substance has a half life of 4 years If its activity today is 200 dps its activity in 8years from today is (A) 50 dps (B) 25 dps (C) 20 dps (D) 10 dps
A
82 A substance has a half-life of 3min After 6min the count rate was observed to be 400Whatwas its count rate at zero time (A) 2400 (B) 200 (C) 1200 (D) 1600
D
83 An element and its isotopes differ only in the number of (A) electrons (B) neutrons (C)protons (D) irons
B
84 Complete the following sentence When electrons from a heated filament accelerate throughvacuum toward a positive plate (A) only an electric field will be produced (B) only amagnetic field will be produced (C) electromagnetic waves will be produced (D) longitudinalwaves will be produced
C
85 Radioactive elements are (A) chemically reactive elements (B) noble elements (C) rare earthelements (D) elements that spontaneously emit radiation
D
86 The following radiations are electrically neutral except (A) α-rays (B) ϒ-rays (C) X- rays (D)neutrons
A
87 Upon which one of the following parameters does the energy of a photon depend (A) mass(B) polarization (C) amplitude (D) frequency
D
88 Which of the following is NOT true about cathode ray (A) It moves in a straight line (B) Itcauses fluorescence (C) It possesses a negative charge (D) It can produce -particles
D
89 Who proposed the planetary model of the nucleus (A) J J Thomson (B) Albert Einstein (C)Ernest Rutherford (D) Marie Curie
C
90 X- rays cannot be used (A) to take photographs of bone structure in the body (B) to detectfinger prints (C) to detect flaws in metal castings (D) to detect alterations to works of art
B
91 1 farad is equivalent to (A) 1 coulombvolt (B) 1 voltcoulomb (C) 1 joulescoulomb (D) 1amperesec (E) volts per unit charge
A
92 A 0 - 10mA galvanometer with a coil resistance of 30 ohm can be converted to a 0-10Aammeter by using (A) 003ohm series resistor (B) 999ohm shunt resistor (C) 003ohm shuntresistor (D) 999ohm series resistor
C
93 A battery has an internal resistance of 4 and an emf of 12V The terminal voltage when a loadof 20 Ω is connected across it is (A) 4 (B) 10 V (C) 20 V (D) 2V
B
94 A conducting sphere has a net charge of 48 1017 C What is the approximate number ofexcess electrons on the sphere if the fundamental natural charge is -16 x 10-19C (A) 100 (B)300 (C) 200 (D) 400
B
95 A magnet cannot be demagnetized by (A) heating (B) hammering (C) chemical treatment (D)the use of solenoid through which an alternating current is flowing
C
96 An ac voltage is connected to an RLC series circuit of resistance 5 Ω inductance 3 mH and acapacitance of 005 microF Calculate the resonance frequency (A) 110 kHz (B) 120 kHz (C)130 kHz (D) 140 kHz
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
8
97 An electric heater converts 1KJ of electrical energy to heat energy every 2 second with 100efficiency The power produced is (A) 05 KW (B) 2 KW (C) 1KW (D) 10W
A
98 Complete the following statement The electromotive force is (A) the maximum potentialdifference between the terminals of a battery (B) the force that accelerates electrons througha wire when a battery is connected to it (C) the force that accelerates protons through a wirewhen a battery is connected to it (D) the maximum capacitance between the terminals of abattery
A
99 If a charged body is moving in a circle on a horizontal plane what is the general direction ofthe resulting magnetic field (A) In the plane of the circle (B) At an angle 45o to the plane ofmotion (C) Along the perpendicular axis through the center of the circle (D) Along thetangent to the circle
C
100 If a resistor is halved in magnitude and the potential across it is tripled then the ratio of theold current to the new current is (A) 13 (B) 31 (C) 61 (D) 16
D
101 The angle between the earthrsquos magnetic field and the horizontal is called angle of (A)declination (B) dip (C) variation (D) inclination
B
102 The basic difference between the galvanometer and the electric motor is (A) The size of themagnetic fields (B) The presence of hair springs in the galvanometer (C) The soft ironarmature in the galvanometer (D) The couple formed on the parallel sides of the rectangularcoil in the
B
103 The electromotive force is in such a direction as to oppose the motion or charge producing itThis is a statement of (A) Faradayrsquos Law (B) Lenz Law (C) Maxwell Law (D) Amperersquos law
B
104 The potential difference across the ends of a wire is doubled in magnitude If Ohmrsquos law isobeyed one of the following statements concerning the resistance of the wire is true (A) Theresistance is one half of its original value (B) The resistance is twice its original value (C) Theresistance is not changed (D) The resistance increases by a factor of four
C
105 The process of adding impurity to a semiconductor to increase its conductivity is called (A)Doping (B) Annealing (C) Heating (D) Hardening
A
106 Which if the following combinations consists of intrinsic properties of materials (A) volumeand density (B) density and mass (C) resistance and resistivity (D) density and resistivity
C
107 Which of the following can be measured with a potentiometer (A) Emf of a secondary cell (B)Resistivity of a wire (C) Potential difference across a conductor (D) Resistance of a wire
A
108 Which of the following devices is odd in the list (A) thermocouple (B) potentiometer (C) dcgenerator (D) solar cell
B
109 Which of the following is an essential physical property of the wires used for making fuses (A)high thermal conductivity (B) low density (C) low melting point (D) low electrical resistivity
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
9
110 Which one of the following statements concerning the magnetic force on a charged particle ina magnetic field is true (A) It is a maximum if the particle is stationary (B) It is a maximum ifthe particle moves parallel to the field (C) It acts in the direction of motion for a positivelycharged particle (D) It depends on the component of the particles velocity that isperpendicular to the field
D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
AGRICULTURAL SCIENCE
36 Which of the following crops produces latex (A) Mango (B) Citrus (C) Palm tree (D) D
Rubber
37 Which of the following fruits is a capsule (A) mango (B) coconut (C) apple (D) okra D
38 Which of the following is a storage pest of maize (A) Weevil (B) Beetle (C) Grasshopper A
(D) Aphid
39 Which of the following is for body building (A) Protein (B) Fat (C) Minerals (D) A
Water
40 Which of the following is not a factor influencing the availability of agricultural land (A) D
Topography (B) Soil types (C) Population pressure (D) Transportation
41 Which of the following is not a method of controlling pests (A) Quarantine (B) Crop D
rotation (C) Fumigation (D) Mulching
42 Which of the following is not a monocotyledon plant (A) Orange (B) Banana (C) Rice (D) A
Bamboo
43 Which of these is not involved in forest land enforcement (A) Forest guards (B) Forest C
81 The female sheep is known as (A) ewe (B) lamb (C) sow (D) mare A
82 The largest part of the oviduct where egg white is formed is the (A) Isthmus (B) Infudibulum D
(C) Uterus (D) Magnum
83 The male reproductive hormone is called (A) Testosterone (B) Testis (C) Thiamine (D) A
Globulin (E) Progesterone
84 The process of eliminating undesirable birds from the flock is known as (A)Dubbing (B) C
Removing (C) Culling (D) Degrading
85 The volume of the seminal fluid in chicken is about helliphelliphelliphelliphelliphelliphellip (A) 10mls (B) 50mls (c) C
05mls (d) 010mls
86 What is poultry science (A) Study of chickens (B) Study of science (c) Study of goats (d) A
Study of cattle
87 What is the gestation period of a cow (A) 5 months (B) 18frac12 months (C) 9 months (D) 24 C
months (E) 15 weeks
88 Which branch of poultry industry is concerned with the production of various kinds of feed C
(A) Hatchery industry (B) Poultry processing and marketing (C) Milling Industry (D) Poultry
equipment
89 Which of the following fish preservation method is common in the Northern part of A
Nigeria (A) Sun-drying (B) Gas drying (C) Oven drying
90 Which of the following is monogastric animal (A) Cattle (B) Goat (C) Rabbit (D) Sheep C
91 A farmer purchased a sprayer for N15000 in 2004 at the end of fifth year he sold it for B
N5000 What is the salvage value (A) N10000 (B) N5000 (C) N15000 (D) N
3000
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
AGRICULTURAL SCIENCE
92 Agricultural extension got its name from (A) spreading of information (B) taking information B
to farmers on field (C) having farm extension (D) none of these
93 Equilibrium price is (A) the point at which quantity of a commodity equals quantity B
supplied (B) the price at which quantity demanded of a commodity equals quantity
supplied (C) the point at which market price of a commodity equals quantity supplied (D)
the price at which quantity demanded of a commodity equals market price
94 Farm-gate price is usually obtained through (A) The producer (B) Middlemen (C) A
Commodity Boards (D) Cooperatives
95 One of the factors that influence supply is (A) Income (B) prices of other products (C) D
social capital (D) level of technology
96 People-oriented extension programmes which generate ideas and activities from the D
grassroots is called (A) grassroots approach (B) top down approach (C) community
approach (D) bottom up approach
97 The law of demand states that (A) demand is directly related to price of a commodity (B) B
higher the price of a commodity leads to lower quantity demanded (C) the price of a
commodity is directly proportional to the amount supplied (D) None of the above
98 The loss in value of an asset due to wear and tear in the course of its use is known as C
(A) Appreciation (B) Evaluation (C) Depreciation (D) Salvage value
99 Which of the following is not a problem of agricultural marketing in Nigeria (A) Lack of C
transport facilities (B) Scattered sources of supply (C) High quantity of farm produce (D)
Lack of good packaging and processing facilities
100 Which of the following is not a subject area in Agricultural Economics (A) Agribusiness C
management (B) Farm management and accounting (C) Agronomy (D) Agricultural
development and policy
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
BIOLOGY
1
1 ____________ is an end product of digestion of fat (A) Glucose (B) Fatty acid (C) Amino acid (D)Fructose (E) Galactose
B
2 Asexual reproduction in Hydra sp is commonly by ____ (A) Binary fission b Fragmentation cBudding d Separation (E) Regeneration
C
3 Benedictrsquos solution is used to test for ___ (A) Carbohydrate (B) Lipid (C) Protein (D) Vitamins (E)Minerals
C
4 Pepsin is an enzyme that digests ___ (A) Starch (B) Sugar (C) Lipid (D) Fat (E) Protein E
5 The breakdown of large organic molecules into smaller simpler soluble molecules is called ndashndash (A)Excretion (B) Digestion (C) Absorption (D) Reproduction (E) Ingestion
B
6 The enzyme that curdles milk is_____________ (A) Pepsin (B) Ptyalin (C) Renin (D) Amylase(E) Trypsin
C
7 Which is the enzyme that begins digestion of starch in the mouth (A) Ptyalin (B) Maltase (C)Amylase (D) Sucrase (E) Lactase
A
8 A group of interacting populations in a particular habitat can be described as ___(A) biome (B)biosphere (C) community (D) population ecosystem (E) environment
C
9 A habitat can be defined as ___(A) a group of animals and plants living within a commonboundary (B) a place in which plants and animals live (C) a community living together in thesame place (D) different areas with a common animal and plant population (E) None of theabove
B
10 A symbiotic relationship in which one organism is completely dependent on another organism iscalled ____ (A) Parasitism (B) Commensalisms (C) Mutualism (D) Saprophytism (E) Competition
A
11 An association between two organisms where both members benefit is known as ___ (A)symbiosis (B) commensalism (C) ammensalism (D) mutualism (E) saprophytism
D
12 An instrument used in measuring the speed of wind is (A) a barometer (B) a wind gauge (C) awind vane (D) an anemometer (E) a hydrometer
D
13 At times hyenas feed on remains of animals killed by other animals At other times hyenasthemselves kill animals for food Therefore hyenas may best be described as ndashndash (A) scavengersand herbivores (B) scavengers and parasites (C) scavengers and predators (D) herbivores andpredators e herbivores and parasites
C
14 Autecology is defined as the study of interrelationship of (A) many species of organisms and theirenvironment (B) same species of organisms and their environment (C) organisms in theatmosphere (D) organisms under the earthrsquos surface (E)None of the above
B
15 Autotrophs are also described as ndashndash (A) Consumers (B) Decomposers (C) Carnivores (D)Producers (E) Herbivores
D
16 If three 30cm lengths of glass tubing are tightly packed with clay sand and loamy soilsrespectively and then stood in a beaker of water for one week the level of water will be (A)Lowest in the tube with clay (B) The same in all the tubes (C) Lowest in the tube with loamy soil(D) Highest in the tube with sandy soil (E) Lowest in the tube with sandy soil
E
17 In a community bacteria and fungi are referred to as ndashndash (A) producers (B) consumers (C)scavengers (D) tertiary consumers (E) decomposers
E
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
BIOLOGY
2
18 Puddles Ponds Rivers Seas and Oceans are grouped together as ndashndash (A) Ecosystem (B) Biosphere(C) Aquatic habitat (D) Terrestrial habitat (E) Marine environment
C
19 The feeding pattern in an ecosystem is calledhelliphelliphelliphellip (A) Pyramid of energy (B) Food web (C)Food chain (D) Pyramid of member (E) Ecology
B
20 The orderly changes that occur slowly and naturally in plant and animal communities in a givenarea over a period of time until a stable community is established is called ndashndash (A)Transformational change (B) ecological succession (C) survival of the fittest (D) weatherchange (E) environmental change
B
21 The sign + is used to indicate an association where an organism gains while 0 is used where anorganism is unaffected An association indicated as +0 is known as ndashndash (A) predation (B)commensalism (C) parasitism (D) competition (E) ammensalism
B
22 The sum total of all the roles an organism plays in a habitat is referred to as (A) ecology (B)ecosystem (C) habit (D) habitat (E) niche
E
23 Which of the following factors does not control population growth (A) Food shortage (B)Emigration (C) Predation (D) Abundance of food (E) Natural disaster
D
24 Which of the following statements best describe an ecosystem (A) A place where livingorganisms can live successfully (B) The interactions between living organism in a habitat and thenon-living part of the environment (C) A biological association between a plant and ananimal (D) A system of grouping organisms in a habitat (E) None of the above
B
25 Which of these represents a correct food chain in nature (A) Crustacea rarr diatom rarrfish rarr man (B) Diatom rarr crustacea rarr fish rarr man (C) Fish rarr crustacea rarr man rarr diatom (D) Diatom rarr fish rarr crustacea rarr man (E) None of the above
B
26 ___________ is involved in the mechanism of expelling water from the protozoans during theprocess of____________ (A) Contractile vacuole Osmoregulation (B) Contractile vacuolePhagocytosis (C) Food vacuole Ultrafilteration (D) Food vacuole Pinocytosis (E) Cell membranePinocytosis
A
27 ______________ is used for photosynthesis in Euglena sp (A) Reservoir (B) Nucleus (C)Chloroplast (D) Paramylon granule (E) Pellicle
C
28 A heart with four chambers is found in______________ (A) Fishes (B) Insects (C) Snails (D) Rats(E) Worms
D
29 Animal cell does not have a ____________ (A) Membrane (B) Nucleolus (C) Food Vacuole (D) Cellwall (E) Golgi body
D
30 Beriberi is caused by deficiency of vitamin_____________ (A) A (B) D (C) K (D) E (E) B E
31 Compound eyes are found in which of the animals below (A) Rat (B) Cow (C) Snail (D) Ant (E) Jellyfish
D
32 Dental formula of man consist of (A) i 22 c22 pm22 m33 (B) i11 c22 pm22 m33 (C)i22 c11 pm32 m22 (D) i22 c11 pm22 m22 (E) i22 c11 pm22 m33
E
33 During digestion of food passage of chyme through the duodenum enables it to become awatery liquid called__________ (A) Digested food (B) Chymatic product (C) Chyle (D) Solublefood (E) Dissolved food
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
BIOLOGY
3
34 Emulsification of fat and oils is caused by______________ (A) Lipase (B) Ptyalin (C) Trypsin (D)Maltase (E) Bile
E
35 Every mammal has (A) One Kidney (B) Two pairs of Kidneys (C) One pair of Kidneys (D) FourKidneys (E) None of the above
C
36 Faeces is removed from the body in a process called (A) Digestion (B) Egestion (C) Elimination(D) Excretion (E) Evacuation
B
37 Glomerulus is found in the______________ (A) Ovary (B) Testes (C) Brain (D) Kidney e)Stomach
D
38 In the respiratory system of man diffusion of gases takes place in (A) Trachea (B) Bronchi (C)Alveoli (D) Bronchioles (E) None of the above
C
39 Incisors are used for (A) Tearing food (B) Cutting food (C) Grinding food (D) Shearing food (E)Crushing food
B
40 Nematocysts are produced by special cells found in (A) Nematodes (B) Annelids (C)Platyhelminthes (D) Cnidarians (Coelenterates) (E) Arthropods
D
41 One of the following is not a function of the skin (A) Excretion (B) Protection (C) Homeostasis(D) Reproduction (E) Absorption of vitamin D
D
42 Open circulatory system is found in _____________ (A) Lizard (B) Toad (C) Fish (D) Insect (E)Chicken
D
43 Ovary is to the female reproductive system as________ is to the male reproductive system (A)Penis (B) Urethra (C) Testis (D) Cowperrsquos gland (E) Prostate gland
C
44 Possession of pinna is a characteristic feature of (A) Mammals (B) Reptiles (C) Fishes (D)Amphibians (E) All of the above
A
45 Tadpoles respire with (A) Lungs (B) Nostril (C) Gills (D) Spiracles (E) Siphon C
46 The excretory organ in the earthworm ishelliphelliphelliphellip (A) Malphigian tubule (B) Stoma (C)Nephriduim (D) Flame cells (E) Gills
C
47 The nerves that connect the eyes to the brain are called ndashndash (A) Cranial nerves (B) Optical nerves(C) Sensory nerves (D) Olfactory nerves (E) Optic nerves
E
48 The nerves that connect the eyes to the brain are called ndashndash (A) Cranial nerves (B) Optical nerves(C) Sensory nerves (D) Olfactory nerves (E) Optic nerves
E
49 The parasympathetic nervous system is involved in (A) Dilation of pupil of the eye (B) Controlthe activities of smooth muscles (C) Dilatation of the skin (D) Controls thinking in mammals (E)Increased metabolism
B
50 The part of the alimentary system of a bird where grinding of food occurs is (A) Crop (B)Stomach (C) Cloaca (D) Rectum (E) Gizzard
E
51 The part of the ear that contains receptors that convert the fluid motion into action potential iscalled ndashndash (A) Auditory nerve (B) Ossicles (C) Semicircular canals (D) Cochlea (E) Oval window
D
52 The thoracic region of the vertebral column is made up of __________ vertebrae (A) 5 (B) 7 (C) 4(D) 12 (E) 10
D
53 Which of the animal below is poikilothemic (A) Toad (B) Chicken (C) Bat (D) Lion (E) Dove A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
BIOLOGY
4
54 Which of the structures below is found in reptiles and birds (A) Scales (B) Legs (C) Beaks (D)Claws (E) All of the above
A
55 Which of these animals is photosynthetic (A) Paramecium sp (B) Amoeba sp (C) Euglena sp(D) Hydra sp (E) None of the above
C
56 Which of these organs regulate the amount of sugar in the blood (A) Liver (B) Kidney (C) Spleen(D) Lung (E) Pancreas
E
57 The basis for growth and asexual reproduction is (A) meiosis (B) cytokinesis (C) mitosis (D)Cytogenesis (E) Cell elongation
C
58 The process which ensures that the chromosome number for each species of organism remainconstant from generation to generation is called (A) fission (B) fusion (C) meiosis (D) mitosis(E) oogenesis
C
59 Which of the following is a major factor in variation among organisms (A) Inbreeding (B)Backcrossing (C) Test crossing (D) Sexual reproduction (E) Gene dominance
D
60 ____________ is an example of an invertebrate (A) Millipede (B) Fish (C) Toad (D) Snake (E) Skin A
61 ____________ is the odd one in the list below (A) Mosquito (B) Bee (C) Moth (D) Tick (E)Beetle
63 _____________ is an example of a unicellular organism (A) Amoeba sp (B) Hydra sp (C) Ascarissp (D) Taenia sp (E) Obelia sp
A
64 _____________ level is the highest level of organization in animals (A) System (B) Tissue (C)Organ (D) Cellular (E) Protoplasmic
A
65 Crocodiles are _____________ (A) Fishes (B) Amphibians (C) Mammals (D) Birds (E) None of theabove
E
66 The mutation theory of organic evolution was propounded by (A) Gregor Mendel (B) Hugo deVrics (C) Jean Lamarck (D) Charles Darwin (E) Robert Hookes
D
67 The theory of natural selection was developed by (A) Lamarck and Darwin (B) Darwin andWallace (C) Wallace and Mendel (D) Mendel and Lamarck (E) Hooke and Darwin
B
68 Which is the odd animal in the list below (A) Lizards (B) Snakes (C) Turtles (D) Tortoise (E) Toad E
69 Which of the following sources is not an evidence of evolution (A) Fossil records B Comparativeanatomy C Comparative embryology (D) Human behavior (E) None of the above
D
70 _______________ is an endoparasite (A) Earthworm (B) Tapeworm (C) Mosquito (D) Housefly (E)Tsetse fly
B
71 The causative agent of bird flu is a (A) Virus (B) Bacteria (C) Fungus (D) Protozoan (E) Ricketsia A
72 In lower plants like mosses the structure which performs the functions of roots of higher plantsis called (A) root hairs (B) rootlets (C) hyphae (D) rhizoids (E) thalli
D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
BIOLOGY
5
73 One common feature of fungi algae mosses and ferns is that they are (A) photosynthetic (B)show alternation of generation (C) can survive harsh weather conditions (D) have no seeds (E)conjugate
D
74 The following are major groups of the plant kingdom EXCEPT (A) Bryophyta (B) Chlorophyta (C)Pteridophyta (D) Spermatophyta (E) Thallophyta
B
75 _____________is a form of sexual reproduction (A) Grafting (B) Budding (C) Fission (D)Conjugation (E) Regeneration
D
76 Sexual reproduction in Spirogyra is called (A) Fertilization (B) Symbiosis (C) Conjugation (D)Reproduction (E) Mutualism
C
77 The carrier of the hereditary characters in plants is the (A) Cell (B) nucleus (C) chromosome (D)chloroplast (E) gene
E
78 All are necessary for photosynthesis except_____________ (A) Water (B) Chlorophyll (C)Sunlight (D) Carbon dioxide (E) Oxygen
E
79 Growing yam tendrils climb for support This growth response is (A) haptotropism (B) geotropism(C) phototropism (D) hydrotropism (E) chemotropism
A
80 Which is the correct order in an evolutionary sequence for the following plant groups (A)Bacteria rarr ferns rarr algae rarr mosses rarr seed plants (B) Bacteria rarr ferns rarr mosses rarr algae rarr seed plants (C) Bacteria rarr algae rarr mosses rarr ferns rarr seed plants (D) Bacteria rarr mosses rarr algae rarr ferns rarr seed plants (E) Seed plants rarr ferns rarr mosses rarr algae rarr bacteria
C
81 ------------ is not part of the whorls of a flower(A)calyx (B) corolla (C) androecium (D)Antheridium (E)Gynoecium
D
82 A dry fruit which can break into several parts each containing one seed is a (A) caryopsis (B)aggregate fruit (C) legume (D) follicle (E) schizocarp
E
83 A dry indehiscent winged fruit formed from one carpel is known as a (A) Schizocarp (B)Caryopsis (C) Samara (D) nut (E) Follicle
C
84 A true fruit is formed from (A) fertilized ovary and other floral parts (B) a fertilized ovary (C) afertilized ovary and calyx (D) a fertilized and fleshy receptacle (E) an unfertilized ovary and otherfloral parts
B
85 Irish potato is a (A) bulb (B) tap root (C) rhizome (D) root tuber (E) stem tuber D
86 One major difference between an Angiosperm and a Gymnosperm is that seeds in Gymnospermsare borne in (A) Cones (B) fruits (C) flowers (D) ovary (E) ovule
A
87 Reserved food material in the seed is stored in the (A) epicarp (B) endocarp (C) endosperm (D)mesocarp (E) all parts
C
88 What type of fruit is a mango fruit (A) Berry (B) Hesperidium (C) Drupe (D) Nut (E) Mango fruit C
89 Which of the following species exhibit an aerial root (A) Ficus (B) Centrosema (C) Antigonon(D) Lantana (E) Dahlia
A
90 Which of these plants has an emerginate apex (A) Bauhinia (B) Pistia (C) Ixora (D) Musa (E)Terminalia
A
91 Which plant stores food in its roots (A) Cassava (B) cocoyam (C) Irish potato (D) onion (E)yam
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
BIOLOGY
6
92 An example of Vascular tissues is -------------- (A) Trichome (B) Xylem (C) Stomata (D) Epidermis(E) Parenchyma
B
93 The living part of phloem tissue is (A) sieve plate (B) companion cell (C) sieve element (D)cytoplasm
B
94 Which of the following tissues are made up of dead cells (A) meristems (B) xylem vessels (C)cambium (D) mesophyll (E) palisade
B
95 A plant vacuole contains (A) dissolved chemicals sugars salts pigments and crystals (B) wasteproducts of metabolism DNA RNA and crystals (C) pigments crystals DNA and waste productsof metabolism (D) RNA DNA sugars and salts
A
96 Excessive loss of water in plants is known as (A) Osmosis (B) Osmoregulation (C) Transpiration (D)Excretion
C
97 Starch granules in plants is equivalent to _____________ granules in animals (A) Food (B)Chromatin (C) Lysosome (D) Mitochondria (E) Glycogen
E
98 Which of the following is a plant excretory product (A) Oil (B) Cytokinin (C) Resin (D)amino acids (E) gibberellins
C
99 A plant which grows on another without causing harm to the host plant is called ndashndash (A) aparasite (B) a saprophyte (C) an epiphyte (D) a predator (E) a prey
C
100 Plants which can survive in places where water supply is limited are (A) bryophytes (B)mesophytes (C) xerophytes (D) hydrophytes (E) pteridophytes
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
1
1 200 cm3 of air was passed over heated copper in a syringe several times to produce copper (II)oxide When cooled the final volume of air recorded was 158 cm3 Estimate the percentage ofoxygen in the air (A) 31 (B) 27 (C) 21 (D) 19
C
2 30cm3 of oxygen at 10 atmosphere pressures is placed in a 20dm3 container Calculate the newpressure if temperature is kept constant (A) 67 atm (B) 150 atm (C) 600 (D) 660
B
3 Bond dissociation energy of 500 KJ mol-1 may be assigned to (A) ionic bonding (B) covalentbonding (C) hydrogen bonding D) metallic bonding (E) van-der-waals bonding
A
4 A mixture of iron and sulphur can be separated by dissolving the mixture in __ (A) steam (B)dilute hydrochloric acid (C) dilute sodium hydroxide (D) benzene
B
5 A mixture of sand ammonium chloride and sodium chloride is best separated by __ (A)sublimation followed by addition of water and filtration (B) sublimation followed by addition ofwater and evaporation (C) addition of water followed by filtration and sublimation (D) additionof water followed by crystallization and sublimation
A
6 A pure solid usually melts __ (A) over a wide range of temperature (B) over a narrow range oftemperature (C) at a lower temperature than the impure one (D) at the same temperature asthe impure one
B
7 A small quantity of solid ammonium chloride was heated gently in a test tube the solidgradually disappeared to produce a mixture of two gases Later a white cloudy deposit wasobserved on the cooler part of the test tube The ammonium chloride is said to haveundergone __ (A) distillation (B) sublimation (C) precipitation (D) evaporation
B
8 CH4 has this geometry (A) trigonal (B) planar (C) tetrahedral (D) octahedral (E) linear C
9 Chlorine consisting of two isotopes of mass numbers 35 and 37 has an atomic mass of 355The relative abundance of the isotope of mass number 37 is ___ ( A)20 (B) 25 (C) 50 (D) 75
B
10 Elements P Q R S have 6 11 15 and 17 electrons respectively therefore (A) P will form anelectrovalent bond with R (B) Q will form a covalent bond with S (C)R will form an electrovalentbond with S (D) Q will form an electrovalent bond with S
D
11 In the oil drop experiment Millikan determined the (A) charge to mass ratio of the electron (B)mass of the electron (C) charge of the electron (D) mass of the proton
C
12 One of these atomic shells is the most stable (A) M (B) N (C) K (D) L (E) 0 C
13 Sieving is a technique used to separate mixtures containing 20 oxygen by volume Which ofthe reactants was in excess (A) Carbon (II) oxide (B) Oxygen (C) Carbon (IV) oxide (D) Nitrogen
A
14 The abnormally high boiling point of water is primarily due to (A) ionic bonding (B) covalentbonding (C) dative bonding (D) coordinate covalent bonding (E) hydrogen bonding
E
15 The energy required to remove an electron from the isolated gaseous atom is known as (A)electron affinity (B) bond energy (C) lonisation energy (D) electronegativity (E) electrovalency
C
16 The group that oxygen belongs to is collectively called (A) allotropes (B) halogens (C)chalcogens (D) alkenes (E) ozonides
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
2
17 The ideal gas equation is ___ ( A) P=nRT (B) PR =nVT (C) PV =gRT (D) V=kT (E) PV = K V A
18 The number of atoms in one mole of a substance is equal to (A) the atomic number (B) theAvogadrorsquos number (C) number of neutrons (D) number of electrons (E) gas constant
B
19 The number of electrons in the outermost shell of the atom represents its (A) period (B)number of shells (C) group (D) atomic number (E) electronegativity
C
20 The number of protons or electrons of an atom represents its (A) electronegativity (B) period(C) number of shells (D) group (E) atomic number
E
21 The partial pressure of oxygen in a sample of air is 500 mmHg If the total Pr pressure 780mmHg what is the mole fraction of the oxygen (A) 064 [B (B) 573 (C) 156 (D) 070 (E) 054
A
22 The periodic classification of the elements is an arrangement of the elements in order of their(A) atomic weights (B) isotopic weights (C) molecular weights (D) atomic numbers
D
23 The process of changing one element into another is called (A) radioisotope (B) radioactivity (C)dating (D) transmutation (E) nuclear reaction
D
24 The shapes of CO2 H2O and CH4 respectively are (A) bent linear and tetrahedral (B) benttetrahedral and linear (C) tetrahedral linear and bent (D) linear bent and tetrahedral
D
25 This compound exhibits ionic bonding (A) H20 (B) H2 (C) KC1 (D) NH3 (E) HF C
26 This type of bonding involves overlapping of orbitals during which electrons are shared (A)hydrogen bonding (B) covalent bonding (C) ionic bonding (D) metallic bonding (E) van-der-waals bonding
B
27 Which one of the following changes is physical (A) Adding iron filings to aerated water (B)Adding sodium metal to water (C) Cooling a solution of iron(II) sulphate to obtain the hydratedsalt (D) Cooling water to obtain ice
D
28 A side effect of soft water is that (A) it gives offensive taste (B) excess calcium is precipitated(C) it encourages the growth of bacteria (D) it attacks lead contained in pipes
D
29 Ammonia is very soluble in water because it is a an molecule (A) non-polar (B) polar (C)reactive (D) basic (E) acidic
B
30 Citrus fruits such as lemon and grape taste sour because they contain (A) ascorbic acid andcitric acid (B) citric acid and ascetic acid (C) citric acid and dilute HCl (D) citric acid and salicyclicacid (E) Sulphuric acid
A
31 Soap lather is an example of a colloid in which a (A) liquid is dispersed in gas (B) solid isdispersed in liquid (C) gas is dispersed in liquid (D) liquid is dispersed in liquid
C
32 The air around a petroleum refinery is most likely to contain(A) CO2 SO3 and N2O (B) CO2 COand N2O (C) SO2 CO and NO2 (D) PH3 H2O and CO2
C
33 The difference between colloids and suspensions is brought out clearly by the fact that whilecolloids (A) do not scatter light suspensions do (B) can be separated by filtration suspensionscannot be so separated (C) can be separated by a membrane suspensions cannot (D) do notsettle out on standing suspensions do
D
34 The following substances are non-electrolytes except (A) chloroform (B) sugar cane (C) aceticacid (D) NaCl (E) C and D
E
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
3
35 The hydrolysis of NH4Cl salt will give (A) acidic solution (B) neutral solution (C) basic solution(D) hot solution (E) all of the above
A
36 The pollutants that are likely to be present in an industrial environment are (A) H2S SO2 andoxides of nitrogen (B)NH3 HCl and CO (C) CO2 NH3 and H2S (D) dust NO and Cl2
A
37 What is the basicity of tetraoxosulphate (VI) acid (A) 2 (B) 1 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) 0 A
38 Which of the following gases is the most dangerous pollutant (A) Hydrogen sulphide (B)Carbon (IV) oxide (C) Sulphur (IV) oxide (D) Carbon (II) oxide
D
39 Which of the following ions is a pollutant in drinking water even in trace amount (A) Ca2+ (B)Hg2+ (C) Mg2+ (D) Fe2+
B
40 Which of the following is an example of a double salt (A) NH4Cl (B) alum (C) NaCO3 (D) AlCl3
(E) NaClB
41 016g of methane when burnt increases the temperature of 100g of water by 400(C) what isthe heat of combustion of methane if the heat capacity of water is 42 Jg-10C-1 (CH4=16) (A)1160kJmol-1 (B) 1180kJmol-1 (C) 1560kJmol-1 (D) 1600kJmol-1 (E) 1680kJmol-1
E
42 A charged car battery has ___ energy that can be converted into another energy called ___energy (A) Chemical electrical (B) mechanical chemical (C) heat mechanical (D) lightelectrical (E) light heat
A
43 Copper oxide is heated with charcoal to produce carbon monoxide and copper The reaction isan example of (A) both oxidation and reduction (B) neither oxidation and reduction (C)oxidation only (D) reduction only (E) neutralization
A
44 For each oxygen atom in hydrogen peroxide which acts as an oxidant there is an oxygen atomwhich acts as a an (A) Oxidant (B) reductant (C) oxidizing agent (D) catalyst (E) inhibitor
B
45 Given the change of phase CO2(g) changes to CO2(s) the entropy of the system (A) decreases(B) increases (C) remains the same
A
46 In which of the following is the entropy change positive (A) Reaction between an acid and abase (B) Addition of concentrated acid to water (C) Dissolution of sodium metal in water(D) Thermal dissociation of ammonium chloride
C
47 One of these elements is the best reducing agent (A) Pb (B) Rb (C) Al (D) In (E) N B
48 The name of the gas driven off at the negative electrode during the electrolysis of brine is ___( A) hydrogen (B) chlorine (C) oxygen (D) sodium (E) hydrogen chloride
B
49 The oxidation state of P in H2P2072- is ___ (A) -3 (B) +3 (C) +1 (D) +5 (E) -2 D
50 The oxidation state of S in Ca(HS03)2 is __ (A) +2 (B) -2 (C) +4 (D) -4 (E) +6 C
51 The oxidizing agent in the reaction 3Br2 + 6OH- = BrO3- + 5Br- + 3H2O is __ (A) Br2 (B) OH- (C)
BrO3- (D) e- (E) H2OA
52 When heat is absorbed during a chemical reaction the reaction is said to be ___(A) thermodynamic (B) exothermal (C) isothermal (D) endothermic (E) thermostatic
D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
4
53 Given the reaction at equilibrium 2CO(g) + O2(g) harr 2CO2(g) When the reaction is subjected tostress a change will occur in the concentration of (A) reactants only (B) products only (C)both reactants and products (D) neither reactants nor products
C
54 Given the reaction at equilibrium N2(g) + O2(g) harr 2NO(g) as the concentration of N2(g)increases the concentration of O2(g) will (A) decrease (B) increase (C) remains the same (D)vanishes (E) pours away
A
55 If a reaction is exothermic and there is a great disorder it means that (A) The reaction is in astate of equilibrium (B) There will be a large increase in free energy (C) There will be a largedecrease in free energy (D) The reaction is static
B
56 In the chemical reaction of A + B = C +D more of D is formed (A) if the concentration of A isreduced (B) if the concentration of B is reduced (C) if the concentration of C is reduced (D) ifthe concentration of C is increased (E) if it is continuously removed from the reaction mixture
E
57 In what way is equilibrium constant for the forward reaction related to that of the reversereaction (A) The addition of the two is expected to be one (B) The product of two isexpected to be one (C) The two equilibrium constants are identical (D) The product of thetwo is always greater than one
C
58 In which reaction will the point of equilibrium shift to the left when the pressure on the systemis increased (A) C(s) + O2(g) harr CO2(g) (B) CaCO3(s) harr CaO(s) + CO2(g) (C) 2Mg(s) + O2(g) harr 2MgO(s) (D) 2H2(g) + O2(g) harr2H2O(g)
B
59 The furring of kettles is caused by the presence in water of __ (A) calcium trioxocarbonate (IV)(B) calcium tetraoxosulphate (VI) (C) calcium hydroxide (D) calcium hydrogentrioxocarbonate(IV)
D
60 Which is a property of a reaction that has reached equilibrium (A) The amount of products isgreater than the amount of reactants (B) The amount of products is equal to the amount ofreactants (C) The rate of the forward reaction is greater than the rate of the reverse reaction(D) The rate of the forward reaction is equal to the rate of the reverse reaction
D
61 Which of the following combination of conditions many increase the rate of a chemicalreaction (A) Decrease in temperature increase in concentration of the reactant (B) Increase intemperature addition of a catalyst decrease in the surface area of the reactant (C) Increase intemperature increase in concentration addition of a catalyst and increase in the surface areaof the reactant (D) Decrease in temperature concentration and surface area of the reactants(E) Addition of catalyst and in the absence of light
C
62 ldquoQuicklimerdquo has the formula __ (A) Ca(OH)2 (B) CaO (C) CaCO3 (D) CaSO42H2O (E) CaCl2 B
63 A Transition metal is different from a non-transition metal because (A) it has an octetconfiguration (B) it is very stable (C) it is coloured (D) it has incomplete outer shell d-electrons(E) it has no electron in the d-orbital
D
64 Chlorine is produced commercially by (A) electrolysis of dilute HCl (B) electrolysis of brine (C)neutralization of HCl (D) heating potassium trioxochlorate (V) (E) action of dilute mineral acidson bleaching powder
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
5
65 Chlorine bromine and iodine resemble one another since they __ (A)dissolve in alkalis (B) reactviolently with H2 without heating (C)displace each other from solutions of their salts (D) aregases (E) are liquids
A
66 Liquid oxygen may be produced by condensation of air using this coolant (A) liquid phosphorus(B) liquid gas (C) liquid paraffin (D) liquid nitrogen (E) butane
D
67 One of these is another form of oxygen (A) hydroxide (B) ozone (C) peroxide (D) sulphoxide (E)water B
68 One of these metals is not an alkali metal (A) K (B) Cs (C) Sr (D) Rb (E) Fr C
70 The formation of ozone by reaction of O2 with atomic oxygen in UV light occurs in (A) upperatmosphere (B) inner atmosphere (C) stratosphere (D) hemisphere (E) none of these
A
71 The halogen which is chiefly produced commercially from sea water is ___ ( A) Fluorine (B)chlorine (C) Bromine (D) iodine (E) Astatine
B
72 The most stable allotropic form of sulphur at normal conditions is ___ ( A) monoclinic sulphur(B) rhombic sulphur (C) amorphous sulphur (D) plastic sulphur (E) ordinary sulphur
B
73 The products obtained when the following chemical reaction is completed and balancedarehellipHNO3 + Ca(OH)2 rarr ______ (A) CaNO3 + H2O (B) Ca(NO3)2 + 2 H2O (C) CaO + 2 NO2 + 3H2O(D) Ca + 2 NO3 + 2 H2O
B
74 What is the role of iron and Aluminium oxide in ammonia production (A) dehydrating agent(B) catalytic agent (C) oxidizing agent (D) bonding agent (E) preservative agent
B
75 When carbon IV oxide is bubbled through lime water the solution becomes milky dueformation of (A) Ca(HCO3)2 (B) CaCO3 (C) Ca(N03)2 (D)CaCl2 (E) CaSO4
B
76 Which of the following gases dissolves in water vapour to produce acid rain during rainfall (A)Oxygen (B) Carbon (II) oxide (C) Nitrogen (D) Sulphur (IV) oxide
D
77 Which of the following is not allotrope of carbon (A) diamond (B) graphite (C) buckminsterfullerene (D) all of the above (E) none of the above
E
78 Which oxide is amphiprotic (amphoteric) (A) MgO (B) NaO (C) CaO (D) ZnO (E) BeO D
79 Why will it always be more difficult to extract potassium ions from sea water than to extractmagnesium ions This is because (A) most potassium compounds are less soluble in water (B)most potassium compounds are quite soluble in water (C) presence of other alkali metal ionshas great influence on it (D) magnesium ion is an alkaline earth metal ion (E) None of theabove
B
80 ___________ can be used to test for reducing sugars (A) Iodine solution (B) bromine water (C)Fehlingrsquos solution (D) de-ionized water
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
6
81 2CH3COOH + Zn rarr The product of this reaction is (A) (CH3COO)2Zn + Zn (B) CH3COO CH3 +Zn (C) (CH3COO)2Zn + H2 (D) CH3COOH + CH4
C
82 A ketone reacts with hydroxylamine to give (A) a hydrazone (B) an alkanonitrile (C) a nitrosocompound (D) an oxime
D
83 Alkanoic acids are weak acids and ionises in solution to give (A) R+ + COOH (B) RCOO- + H+ (C)RCOO+ + H- (D) RCO+ + OH-
B
84 An excess of ethanol heated with concentrated H2SO4 at a temperature of 180oC is dehydratedto give mostly (A) ethane (B) ethene (C) ethanol (D) ethoxyethane
B
85 Butene can be distinguished from benzene by reaction with (A) Hydrochloric acid (B) Brominewater (C) Potassium sulphate (D) Sodium hydroxide
B
86 Detergent is more efficient than soap in cleansing clothes and dishes because of the followingreasons except that (A) the corresponding Ca and Mg compound formed is soluble in H2O (B)detergents are not affected by hardness of water (C) it cleans better than soap (D) it is lessexpensive
D
87 In the manufacture of soap industrially brine is used to__________the acid salt (A) oxidise(B) reduce (C) bleach (D) precipitate
D
88 Methane gas can be made from carbon (II) oxide gas according to the equation2CO(g) + 2H2(g) rarr CH4(g) + CO2(g) Calculate the mass of CO required to produce 875 x 1025
molecules of CH4 At masses C=12011 H= 1008 O = 15999 Avogadrorsquos no 6022 x1023molecules mole (A) 8140g (B) 4070g (C) 1600g (D) 3200g (E) 2035g
A
89 Potassium ethanoate is formed when (A) Methanoic acid reacts with KOH (B) Ethanoic acidreacts with KOH (C) Methanol reacts with KCO3 (D) Ethanol reacts with CH3COOH
B
90 Saponification is defined as (A) Acidic hydrolysis of fat or oil (B) Alkali hydrolysis of fat or oil(C) Condensation of two monomer units (D) Mixture of glacial ethanoic acid and excess ofsimple alkanol
B
91 Soaps and detergents have the same basic characteristics except that the carboxyl group of thefatty acid in detergent is replaced by (A) alcohol (B) sulphate or a sulphonate group (C) ester(D) acids
B
92 The relatively high boiling point of alkanols is due to (A) aliphatic character (B) ionic bonding(C) hydrogen bonding (D) covalent bonding
C
93 Two important sources of detergent are (A) fatoils and hydrocarbons (B) coal and cement (C)pulp and wood (D) water and gas
A
94 What is the process associated with conversion of vegetable oil to soap (A) Esterification (B)Saponification (C) hydrolysis (D) Acidification
B
95 When ethanal vapour is passed over manganese (II) ethanoate (manganese acetate) catalyst inthe presence of air the product is (A) ethanoate (B) ethanol (C) methanol (D) ethanoic acid
D
96 When KOH is used instead of NaOH in the production of soap it has the following advantagesexcept it gives (A) softer soap (B) harder soap (C) soap with lower melting point (D) moresoluble soap
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
7
97 When palm wine is left exposed to air for a few days it goes sour The bacteria in the airoxidises________ in palm wine to _________ (A) ethanol ethanoic acid (B) ethanoic acidethanol (C) ester ethanoic acid (D) ether ethanol
A
98 Which of the following is not true about benzoic acid (A) It is aromatic in nature (B) It can bemanufactured from methylbenzene (C) It has molecular formula C6H6COOH (D) It sublimesreadily
C
99 Which of the following reactions is correct (A) C6H5COOH + CaO rarr C6H5Ca + HCO3 (B)C6H5COOH + CaO rarr C6H6 + CaCO3 (C) C6H5COOH + PCl5 rarr C6H5Cl + H2PO4 (D) C6H5COOH +C2H5OH rarr C6H6 + C3H8COOH
B
100 Which of these is not a property of ethanedioic acid (A) It is a stronger acid than ethanoic acidbut weaker than inorganic acids (B) It is a reducing agent (C) It is an oxidising agent (D) It issoluble in cold water
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS STUDIES
1 Behold the people of Israel are too many come let us deal shrewdly with them lest they D
multiply In the statement the first step by the new king of Egypt was to (A) cast all
Hebrew male children into the Nile (B) impose heavy tax on them (C) kill all Hebrew male
children (D) set taskmasters over them to afflict them with burdens
2 I will go out as at other times and shake myself free When Samson made the statement C
above he was not aware that (A) the Philistines were upon him (B) he was bound with bronze
fetters (C) the LORD had left him (D) his eyes had been gouged out
3 Let the waters under the heavens be gathered together into one place and let the dry land D
appear In the statement above the dry land and the water refer to (A) earth and oceans (B)
firmament and seas (C) firmament and oceans (D) earth and seas
4 Seek out for me a woman who is a medium that I may go to her and inquire of her Saul A
made the statement above when he was confronted by the(A) Philistines (B) Ammonites (C)
Amalekites (D) Moabites
5 Why did you bring trouble on us The LORD brings trouble on you todayrdquo What happened to C
Achan after the statement above by Joshua (A) He was buried alive (B) He was put in chain
(C) He was stoned to death (D) He was flogged publicly
6 An unwise decision of Solomon was the issue of the (A) building of the palace (B) building of D
the temple (C) felling of timber (D) forced labour
7 David was anointed king over Judah at (A) Zuph (B) Bethlehem (C) Hebron (D) Gibeon C
8 For worshipping the molten calf God described the Israelites as (A) a stubborn nation (B) an C
unholy nation (C) a stiff-necked people (D) an unrighteous people
9 God blessed the seventh day and made it holy because (A) He rested on that day from all His A
work (B) Adam gave names to all living creatures on that day (C) it was a Sabbath day (D)
human beings were recreated on that day
10 God called Abraham when he was how many years old (A) 75 years old (B) 90 years old (C) A
100 years old (D) 120 years old
11 In order for the people of Israel to be ready to meet the LORD by the third day at Mount Sinai C
they were (A) not to drink alcohol (B) to wear white garments (C) to wash their garments
everyday (D) not to go near a woman
12 Joseph was put in prison in Egypt by Potiphar because (A) he slept with Potipharrsquos wife (B) he C
was very lazy (C) Potipharrsquos wife lied against Joseph (D) he stole Pharaohrsquos cup
13 Samuels lack of parental responsibility led to (A) The demand for a king in Israel (B) His A
untimely death at Ramah (C) The defeat of the Israelites in battle (D) The anointing of David
as king
14 Solomon attempted to kill Jeroboam because Jeroboam (A) Was more popular than him (B) D
Was not faithful as the officer in charge of labour (C) Did not report what was prophesied
concerning him (D) Was a threat to the throne
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS STUDIES
15 The first person that revealed to Eli the evil that would come to his home was(A) Joel (B) a B
man of God (C) a prophet from Shiloh (D) Samuel
16 The rainbow as the sign of Gods covenant with Noah implies(A) Providence (B) Reconciliation C
(C) mercy (D) Redemption
17 What did Gideon call the altar which he built to the LORD (A) The LORD is merciful (B) The B
LORD is peace (C) Jehovah Jireh (D) The LORD is great
18 What punishment did God give Solomon for his unwisemdash Policies (A) Jeroboam was
empowered by God to conquer him (B) He caused Rezon to demolish the high place which he
built (C) He raised up Hadad the Edo mite as an adversary against him (D) The kingdom was
torn from him and given to his servant D
19 What was Samsons major achievement as Israels leadermdash (A) He suppressed the Philistines
(B) He captured the city of Jericho (C) He saved the Israelites from the Amorites (D) He
secured permanent independence for Israel A
20 When God called Moses to deliver the Israelites he resisted because he could not speak and D
he was told to (A) perform some signs with his rod (B) wait for a sign from God (C) go with
Joshua who would speak for him (D) go with Aaron who would speak for him
21 When Moses struck the rock twice for water instead of speakingmdash to it God said to him that
he (A) would no longer see Him face to face (B) would not bring the Israelites to the promise
land (C)would not see His holiness (D)would roam in the wilderness for thirty years
B
22 When the Israelites left Egypt God did not let them use the shorter route through the land of
the Philistines becausemdash (A) the Philistines were waiting in ambush for them (B) they might
go back if they faced war (C) He wanted to confuse the Egyptian king (D) He wanted them to
suffer and appreciate Him B
23 Why did God accept David who killed Uriah and took his wife but rejected Saul who spared
King Agagmdash (A) David was from the favoured tribe of Judah while Saul was from Benjamin
(B) David was a man after Gods heart while Saul was His enemy (C) David was a singer of
praises while Saul was not (D) David humbled himself when he realized his sin but Saul was stubborn
D
24 And in the last days it shall be God declares that I will pour out my Spirit upon all B
flesh Peter quoted the statement above from the prophecy of (A) Ezekiel B) Joel (C)
Jeremiah (D) Isaiah
25 Am I God to kill and to make alive that this man sends words to me to cure a man of his B
leprosy Prophet Elisha responded to the kings reaction in the statement above by (A)
directing the nation of Israel to pray and fast (B) requesting the leper to come to his house (C)
directing the leper to go to River Jordan (D) asking the leper to offer a sacrifice
26 Behold I am the LORD the God of all flesh is anything too hard for me The statement C
above suggests that God is (A) merciful (B) awesome (C) most powerful (D) not changeable
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS STUDIES
27 Behold 1 am the LORD the God of all flesh is anything too hard for me The statement B
above suggests that God is (A) merciful (B) most powerful (C) awesome (D) not changeable
28 Do you understand what you are reading Philip asked the Ethiopian eunuch the question D
above when he found him reading the book of (A) Hosea (B) Ezekiel (C) Jeremiah (D)
Isaiah
29 My spirit shall not abide in man forever for he is flesh When God made the statement He D
concluded that mans days shall be (A) one hundred years (B) one hundred and fifty years
(C) eighty years (D) one hundred and twenty years
30 Test your servants for ten days let us be given vegetables to eat and water to drink In the C
statement above Daniel was talking to (A) King Darius (B) the chief of the eunuchs (C) the
steward of the chief eunuch (D) King Artaxerxes
31 According to Amos what did the Israelites do after God smote them with blight and mildew A
(A) They still did not return to him (B) They repented of their sins (C) They fasted and prayed
for healing (D) They cried unto the LORD
32 According to Prophet Jeremiah one of the promises of God was that He would give the D
Israelites (A) new priests (B) new commandments (C) kings after His own heart (D) shepherds
after His own heart
33 According to Proverbs a son that is attentive to a fathers instruction will (A) be rich (B) have C
eternal life (C) gain insight (D) be forgiven his sins
34 Consequent upon the murder of Naboth by Ahab and Jezebel God declared that (A) He
would require the blood of Naboth from Ahabrsquos hand (B) Ahabs descendants would never
ascend the throne in Israel (C) dogs would lick Ahabs blood where they had licked Naboth (D)
the sword would not depart from the house of Ahab
C
35 Ezekiel said that when the people of Israel turned away from all their sins they would (A) A
Surely live and not die (B) Be free from attack (C) Lead mankind to God (D) Return from
captivity
36 God had pity on the people of Nineveh because (A) they listened to Jonahs message (B) the C
king punished all the violent people in the land (C) they turned from their evil way (D) they
made sacrifices of sin offering to God
37 Immediately after the contest on Mount Carmel Elijah prayed and God answered him with B
(A) thunder (B) rainfall (C) a whirlwind (D) a heavy storm
38 In addition to the declaration of freedom to the exiles in Babylon King Cyrus ordered for (A) A
free will offering for the house of God in Jerusalem (B) the release of Jewish slaves in the
empire (C) security check on the Jews before departure (D) support from craftsmen in
Babylon
39 Joab and his soldiers entered the city quietly after defeating their enemy because (A) Absalom
and his soldiers were defeated (B) of the shameful death of Absalom (C) the king grieving for
his son (D) the king Was annoyed with them C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS STUDIES
40 Obadiah showed his great reverence for the LORD by (A) Handing over five hundred Baal D
prophets for slaughter (B) Falling on his face before Elijah (C) Hiding Elijah in a cave for two
years (D) Feeding the prophets of the LORD with bread and water
41 Prophet Amos told Israel to hate evil love good and establish justice in the gate so that God C
would (A) heal their diseases (B) give them good leaders (C) be gracious to them (D) multiply
their descendants
42 Prophet Hosea named his second child Not Pitied because God would no more pity the (A)
kings of Judah (B) kings of Israel (C) house of Judah (D) house of Israel
D
43 Prophet Hosea named his second child Not Pitied because God would no more pity the (A) D
kings of Judah (B) kings of Israel (C) house of Judah (D) house of Israel
44 Prophet Isaiah received his vision and call whenmdash (A) King Uzziah was deposed (B) King
Uzziah died (C) King Uzziah began to reign (D) Israel was in Babylonian captivity
B
45 Saul learnt from Samuels spirit that the LORD would (A) give the Philistines into his hands A
(B) afflict him with sickness (C) bless Isaacs future wife (D) pardon his iniquity
46 The destruction of Jerusalem by Nebuchadnezzar was a consequence of (A) Hezekiahs death
(B) Josiahs reforms (C) Israels stubbornness to God (D) Zedekiahs rebellion against Babylon
C
47 The effect that the faith of Shadrach Meshach and Abednego had on King Nebuchadnezzar D
and his subjects was that they (A) Refrained from persecuting the Jews in exile (B) Were
converted (C) Forsook their gods (D) Believed that there was no other god able to deliver
48 The Kingdom of Israel was divided because the (A) kingdom was too large to be administered D
(B) leadership wanted to create more nations (C) followership wanted more nations (D) last
two kings made unwise policies
49 The pronouncement of God on Josiah for being penitent was that (A) God would support him C
to repair the Temple (B) Josiah would conquer all his enemies (C) God would gather him to his
grave in peace (D) Josiah would have a peaceful reign
50 The scroll given to Ezekiel to eat at his call contained (A) Both praises and condemnation (B) B
Words of lamentation and mourning (C) Prescription for Temple worship (D) The expected
type of sacrifice
51 What did Asa do that was right in the eyes of the Lord(A) He removed all the idols of his A
father (B) He killed all the priests of Baal (C) His reign was peaceful (D) He killed all the
Baal worshippers
52 What did the Jews do when Nehemiah told them about his mission in Jerusalem (A) They D
praised God for sending him to rebuild Jerusalem (B) They informed Sanballat and Tobiah
about his plans (C) They were hostile to him and he became discouraged (D) They encouraged
one another to rise up and build the walls
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS STUDIES
53 but should write to them to abstain from the pollutions of idols and from unchastity and C
from what is strangled and from blood The statement above was made at the Council of
Jerusalem by (A) Philip (B) Simon (C) James (D) Peter
54 His office let another take The statement above refers to (A) Ananias (B) Judas Iscariot B
(C) Barnabas (D) John Mark
55 Truly I say to you not even In Israel have I found such faith The statement above by D
Jesus was made when He healed the (A) leper (B) blind man (C) demoniac (D) centurions
servant
56 Depart from me for I am a sinful man O Lord This statement was uttered by Peter at C
the (A) last supper (B) garden of Gethsemane (C) call of the disciples (D) transfiguration
57 If I tell you you will not believe and if I ask you you will not answer Jesus statement B
above was in response to a request by (A) King Herod (B) the chief priests and scribes (C)
Pontius Pilate (D) the Pharisees and Sadducees
58 If you are the Son of God throw yourself down from here for it is written He will give his A
angels charge of youhellip According to Luke the statement above was made by Satan during
Jesus(A) third temptation (B) crucifixion (C) Transfiguration (D) second temptation
59 Teacher do you not care if we perish Where was Jesus Christ when this question was D
asked (A) On the sea walking (B) In the wilderness (C) On the Mount of Olive (D) In the
ship asleep
60 Truly I say to you today you will be with me in paradise Jesus made the statement D
above to one of the criminals because he (A) respected Him (B) praised Him (C) rebuked his
partner (D) was repentant
61 Unbind him and let him go The statement was made by Jesus when (A) He raised to life A
the dead Lazarus (B) He healed the son of the widow at Nain (C) He healed the centurions
servant (D) a boy bound by Satan was brought to Him
62 Unless you are circumcised according to the custom of Moses you cannot be saved The D
statement above by some men from Judea necessitated the convening of the (A) church in
Jerusalem (B) council of elders (C) church in Judea (D) council in Jerusalem
63 You son of the devil you enemy of all righteousness full of all deceit and villainy This A
statement of Paul was addressed to (A) Elymas the magician (B) Paulus the proconsul (C)
Simon the Magician (D) Demetrius the silversmith
64 lsquo As long as I am in the world I am the light of the worldrsquo Jesus made the statement above A
on the occasion of (A) healing the man born blind (B) raising Lazarus from the dead (C)
restoring sight to blind Bartimaeus (D) walking on the sea before day break
65 According to Luke the Last Supper took place (A) on Mount Olive (B) In Jerusalem (C) in B
Jordan (D) in Bethlehem
66 According to Luke when Moses and Elijah appeared during the transfiguration they spoke of A
Jesusrsquo (A) departure (C) resurrection (B) second coming (D) trials
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS STUDIES
67 According to Matthew the stone on the tomb of Jesus was removed by (A) an angel (C) Mary A
Magdalene (B) a Roman soldier (D) Peter and John
68 According to Romans salvation is for those who (A) call upon the name of the Lord (B) are B
true worshippers of God (C) work in the Lords vineyard (D) Are persecuted for righteousness
69 According to the Gospel of John Jesus is the true vine while the vinedresser is (A) the Holy B
Spirit (B) His father (C) the gardener (D) His mother
70 And they arrested them and put them in custody until the morrow for it was already D
evening In the statement above the imprisoned persons were (A) Paul and John Mark (B)
Peter and Barnabas (C) Peter and Paul (D) Paul and Barnabas
71 Angel Gabriel told Zachariah that he would become dumb until John was born because he (A) D
looked down on the Angel (B) was advanced in age (C) disagreed with Elizabeth his wife (D)
did not believe Gods words
72 Following the death of Stephen the only group of believers not scattered by the great B
persecution was the (A) deacons (B) apostles (C) prophets (D) disciples
73 Following the resurrection of Jesus the Chief Priest and elders took counsel and bribed the A
guards to (A) say that the disciples stole the body of Jesus (B) keep the information away
from His disciples (C) keep the matter among themselves (D) report the matter immediately
to the rulers
74 In His Sermon on the Mount Jesus said that the poor in spirit are blessed for they would (A) C
be satisfied (B) be comforted on the last day (C) inherit the kingdom of heaven (D) inherit
the earth
75 In Luke at the Last Supper Jesus revealed His (A) resurrection (B) imminent sufferings (C) C
love for His disciples (D) ascension
76 In the country of the Gerasenes Jesus healed the (A) man possessed of demons (B) paralytic A
at the pool (C) leper (D) blind man
77 In the mission of the seventy Jesus told them that they were being sent out as sheep among D
wolves implying that they would (A) be sent to live among wolves (B) be as meek as sheep
(C) be properly equipped for the mission (D) encounter difficulties
78 In the story of the Transfiguration Moses and Elijah represented the (A) glory of God (B) old C
Testament saints (C) Law and the prophets (D) end of the age
79 Jesus raised to life the son of the widow of Nain because He (A) wanted the whole of Judea to C
know about him (B) wanted to show that He was a great prophet (C) had compassion on the
mother (D) loved the young man that died
80 Jesus reply to the devils first temptation of Him was _ (A) Him only shall you serve (B)
Man shall not live by bread alone (C) You shall not tempt the Lord your God (D)
You shall worship the Lord your God B
81 Jesus told the parable of the lost sheep in order to illustrate that (A) every believer ought to D
rejoice with those who rejoice (B) no person can hide from God (C) Gods love is unlimited
(D) there is joy in heaven over a sinner who repents
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS STUDIES
82 Jesus was at the wedding in Cana of Galilee because (A) He wanted to demonstrate His power B
(B) He was invited to the ceremony (C) the groom was His relation (D) the groom ran out of
wine
83 Jesus was tempted by the devil so as to (A) fulfill all righteousness (B) show His power over C
forces of nature (C) show that no one is above temptation (D) test the devils power
84 The Hebrew word Rabboni means (A) disciple (B) priest (C) master (D) Teacher D
85 The impact of Jesus miracle of turning water into wine was that the (A) servants were C
astonished (B) master of ceremony believed (C) disciples believed more in Him (D) people
glorified God
86 Where were the disciples of Jesus when He had a conversation with the Samaritan B
woman(A) They had gone to the city to preach the gospel (B) They had gone to the city to
buy food (C) They had gone to the mountain to pray (D) They had gone to wait for Him
87 According to Ephesians children who obey their parents in the Lord will (A) be happy (B) go C
to heaven (C) have long life (D) be great
88 According to Peter God shows no partiality but in every nation anyone who fears Him is (A) B
diligent before Him (B) acceptable to Him (C) holy before Him (D) righteous before Him
89 According to Romans the new life is comparable to Jesus (A) resurrection (B) ministry (C) A
ascension (D) crucifixion
90 According to Thessalonians the day of the Lord will not come unless the (A) living die first C
(B) scoffers come first (C) dead rise first (D) rebellion comes first
91 Busy bodies and those living in idleness in the church at Thessalonica were admonished to (A)
pray for those in authority for peace (B) do their work in quietness and earn a living (C) appeal
to those in authority to create jobs (D) endure persecution from their masters
B
92 In his teaching on partiality James declares that mercy triumphs over (A) judgment (B) A
righteousness (C) grace (D) faith
93 In Pauls arrangement of the spiritual gifts in Corinthians the last is (A) the utterance of B
wisdom (B) interpretation of tongues (C) gifts of healing (D) various kinds of tongues
94 In Romans Paul condemned sin taking over mortal bodies in the new life as instruments of B
69 In recent years Nigerian economy has been registering a spectacular growth inhelliphellip C
Sector in the last ten years (A) agriculture (B) education (C) telecommunication (D)
transport (E) distribution
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
ECONOMICS
70 Nigeria being a developing African country in the sub-Sahara has put together a C
development blue-print called Vision 202020 which can ensure that the country becomes
(A) one of the 20 developed countries by the year 2020 (B) an African economic lsquoTigerrsquo
by the year 2020 (C) one of the 20 largest economies in the world by the year 2020
(D) one of the 20 largest economies in sub-Saharan Africa by the year 2020 (E) one of
the 20 largest economies in the developing world by the year 2020
71 The major objective of economic growth is to (A) Redistribute income and other benefit D
of growth (B) Equalize opportunity for education and employment (C) Increase
aggregate expenditure on goods and services (D) Increase the real per capita income (E)
Increase access to education
72 The most common index used for measuring development is (A) The level of literacy (B) B
Per capita income (C) Nutritional levels (D) Population growth rate (E) International
development index
73 Which is NOT a direct effort to increase agricultural production in Nigeria (A) Operation B
Feed the Nation (B) Nigerian Youth Service Corps (C) Increased loans to farmers and
cooperatives (D) Research in Agriculture and extension services (E) Mechanization of
agriculture
74 Which of the following sectors of the economy is estimated to be the largest employer of B
labour in the country (A) Construction (B) Agriculture (C) Distribution (D) Mining and
petroleum (E) Transport and communications
75 Industries contribute to national economic development because they (A) Utilize local B
raw material (B) Employ an increasing number of labour (C) Provide recreational
facilities (D) Use modern machines which replace human labour (E) All of the above
76 Infant industries are (A) Baby food and baby clothing factories (B) Those which are D
introducing new products (C) Cases of arrested development (D) Industries temporarily
protected by tariffs barriers until mature enough to compete on world markets (E)
Industries that are allowed to remain permanent cases of adolescence
77 The export-promotion strategy is aimed at producing (A) Consumer goods originally C
imported (B) Machinery for industries (C) More goods for exports (D) More goods for
domestic consumption (E) Increasing export of goods needed in developed countries
78 Which of the following is NOT an advantage of localization of industries (A) Reaping of E
external economies (B) Development of a pool of skilled labour for the industry (C)
Development of subsidiary industries (D) Development of organized markets (E) Growth
of conurbations
79 The crucial factors which determines the location of petroleum refineries in Nigeria are B
availability of raw materials and (A) Capital (B) Political consideration (C) Nearness to
source of power (D) Labour (E) Availability of seaports
80 The petroleum industry in Nigeria is (A) The sole source of the nationrsquos revenue (B) The C
oldest industry in the country (C) The mainstay of the economy (D) A factor in the
decline in the nationrsquos foreign reserves (E) In the hand of NNPC
81 In a limited liability company the greatest risk is borne by (A) Shareholders debentures C
(B) Company executives (C) Ordinary shareholders (D) Preference shareholders (E)
Board of directors
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
ECONOMICS
82 In a public company shares are (A) Sold to one person only (B) Distributed freely (C) C
Advertised to members of the public for subscription (D) Disposed off by the Chief
Executive (E) none of the above
83 The advantage of the sole proprietorship is as follows (A) It is always successful (B) C
Continuity is no problem (C) Control and supervision is under one man (D) Funds are
easy to obtain (E) Inter-generational equity is assured
84 The maximum number of shareholders for a limited liability company is (A) Twenty (B) D
Seven (C) Five (D) Infinite (E) Limited to the number of individuals that are interested
85 Population density refers to (A) Densely populated urban centres (B) The total area D
divided by the total population (C) Densely populated rural areas (D) The total
population divided by the total area (E) All of the above
86 To calculate the annual natural growth rate of a countryrsquos population one has to know D
the countryrsquos annual birth rate and (A) The size of that country (B) The rate of
immigration into that country (C) The population census of that country (D) The annual
death rate (E) The gross domestic product (GDP) of the country
87 Which of the following is not true of the theory of optimum population A It is possible B
for a densely populated country to be under-populated if it has insufficient labour to
make the most effective use of its other factors B The quantity of labour which
combines with other factors gives the minimum output is known as optimum population
C The quantity of labour which combined with the other factors gives the maximum
output is known as optimum population D The test of over-population is whether it
exceeds the optimum E It is possible for a thinly populated country to be over-
populated if it has a poor supply of other factors
88 Which of the following is the standard concept of measuring and analyzing population E
growth (A) The rate of natural increase (B) The net migration rate (C) The rate of
population increase (D) The fertility rate (E) All of the above
89 Which of these would NOT increase the population of a country (A) Increase in death A
rate (B) Decrease in birth rate (C) Emigration (D) Migration (E) Better medical facilities
90 An improvement in the Nigeriarsquos terms of trade should (A) Lead to a fall in cost of her A
imports in terms of what she must sacrifice to obtain them (B) Make made-in-Nigeria
goods cheaper to buy (C) Increase Nigeriarsquos domestic output of commodities (D) Lead to
an increase in her exchange rates (E) Lead to an increase in Nigeriarsquos exports of
petroleum
91 By lsquotrade by barterrsquo we mean (A) Trade done by people in the villages (B) Exchange of D
goods for money (C) International trade (D) Exchange of goods for goods (E) The trade
of the Middle Ages
92 Gains from trade depends on (A) Comparative advantage (B) Absolute advantage (C) A
Distributive cost advantage (D) Absolute cost advantage (E) None of the above
93 International and inter-regional trade differ primarily because (A) Comparative B
advantage is relevant to the former but not to the latter (B) Products flow easily within
regions of a country (C) There are different resource supplies among countries of the
world (D) Of regulations from GATT (E) None of the above
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
ECONOMICS
94 Surplus in the balance of payments lead to (A) Inflation or increasing prices generally (B) B
Increase in foreign reserves (C) Decrease in foreign reserves (D) Government budget
surplus (E) None of the above
95 The expression lsquoTerms of Tradersquo is used to describe (A) The quality of exports (B) The D
direction of foreign trade (C) Terms of purchase on deferred payment basis (D) The rate
at which exports exchange for imports (E) Import licensing
96 The quantity of a currency that exchanges for a unit of another currency is called its (A) C
exchange value (B) barter value (C) exchange rate (D) market price (E) unit price
97 Under a system of freely floating exchange rates an increase in the international value of B
a countryrsquos currency will cause (A) its exports to rise (B) its imports to rise (C) gold to
flow into that country (D) its currency to be in surplus (E) devaluation
98 When a currency loses its value due to a government action to fix the quantity of the A
currency that exchanges for another currency there is (A) devaluation (B)
depreciation (C) inflation (D) fiscal deficit (E) none of the above
99 Which of the following items in the Balance of Payments Account is an invisible D
transaction (A) Imports of cars (B) Export of cocoa (C) Export of crude petroleum (D)
Tourism (E) Import of building materials
100 A major trading problems facing ECOWAS is (A) The absence of common currency (B) A
Political instability (C) High poverty level (D) Non-implementation of decisions (E)
Trade-related political crisis in Ivory coast
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
USE OF ENGLISH
1
Read the passages below and answer the questions that follow
PASSAGE AEvery discernible observer could foresee the crisis which engulfed the Edo Houselast week Only a few days before reports were rife about the AC reaching out tosome PDP legislators to cross-carpet The intention being to gain a majority andthen assume the Speakership with the least constraint Zakawanu Garuba the thenSpeaker retorted with a fiat threatening to declare vacant the seat of any defectorThis in spite of the constitutional support for such action as evidenced forexample by the crisis that has torn the PDP apart in Edo State The party has twofactional chairmen in the state even though one is more vociferousThe desperate attempt by Garuba to cling to the Speakerrsquos chair is condemnable Hewas not being recalled from the legislature and so he still has his seat as a floormember As speaker he was only first among equals The Speakership is not hisbirthright With the defection of one PDP lawmaker to the AC the legislaturereconvened hours after the bloodbath and elected a protem Speaker whileimpeaching and suspending Garuba and a few others They are to be probed
(Adapted from The Guardian Thursday March 4 2011 p14)
1 Why did AC woo PDP membersA they are few in numberB they want speakership without stressC PDP members are faithfulD The House is tough
2 The legislators impeachedA GarubaB PDP lawmakersC Garuba and some PDP lawmakersD Garuba and some lawmwkers
3 According to the passage the constitution supportsA The speakerB DefectingC Edo StateD Factional chairmen
4 The lawmakers reconvenedA After the defection of a PDP memberB After the bloodbathC After suspending the SpeakerD After electing a protem Speaker
B
A
D
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
USE OF ENGLISH
2
5 At the end what happened to GarubaA He was vindicatedB He was indictedC He was honouredD He was humiliated
6 To cross-carpet as used in the passage means toA change partyB renew membership of a partyC change onersquos carpetD buy new carpet
7 The crisis in the Edo State House of Assembly could be predicted byA The lawmakersB Edo State indigenesC The protem SpeakerD All conscious observers
B
C
A
PASSAGE B
Nigeria has a troubled power sector which is however undergoing reforms thathopefully should usher in era of private sector dominance in terms of ownershipand management of generation and distribution In this transitory phase it is crucialto lay a foundation for local sourcing of vital inputs and make it the norm for theindustry That is the only way to prevent a replication of the trend in the oil and gassub-sector where capital flight is as much as $ 16 billion per annum as revealed bythe Petroleum Technology Development FundThe PHCN could legitimately insist on quality and standards in its procurement ofequipment and materials but what is playing out is an institutional orientationevinced in several pursuits of the PHCN that are contemptuous of Nigeriarsquosaspiration for local content development In 1998 the defunct National ElectricPower Authority defied a directive by the then Minister of Power and steel AlhajiBashir Dalhatu to source its costable components from Nigerian foundries some ofwhich are of high standards Actuated by a realization of idle capacity in thefoundries and the need to conserve foreign exchange the Minister appliedappropriate pressure on the management of NEPA but found his efforts frustratedThe acute shortage or inefficiency in the metering programme originated from thefact that the only local manufacturer then the Federal Government-ownedelectricity Meter Company in Zaria Kaduna State established in 1976 but sold toDantata Investments Limited in December 2002 is not performing(Adapted from The Punch Wednesday May 25 2011 Pg 18)
8 Why is there shortage of meterA Non-performance of PHCNB Non-performance of NEPAC Non-performance of the Federal Government-owned electricity
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
USE OF ENGLISH
3
Meter CompanyD Non-performance of Dantata Investment Ltd
9 According to the passage the solution to the problem in the power sector lies inA Sourcing for materials locallyB Getting costable componentsC Obeying the ministerD Getting $ 16 billion per annum
10 From the passage it is clear thatA There is money in the countryB There is shortage of electricity meterC NEPA is better than PHCND NEPA was formed in 1998
11 Which of these is not true of the power sectorA There is only one local manufacturer of electricity meterB The power sector is undergoing reformsC The problem of the power sector cannot be solvedD there was procurement of equipment and materials
12 Which of these is undergoing reformsA NEPAB PHCNC NigeriaD The power sector
13 A suitable title for this passage isA Nigeria and her problemsB NEPA versus PHCNC Electricity meterD Problems in the power sector
A
B
C
D
D
Choose the option that best completes the gap14 University students helliphelliphelliphelliphellipbehave well (A) can (B) should (C) may (D)
mustB
15 Gloria helliphelliphelliphellip have finished the project two days ago (A) must (B) may (C)can (D) supposed to
A
16 You are Goodluck (A) are you (B) arenrsquot you (C) arersquont you (D) donrsquotyou
B
17 He helliphelliphelliphelliphellip not come now (A) needs (B) needed (C) need (D) will need C18 Janet to know that we are all here (A) suppose (B) supposes (C) is
supposed (D) should supposeC
19 Let it be that there was no king in Ayegun (A)know (B) knew (C) known(D) knows
C
20 We shall see you soon (A) shall we (B) shanrsquot we (C) shouldnrsquot we (D)should we
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
USE OF ENGLISH
4
21 Neither of the presidential candidates suitable (A) are (B) is (C) is been(D) are been suitable
B
22 Ten miles ____ a great distance (A) is (B) are (C) is been A23 If I were the president I ask for the money (A) will (B) should (C) would
(D) canC
24 I will see you after I spoken with your supervisor (A) might have (B) have(C) will have (D) would have
B
25 ldquoYou - now see the directorrdquo the secretary told the visitors (A) can (B)may (C) should (D) would
B
26 She isnrsquot Gloria (A) is she (B) isnrsquot she (C) arenrsquot she (D) doesnrsquot she A27 We have a bus (A) didnrsquot we (B) havenrsquot we (C) doesnrsquot we (D) hasnrsquot
weB
28 I knew David let us down (A) may (B) will (C) might (D) can C29 You helliphelliphellip me last week (A) ought to see (B) ought to had seen (C) ought to
have seen (D) had to have seenC
30 Twenty dollars ___ enough for my lunch (A) are (B) is (c ) are just B31 The pests ____ our farm every year (A) invade (B) invades (c ) has invades A32 If I were the Governor I ask for the project (A) will (B) should (C) would
(D) canC
33 When helliphellip the Cleric today (A) doesarrives (B) doesarrived (C)doesarrive (D) do arrive
C
34 We shall see you soon (A) shall we (B) shanrsquot we (C) shouldnrsquot we (D)should we
B
35 You missed the match (A) donrsquot you (B) didnrsquot you (C) hadnrsquot you (D)doesnrsquot you
B
36 Walk the dog right now (A) walknrsquot you (B) will you (C)shall you(D)would you
B
37 I am a student (A) Irsquom I (B) arenrsquot I (C) isnrsquot I (D) wouldnrsquot I BPick out the oddwrong expression in each of the following
38 (A) I heard his supposed apology (B) I heard his unconvincing apology (C) Iheard his suppose apology (D) I heard he was supposed apology
D
39 (A) I suppose you know the way (B) I am supposed you know the way (C) Isuppose he knows the way (D) They suppose he knows the way
B
40 (A) I travel next week (B) I will travel next week (C) I suppose to travelnext week (D) I should travel next week
C41 (A) Having discovered the error he apologized (B) Having discovered the
error the apology was tendered (C) Having known the error he apologised(D) Having found out the error he tendered an apology B
42 (A) The job has been done (B) The job has been being done (C) They havedone the job (D) They can have done the job
D
43 (A) She must finish the project in two days (B) She must finish the project twodays ago (C) She must have finished the project two days ago (D) She ought tohave finished the project two days ago
B
44 (A) If I went in there I would beat the security officer (B) If I go in there Iwould beat the security officer (C) If I go in there I will beat the securityofficer (D) If I go in there I can beat the security officer
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
USE OF ENGLISH
5
Choose the option that most appropriately expresses the idea in theunderlined expression
45 My friendrsquos parentrsquos are magnanimous (A) rich and popular (B) sociable andlovable (C) kind and generous (D) wicked and stingy
C
46 My friend has an overbearing attitude toward me (A) patient (B) impatient(C) opinionated and domineering (D) considerate and respectful
C
47 There are a number of makeshift buildings in town (A) modern buildings (B)old fashion buildings (C) temporary buildings (D) permanent buildings
C
48 Post UME is a hurdle to cross (A) a necessary and simple exam to pass (B) anunnecessary and difficult exam to pass (C) an unnecessary but simple exam topass (D) a necessary and challenging exam to pass
D
49 His contribution to the project is invaluable (A) extremely useful (B) of novalue (C) of little value (D) can not be valued
A
50 That was a dawn-to-earth approach (A) poor (B) ordinary (C) practical (D)immodest
B
51 Concerning my admission I have to cross my fingers (A) wait and hope for thebest (B) wait in frustration (C) wait confidently (D) take some risk
A
52 My father is indifferent to my choice of University (A) supports (B) opposes(C) not decided (D) not concerned
D
53 We need an ad hoc arrangement towards the project (A) intelligent (B)advanced (C) permanent (D) temporary
D
54 The studentrsquos reply to the lecturer betrayed his rudeness (A) covered (B)showed (C) reduced (D) increased
C
55 His conduct in the last elections was above board (A) arrogant (B) honest (C)above average (D) excellent
C
56 That was a dispassionate decision (A) bias (B) personal (C) unaffected (D)ineffective
C
57 On the matter of worship some sit on the fence (A) go to the extreme (B) aredecisive (C) are fanatics (D) are undecided
D
Choose the option that is nearest in meaning to the word underlined58 In this matter we must be prepared to tolerate human frailty (A)
75 Her health deteriorated rapidly (A) worsened (B) improved (C) stagnated (D)declined
B
Which of the following sentences is correct76 (A) One should mind his business (B) One should mind onersquos business (C) One
should mind her businessB
77 (A) This case is between you and I (B) This case is between you and me (C)This case is between the two both of us
B
78 (A) With them around we have a great problem on our hands (B) With themaround we have a great problem on our hand (C) With them around wehave a great problem on hand
A
79 (A) The dog wagged itrsquos tail (B) The dog wagged its tail (C) The dog waggeditsrsquo tail
B
80 (A) A ten year old boy is missing (B) A ten-year-old boy is missing (C) A tenyear-old boy is missing
B
81 Choose the option that sounds the same with two (A) tool (B) too (C) tow (D)to
B
82 Choose the option that sounds the same with bear (A) bare (B) beer (C)bared (D) beard
B
83 Choose the option that sounds the same with the given word Key (A) kiss(B) quay (C) keyed (D) kissed
B
Choose the word that is correctly spelled84 (A) acomodation (B) accommodation (C) accomodation (D) acommodation B85 (A) embarrassment (B) embarassment (C) embarrasment (D) embarasment A86 (A) horrific (B) horific (C) horiffic (D) horriffic A87 As soon as Joy arrived she started looking for food The underlined
expression is an ----------- (A) adverbial phrase of reason (B) adverbial clauseof reason (C) adverbial phrase of time (D) adverbial clause of time
D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
USE OF ENGLISH
7
88 My friend a brilliant lecturer won many prizes The underlined expression isa(n) (A) adjectival clause (B) relative clause (C) appositive phrase (D)subject of lsquowonrsquo
C
89 I passed very well because I studied hard The underlined expression is a (A)relative clause introducer (B) linking verb (C) adverb of reason (D)subordinating conjunction
D
90 Bello and I love each other (A) preposition (B) reciprocal pronoun (C) nounphrase (D) adjectival phrase
B
91 I prefer writing to acting The underlined expressions is a(n) -------- (A) verb(B) participle (C) gerund (D) object
C
92 Having finished my assignment I started watching television The underlinedexpression is a(n) -------- (A) infinitive clause (B) gerund (C) participialphrase (D) noun clause
C
93 If you leave early yoursquoll meet Sola at home The underlined expression is a ----------- (A) nominal clause (B) verbal clause (C) conditional clause (D)adjectival clause
C
94 Wounded by a lion the hunter trudged home The underlined expression is a-----------(A) nominal clause (B) verbal clause (C) participial clause (D)adjectival clause
C
95 Irsquom proud of you The underlined expression functions as(A) prepositionalcomplement (B) adjectival complement (C) subject complement (D) verbalcomplement
B
96 A noun phrase lacks one of the following (A) noun (B) verb (C) adjective (D)adverb
B
97 Eve gave Adam an apple An apple in the sentence functions as------------(A)subject of the verb lsquogaversquo (B) direct object of the verb (C) indirect object ofthe verb (D) object complement
B
98 I wonder if you know where he lives This sentence is a(n) (A) thoughtfulstatement (B) polite command (C) indirect question (D) subtle exclamation
A
99 An example of gradable adjectives is hellip (A) each (B) beautiful (C) dead (D)live
B
100 A clause differs from a phrase because a clause contains helliphelliphellip (A) a largernumber of words (B) a fewer number of words (C) a finite verb (D) a non-finite verb
C
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Information
the study of accounting leads to a challenging career (D) accounting provides gross profit accounting is useful in making decisions (B) accounting plays an important role in a society (C)
Themost importantreasonfor studying accounting is that (A) theinformation providedby A 8
71 A partnership on admitting a new member revalued the business land and building from N30 C
000 to N70 000 The difference of N40 000 should be (A) credited to land and building account
(B) debited to asset revaluation account (C) credited to asset revaluation account (D) credited
to profit and loss appropriate account
72 Adamu Babaji and Chukwu are in a partnership and they share profit and losses on ratio 321 D
Their respective capitals are N20000 N15000 N5000 on which they are entitled to interest
at 5 per annum The profit for the year before charging interest on capital amounts to
N5500 Calculate the profit for Adamu (A) N583 (B) N1000 (C) N1167 (D) N1750
73 In a partnership business the net profit serves as opening figure for (A) trading account D
(B) profit and loss account (C) current account (D) appropriation account
74 In the absence of a partnership agreement profits and losses are shared (A) in the ratio of B
capital (B) equally (C) in the ratio of drawings (D) according to services rendered
5
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
FINANCIAL ACCOUNTING
75 Interest on a partners drawings is debited to the (A) partners current account and credited to A the profit and loss appropriate account (B) profit and loss appropriation account and credited
to the partners current account (C) profit and loss account and credited to the partners
account (D) partners current account and credited to the profit and loss account
76 Partnersrsquo share of profit is credited to (a) a partnerrsquos current account (b) a partnerrsquos capital A
account (c) the profit and loss account (d) the profit and loss appropriation account
77 Which of the following is a strong feature of partnership (A) The life of the partnership is B
generally assumed to be indefinite (B) The owners are liable personally for all debts of the
business The transfer of ownership interest is frequent and easy to accomplish (D) The
partnership is complex to form because of many legal and reporting requirements
78 A bond acknowledging a loan to a company under the companyrsquos seal bearing a fixed rate of D
interest is known as (A) certificate (B) agreement (C) bank loan (D) debenture
79 Alabede (Nig) Limited issued 50000 ordinary shares if 1 each at a market value of N250 each C
The share premium is (A) N125000 (B) N100000 (C) N75000 (D) N50000
80 All but one of the following are examples of capital reserves (A) Share premium (B) D
99 Which of the following is the most critical factor of industrial location in modern world (A) Raw B
materials (B) Market (C) Transportation (D) Capital
100 Which of the following represent an urban- rural migration (A) a students from the village C
school gains admission to the university in the town (B) Moving to the urban centre for
medical services (C) Traveling from Lagos to the village on retirement (D) A civil servants gets
transferred from one town to another
6
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
GOVERNMENT
1
1 A key characteristic of the civil service is (A) Merit system (B) Patriotism (C) Quota system(D) Transparency
A
2 A major cause of inefficiency in public corporations is (A) inadequate patronage by membersof the public (B) absence of an enabling Act or law (C) political interference (D)competition from private firms
C
3 A major distinction between public corporations and private companies is that (A) Publiccorporations provide important services (B) Public corporations are large organizations (C)Public corporations are financed and controlled by government (D) Public corporations arenot involved in production of tangible goods
C
4 A primary agency of political socialization is (A) the government B the family C the massmedia D the School
B
5 A process that seeks to transfer ownership and control of public corporations to privateindividuals or organizations is called (A) Indigenization (B) Commercialization (C)Privatization (D) Acquisition
C
6 Adult male suffrage means that (A) All men who pay tax can vote (B) All adult males canvote (C) All men can vote (D) All adults can vote B
7 All of the following are obligations of citizens except (A) Obedience to laws (B) Voting (C)Giving alms to beggars (D) Payment of taxes
C
8 An electoral district is (A) A local government area (B) A ward (C) A polling booth (D) Aconstituency
D
9 Fascism was practiced in Italy under (A) Benito Masollini (B) Benito Mubarak (C) BenitoMussolini (D) Benito Mandela
C
10 Governmental powers are _________ in the US presidential system (A) absolutely separated(B)fused (C) absolutely fused (D) separated D
11 In a democracy franchise is limited by (A) Age (B) Sex (C) Wealth (D) Education A
12 In the civil service anonymity means that civil servants must (A) Not receive the credit orblame for any good (B) Serve any government impartially (C) Avoid nepotism andfavouritism (D) Be politically neutral
A
13 In which of the following set of countries is a dominant two-party system operated (A)Nigeria and Ghana (B) The United States and the United Kingdom (C) France and Germany(D) India and China
B
14 One of the advantages of direct election is that (A) it is too expensive and difficult to conduct(B) illiterates vote intelligently for their leaders (C) it makes representatives accountable tothe electors (D) it offers an opportunity to the electorate to demand for money
C
15 One of the following is not a feature of a modern state (A) Territorial landmass (B) Populationof People (C) Defined Territory (D) Sovereignty
A
16 One of the following is not a source of constitution (A) Customs and conventions (B) civilservice regulations (C) historical documents (D) judicial precedents
B
17 One of the objectives of a multiparty system is to (A) Eliminate corruption (B) Preventrigging (C) Provide alternatives (D) Avoid ethnicity
C
18 Political sovereignty lies with (A) Head of State (B) Head of Government (C) the Parliament(D) the electorate
D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
GOVERNMENT
2
19 Public corporations are established principally to (A) compete with private firms (B) Raiserevenue for the government (C) provide essential services for the public (D) Promote publicaccountability
C
20 Public opinion helps a government to (A) Monitor its socio-cultural policy (B) Monitor theeconomic situation in the country (C) Punish opposition to its policies (D) Develop thecountry in line with the peoplersquos aspirations
D
21 Roles that are expected to be performed by an individual in a country are (A) Elections (B)Duties (C) Rights (D) Services
B
22 Separation of powers denotes __________________ (A) Separation of governmental powersbut not separation of persons (B) Separation of governmental powers and Separation ofpersons (C) Separation of persons only (D) Separation of powers of government only
B
23 The assent of the President is required to convert aan ____ to law (A) Bill (B) Edict (C)Proclamation (D) Decree A
24 The branch of Government that sets agenda for other organs is known as (A) the bureaucracy(B) the legislature (C) the executive (D) the mass media
B
25 The capitalist economy is dictated by (A) Government economic blueprint (B) Consumersrsquorequirements (C) Diminishing returns (D) the forces of demand and supply
D
26 The central Legislative body in Britain is referred to as --------------------------- (A) NationalAssembly (B) Knesset (C) Parliament (D) Congress
C
27 The chairman of the committee that reviewed the 1988 civil service commission was (A)Chief PC Asiodu (B) Chief Edwin Clerk (C) Chief Allison Ayida (D) Chief Simeon Adebo
C
28 The highest grade in the civil service is known as (A) Executive cadre (B) Administrative cadre(C) Technical cadre (D) Clerical cadre
B
29 The law of libel limits a citizenrsquos right to freedom of (A) Association (B) Expression (C)Worship (D) Movement
B
30 The major advantage of the secret ballot is that (A) It ensures the anonymity of each voter(B) It is faster than other systems (C) Nobody can be prevented from voting (D) It extendsthe franchise to all adults
A
31 The permanent executive includes (A) Civil servants and not public servants (B) Civil servantsand politicians (C) all career officers that serve any government in power (D) elected andappointed politicians
C
32 The pressure group that resorts to unconventional methods to achieve its objectives is called(A) Institutional group (B) Interest group (C) Promotional group (D) Anomic group
D
33 The three fundamental rights of citizens are (A) Life liberty and property (B) Salvationproperty freedom of thought (C) Employment property and social security (D) Freeeducation employment and property
A
34 When a constitution is not difficult to amend it is said to be (A) Rigid (B) Systematic (C)Flexible (D) Federal
C
35 Which of the following best describes a sovereign state (A) a member of the African Union(B) Freedom from economic control (C) Geographical contiguity (D) Military political and
economic independence
D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
GOVERNMENT
3
36 Which of these is an element of state power (A) Geographical location population ampeconomic resources (B) Geographical location elite interests amp economic resources (C)Geographical location ethnicity amp economic resources (D) Geographical location politicalcrisis amp economic resources
A
37 Which of these is not a method of election (A) Simple majority (B) Proportionalrepresentation (C) Primary election (D) Co-option
D
38 ___________ plays rule adjudication role in Nigeria (A) The Civil Service (B) The Legislature(C) The Executive (D) The Judiciary
D
39 A two-party system of government is one in which (A) only one party performs multipartyfunctions (B) the elite dominate political parties (C) only few parties are allowed to operateby law (D) There are two major parties and other minor parties
D
40 An important agency for social control in the Igbo traditional society was the (A) Age-grade(B) Ozo-title holders (C) Council of Chiefs (D) Assembly of lineage heads
A
41 Educated elites in Nigeria did not like the system of indirect rule because it (A) Did not makeprovisions for them (B) Was exploitative and cumbersome (C) Made traditional rulers toopowerful (D) Was undemocratic and oppressive
C
42 Federalism in Nigeria is best seen as a way of promoting (a)Rapid economic development (B)unity in diversity (C) even national development (D) democracy
B
43 In Nigeria the civil service was first regionalized by the (A) Independence constitution (B)Richard constitution (C) Clifford constitution (D) Lyttleton constitution B
44 In the Hausa pre-colonial political system sovereignty was located in the (A) Alkali (B) Emir(C) Waziri (D) Galadima
B
45 In the pre-Colonial HausaFulani system the appointment of an Emir in the caliphate wasapproved by (A) Sultan of Sokoto and the Emir of Gwandu (B) Galadima and the Waziri (C)Sardauna of Sokoto and the Alkali (D) Sheu of Bornu and the Galadima
A
46 Nationalist activities in British West Africa increased after the second World War because (A)Of the expulsion of Kwane Nkrumah from Britain (B) Of the return of the educated elite fromabroad (C) Prices of commodities fell below expectation (D) Africans were nominated to theexecutive council
B47 Nigeria started to operate a real federal structure with the introduction of the (A) 1922 Clifford
constitution (B) 1946 Richard constitution (C) 1953 London conference (D) 1954 Lyteltonconstitution
49 One of the fundamental changes recommended by Adedotun Philips commission is (A)Frequent movement of staff (B) Standardization (C) Professionalization (D) Stagnation
C
50 One of the fundamental reversals made by the commission that reviewed the 1988 reform ofthe civil service was (A) Change of Director General to Permanent Secretaries (B) Changefrom Permanent Secretary to Director General (C) Change from Director General toPermanent Administrators (D) Permanent Professionals
A
51 The helliphelliphellipLocal government reforms recognized local government as the third tier ofgovernment (A) 1963 (B) 1976 (C) 1988 (D) 1989
B
52 The breakdown of the Macpherson constitution was partly caused by the crisis within the (A)NCNC (B) AG (C) NPC (D) NNDP
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
GOVERNMENT
4
53 The First Executive president of Nigeria was (A) Dr Nnamdi Azikiwe (B) Sir Abubakar TafawaBalewa (C) General Yakubu Gowon (D) Alhaji Sheu Shagari
D
54 The first military coup in Nigeria took place on mdash (A) July 15 1966 (B) July 27 1967 (C)January 15 1966 (D) January 13 1966 C
55 The first three political parties to be registered in the Fourth Republic were (A) ACN ANPPand PDP (B) AD APP and PDP (C) PPA PDP CAN (D) APGA CAN and PDPB B
56 The imposition of unitary form of administration by General Ironsi in 1966 led to (A) Moremilitary institutions (B) Return to civilian rule (C) Independence from British rule (D) civilunrest in the North
D
57 The institution that preserves civil liberty in Nigeria is the (A) Law Court (B) Civil ServiceCommission (C) Police Affairs Commission (D) Public Complaints Commission
A
58 The main opposition party during the First Republic was the (A) Northern Peoples Congress(B) Action Group (C) Northern Element Progressive Union (D) United Middle Belt Congress
B
59 The state created in Nigeria before 1966 was (A) East central state (B) Lagos state (C) Mid-Western state (D) North central state
C
60 The1964 federal election was contested by two major alliances of political parties amongthese (A) All Progressive Grand Alliance and the Northern Peoples Alliance (B) NigerianNational Alliance and United Progressive Grand Alliance (C) National Democratic Coalitionand Nigerian Peoples Alliance (D) National Democratic Alliance and Northern ElementsProgressive Union
B
61 Under the 1999 constitution of the Federal Republic of Nigeria there are a total ofhelliphelliphellip Localgovernment councils (A) 334 (B) 620 (C) 724 (D) 774 D
62 Which of the following ethnic groups had the best egalitarian traditional political system (A)Hausa Fulani (B) Yoruba (C) Igbo (D) Edo
C
63 which of the following is not a major problem of local government in Nigeria (A) Insufficientfunding and limited internally generated revenue (B) Interference and control by higher levelsof government (C) Lack of competent and qualified staff (D) lack of sufficient number oflocal government
D
64 Which of the following is not a reason for the adoption of a Federal System of government mdash(A) Cultural diversities (B) Security consideration (C) Economic consideration (D) Limitedresources D
65 Which of the following is not an example of a public corporation in Nigeria (A) NigerianRailway Corporation (B) Federal Radio Corporation of Nigeria (C) Federal Mortgage Bank ofNigeria (D) National Deposit Insurance Corporation
C
66 Which of the following statements is true about the 1963 and 1979 Constitutions (A) Bothhad provisions for the office of the president (B) Both had provision for the office of theconstitutional president (C) Both provided for the offices of prime minister and president(D) Both had provision for the office of an executive president
A
67 Which of these former Nigerian Heads of State was instrumental to the establishment ofECOWAS (A) Sanni Abacha (B) Yakubu Gowon (C) Olusegun Obasanjo (D) Tafawa Balewa
B
68 In 1975 Nigeria had a strained relationship with one of the following countries over the crisisin Angola (A) Britain (B) Israel (C) USA (D) Mexico
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
GOVERNMENT
5
69 Nigeriarsquos non ndash aligned posture was criticized on ground of the (A) Non ndash Proliferation Treaty(B) ECOWAS Treaty (C) Nuclear Test Ban Treaty (D) Anglo ndash Nigeria Defence Pact
D
70 The circumstance that led to the establishment of ECOWAS Monitoring Group (ECOMOG ) was(A) the bloody civil war in Nigeria (B) the bloody civil war in Liberia (C) the bloody civil war inSudan (D) the bloody civil war in all West African countries
B
71 The head of Nigeriarsquos foreign mission in a Commonwealth nation is best known and addressedas (A) Ambassador (B) Envoy (C) High commissioner (D) Representative
C
72 What determines Nigeriarsquos relations with other countries (A) Its national interest (B) Itslevel of democratization (C) Its citizens political sagacity (D) Its political culture
A
73 Which of the following best defines foreign policy (A) The ways in which some actors on thedomestic scene translate available power into policies designed to bring positive outcomes (B)The actions of a state towards the celestial environment (C) A set of objectives with regardsto the world beyond the borders of a given state and a set of strategies and tactics designed toachieve these objectives (D) The protection of the territorial integrity of a state
C74 Which of the following military regimes was credited with a dynamic foreign policy (A)
75 Which of these is an example of Nigeriarsquos external cultural relations (A) Exchange of studentswith friendly nations (B) Trade relationships with other countries (C) Financial and economicassistance to needy countries (D) Establishment of diplomatic missions in other countries
A
76 Which of these is correct about Nigeriarsquos foreign policy between 1960 and 1966 (A) It waspro-British (B) It was pro-American (C) It was pro-Soviet (D) It was pro-French
A
77 Which of these is NOT part of a countryrsquos core or vital interests (A) Economic viability (B)Political independence (C) Territorial integrity (D) Political brouhaha
D
78 Which of these is NOT the essence of foreign policy (A) Promotion and defence of a nationrsquosvital interest (B) Protection and promotion of a nationrsquos strategic interest (C) Protection andpromotion of the interest of the political leaders of a country (D) Promotion and defence ofthe economic interest of a nation
C
79 Which of these Nigerians has ever played a leading role in the operation of OPEC (A) AlhajiRilwanu Lukman (B) Prof Joe Garba (C) Prof Joy Ogwu (D) Gen Ike Nwachukwu
A
80 Which year was the Anglo-Nigerian defence pact abrogated (A) 1962 (B) 1963 (C) 1960 (D)1961
A
81 A major weakness of the Commonwealth is (A) lack of commitment by member states (B)lack of quorum at annual summits (C) poverty among member states (D) lack of democraticleadership A
82 An essential principle that guides the works of the United Nations (A) The regulation ofinternational trade (B) The protection of the United States of America against terrorism (C)Respect for sovereign equality of member states (D) The transfer of technology to developingcountries
C
83 In which of these International Organisations is African membership NOT possible (A)ECOWAS (B) EU (C) OPEC (D) Commonwealth
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
GOVERNMENT
6
84 Membership of the Commonwealth of Nations means (A) recognition of the Queen as theHead of the commonwealth and the republican states (B) recognition of the Queen as theHead of the commonwealth and not of the Republican States (C) recognition of the Queen asthe Head of the independent states and the republican states (D) recognition of the Queen asthe Head of all independent states
B85 One major achievement of OPEC is that (A) member nations are now formidable forces to be
reckoned with in international politics (B) world economic depression brought about fall in oilprice (C) there is a declining loyalty of its members (D) there are challenges posed by non ndashOPEC members
A
86 One of the following groups of states are all members of the ECOWAS (A) Nigerian Ghana andZaire (B) Guinea Togo and Cameroun (C) Guinea Bissau Burkina Faso and Cape Verde (D)Liberia Benin and Ethiopia C
87 The AU was formed by members of OAU (A) On 8th July 2002 at Durban South Africa (B) On8th July 2003 at Abuja Nigeria (C) On 8th July 2003 at Tripoli (D) On 8th June 2002 at AccraGhana
A
88 The first nation to become a republic within the Commonwealth of Nations is (A) Nigeria (B)Cyprus (C) Ghana (D) India D
89 The first summit of the African Union (AU) took place (A) On February 2 2004 at Addis AbabaEthiopia (B) On February 3 2003 at Addis Ababa Ethiopia (C) On February 3 2003 at AbujaNigeria (D) On February 2 2004 at Lagos Nigeria
B
90 The Non-aligned Movement was established at----------- in ---------- (A) Bombay 1955 (B)Bandung 1955 (C) Lagos 1972 (D) Addis Ababa 1955
B
91 The OAU adopted NEPAD during its summit held in (A) Abuja (B) Lusaka (C) Tunis (D) Cairo
D92 The organ charged with the responsibility of approving the annual budget of UNO is (A) The
Security Council (B) The International Court of Justice (C) the General Assembly (D) TheTrusteeship Council
C
93 To which of these blocs did Nigeria belong before the establishment of the OAU (A)Casablanca group (B) Monrovia group (C) Pan African group (D) African and Malagasy group
B
94 What is the full meaning of ECOWAS (A) Economic Community for Western African States (B)Economic Community of Western African States (C) Economic Community of West AfricanStates (D) Economic Community for West African States C
95 Where and when was the African Union inaugurated (A) Durban 2000 (B) Addis Ababa1963 (C) Lagos 1972 (D) Tripoli 2001
A
96 Which of the following is a functionally specialized global international organization (A)Organization of African Unity (B) United Nations (C) Food and Agriculture Organization (D)African Union
C
97 Which of the following is a specialized agency of the AU (A) The Assembly Conference (B) TheExecutive Council (C) African Court of Justice (D) The Commission
C
98 Which of the following is an apt definition of the Commonwealth of Nations (A) voluntaryassociation of the independent countries of the former British Colonies (B) association of freenations enjoying equal rights under the British (C) a free association of sovereign independentAfrican States (D) a voluntary association of countries that were formerly in the Frenchcolonial empire
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
GOVERNMENT
7
99 Which of the following is NOT a principal organ of the UNO (A) UNICEF (B) Security Council(C) Secretariat (D) General Assembly
A
100 Which of the following metamorphosed into the United Nations (A) International LabourOrganization (B) League of Nations (C) UNESCO (D) OAU
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
HISTORY
1 is the name of the political head of Zaria (A) Obi (B) Emir (C) Oba (D) Alaafin B
2 was the state which was thrown into anarchy and turmoil as a result of the opening of A
the Muni the sacred heritage by the king under the prompting of Muslim Missionaries (A)
Kanem (B) Salem (C) Njimi (D) Chad
3 Before getting to Nigeria River Niger passed across (A) Mali (B) Kanem (C) Chad (D) A
Morocco
4 Oba is the name of the political head of (A) Benin (B) Kano (C) Bornu (D) Sokoto A
5 The Amazon (female warriors ) Participated actively in defending which of these kingdoms (A) C
10 Scurvy is caused by the deficiency of (A) Protein (B) Vitamin D (C) Vitamin A (D) Vitamin C D
11 The dietary guide is to (A) Promote health (B) Promote disease (C) Promote sports (D)Promote too much eating
A
12 The fat soluble vitamins are (A) A B E and K (B) A D E and K (C) A C E and K (D) A D C and K B
13 The methods of cooking includes all except (A) Baking (B) Toasting (C )Boiling (D) None of theabove
D
14 Too much sugar in the body could lead to (A) Urinating (B) Heart disease (C) Liver disease (D)Diabetes
D
15 Vitamin D is for the (A) Formation of nerves (B) Formation of tissue (C) Formationof bones (D) Formation and digestion
C
16 Vitamin K performs the function of (A) Blood cell (B) Blood flow (C) Blood use (D) Blood clot D
17 Water soluble vitamins are (A) A C and B complex (B) A E and B complex (C) C and Bcomplex (D) A and B complex
C
18 What is an appetizer(A) Meal eaten after the main meal (B) Meal eaten as the second course meal (C) Meal eatenas the first course meal (D) Meal eaten as the last course meal
C
19 What is steaming (A) Cooking with water vapor (B) Cooking with water boiling (C) Cookingwith dry heat (D) All of the above
A
20 What is under nutrition (A) Consumption of less nutritious foods (B) Consumption ofadequate nutrients (C) Consumption of balance nutrients (D) Consumption of available foods
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
HOME ECONOMICS
2
21 Which is not a communicable disease (A) Measles (B) Marasmus (C) Chicken pox (D)Tuberculosis
B
22 Which is not a type of food storage (A) Moist storage (B) Dry storage (C) Refrigerator storage(D) Freezer storage
A
23 Which is the best method of cooking food to retain nutrient (A) Roasting (B) Boiling (C)Steaming (D) Frying
C
24 Which of these is not correct (A) Carbohydrate is to provide fat to the body (B) Protein is tobuild the body (C) Vitamin is to maintenance of metabolism in the body (D) Water is vital forlife
A
25 Which of these is responsible for proper bone formation (A) Protein (B) Carbohydrate (C)Calcium (D) Cobalamin
C
26 A group of people related by blood and living together is regarded as a (A) Community (B)Society (C) Home (D) Family
D
27 Disposal of household refuse should be done (A) Once a week (B) Every day (C) Twice a week(D) Once a week
B
28 Family can be identified as (A) Larger society (B) Community society (C) Nucleus of society(D) Entire society
C
29 Home Management involves (A) Addressing a home and making it a place of comfort andhappiness (B) Structuring a home and making it a place of comfort and happiness (C)Managing a home and making it a place of comfort and happiness (D) Dedicating a home andmaking it a place of comfort and happiness
C
30 Identify the steps in Home management (A) Planning organizing implementingEvaluation (B) Organizing planning implementing Evaluation (C) Implementing Planningorganizing Evaluation (D) Planning implementing organizing Evaluation
A
31 In choosing a curtain for the home we must consider all except (A) Colour of the wall (B)Colour of the ceiling (C) Colour of the furniture (D) Colour of all colours
D
32 In cleaning of the sitting room we must do all except (A) Open the windows (B) Close thewindows (C) Dust the furniture (D) Sweep the floor
B
33 Meal planning involves (A) Number to be served (B) Quantity of food to cook (C) Healthstatus of family members (D) All of the above
D
34 Money management depend on all except one (A) How money is dedicated (B) How moneyis utilized (C) How money is organized (D) How money is spent
A
35 Saving means (A) Money set aside for use in future (B) Money spent yesterday (C) Moneyspent last month (D) Money spent outside the budget
A
36 Steps in making family budget does not include (A) List all the commodities and servicesneeded (B) Estimate cost (C) Estimate the total expected income (D) Estimated money spent
D
37 Which is not a type of family system in Nigeria (A) Nuclear family (B) Polygamous family (C)Polyandry family (D) Extended family
C
38 Which is not a type of marriage in Nigeria (A) Christian marriage (B) Islamic marriage (C)Hindu marriage (D) Traditional marriage
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
HOME ECONOMICS
3
39 Whish of these is not a benefit of energy management (A) Energy is conserved (B) Eliminatesfatigue (C) Energy is fully used up (D) Reduces amount of time on a task
C
40 Choose a type of seam from these options (A) Run and stand (B) Run and fell (C) Close seam(D) English seam
C
41 Choose the most correct option (A) Clothing is the material used in sewing (B) Clothing is thefabric used in sewing (C) Clothing is the not material used in sewing (D) Clothing is the notthe fabric used in sewing
B
42 Dying a fabric will require most importantly (A) Colour (B) Table (C) Wax (D)Dye D
43 Natural fibres include only one of the options (A) Cotton (B) Linen (C) Wool (D) All of theabove
D
44 Stitches are divided into all except (A) Basic stitches (B) Embroidery (C) Permanent stitches (D)None of the above
46 Which is not a factor to consider in clothing selection (A) Sex (B) Age (C) Occupation (D) Hair D
47 Which of these is a basic stitch (A) Back stitch (B) Temporary stitch (C) French knot (D) Shellhem
A
48 Which of these is a factor to consider in clothing selection (A) Figure type (B) Figure cloth (C)Figure shoe (D) Figure choice
A
49 Which of these is not used in tie-dye (A) Water (B) Caustic soda (C) Soap (D) Hydrosulphide C
50 Wool is obtained from (A) Plant (B) Synthetic (C) Silk (D) Animal D
51 Determine the option that is not a career opportunity in Home Economics (A) Dietician (B)Researcher (C) Teacher (D) Jester
D
52 In family budgeting and expenditure Home Economics is related to ------------ discipline (A)Physics (B) Chemistry (C) Economics (D) Sociology
C
53 In interrelationship with family members Home Economics is related to ------------ discipline (A)Sociology (B) Psychology (C) Biology (D) Economics
A
54 In law of heat as applied to toaster iron Home Economics is related to ------------ discipline (A)Mathematics (B) Physics (C) Psychology (D) Biology
B
55 Someone who studied Family and child development can work as (A) Childhood Caterer inschools (B) Interior decorator in schools (C) Childhood Food vendor (D) Early Childhoodeducator
D
56 Someone who studied Food and Nutrition can work as a (A) Caterer (B) Doctor (C) Nurse (D)Vendor
A
57 The scope of Home Economics include (A) Food and Nutrition Home Economics Clothingand textile (B) Food and Nutrition Home management Clothing and textile (C) Food andNutrition Home management Fabric cutting (D) Food and Nutrition Home Design Clothingand textile
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
HOME ECONOMICS
4
58 What are the basic philosophy of Home Economics (A) How to improve only goods andservices used by individuals families and communities (B) How to determine only the needsof the individual family institution and community (C) How to become responsiblemember of families and communities (D) How to determine the need and improveindividual family institution and community
D
59 What is the basic philosophy of Home Economics (A) How to improve only goods and servicesused by individuals families and communities (B) How to determine only the needs of theindividual family institution and community (C) How to become responsible member offamilies and communities (D) How to determine the need and improve individual familyinstitution and community
D
60 A pregnant woman is carrying -------------- in her womb (A) Baby (B) Child (C) Foetus (D)Pregnancy
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
LITERATURE IN ENGLISH
1
1 Conceits more rich in matter than in wordsBrags of his substance not of ornament (ActIISCIV) The structure of this dramatic speech is an example of (A) paradoxicalstructure (B) parallel structure (C) circular thought pattern (D) antithesis
D
2 A drama form that teaches godliness righteousness and goodwill to all men among rulers andordinary citizens is called----- (A) sentimental comedy (B) heroic tragi-comedy (C) heroicfarce (D) satire
A
3 A dramatic composition in which many or all the words are sung is called---- (A) Oratorio (B)Opera (C) Comedy (D) Concert
B
4 A humorous play based on an unrealistic situation is considered in drama as--- (A) comedy(B) tragedy (C) farce (D) burlesque
C
5 A play is a tragedy when------------------ (A) the author presents life as a hopeless adventure (B)the main character dies before the play ends (C) there is much bloodshed in the play (D) aweakness in the main character leads to his downfall
D
6 A play that ends on a sad note is a ----------- (A)tragicomedy (B) comedy (C) tragedy (D)farce
C
7 A play that stirs readers to pity fear and laughter is called (A) tragicomedy (B) farce (C)absurd (D) melodrama
A
8 A play that tells a single story has one setting and takes place within a specified period is saidto-------- (A) be heavily moralistic (B) be clearly cohesive (C) possess the three unities (D)have tragic elements
C
9 A play which emphasizes laughter and amusement at the expense of credibility is called----(A) cartoon (B) elegy (C) comedy (D) farce
D
10 A play with a single character is called (A) solo-drama (B) monodrama(C) play let (D) All of the above
D
11 A tragic figure is a character who is (a) worthy of emulation (b) ennobled though suffering (c)unbending and irredeemable (d) completely transformed
C
12 A type of drama that celebrates or satirizes the follies of characters is called---- (A) comedy(B) tragedy (C) farce (D) tragicomedy
A
13 A type of drama that highlights suspense and romantic sentiment with characters who areusually either clearly good or bad is called ----(A) farce (B) melodrama (C) comedy (D)burlesque
B
14 According to Aristotle the key to tragedy is the concept of (A) cartharsis (B) chorus (C)representation(D) plot
A
15 Aristotlersquos word for a tragic herorsquos shortcoming is (a) hubris (b) harmatia (c) denouement(d) dilemma
B
16 As a comic dramatic piece a farce makes use of improbable situations and characters that are(A) exaggerated (B) extravagant (C) understanding (D) poor
A
17 Both comedy and tragedy have ------------- (A) climax (B) tragic hero (C) stanza (D) happyending
A
18 Farce can be described as a dramatic piece marked by----------- (A) movement from serious tothe light-hearted mood (B) comic and exaggerated actions (C) actions devoid of meaning (D)gloomy actions with momentary reliefs B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
LITERATURE IN ENGLISH
2
19 In ----- the major character is selfish devilish wicked and exploitative (A) Comedy (B)Tragicomedy (C) Farce (D) Melodrama
D
20 In a play tragic responses are brought to a head through three elements (A) reversalrecognition and suffering (B) weakness suffering and resolution (C) flaw fear andrecognition (D) reversal suffering and conclusion
A
21 In de Graftrsquos Sons and Daughters James Ofosu is treated with (A) ridicule (B)dramatic irony (C) sarcasm (D) melodramatic spectacle
B
22 In drama a flashback occurs when (A) a characterrsquos inner mind isrevealed (B) the playwright supplies a missing link in a characterrsquos past (C) a character dropsan idea that hints at the future (D) a character drops an idea that hints at the concealed past
D
23 In drama light furniture custom and make-up are part of (A) stage deacutecor (B)stage architectonics (C) stage proxemics (D) kineaesthetics
A
24 In most of Shakespearersquos drama when a character speaks in aside the act is referred to as (A) stream of consciousness (B) sleep-walking (C) soliloquy (D) monologue
C
25 In Romeo and Juliet Romeo died (A) of self-poison (B) being murdered byFriar Laurence (C) the capulet (D) unknown assassins
A
26 In Sons and Daughters Fosuwa symbolizes (A) tradition and the old order (B) modernity (C)youthful exuberance (D) patriarchy
A
27 In Sons and Daughters the character of James Ofosu symbolizes (A) poverty (B) old values (C)new values (D) wealth
B
28 In tragedy everything must be artistically balanced this means that (A) the setting must bein one place (B) nothing superfluous is included and nothing essential omitted (C) characterand action are in equal ratio (D) there should be equal ratio of male and female characters
B29 -------------is a drama form which depicts royal wickedness of English kings and queens (A)
Heroic drama (B) Heroic tragicomedy (C) Heroic farce (D) SatireA
30 -----------is a drama form which ends happily after a number of initial tragic occurrences areresolved (A) Tragicomedy (B) Melodrama (C) Heroic Drama (D) Farce
A
31 --------------is the drama form which ends up on a note of happiness after some initial minorproblems (A) Tragedy (B) Farce (C) Heroic drama D Comedy
D
32 Joe de Graft was a prominent playwright from (A) Ghana (B) Nigeria (C) Cameroon (D) SierraLeone
A
33 Melodrama is the genre of drama which is characterized by emphasis on theatricality over(A) characterization (B) plot (C) setting (D) point of view A
34 One basic feature of melodrama is (A) humour (B) high-spirit (C)triumph of vice over virtue (D) overcome of evil by good
C
35 One of the peculiar features of drama in general is ------------ (A) humour (B) satire (C)sarcasm (D) action
D
36 Romeo and Juliet portrays the (A) chaos and passion of being in love (B) moral situation of thesociety (C) happiness of falling in love (D) evitability of fate
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
LITERATURE IN ENGLISH
3
37 The first part of a Greek tragedy is called a prologue and is also a playrsquos (A) envoy (B)exposition (C) rising action (D) climax
B
38 The most basic feature of drama is helliphelliphelliphelliphelliphelliphelliphelliphelliphellip (A) monologue (B) suspense (C) action(D) plot
C
39 The play Romeo and Juliet begins with (A) serious argument (B) sincere love (C) streetfight (D) secret marriage
C
40 The play Romeo and Juliet is an example of (A) realistic comedy (B) romantic comedy (C)satiric comedy (D) ironic comedy
B
41 The term farce is now used to cover a form of drama which employs (A) mistaken identity(B) slapstick (C) reversal of roles (D) romantic plot
A
42 The tragic herorsquos flaw is called (A) hubris (B) harmatia (C) caesura (D)peripeteia B
43 The word ldquocastrdquo in a play refers to (A) Three of the actors (B) A few of the actors (C) All theactors (D) An exclusive social class in the play
C
44 Theatre of the absurd portrays people whose sufferings seem (A) unfortunate (B)ridiculous (C) indefinite (D) sympathetic
B
45 Tragecomedies developed in which century (A) 18th (B) 19th (C) 20th (D) 21st C C46 When a play includes witty and graceful situation it can be classified as (A) comedy of
manners (B) high comedy (C) low comedy (D) comedy of the absurdB
47 When the plot of a play begins in the middle and only unfolds the past through flashback it iscalled (A) complex-plot (B) media res (C) prefiguration (D) None of theforegoing
B
48 Which of the following is true of Opera (A) They are plays with elaborate music (B) They areplays with elaborate songs (C) They are plays with dance (D) A and B
D
49 Which of the following statements best describes comedy (A) A play in which nobody dies(B) A play which makes us laugh (C) A play in which the hero is a clown (D) A play which endshappily
D
50 A story in which the characters are animals but behave like human beings is a (A) fable (B)fairy tale (C) folktale (D) parable
A
51 Considering the way Nnu Egorsquos life ends in The Joys of Motherhood the title of the novel canbe said to be (A) ironic (B) ambiguous (C) sarcastic (D) euphemistic
A
52 In lsquoThe Old Man and the Medalrsquo when in answer to the question if she had slept well Kelaraanswered ldquoI counted the matting in the roofrdquo she meant that (A) she slept very well (B) shewas awake when she should have been sleeping (C) she was thinking of mending the roof (D)there was a hole in the roof
B53 In a novel the antagonist is usually called a (A) narrator (B) hero (C) villain (D) clown C
54 In Nineteen Eighty-four the most important character in the story is____ (A) Winston Smith(B) Julia (C) OrsquoBrien (D) Big Brother
A
55 In Nineteen Eighty-Four the poet is (A) OrsquoBrien (B) Ampleforth (C) Syme (D) Martin B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
LITERATURE IN ENGLISH
4
56 In The Joys of Motherhood Nnaife enlisted in the army because (A) he was running awayfrom his wives and children (B) his white employers had gone home to Europe leaving himjobless (C) he wanted to prove that he was a man (D) he was looking for adventure
B
57 In The Joys of MotherhoodNnu Ego at one point tried to commit suicide because (A)someone used witchcraft on her (B) her only child had just died (C) she could not bear theshame of being barren (D) she did not like Nnaifersquos appearance
B
58 In The Old Man and the Medal when in answer to the question if she had slept well Kelaraanswered ldquoI counted the matting in the roofrdquo she meant that (A) she slept very well (B) shewas awake when she should have been sleeping (C) she was thinking of mending the roof (D)there was a hole in the roof
B
59 Nineteen Eighty-four can be described as a _____ (A) political satire (B) comedy (C)tragedy (D) chronicle
A
60 The expression ldquoto break the leg of an anteloperdquo which is found in The Old Man and the Medalmeans______ (A) hunting (B) travelling (C) marriage (D) fighting
D
61 The Joys of Motherhood suggests that (A) sometimes men are irresponsible as fathers andhusbands (B) children always grow up to help their parents (C) husbands always appreciatehardworking wives (D) women care for their children but neglect their husbands
A
62 The major thematic preoccupation of Joys of Motherhood is (A) politics (B) economicemancipation (C) motherhood (D) colonialism
C
63 ldquoThe piercing chill I feel My dead wifersquos comb in our bedroom Under my heelrdquo(trans ByHarold Henderson) What is the form of the above poem (A) haiku (B) triplet (C) tercet (D)quatrain A
64 A sonnet is a poem of_____ lines (A) 15 (B) 14 (C) 16 (D) 12 B
65 A stanza of three lines linked by rhyme is called a________ (A) couplet (B) ballad (C) tercet(D) quatrain
C
66 From David Rubadirirsquos ldquoAn African Thunderstormrdquo ldquoClouds come hurrying with the windrdquocontains an example of (A) alliteration (B) assonance (C) enjambment (D) rhyme
A
67 In poetry double rhyme can be used to bring out (A) irony (B) unity (C) theme (D)conclusion
A
68 The stanzas which make up a ballad usually consists of_____lines (A) 7 (B) 8 (C) 4 (D) 9 C
69 The tone in lsquoHeritage of Liberationrsquo is_____ (A) lamentative (B) invocatory (C) explanatory(D) melancholic
B
70 The typical rhyme scheme of an English sonnet is (A) abab cdcd efef gg (B) abab cdcd eeffgg (C) abcd abcd efef gg (D) abcc abcd efff gg
A
71 The words ldquoproverdquo and ldquoaboverdquo are examples of the rhyme called (A) exact (B) half (C) eye(D) slant
C
72 When words in poetry rise and fall in a measured way it is referred to as________ (A) rhyme(B) rhythm (C) repetition (D) euphemism
B
73 Which of the following is NOT a form of poetic expression (A) Octet (B) Lyric (C) Sonnet (D)Elegy
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
LITERATURE IN ENGLISH
5
74 ______is the deliberate use of exaggeration for the sole purpose of humour in poetry (A)Simile (B) Hyperbole (C) Onomatopoeia (D) Oxymoron
B
75 A character who remains unchanged in a story is described as (A) round (B) flat (C) stock(D) dynamic
B
76 A figure of speech which refers to the repetition of the initial consonant sounds of poetry witha rhythmic effect is called_______ (A) alliteration (B) assonance (C) apostrophe (D)euphemism
A
77 A literary work that appropriates matter andor manner from a previous work is (A) archetype (B) imitation (C) adaptation (D) sub-text
C
78 A tragic plot consists of (A) many people in various disastrous events (B) important incidents(C) noble and ordinary characters (D) a self-contained and concentrated single action
D
79 An expression or word which stands for a whole is called_______ (A) metonymy (B) allegory(C) synecdoche (D) repetition
C
80 Assonance refers to the _______ (A) repetition of alphabets in a line of poetry (B) repetitionof vowels in a line (C) agreement of vowel sounds in a line (D) agreement of consonantsounds in a line
B
81 Characters whose role contribute to the movement of plot are called (A)Minor characters (B) free characters (C) central characters (D) round characters
C
82 Identical vowel sounds create one of the following (A) euphony (B) cacophony (C)alliteration (D) assonance
D
83 Identify the odd one out of the following helliphelliphelliphelliphelliphellip (A) Aside (B) Costume (C) Narrative(D) Stage
C
84 Identify the odd one out of the following (A) Deacutecor (B) costume (C) Make-up (D) Mime D
85 In a novel the location of the story is referred to as the (A) stage (B) exposition (C) subject(D) setting
D
86 Point out the odd item (A) Macbeth (B) Twelfth Night (C) The Concubine (D) Romeo andJuliet
C
87 Pregnant clouds Ride stately on its back The clouds are described as ldquopregnantrdquo because (A)no one knows what is in them (B) they look like a fat woman (C) they bring rainfall (D)they move clumsily
C
88 The antagonist in a tragedy is ------------ (A) any character in the tragedy (B) the wife of theprotagonist (C) the character who provides comic relief (D) the character set in opposition tothe main character D
89 The device whereby the narrator recalls something that happened in the past is (A)foreshadowing (B) flashback (C) epiphany (D) prologue
B
90 The first person narrative point of view is characterized by the frequent use of (A) presenttense (B) singular nouns (C) past tense (D) the pronouns ldquoIrdquo and ldquowerdquo
D
91 The most mimetic term in critical vocabulary is (A) plot (B) imitation (C)character (D) action
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
LITERATURE IN ENGLISH
6
92 The structure of a story which shows the cause and effect of events is the (A) denouement (B)climax (C) imagery (D) plot
D
93 When one scene leads to another in inextricable chain of relationships it is called (A)episodic play (B) caused play (C) metaphysical play (D) All of the above
B
94 I would Love you ten years before the Flood And you should if you please refuse Tillthe conversion of the Jews The literary device used in the above extract is (A) allusion (B)innuendo (C) satire (D) archetype A
95 ldquoThat pierced the fearful hollow of thine earrdquo is an example of (A) relativeclause (B) figure of speech (C) personification (D) noun clause D
96 ldquoWilt thou be gone It is not yet near day It was the nightingale and not the lark That piercedthe fearful hollow of thine earrdquo The first sentence here is an example of (A)interrogative sentence (B) apostrophe (C) rhetorical statement (D) request
C
97 From Andrew Marvellrsquos ldquoTo His Coy Mistressrdquo Had we but world enough and time Thiscoyness lady were no crime We could sit down and think which way To walk and pass ourlong loversquos day This poem opens in the lines above like a (A) Sonnet (B) praise poem (C)ballad (D) dramatic monologue
D
98 Identify the odd term (A) Enjambment (B) Rhyme (C) Plot (D) Alliteration C
99 In the village Screams of delighted children Toss and turn In the din of whirling wind Women Babies clinging on their backs Dart about In and out Madly The Wind whistlesby Whilst trees bend to let it pass In the above extract the movement of the women is (A)leisurely (B) hurried (C) orderly (D) slow
B100 Tossing up things on its tail Like a madman chasing nothing These lines contain an example
of a (A) metaphor (B) simile (C) metonymy (D) paradoxB
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
MATHEMATICS
1
1 (128 x 104 ) divide (64 x 102 ) equals(A) 2 x 10-5 (B) 2 x 10-1 (C) 2 x 100 (D) 2 x 101 (E) 2 x 105
D
2 A man and wife went to buy an article costing N400 The woman had 10 of the cost andthe man 40 of the remainder How much did they have altogether(A) N216 (B) N200 (C) N184 (D) N144 (E) N100
C
3 Add the same number to the numerator and denominator of 318 If the resulting fraction isfrac12 then the number added is(A) 13 (B) 14 (C) 15 (D) 12 (E) 11
D
4 After getting a rise of 15 a manrsquos new monthly salary is N345 How much per monthdid he earn before the increase(A) N330 (B) N39675 (C) N300 (D) N29325 (E) N360
C
5 Assuming loge 44 = 14816 and loge 77 = 20142 then the value of loge frac14 is(A) 05326 (B) 34958 (C) 04816 (D) 00142 (E) 13594
A
6 Evaluate ൫2 + 4ଵଶ൯ଶ
(A) frac14 (B) 54 (C) 94 (D) 4 (E) 9
C
7 Evaluate correct to 4 decimal places 82751 x 0015(A) 88415 (B) 124127 (C) 1241265 (D) 124120(E) 1141265
B
8 Express 130 kilometres per second in metres per hour(A) 78 x 105 (B) 468 x 106 (C) 7800000(D) 468 x 106 (E) 780 x 10-6
B
9 Find the square root of 170-20radic30 (A) 2radic10-5radic3 (B) 3radic5-8radic6 (C) 2radic5-5radic6 (D) 5radic5-2radic6 (E) 5radic10-2radic3
C
10 If (25)x-1 = 64(5frasl2)6 then x has the value(A) 7 (B) 4 (C) 32 (D) 64 (E) 5
B
11 If a circular paper disc is trimmed in such a way that its circumference is reduced in theratio 25 in what ratio is the surface area reduced(A) 8125 (B) 25 (C) 825 (D) 425 (E) 410
D
12 In base ten the number 101101 (base 2) equals(A) 15 (B) 4 (C) 45 (D) 32 (E) 90
C
13 Simplifyହ ୶ ଶହ౮షభ
ଵଶହ౮శభ
(A) 5ଶ୶ ଵ (B) 5୶ାଶ (C) 5ହ (D) 5୶ାଵ (E) 5ଷ
C
14 Simplify(ଵ)൫రయାଵమళ൯
(మଵమ)
(A) ଶଷ (B) ଵଷ (C) ଶ + 1 (D) a (E) ଵଷ
E
15 Simplify ଵଶଶℎଵଷ divide ହଶℎଷ
(A) ( ℎ)ଶ (B) ହଶℎ (C) ହସℎଽ (D)మ
ఱళ(E)
ଵ
మమ
A
16 Simplify 2ହ
ଵଶminus 1
x
ହ
(A) 16 (B) 1320 (C) 1130 (D) 94 (E) 53
A
17 Solve the system of equations 2௫ା௬ = 32 3ଷ௬௫ = 27(A) (3 2) (B) (-3 2) (C) (3 -2) (D) (-3 -2) (E) (2 2)
A
18 The annual profits of a transport business were divided between the two partners A and Bin the ratio 35 If B receives N3000 more than A the total profit was(A) N5000 (B) N1800 (C) N12000 (D) N24000 (E) N8000
C
19 The diameter of a metal rod is measured as 2340cm to four significant figures What is D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
MATHEMATICS
2
the maximum error in the measurement(A) 005cm (B) 05cm (C) 0045cm (D) 0005cm (E) 0004cm
20 The ratio of the price of a loaf of bread to the price of a packet of sugar in 1975 was r t in1980 the price of a loaf went up by 25 and that of a packet of sugar by 10 Their newratio is now(A) 40r50t (B) 44r50t (C) 50r44t (D) 55r44t (E) 44r55t
C
21 The sum of 378 and 113 is less than the difference between 38 and 123 by (A) 323 (B)5frac14 (C) 6frac12 (D) 0 (E) 818
C
22 Two distinct sectors in the same circle subtend 1000 and 300 respectively at the centre ofthe circle Their corresponding arcs are in the ratio
24 What is the number whose logarithm to base 10 is 3482(A) 2236 (B) 02228 (C) 2235 (D)
2237 (E) 002229
E
25 When a dealer sells a bicycle for N81 he makes a profit of 8 What did he pay for thebicycle
(A) N73 (B) N7452 (C) N75 (D) N7552 (E)N8748
C
26 Write the decimal number 39 to base 2(A) 100111 (B) 110111 (C) 111001 (D) 100101 (E) 195
A
27 A father is now three times as old as his son Twelve years ago he was six times as old ashis son How old are the son and the father(A) 20 and 45 (B) 100 and 150 (C) 45 and 65 (D) 35 and 75 (E) 20 and 60
E
28 A steel ball of radius 1cm is dropped into a cylinder of radius 2cm and height 4cm If thecylinder is now filled with water what is the volume of the water in the cylinder(A) cm3ߨ443 (B) 12 cm3ߨ (C) 383 cm3ߨ (D) 403 cm3ߨ (E) 3233 cm3ߨ
A
29 Find a two-digit number such that three times the tens digit is 2 less than twice the unitsdigit and twice the number is 20 greater than the number obtained by reversing the digits(A) 24 (B) 42 (C) 74 (D) 47 (E) 72
D
30 Find the roots of the equation minusଶݔ10 minusݔ13 3 = 0(A) x = 35 or ndashfrac12 (B) x = 310 or -1 (C) x = -310 or 1 (D) x = 15 or -32 (E) x= -15 or 32
E
31 If a function is defined by +ݔ) 1) = minusଶݔ3 +ݔ 4 find (0)(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 0 (D) 8 (E) 2
D
32 If sin x equals cosine x what is x in radians(A) π2 (B) π3 (C) π4 (D) π6 (E) π12
C
33 If x2 + 4 = 0 then x =(A) 4 (B) -4 (C) 2 (D) -2 (E) none of these
E
34 In a geometric progression the first term is 153 and the sixth term is 1727 the sum of thefirst four terms is(A) 8603 (B) 6803 (C) 6083 (D) 8063 (E) 68027
B
35 List all integer values of x satisfying the inequality minus1 lt minusݔ2 5 le 5(A) 2345 (B) 25 (C) 345 (D) 234 (E) 34
C
36 Make c the subject of the equation (+ ) +ହ
ௗminus 2 = 0 D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
MATHEMATICS
3
(A) = 2minus 5 minus (B) = 5 minus 2minus (C) = 5 minus 2minus (D) = 2minus 5 minus (E) = 2minus minus 5
(C) ndash +ݔ) +ݔ)(5 1) (D) minusݔ) 5)(1 minus (ݔ (E) +ݔ) 5)(1 minus (ݔ
D
41 The quantity (x + y) is a factor of A(A) ଶݔ + ଶݕ (B) minusଷݔ ଷݕ (C) minusଶݔ2 +ݕݔ3 minusଶݕ +ݔ 1(D) ଷݔ2 + minusݕଶݔ2 +ݕݔ minusݔ3 ଶݕ + ݕ3 (E) minusହݔ ହݕ
D
42 The set of values of x and y which satisfies the equations ltigtxltsupgt2ltsupgt - y - 1 = 0ltigt and ltigty ndash 2x + 2 = 0ltigt(A) 1 0 (B) 1 1 (C) 2 2 (D) 0 2 (E) 1 2
A
43 The solution of the equation minusଶݔ =ݔ2 8 is(A) x = 0 or 2 (B) x = -2 or 4 (C) x = 2 (D) x = -4 (E) x = 2 or 4
B
44 The solution of the quadratic equation ଶݔ + +ݔ = 0 is given by
(A) =ݔplusmnξ మସ
ଶ(B) =ݔ
plusmnξ మସ
ଶ(C) =ݔ
plusmnξ మସ
ଶ
(D) =ݔplusmnradicమାସ
ଶ(E) =ݔ
plusmnradicమସ
ଶ
A
45 The sum of the root of a quadratic equation isହ
46 Three numbers x y and z are connected by the relationships =ݕସ
ଽ+ݔ 1 and =ݖ
ସ
ଽ+ݕ 1
If x = 99 find z(A) 613 (B) 20 (C) 21 (D) 17649 (E) None of the above
C
47 What factor is common to all the expressions minusଶݔ ݔ ଶݔ2 + minusݔ 1 and minusଶݔ 1(A) x (B) x ndash 1 (C) x + 1 (D) No common factor (E) (2x ndash 1)
D
48 A canal has rectangular cross section of width 10cm and breadth 1m If water of uniformdensity 1gm cm-3 flows through it at a constant speed of 1000mm per minute the adjacentsea is
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
MATHEMATICS
4
(A) 100000 (B) 1000000 (C) 120000 (D) 30000 (E) 35000049 A cuboid has a diagonal of length 9cm and a square base of side 4cm What is its height
50 A cylinder of height h and radius r is open at one end Its surface area is(A) 2πrh (B) πr2h (C) 2πrh+2πr2 (D) πrh+πr2 (E) 2πrh+πr2
E
51 A pyramid is constructed on a cuboid The figure has(A) 12 faces (B) 13 vertices (C) 14 edges (D) 15 edges (E) 16 edges
E
52 A quadrant of a circle of radius 6cm is cut away from each corner of a rectangle 25cm longand 18cm wide Find the perimeter of the remaining figure(A) 38cm (B) (38 + (ߨ12 (C) (86 minus (ߨ12 (D) (86minus (ߨ6 (E) (86 +(ߨ12
B
53 A rectangular picture 6cm by 8cm is enclosed by a frame frac12cm wide Calculate the area ofthe frame(A) 15sqcm (B) 20sqcm (C) 13sqcm (D) 16sqcm (E) 17sqcm
A
54 A regular hexagon is constructed inside a circle of diameter 12cm The area of thehexagon is
56 A solid cylinder of radius 3cm has a total surface area of 36πcm2 Find its height(A) 2cm (B) 3cm (C) 4cm (D) 5cm (E) 6cm
B
57 A square of cardboard is taped at the perimeter by a piece of ribbon 20cm long What isthe area of the board(A) 20sqcm (B) 25sqcm (C) 36sqcm (D) 100sqcm (E) 16sqcm
B
58 A triangle has angles 300 150 and 1350 the side opposite to the angle 300 is length 6cmThe side opposite to the angle 1350 is equal to
61 Find the area of the curved surface of a cone whose base radius is 6cm and whoseheight is 8cm (Take π = 227) (A) 18857cm2 (B) 1320cm2 (C) 188cm2 (D) 18808cm2 (E) 100cm2
A
62 Find the total surface area of a solid cone of radius 2radic3cm and slanting side 4radic3cm
67 PQRS is a cyclic quadrilateral with PQ as diameter of the circle If PQS = 150 findQRS(A) 750 (B) 37frac120 (C) 127frac120 (D) 1050 (E) None of the above
D
68 The difference between the length and width of a rectangle is 6cm and the area is135cm2 What is the length(A) 25cm (B) 18cm (C) 15cm (D) 24cm (E) 27cm
C
69 At what value of x does the function y= -3 ndash 2x +x2 attain a minimum value(A) 4 (B) 2 (C) -1 (D) -4 (E) 1
84 7 pupils of average age 12 years leave a class of 25 pupils of average age 14 years If 6new pupils of average age 11 years join the class what is the average age of the pupils nowin the class(A) 13years (B) 12years 7frac12months (C) 13years 5months (D) 13years 10 months(E) 11 years
A
85 A bag contains 4 white balls and 6 red balls Two balls are taken from the bag withoutreplacement What is the probability that they are both red(A) 13 (B) 29 (C) 215 (D) 15 (E) 35
E
86 Bola chooses at random a number between 1 and 300 What is the probability that thenumber is divisible by 4(A) 13 (B) frac14 (C) 15 (D) 4300 (E) 1300
B
87 Determine the mean monthly salary of 50 employees of a company from the followingfrequency distribution
88 Find the mean deviation of 1 2 3 and 4(A) 25 (B) 20 (C) 10 (D) 15 (E) 12
C
89 If M represents the median and D the mode of the measurements 5 9 3 5 7 5 8then (M D) is(A) (6 5) (B) (5 8) (C) (5 7) (D) (5 5) (E) (7 5)
D
90 In a basket of fruits there are 6 grapes 11 bananas and 13 oranges If one fruit is chosen atrandom what is the probability that the fruit is either a grape or a banana
(A) 1730 (B) 1130 (C) 630 (D) 530 (E) 73
A
91 In a school 220 students offer Biology or Mathematics or both 125 offer Biology and 110Mathematics How many offer Biology but not Mathematics
(A) 95 (B) 80 (C) 125 (D) 110 (E) 120
D
92 In a school there are 35 students in Class 2A and 40 in class 2B The mean score for class2A in an English literature examination is 600 and that for 2B in the same paper is 525Find to one place of decimals the mean for the combined classes
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
MATHEMATICS
7
(A) 15 (B) 560 (C) 562 (D) 563 (E) 56593 In a soccer competition in one season a club had scored the following goals 2 0 3 3 2
1 4 0 0 5 1 0 2 2 1 3 1 4 and 1 The mean median and mode are respectively(A) 1 18 and 15 (B) 18 15 and 1 (C) 18 1 and 15 (D) 15 1 and 18 (E)15 18 and 1
B
94 In how many ways can 2 students be selected from a group of 5 students in a debatingcompetition (A) 25 ways (B) 10 ways (C) 15 ways (D) 20 ways (E)16 ways
D
95 The arithmetic mean of the ages of 30 pupils in a class is 153 years One boy leaves theclass and one girl is enrolled and the new average age of 30 pupils in the class becomes152 years How much older is the boy than the girl
(A) 30 years (B) 6 years (C) 9 years (D) 3 years (E) 1 year
D
96 The letters of the word ldquoMATRICULATIONrdquo are cut and put into a box One letter isdrawn at random from the box Find the probability of drawing a vowel(A) 713 (B) 513 (C) 613 (D) 813 (E) 413
C
97 The mean of the numbers 3 6 4 x and 7 is 5 Find the standard deviation
(A) radic2 (B) radic3 (C) 2 (D) 3 (E) 5
A
98 The weights of 30 new-born babies are given as follows 6 9 5 7 6 7 5 8 9 5 7 58 7 8 7 56 5 7 6 9 9 7 8 8 7 8 9 8 The mode is(A) 6 (B) 5 (C) 8 (D) 7 (E) 10
D
99 Thirty boys and x girls sat for a test The mean of the boysrsquo scores and that of the girlswere respectively 6 and 8 Find x if the total score was 468(A) 38 (B) 24 (C) 36 (D) 22 (E) 41
C
100 Two fair dice are rolled What is the probability that both show up the same number ofpoints (A) 136 (B) 736 (C) frac12 (D) 13 (E) 16
E
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
BIOLOGY
1
1 ____________ is an end product of digestion of fat (A) Glucose (B) Fatty acid (C) Amino acid (D)Fructose (E) Galactose
B
2 Asexual reproduction in Hydra sp is commonly by ____ (A) Binary fission b Fragmentation cBudding d Separation (E) Regeneration
C
3 Benedictrsquos solution is used to test for ___ (A) Carbohydrate (B) Lipid (C) Protein (D) Vitamins (E)Minerals
C
4 Pepsin is an enzyme that digests ___ (A) Starch (B) Sugar (C) Lipid (D) Fat (E) Protein E
5 The breakdown of large organic molecules into smaller simpler soluble molecules is called ndashndash (A)Excretion (B) Digestion (C) Absorption (D) Reproduction (E) Ingestion
B
6 The enzyme that curdles milk is_____________ (A) Pepsin (B) Ptyalin (C) Renin (D) Amylase(E) Trypsin
C
7 Which is the enzyme that begins digestion of starch in the mouth (A) Ptyalin (B) Maltase (C)Amylase (D) Sucrase (E) Lactase
A
8 A group of interacting populations in a particular habitat can be described as ___(A) biome (B)biosphere (C) community (D) population ecosystem (E) environment
C
9 A habitat can be defined as ___(A) a group of animals and plants living within a commonboundary (B) a place in which plants and animals live (C) a community living together in thesame place (D) different areas with a common animal and plant population (E) None of theabove
B
10 A symbiotic relationship in which one organism is completely dependent on another organism iscalled ____ (A) Parasitism (B) Commensalisms (C) Mutualism (D) Saprophytism (E) Competition
A
11 An association between two organisms where both members benefit is known as ___ (A)symbiosis (B) commensalism (C) ammensalism (D) mutualism (E) saprophytism
D
12 An instrument used in measuring the speed of wind is (A) a barometer (B) a wind gauge (C) awind vane (D) an anemometer (E) a hydrometer
D
13 At times hyenas feed on remains of animals killed by other animals At other times hyenasthemselves kill animals for food Therefore hyenas may best be described as ndashndash (A) scavengersand herbivores (B) scavengers and parasites (C) scavengers and predators (D) herbivores andpredators e herbivores and parasites
C
14 Autecology is defined as the study of interrelationship of (A) many species of organisms and theirenvironment (B) same species of organisms and their environment (C) organisms in theatmosphere (D) organisms under the earthrsquos surface (E)None of the above
B
15 Autotrophs are also described as ndashndash (A) Consumers (B) Decomposers (C) Carnivores (D)Producers (E) Herbivores
D
16 If three 30cm lengths of glass tubing are tightly packed with clay sand and loamy soilsrespectively and then stood in a beaker of water for one week the level of water will be (A)Lowest in the tube with clay (B) The same in all the tubes (C) Lowest in the tube with loamy soil(D) Highest in the tube with sandy soil (E) Lowest in the tube with sandy soil
E
17 In a community bacteria and fungi are referred to as ndashndash (A) producers (B) consumers (C)scavengers (D) tertiary consumers (E) decomposers
E
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
BIOLOGY
2
18 Puddles Ponds Rivers Seas and Oceans are grouped together as ndashndash (A) Ecosystem (B) Biosphere(C) Aquatic habitat (D) Terrestrial habitat (E) Marine environment
C
19 The feeding pattern in an ecosystem is calledhelliphelliphelliphellip (A) Pyramid of energy (B) Food web (C)Food chain (D) Pyramid of member (E) Ecology
B
20 The orderly changes that occur slowly and naturally in plant and animal communities in a givenarea over a period of time until a stable community is established is called ndashndash (A)Transformational change (B) ecological succession (C) survival of the fittest (D) weatherchange (E) environmental change
B
21 The sign + is used to indicate an association where an organism gains while 0 is used where anorganism is unaffected An association indicated as +0 is known as ndashndash (A) predation (B)commensalism (C) parasitism (D) competition (E) ammensalism
B
22 The sum total of all the roles an organism plays in a habitat is referred to as (A) ecology (B)ecosystem (C) habit (D) habitat (E) niche
E
23 Which of the following factors does not control population growth (A) Food shortage (B)Emigration (C) Predation (D) Abundance of food (E) Natural disaster
D
24 Which of the following statements best describe an ecosystem (A) A place where livingorganisms can live successfully (B) The interactions between living organism in a habitat and thenon-living part of the environment (C) A biological association between a plant and ananimal (D) A system of grouping organisms in a habitat (E) None of the above
B
25 Which of these represents a correct food chain in nature (A) Crustacea rarr diatom rarrfish rarr man (B) Diatom rarr crustacea rarr fish rarr man (C) Fish rarr crustacea rarr man rarr diatom (D) Diatom rarr fish rarr crustacea rarr man (E) None of the above
B
26 ___________ is involved in the mechanism of expelling water from the protozoans during theprocess of____________ (A) Contractile vacuole Osmoregulation (B) Contractile vacuolePhagocytosis (C) Food vacuole Ultrafilteration (D) Food vacuole Pinocytosis (E) Cell membranePinocytosis
A
27 ______________ is used for photosynthesis in Euglena sp (A) Reservoir (B) Nucleus (C)Chloroplast (D) Paramylon granule (E) Pellicle
C
28 A heart with four chambers is found in______________ (A) Fishes (B) Insects (C) Snails (D) Rats(E) Worms
D
29 Animal cell does not have a ____________ (A) Membrane (B) Nucleolus (C) Food Vacuole (D) Cellwall (E) Golgi body
D
30 Beriberi is caused by deficiency of vitamin_____________ (A) A (B) D (C) K (D) E (E) B E
31 Compound eyes are found in which of the animals below (A) Rat (B) Cow (C) Snail (D) Ant (E) Jellyfish
D
32 Dental formula of man consist of (A) i 22 c22 pm22 m33 (B) i11 c22 pm22 m33 (C)i22 c11 pm32 m22 (D) i22 c11 pm22 m22 (E) i22 c11 pm22 m33
E
33 During digestion of food passage of chyme through the duodenum enables it to become awatery liquid called__________ (A) Digested food (B) Chymatic product (C) Chyle (D) Solublefood (E) Dissolved food
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
BIOLOGY
3
34 Emulsification of fat and oils is caused by______________ (A) Lipase (B) Ptyalin (C) Trypsin (D)Maltase (E) Bile
E
35 Every mammal has (A) One Kidney (B) Two pairs of Kidneys (C) One pair of Kidneys (D) FourKidneys (E) None of the above
C
36 Faeces is removed from the body in a process called (A) Digestion (B) Egestion (C) Elimination(D) Excretion (E) Evacuation
B
37 Glomerulus is found in the______________ (A) Ovary (B) Testes (C) Brain (D) Kidney e)Stomach
D
38 In the respiratory system of man diffusion of gases takes place in (A) Trachea (B) Bronchi (C)Alveoli (D) Bronchioles (E) None of the above
C
39 Incisors are used for (A) Tearing food (B) Cutting food (C) Grinding food (D) Shearing food (E)Crushing food
B
40 Nematocysts are produced by special cells found in (A) Nematodes (B) Annelids (C)Platyhelminthes (D) Cnidarians (Coelenterates) (E) Arthropods
D
41 One of the following is not a function of the skin (A) Excretion (B) Protection (C) Homeostasis(D) Reproduction (E) Absorption of vitamin D
D
42 Open circulatory system is found in _____________ (A) Lizard (B) Toad (C) Fish (D) Insect (E)Chicken
D
43 Ovary is to the female reproductive system as________ is to the male reproductive system (A)Penis (B) Urethra (C) Testis (D) Cowperrsquos gland (E) Prostate gland
C
44 Possession of pinna is a characteristic feature of (A) Mammals (B) Reptiles (C) Fishes (D)Amphibians (E) All of the above
A
45 Tadpoles respire with (A) Lungs (B) Nostril (C) Gills (D) Spiracles (E) Siphon C
46 The excretory organ in the earthworm ishelliphelliphelliphellip (A) Malphigian tubule (B) Stoma (C)Nephriduim (D) Flame cells (E) Gills
C
47 The nerves that connect the eyes to the brain are called ndashndash (A) Cranial nerves (B) Optical nerves(C) Sensory nerves (D) Olfactory nerves (E) Optic nerves
E
48 The nerves that connect the eyes to the brain are called ndashndash (A) Cranial nerves (B) Optical nerves(C) Sensory nerves (D) Olfactory nerves (E) Optic nerves
E
49 The parasympathetic nervous system is involved in (A) Dilation of pupil of the eye (B) Controlthe activities of smooth muscles (C) Dilatation of the skin (D) Controls thinking in mammals (E)Increased metabolism
B
50 The part of the alimentary system of a bird where grinding of food occurs is (A) Crop (B)Stomach (C) Cloaca (D) Rectum (E) Gizzard
E
51 The part of the ear that contains receptors that convert the fluid motion into action potential iscalled ndashndash (A) Auditory nerve (B) Ossicles (C) Semicircular canals (D) Cochlea (E) Oval window
D
52 The thoracic region of the vertebral column is made up of __________ vertebrae (A) 5 (B) 7 (C) 4(D) 12 (E) 10
D
53 Which of the animal below is poikilothemic (A) Toad (B) Chicken (C) Bat (D) Lion (E) Dove A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
BIOLOGY
4
54 Which of the structures below is found in reptiles and birds (A) Scales (B) Legs (C) Beaks (D)Claws (E) All of the above
A
55 Which of these animals is photosynthetic (A) Paramecium sp (B) Amoeba sp (C) Euglena sp(D) Hydra sp (E) None of the above
C
56 Which of these organs regulate the amount of sugar in the blood (A) Liver (B) Kidney (C) Spleen(D) Lung (E) Pancreas
E
57 The basis for growth and asexual reproduction is (A) meiosis (B) cytokinesis (C) mitosis (D)Cytogenesis (E) Cell elongation
C
58 The process which ensures that the chromosome number for each species of organism remainconstant from generation to generation is called (A) fission (B) fusion (C) meiosis (D) mitosis(E) oogenesis
C
59 Which of the following is a major factor in variation among organisms (A) Inbreeding (B)Backcrossing (C) Test crossing (D) Sexual reproduction (E) Gene dominance
D
60 ____________ is an example of an invertebrate (A) Millipede (B) Fish (C) Toad (D) Snake (E) Skin A
61 ____________ is the odd one in the list below (A) Mosquito (B) Bee (C) Moth (D) Tick (E)Beetle
63 _____________ is an example of a unicellular organism (A) Amoeba sp (B) Hydra sp (C) Ascarissp (D) Taenia sp (E) Obelia sp
A
64 _____________ level is the highest level of organization in animals (A) System (B) Tissue (C)Organ (D) Cellular (E) Protoplasmic
A
65 Crocodiles are _____________ (A) Fishes (B) Amphibians (C) Mammals (D) Birds (E) None of theabove
E
66 The mutation theory of organic evolution was propounded by (A) Gregor Mendel (B) Hugo deVrics (C) Jean Lamarck (D) Charles Darwin (E) Robert Hookes
D
67 The theory of natural selection was developed by (A) Lamarck and Darwin (B) Darwin andWallace (C) Wallace and Mendel (D) Mendel and Lamarck (E) Hooke and Darwin
B
68 Which is the odd animal in the list below (A) Lizards (B) Snakes (C) Turtles (D) Tortoise (E) Toad E
69 Which of the following sources is not an evidence of evolution (A) Fossil records B Comparativeanatomy C Comparative embryology (D) Human behavior (E) None of the above
D
70 _______________ is an endoparasite (A) Earthworm (B) Tapeworm (C) Mosquito (D) Housefly (E)Tsetse fly
B
71 The causative agent of bird flu is a (A) Virus (B) Bacteria (C) Fungus (D) Protozoan (E) Ricketsia A
72 In lower plants like mosses the structure which performs the functions of roots of higher plantsis called (A) root hairs (B) rootlets (C) hyphae (D) rhizoids (E) thalli
D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
BIOLOGY
5
73 One common feature of fungi algae mosses and ferns is that they are (A) photosynthetic (B)show alternation of generation (C) can survive harsh weather conditions (D) have no seeds (E)conjugate
D
74 The following are major groups of the plant kingdom EXCEPT (A) Bryophyta (B) Chlorophyta (C)Pteridophyta (D) Spermatophyta (E) Thallophyta
B
75 _____________is a form of sexual reproduction (A) Grafting (B) Budding (C) Fission (D)Conjugation (E) Regeneration
D
76 Sexual reproduction in Spirogyra is called (A) Fertilization (B) Symbiosis (C) Conjugation (D)Reproduction (E) Mutualism
C
77 The carrier of the hereditary characters in plants is the (A) Cell (B) nucleus (C) chromosome (D)chloroplast (E) gene
E
78 All are necessary for photosynthesis except_____________ (A) Water (B) Chlorophyll (C)Sunlight (D) Carbon dioxide (E) Oxygen
E
79 Growing yam tendrils climb for support This growth response is (A) haptotropism (B) geotropism(C) phototropism (D) hydrotropism (E) chemotropism
A
80 Which is the correct order in an evolutionary sequence for the following plant groups (A)Bacteria rarr ferns rarr algae rarr mosses rarr seed plants (B) Bacteria rarr ferns rarr mosses rarr algae rarr seed plants (C) Bacteria rarr algae rarr mosses rarr ferns rarr seed plants (D) Bacteria rarr mosses rarr algae rarr ferns rarr seed plants (E) Seed plants rarr ferns rarr mosses rarr algae rarr bacteria
C
81 ------------ is not part of the whorls of a flower(A)calyx (B) corolla (C) androecium (D)Antheridium (E)Gynoecium
D
82 A dry fruit which can break into several parts each containing one seed is a (A) caryopsis (B)aggregate fruit (C) legume (D) follicle (E) schizocarp
E
83 A dry indehiscent winged fruit formed from one carpel is known as a (A) Schizocarp (B)Caryopsis (C) Samara (D) nut (E) Follicle
C
84 A true fruit is formed from (A) fertilized ovary and other floral parts (B) a fertilized ovary (C) afertilized ovary and calyx (D) a fertilized and fleshy receptacle (E) an unfertilized ovary and otherfloral parts
B
85 Irish potato is a (A) bulb (B) tap root (C) rhizome (D) root tuber (E) stem tuber D
86 One major difference between an Angiosperm and a Gymnosperm is that seeds in Gymnospermsare borne in (A) Cones (B) fruits (C) flowers (D) ovary (E) ovule
A
87 Reserved food material in the seed is stored in the (A) epicarp (B) endocarp (C) endosperm (D)mesocarp (E) all parts
C
88 What type of fruit is a mango fruit (A) Berry (B) Hesperidium (C) Drupe (D) Nut (E) Mango fruit C
89 Which of the following species exhibit an aerial root (A) Ficus (B) Centrosema (C) Antigonon(D) Lantana (E) Dahlia
A
90 Which of these plants has an emerginate apex (A) Bauhinia (B) Pistia (C) Ixora (D) Musa (E)Terminalia
A
91 Which plant stores food in its roots (A) Cassava (B) cocoyam (C) Irish potato (D) onion (E)yam
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
BIOLOGY
6
92 An example of Vascular tissues is -------------- (A) Trichome (B) Xylem (C) Stomata (D) Epidermis(E) Parenchyma
B
93 The living part of phloem tissue is (A) sieve plate (B) companion cell (C) sieve element (D)cytoplasm
B
94 Which of the following tissues are made up of dead cells (A) meristems (B) xylem vessels (C)cambium (D) mesophyll (E) palisade
B
95 A plant vacuole contains (A) dissolved chemicals sugars salts pigments and crystals (B) wasteproducts of metabolism DNA RNA and crystals (C) pigments crystals DNA and waste productsof metabolism (D) RNA DNA sugars and salts
A
96 Excessive loss of water in plants is known as (A) Osmosis (B) Osmoregulation (C) Transpiration (D)Excretion
C
97 Starch granules in plants is equivalent to _____________ granules in animals (A) Food (B)Chromatin (C) Lysosome (D) Mitochondria (E) Glycogen
E
98 Which of the following is a plant excretory product (A) Oil (B) Cytokinin (C) Resin (D)amino acids (E) gibberellins
C
99 A plant which grows on another without causing harm to the host plant is called ndashndash (A) aparasite (B) a saprophyte (C) an epiphyte (D) a predator (E) a prey
C
100 Plants which can survive in places where water supply is limited are (A) bryophytes (B)mesophytes (C) xerophytes (D) hydrophytes (E) pteridophytes
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
1
1 200 cm3 of air was passed over heated copper in a syringe several times to produce copper (II)oxide When cooled the final volume of air recorded was 158 cm3 Estimate the percentage ofoxygen in the air (A) 31 (B) 27 (C) 21 (D) 19
C
2 30cm3 of oxygen at 10 atmosphere pressures is placed in a 20dm3 container Calculate the newpressure if temperature is kept constant (A) 67 atm (B) 150 atm (C) 600 (D) 660
B
3 Bond dissociation energy of 500 KJ mol-1 may be assigned to (A) ionic bonding (B) covalentbonding (C) hydrogen bonding D) metallic bonding (E) van-der-waals bonding
A
4 A mixture of iron and sulphur can be separated by dissolving the mixture in __ (A) steam (B)dilute hydrochloric acid (C) dilute sodium hydroxide (D) benzene
B
5 A mixture of sand ammonium chloride and sodium chloride is best separated by __ (A)sublimation followed by addition of water and filtration (B) sublimation followed by addition ofwater and evaporation (C) addition of water followed by filtration and sublimation (D) additionof water followed by crystallization and sublimation
A
6 A pure solid usually melts __ (A) over a wide range of temperature (B) over a narrow range oftemperature (C) at a lower temperature than the impure one (D) at the same temperature asthe impure one
B
7 A small quantity of solid ammonium chloride was heated gently in a test tube the solidgradually disappeared to produce a mixture of two gases Later a white cloudy deposit wasobserved on the cooler part of the test tube The ammonium chloride is said to haveundergone __ (A) distillation (B) sublimation (C) precipitation (D) evaporation
B
8 CH4 has this geometry (A) trigonal (B) planar (C) tetrahedral (D) octahedral (E) linear C
9 Chlorine consisting of two isotopes of mass numbers 35 and 37 has an atomic mass of 355The relative abundance of the isotope of mass number 37 is ___ ( A)20 (B) 25 (C) 50 (D) 75
B
10 Elements P Q R S have 6 11 15 and 17 electrons respectively therefore (A) P will form anelectrovalent bond with R (B) Q will form a covalent bond with S (C)R will form an electrovalentbond with S (D) Q will form an electrovalent bond with S
D
11 In the oil drop experiment Millikan determined the (A) charge to mass ratio of the electron (B)mass of the electron (C) charge of the electron (D) mass of the proton
C
12 One of these atomic shells is the most stable (A) M (B) N (C) K (D) L (E) 0 C
13 Sieving is a technique used to separate mixtures containing 20 oxygen by volume Which ofthe reactants was in excess (A) Carbon (II) oxide (B) Oxygen (C) Carbon (IV) oxide (D) Nitrogen
A
14 The abnormally high boiling point of water is primarily due to (A) ionic bonding (B) covalentbonding (C) dative bonding (D) coordinate covalent bonding (E) hydrogen bonding
E
15 The energy required to remove an electron from the isolated gaseous atom is known as (A)electron affinity (B) bond energy (C) lonisation energy (D) electronegativity (E) electrovalency
C
16 The group that oxygen belongs to is collectively called (A) allotropes (B) halogens (C)chalcogens (D) alkenes (E) ozonides
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
2
17 The ideal gas equation is ___ ( A) P=nRT (B) PR =nVT (C) PV =gRT (D) V=kT (E) PV = K V A
18 The number of atoms in one mole of a substance is equal to (A) the atomic number (B) theAvogadrorsquos number (C) number of neutrons (D) number of electrons (E) gas constant
B
19 The number of electrons in the outermost shell of the atom represents its (A) period (B)number of shells (C) group (D) atomic number (E) electronegativity
C
20 The number of protons or electrons of an atom represents its (A) electronegativity (B) period(C) number of shells (D) group (E) atomic number
E
21 The partial pressure of oxygen in a sample of air is 500 mmHg If the total Pr pressure 780mmHg what is the mole fraction of the oxygen (A) 064 [B (B) 573 (C) 156 (D) 070 (E) 054
A
22 The periodic classification of the elements is an arrangement of the elements in order of their(A) atomic weights (B) isotopic weights (C) molecular weights (D) atomic numbers
D
23 The process of changing one element into another is called (A) radioisotope (B) radioactivity (C)dating (D) transmutation (E) nuclear reaction
D
24 The shapes of CO2 H2O and CH4 respectively are (A) bent linear and tetrahedral (B) benttetrahedral and linear (C) tetrahedral linear and bent (D) linear bent and tetrahedral
D
25 This compound exhibits ionic bonding (A) H20 (B) H2 (C) KC1 (D) NH3 (E) HF C
26 This type of bonding involves overlapping of orbitals during which electrons are shared (A)hydrogen bonding (B) covalent bonding (C) ionic bonding (D) metallic bonding (E) van-der-waals bonding
B
27 Which one of the following changes is physical (A) Adding iron filings to aerated water (B)Adding sodium metal to water (C) Cooling a solution of iron(II) sulphate to obtain the hydratedsalt (D) Cooling water to obtain ice
D
28 A side effect of soft water is that (A) it gives offensive taste (B) excess calcium is precipitated(C) it encourages the growth of bacteria (D) it attacks lead contained in pipes
D
29 Ammonia is very soluble in water because it is a an molecule (A) non-polar (B) polar (C)reactive (D) basic (E) acidic
B
30 Citrus fruits such as lemon and grape taste sour because they contain (A) ascorbic acid andcitric acid (B) citric acid and ascetic acid (C) citric acid and dilute HCl (D) citric acid and salicyclicacid (E) Sulphuric acid
A
31 Soap lather is an example of a colloid in which a (A) liquid is dispersed in gas (B) solid isdispersed in liquid (C) gas is dispersed in liquid (D) liquid is dispersed in liquid
C
32 The air around a petroleum refinery is most likely to contain(A) CO2 SO3 and N2O (B) CO2 COand N2O (C) SO2 CO and NO2 (D) PH3 H2O and CO2
C
33 The difference between colloids and suspensions is brought out clearly by the fact that whilecolloids (A) do not scatter light suspensions do (B) can be separated by filtration suspensionscannot be so separated (C) can be separated by a membrane suspensions cannot (D) do notsettle out on standing suspensions do
D
34 The following substances are non-electrolytes except (A) chloroform (B) sugar cane (C) aceticacid (D) NaCl (E) C and D
E
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
3
35 The hydrolysis of NH4Cl salt will give (A) acidic solution (B) neutral solution (C) basic solution(D) hot solution (E) all of the above
A
36 The pollutants that are likely to be present in an industrial environment are (A) H2S SO2 andoxides of nitrogen (B)NH3 HCl and CO (C) CO2 NH3 and H2S (D) dust NO and Cl2
A
37 What is the basicity of tetraoxosulphate (VI) acid (A) 2 (B) 1 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) 0 A
38 Which of the following gases is the most dangerous pollutant (A) Hydrogen sulphide (B)Carbon (IV) oxide (C) Sulphur (IV) oxide (D) Carbon (II) oxide
D
39 Which of the following ions is a pollutant in drinking water even in trace amount (A) Ca2+ (B)Hg2+ (C) Mg2+ (D) Fe2+
B
40 Which of the following is an example of a double salt (A) NH4Cl (B) alum (C) NaCO3 (D) AlCl3
(E) NaClB
41 016g of methane when burnt increases the temperature of 100g of water by 400(C) what isthe heat of combustion of methane if the heat capacity of water is 42 Jg-10C-1 (CH4=16) (A)1160kJmol-1 (B) 1180kJmol-1 (C) 1560kJmol-1 (D) 1600kJmol-1 (E) 1680kJmol-1
E
42 A charged car battery has ___ energy that can be converted into another energy called ___energy (A) Chemical electrical (B) mechanical chemical (C) heat mechanical (D) lightelectrical (E) light heat
A
43 Copper oxide is heated with charcoal to produce carbon monoxide and copper The reaction isan example of (A) both oxidation and reduction (B) neither oxidation and reduction (C)oxidation only (D) reduction only (E) neutralization
A
44 For each oxygen atom in hydrogen peroxide which acts as an oxidant there is an oxygen atomwhich acts as a an (A) Oxidant (B) reductant (C) oxidizing agent (D) catalyst (E) inhibitor
B
45 Given the change of phase CO2(g) changes to CO2(s) the entropy of the system (A) decreases(B) increases (C) remains the same
A
46 In which of the following is the entropy change positive (A) Reaction between an acid and abase (B) Addition of concentrated acid to water (C) Dissolution of sodium metal in water(D) Thermal dissociation of ammonium chloride
C
47 One of these elements is the best reducing agent (A) Pb (B) Rb (C) Al (D) In (E) N B
48 The name of the gas driven off at the negative electrode during the electrolysis of brine is ___( A) hydrogen (B) chlorine (C) oxygen (D) sodium (E) hydrogen chloride
B
49 The oxidation state of P in H2P2072- is ___ (A) -3 (B) +3 (C) +1 (D) +5 (E) -2 D
50 The oxidation state of S in Ca(HS03)2 is __ (A) +2 (B) -2 (C) +4 (D) -4 (E) +6 C
51 The oxidizing agent in the reaction 3Br2 + 6OH- = BrO3- + 5Br- + 3H2O is __ (A) Br2 (B) OH- (C)
BrO3- (D) e- (E) H2OA
52 When heat is absorbed during a chemical reaction the reaction is said to be ___(A) thermodynamic (B) exothermal (C) isothermal (D) endothermic (E) thermostatic
D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
4
53 Given the reaction at equilibrium 2CO(g) + O2(g) harr 2CO2(g) When the reaction is subjected tostress a change will occur in the concentration of (A) reactants only (B) products only (C)both reactants and products (D) neither reactants nor products
C
54 Given the reaction at equilibrium N2(g) + O2(g) harr 2NO(g) as the concentration of N2(g)increases the concentration of O2(g) will (A) decrease (B) increase (C) remains the same (D)vanishes (E) pours away
A
55 If a reaction is exothermic and there is a great disorder it means that (A) The reaction is in astate of equilibrium (B) There will be a large increase in free energy (C) There will be a largedecrease in free energy (D) The reaction is static
B
56 In the chemical reaction of A + B = C +D more of D is formed (A) if the concentration of A isreduced (B) if the concentration of B is reduced (C) if the concentration of C is reduced (D) ifthe concentration of C is increased (E) if it is continuously removed from the reaction mixture
E
57 In what way is equilibrium constant for the forward reaction related to that of the reversereaction (A) The addition of the two is expected to be one (B) The product of two isexpected to be one (C) The two equilibrium constants are identical (D) The product of thetwo is always greater than one
C
58 In which reaction will the point of equilibrium shift to the left when the pressure on the systemis increased (A) C(s) + O2(g) harr CO2(g) (B) CaCO3(s) harr CaO(s) + CO2(g) (C) 2Mg(s) + O2(g) harr 2MgO(s) (D) 2H2(g) + O2(g) harr2H2O(g)
B
59 The furring of kettles is caused by the presence in water of __ (A) calcium trioxocarbonate (IV)(B) calcium tetraoxosulphate (VI) (C) calcium hydroxide (D) calcium hydrogentrioxocarbonate(IV)
D
60 Which is a property of a reaction that has reached equilibrium (A) The amount of products isgreater than the amount of reactants (B) The amount of products is equal to the amount ofreactants (C) The rate of the forward reaction is greater than the rate of the reverse reaction(D) The rate of the forward reaction is equal to the rate of the reverse reaction
D
61 Which of the following combination of conditions many increase the rate of a chemicalreaction (A) Decrease in temperature increase in concentration of the reactant (B) Increase intemperature addition of a catalyst decrease in the surface area of the reactant (C) Increase intemperature increase in concentration addition of a catalyst and increase in the surface areaof the reactant (D) Decrease in temperature concentration and surface area of the reactants(E) Addition of catalyst and in the absence of light
C
62 ldquoQuicklimerdquo has the formula __ (A) Ca(OH)2 (B) CaO (C) CaCO3 (D) CaSO42H2O (E) CaCl2 B
63 A Transition metal is different from a non-transition metal because (A) it has an octetconfiguration (B) it is very stable (C) it is coloured (D) it has incomplete outer shell d-electrons(E) it has no electron in the d-orbital
D
64 Chlorine is produced commercially by (A) electrolysis of dilute HCl (B) electrolysis of brine (C)neutralization of HCl (D) heating potassium trioxochlorate (V) (E) action of dilute mineral acidson bleaching powder
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
5
65 Chlorine bromine and iodine resemble one another since they __ (A)dissolve in alkalis (B) reactviolently with H2 without heating (C)displace each other from solutions of their salts (D) aregases (E) are liquids
A
66 Liquid oxygen may be produced by condensation of air using this coolant (A) liquid phosphorus(B) liquid gas (C) liquid paraffin (D) liquid nitrogen (E) butane
D
67 One of these is another form of oxygen (A) hydroxide (B) ozone (C) peroxide (D) sulphoxide (E)water B
68 One of these metals is not an alkali metal (A) K (B) Cs (C) Sr (D) Rb (E) Fr C
70 The formation of ozone by reaction of O2 with atomic oxygen in UV light occurs in (A) upperatmosphere (B) inner atmosphere (C) stratosphere (D) hemisphere (E) none of these
A
71 The halogen which is chiefly produced commercially from sea water is ___ ( A) Fluorine (B)chlorine (C) Bromine (D) iodine (E) Astatine
B
72 The most stable allotropic form of sulphur at normal conditions is ___ ( A) monoclinic sulphur(B) rhombic sulphur (C) amorphous sulphur (D) plastic sulphur (E) ordinary sulphur
B
73 The products obtained when the following chemical reaction is completed and balancedarehellipHNO3 + Ca(OH)2 rarr ______ (A) CaNO3 + H2O (B) Ca(NO3)2 + 2 H2O (C) CaO + 2 NO2 + 3H2O(D) Ca + 2 NO3 + 2 H2O
B
74 What is the role of iron and Aluminium oxide in ammonia production (A) dehydrating agent(B) catalytic agent (C) oxidizing agent (D) bonding agent (E) preservative agent
B
75 When carbon IV oxide is bubbled through lime water the solution becomes milky dueformation of (A) Ca(HCO3)2 (B) CaCO3 (C) Ca(N03)2 (D)CaCl2 (E) CaSO4
B
76 Which of the following gases dissolves in water vapour to produce acid rain during rainfall (A)Oxygen (B) Carbon (II) oxide (C) Nitrogen (D) Sulphur (IV) oxide
D
77 Which of the following is not allotrope of carbon (A) diamond (B) graphite (C) buckminsterfullerene (D) all of the above (E) none of the above
E
78 Which oxide is amphiprotic (amphoteric) (A) MgO (B) NaO (C) CaO (D) ZnO (E) BeO D
79 Why will it always be more difficult to extract potassium ions from sea water than to extractmagnesium ions This is because (A) most potassium compounds are less soluble in water (B)most potassium compounds are quite soluble in water (C) presence of other alkali metal ionshas great influence on it (D) magnesium ion is an alkaline earth metal ion (E) None of theabove
B
80 ___________ can be used to test for reducing sugars (A) Iodine solution (B) bromine water (C)Fehlingrsquos solution (D) de-ionized water
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
6
81 2CH3COOH + Zn rarr The product of this reaction is (A) (CH3COO)2Zn + Zn (B) CH3COO CH3 +Zn (C) (CH3COO)2Zn + H2 (D) CH3COOH + CH4
C
82 A ketone reacts with hydroxylamine to give (A) a hydrazone (B) an alkanonitrile (C) a nitrosocompound (D) an oxime
D
83 Alkanoic acids are weak acids and ionises in solution to give (A) R+ + COOH (B) RCOO- + H+ (C)RCOO+ + H- (D) RCO+ + OH-
B
84 An excess of ethanol heated with concentrated H2SO4 at a temperature of 180oC is dehydratedto give mostly (A) ethane (B) ethene (C) ethanol (D) ethoxyethane
B
85 Butene can be distinguished from benzene by reaction with (A) Hydrochloric acid (B) Brominewater (C) Potassium sulphate (D) Sodium hydroxide
B
86 Detergent is more efficient than soap in cleansing clothes and dishes because of the followingreasons except that (A) the corresponding Ca and Mg compound formed is soluble in H2O (B)detergents are not affected by hardness of water (C) it cleans better than soap (D) it is lessexpensive
D
87 In the manufacture of soap industrially brine is used to__________the acid salt (A) oxidise(B) reduce (C) bleach (D) precipitate
D
88 Methane gas can be made from carbon (II) oxide gas according to the equation2CO(g) + 2H2(g) rarr CH4(g) + CO2(g) Calculate the mass of CO required to produce 875 x 1025
molecules of CH4 At masses C=12011 H= 1008 O = 15999 Avogadrorsquos no 6022 x1023molecules mole (A) 8140g (B) 4070g (C) 1600g (D) 3200g (E) 2035g
A
89 Potassium ethanoate is formed when (A) Methanoic acid reacts with KOH (B) Ethanoic acidreacts with KOH (C) Methanol reacts with KCO3 (D) Ethanol reacts with CH3COOH
B
90 Saponification is defined as (A) Acidic hydrolysis of fat or oil (B) Alkali hydrolysis of fat or oil(C) Condensation of two monomer units (D) Mixture of glacial ethanoic acid and excess ofsimple alkanol
B
91 Soaps and detergents have the same basic characteristics except that the carboxyl group of thefatty acid in detergent is replaced by (A) alcohol (B) sulphate or a sulphonate group (C) ester(D) acids
B
92 The relatively high boiling point of alkanols is due to (A) aliphatic character (B) ionic bonding(C) hydrogen bonding (D) covalent bonding
C
93 Two important sources of detergent are (A) fatoils and hydrocarbons (B) coal and cement (C)pulp and wood (D) water and gas
A
94 What is the process associated with conversion of vegetable oil to soap (A) Esterification (B)Saponification (C) hydrolysis (D) Acidification
B
95 When ethanal vapour is passed over manganese (II) ethanoate (manganese acetate) catalyst inthe presence of air the product is (A) ethanoate (B) ethanol (C) methanol (D) ethanoic acid
D
96 When KOH is used instead of NaOH in the production of soap it has the following advantagesexcept it gives (A) softer soap (B) harder soap (C) soap with lower melting point (D) moresoluble soap
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
7
97 When palm wine is left exposed to air for a few days it goes sour The bacteria in the airoxidises________ in palm wine to _________ (A) ethanol ethanoic acid (B) ethanoic acidethanol (C) ester ethanoic acid (D) ether ethanol
A
98 Which of the following is not true about benzoic acid (A) It is aromatic in nature (B) It can bemanufactured from methylbenzene (C) It has molecular formula C6H6COOH (D) It sublimesreadily
C
99 Which of the following reactions is correct (A) C6H5COOH + CaO rarr C6H5Ca + HCO3 (B)C6H5COOH + CaO rarr C6H6 + CaCO3 (C) C6H5COOH + PCl5 rarr C6H5Cl + H2PO4 (D) C6H5COOH +C2H5OH rarr C6H6 + C3H8COOH
B
100 Which of these is not a property of ethanedioic acid (A) It is a stronger acid than ethanoic acidbut weaker than inorganic acids (B) It is a reducing agent (C) It is an oxidising agent (D) It issoluble in cold water
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
USE OF ENGLISH
1
Read the passages below and answer the questions that follow
PASSAGE AEvery discernible observer could foresee the crisis which engulfed the Edo Houselast week Only a few days before reports were rife about the AC reaching out tosome PDP legislators to cross-carpet The intention being to gain a majority andthen assume the Speakership with the least constraint Zakawanu Garuba the thenSpeaker retorted with a fiat threatening to declare vacant the seat of any defectorThis in spite of the constitutional support for such action as evidenced forexample by the crisis that has torn the PDP apart in Edo State The party has twofactional chairmen in the state even though one is more vociferousThe desperate attempt by Garuba to cling to the Speakerrsquos chair is condemnable Hewas not being recalled from the legislature and so he still has his seat as a floormember As speaker he was only first among equals The Speakership is not hisbirthright With the defection of one PDP lawmaker to the AC the legislaturereconvened hours after the bloodbath and elected a protem Speaker whileimpeaching and suspending Garuba and a few others They are to be probed
(Adapted from The Guardian Thursday March 4 2011 p14)
1 Why did AC woo PDP membersA they are few in numberB they want speakership without stressC PDP members are faithfulD The House is tough
2 The legislators impeachedA GarubaB PDP lawmakersC Garuba and some PDP lawmakersD Garuba and some lawmwkers
3 According to the passage the constitution supportsA The speakerB DefectingC Edo StateD Factional chairmen
4 The lawmakers reconvenedA After the defection of a PDP memberB After the bloodbathC After suspending the SpeakerD After electing a protem Speaker
B
A
D
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
USE OF ENGLISH
2
5 At the end what happened to GarubaA He was vindicatedB He was indictedC He was honouredD He was humiliated
6 To cross-carpet as used in the passage means toA change partyB renew membership of a partyC change onersquos carpetD buy new carpet
7 The crisis in the Edo State House of Assembly could be predicted byA The lawmakersB Edo State indigenesC The protem SpeakerD All conscious observers
B
C
A
PASSAGE B
Nigeria has a troubled power sector which is however undergoing reforms thathopefully should usher in era of private sector dominance in terms of ownershipand management of generation and distribution In this transitory phase it is crucialto lay a foundation for local sourcing of vital inputs and make it the norm for theindustry That is the only way to prevent a replication of the trend in the oil and gassub-sector where capital flight is as much as $ 16 billion per annum as revealed bythe Petroleum Technology Development FundThe PHCN could legitimately insist on quality and standards in its procurement ofequipment and materials but what is playing out is an institutional orientationevinced in several pursuits of the PHCN that are contemptuous of Nigeriarsquosaspiration for local content development In 1998 the defunct National ElectricPower Authority defied a directive by the then Minister of Power and steel AlhajiBashir Dalhatu to source its costable components from Nigerian foundries some ofwhich are of high standards Actuated by a realization of idle capacity in thefoundries and the need to conserve foreign exchange the Minister appliedappropriate pressure on the management of NEPA but found his efforts frustratedThe acute shortage or inefficiency in the metering programme originated from thefact that the only local manufacturer then the Federal Government-ownedelectricity Meter Company in Zaria Kaduna State established in 1976 but sold toDantata Investments Limited in December 2002 is not performing(Adapted from The Punch Wednesday May 25 2011 Pg 18)
8 Why is there shortage of meterA Non-performance of PHCNB Non-performance of NEPAC Non-performance of the Federal Government-owned electricity
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
USE OF ENGLISH
3
Meter CompanyD Non-performance of Dantata Investment Ltd
9 According to the passage the solution to the problem in the power sector lies inA Sourcing for materials locallyB Getting costable componentsC Obeying the ministerD Getting $ 16 billion per annum
10 From the passage it is clear thatA There is money in the countryB There is shortage of electricity meterC NEPA is better than PHCND NEPA was formed in 1998
11 Which of these is not true of the power sectorA There is only one local manufacturer of electricity meterB The power sector is undergoing reformsC The problem of the power sector cannot be solvedD there was procurement of equipment and materials
12 Which of these is undergoing reformsA NEPAB PHCNC NigeriaD The power sector
13 A suitable title for this passage isA Nigeria and her problemsB NEPA versus PHCNC Electricity meterD Problems in the power sector
A
B
C
D
D
Choose the option that best completes the gap14 University students helliphelliphelliphelliphellipbehave well (A) can (B) should (C) may (D)
mustB
15 Gloria helliphelliphelliphellip have finished the project two days ago (A) must (B) may (C)can (D) supposed to
A
16 You are Goodluck (A) are you (B) arenrsquot you (C) arersquont you (D) donrsquotyou
B
17 He helliphelliphelliphelliphellip not come now (A) needs (B) needed (C) need (D) will need C18 Janet to know that we are all here (A) suppose (B) supposes (C) is
supposed (D) should supposeC
19 Let it be that there was no king in Ayegun (A)know (B) knew (C) known(D) knows
C
20 We shall see you soon (A) shall we (B) shanrsquot we (C) shouldnrsquot we (D)should we
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
USE OF ENGLISH
4
21 Neither of the presidential candidates suitable (A) are (B) is (C) is been(D) are been suitable
B
22 Ten miles ____ a great distance (A) is (B) are (C) is been A23 If I were the president I ask for the money (A) will (B) should (C) would
(D) canC
24 I will see you after I spoken with your supervisor (A) might have (B) have(C) will have (D) would have
B
25 ldquoYou - now see the directorrdquo the secretary told the visitors (A) can (B)may (C) should (D) would
B
26 She isnrsquot Gloria (A) is she (B) isnrsquot she (C) arenrsquot she (D) doesnrsquot she A27 We have a bus (A) didnrsquot we (B) havenrsquot we (C) doesnrsquot we (D) hasnrsquot
weB
28 I knew David let us down (A) may (B) will (C) might (D) can C29 You helliphelliphellip me last week (A) ought to see (B) ought to had seen (C) ought to
have seen (D) had to have seenC
30 Twenty dollars ___ enough for my lunch (A) are (B) is (c ) are just B31 The pests ____ our farm every year (A) invade (B) invades (c ) has invades A32 If I were the Governor I ask for the project (A) will (B) should (C) would
(D) canC
33 When helliphellip the Cleric today (A) doesarrives (B) doesarrived (C)doesarrive (D) do arrive
C
34 We shall see you soon (A) shall we (B) shanrsquot we (C) shouldnrsquot we (D)should we
B
35 You missed the match (A) donrsquot you (B) didnrsquot you (C) hadnrsquot you (D)doesnrsquot you
B
36 Walk the dog right now (A) walknrsquot you (B) will you (C)shall you(D)would you
B
37 I am a student (A) Irsquom I (B) arenrsquot I (C) isnrsquot I (D) wouldnrsquot I BPick out the oddwrong expression in each of the following
38 (A) I heard his supposed apology (B) I heard his unconvincing apology (C) Iheard his suppose apology (D) I heard he was supposed apology
D
39 (A) I suppose you know the way (B) I am supposed you know the way (C) Isuppose he knows the way (D) They suppose he knows the way
B
40 (A) I travel next week (B) I will travel next week (C) I suppose to travelnext week (D) I should travel next week
C41 (A) Having discovered the error he apologized (B) Having discovered the
error the apology was tendered (C) Having known the error he apologised(D) Having found out the error he tendered an apology B
42 (A) The job has been done (B) The job has been being done (C) They havedone the job (D) They can have done the job
D
43 (A) She must finish the project in two days (B) She must finish the project twodays ago (C) She must have finished the project two days ago (D) She ought tohave finished the project two days ago
B
44 (A) If I went in there I would beat the security officer (B) If I go in there Iwould beat the security officer (C) If I go in there I will beat the securityofficer (D) If I go in there I can beat the security officer
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
USE OF ENGLISH
5
Choose the option that most appropriately expresses the idea in theunderlined expression
45 My friendrsquos parentrsquos are magnanimous (A) rich and popular (B) sociable andlovable (C) kind and generous (D) wicked and stingy
C
46 My friend has an overbearing attitude toward me (A) patient (B) impatient(C) opinionated and domineering (D) considerate and respectful
C
47 There are a number of makeshift buildings in town (A) modern buildings (B)old fashion buildings (C) temporary buildings (D) permanent buildings
C
48 Post UME is a hurdle to cross (A) a necessary and simple exam to pass (B) anunnecessary and difficult exam to pass (C) an unnecessary but simple exam topass (D) a necessary and challenging exam to pass
D
49 His contribution to the project is invaluable (A) extremely useful (B) of novalue (C) of little value (D) can not be valued
A
50 That was a dawn-to-earth approach (A) poor (B) ordinary (C) practical (D)immodest
B
51 Concerning my admission I have to cross my fingers (A) wait and hope for thebest (B) wait in frustration (C) wait confidently (D) take some risk
A
52 My father is indifferent to my choice of University (A) supports (B) opposes(C) not decided (D) not concerned
D
53 We need an ad hoc arrangement towards the project (A) intelligent (B)advanced (C) permanent (D) temporary
D
54 The studentrsquos reply to the lecturer betrayed his rudeness (A) covered (B)showed (C) reduced (D) increased
C
55 His conduct in the last elections was above board (A) arrogant (B) honest (C)above average (D) excellent
C
56 That was a dispassionate decision (A) bias (B) personal (C) unaffected (D)ineffective
C
57 On the matter of worship some sit on the fence (A) go to the extreme (B) aredecisive (C) are fanatics (D) are undecided
D
Choose the option that is nearest in meaning to the word underlined58 In this matter we must be prepared to tolerate human frailty (A)
75 Her health deteriorated rapidly (A) worsened (B) improved (C) stagnated (D)declined
B
Which of the following sentences is correct76 (A) One should mind his business (B) One should mind onersquos business (C) One
should mind her businessB
77 (A) This case is between you and I (B) This case is between you and me (C)This case is between the two both of us
B
78 (A) With them around we have a great problem on our hands (B) With themaround we have a great problem on our hand (C) With them around wehave a great problem on hand
A
79 (A) The dog wagged itrsquos tail (B) The dog wagged its tail (C) The dog waggeditsrsquo tail
B
80 (A) A ten year old boy is missing (B) A ten-year-old boy is missing (C) A tenyear-old boy is missing
B
81 Choose the option that sounds the same with two (A) tool (B) too (C) tow (D)to
B
82 Choose the option that sounds the same with bear (A) bare (B) beer (C)bared (D) beard
B
83 Choose the option that sounds the same with the given word Key (A) kiss(B) quay (C) keyed (D) kissed
B
Choose the word that is correctly spelled84 (A) acomodation (B) accommodation (C) accomodation (D) acommodation B85 (A) embarrassment (B) embarassment (C) embarrasment (D) embarasment A86 (A) horrific (B) horific (C) horiffic (D) horriffic A87 As soon as Joy arrived she started looking for food The underlined
expression is an ----------- (A) adverbial phrase of reason (B) adverbial clauseof reason (C) adverbial phrase of time (D) adverbial clause of time
D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
USE OF ENGLISH
7
88 My friend a brilliant lecturer won many prizes The underlined expression isa(n) (A) adjectival clause (B) relative clause (C) appositive phrase (D)subject of lsquowonrsquo
C
89 I passed very well because I studied hard The underlined expression is a (A)relative clause introducer (B) linking verb (C) adverb of reason (D)subordinating conjunction
D
90 Bello and I love each other (A) preposition (B) reciprocal pronoun (C) nounphrase (D) adjectival phrase
B
91 I prefer writing to acting The underlined expressions is a(n) -------- (A) verb(B) participle (C) gerund (D) object
C
92 Having finished my assignment I started watching television The underlinedexpression is a(n) -------- (A) infinitive clause (B) gerund (C) participialphrase (D) noun clause
C
93 If you leave early yoursquoll meet Sola at home The underlined expression is a ----------- (A) nominal clause (B) verbal clause (C) conditional clause (D)adjectival clause
C
94 Wounded by a lion the hunter trudged home The underlined expression is a-----------(A) nominal clause (B) verbal clause (C) participial clause (D)adjectival clause
C
95 Irsquom proud of you The underlined expression functions as(A) prepositionalcomplement (B) adjectival complement (C) subject complement (D) verbalcomplement
B
96 A noun phrase lacks one of the following (A) noun (B) verb (C) adjective (D)adverb
B
97 Eve gave Adam an apple An apple in the sentence functions as------------(A)subject of the verb lsquogaversquo (B) direct object of the verb (C) indirect object ofthe verb (D) object complement
B
98 I wonder if you know where he lives This sentence is a(n) (A) thoughtfulstatement (B) polite command (C) indirect question (D) subtle exclamation
A
99 An example of gradable adjectives is hellip (A) each (B) beautiful (C) dead (D)live
B
100 A clause differs from a phrase because a clause contains helliphelliphellip (A) a largernumber of words (B) a fewer number of words (C) a finite verb (D) a non-finite verb
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
1
1 A ball is thrown up into the air At the highest point of its trajectory the ball (A) Is acceleratingdownwards (B) has zero acceleration (C) is accelerating upwards (D) is still moving upwards
B
2 A ball of mass 200 g moving with a velocity of 8 ms collides and sticks with another ball ofmass 300 g moving in the same direction with velocity 4 ms What is the common velocity ofthe balls after the collision (A) 56 ms-1 (B) 28 ms-1 (C) 112 ms-1 (D) 14 ms-1
A
3 A boy holds the end of a rubber cord from which hangs a solid metal ball if the boy whirls theball in a horizontal circle keeping his hand still If the rubber cord breaks when the ball is at apoint on the circle in what direction will the ball move (A) towards the hand of the boy Baway from the hand of the boy C in the direction of the tangent to the circle at the point ofbreak D None of the above
C
4 A force of 20 N applied parallel to the surface of horizontal table is just sufficient to make ablock of mass 4 kg set for motion Find the acceleration when the force is doubled (A) 2 ms-2
(B) 4 ms-2 (C) 5 ms-2 (D) 10 ms-2
C
5 A man walks 1 km due east and then 1 km due north His displacement is (A) 1 km N15degE (B) 1km N30degE (C) radic2 km N45degE (D) 2 km N75degE
C
6 A motor car moves with a velocity of 20 ms-1 on a rough horizontal road and covers adisplacement of 50 m Find the coefficient of dynamic friction between the type and theground (g = 10 ms-2) (A) 03 (B) 06 (C) 05 (D) 04
D
7 A physics student standing on the edge of a cliff throws a stone vertically downward with aninitial speed of 100 ms The instant before the stone hits the ground below it is traveling ata speed of 300 ms If the physics student were to throw the rock horizontally outward fromthe cliff instead with the same initial speed of 100 ms what is the magnitude of the velocityof the stone just before it hits the ground(A) 100 ms (B) 200 ms (C) 300 ms (D) 400 ms
C
8 A quantity is defined as the product of cross-sectional area and change in momentum per unitlength Which of the following is its SI unit (A) Nm (B) kgs-1 (C) kgm2s-1 (D) Nkgs-1
C
9 A rectangular concrete block 40 cm x 30 cm x 60 cm of mass 10 kg rests on a horizontal flatsurface What is the minimum pressure it can possibly exert on the surface (A) 8166 Nm-2
(B) 816 6 Nm2 (C) 4083 Nm-2 (D) 6084 Nm
C
10 A simple hydrometer consists of uniform cylinder suitably weighted to float upright in mostcommon liquids It is graduated to read the relative density of a liquid directly Which of thefollowing is NOT correct (A) When placed in a liquid it displaces exactly its own weight of theliquid (B) Its graduation increases from top to base (C) When placed in a liquid it displacesexactly its own volume of the liquid (D) The product of the volume and density of liquiddisplaced is equal to its mass
C
11 A stone which is dropped into a dry well hits the bottom in 22 s How deep is the well (Takeg=10ms) (A) 404 m (B) 24 m (C) 484 m (D) 242 m
D
12 A woman whose mass is 70 kg sits 24 m from the fulcrum of a seesaw At what distance fromthe fulcrum should a 60 kg man sit to balance the seesaw (A) 28 m (B) 24 m (C) 32 m (D)38 m
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
2
13 An air bubble trapped at a depth in a liquid rises to the surface Which of the following is trueabout its mass and density as it rises (A) Its mass and density increase (B) Its mass is constantwhile its density decreases (C) Its mass and density is constant (D) Its mass is constant whileits density increases
B
14 Complete the following sentence The operation of a hydraulic jack is an application of (A)Pascals principle B Archimedesrsquo principle (C) Bernoullis principle (D) irrotational flow
A
15 Complete the following statement Today the standard meter is defined in terms of (A) thedistance from the earthrsquos equator to the north pole (B) the wavelength of light emitted from akrypton atom (C) the wavelength of light emitted from a sodium atom (D) the speed of light
D
16 Convert 30 metre per second to centimeter per minute (A) 20000 cmmin (B) 180000cmmin (C) 120000 cmmin (D) 150000 cmmin
B
17 During a football match player A kicks the ball 40 m 30o E of S to player B who instantly kicks it30 m 60o E of N What is the magnitude of the resultant displacement of the ball (A) 30 m (B)40 m (C) 50 m (D) 60 m
C
18 How much work is done against gravity in sliding a 500g object through 2 m up a smooth planethat is inclined at 30o to the horizontal (g = 98 ms-2) (A) 98 J (B) 198 J (C) 162 J (D) 49 J
D
19 If a small body of mass m is moving with angular velocity ω in a circle of radius r what is itskinetic energy (A) mω r (B) m ω 2r2 (C) m ω r22 (D) m ω 2r22
D
20 In free fall two balls of masses 20 kg and 10 kg were dropped from a height If the ball withthe smaller mass reached the ground after 4 s what is the difference between the time thetwo balls reach the ground (A) 8 s (B) 2 s (C) 0 s (D) 4 s
C
21 In what distance can a 1500 kg automobile be stopped if the brake is applied when the speedis 20 ms and the coefficient of sliding friction is 07 between the tyres and the ground(A) 9810 m (B) 7167 m (C) 2915 m (D) 2010 m
C
22 The highest point of a simple pendulum bob is 5cm vertically above the lowest point as itswings to and fro between the two extreme ends At what velocity does it swing past thelowest point (equilibrium point) where the string is vertical (take g = 10 ms2) (A) 1 ms (B) 2ms (C) 5 ms (D) 10 ms
A
23 Three vectors A B and C add together to yield zero A + B + C = 0 The vectors A and C point inopposite directions and their magnitudes are related by the expression A = 2C Which one ofthe following conclusions is correct (A) A and B have equal magnitudes and point in oppositedirections (B) B and C have equal magnitudes and point in the same direction (C) B and Chave equal magnitudes and point in opposite directions (D) A and B point in the samedirection but A has twice the magnitude of B
B
24 Which of the following could be measured in the same units as force (A) Energydistance (B)Energy x distance (C) Energytime (D) Momentum x distance
A
25 Which of the following does not affect the pressure at a point beneath the surface of a liquid(A) Surface area of the liquid (B) Density of the liquid (C) Depth of the point below thesurface (D) Strength of the gravitational field
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
3
26 Which of the following pairs contains one vector and one scalar quantity (A) Displacementacceleration (B) Force kinetic energy (C) Momentum velocity (D) Power speed
B
27 Which of the following statements is correct (A) uniform speed always implies uniformvelocity (B) uniform speed always implies zero acceleration (C) uniform speed may imply non-zero acceleration (D) constant momentum implies constant acceleration
C
28 Which of the of the following is a measurement taken with Venier callipers (A) 20 cm (B)200 cm (C) 2000 cm (D) 20000 cm
B
29 Which of the units of the following physical quantities are derived I Area II Thrust IIIPressure IV Mass (A) I II III and IV (B) I II and III only (C) I II and IV only (D) I and II only
B
30 Which one of the following situations is not possibleA A body has zero velocity and non-zero accelerationB A body travels with a northward velocity and a northward accelerationC A body travels with a constant velocity and a time-varying accelerationD A body travels with a constant acceleration and a time-varying velocity
C
31If C is the thermal capacity of a material of mass m and S is its specific heat capacity then (A)C= sm (B) S = Cm (C) C = Sm (D) DS = ms
C
32 A black car can be more uncomfortably hot on a warm day than a white car because (A) it ishot on a warm day (B) a black object is a better absorber of heat (C) black cars have heatersinstalled in them (D) white cars have air conditioning systems installed in them
B
33 A little sag is left in overhead telephone wires (A) because taut wires do not conduct soundeasily (B) to allow for the effect of a rise in temperature due to heating effect of currentflowing through them (C) to allow for the effect of a rise in temperature of the surroundingatmosphere (D) to allow for the effect of a fall in temperature of the surroundingatmosphere
D
34 A piece of copper wire of length 100 cm at 30oC is heated to 120oC If its linear expansivity is18 times10-4 k its new length is (A) 1666 cm (B) 1016 cm (C) 1806 (D) 108 cm
B
35 A sample of a monatomic ideal gas is originally at 20 degC What is the final temperature of thegas if both the pressure and volume are doubled (A) 5 degC (B) 80 degC (C) 20 degC (D) 899 degC
B
36 A volatile liquid used for cooling purpose in refrigerator is (A) liquid ammonia (B) cold water(C) liquid nitrogen (D) liquid helium
A
37 Complete the following statement A temperature decrease of 30 Cdeg is equal to a temperaturedecrease of (A) 30 Fdeg (B) 17 Fdeg (C) 30 K (D) 86 Fdeg
D
38 Complete the following statement Bimetallic strips used as adjustable switches in electricappliances consist of metal strips that must have different (A) mass (B) volume (C) length(D) expansion coefficients
D
39 Heat can be transferred from one end of a metal rod in contact with heat to the other endwhich is in contact with heat through (A) Conduction (B) Convection (C) Radiation (D)Evaporation
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
4
40 Heat supplied or removed from a system which causes a change of state without a change intemperature is (A) Specific heat (B) Heat capacity (C) Latent heat (D) Boiling heat
C
41 How many atmospheres of pressure must a litre of gas initially at a pressure of 1 atmosphereand temperature -20oC be after it has been compressed to frac12 litre at 40oC A 247 atm(B) 45 atm (C) 80 atm (D) 38 atm (E) 168 atm
A
42 On a cold day a good conductor X feels colder to the torch than a poor conductor Y because(A) Y retains more heat than X (B) the temperature of X is lower than that of Y (C) X conductsheat from the body less rapidly than Y (D) X transfers heat from body more rapidly than Y
D
43 The boiling point of water does not depend on (A) the impurities in water (B) the externalpressure (C) the quantity of water (D) all of the above
C
44 The ice and steam points of a local liquid in glass thermometer are 10 a and 90a respectivelyWhat will the thermometer read when the temperature is 30 0C (A) 40a (B) 38a (C) 36a(D) 34a
D
45 The lower and upper fixed points on a thermometer are 40 and 120 respectively Its reading at60oC is (A) 60 (B) 40 (C) 160 (D) 88
D
46 The pressure exerted by a given mass of gas in a container (A) Decreases if the container isheated (B) Increases if the molecules of the gas move faster (C) Increases if the volume of thecontainer is doubled (D) Decreases as the kinetic energy of the gas molecules increases
B
47 The temperature in an electric iron is regulated by (A) thermometer (B) bimettalic strip (C)steel (D) conductor
B
48 Water has an anomalous behavior between 0o and 4oC Which of the following is correct (A)Mass of water increases between 0oC and 4oC (B) Density of water decreases between 0oC and4oC (C) Volume of water increases between 0oC and 4oC (D) Volume of water decreasesbetween 0oC and 4oC
D
49 What is the Celsius equivalent of 500deg F (A) 10deg C (B) 20deg C (C) 30deg C (D) 40deg C A
50 When water is heated in a glass vessel the level first falls and then rises because (A) Theapparent expansion of the water is initially small and later increases (B) There is anomalousexpansion of water (C)The glass vessel does not expand (D)Glass vessel expands first beforewater starts a more rapid expansion
D
51 Which of the following quantities of water has undergone the greatest change from its heatcontent at melting point (A) 05 kg of water at 3oC (B) 02 kg of water at 8oC (C) 0005 kg ofwater at 80oC (D) 01 kg of water at 12oC
B
52 Which would cause a more serious burn 30 g of steam or 30 g of liquid water both at 100 degC
and why is this so
(A) Water because it is denser than steam (B) Steam because of its specific heat capacity
(C) Steam because of its latent heat of vaporization (D) Water because its specific heat is
greater than that of steam
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
5
53 A certain radioactive element has a half life of 20 years How long will it take the activity tobecome frac14 of its original(A) 20 years (B) 40 years (C) 60 years (D) 80 years
B
54 A plane progressive wave is represented by xty 20100sin2 where all the symbols
have their usual meanings What is the velocity of the wave
(A) 500 m s-1 (B) 400 m s-1 (C) 200 m s-1 (D) 100 m s-1
A
55 A point on a stationary wave where there is no movement of the medium is called (A) Node(B) Antinode (C) Note (D) Amplitude
A
56 A uniform wave has a speed of 10ms and a period of 05 s The distance between two nearestcrests is (A) 02 m (B) 20 m (C) 2 m (D) 5 m
D
57 A vibrating string has a tension of 40 and produces a note of whenݖܪ200 plucked in themiddle When the length of string is unaltered and the tension is increased to160 thefrequency becomes(A) ݖܪ1600 (B) ݖܪ800 (C) ܪ400 (D) ݖܪ200
C
58 An organ pipe closed at one end is 80cm long Determine the frequency of the fundamentalnote assuming that the speed of sound in air is 340ms (A) 213Hz (B) 318Hz (C) 425Hz (D)106Hz
D
59 As transverse wave moves through a medium the particles of the medium (A) vibrate in apath parallel to the path of the wave (B) do not move (C) vibrate in a path perpendicular tothe path of the wave (D) vibrate at an angle of 60o to the path of the wave
C
60 The sound heard after the reflection of sound wave from a plane surface is known as (A) Echo(B) Refraction (C) Vibration (D) Revibration
A
61 Which of the following properties is not common to all waves (A) Reflection (B) interference(C) Diffraction (D) Polarization
D
62 Which of the following statements is true about electromagnetic waves (A) They arelongitudinal (B) They can be seen (C) They have the same frequency in vacuum (D) They travelat the same speed in a vacuum
D
63 Which one of the following statements concerning electromagnetic waves is false (A)Electromagnetic waves are longitudinal waves (B) Electromagnetic waves transfer energythrough space (C) The existence of electromagnetic waves was predicted by Maxwell (D)Electromagnetic waves can propagate through a material substance
A
64 Which one of the following statements concerning waves is false (A) A wave can have bothtransverse and longitudinal components (B) A wave carries energy from one place to another(C) A wave does not result in the bulk flow of the material of its medium (D) A transversewave is one in which the disturbance is parallel to the direction of travel
D
65 A light sensitive area at the back of the eye where images are formed is called (A) Yellow Spot(B) Iris (C) Ciliary Muscle (D) Retina
D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
6
66 A luminous object is placed at a given distance from a converging lens of focal length 12cm anda real image is produced Find the image distance if it is equal to the object distance (A) 6cm(B) 3cm (C) 12cm (D) 24cm
D
67 An object is placed 15 cm in front of a concave mirror of radius 40 cm The image formed is(A) virtual and 60 cm behind the mirror (B) real and 60 cm in front of the mirror (C) virtual and40 cm from the mirror (D) at infinity
B
68 How far from a concave mirror of radius 120 cm must an object be placed such that its erectimage is four times its natural size (A) 72 cm (B) 64 cm (C) 45 cm (D) 50 cm
C
69 How many images are formed when an object is placed in front of two plane mirrors that areinclined at angle 30o to each other (A) 0 (B) 6 (C) 11 (D) 12
C
70 Professor Peters walks directly toward a plane mirror at a speed of 025 ms Determine thespeed of the image relative to him(A) 013 ms (B) 050 ms (C) 025 ms (D) 075 ms
B
71 The angle of incidence in a denser medium when the angle of refraction in the less dense
72 The driving mirror is a (A) plane mirror (B) convex mirror (C) concave mirror (D) thick planemirror
B
73 The following are types of a converging lens except(A) biconvex (B) plano-convex (C) mini-convex (D) converging meniscus
C
74 When the Sun the earth and the moon are in line during their movement with the earth beingthe opaque object and casting its shadow on the moon we have (A) Lunar eclipse (B) Totaleclipse (C) Partial eclipse (D) Annular eclipse
A
75 Which of the following instruments could be used in finding angle of elevation of the sun (A)Periscope (B) Telescope (C) Kaleidoscope (D) Sextant
D
76 Which of the following optical instruments does not depend on the use of plane mirrors (A)Kaleidoscope (B) Simple microscope (C) Sextant (D) Simple periscope
B
77 Which of the following statements supports the assumption that light travels in straight lines(A) light can be diffracted (B) light can be reflected (C) a source of light produces
interferences patterns on a suitably placed screen (D) a source of light produces distinctshadows of opaque objects
D
78Which of the following is correct about nuclear fission It is (A) the splitting of a heavynucleus into two or more lighter particles (B) an agent used to slow down neutrons in acontrolled atomic chain reaction (C) combing light atomic nuclei to form heavy (D) thespontaneous disintegration occurring in the nucleus of certain atoms
A
79 A light energy E falls on a metal and the electrons with a maximum kinetic energy of 02eV areejected If the work function of the metal is 03eV what is the value of E (A) 010eV (B)006eV (C) 050eV (D) 150eV
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
7
80 A nucleus is unstable if (A) it has two or more isotopes (B) its binding energy is not sufficientto hold nuclear particles together (C) it is very light with very low density (D) it has nosignificant mass
B
81 A radioactive substance has a half life of 4 years If its activity today is 200 dps its activity in 8years from today is (A) 50 dps (B) 25 dps (C) 20 dps (D) 10 dps
A
82 A substance has a half-life of 3min After 6min the count rate was observed to be 400Whatwas its count rate at zero time (A) 2400 (B) 200 (C) 1200 (D) 1600
D
83 An element and its isotopes differ only in the number of (A) electrons (B) neutrons (C)protons (D) irons
B
84 Complete the following sentence When electrons from a heated filament accelerate throughvacuum toward a positive plate (A) only an electric field will be produced (B) only amagnetic field will be produced (C) electromagnetic waves will be produced (D) longitudinalwaves will be produced
C
85 Radioactive elements are (A) chemically reactive elements (B) noble elements (C) rare earthelements (D) elements that spontaneously emit radiation
D
86 The following radiations are electrically neutral except (A) α-rays (B) ϒ-rays (C) X- rays (D)neutrons
A
87 Upon which one of the following parameters does the energy of a photon depend (A) mass(B) polarization (C) amplitude (D) frequency
D
88 Which of the following is NOT true about cathode ray (A) It moves in a straight line (B) Itcauses fluorescence (C) It possesses a negative charge (D) It can produce -particles
D
89 Who proposed the planetary model of the nucleus (A) J J Thomson (B) Albert Einstein (C)Ernest Rutherford (D) Marie Curie
C
90 X- rays cannot be used (A) to take photographs of bone structure in the body (B) to detectfinger prints (C) to detect flaws in metal castings (D) to detect alterations to works of art
B
91 1 farad is equivalent to (A) 1 coulombvolt (B) 1 voltcoulomb (C) 1 joulescoulomb (D) 1amperesec (E) volts per unit charge
A
92 A 0 - 10mA galvanometer with a coil resistance of 30 ohm can be converted to a 0-10Aammeter by using (A) 003ohm series resistor (B) 999ohm shunt resistor (C) 003ohm shuntresistor (D) 999ohm series resistor
C
93 A battery has an internal resistance of 4 and an emf of 12V The terminal voltage when a loadof 20 Ω is connected across it is (A) 4 (B) 10 V (C) 20 V (D) 2V
B
94 A conducting sphere has a net charge of 48 1017 C What is the approximate number ofexcess electrons on the sphere if the fundamental natural charge is -16 x 10-19C (A) 100 (B)300 (C) 200 (D) 400
B
95 A magnet cannot be demagnetized by (A) heating (B) hammering (C) chemical treatment (D)the use of solenoid through which an alternating current is flowing
C
96 An ac voltage is connected to an RLC series circuit of resistance 5 Ω inductance 3 mH and acapacitance of 005 microF Calculate the resonance frequency (A) 110 kHz (B) 120 kHz (C)130 kHz (D) 140 kHz
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
8
97 An electric heater converts 1KJ of electrical energy to heat energy every 2 second with 100efficiency The power produced is (A) 05 KW (B) 2 KW (C) 1KW (D) 10W
A
98 Complete the following statement The electromotive force is (A) the maximum potentialdifference between the terminals of a battery (B) the force that accelerates electrons througha wire when a battery is connected to it (C) the force that accelerates protons through a wirewhen a battery is connected to it (D) the maximum capacitance between the terminals of abattery
A
99 If a charged body is moving in a circle on a horizontal plane what is the general direction ofthe resulting magnetic field (A) In the plane of the circle (B) At an angle 45o to the plane ofmotion (C) Along the perpendicular axis through the center of the circle (D) Along thetangent to the circle
C
100 If a resistor is halved in magnitude and the potential across it is tripled then the ratio of theold current to the new current is (A) 13 (B) 31 (C) 61 (D) 16
D
101 The angle between the earthrsquos magnetic field and the horizontal is called angle of (A)declination (B) dip (C) variation (D) inclination
B
102 The basic difference between the galvanometer and the electric motor is (A) The size of themagnetic fields (B) The presence of hair springs in the galvanometer (C) The soft ironarmature in the galvanometer (D) The couple formed on the parallel sides of the rectangularcoil in the
B
103 The electromotive force is in such a direction as to oppose the motion or charge producing itThis is a statement of (A) Faradayrsquos Law (B) Lenz Law (C) Maxwell Law (D) Amperersquos law
B
104 The potential difference across the ends of a wire is doubled in magnitude If Ohmrsquos law isobeyed one of the following statements concerning the resistance of the wire is true (A) Theresistance is one half of its original value (B) The resistance is twice its original value (C) Theresistance is not changed (D) The resistance increases by a factor of four
C
105 The process of adding impurity to a semiconductor to increase its conductivity is called (A)Doping (B) Annealing (C) Heating (D) Hardening
A
106 Which if the following combinations consists of intrinsic properties of materials (A) volumeand density (B) density and mass (C) resistance and resistivity (D) density and resistivity
C
107 Which of the following can be measured with a potentiometer (A) Emf of a secondary cell (B)Resistivity of a wire (C) Potential difference across a conductor (D) Resistance of a wire
A
108 Which of the following devices is odd in the list (A) thermocouple (B) potentiometer (C) dcgenerator (D) solar cell
B
109 Which of the following is an essential physical property of the wires used for making fuses (A)high thermal conductivity (B) low density (C) low melting point (D) low electrical resistivity
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
9
110 Which one of the following statements concerning the magnetic force on a charged particle ina magnetic field is true (A) It is a maximum if the particle is stationary (B) It is a maximum ifthe particle moves parallel to the field (C) It acts in the direction of motion for a positivelycharged particle (D) It depends on the component of the particles velocity that isperpendicular to the field
D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
1
1 A ball is thrown up into the air At the highest point of its trajectory the ball (A) Is acceleratingdownwards (B) has zero acceleration (C) is accelerating upwards (D) is still moving upwards
B
2 A ball of mass 200 g moving with a velocity of 8 ms collides and sticks with another ball ofmass 300 g moving in the same direction with velocity 4 ms What is the common velocity ofthe balls after the collision (A) 56 ms-1 (B) 28 ms-1 (C) 112 ms-1 (D) 14 ms-1
A
3 A boy holds the end of a rubber cord from which hangs a solid metal ball if the boy whirls theball in a horizontal circle keeping his hand still If the rubber cord breaks when the ball is at apoint on the circle in what direction will the ball move (A) towards the hand of the boy Baway from the hand of the boy C in the direction of the tangent to the circle at the point ofbreak D None of the above
C
4 A force of 20 N applied parallel to the surface of horizontal table is just sufficient to make ablock of mass 4 kg set for motion Find the acceleration when the force is doubled (A) 2 ms-2
(B) 4 ms-2 (C) 5 ms-2 (D) 10 ms-2
C
5 A man walks 1 km due east and then 1 km due north His displacement is (A) 1 km N15degE (B) 1km N30degE (C) radic2 km N45degE (D) 2 km N75degE
C
6 A motor car moves with a velocity of 20 ms-1 on a rough horizontal road and covers adisplacement of 50 m Find the coefficient of dynamic friction between the type and theground (g = 10 ms-2) (A) 03 (B) 06 (C) 05 (D) 04
D
7 A physics student standing on the edge of a cliff throws a stone vertically downward with aninitial speed of 100 ms The instant before the stone hits the ground below it is traveling ata speed of 300 ms If the physics student were to throw the rock horizontally outward fromthe cliff instead with the same initial speed of 100 ms what is the magnitude of the velocityof the stone just before it hits the ground(A) 100 ms (B) 200 ms (C) 300 ms (D) 400 ms
C
8 A quantity is defined as the product of cross-sectional area and change in momentum per unitlength Which of the following is its SI unit (A) Nm (B) kgs-1 (C) kgm2s-1 (D) Nkgs-1
C
9 A rectangular concrete block 40 cm x 30 cm x 60 cm of mass 10 kg rests on a horizontal flatsurface What is the minimum pressure it can possibly exert on the surface (A) 8166 Nm-2
(B) 816 6 Nm2 (C) 4083 Nm-2 (D) 6084 Nm
C
10 A simple hydrometer consists of uniform cylinder suitably weighted to float upright in mostcommon liquids It is graduated to read the relative density of a liquid directly Which of thefollowing is NOT correct (A) When placed in a liquid it displaces exactly its own weight of theliquid (B) Its graduation increases from top to base (C) When placed in a liquid it displacesexactly its own volume of the liquid (D) The product of the volume and density of liquiddisplaced is equal to its mass
C
11 A stone which is dropped into a dry well hits the bottom in 22 s How deep is the well (Takeg=10ms) (A) 404 m (B) 24 m (C) 484 m (D) 242 m
D
12 A woman whose mass is 70 kg sits 24 m from the fulcrum of a seesaw At what distance fromthe fulcrum should a 60 kg man sit to balance the seesaw (A) 28 m (B) 24 m (C) 32 m (D)38 m
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
2
13 An air bubble trapped at a depth in a liquid rises to the surface Which of the following is trueabout its mass and density as it rises (A) Its mass and density increase (B) Its mass is constantwhile its density decreases (C) Its mass and density is constant (D) Its mass is constant whileits density increases
B
14 Complete the following sentence The operation of a hydraulic jack is an application of (A)Pascals principle B Archimedesrsquo principle (C) Bernoullis principle (D) irrotational flow
A
15 Complete the following statement Today the standard meter is defined in terms of (A) thedistance from the earthrsquos equator to the north pole (B) the wavelength of light emitted from akrypton atom (C) the wavelength of light emitted from a sodium atom (D) the speed of light
D
16 Convert 30 metre per second to centimeter per minute (A) 20000 cmmin (B) 180000cmmin (C) 120000 cmmin (D) 150000 cmmin
B
17 During a football match player A kicks the ball 40 m 30o E of S to player B who instantly kicks it30 m 60o E of N What is the magnitude of the resultant displacement of the ball (A) 30 m (B)40 m (C) 50 m (D) 60 m
C
18 How much work is done against gravity in sliding a 500g object through 2 m up a smooth planethat is inclined at 30o to the horizontal (g = 98 ms-2) (A) 98 J (B) 198 J (C) 162 J (D) 49 J
D
19 If a small body of mass m is moving with angular velocity ω in a circle of radius r what is itskinetic energy (A) mω r (B) m ω 2r2 (C) m ω r22 (D) m ω 2r22
D
20 In free fall two balls of masses 20 kg and 10 kg were dropped from a height If the ball withthe smaller mass reached the ground after 4 s what is the difference between the time thetwo balls reach the ground (A) 8 s (B) 2 s (C) 0 s (D) 4 s
C
21 In what distance can a 1500 kg automobile be stopped if the brake is applied when the speedis 20 ms and the coefficient of sliding friction is 07 between the tyres and the ground(A) 9810 m (B) 7167 m (C) 2915 m (D) 2010 m
C
22 The highest point of a simple pendulum bob is 5cm vertically above the lowest point as itswings to and fro between the two extreme ends At what velocity does it swing past thelowest point (equilibrium point) where the string is vertical (take g = 10 ms2) (A) 1 ms (B) 2ms (C) 5 ms (D) 10 ms
A
23 Three vectors A B and C add together to yield zero A + B + C = 0 The vectors A and C point inopposite directions and their magnitudes are related by the expression A = 2C Which one ofthe following conclusions is correct (A) A and B have equal magnitudes and point in oppositedirections (B) B and C have equal magnitudes and point in the same direction (C) B and Chave equal magnitudes and point in opposite directions (D) A and B point in the samedirection but A has twice the magnitude of B
B
24 Which of the following could be measured in the same units as force (A) Energydistance (B)Energy x distance (C) Energytime (D) Momentum x distance
A
25 Which of the following does not affect the pressure at a point beneath the surface of a liquid(A) Surface area of the liquid (B) Density of the liquid (C) Depth of the point below thesurface (D) Strength of the gravitational field
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
3
26 Which of the following pairs contains one vector and one scalar quantity (A) Displacementacceleration (B) Force kinetic energy (C) Momentum velocity (D) Power speed
B
27 Which of the following statements is correct (A) uniform speed always implies uniformvelocity (B) uniform speed always implies zero acceleration (C) uniform speed may imply non-zero acceleration (D) constant momentum implies constant acceleration
C
28 Which of the of the following is a measurement taken with Venier callipers (A) 20 cm (B)200 cm (C) 2000 cm (D) 20000 cm
B
29 Which of the units of the following physical quantities are derived I Area II Thrust IIIPressure IV Mass (A) I II III and IV (B) I II and III only (C) I II and IV only (D) I and II only
B
30 Which one of the following situations is not possibleA A body has zero velocity and non-zero accelerationB A body travels with a northward velocity and a northward accelerationC A body travels with a constant velocity and a time-varying accelerationD A body travels with a constant acceleration and a time-varying velocity
C
31If C is the thermal capacity of a material of mass m and S is its specific heat capacity then (A)C= sm (B) S = Cm (C) C = Sm (D) DS = ms
C
32 A black car can be more uncomfortably hot on a warm day than a white car because (A) it ishot on a warm day (B) a black object is a better absorber of heat (C) black cars have heatersinstalled in them (D) white cars have air conditioning systems installed in them
B
33 A little sag is left in overhead telephone wires (A) because taut wires do not conduct soundeasily (B) to allow for the effect of a rise in temperature due to heating effect of currentflowing through them (C) to allow for the effect of a rise in temperature of the surroundingatmosphere (D) to allow for the effect of a fall in temperature of the surroundingatmosphere
D
34 A piece of copper wire of length 100 cm at 30oC is heated to 120oC If its linear expansivity is18 times10-4 k its new length is (A) 1666 cm (B) 1016 cm (C) 1806 (D) 108 cm
B
35 A sample of a monatomic ideal gas is originally at 20 degC What is the final temperature of thegas if both the pressure and volume are doubled (A) 5 degC (B) 80 degC (C) 20 degC (D) 899 degC
B
36 A volatile liquid used for cooling purpose in refrigerator is (A) liquid ammonia (B) cold water(C) liquid nitrogen (D) liquid helium
A
37 Complete the following statement A temperature decrease of 30 Cdeg is equal to a temperaturedecrease of (A) 30 Fdeg (B) 17 Fdeg (C) 30 K (D) 86 Fdeg
D
38 Complete the following statement Bimetallic strips used as adjustable switches in electricappliances consist of metal strips that must have different (A) mass (B) volume (C) length(D) expansion coefficients
D
39 Heat can be transferred from one end of a metal rod in contact with heat to the other endwhich is in contact with heat through (A) Conduction (B) Convection (C) Radiation (D)Evaporation
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
4
40 Heat supplied or removed from a system which causes a change of state without a change intemperature is (A) Specific heat (B) Heat capacity (C) Latent heat (D) Boiling heat
C
41 How many atmospheres of pressure must a litre of gas initially at a pressure of 1 atmosphereand temperature -20oC be after it has been compressed to frac12 litre at 40oC A 247 atm(B) 45 atm (C) 80 atm (D) 38 atm (E) 168 atm
A
42 On a cold day a good conductor X feels colder to the torch than a poor conductor Y because(A) Y retains more heat than X (B) the temperature of X is lower than that of Y (C) X conductsheat from the body less rapidly than Y (D) X transfers heat from body more rapidly than Y
D
43 The boiling point of water does not depend on (A) the impurities in water (B) the externalpressure (C) the quantity of water (D) all of the above
C
44 The ice and steam points of a local liquid in glass thermometer are 10 a and 90a respectivelyWhat will the thermometer read when the temperature is 30 0C (A) 40a (B) 38a (C) 36a(D) 34a
D
45 The lower and upper fixed points on a thermometer are 40 and 120 respectively Its reading at60oC is (A) 60 (B) 40 (C) 160 (D) 88
D
46 The pressure exerted by a given mass of gas in a container (A) Decreases if the container isheated (B) Increases if the molecules of the gas move faster (C) Increases if the volume of thecontainer is doubled (D) Decreases as the kinetic energy of the gas molecules increases
B
47 The temperature in an electric iron is regulated by (A) thermometer (B) bimettalic strip (C)steel (D) conductor
B
48 Water has an anomalous behavior between 0o and 4oC Which of the following is correct (A)Mass of water increases between 0oC and 4oC (B) Density of water decreases between 0oC and4oC (C) Volume of water increases between 0oC and 4oC (D) Volume of water decreasesbetween 0oC and 4oC
D
49 What is the Celsius equivalent of 500deg F (A) 10deg C (B) 20deg C (C) 30deg C (D) 40deg C A
50 When water is heated in a glass vessel the level first falls and then rises because (A) Theapparent expansion of the water is initially small and later increases (B) There is anomalousexpansion of water (C)The glass vessel does not expand (D)Glass vessel expands first beforewater starts a more rapid expansion
D
51 Which of the following quantities of water has undergone the greatest change from its heatcontent at melting point (A) 05 kg of water at 3oC (B) 02 kg of water at 8oC (C) 0005 kg ofwater at 80oC (D) 01 kg of water at 12oC
B
52 Which would cause a more serious burn 30 g of steam or 30 g of liquid water both at 100 degC
and why is this so
(A) Water because it is denser than steam (B) Steam because of its specific heat capacity
(C) Steam because of its latent heat of vaporization (D) Water because its specific heat is
greater than that of steam
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
5
53 A certain radioactive element has a half life of 20 years How long will it take the activity tobecome frac14 of its original(A) 20 years (B) 40 years (C) 60 years (D) 80 years
B
54 A plane progressive wave is represented by xty 20100sin2 where all the symbols
have their usual meanings What is the velocity of the wave
(A) 500 m s-1 (B) 400 m s-1 (C) 200 m s-1 (D) 100 m s-1
A
55 A point on a stationary wave where there is no movement of the medium is called (A) Node(B) Antinode (C) Note (D) Amplitude
A
56 A uniform wave has a speed of 10ms and a period of 05 s The distance between two nearestcrests is (A) 02 m (B) 20 m (C) 2 m (D) 5 m
D
57 A vibrating string has a tension of 40 and produces a note of whenݖܪ200 plucked in themiddle When the length of string is unaltered and the tension is increased to160 thefrequency becomes(A) ݖܪ1600 (B) ݖܪ800 (C) ܪ400 (D) ݖܪ200
C
58 An organ pipe closed at one end is 80cm long Determine the frequency of the fundamentalnote assuming that the speed of sound in air is 340ms (A) 213Hz (B) 318Hz (C) 425Hz (D)106Hz
D
59 As transverse wave moves through a medium the particles of the medium (A) vibrate in apath parallel to the path of the wave (B) do not move (C) vibrate in a path perpendicular tothe path of the wave (D) vibrate at an angle of 60o to the path of the wave
C
60 The sound heard after the reflection of sound wave from a plane surface is known as (A) Echo(B) Refraction (C) Vibration (D) Revibration
A
61 Which of the following properties is not common to all waves (A) Reflection (B) interference(C) Diffraction (D) Polarization
D
62 Which of the following statements is true about electromagnetic waves (A) They arelongitudinal (B) They can be seen (C) They have the same frequency in vacuum (D) They travelat the same speed in a vacuum
D
63 Which one of the following statements concerning electromagnetic waves is false (A)Electromagnetic waves are longitudinal waves (B) Electromagnetic waves transfer energythrough space (C) The existence of electromagnetic waves was predicted by Maxwell (D)Electromagnetic waves can propagate through a material substance
A
64 Which one of the following statements concerning waves is false (A) A wave can have bothtransverse and longitudinal components (B) A wave carries energy from one place to another(C) A wave does not result in the bulk flow of the material of its medium (D) A transversewave is one in which the disturbance is parallel to the direction of travel
D
65 A light sensitive area at the back of the eye where images are formed is called (A) Yellow Spot(B) Iris (C) Ciliary Muscle (D) Retina
D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
6
66 A luminous object is placed at a given distance from a converging lens of focal length 12cm anda real image is produced Find the image distance if it is equal to the object distance (A) 6cm(B) 3cm (C) 12cm (D) 24cm
D
67 An object is placed 15 cm in front of a concave mirror of radius 40 cm The image formed is(A) virtual and 60 cm behind the mirror (B) real and 60 cm in front of the mirror (C) virtual and40 cm from the mirror (D) at infinity
B
68 How far from a concave mirror of radius 120 cm must an object be placed such that its erectimage is four times its natural size (A) 72 cm (B) 64 cm (C) 45 cm (D) 50 cm
C
69 How many images are formed when an object is placed in front of two plane mirrors that areinclined at angle 30o to each other (A) 0 (B) 6 (C) 11 (D) 12
C
70 Professor Peters walks directly toward a plane mirror at a speed of 025 ms Determine thespeed of the image relative to him(A) 013 ms (B) 050 ms (C) 025 ms (D) 075 ms
B
71 The angle of incidence in a denser medium when the angle of refraction in the less dense
72 The driving mirror is a (A) plane mirror (B) convex mirror (C) concave mirror (D) thick planemirror
B
73 The following are types of a converging lens except(A) biconvex (B) plano-convex (C) mini-convex (D) converging meniscus
C
74 When the Sun the earth and the moon are in line during their movement with the earth beingthe opaque object and casting its shadow on the moon we have (A) Lunar eclipse (B) Totaleclipse (C) Partial eclipse (D) Annular eclipse
A
75 Which of the following instruments could be used in finding angle of elevation of the sun (A)Periscope (B) Telescope (C) Kaleidoscope (D) Sextant
D
76 Which of the following optical instruments does not depend on the use of plane mirrors (A)Kaleidoscope (B) Simple microscope (C) Sextant (D) Simple periscope
B
77 Which of the following statements supports the assumption that light travels in straight lines(A) light can be diffracted (B) light can be reflected (C) a source of light produces
interferences patterns on a suitably placed screen (D) a source of light produces distinctshadows of opaque objects
D
78Which of the following is correct about nuclear fission It is (A) the splitting of a heavynucleus into two or more lighter particles (B) an agent used to slow down neutrons in acontrolled atomic chain reaction (C) combing light atomic nuclei to form heavy (D) thespontaneous disintegration occurring in the nucleus of certain atoms
A
79 A light energy E falls on a metal and the electrons with a maximum kinetic energy of 02eV areejected If the work function of the metal is 03eV what is the value of E (A) 010eV (B)006eV (C) 050eV (D) 150eV
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
7
80 A nucleus is unstable if (A) it has two or more isotopes (B) its binding energy is not sufficientto hold nuclear particles together (C) it is very light with very low density (D) it has nosignificant mass
B
81 A radioactive substance has a half life of 4 years If its activity today is 200 dps its activity in 8years from today is (A) 50 dps (B) 25 dps (C) 20 dps (D) 10 dps
A
82 A substance has a half-life of 3min After 6min the count rate was observed to be 400Whatwas its count rate at zero time (A) 2400 (B) 200 (C) 1200 (D) 1600
D
83 An element and its isotopes differ only in the number of (A) electrons (B) neutrons (C)protons (D) irons
B
84 Complete the following sentence When electrons from a heated filament accelerate throughvacuum toward a positive plate (A) only an electric field will be produced (B) only amagnetic field will be produced (C) electromagnetic waves will be produced (D) longitudinalwaves will be produced
C
85 Radioactive elements are (A) chemically reactive elements (B) noble elements (C) rare earthelements (D) elements that spontaneously emit radiation
D
86 The following radiations are electrically neutral except (A) α-rays (B) ϒ-rays (C) X- rays (D)neutrons
A
87 Upon which one of the following parameters does the energy of a photon depend (A) mass(B) polarization (C) amplitude (D) frequency
D
88 Which of the following is NOT true about cathode ray (A) It moves in a straight line (B) Itcauses fluorescence (C) It possesses a negative charge (D) It can produce -particles
D
89 Who proposed the planetary model of the nucleus (A) J J Thomson (B) Albert Einstein (C)Ernest Rutherford (D) Marie Curie
C
90 X- rays cannot be used (A) to take photographs of bone structure in the body (B) to detectfinger prints (C) to detect flaws in metal castings (D) to detect alterations to works of art
B
91 1 farad is equivalent to (A) 1 coulombvolt (B) 1 voltcoulomb (C) 1 joulescoulomb (D) 1amperesec (E) volts per unit charge
A
92 A 0 - 10mA galvanometer with a coil resistance of 30 ohm can be converted to a 0-10Aammeter by using (A) 003ohm series resistor (B) 999ohm shunt resistor (C) 003ohm shuntresistor (D) 999ohm series resistor
C
93 A battery has an internal resistance of 4 and an emf of 12V The terminal voltage when a loadof 20 Ω is connected across it is (A) 4 (B) 10 V (C) 20 V (D) 2V
B
94 A conducting sphere has a net charge of 48 1017 C What is the approximate number ofexcess electrons on the sphere if the fundamental natural charge is -16 x 10-19C (A) 100 (B)300 (C) 200 (D) 400
B
95 A magnet cannot be demagnetized by (A) heating (B) hammering (C) chemical treatment (D)the use of solenoid through which an alternating current is flowing
C
96 An ac voltage is connected to an RLC series circuit of resistance 5 Ω inductance 3 mH and acapacitance of 005 microF Calculate the resonance frequency (A) 110 kHz (B) 120 kHz (C)130 kHz (D) 140 kHz
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
8
97 An electric heater converts 1KJ of electrical energy to heat energy every 2 second with 100efficiency The power produced is (A) 05 KW (B) 2 KW (C) 1KW (D) 10W
A
98 Complete the following statement The electromotive force is (A) the maximum potentialdifference between the terminals of a battery (B) the force that accelerates electrons througha wire when a battery is connected to it (C) the force that accelerates protons through a wirewhen a battery is connected to it (D) the maximum capacitance between the terminals of abattery
A
99 If a charged body is moving in a circle on a horizontal plane what is the general direction ofthe resulting magnetic field (A) In the plane of the circle (B) At an angle 45o to the plane ofmotion (C) Along the perpendicular axis through the center of the circle (D) Along thetangent to the circle
C
100 If a resistor is halved in magnitude and the potential across it is tripled then the ratio of theold current to the new current is (A) 13 (B) 31 (C) 61 (D) 16
D
101 The angle between the earthrsquos magnetic field and the horizontal is called angle of (A)declination (B) dip (C) variation (D) inclination
B
102 The basic difference between the galvanometer and the electric motor is (A) The size of themagnetic fields (B) The presence of hair springs in the galvanometer (C) The soft ironarmature in the galvanometer (D) The couple formed on the parallel sides of the rectangularcoil in the
B
103 The electromotive force is in such a direction as to oppose the motion or charge producing itThis is a statement of (A) Faradayrsquos Law (B) Lenz Law (C) Maxwell Law (D) Amperersquos law
B
104 The potential difference across the ends of a wire is doubled in magnitude If Ohmrsquos law isobeyed one of the following statements concerning the resistance of the wire is true (A) Theresistance is one half of its original value (B) The resistance is twice its original value (C) Theresistance is not changed (D) The resistance increases by a factor of four
C
105 The process of adding impurity to a semiconductor to increase its conductivity is called (A)Doping (B) Annealing (C) Heating (D) Hardening
A
106 Which if the following combinations consists of intrinsic properties of materials (A) volumeand density (B) density and mass (C) resistance and resistivity (D) density and resistivity
C
107 Which of the following can be measured with a potentiometer (A) Emf of a secondary cell (B)Resistivity of a wire (C) Potential difference across a conductor (D) Resistance of a wire
A
108 Which of the following devices is odd in the list (A) thermocouple (B) potentiometer (C) dcgenerator (D) solar cell
B
109 Which of the following is an essential physical property of the wires used for making fuses (A)high thermal conductivity (B) low density (C) low melting point (D) low electrical resistivity
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
9
110 Which one of the following statements concerning the magnetic force on a charged particle ina magnetic field is true (A) It is a maximum if the particle is stationary (B) It is a maximum ifthe particle moves parallel to the field (C) It acts in the direction of motion for a positivelycharged particle (D) It depends on the component of the particles velocity that isperpendicular to the field
D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
AGRICULTURAL SCIENCE
55 Soil textural class can be determined using (A) Meter rule (B) Vernier caliper (C) Textural C
Triangle (D) Rain gauge
56 The average seed rate for maize is 25kg per hectare Allowing for seed wastage of 5 B
percent how many kilograms of seeds would be required in planting 2 hectares of farm
land (A) 4075 (B) 4750 (C) 5005 (D) 5275
57 The correct definition of a soil profile is (A) Horizontal section of the earth crust showing all C
the layers of soil (B) Diagonal representation of the soil from top to bottom (C) Vertical
section of the soil from the soil surface to the top of the parent materials showing the
horizons (D) Perpendicular cross section of the soil showing all the layers from the top of
the subsoil
58 The mosaic symptom commonly associated with viral diseases of crops can be best C
observed on (A) roots (B) stem (C) leaves (D) fruits
59 The most important part of a crop plant to a horticulturist are the(A) Roots (B)Leaves (C) B
Buds (D) Branches
60 The pest designated as a national pest by Nigerian Agricultural Advisory Council is (A) A
81 The female sheep is known as (A) ewe (B) lamb (C) sow (D) mare A
82 The largest part of the oviduct where egg white is formed is the (A) Isthmus (B) Infudibulum D
(C) Uterus (D) Magnum
83 The male reproductive hormone is called (A) Testosterone (B) Testis (C) Thiamine (D) A
Globulin (E) Progesterone
84 The process of eliminating undesirable birds from the flock is known as (A)Dubbing (B) C
Removing (C) Culling (D) Degrading
85 The volume of the seminal fluid in chicken is about helliphelliphelliphelliphelliphelliphellip (A) 10mls (B) 50mls (c) C
05mls (d) 010mls
86 What is poultry science (A) Study of chickens (B) Study of science (c) Study of goats (d) A
Study of cattle
87 What is the gestation period of a cow (A) 5 months (B) 18frac12 months (C) 9 months (D) 24 C
months (E) 15 weeks
88 Which branch of poultry industry is concerned with the production of various kinds of feed C
(A) Hatchery industry (B) Poultry processing and marketing (C) Milling Industry (D) Poultry
equipment
89 Which of the following fish preservation method is common in the Northern part of A
Nigeria (A) Sun-drying (B) Gas drying (C) Oven drying
90 Which of the following is monogastric animal (A) Cattle (B) Goat (C) Rabbit (D) Sheep C
91 A farmer purchased a sprayer for N15000 in 2004 at the end of fifth year he sold it for B
N5000 What is the salvage value (A) N10000 (B) N5000 (C) N15000 (D) N
3000
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
AGRICULTURAL SCIENCE
92 Agricultural extension got its name from (A) spreading of information (B) taking information B
to farmers on field (C) having farm extension (D) none of these
93 Equilibrium price is (A) the point at which quantity of a commodity equals quantity B
supplied (B) the price at which quantity demanded of a commodity equals quantity
supplied (C) the point at which market price of a commodity equals quantity supplied (D)
the price at which quantity demanded of a commodity equals market price
94 Farm-gate price is usually obtained through (A) The producer (B) Middlemen (C) A
Commodity Boards (D) Cooperatives
95 One of the factors that influence supply is (A) Income (B) prices of other products (C) D
social capital (D) level of technology
96 People-oriented extension programmes which generate ideas and activities from the D
grassroots is called (A) grassroots approach (B) top down approach (C) community
approach (D) bottom up approach
97 The law of demand states that (A) demand is directly related to price of a commodity (B) B
higher the price of a commodity leads to lower quantity demanded (C) the price of a
commodity is directly proportional to the amount supplied (D) None of the above
98 The loss in value of an asset due to wear and tear in the course of its use is known as C
(A) Appreciation (B) Evaluation (C) Depreciation (D) Salvage value
99 Which of the following is not a problem of agricultural marketing in Nigeria (A) Lack of C
transport facilities (B) Scattered sources of supply (C) High quantity of farm produce (D)
Lack of good packaging and processing facilities
100 Which of the following is not a subject area in Agricultural Economics (A) Agribusiness C
management (B) Farm management and accounting (C) Agronomy (D) Agricultural
development and policy
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
BIOLOGY
1
1 ____________ is an end product of digestion of fat (A) Glucose (B) Fatty acid (C) Amino acid (D)Fructose (E) Galactose
B
2 Asexual reproduction in Hydra sp is commonly by ____ (A) Binary fission b Fragmentation cBudding d Separation (E) Regeneration
C
3 Benedictrsquos solution is used to test for ___ (A) Carbohydrate (B) Lipid (C) Protein (D) Vitamins (E)Minerals
C
4 Pepsin is an enzyme that digests ___ (A) Starch (B) Sugar (C) Lipid (D) Fat (E) Protein E
5 The breakdown of large organic molecules into smaller simpler soluble molecules is called ndashndash (A)Excretion (B) Digestion (C) Absorption (D) Reproduction (E) Ingestion
B
6 The enzyme that curdles milk is_____________ (A) Pepsin (B) Ptyalin (C) Renin (D) Amylase(E) Trypsin
C
7 Which is the enzyme that begins digestion of starch in the mouth (A) Ptyalin (B) Maltase (C)Amylase (D) Sucrase (E) Lactase
A
8 A group of interacting populations in a particular habitat can be described as ___(A) biome (B)biosphere (C) community (D) population ecosystem (E) environment
C
9 A habitat can be defined as ___(A) a group of animals and plants living within a commonboundary (B) a place in which plants and animals live (C) a community living together in thesame place (D) different areas with a common animal and plant population (E) None of theabove
B
10 A symbiotic relationship in which one organism is completely dependent on another organism iscalled ____ (A) Parasitism (B) Commensalisms (C) Mutualism (D) Saprophytism (E) Competition
A
11 An association between two organisms where both members benefit is known as ___ (A)symbiosis (B) commensalism (C) ammensalism (D) mutualism (E) saprophytism
D
12 An instrument used in measuring the speed of wind is (A) a barometer (B) a wind gauge (C) awind vane (D) an anemometer (E) a hydrometer
D
13 At times hyenas feed on remains of animals killed by other animals At other times hyenasthemselves kill animals for food Therefore hyenas may best be described as ndashndash (A) scavengersand herbivores (B) scavengers and parasites (C) scavengers and predators (D) herbivores andpredators e herbivores and parasites
C
14 Autecology is defined as the study of interrelationship of (A) many species of organisms and theirenvironment (B) same species of organisms and their environment (C) organisms in theatmosphere (D) organisms under the earthrsquos surface (E)None of the above
B
15 Autotrophs are also described as ndashndash (A) Consumers (B) Decomposers (C) Carnivores (D)Producers (E) Herbivores
D
16 If three 30cm lengths of glass tubing are tightly packed with clay sand and loamy soilsrespectively and then stood in a beaker of water for one week the level of water will be (A)Lowest in the tube with clay (B) The same in all the tubes (C) Lowest in the tube with loamy soil(D) Highest in the tube with sandy soil (E) Lowest in the tube with sandy soil
E
17 In a community bacteria and fungi are referred to as ndashndash (A) producers (B) consumers (C)scavengers (D) tertiary consumers (E) decomposers
E
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
BIOLOGY
2
18 Puddles Ponds Rivers Seas and Oceans are grouped together as ndashndash (A) Ecosystem (B) Biosphere(C) Aquatic habitat (D) Terrestrial habitat (E) Marine environment
C
19 The feeding pattern in an ecosystem is calledhelliphelliphelliphellip (A) Pyramid of energy (B) Food web (C)Food chain (D) Pyramid of member (E) Ecology
B
20 The orderly changes that occur slowly and naturally in plant and animal communities in a givenarea over a period of time until a stable community is established is called ndashndash (A)Transformational change (B) ecological succession (C) survival of the fittest (D) weatherchange (E) environmental change
B
21 The sign + is used to indicate an association where an organism gains while 0 is used where anorganism is unaffected An association indicated as +0 is known as ndashndash (A) predation (B)commensalism (C) parasitism (D) competition (E) ammensalism
B
22 The sum total of all the roles an organism plays in a habitat is referred to as (A) ecology (B)ecosystem (C) habit (D) habitat (E) niche
E
23 Which of the following factors does not control population growth (A) Food shortage (B)Emigration (C) Predation (D) Abundance of food (E) Natural disaster
D
24 Which of the following statements best describe an ecosystem (A) A place where livingorganisms can live successfully (B) The interactions between living organism in a habitat and thenon-living part of the environment (C) A biological association between a plant and ananimal (D) A system of grouping organisms in a habitat (E) None of the above
B
25 Which of these represents a correct food chain in nature (A) Crustacea rarr diatom rarrfish rarr man (B) Diatom rarr crustacea rarr fish rarr man (C) Fish rarr crustacea rarr man rarr diatom (D) Diatom rarr fish rarr crustacea rarr man (E) None of the above
B
26 ___________ is involved in the mechanism of expelling water from the protozoans during theprocess of____________ (A) Contractile vacuole Osmoregulation (B) Contractile vacuolePhagocytosis (C) Food vacuole Ultrafilteration (D) Food vacuole Pinocytosis (E) Cell membranePinocytosis
A
27 ______________ is used for photosynthesis in Euglena sp (A) Reservoir (B) Nucleus (C)Chloroplast (D) Paramylon granule (E) Pellicle
C
28 A heart with four chambers is found in______________ (A) Fishes (B) Insects (C) Snails (D) Rats(E) Worms
D
29 Animal cell does not have a ____________ (A) Membrane (B) Nucleolus (C) Food Vacuole (D) Cellwall (E) Golgi body
D
30 Beriberi is caused by deficiency of vitamin_____________ (A) A (B) D (C) K (D) E (E) B E
31 Compound eyes are found in which of the animals below (A) Rat (B) Cow (C) Snail (D) Ant (E) Jellyfish
D
32 Dental formula of man consist of (A) i 22 c22 pm22 m33 (B) i11 c22 pm22 m33 (C)i22 c11 pm32 m22 (D) i22 c11 pm22 m22 (E) i22 c11 pm22 m33
E
33 During digestion of food passage of chyme through the duodenum enables it to become awatery liquid called__________ (A) Digested food (B) Chymatic product (C) Chyle (D) Solublefood (E) Dissolved food
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
BIOLOGY
3
34 Emulsification of fat and oils is caused by______________ (A) Lipase (B) Ptyalin (C) Trypsin (D)Maltase (E) Bile
E
35 Every mammal has (A) One Kidney (B) Two pairs of Kidneys (C) One pair of Kidneys (D) FourKidneys (E) None of the above
C
36 Faeces is removed from the body in a process called (A) Digestion (B) Egestion (C) Elimination(D) Excretion (E) Evacuation
B
37 Glomerulus is found in the______________ (A) Ovary (B) Testes (C) Brain (D) Kidney e)Stomach
D
38 In the respiratory system of man diffusion of gases takes place in (A) Trachea (B) Bronchi (C)Alveoli (D) Bronchioles (E) None of the above
C
39 Incisors are used for (A) Tearing food (B) Cutting food (C) Grinding food (D) Shearing food (E)Crushing food
B
40 Nematocysts are produced by special cells found in (A) Nematodes (B) Annelids (C)Platyhelminthes (D) Cnidarians (Coelenterates) (E) Arthropods
D
41 One of the following is not a function of the skin (A) Excretion (B) Protection (C) Homeostasis(D) Reproduction (E) Absorption of vitamin D
D
42 Open circulatory system is found in _____________ (A) Lizard (B) Toad (C) Fish (D) Insect (E)Chicken
D
43 Ovary is to the female reproductive system as________ is to the male reproductive system (A)Penis (B) Urethra (C) Testis (D) Cowperrsquos gland (E) Prostate gland
C
44 Possession of pinna is a characteristic feature of (A) Mammals (B) Reptiles (C) Fishes (D)Amphibians (E) All of the above
A
45 Tadpoles respire with (A) Lungs (B) Nostril (C) Gills (D) Spiracles (E) Siphon C
46 The excretory organ in the earthworm ishelliphelliphelliphellip (A) Malphigian tubule (B) Stoma (C)Nephriduim (D) Flame cells (E) Gills
C
47 The nerves that connect the eyes to the brain are called ndashndash (A) Cranial nerves (B) Optical nerves(C) Sensory nerves (D) Olfactory nerves (E) Optic nerves
E
48 The nerves that connect the eyes to the brain are called ndashndash (A) Cranial nerves (B) Optical nerves(C) Sensory nerves (D) Olfactory nerves (E) Optic nerves
E
49 The parasympathetic nervous system is involved in (A) Dilation of pupil of the eye (B) Controlthe activities of smooth muscles (C) Dilatation of the skin (D) Controls thinking in mammals (E)Increased metabolism
B
50 The part of the alimentary system of a bird where grinding of food occurs is (A) Crop (B)Stomach (C) Cloaca (D) Rectum (E) Gizzard
E
51 The part of the ear that contains receptors that convert the fluid motion into action potential iscalled ndashndash (A) Auditory nerve (B) Ossicles (C) Semicircular canals (D) Cochlea (E) Oval window
D
52 The thoracic region of the vertebral column is made up of __________ vertebrae (A) 5 (B) 7 (C) 4(D) 12 (E) 10
D
53 Which of the animal below is poikilothemic (A) Toad (B) Chicken (C) Bat (D) Lion (E) Dove A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
BIOLOGY
4
54 Which of the structures below is found in reptiles and birds (A) Scales (B) Legs (C) Beaks (D)Claws (E) All of the above
A
55 Which of these animals is photosynthetic (A) Paramecium sp (B) Amoeba sp (C) Euglena sp(D) Hydra sp (E) None of the above
C
56 Which of these organs regulate the amount of sugar in the blood (A) Liver (B) Kidney (C) Spleen(D) Lung (E) Pancreas
E
57 The basis for growth and asexual reproduction is (A) meiosis (B) cytokinesis (C) mitosis (D)Cytogenesis (E) Cell elongation
C
58 The process which ensures that the chromosome number for each species of organism remainconstant from generation to generation is called (A) fission (B) fusion (C) meiosis (D) mitosis(E) oogenesis
C
59 Which of the following is a major factor in variation among organisms (A) Inbreeding (B)Backcrossing (C) Test crossing (D) Sexual reproduction (E) Gene dominance
D
60 ____________ is an example of an invertebrate (A) Millipede (B) Fish (C) Toad (D) Snake (E) Skin A
61 ____________ is the odd one in the list below (A) Mosquito (B) Bee (C) Moth (D) Tick (E)Beetle
63 _____________ is an example of a unicellular organism (A) Amoeba sp (B) Hydra sp (C) Ascarissp (D) Taenia sp (E) Obelia sp
A
64 _____________ level is the highest level of organization in animals (A) System (B) Tissue (C)Organ (D) Cellular (E) Protoplasmic
A
65 Crocodiles are _____________ (A) Fishes (B) Amphibians (C) Mammals (D) Birds (E) None of theabove
E
66 The mutation theory of organic evolution was propounded by (A) Gregor Mendel (B) Hugo deVrics (C) Jean Lamarck (D) Charles Darwin (E) Robert Hookes
D
67 The theory of natural selection was developed by (A) Lamarck and Darwin (B) Darwin andWallace (C) Wallace and Mendel (D) Mendel and Lamarck (E) Hooke and Darwin
B
68 Which is the odd animal in the list below (A) Lizards (B) Snakes (C) Turtles (D) Tortoise (E) Toad E
69 Which of the following sources is not an evidence of evolution (A) Fossil records B Comparativeanatomy C Comparative embryology (D) Human behavior (E) None of the above
D
70 _______________ is an endoparasite (A) Earthworm (B) Tapeworm (C) Mosquito (D) Housefly (E)Tsetse fly
B
71 The causative agent of bird flu is a (A) Virus (B) Bacteria (C) Fungus (D) Protozoan (E) Ricketsia A
72 In lower plants like mosses the structure which performs the functions of roots of higher plantsis called (A) root hairs (B) rootlets (C) hyphae (D) rhizoids (E) thalli
D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
BIOLOGY
5
73 One common feature of fungi algae mosses and ferns is that they are (A) photosynthetic (B)show alternation of generation (C) can survive harsh weather conditions (D) have no seeds (E)conjugate
D
74 The following are major groups of the plant kingdom EXCEPT (A) Bryophyta (B) Chlorophyta (C)Pteridophyta (D) Spermatophyta (E) Thallophyta
B
75 _____________is a form of sexual reproduction (A) Grafting (B) Budding (C) Fission (D)Conjugation (E) Regeneration
D
76 Sexual reproduction in Spirogyra is called (A) Fertilization (B) Symbiosis (C) Conjugation (D)Reproduction (E) Mutualism
C
77 The carrier of the hereditary characters in plants is the (A) Cell (B) nucleus (C) chromosome (D)chloroplast (E) gene
E
78 All are necessary for photosynthesis except_____________ (A) Water (B) Chlorophyll (C)Sunlight (D) Carbon dioxide (E) Oxygen
E
79 Growing yam tendrils climb for support This growth response is (A) haptotropism (B) geotropism(C) phototropism (D) hydrotropism (E) chemotropism
A
80 Which is the correct order in an evolutionary sequence for the following plant groups (A)Bacteria rarr ferns rarr algae rarr mosses rarr seed plants (B) Bacteria rarr ferns rarr mosses rarr algae rarr seed plants (C) Bacteria rarr algae rarr mosses rarr ferns rarr seed plants (D) Bacteria rarr mosses rarr algae rarr ferns rarr seed plants (E) Seed plants rarr ferns rarr mosses rarr algae rarr bacteria
C
81 ------------ is not part of the whorls of a flower(A)calyx (B) corolla (C) androecium (D)Antheridium (E)Gynoecium
D
82 A dry fruit which can break into several parts each containing one seed is a (A) caryopsis (B)aggregate fruit (C) legume (D) follicle (E) schizocarp
E
83 A dry indehiscent winged fruit formed from one carpel is known as a (A) Schizocarp (B)Caryopsis (C) Samara (D) nut (E) Follicle
C
84 A true fruit is formed from (A) fertilized ovary and other floral parts (B) a fertilized ovary (C) afertilized ovary and calyx (D) a fertilized and fleshy receptacle (E) an unfertilized ovary and otherfloral parts
B
85 Irish potato is a (A) bulb (B) tap root (C) rhizome (D) root tuber (E) stem tuber D
86 One major difference between an Angiosperm and a Gymnosperm is that seeds in Gymnospermsare borne in (A) Cones (B) fruits (C) flowers (D) ovary (E) ovule
A
87 Reserved food material in the seed is stored in the (A) epicarp (B) endocarp (C) endosperm (D)mesocarp (E) all parts
C
88 What type of fruit is a mango fruit (A) Berry (B) Hesperidium (C) Drupe (D) Nut (E) Mango fruit C
89 Which of the following species exhibit an aerial root (A) Ficus (B) Centrosema (C) Antigonon(D) Lantana (E) Dahlia
A
90 Which of these plants has an emerginate apex (A) Bauhinia (B) Pistia (C) Ixora (D) Musa (E)Terminalia
A
91 Which plant stores food in its roots (A) Cassava (B) cocoyam (C) Irish potato (D) onion (E)yam
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
BIOLOGY
6
92 An example of Vascular tissues is -------------- (A) Trichome (B) Xylem (C) Stomata (D) Epidermis(E) Parenchyma
B
93 The living part of phloem tissue is (A) sieve plate (B) companion cell (C) sieve element (D)cytoplasm
B
94 Which of the following tissues are made up of dead cells (A) meristems (B) xylem vessels (C)cambium (D) mesophyll (E) palisade
B
95 A plant vacuole contains (A) dissolved chemicals sugars salts pigments and crystals (B) wasteproducts of metabolism DNA RNA and crystals (C) pigments crystals DNA and waste productsof metabolism (D) RNA DNA sugars and salts
A
96 Excessive loss of water in plants is known as (A) Osmosis (B) Osmoregulation (C) Transpiration (D)Excretion
C
97 Starch granules in plants is equivalent to _____________ granules in animals (A) Food (B)Chromatin (C) Lysosome (D) Mitochondria (E) Glycogen
E
98 Which of the following is a plant excretory product (A) Oil (B) Cytokinin (C) Resin (D)amino acids (E) gibberellins
C
99 A plant which grows on another without causing harm to the host plant is called ndashndash (A) aparasite (B) a saprophyte (C) an epiphyte (D) a predator (E) a prey
C
100 Plants which can survive in places where water supply is limited are (A) bryophytes (B)mesophytes (C) xerophytes (D) hydrophytes (E) pteridophytes
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
1
1 200 cm3 of air was passed over heated copper in a syringe several times to produce copper (II)oxide When cooled the final volume of air recorded was 158 cm3 Estimate the percentage ofoxygen in the air (A) 31 (B) 27 (C) 21 (D) 19
C
2 30cm3 of oxygen at 10 atmosphere pressures is placed in a 20dm3 container Calculate the newpressure if temperature is kept constant (A) 67 atm (B) 150 atm (C) 600 (D) 660
B
3 Bond dissociation energy of 500 KJ mol-1 may be assigned to (A) ionic bonding (B) covalentbonding (C) hydrogen bonding D) metallic bonding (E) van-der-waals bonding
A
4 A mixture of iron and sulphur can be separated by dissolving the mixture in __ (A) steam (B)dilute hydrochloric acid (C) dilute sodium hydroxide (D) benzene
B
5 A mixture of sand ammonium chloride and sodium chloride is best separated by __ (A)sublimation followed by addition of water and filtration (B) sublimation followed by addition ofwater and evaporation (C) addition of water followed by filtration and sublimation (D) additionof water followed by crystallization and sublimation
A
6 A pure solid usually melts __ (A) over a wide range of temperature (B) over a narrow range oftemperature (C) at a lower temperature than the impure one (D) at the same temperature asthe impure one
B
7 A small quantity of solid ammonium chloride was heated gently in a test tube the solidgradually disappeared to produce a mixture of two gases Later a white cloudy deposit wasobserved on the cooler part of the test tube The ammonium chloride is said to haveundergone __ (A) distillation (B) sublimation (C) precipitation (D) evaporation
B
8 CH4 has this geometry (A) trigonal (B) planar (C) tetrahedral (D) octahedral (E) linear C
9 Chlorine consisting of two isotopes of mass numbers 35 and 37 has an atomic mass of 355The relative abundance of the isotope of mass number 37 is ___ ( A)20 (B) 25 (C) 50 (D) 75
B
10 Elements P Q R S have 6 11 15 and 17 electrons respectively therefore (A) P will form anelectrovalent bond with R (B) Q will form a covalent bond with S (C)R will form an electrovalentbond with S (D) Q will form an electrovalent bond with S
D
11 In the oil drop experiment Millikan determined the (A) charge to mass ratio of the electron (B)mass of the electron (C) charge of the electron (D) mass of the proton
C
12 One of these atomic shells is the most stable (A) M (B) N (C) K (D) L (E) 0 C
13 Sieving is a technique used to separate mixtures containing 20 oxygen by volume Which ofthe reactants was in excess (A) Carbon (II) oxide (B) Oxygen (C) Carbon (IV) oxide (D) Nitrogen
A
14 The abnormally high boiling point of water is primarily due to (A) ionic bonding (B) covalentbonding (C) dative bonding (D) coordinate covalent bonding (E) hydrogen bonding
E
15 The energy required to remove an electron from the isolated gaseous atom is known as (A)electron affinity (B) bond energy (C) lonisation energy (D) electronegativity (E) electrovalency
C
16 The group that oxygen belongs to is collectively called (A) allotropes (B) halogens (C)chalcogens (D) alkenes (E) ozonides
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
2
17 The ideal gas equation is ___ ( A) P=nRT (B) PR =nVT (C) PV =gRT (D) V=kT (E) PV = K V A
18 The number of atoms in one mole of a substance is equal to (A) the atomic number (B) theAvogadrorsquos number (C) number of neutrons (D) number of electrons (E) gas constant
B
19 The number of electrons in the outermost shell of the atom represents its (A) period (B)number of shells (C) group (D) atomic number (E) electronegativity
C
20 The number of protons or electrons of an atom represents its (A) electronegativity (B) period(C) number of shells (D) group (E) atomic number
E
21 The partial pressure of oxygen in a sample of air is 500 mmHg If the total Pr pressure 780mmHg what is the mole fraction of the oxygen (A) 064 [B (B) 573 (C) 156 (D) 070 (E) 054
A
22 The periodic classification of the elements is an arrangement of the elements in order of their(A) atomic weights (B) isotopic weights (C) molecular weights (D) atomic numbers
D
23 The process of changing one element into another is called (A) radioisotope (B) radioactivity (C)dating (D) transmutation (E) nuclear reaction
D
24 The shapes of CO2 H2O and CH4 respectively are (A) bent linear and tetrahedral (B) benttetrahedral and linear (C) tetrahedral linear and bent (D) linear bent and tetrahedral
D
25 This compound exhibits ionic bonding (A) H20 (B) H2 (C) KC1 (D) NH3 (E) HF C
26 This type of bonding involves overlapping of orbitals during which electrons are shared (A)hydrogen bonding (B) covalent bonding (C) ionic bonding (D) metallic bonding (E) van-der-waals bonding
B
27 Which one of the following changes is physical (A) Adding iron filings to aerated water (B)Adding sodium metal to water (C) Cooling a solution of iron(II) sulphate to obtain the hydratedsalt (D) Cooling water to obtain ice
D
28 A side effect of soft water is that (A) it gives offensive taste (B) excess calcium is precipitated(C) it encourages the growth of bacteria (D) it attacks lead contained in pipes
D
29 Ammonia is very soluble in water because it is a an molecule (A) non-polar (B) polar (C)reactive (D) basic (E) acidic
B
30 Citrus fruits such as lemon and grape taste sour because they contain (A) ascorbic acid andcitric acid (B) citric acid and ascetic acid (C) citric acid and dilute HCl (D) citric acid and salicyclicacid (E) Sulphuric acid
A
31 Soap lather is an example of a colloid in which a (A) liquid is dispersed in gas (B) solid isdispersed in liquid (C) gas is dispersed in liquid (D) liquid is dispersed in liquid
C
32 The air around a petroleum refinery is most likely to contain(A) CO2 SO3 and N2O (B) CO2 COand N2O (C) SO2 CO and NO2 (D) PH3 H2O and CO2
C
33 The difference between colloids and suspensions is brought out clearly by the fact that whilecolloids (A) do not scatter light suspensions do (B) can be separated by filtration suspensionscannot be so separated (C) can be separated by a membrane suspensions cannot (D) do notsettle out on standing suspensions do
D
34 The following substances are non-electrolytes except (A) chloroform (B) sugar cane (C) aceticacid (D) NaCl (E) C and D
E
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
3
35 The hydrolysis of NH4Cl salt will give (A) acidic solution (B) neutral solution (C) basic solution(D) hot solution (E) all of the above
A
36 The pollutants that are likely to be present in an industrial environment are (A) H2S SO2 andoxides of nitrogen (B)NH3 HCl and CO (C) CO2 NH3 and H2S (D) dust NO and Cl2
A
37 What is the basicity of tetraoxosulphate (VI) acid (A) 2 (B) 1 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) 0 A
38 Which of the following gases is the most dangerous pollutant (A) Hydrogen sulphide (B)Carbon (IV) oxide (C) Sulphur (IV) oxide (D) Carbon (II) oxide
D
39 Which of the following ions is a pollutant in drinking water even in trace amount (A) Ca2+ (B)Hg2+ (C) Mg2+ (D) Fe2+
B
40 Which of the following is an example of a double salt (A) NH4Cl (B) alum (C) NaCO3 (D) AlCl3
(E) NaClB
41 016g of methane when burnt increases the temperature of 100g of water by 400(C) what isthe heat of combustion of methane if the heat capacity of water is 42 Jg-10C-1 (CH4=16) (A)1160kJmol-1 (B) 1180kJmol-1 (C) 1560kJmol-1 (D) 1600kJmol-1 (E) 1680kJmol-1
E
42 A charged car battery has ___ energy that can be converted into another energy called ___energy (A) Chemical electrical (B) mechanical chemical (C) heat mechanical (D) lightelectrical (E) light heat
A
43 Copper oxide is heated with charcoal to produce carbon monoxide and copper The reaction isan example of (A) both oxidation and reduction (B) neither oxidation and reduction (C)oxidation only (D) reduction only (E) neutralization
A
44 For each oxygen atom in hydrogen peroxide which acts as an oxidant there is an oxygen atomwhich acts as a an (A) Oxidant (B) reductant (C) oxidizing agent (D) catalyst (E) inhibitor
B
45 Given the change of phase CO2(g) changes to CO2(s) the entropy of the system (A) decreases(B) increases (C) remains the same
A
46 In which of the following is the entropy change positive (A) Reaction between an acid and abase (B) Addition of concentrated acid to water (C) Dissolution of sodium metal in water(D) Thermal dissociation of ammonium chloride
C
47 One of these elements is the best reducing agent (A) Pb (B) Rb (C) Al (D) In (E) N B
48 The name of the gas driven off at the negative electrode during the electrolysis of brine is ___( A) hydrogen (B) chlorine (C) oxygen (D) sodium (E) hydrogen chloride
B
49 The oxidation state of P in H2P2072- is ___ (A) -3 (B) +3 (C) +1 (D) +5 (E) -2 D
50 The oxidation state of S in Ca(HS03)2 is __ (A) +2 (B) -2 (C) +4 (D) -4 (E) +6 C
51 The oxidizing agent in the reaction 3Br2 + 6OH- = BrO3- + 5Br- + 3H2O is __ (A) Br2 (B) OH- (C)
BrO3- (D) e- (E) H2OA
52 When heat is absorbed during a chemical reaction the reaction is said to be ___(A) thermodynamic (B) exothermal (C) isothermal (D) endothermic (E) thermostatic
D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
4
53 Given the reaction at equilibrium 2CO(g) + O2(g) harr 2CO2(g) When the reaction is subjected tostress a change will occur in the concentration of (A) reactants only (B) products only (C)both reactants and products (D) neither reactants nor products
C
54 Given the reaction at equilibrium N2(g) + O2(g) harr 2NO(g) as the concentration of N2(g)increases the concentration of O2(g) will (A) decrease (B) increase (C) remains the same (D)vanishes (E) pours away
A
55 If a reaction is exothermic and there is a great disorder it means that (A) The reaction is in astate of equilibrium (B) There will be a large increase in free energy (C) There will be a largedecrease in free energy (D) The reaction is static
B
56 In the chemical reaction of A + B = C +D more of D is formed (A) if the concentration of A isreduced (B) if the concentration of B is reduced (C) if the concentration of C is reduced (D) ifthe concentration of C is increased (E) if it is continuously removed from the reaction mixture
E
57 In what way is equilibrium constant for the forward reaction related to that of the reversereaction (A) The addition of the two is expected to be one (B) The product of two isexpected to be one (C) The two equilibrium constants are identical (D) The product of thetwo is always greater than one
C
58 In which reaction will the point of equilibrium shift to the left when the pressure on the systemis increased (A) C(s) + O2(g) harr CO2(g) (B) CaCO3(s) harr CaO(s) + CO2(g) (C) 2Mg(s) + O2(g) harr 2MgO(s) (D) 2H2(g) + O2(g) harr2H2O(g)
B
59 The furring of kettles is caused by the presence in water of __ (A) calcium trioxocarbonate (IV)(B) calcium tetraoxosulphate (VI) (C) calcium hydroxide (D) calcium hydrogentrioxocarbonate(IV)
D
60 Which is a property of a reaction that has reached equilibrium (A) The amount of products isgreater than the amount of reactants (B) The amount of products is equal to the amount ofreactants (C) The rate of the forward reaction is greater than the rate of the reverse reaction(D) The rate of the forward reaction is equal to the rate of the reverse reaction
D
61 Which of the following combination of conditions many increase the rate of a chemicalreaction (A) Decrease in temperature increase in concentration of the reactant (B) Increase intemperature addition of a catalyst decrease in the surface area of the reactant (C) Increase intemperature increase in concentration addition of a catalyst and increase in the surface areaof the reactant (D) Decrease in temperature concentration and surface area of the reactants(E) Addition of catalyst and in the absence of light
C
62 ldquoQuicklimerdquo has the formula __ (A) Ca(OH)2 (B) CaO (C) CaCO3 (D) CaSO42H2O (E) CaCl2 B
63 A Transition metal is different from a non-transition metal because (A) it has an octetconfiguration (B) it is very stable (C) it is coloured (D) it has incomplete outer shell d-electrons(E) it has no electron in the d-orbital
D
64 Chlorine is produced commercially by (A) electrolysis of dilute HCl (B) electrolysis of brine (C)neutralization of HCl (D) heating potassium trioxochlorate (V) (E) action of dilute mineral acidson bleaching powder
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
5
65 Chlorine bromine and iodine resemble one another since they __ (A)dissolve in alkalis (B) reactviolently with H2 without heating (C)displace each other from solutions of their salts (D) aregases (E) are liquids
A
66 Liquid oxygen may be produced by condensation of air using this coolant (A) liquid phosphorus(B) liquid gas (C) liquid paraffin (D) liquid nitrogen (E) butane
D
67 One of these is another form of oxygen (A) hydroxide (B) ozone (C) peroxide (D) sulphoxide (E)water B
68 One of these metals is not an alkali metal (A) K (B) Cs (C) Sr (D) Rb (E) Fr C
70 The formation of ozone by reaction of O2 with atomic oxygen in UV light occurs in (A) upperatmosphere (B) inner atmosphere (C) stratosphere (D) hemisphere (E) none of these
A
71 The halogen which is chiefly produced commercially from sea water is ___ ( A) Fluorine (B)chlorine (C) Bromine (D) iodine (E) Astatine
B
72 The most stable allotropic form of sulphur at normal conditions is ___ ( A) monoclinic sulphur(B) rhombic sulphur (C) amorphous sulphur (D) plastic sulphur (E) ordinary sulphur
B
73 The products obtained when the following chemical reaction is completed and balancedarehellipHNO3 + Ca(OH)2 rarr ______ (A) CaNO3 + H2O (B) Ca(NO3)2 + 2 H2O (C) CaO + 2 NO2 + 3H2O(D) Ca + 2 NO3 + 2 H2O
B
74 What is the role of iron and Aluminium oxide in ammonia production (A) dehydrating agent(B) catalytic agent (C) oxidizing agent (D) bonding agent (E) preservative agent
B
75 When carbon IV oxide is bubbled through lime water the solution becomes milky dueformation of (A) Ca(HCO3)2 (B) CaCO3 (C) Ca(N03)2 (D)CaCl2 (E) CaSO4
B
76 Which of the following gases dissolves in water vapour to produce acid rain during rainfall (A)Oxygen (B) Carbon (II) oxide (C) Nitrogen (D) Sulphur (IV) oxide
D
77 Which of the following is not allotrope of carbon (A) diamond (B) graphite (C) buckminsterfullerene (D) all of the above (E) none of the above
E
78 Which oxide is amphiprotic (amphoteric) (A) MgO (B) NaO (C) CaO (D) ZnO (E) BeO D
79 Why will it always be more difficult to extract potassium ions from sea water than to extractmagnesium ions This is because (A) most potassium compounds are less soluble in water (B)most potassium compounds are quite soluble in water (C) presence of other alkali metal ionshas great influence on it (D) magnesium ion is an alkaline earth metal ion (E) None of theabove
B
80 ___________ can be used to test for reducing sugars (A) Iodine solution (B) bromine water (C)Fehlingrsquos solution (D) de-ionized water
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
6
81 2CH3COOH + Zn rarr The product of this reaction is (A) (CH3COO)2Zn + Zn (B) CH3COO CH3 +Zn (C) (CH3COO)2Zn + H2 (D) CH3COOH + CH4
C
82 A ketone reacts with hydroxylamine to give (A) a hydrazone (B) an alkanonitrile (C) a nitrosocompound (D) an oxime
D
83 Alkanoic acids are weak acids and ionises in solution to give (A) R+ + COOH (B) RCOO- + H+ (C)RCOO+ + H- (D) RCO+ + OH-
B
84 An excess of ethanol heated with concentrated H2SO4 at a temperature of 180oC is dehydratedto give mostly (A) ethane (B) ethene (C) ethanol (D) ethoxyethane
B
85 Butene can be distinguished from benzene by reaction with (A) Hydrochloric acid (B) Brominewater (C) Potassium sulphate (D) Sodium hydroxide
B
86 Detergent is more efficient than soap in cleansing clothes and dishes because of the followingreasons except that (A) the corresponding Ca and Mg compound formed is soluble in H2O (B)detergents are not affected by hardness of water (C) it cleans better than soap (D) it is lessexpensive
D
87 In the manufacture of soap industrially brine is used to__________the acid salt (A) oxidise(B) reduce (C) bleach (D) precipitate
D
88 Methane gas can be made from carbon (II) oxide gas according to the equation2CO(g) + 2H2(g) rarr CH4(g) + CO2(g) Calculate the mass of CO required to produce 875 x 1025
molecules of CH4 At masses C=12011 H= 1008 O = 15999 Avogadrorsquos no 6022 x1023molecules mole (A) 8140g (B) 4070g (C) 1600g (D) 3200g (E) 2035g
A
89 Potassium ethanoate is formed when (A) Methanoic acid reacts with KOH (B) Ethanoic acidreacts with KOH (C) Methanol reacts with KCO3 (D) Ethanol reacts with CH3COOH
B
90 Saponification is defined as (A) Acidic hydrolysis of fat or oil (B) Alkali hydrolysis of fat or oil(C) Condensation of two monomer units (D) Mixture of glacial ethanoic acid and excess ofsimple alkanol
B
91 Soaps and detergents have the same basic characteristics except that the carboxyl group of thefatty acid in detergent is replaced by (A) alcohol (B) sulphate or a sulphonate group (C) ester(D) acids
B
92 The relatively high boiling point of alkanols is due to (A) aliphatic character (B) ionic bonding(C) hydrogen bonding (D) covalent bonding
C
93 Two important sources of detergent are (A) fatoils and hydrocarbons (B) coal and cement (C)pulp and wood (D) water and gas
A
94 What is the process associated with conversion of vegetable oil to soap (A) Esterification (B)Saponification (C) hydrolysis (D) Acidification
B
95 When ethanal vapour is passed over manganese (II) ethanoate (manganese acetate) catalyst inthe presence of air the product is (A) ethanoate (B) ethanol (C) methanol (D) ethanoic acid
D
96 When KOH is used instead of NaOH in the production of soap it has the following advantagesexcept it gives (A) softer soap (B) harder soap (C) soap with lower melting point (D) moresoluble soap
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
7
97 When palm wine is left exposed to air for a few days it goes sour The bacteria in the airoxidises________ in palm wine to _________ (A) ethanol ethanoic acid (B) ethanoic acidethanol (C) ester ethanoic acid (D) ether ethanol
A
98 Which of the following is not true about benzoic acid (A) It is aromatic in nature (B) It can bemanufactured from methylbenzene (C) It has molecular formula C6H6COOH (D) It sublimesreadily
C
99 Which of the following reactions is correct (A) C6H5COOH + CaO rarr C6H5Ca + HCO3 (B)C6H5COOH + CaO rarr C6H6 + CaCO3 (C) C6H5COOH + PCl5 rarr C6H5Cl + H2PO4 (D) C6H5COOH +C2H5OH rarr C6H6 + C3H8COOH
B
100 Which of these is not a property of ethanedioic acid (A) It is a stronger acid than ethanoic acidbut weaker than inorganic acids (B) It is a reducing agent (C) It is an oxidising agent (D) It issoluble in cold water
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS STUDIES
1 Behold the people of Israel are too many come let us deal shrewdly with them lest they D
multiply In the statement the first step by the new king of Egypt was to (A) cast all
Hebrew male children into the Nile (B) impose heavy tax on them (C) kill all Hebrew male
children (D) set taskmasters over them to afflict them with burdens
2 I will go out as at other times and shake myself free When Samson made the statement C
above he was not aware that (A) the Philistines were upon him (B) he was bound with bronze
fetters (C) the LORD had left him (D) his eyes had been gouged out
3 Let the waters under the heavens be gathered together into one place and let the dry land D
appear In the statement above the dry land and the water refer to (A) earth and oceans (B)
firmament and seas (C) firmament and oceans (D) earth and seas
4 Seek out for me a woman who is a medium that I may go to her and inquire of her Saul A
made the statement above when he was confronted by the(A) Philistines (B) Ammonites (C)
Amalekites (D) Moabites
5 Why did you bring trouble on us The LORD brings trouble on you todayrdquo What happened to C
Achan after the statement above by Joshua (A) He was buried alive (B) He was put in chain
(C) He was stoned to death (D) He was flogged publicly
6 An unwise decision of Solomon was the issue of the (A) building of the palace (B) building of D
the temple (C) felling of timber (D) forced labour
7 David was anointed king over Judah at (A) Zuph (B) Bethlehem (C) Hebron (D) Gibeon C
8 For worshipping the molten calf God described the Israelites as (A) a stubborn nation (B) an C
unholy nation (C) a stiff-necked people (D) an unrighteous people
9 God blessed the seventh day and made it holy because (A) He rested on that day from all His A
work (B) Adam gave names to all living creatures on that day (C) it was a Sabbath day (D)
human beings were recreated on that day
10 God called Abraham when he was how many years old (A) 75 years old (B) 90 years old (C) A
100 years old (D) 120 years old
11 In order for the people of Israel to be ready to meet the LORD by the third day at Mount Sinai C
they were (A) not to drink alcohol (B) to wear white garments (C) to wash their garments
everyday (D) not to go near a woman
12 Joseph was put in prison in Egypt by Potiphar because (A) he slept with Potipharrsquos wife (B) he C
was very lazy (C) Potipharrsquos wife lied against Joseph (D) he stole Pharaohrsquos cup
13 Samuels lack of parental responsibility led to (A) The demand for a king in Israel (B) His A
untimely death at Ramah (C) The defeat of the Israelites in battle (D) The anointing of David
as king
14 Solomon attempted to kill Jeroboam because Jeroboam (A) Was more popular than him (B) D
Was not faithful as the officer in charge of labour (C) Did not report what was prophesied
concerning him (D) Was a threat to the throne
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS STUDIES
15 The first person that revealed to Eli the evil that would come to his home was(A) Joel (B) a B
man of God (C) a prophet from Shiloh (D) Samuel
16 The rainbow as the sign of Gods covenant with Noah implies(A) Providence (B) Reconciliation C
(C) mercy (D) Redemption
17 What did Gideon call the altar which he built to the LORD (A) The LORD is merciful (B) The B
LORD is peace (C) Jehovah Jireh (D) The LORD is great
18 What punishment did God give Solomon for his unwisemdash Policies (A) Jeroboam was
empowered by God to conquer him (B) He caused Rezon to demolish the high place which he
built (C) He raised up Hadad the Edo mite as an adversary against him (D) The kingdom was
torn from him and given to his servant D
19 What was Samsons major achievement as Israels leadermdash (A) He suppressed the Philistines
(B) He captured the city of Jericho (C) He saved the Israelites from the Amorites (D) He
secured permanent independence for Israel A
20 When God called Moses to deliver the Israelites he resisted because he could not speak and D
he was told to (A) perform some signs with his rod (B) wait for a sign from God (C) go with
Joshua who would speak for him (D) go with Aaron who would speak for him
21 When Moses struck the rock twice for water instead of speakingmdash to it God said to him that
he (A) would no longer see Him face to face (B) would not bring the Israelites to the promise
land (C)would not see His holiness (D)would roam in the wilderness for thirty years
B
22 When the Israelites left Egypt God did not let them use the shorter route through the land of
the Philistines becausemdash (A) the Philistines were waiting in ambush for them (B) they might
go back if they faced war (C) He wanted to confuse the Egyptian king (D) He wanted them to
suffer and appreciate Him B
23 Why did God accept David who killed Uriah and took his wife but rejected Saul who spared
King Agagmdash (A) David was from the favoured tribe of Judah while Saul was from Benjamin
(B) David was a man after Gods heart while Saul was His enemy (C) David was a singer of
praises while Saul was not (D) David humbled himself when he realized his sin but Saul was stubborn
D
24 And in the last days it shall be God declares that I will pour out my Spirit upon all B
flesh Peter quoted the statement above from the prophecy of (A) Ezekiel B) Joel (C)
Jeremiah (D) Isaiah
25 Am I God to kill and to make alive that this man sends words to me to cure a man of his B
leprosy Prophet Elisha responded to the kings reaction in the statement above by (A)
directing the nation of Israel to pray and fast (B) requesting the leper to come to his house (C)
directing the leper to go to River Jordan (D) asking the leper to offer a sacrifice
26 Behold I am the LORD the God of all flesh is anything too hard for me The statement C
above suggests that God is (A) merciful (B) awesome (C) most powerful (D) not changeable
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS STUDIES
27 Behold 1 am the LORD the God of all flesh is anything too hard for me The statement B
above suggests that God is (A) merciful (B) most powerful (C) awesome (D) not changeable
28 Do you understand what you are reading Philip asked the Ethiopian eunuch the question D
above when he found him reading the book of (A) Hosea (B) Ezekiel (C) Jeremiah (D)
Isaiah
29 My spirit shall not abide in man forever for he is flesh When God made the statement He D
concluded that mans days shall be (A) one hundred years (B) one hundred and fifty years
(C) eighty years (D) one hundred and twenty years
30 Test your servants for ten days let us be given vegetables to eat and water to drink In the C
statement above Daniel was talking to (A) King Darius (B) the chief of the eunuchs (C) the
steward of the chief eunuch (D) King Artaxerxes
31 According to Amos what did the Israelites do after God smote them with blight and mildew A
(A) They still did not return to him (B) They repented of their sins (C) They fasted and prayed
for healing (D) They cried unto the LORD
32 According to Prophet Jeremiah one of the promises of God was that He would give the D
Israelites (A) new priests (B) new commandments (C) kings after His own heart (D) shepherds
after His own heart
33 According to Proverbs a son that is attentive to a fathers instruction will (A) be rich (B) have C
eternal life (C) gain insight (D) be forgiven his sins
34 Consequent upon the murder of Naboth by Ahab and Jezebel God declared that (A) He
would require the blood of Naboth from Ahabrsquos hand (B) Ahabs descendants would never
ascend the throne in Israel (C) dogs would lick Ahabs blood where they had licked Naboth (D)
the sword would not depart from the house of Ahab
C
35 Ezekiel said that when the people of Israel turned away from all their sins they would (A) A
Surely live and not die (B) Be free from attack (C) Lead mankind to God (D) Return from
captivity
36 God had pity on the people of Nineveh because (A) they listened to Jonahs message (B) the C
king punished all the violent people in the land (C) they turned from their evil way (D) they
made sacrifices of sin offering to God
37 Immediately after the contest on Mount Carmel Elijah prayed and God answered him with B
(A) thunder (B) rainfall (C) a whirlwind (D) a heavy storm
38 In addition to the declaration of freedom to the exiles in Babylon King Cyrus ordered for (A) A
free will offering for the house of God in Jerusalem (B) the release of Jewish slaves in the
empire (C) security check on the Jews before departure (D) support from craftsmen in
Babylon
39 Joab and his soldiers entered the city quietly after defeating their enemy because (A) Absalom
and his soldiers were defeated (B) of the shameful death of Absalom (C) the king grieving for
his son (D) the king Was annoyed with them C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS STUDIES
40 Obadiah showed his great reverence for the LORD by (A) Handing over five hundred Baal D
prophets for slaughter (B) Falling on his face before Elijah (C) Hiding Elijah in a cave for two
years (D) Feeding the prophets of the LORD with bread and water
41 Prophet Amos told Israel to hate evil love good and establish justice in the gate so that God C
would (A) heal their diseases (B) give them good leaders (C) be gracious to them (D) multiply
their descendants
42 Prophet Hosea named his second child Not Pitied because God would no more pity the (A)
kings of Judah (B) kings of Israel (C) house of Judah (D) house of Israel
D
43 Prophet Hosea named his second child Not Pitied because God would no more pity the (A) D
kings of Judah (B) kings of Israel (C) house of Judah (D) house of Israel
44 Prophet Isaiah received his vision and call whenmdash (A) King Uzziah was deposed (B) King
Uzziah died (C) King Uzziah began to reign (D) Israel was in Babylonian captivity
B
45 Saul learnt from Samuels spirit that the LORD would (A) give the Philistines into his hands A
(B) afflict him with sickness (C) bless Isaacs future wife (D) pardon his iniquity
46 The destruction of Jerusalem by Nebuchadnezzar was a consequence of (A) Hezekiahs death
(B) Josiahs reforms (C) Israels stubbornness to God (D) Zedekiahs rebellion against Babylon
C
47 The effect that the faith of Shadrach Meshach and Abednego had on King Nebuchadnezzar D
and his subjects was that they (A) Refrained from persecuting the Jews in exile (B) Were
converted (C) Forsook their gods (D) Believed that there was no other god able to deliver
48 The Kingdom of Israel was divided because the (A) kingdom was too large to be administered D
(B) leadership wanted to create more nations (C) followership wanted more nations (D) last
two kings made unwise policies
49 The pronouncement of God on Josiah for being penitent was that (A) God would support him C
to repair the Temple (B) Josiah would conquer all his enemies (C) God would gather him to his
grave in peace (D) Josiah would have a peaceful reign
50 The scroll given to Ezekiel to eat at his call contained (A) Both praises and condemnation (B) B
Words of lamentation and mourning (C) Prescription for Temple worship (D) The expected
type of sacrifice
51 What did Asa do that was right in the eyes of the Lord(A) He removed all the idols of his A
father (B) He killed all the priests of Baal (C) His reign was peaceful (D) He killed all the
Baal worshippers
52 What did the Jews do when Nehemiah told them about his mission in Jerusalem (A) They D
praised God for sending him to rebuild Jerusalem (B) They informed Sanballat and Tobiah
about his plans (C) They were hostile to him and he became discouraged (D) They encouraged
one another to rise up and build the walls
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS STUDIES
53 but should write to them to abstain from the pollutions of idols and from unchastity and C
from what is strangled and from blood The statement above was made at the Council of
Jerusalem by (A) Philip (B) Simon (C) James (D) Peter
54 His office let another take The statement above refers to (A) Ananias (B) Judas Iscariot B
(C) Barnabas (D) John Mark
55 Truly I say to you not even In Israel have I found such faith The statement above by D
Jesus was made when He healed the (A) leper (B) blind man (C) demoniac (D) centurions
servant
56 Depart from me for I am a sinful man O Lord This statement was uttered by Peter at C
the (A) last supper (B) garden of Gethsemane (C) call of the disciples (D) transfiguration
57 If I tell you you will not believe and if I ask you you will not answer Jesus statement B
above was in response to a request by (A) King Herod (B) the chief priests and scribes (C)
Pontius Pilate (D) the Pharisees and Sadducees
58 If you are the Son of God throw yourself down from here for it is written He will give his A
angels charge of youhellip According to Luke the statement above was made by Satan during
Jesus(A) third temptation (B) crucifixion (C) Transfiguration (D) second temptation
59 Teacher do you not care if we perish Where was Jesus Christ when this question was D
asked (A) On the sea walking (B) In the wilderness (C) On the Mount of Olive (D) In the
ship asleep
60 Truly I say to you today you will be with me in paradise Jesus made the statement D
above to one of the criminals because he (A) respected Him (B) praised Him (C) rebuked his
partner (D) was repentant
61 Unbind him and let him go The statement was made by Jesus when (A) He raised to life A
the dead Lazarus (B) He healed the son of the widow at Nain (C) He healed the centurions
servant (D) a boy bound by Satan was brought to Him
62 Unless you are circumcised according to the custom of Moses you cannot be saved The D
statement above by some men from Judea necessitated the convening of the (A) church in
Jerusalem (B) council of elders (C) church in Judea (D) council in Jerusalem
63 You son of the devil you enemy of all righteousness full of all deceit and villainy This A
statement of Paul was addressed to (A) Elymas the magician (B) Paulus the proconsul (C)
Simon the Magician (D) Demetrius the silversmith
64 lsquo As long as I am in the world I am the light of the worldrsquo Jesus made the statement above A
on the occasion of (A) healing the man born blind (B) raising Lazarus from the dead (C)
restoring sight to blind Bartimaeus (D) walking on the sea before day break
65 According to Luke the Last Supper took place (A) on Mount Olive (B) In Jerusalem (C) in B
Jordan (D) in Bethlehem
66 According to Luke when Moses and Elijah appeared during the transfiguration they spoke of A
Jesusrsquo (A) departure (C) resurrection (B) second coming (D) trials
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS STUDIES
67 According to Matthew the stone on the tomb of Jesus was removed by (A) an angel (C) Mary A
Magdalene (B) a Roman soldier (D) Peter and John
68 According to Romans salvation is for those who (A) call upon the name of the Lord (B) are B
true worshippers of God (C) work in the Lords vineyard (D) Are persecuted for righteousness
69 According to the Gospel of John Jesus is the true vine while the vinedresser is (A) the Holy B
Spirit (B) His father (C) the gardener (D) His mother
70 And they arrested them and put them in custody until the morrow for it was already D
evening In the statement above the imprisoned persons were (A) Paul and John Mark (B)
Peter and Barnabas (C) Peter and Paul (D) Paul and Barnabas
71 Angel Gabriel told Zachariah that he would become dumb until John was born because he (A) D
looked down on the Angel (B) was advanced in age (C) disagreed with Elizabeth his wife (D)
did not believe Gods words
72 Following the death of Stephen the only group of believers not scattered by the great B
persecution was the (A) deacons (B) apostles (C) prophets (D) disciples
73 Following the resurrection of Jesus the Chief Priest and elders took counsel and bribed the A
guards to (A) say that the disciples stole the body of Jesus (B) keep the information away
from His disciples (C) keep the matter among themselves (D) report the matter immediately
to the rulers
74 In His Sermon on the Mount Jesus said that the poor in spirit are blessed for they would (A) C
be satisfied (B) be comforted on the last day (C) inherit the kingdom of heaven (D) inherit
the earth
75 In Luke at the Last Supper Jesus revealed His (A) resurrection (B) imminent sufferings (C) C
love for His disciples (D) ascension
76 In the country of the Gerasenes Jesus healed the (A) man possessed of demons (B) paralytic A
at the pool (C) leper (D) blind man
77 In the mission of the seventy Jesus told them that they were being sent out as sheep among D
wolves implying that they would (A) be sent to live among wolves (B) be as meek as sheep
(C) be properly equipped for the mission (D) encounter difficulties
78 In the story of the Transfiguration Moses and Elijah represented the (A) glory of God (B) old C
Testament saints (C) Law and the prophets (D) end of the age
79 Jesus raised to life the son of the widow of Nain because He (A) wanted the whole of Judea to C
know about him (B) wanted to show that He was a great prophet (C) had compassion on the
mother (D) loved the young man that died
80 Jesus reply to the devils first temptation of Him was _ (A) Him only shall you serve (B)
Man shall not live by bread alone (C) You shall not tempt the Lord your God (D)
You shall worship the Lord your God B
81 Jesus told the parable of the lost sheep in order to illustrate that (A) every believer ought to D
rejoice with those who rejoice (B) no person can hide from God (C) Gods love is unlimited
(D) there is joy in heaven over a sinner who repents
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS STUDIES
82 Jesus was at the wedding in Cana of Galilee because (A) He wanted to demonstrate His power B
(B) He was invited to the ceremony (C) the groom was His relation (D) the groom ran out of
wine
83 Jesus was tempted by the devil so as to (A) fulfill all righteousness (B) show His power over C
forces of nature (C) show that no one is above temptation (D) test the devils power
84 The Hebrew word Rabboni means (A) disciple (B) priest (C) master (D) Teacher D
85 The impact of Jesus miracle of turning water into wine was that the (A) servants were C
astonished (B) master of ceremony believed (C) disciples believed more in Him (D) people
glorified God
86 Where were the disciples of Jesus when He had a conversation with the Samaritan B
woman(A) They had gone to the city to preach the gospel (B) They had gone to the city to
buy food (C) They had gone to the mountain to pray (D) They had gone to wait for Him
87 According to Ephesians children who obey their parents in the Lord will (A) be happy (B) go C
to heaven (C) have long life (D) be great
88 According to Peter God shows no partiality but in every nation anyone who fears Him is (A) B
diligent before Him (B) acceptable to Him (C) holy before Him (D) righteous before Him
89 According to Romans the new life is comparable to Jesus (A) resurrection (B) ministry (C) A
ascension (D) crucifixion
90 According to Thessalonians the day of the Lord will not come unless the (A) living die first C
(B) scoffers come first (C) dead rise first (D) rebellion comes first
91 Busy bodies and those living in idleness in the church at Thessalonica were admonished to (A)
pray for those in authority for peace (B) do their work in quietness and earn a living (C) appeal
to those in authority to create jobs (D) endure persecution from their masters
B
92 In his teaching on partiality James declares that mercy triumphs over (A) judgment (B) A
righteousness (C) grace (D) faith
93 In Pauls arrangement of the spiritual gifts in Corinthians the last is (A) the utterance of B
wisdom (B) interpretation of tongues (C) gifts of healing (D) various kinds of tongues
94 In Romans Paul condemned sin taking over mortal bodies in the new life as instruments of B
69 In recent years Nigerian economy has been registering a spectacular growth inhelliphellip C
Sector in the last ten years (A) agriculture (B) education (C) telecommunication (D)
transport (E) distribution
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
ECONOMICS
70 Nigeria being a developing African country in the sub-Sahara has put together a C
development blue-print called Vision 202020 which can ensure that the country becomes
(A) one of the 20 developed countries by the year 2020 (B) an African economic lsquoTigerrsquo
by the year 2020 (C) one of the 20 largest economies in the world by the year 2020
(D) one of the 20 largest economies in sub-Saharan Africa by the year 2020 (E) one of
the 20 largest economies in the developing world by the year 2020
71 The major objective of economic growth is to (A) Redistribute income and other benefit D
of growth (B) Equalize opportunity for education and employment (C) Increase
aggregate expenditure on goods and services (D) Increase the real per capita income (E)
Increase access to education
72 The most common index used for measuring development is (A) The level of literacy (B) B
Per capita income (C) Nutritional levels (D) Population growth rate (E) International
development index
73 Which is NOT a direct effort to increase agricultural production in Nigeria (A) Operation B
Feed the Nation (B) Nigerian Youth Service Corps (C) Increased loans to farmers and
cooperatives (D) Research in Agriculture and extension services (E) Mechanization of
agriculture
74 Which of the following sectors of the economy is estimated to be the largest employer of B
labour in the country (A) Construction (B) Agriculture (C) Distribution (D) Mining and
petroleum (E) Transport and communications
75 Industries contribute to national economic development because they (A) Utilize local B
raw material (B) Employ an increasing number of labour (C) Provide recreational
facilities (D) Use modern machines which replace human labour (E) All of the above
76 Infant industries are (A) Baby food and baby clothing factories (B) Those which are D
introducing new products (C) Cases of arrested development (D) Industries temporarily
protected by tariffs barriers until mature enough to compete on world markets (E)
Industries that are allowed to remain permanent cases of adolescence
77 The export-promotion strategy is aimed at producing (A) Consumer goods originally C
imported (B) Machinery for industries (C) More goods for exports (D) More goods for
domestic consumption (E) Increasing export of goods needed in developed countries
78 Which of the following is NOT an advantage of localization of industries (A) Reaping of E
external economies (B) Development of a pool of skilled labour for the industry (C)
Development of subsidiary industries (D) Development of organized markets (E) Growth
of conurbations
79 The crucial factors which determines the location of petroleum refineries in Nigeria are B
availability of raw materials and (A) Capital (B) Political consideration (C) Nearness to
source of power (D) Labour (E) Availability of seaports
80 The petroleum industry in Nigeria is (A) The sole source of the nationrsquos revenue (B) The C
oldest industry in the country (C) The mainstay of the economy (D) A factor in the
decline in the nationrsquos foreign reserves (E) In the hand of NNPC
81 In a limited liability company the greatest risk is borne by (A) Shareholders debentures C
(B) Company executives (C) Ordinary shareholders (D) Preference shareholders (E)
Board of directors
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
ECONOMICS
82 In a public company shares are (A) Sold to one person only (B) Distributed freely (C) C
Advertised to members of the public for subscription (D) Disposed off by the Chief
Executive (E) none of the above
83 The advantage of the sole proprietorship is as follows (A) It is always successful (B) C
Continuity is no problem (C) Control and supervision is under one man (D) Funds are
easy to obtain (E) Inter-generational equity is assured
84 The maximum number of shareholders for a limited liability company is (A) Twenty (B) D
Seven (C) Five (D) Infinite (E) Limited to the number of individuals that are interested
85 Population density refers to (A) Densely populated urban centres (B) The total area D
divided by the total population (C) Densely populated rural areas (D) The total
population divided by the total area (E) All of the above
86 To calculate the annual natural growth rate of a countryrsquos population one has to know D
the countryrsquos annual birth rate and (A) The size of that country (B) The rate of
immigration into that country (C) The population census of that country (D) The annual
death rate (E) The gross domestic product (GDP) of the country
87 Which of the following is not true of the theory of optimum population A It is possible B
for a densely populated country to be under-populated if it has insufficient labour to
make the most effective use of its other factors B The quantity of labour which
combines with other factors gives the minimum output is known as optimum population
C The quantity of labour which combined with the other factors gives the maximum
output is known as optimum population D The test of over-population is whether it
exceeds the optimum E It is possible for a thinly populated country to be over-
populated if it has a poor supply of other factors
88 Which of the following is the standard concept of measuring and analyzing population E
growth (A) The rate of natural increase (B) The net migration rate (C) The rate of
population increase (D) The fertility rate (E) All of the above
89 Which of these would NOT increase the population of a country (A) Increase in death A
rate (B) Decrease in birth rate (C) Emigration (D) Migration (E) Better medical facilities
90 An improvement in the Nigeriarsquos terms of trade should (A) Lead to a fall in cost of her A
imports in terms of what she must sacrifice to obtain them (B) Make made-in-Nigeria
goods cheaper to buy (C) Increase Nigeriarsquos domestic output of commodities (D) Lead to
an increase in her exchange rates (E) Lead to an increase in Nigeriarsquos exports of
petroleum
91 By lsquotrade by barterrsquo we mean (A) Trade done by people in the villages (B) Exchange of D
goods for money (C) International trade (D) Exchange of goods for goods (E) The trade
of the Middle Ages
92 Gains from trade depends on (A) Comparative advantage (B) Absolute advantage (C) A
Distributive cost advantage (D) Absolute cost advantage (E) None of the above
93 International and inter-regional trade differ primarily because (A) Comparative B
advantage is relevant to the former but not to the latter (B) Products flow easily within
regions of a country (C) There are different resource supplies among countries of the
world (D) Of regulations from GATT (E) None of the above
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
ECONOMICS
94 Surplus in the balance of payments lead to (A) Inflation or increasing prices generally (B) B
Increase in foreign reserves (C) Decrease in foreign reserves (D) Government budget
surplus (E) None of the above
95 The expression lsquoTerms of Tradersquo is used to describe (A) The quality of exports (B) The D
direction of foreign trade (C) Terms of purchase on deferred payment basis (D) The rate
at which exports exchange for imports (E) Import licensing
96 The quantity of a currency that exchanges for a unit of another currency is called its (A) C
exchange value (B) barter value (C) exchange rate (D) market price (E) unit price
97 Under a system of freely floating exchange rates an increase in the international value of B
a countryrsquos currency will cause (A) its exports to rise (B) its imports to rise (C) gold to
flow into that country (D) its currency to be in surplus (E) devaluation
98 When a currency loses its value due to a government action to fix the quantity of the A
currency that exchanges for another currency there is (A) devaluation (B)
depreciation (C) inflation (D) fiscal deficit (E) none of the above
99 Which of the following items in the Balance of Payments Account is an invisible D
transaction (A) Imports of cars (B) Export of cocoa (C) Export of crude petroleum (D)
Tourism (E) Import of building materials
100 A major trading problems facing ECOWAS is (A) The absence of common currency (B) A
Political instability (C) High poverty level (D) Non-implementation of decisions (E)
Trade-related political crisis in Ivory coast
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
USE OF ENGLISH
1
Read the passages below and answer the questions that follow
PASSAGE AEvery discernible observer could foresee the crisis which engulfed the Edo Houselast week Only a few days before reports were rife about the AC reaching out tosome PDP legislators to cross-carpet The intention being to gain a majority andthen assume the Speakership with the least constraint Zakawanu Garuba the thenSpeaker retorted with a fiat threatening to declare vacant the seat of any defectorThis in spite of the constitutional support for such action as evidenced forexample by the crisis that has torn the PDP apart in Edo State The party has twofactional chairmen in the state even though one is more vociferousThe desperate attempt by Garuba to cling to the Speakerrsquos chair is condemnable Hewas not being recalled from the legislature and so he still has his seat as a floormember As speaker he was only first among equals The Speakership is not hisbirthright With the defection of one PDP lawmaker to the AC the legislaturereconvened hours after the bloodbath and elected a protem Speaker whileimpeaching and suspending Garuba and a few others They are to be probed
(Adapted from The Guardian Thursday March 4 2011 p14)
1 Why did AC woo PDP membersA they are few in numberB they want speakership without stressC PDP members are faithfulD The House is tough
2 The legislators impeachedA GarubaB PDP lawmakersC Garuba and some PDP lawmakersD Garuba and some lawmwkers
3 According to the passage the constitution supportsA The speakerB DefectingC Edo StateD Factional chairmen
4 The lawmakers reconvenedA After the defection of a PDP memberB After the bloodbathC After suspending the SpeakerD After electing a protem Speaker
B
A
D
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
USE OF ENGLISH
2
5 At the end what happened to GarubaA He was vindicatedB He was indictedC He was honouredD He was humiliated
6 To cross-carpet as used in the passage means toA change partyB renew membership of a partyC change onersquos carpetD buy new carpet
7 The crisis in the Edo State House of Assembly could be predicted byA The lawmakersB Edo State indigenesC The protem SpeakerD All conscious observers
B
C
A
PASSAGE B
Nigeria has a troubled power sector which is however undergoing reforms thathopefully should usher in era of private sector dominance in terms of ownershipand management of generation and distribution In this transitory phase it is crucialto lay a foundation for local sourcing of vital inputs and make it the norm for theindustry That is the only way to prevent a replication of the trend in the oil and gassub-sector where capital flight is as much as $ 16 billion per annum as revealed bythe Petroleum Technology Development FundThe PHCN could legitimately insist on quality and standards in its procurement ofequipment and materials but what is playing out is an institutional orientationevinced in several pursuits of the PHCN that are contemptuous of Nigeriarsquosaspiration for local content development In 1998 the defunct National ElectricPower Authority defied a directive by the then Minister of Power and steel AlhajiBashir Dalhatu to source its costable components from Nigerian foundries some ofwhich are of high standards Actuated by a realization of idle capacity in thefoundries and the need to conserve foreign exchange the Minister appliedappropriate pressure on the management of NEPA but found his efforts frustratedThe acute shortage or inefficiency in the metering programme originated from thefact that the only local manufacturer then the Federal Government-ownedelectricity Meter Company in Zaria Kaduna State established in 1976 but sold toDantata Investments Limited in December 2002 is not performing(Adapted from The Punch Wednesday May 25 2011 Pg 18)
8 Why is there shortage of meterA Non-performance of PHCNB Non-performance of NEPAC Non-performance of the Federal Government-owned electricity
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
USE OF ENGLISH
3
Meter CompanyD Non-performance of Dantata Investment Ltd
9 According to the passage the solution to the problem in the power sector lies inA Sourcing for materials locallyB Getting costable componentsC Obeying the ministerD Getting $ 16 billion per annum
10 From the passage it is clear thatA There is money in the countryB There is shortage of electricity meterC NEPA is better than PHCND NEPA was formed in 1998
11 Which of these is not true of the power sectorA There is only one local manufacturer of electricity meterB The power sector is undergoing reformsC The problem of the power sector cannot be solvedD there was procurement of equipment and materials
12 Which of these is undergoing reformsA NEPAB PHCNC NigeriaD The power sector
13 A suitable title for this passage isA Nigeria and her problemsB NEPA versus PHCNC Electricity meterD Problems in the power sector
A
B
C
D
D
Choose the option that best completes the gap14 University students helliphelliphelliphelliphellipbehave well (A) can (B) should (C) may (D)
mustB
15 Gloria helliphelliphelliphellip have finished the project two days ago (A) must (B) may (C)can (D) supposed to
A
16 You are Goodluck (A) are you (B) arenrsquot you (C) arersquont you (D) donrsquotyou
B
17 He helliphelliphelliphelliphellip not come now (A) needs (B) needed (C) need (D) will need C18 Janet to know that we are all here (A) suppose (B) supposes (C) is
supposed (D) should supposeC
19 Let it be that there was no king in Ayegun (A)know (B) knew (C) known(D) knows
C
20 We shall see you soon (A) shall we (B) shanrsquot we (C) shouldnrsquot we (D)should we
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
USE OF ENGLISH
4
21 Neither of the presidential candidates suitable (A) are (B) is (C) is been(D) are been suitable
B
22 Ten miles ____ a great distance (A) is (B) are (C) is been A23 If I were the president I ask for the money (A) will (B) should (C) would
(D) canC
24 I will see you after I spoken with your supervisor (A) might have (B) have(C) will have (D) would have
B
25 ldquoYou - now see the directorrdquo the secretary told the visitors (A) can (B)may (C) should (D) would
B
26 She isnrsquot Gloria (A) is she (B) isnrsquot she (C) arenrsquot she (D) doesnrsquot she A27 We have a bus (A) didnrsquot we (B) havenrsquot we (C) doesnrsquot we (D) hasnrsquot
weB
28 I knew David let us down (A) may (B) will (C) might (D) can C29 You helliphelliphellip me last week (A) ought to see (B) ought to had seen (C) ought to
have seen (D) had to have seenC
30 Twenty dollars ___ enough for my lunch (A) are (B) is (c ) are just B31 The pests ____ our farm every year (A) invade (B) invades (c ) has invades A32 If I were the Governor I ask for the project (A) will (B) should (C) would
(D) canC
33 When helliphellip the Cleric today (A) doesarrives (B) doesarrived (C)doesarrive (D) do arrive
C
34 We shall see you soon (A) shall we (B) shanrsquot we (C) shouldnrsquot we (D)should we
B
35 You missed the match (A) donrsquot you (B) didnrsquot you (C) hadnrsquot you (D)doesnrsquot you
B
36 Walk the dog right now (A) walknrsquot you (B) will you (C)shall you(D)would you
B
37 I am a student (A) Irsquom I (B) arenrsquot I (C) isnrsquot I (D) wouldnrsquot I BPick out the oddwrong expression in each of the following
38 (A) I heard his supposed apology (B) I heard his unconvincing apology (C) Iheard his suppose apology (D) I heard he was supposed apology
D
39 (A) I suppose you know the way (B) I am supposed you know the way (C) Isuppose he knows the way (D) They suppose he knows the way
B
40 (A) I travel next week (B) I will travel next week (C) I suppose to travelnext week (D) I should travel next week
C41 (A) Having discovered the error he apologized (B) Having discovered the
error the apology was tendered (C) Having known the error he apologised(D) Having found out the error he tendered an apology B
42 (A) The job has been done (B) The job has been being done (C) They havedone the job (D) They can have done the job
D
43 (A) She must finish the project in two days (B) She must finish the project twodays ago (C) She must have finished the project two days ago (D) She ought tohave finished the project two days ago
B
44 (A) If I went in there I would beat the security officer (B) If I go in there Iwould beat the security officer (C) If I go in there I will beat the securityofficer (D) If I go in there I can beat the security officer
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
USE OF ENGLISH
5
Choose the option that most appropriately expresses the idea in theunderlined expression
45 My friendrsquos parentrsquos are magnanimous (A) rich and popular (B) sociable andlovable (C) kind and generous (D) wicked and stingy
C
46 My friend has an overbearing attitude toward me (A) patient (B) impatient(C) opinionated and domineering (D) considerate and respectful
C
47 There are a number of makeshift buildings in town (A) modern buildings (B)old fashion buildings (C) temporary buildings (D) permanent buildings
C
48 Post UME is a hurdle to cross (A) a necessary and simple exam to pass (B) anunnecessary and difficult exam to pass (C) an unnecessary but simple exam topass (D) a necessary and challenging exam to pass
D
49 His contribution to the project is invaluable (A) extremely useful (B) of novalue (C) of little value (D) can not be valued
A
50 That was a dawn-to-earth approach (A) poor (B) ordinary (C) practical (D)immodest
B
51 Concerning my admission I have to cross my fingers (A) wait and hope for thebest (B) wait in frustration (C) wait confidently (D) take some risk
A
52 My father is indifferent to my choice of University (A) supports (B) opposes(C) not decided (D) not concerned
D
53 We need an ad hoc arrangement towards the project (A) intelligent (B)advanced (C) permanent (D) temporary
D
54 The studentrsquos reply to the lecturer betrayed his rudeness (A) covered (B)showed (C) reduced (D) increased
C
55 His conduct in the last elections was above board (A) arrogant (B) honest (C)above average (D) excellent
C
56 That was a dispassionate decision (A) bias (B) personal (C) unaffected (D)ineffective
C
57 On the matter of worship some sit on the fence (A) go to the extreme (B) aredecisive (C) are fanatics (D) are undecided
D
Choose the option that is nearest in meaning to the word underlined58 In this matter we must be prepared to tolerate human frailty (A)
75 Her health deteriorated rapidly (A) worsened (B) improved (C) stagnated (D)declined
B
Which of the following sentences is correct76 (A) One should mind his business (B) One should mind onersquos business (C) One
should mind her businessB
77 (A) This case is between you and I (B) This case is between you and me (C)This case is between the two both of us
B
78 (A) With them around we have a great problem on our hands (B) With themaround we have a great problem on our hand (C) With them around wehave a great problem on hand
A
79 (A) The dog wagged itrsquos tail (B) The dog wagged its tail (C) The dog waggeditsrsquo tail
B
80 (A) A ten year old boy is missing (B) A ten-year-old boy is missing (C) A tenyear-old boy is missing
B
81 Choose the option that sounds the same with two (A) tool (B) too (C) tow (D)to
B
82 Choose the option that sounds the same with bear (A) bare (B) beer (C)bared (D) beard
B
83 Choose the option that sounds the same with the given word Key (A) kiss(B) quay (C) keyed (D) kissed
B
Choose the word that is correctly spelled84 (A) acomodation (B) accommodation (C) accomodation (D) acommodation B85 (A) embarrassment (B) embarassment (C) embarrasment (D) embarasment A86 (A) horrific (B) horific (C) horiffic (D) horriffic A87 As soon as Joy arrived she started looking for food The underlined
expression is an ----------- (A) adverbial phrase of reason (B) adverbial clauseof reason (C) adverbial phrase of time (D) adverbial clause of time
D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
USE OF ENGLISH
7
88 My friend a brilliant lecturer won many prizes The underlined expression isa(n) (A) adjectival clause (B) relative clause (C) appositive phrase (D)subject of lsquowonrsquo
C
89 I passed very well because I studied hard The underlined expression is a (A)relative clause introducer (B) linking verb (C) adverb of reason (D)subordinating conjunction
D
90 Bello and I love each other (A) preposition (B) reciprocal pronoun (C) nounphrase (D) adjectival phrase
B
91 I prefer writing to acting The underlined expressions is a(n) -------- (A) verb(B) participle (C) gerund (D) object
C
92 Having finished my assignment I started watching television The underlinedexpression is a(n) -------- (A) infinitive clause (B) gerund (C) participialphrase (D) noun clause
C
93 If you leave early yoursquoll meet Sola at home The underlined expression is a ----------- (A) nominal clause (B) verbal clause (C) conditional clause (D)adjectival clause
C
94 Wounded by a lion the hunter trudged home The underlined expression is a-----------(A) nominal clause (B) verbal clause (C) participial clause (D)adjectival clause
C
95 Irsquom proud of you The underlined expression functions as(A) prepositionalcomplement (B) adjectival complement (C) subject complement (D) verbalcomplement
B
96 A noun phrase lacks one of the following (A) noun (B) verb (C) adjective (D)adverb
B
97 Eve gave Adam an apple An apple in the sentence functions as------------(A)subject of the verb lsquogaversquo (B) direct object of the verb (C) indirect object ofthe verb (D) object complement
B
98 I wonder if you know where he lives This sentence is a(n) (A) thoughtfulstatement (B) polite command (C) indirect question (D) subtle exclamation
A
99 An example of gradable adjectives is hellip (A) each (B) beautiful (C) dead (D)live
B
100 A clause differs from a phrase because a clause contains helliphelliphellip (A) a largernumber of words (B) a fewer number of words (C) a finite verb (D) a non-finite verb
C
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Information
the study of accounting leads to a challenging career (D) accounting provides gross profit accounting is useful in making decisions (B) accounting plays an important role in a society (C)
Themost importantreasonfor studying accounting is that (A) theinformation providedby A 8
71 A partnership on admitting a new member revalued the business land and building from N30 C
000 to N70 000 The difference of N40 000 should be (A) credited to land and building account
(B) debited to asset revaluation account (C) credited to asset revaluation account (D) credited
to profit and loss appropriate account
72 Adamu Babaji and Chukwu are in a partnership and they share profit and losses on ratio 321 D
Their respective capitals are N20000 N15000 N5000 on which they are entitled to interest
at 5 per annum The profit for the year before charging interest on capital amounts to
N5500 Calculate the profit for Adamu (A) N583 (B) N1000 (C) N1167 (D) N1750
73 In a partnership business the net profit serves as opening figure for (A) trading account D
(B) profit and loss account (C) current account (D) appropriation account
74 In the absence of a partnership agreement profits and losses are shared (A) in the ratio of B
capital (B) equally (C) in the ratio of drawings (D) according to services rendered
5
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
FINANCIAL ACCOUNTING
75 Interest on a partners drawings is debited to the (A) partners current account and credited to A the profit and loss appropriate account (B) profit and loss appropriation account and credited
to the partners current account (C) profit and loss account and credited to the partners
account (D) partners current account and credited to the profit and loss account
76 Partnersrsquo share of profit is credited to (a) a partnerrsquos current account (b) a partnerrsquos capital A
account (c) the profit and loss account (d) the profit and loss appropriation account
77 Which of the following is a strong feature of partnership (A) The life of the partnership is B
generally assumed to be indefinite (B) The owners are liable personally for all debts of the
business The transfer of ownership interest is frequent and easy to accomplish (D) The
partnership is complex to form because of many legal and reporting requirements
78 A bond acknowledging a loan to a company under the companyrsquos seal bearing a fixed rate of D
interest is known as (A) certificate (B) agreement (C) bank loan (D) debenture
79 Alabede (Nig) Limited issued 50000 ordinary shares if 1 each at a market value of N250 each C
The share premium is (A) N125000 (B) N100000 (C) N75000 (D) N50000
80 All but one of the following are examples of capital reserves (A) Share premium (B) D
99 Which of the following is the most critical factor of industrial location in modern world (A) Raw B
materials (B) Market (C) Transportation (D) Capital
100 Which of the following represent an urban- rural migration (A) a students from the village C
school gains admission to the university in the town (B) Moving to the urban centre for
medical services (C) Traveling from Lagos to the village on retirement (D) A civil servants gets
transferred from one town to another
6
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
GOVERNMENT
1
1 A key characteristic of the civil service is (A) Merit system (B) Patriotism (C) Quota system(D) Transparency
A
2 A major cause of inefficiency in public corporations is (A) inadequate patronage by membersof the public (B) absence of an enabling Act or law (C) political interference (D)competition from private firms
C
3 A major distinction between public corporations and private companies is that (A) Publiccorporations provide important services (B) Public corporations are large organizations (C)Public corporations are financed and controlled by government (D) Public corporations arenot involved in production of tangible goods
C
4 A primary agency of political socialization is (A) the government B the family C the massmedia D the School
B
5 A process that seeks to transfer ownership and control of public corporations to privateindividuals or organizations is called (A) Indigenization (B) Commercialization (C)Privatization (D) Acquisition
C
6 Adult male suffrage means that (A) All men who pay tax can vote (B) All adult males canvote (C) All men can vote (D) All adults can vote B
7 All of the following are obligations of citizens except (A) Obedience to laws (B) Voting (C)Giving alms to beggars (D) Payment of taxes
C
8 An electoral district is (A) A local government area (B) A ward (C) A polling booth (D) Aconstituency
D
9 Fascism was practiced in Italy under (A) Benito Masollini (B) Benito Mubarak (C) BenitoMussolini (D) Benito Mandela
C
10 Governmental powers are _________ in the US presidential system (A) absolutely separated(B)fused (C) absolutely fused (D) separated D
11 In a democracy franchise is limited by (A) Age (B) Sex (C) Wealth (D) Education A
12 In the civil service anonymity means that civil servants must (A) Not receive the credit orblame for any good (B) Serve any government impartially (C) Avoid nepotism andfavouritism (D) Be politically neutral
A
13 In which of the following set of countries is a dominant two-party system operated (A)Nigeria and Ghana (B) The United States and the United Kingdom (C) France and Germany(D) India and China
B
14 One of the advantages of direct election is that (A) it is too expensive and difficult to conduct(B) illiterates vote intelligently for their leaders (C) it makes representatives accountable tothe electors (D) it offers an opportunity to the electorate to demand for money
C
15 One of the following is not a feature of a modern state (A) Territorial landmass (B) Populationof People (C) Defined Territory (D) Sovereignty
A
16 One of the following is not a source of constitution (A) Customs and conventions (B) civilservice regulations (C) historical documents (D) judicial precedents
B
17 One of the objectives of a multiparty system is to (A) Eliminate corruption (B) Preventrigging (C) Provide alternatives (D) Avoid ethnicity
C
18 Political sovereignty lies with (A) Head of State (B) Head of Government (C) the Parliament(D) the electorate
D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
GOVERNMENT
2
19 Public corporations are established principally to (A) compete with private firms (B) Raiserevenue for the government (C) provide essential services for the public (D) Promote publicaccountability
C
20 Public opinion helps a government to (A) Monitor its socio-cultural policy (B) Monitor theeconomic situation in the country (C) Punish opposition to its policies (D) Develop thecountry in line with the peoplersquos aspirations
D
21 Roles that are expected to be performed by an individual in a country are (A) Elections (B)Duties (C) Rights (D) Services
B
22 Separation of powers denotes __________________ (A) Separation of governmental powersbut not separation of persons (B) Separation of governmental powers and Separation ofpersons (C) Separation of persons only (D) Separation of powers of government only
B
23 The assent of the President is required to convert aan ____ to law (A) Bill (B) Edict (C)Proclamation (D) Decree A
24 The branch of Government that sets agenda for other organs is known as (A) the bureaucracy(B) the legislature (C) the executive (D) the mass media
B
25 The capitalist economy is dictated by (A) Government economic blueprint (B) Consumersrsquorequirements (C) Diminishing returns (D) the forces of demand and supply
D
26 The central Legislative body in Britain is referred to as --------------------------- (A) NationalAssembly (B) Knesset (C) Parliament (D) Congress
C
27 The chairman of the committee that reviewed the 1988 civil service commission was (A)Chief PC Asiodu (B) Chief Edwin Clerk (C) Chief Allison Ayida (D) Chief Simeon Adebo
C
28 The highest grade in the civil service is known as (A) Executive cadre (B) Administrative cadre(C) Technical cadre (D) Clerical cadre
B
29 The law of libel limits a citizenrsquos right to freedom of (A) Association (B) Expression (C)Worship (D) Movement
B
30 The major advantage of the secret ballot is that (A) It ensures the anonymity of each voter(B) It is faster than other systems (C) Nobody can be prevented from voting (D) It extendsthe franchise to all adults
A
31 The permanent executive includes (A) Civil servants and not public servants (B) Civil servantsand politicians (C) all career officers that serve any government in power (D) elected andappointed politicians
C
32 The pressure group that resorts to unconventional methods to achieve its objectives is called(A) Institutional group (B) Interest group (C) Promotional group (D) Anomic group
D
33 The three fundamental rights of citizens are (A) Life liberty and property (B) Salvationproperty freedom of thought (C) Employment property and social security (D) Freeeducation employment and property
A
34 When a constitution is not difficult to amend it is said to be (A) Rigid (B) Systematic (C)Flexible (D) Federal
C
35 Which of the following best describes a sovereign state (A) a member of the African Union(B) Freedom from economic control (C) Geographical contiguity (D) Military political and
economic independence
D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
GOVERNMENT
3
36 Which of these is an element of state power (A) Geographical location population ampeconomic resources (B) Geographical location elite interests amp economic resources (C)Geographical location ethnicity amp economic resources (D) Geographical location politicalcrisis amp economic resources
A
37 Which of these is not a method of election (A) Simple majority (B) Proportionalrepresentation (C) Primary election (D) Co-option
D
38 ___________ plays rule adjudication role in Nigeria (A) The Civil Service (B) The Legislature(C) The Executive (D) The Judiciary
D
39 A two-party system of government is one in which (A) only one party performs multipartyfunctions (B) the elite dominate political parties (C) only few parties are allowed to operateby law (D) There are two major parties and other minor parties
D
40 An important agency for social control in the Igbo traditional society was the (A) Age-grade(B) Ozo-title holders (C) Council of Chiefs (D) Assembly of lineage heads
A
41 Educated elites in Nigeria did not like the system of indirect rule because it (A) Did not makeprovisions for them (B) Was exploitative and cumbersome (C) Made traditional rulers toopowerful (D) Was undemocratic and oppressive
C
42 Federalism in Nigeria is best seen as a way of promoting (a)Rapid economic development (B)unity in diversity (C) even national development (D) democracy
B
43 In Nigeria the civil service was first regionalized by the (A) Independence constitution (B)Richard constitution (C) Clifford constitution (D) Lyttleton constitution B
44 In the Hausa pre-colonial political system sovereignty was located in the (A) Alkali (B) Emir(C) Waziri (D) Galadima
B
45 In the pre-Colonial HausaFulani system the appointment of an Emir in the caliphate wasapproved by (A) Sultan of Sokoto and the Emir of Gwandu (B) Galadima and the Waziri (C)Sardauna of Sokoto and the Alkali (D) Sheu of Bornu and the Galadima
A
46 Nationalist activities in British West Africa increased after the second World War because (A)Of the expulsion of Kwane Nkrumah from Britain (B) Of the return of the educated elite fromabroad (C) Prices of commodities fell below expectation (D) Africans were nominated to theexecutive council
B47 Nigeria started to operate a real federal structure with the introduction of the (A) 1922 Clifford
constitution (B) 1946 Richard constitution (C) 1953 London conference (D) 1954 Lyteltonconstitution
49 One of the fundamental changes recommended by Adedotun Philips commission is (A)Frequent movement of staff (B) Standardization (C) Professionalization (D) Stagnation
C
50 One of the fundamental reversals made by the commission that reviewed the 1988 reform ofthe civil service was (A) Change of Director General to Permanent Secretaries (B) Changefrom Permanent Secretary to Director General (C) Change from Director General toPermanent Administrators (D) Permanent Professionals
A
51 The helliphelliphellipLocal government reforms recognized local government as the third tier ofgovernment (A) 1963 (B) 1976 (C) 1988 (D) 1989
B
52 The breakdown of the Macpherson constitution was partly caused by the crisis within the (A)NCNC (B) AG (C) NPC (D) NNDP
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
GOVERNMENT
4
53 The First Executive president of Nigeria was (A) Dr Nnamdi Azikiwe (B) Sir Abubakar TafawaBalewa (C) General Yakubu Gowon (D) Alhaji Sheu Shagari
D
54 The first military coup in Nigeria took place on mdash (A) July 15 1966 (B) July 27 1967 (C)January 15 1966 (D) January 13 1966 C
55 The first three political parties to be registered in the Fourth Republic were (A) ACN ANPPand PDP (B) AD APP and PDP (C) PPA PDP CAN (D) APGA CAN and PDPB B
56 The imposition of unitary form of administration by General Ironsi in 1966 led to (A) Moremilitary institutions (B) Return to civilian rule (C) Independence from British rule (D) civilunrest in the North
D
57 The institution that preserves civil liberty in Nigeria is the (A) Law Court (B) Civil ServiceCommission (C) Police Affairs Commission (D) Public Complaints Commission
A
58 The main opposition party during the First Republic was the (A) Northern Peoples Congress(B) Action Group (C) Northern Element Progressive Union (D) United Middle Belt Congress
B
59 The state created in Nigeria before 1966 was (A) East central state (B) Lagos state (C) Mid-Western state (D) North central state
C
60 The1964 federal election was contested by two major alliances of political parties amongthese (A) All Progressive Grand Alliance and the Northern Peoples Alliance (B) NigerianNational Alliance and United Progressive Grand Alliance (C) National Democratic Coalitionand Nigerian Peoples Alliance (D) National Democratic Alliance and Northern ElementsProgressive Union
B
61 Under the 1999 constitution of the Federal Republic of Nigeria there are a total ofhelliphelliphellip Localgovernment councils (A) 334 (B) 620 (C) 724 (D) 774 D
62 Which of the following ethnic groups had the best egalitarian traditional political system (A)Hausa Fulani (B) Yoruba (C) Igbo (D) Edo
C
63 which of the following is not a major problem of local government in Nigeria (A) Insufficientfunding and limited internally generated revenue (B) Interference and control by higher levelsof government (C) Lack of competent and qualified staff (D) lack of sufficient number oflocal government
D
64 Which of the following is not a reason for the adoption of a Federal System of government mdash(A) Cultural diversities (B) Security consideration (C) Economic consideration (D) Limitedresources D
65 Which of the following is not an example of a public corporation in Nigeria (A) NigerianRailway Corporation (B) Federal Radio Corporation of Nigeria (C) Federal Mortgage Bank ofNigeria (D) National Deposit Insurance Corporation
C
66 Which of the following statements is true about the 1963 and 1979 Constitutions (A) Bothhad provisions for the office of the president (B) Both had provision for the office of theconstitutional president (C) Both provided for the offices of prime minister and president(D) Both had provision for the office of an executive president
A
67 Which of these former Nigerian Heads of State was instrumental to the establishment ofECOWAS (A) Sanni Abacha (B) Yakubu Gowon (C) Olusegun Obasanjo (D) Tafawa Balewa
B
68 In 1975 Nigeria had a strained relationship with one of the following countries over the crisisin Angola (A) Britain (B) Israel (C) USA (D) Mexico
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
GOVERNMENT
5
69 Nigeriarsquos non ndash aligned posture was criticized on ground of the (A) Non ndash Proliferation Treaty(B) ECOWAS Treaty (C) Nuclear Test Ban Treaty (D) Anglo ndash Nigeria Defence Pact
D
70 The circumstance that led to the establishment of ECOWAS Monitoring Group (ECOMOG ) was(A) the bloody civil war in Nigeria (B) the bloody civil war in Liberia (C) the bloody civil war inSudan (D) the bloody civil war in all West African countries
B
71 The head of Nigeriarsquos foreign mission in a Commonwealth nation is best known and addressedas (A) Ambassador (B) Envoy (C) High commissioner (D) Representative
C
72 What determines Nigeriarsquos relations with other countries (A) Its national interest (B) Itslevel of democratization (C) Its citizens political sagacity (D) Its political culture
A
73 Which of the following best defines foreign policy (A) The ways in which some actors on thedomestic scene translate available power into policies designed to bring positive outcomes (B)The actions of a state towards the celestial environment (C) A set of objectives with regardsto the world beyond the borders of a given state and a set of strategies and tactics designed toachieve these objectives (D) The protection of the territorial integrity of a state
C74 Which of the following military regimes was credited with a dynamic foreign policy (A)
75 Which of these is an example of Nigeriarsquos external cultural relations (A) Exchange of studentswith friendly nations (B) Trade relationships with other countries (C) Financial and economicassistance to needy countries (D) Establishment of diplomatic missions in other countries
A
76 Which of these is correct about Nigeriarsquos foreign policy between 1960 and 1966 (A) It waspro-British (B) It was pro-American (C) It was pro-Soviet (D) It was pro-French
A
77 Which of these is NOT part of a countryrsquos core or vital interests (A) Economic viability (B)Political independence (C) Territorial integrity (D) Political brouhaha
D
78 Which of these is NOT the essence of foreign policy (A) Promotion and defence of a nationrsquosvital interest (B) Protection and promotion of a nationrsquos strategic interest (C) Protection andpromotion of the interest of the political leaders of a country (D) Promotion and defence ofthe economic interest of a nation
C
79 Which of these Nigerians has ever played a leading role in the operation of OPEC (A) AlhajiRilwanu Lukman (B) Prof Joe Garba (C) Prof Joy Ogwu (D) Gen Ike Nwachukwu
A
80 Which year was the Anglo-Nigerian defence pact abrogated (A) 1962 (B) 1963 (C) 1960 (D)1961
A
81 A major weakness of the Commonwealth is (A) lack of commitment by member states (B)lack of quorum at annual summits (C) poverty among member states (D) lack of democraticleadership A
82 An essential principle that guides the works of the United Nations (A) The regulation ofinternational trade (B) The protection of the United States of America against terrorism (C)Respect for sovereign equality of member states (D) The transfer of technology to developingcountries
C
83 In which of these International Organisations is African membership NOT possible (A)ECOWAS (B) EU (C) OPEC (D) Commonwealth
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
GOVERNMENT
6
84 Membership of the Commonwealth of Nations means (A) recognition of the Queen as theHead of the commonwealth and the republican states (B) recognition of the Queen as theHead of the commonwealth and not of the Republican States (C) recognition of the Queen asthe Head of the independent states and the republican states (D) recognition of the Queen asthe Head of all independent states
B85 One major achievement of OPEC is that (A) member nations are now formidable forces to be
reckoned with in international politics (B) world economic depression brought about fall in oilprice (C) there is a declining loyalty of its members (D) there are challenges posed by non ndashOPEC members
A
86 One of the following groups of states are all members of the ECOWAS (A) Nigerian Ghana andZaire (B) Guinea Togo and Cameroun (C) Guinea Bissau Burkina Faso and Cape Verde (D)Liberia Benin and Ethiopia C
87 The AU was formed by members of OAU (A) On 8th July 2002 at Durban South Africa (B) On8th July 2003 at Abuja Nigeria (C) On 8th July 2003 at Tripoli (D) On 8th June 2002 at AccraGhana
A
88 The first nation to become a republic within the Commonwealth of Nations is (A) Nigeria (B)Cyprus (C) Ghana (D) India D
89 The first summit of the African Union (AU) took place (A) On February 2 2004 at Addis AbabaEthiopia (B) On February 3 2003 at Addis Ababa Ethiopia (C) On February 3 2003 at AbujaNigeria (D) On February 2 2004 at Lagos Nigeria
B
90 The Non-aligned Movement was established at----------- in ---------- (A) Bombay 1955 (B)Bandung 1955 (C) Lagos 1972 (D) Addis Ababa 1955
B
91 The OAU adopted NEPAD during its summit held in (A) Abuja (B) Lusaka (C) Tunis (D) Cairo
D92 The organ charged with the responsibility of approving the annual budget of UNO is (A) The
Security Council (B) The International Court of Justice (C) the General Assembly (D) TheTrusteeship Council
C
93 To which of these blocs did Nigeria belong before the establishment of the OAU (A)Casablanca group (B) Monrovia group (C) Pan African group (D) African and Malagasy group
B
94 What is the full meaning of ECOWAS (A) Economic Community for Western African States (B)Economic Community of Western African States (C) Economic Community of West AfricanStates (D) Economic Community for West African States C
95 Where and when was the African Union inaugurated (A) Durban 2000 (B) Addis Ababa1963 (C) Lagos 1972 (D) Tripoli 2001
A
96 Which of the following is a functionally specialized global international organization (A)Organization of African Unity (B) United Nations (C) Food and Agriculture Organization (D)African Union
C
97 Which of the following is a specialized agency of the AU (A) The Assembly Conference (B) TheExecutive Council (C) African Court of Justice (D) The Commission
C
98 Which of the following is an apt definition of the Commonwealth of Nations (A) voluntaryassociation of the independent countries of the former British Colonies (B) association of freenations enjoying equal rights under the British (C) a free association of sovereign independentAfrican States (D) a voluntary association of countries that were formerly in the Frenchcolonial empire
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
GOVERNMENT
7
99 Which of the following is NOT a principal organ of the UNO (A) UNICEF (B) Security Council(C) Secretariat (D) General Assembly
A
100 Which of the following metamorphosed into the United Nations (A) International LabourOrganization (B) League of Nations (C) UNESCO (D) OAU
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
HISTORY
1 is the name of the political head of Zaria (A) Obi (B) Emir (C) Oba (D) Alaafin B
2 was the state which was thrown into anarchy and turmoil as a result of the opening of A
the Muni the sacred heritage by the king under the prompting of Muslim Missionaries (A)
Kanem (B) Salem (C) Njimi (D) Chad
3 Before getting to Nigeria River Niger passed across (A) Mali (B) Kanem (C) Chad (D) A
Morocco
4 Oba is the name of the political head of (A) Benin (B) Kano (C) Bornu (D) Sokoto A
5 The Amazon (female warriors ) Participated actively in defending which of these kingdoms (A) C
10 Scurvy is caused by the deficiency of (A) Protein (B) Vitamin D (C) Vitamin A (D) Vitamin C D
11 The dietary guide is to (A) Promote health (B) Promote disease (C) Promote sports (D)Promote too much eating
A
12 The fat soluble vitamins are (A) A B E and K (B) A D E and K (C) A C E and K (D) A D C and K B
13 The methods of cooking includes all except (A) Baking (B) Toasting (C )Boiling (D) None of theabove
D
14 Too much sugar in the body could lead to (A) Urinating (B) Heart disease (C) Liver disease (D)Diabetes
D
15 Vitamin D is for the (A) Formation of nerves (B) Formation of tissue (C) Formationof bones (D) Formation and digestion
C
16 Vitamin K performs the function of (A) Blood cell (B) Blood flow (C) Blood use (D) Blood clot D
17 Water soluble vitamins are (A) A C and B complex (B) A E and B complex (C) C and Bcomplex (D) A and B complex
C
18 What is an appetizer(A) Meal eaten after the main meal (B) Meal eaten as the second course meal (C) Meal eatenas the first course meal (D) Meal eaten as the last course meal
C
19 What is steaming (A) Cooking with water vapor (B) Cooking with water boiling (C) Cookingwith dry heat (D) All of the above
A
20 What is under nutrition (A) Consumption of less nutritious foods (B) Consumption ofadequate nutrients (C) Consumption of balance nutrients (D) Consumption of available foods
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
HOME ECONOMICS
2
21 Which is not a communicable disease (A) Measles (B) Marasmus (C) Chicken pox (D)Tuberculosis
B
22 Which is not a type of food storage (A) Moist storage (B) Dry storage (C) Refrigerator storage(D) Freezer storage
A
23 Which is the best method of cooking food to retain nutrient (A) Roasting (B) Boiling (C)Steaming (D) Frying
C
24 Which of these is not correct (A) Carbohydrate is to provide fat to the body (B) Protein is tobuild the body (C) Vitamin is to maintenance of metabolism in the body (D) Water is vital forlife
A
25 Which of these is responsible for proper bone formation (A) Protein (B) Carbohydrate (C)Calcium (D) Cobalamin
C
26 A group of people related by blood and living together is regarded as a (A) Community (B)Society (C) Home (D) Family
D
27 Disposal of household refuse should be done (A) Once a week (B) Every day (C) Twice a week(D) Once a week
B
28 Family can be identified as (A) Larger society (B) Community society (C) Nucleus of society(D) Entire society
C
29 Home Management involves (A) Addressing a home and making it a place of comfort andhappiness (B) Structuring a home and making it a place of comfort and happiness (C)Managing a home and making it a place of comfort and happiness (D) Dedicating a home andmaking it a place of comfort and happiness
C
30 Identify the steps in Home management (A) Planning organizing implementingEvaluation (B) Organizing planning implementing Evaluation (C) Implementing Planningorganizing Evaluation (D) Planning implementing organizing Evaluation
A
31 In choosing a curtain for the home we must consider all except (A) Colour of the wall (B)Colour of the ceiling (C) Colour of the furniture (D) Colour of all colours
D
32 In cleaning of the sitting room we must do all except (A) Open the windows (B) Close thewindows (C) Dust the furniture (D) Sweep the floor
B
33 Meal planning involves (A) Number to be served (B) Quantity of food to cook (C) Healthstatus of family members (D) All of the above
D
34 Money management depend on all except one (A) How money is dedicated (B) How moneyis utilized (C) How money is organized (D) How money is spent
A
35 Saving means (A) Money set aside for use in future (B) Money spent yesterday (C) Moneyspent last month (D) Money spent outside the budget
A
36 Steps in making family budget does not include (A) List all the commodities and servicesneeded (B) Estimate cost (C) Estimate the total expected income (D) Estimated money spent
D
37 Which is not a type of family system in Nigeria (A) Nuclear family (B) Polygamous family (C)Polyandry family (D) Extended family
C
38 Which is not a type of marriage in Nigeria (A) Christian marriage (B) Islamic marriage (C)Hindu marriage (D) Traditional marriage
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
HOME ECONOMICS
3
39 Whish of these is not a benefit of energy management (A) Energy is conserved (B) Eliminatesfatigue (C) Energy is fully used up (D) Reduces amount of time on a task
C
40 Choose a type of seam from these options (A) Run and stand (B) Run and fell (C) Close seam(D) English seam
C
41 Choose the most correct option (A) Clothing is the material used in sewing (B) Clothing is thefabric used in sewing (C) Clothing is the not material used in sewing (D) Clothing is the notthe fabric used in sewing
B
42 Dying a fabric will require most importantly (A) Colour (B) Table (C) Wax (D)Dye D
43 Natural fibres include only one of the options (A) Cotton (B) Linen (C) Wool (D) All of theabove
D
44 Stitches are divided into all except (A) Basic stitches (B) Embroidery (C) Permanent stitches (D)None of the above
46 Which is not a factor to consider in clothing selection (A) Sex (B) Age (C) Occupation (D) Hair D
47 Which of these is a basic stitch (A) Back stitch (B) Temporary stitch (C) French knot (D) Shellhem
A
48 Which of these is a factor to consider in clothing selection (A) Figure type (B) Figure cloth (C)Figure shoe (D) Figure choice
A
49 Which of these is not used in tie-dye (A) Water (B) Caustic soda (C) Soap (D) Hydrosulphide C
50 Wool is obtained from (A) Plant (B) Synthetic (C) Silk (D) Animal D
51 Determine the option that is not a career opportunity in Home Economics (A) Dietician (B)Researcher (C) Teacher (D) Jester
D
52 In family budgeting and expenditure Home Economics is related to ------------ discipline (A)Physics (B) Chemistry (C) Economics (D) Sociology
C
53 In interrelationship with family members Home Economics is related to ------------ discipline (A)Sociology (B) Psychology (C) Biology (D) Economics
A
54 In law of heat as applied to toaster iron Home Economics is related to ------------ discipline (A)Mathematics (B) Physics (C) Psychology (D) Biology
B
55 Someone who studied Family and child development can work as (A) Childhood Caterer inschools (B) Interior decorator in schools (C) Childhood Food vendor (D) Early Childhoodeducator
D
56 Someone who studied Food and Nutrition can work as a (A) Caterer (B) Doctor (C) Nurse (D)Vendor
A
57 The scope of Home Economics include (A) Food and Nutrition Home Economics Clothingand textile (B) Food and Nutrition Home management Clothing and textile (C) Food andNutrition Home management Fabric cutting (D) Food and Nutrition Home Design Clothingand textile
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
HOME ECONOMICS
4
58 What are the basic philosophy of Home Economics (A) How to improve only goods andservices used by individuals families and communities (B) How to determine only the needsof the individual family institution and community (C) How to become responsiblemember of families and communities (D) How to determine the need and improveindividual family institution and community
D
59 What is the basic philosophy of Home Economics (A) How to improve only goods and servicesused by individuals families and communities (B) How to determine only the needs of theindividual family institution and community (C) How to become responsible member offamilies and communities (D) How to determine the need and improve individual familyinstitution and community
D
60 A pregnant woman is carrying -------------- in her womb (A) Baby (B) Child (C) Foetus (D)Pregnancy
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
LITERATURE IN ENGLISH
1
1 Conceits more rich in matter than in wordsBrags of his substance not of ornament (ActIISCIV) The structure of this dramatic speech is an example of (A) paradoxicalstructure (B) parallel structure (C) circular thought pattern (D) antithesis
D
2 A drama form that teaches godliness righteousness and goodwill to all men among rulers andordinary citizens is called----- (A) sentimental comedy (B) heroic tragi-comedy (C) heroicfarce (D) satire
A
3 A dramatic composition in which many or all the words are sung is called---- (A) Oratorio (B)Opera (C) Comedy (D) Concert
B
4 A humorous play based on an unrealistic situation is considered in drama as--- (A) comedy(B) tragedy (C) farce (D) burlesque
C
5 A play is a tragedy when------------------ (A) the author presents life as a hopeless adventure (B)the main character dies before the play ends (C) there is much bloodshed in the play (D) aweakness in the main character leads to his downfall
D
6 A play that ends on a sad note is a ----------- (A)tragicomedy (B) comedy (C) tragedy (D)farce
C
7 A play that stirs readers to pity fear and laughter is called (A) tragicomedy (B) farce (C)absurd (D) melodrama
A
8 A play that tells a single story has one setting and takes place within a specified period is saidto-------- (A) be heavily moralistic (B) be clearly cohesive (C) possess the three unities (D)have tragic elements
C
9 A play which emphasizes laughter and amusement at the expense of credibility is called----(A) cartoon (B) elegy (C) comedy (D) farce
D
10 A play with a single character is called (A) solo-drama (B) monodrama(C) play let (D) All of the above
D
11 A tragic figure is a character who is (a) worthy of emulation (b) ennobled though suffering (c)unbending and irredeemable (d) completely transformed
C
12 A type of drama that celebrates or satirizes the follies of characters is called---- (A) comedy(B) tragedy (C) farce (D) tragicomedy
A
13 A type of drama that highlights suspense and romantic sentiment with characters who areusually either clearly good or bad is called ----(A) farce (B) melodrama (C) comedy (D)burlesque
B
14 According to Aristotle the key to tragedy is the concept of (A) cartharsis (B) chorus (C)representation(D) plot
A
15 Aristotlersquos word for a tragic herorsquos shortcoming is (a) hubris (b) harmatia (c) denouement(d) dilemma
B
16 As a comic dramatic piece a farce makes use of improbable situations and characters that are(A) exaggerated (B) extravagant (C) understanding (D) poor
A
17 Both comedy and tragedy have ------------- (A) climax (B) tragic hero (C) stanza (D) happyending
A
18 Farce can be described as a dramatic piece marked by----------- (A) movement from serious tothe light-hearted mood (B) comic and exaggerated actions (C) actions devoid of meaning (D)gloomy actions with momentary reliefs B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
LITERATURE IN ENGLISH
2
19 In ----- the major character is selfish devilish wicked and exploitative (A) Comedy (B)Tragicomedy (C) Farce (D) Melodrama
D
20 In a play tragic responses are brought to a head through three elements (A) reversalrecognition and suffering (B) weakness suffering and resolution (C) flaw fear andrecognition (D) reversal suffering and conclusion
A
21 In de Graftrsquos Sons and Daughters James Ofosu is treated with (A) ridicule (B)dramatic irony (C) sarcasm (D) melodramatic spectacle
B
22 In drama a flashback occurs when (A) a characterrsquos inner mind isrevealed (B) the playwright supplies a missing link in a characterrsquos past (C) a character dropsan idea that hints at the future (D) a character drops an idea that hints at the concealed past
D
23 In drama light furniture custom and make-up are part of (A) stage deacutecor (B)stage architectonics (C) stage proxemics (D) kineaesthetics
A
24 In most of Shakespearersquos drama when a character speaks in aside the act is referred to as (A) stream of consciousness (B) sleep-walking (C) soliloquy (D) monologue
C
25 In Romeo and Juliet Romeo died (A) of self-poison (B) being murdered byFriar Laurence (C) the capulet (D) unknown assassins
A
26 In Sons and Daughters Fosuwa symbolizes (A) tradition and the old order (B) modernity (C)youthful exuberance (D) patriarchy
A
27 In Sons and Daughters the character of James Ofosu symbolizes (A) poverty (B) old values (C)new values (D) wealth
B
28 In tragedy everything must be artistically balanced this means that (A) the setting must bein one place (B) nothing superfluous is included and nothing essential omitted (C) characterand action are in equal ratio (D) there should be equal ratio of male and female characters
B29 -------------is a drama form which depicts royal wickedness of English kings and queens (A)
Heroic drama (B) Heroic tragicomedy (C) Heroic farce (D) SatireA
30 -----------is a drama form which ends happily after a number of initial tragic occurrences areresolved (A) Tragicomedy (B) Melodrama (C) Heroic Drama (D) Farce
A
31 --------------is the drama form which ends up on a note of happiness after some initial minorproblems (A) Tragedy (B) Farce (C) Heroic drama D Comedy
D
32 Joe de Graft was a prominent playwright from (A) Ghana (B) Nigeria (C) Cameroon (D) SierraLeone
A
33 Melodrama is the genre of drama which is characterized by emphasis on theatricality over(A) characterization (B) plot (C) setting (D) point of view A
34 One basic feature of melodrama is (A) humour (B) high-spirit (C)triumph of vice over virtue (D) overcome of evil by good
C
35 One of the peculiar features of drama in general is ------------ (A) humour (B) satire (C)sarcasm (D) action
D
36 Romeo and Juliet portrays the (A) chaos and passion of being in love (B) moral situation of thesociety (C) happiness of falling in love (D) evitability of fate
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
LITERATURE IN ENGLISH
3
37 The first part of a Greek tragedy is called a prologue and is also a playrsquos (A) envoy (B)exposition (C) rising action (D) climax
B
38 The most basic feature of drama is helliphelliphelliphelliphelliphelliphelliphelliphelliphellip (A) monologue (B) suspense (C) action(D) plot
C
39 The play Romeo and Juliet begins with (A) serious argument (B) sincere love (C) streetfight (D) secret marriage
C
40 The play Romeo and Juliet is an example of (A) realistic comedy (B) romantic comedy (C)satiric comedy (D) ironic comedy
B
41 The term farce is now used to cover a form of drama which employs (A) mistaken identity(B) slapstick (C) reversal of roles (D) romantic plot
A
42 The tragic herorsquos flaw is called (A) hubris (B) harmatia (C) caesura (D)peripeteia B
43 The word ldquocastrdquo in a play refers to (A) Three of the actors (B) A few of the actors (C) All theactors (D) An exclusive social class in the play
C
44 Theatre of the absurd portrays people whose sufferings seem (A) unfortunate (B)ridiculous (C) indefinite (D) sympathetic
B
45 Tragecomedies developed in which century (A) 18th (B) 19th (C) 20th (D) 21st C C46 When a play includes witty and graceful situation it can be classified as (A) comedy of
manners (B) high comedy (C) low comedy (D) comedy of the absurdB
47 When the plot of a play begins in the middle and only unfolds the past through flashback it iscalled (A) complex-plot (B) media res (C) prefiguration (D) None of theforegoing
B
48 Which of the following is true of Opera (A) They are plays with elaborate music (B) They areplays with elaborate songs (C) They are plays with dance (D) A and B
D
49 Which of the following statements best describes comedy (A) A play in which nobody dies(B) A play which makes us laugh (C) A play in which the hero is a clown (D) A play which endshappily
D
50 A story in which the characters are animals but behave like human beings is a (A) fable (B)fairy tale (C) folktale (D) parable
A
51 Considering the way Nnu Egorsquos life ends in The Joys of Motherhood the title of the novel canbe said to be (A) ironic (B) ambiguous (C) sarcastic (D) euphemistic
A
52 In lsquoThe Old Man and the Medalrsquo when in answer to the question if she had slept well Kelaraanswered ldquoI counted the matting in the roofrdquo she meant that (A) she slept very well (B) shewas awake when she should have been sleeping (C) she was thinking of mending the roof (D)there was a hole in the roof
B53 In a novel the antagonist is usually called a (A) narrator (B) hero (C) villain (D) clown C
54 In Nineteen Eighty-four the most important character in the story is____ (A) Winston Smith(B) Julia (C) OrsquoBrien (D) Big Brother
A
55 In Nineteen Eighty-Four the poet is (A) OrsquoBrien (B) Ampleforth (C) Syme (D) Martin B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
LITERATURE IN ENGLISH
4
56 In The Joys of Motherhood Nnaife enlisted in the army because (A) he was running awayfrom his wives and children (B) his white employers had gone home to Europe leaving himjobless (C) he wanted to prove that he was a man (D) he was looking for adventure
B
57 In The Joys of MotherhoodNnu Ego at one point tried to commit suicide because (A)someone used witchcraft on her (B) her only child had just died (C) she could not bear theshame of being barren (D) she did not like Nnaifersquos appearance
B
58 In The Old Man and the Medal when in answer to the question if she had slept well Kelaraanswered ldquoI counted the matting in the roofrdquo she meant that (A) she slept very well (B) shewas awake when she should have been sleeping (C) she was thinking of mending the roof (D)there was a hole in the roof
B
59 Nineteen Eighty-four can be described as a _____ (A) political satire (B) comedy (C)tragedy (D) chronicle
A
60 The expression ldquoto break the leg of an anteloperdquo which is found in The Old Man and the Medalmeans______ (A) hunting (B) travelling (C) marriage (D) fighting
D
61 The Joys of Motherhood suggests that (A) sometimes men are irresponsible as fathers andhusbands (B) children always grow up to help their parents (C) husbands always appreciatehardworking wives (D) women care for their children but neglect their husbands
A
62 The major thematic preoccupation of Joys of Motherhood is (A) politics (B) economicemancipation (C) motherhood (D) colonialism
C
63 ldquoThe piercing chill I feel My dead wifersquos comb in our bedroom Under my heelrdquo(trans ByHarold Henderson) What is the form of the above poem (A) haiku (B) triplet (C) tercet (D)quatrain A
64 A sonnet is a poem of_____ lines (A) 15 (B) 14 (C) 16 (D) 12 B
65 A stanza of three lines linked by rhyme is called a________ (A) couplet (B) ballad (C) tercet(D) quatrain
C
66 From David Rubadirirsquos ldquoAn African Thunderstormrdquo ldquoClouds come hurrying with the windrdquocontains an example of (A) alliteration (B) assonance (C) enjambment (D) rhyme
A
67 In poetry double rhyme can be used to bring out (A) irony (B) unity (C) theme (D)conclusion
A
68 The stanzas which make up a ballad usually consists of_____lines (A) 7 (B) 8 (C) 4 (D) 9 C
69 The tone in lsquoHeritage of Liberationrsquo is_____ (A) lamentative (B) invocatory (C) explanatory(D) melancholic
B
70 The typical rhyme scheme of an English sonnet is (A) abab cdcd efef gg (B) abab cdcd eeffgg (C) abcd abcd efef gg (D) abcc abcd efff gg
A
71 The words ldquoproverdquo and ldquoaboverdquo are examples of the rhyme called (A) exact (B) half (C) eye(D) slant
C
72 When words in poetry rise and fall in a measured way it is referred to as________ (A) rhyme(B) rhythm (C) repetition (D) euphemism
B
73 Which of the following is NOT a form of poetic expression (A) Octet (B) Lyric (C) Sonnet (D)Elegy
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
LITERATURE IN ENGLISH
5
74 ______is the deliberate use of exaggeration for the sole purpose of humour in poetry (A)Simile (B) Hyperbole (C) Onomatopoeia (D) Oxymoron
B
75 A character who remains unchanged in a story is described as (A) round (B) flat (C) stock(D) dynamic
B
76 A figure of speech which refers to the repetition of the initial consonant sounds of poetry witha rhythmic effect is called_______ (A) alliteration (B) assonance (C) apostrophe (D)euphemism
A
77 A literary work that appropriates matter andor manner from a previous work is (A) archetype (B) imitation (C) adaptation (D) sub-text
C
78 A tragic plot consists of (A) many people in various disastrous events (B) important incidents(C) noble and ordinary characters (D) a self-contained and concentrated single action
D
79 An expression or word which stands for a whole is called_______ (A) metonymy (B) allegory(C) synecdoche (D) repetition
C
80 Assonance refers to the _______ (A) repetition of alphabets in a line of poetry (B) repetitionof vowels in a line (C) agreement of vowel sounds in a line (D) agreement of consonantsounds in a line
B
81 Characters whose role contribute to the movement of plot are called (A)Minor characters (B) free characters (C) central characters (D) round characters
C
82 Identical vowel sounds create one of the following (A) euphony (B) cacophony (C)alliteration (D) assonance
D
83 Identify the odd one out of the following helliphelliphelliphelliphelliphellip (A) Aside (B) Costume (C) Narrative(D) Stage
C
84 Identify the odd one out of the following (A) Deacutecor (B) costume (C) Make-up (D) Mime D
85 In a novel the location of the story is referred to as the (A) stage (B) exposition (C) subject(D) setting
D
86 Point out the odd item (A) Macbeth (B) Twelfth Night (C) The Concubine (D) Romeo andJuliet
C
87 Pregnant clouds Ride stately on its back The clouds are described as ldquopregnantrdquo because (A)no one knows what is in them (B) they look like a fat woman (C) they bring rainfall (D)they move clumsily
C
88 The antagonist in a tragedy is ------------ (A) any character in the tragedy (B) the wife of theprotagonist (C) the character who provides comic relief (D) the character set in opposition tothe main character D
89 The device whereby the narrator recalls something that happened in the past is (A)foreshadowing (B) flashback (C) epiphany (D) prologue
B
90 The first person narrative point of view is characterized by the frequent use of (A) presenttense (B) singular nouns (C) past tense (D) the pronouns ldquoIrdquo and ldquowerdquo
D
91 The most mimetic term in critical vocabulary is (A) plot (B) imitation (C)character (D) action
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
LITERATURE IN ENGLISH
6
92 The structure of a story which shows the cause and effect of events is the (A) denouement (B)climax (C) imagery (D) plot
D
93 When one scene leads to another in inextricable chain of relationships it is called (A)episodic play (B) caused play (C) metaphysical play (D) All of the above
B
94 I would Love you ten years before the Flood And you should if you please refuse Tillthe conversion of the Jews The literary device used in the above extract is (A) allusion (B)innuendo (C) satire (D) archetype A
95 ldquoThat pierced the fearful hollow of thine earrdquo is an example of (A) relativeclause (B) figure of speech (C) personification (D) noun clause D
96 ldquoWilt thou be gone It is not yet near day It was the nightingale and not the lark That piercedthe fearful hollow of thine earrdquo The first sentence here is an example of (A)interrogative sentence (B) apostrophe (C) rhetorical statement (D) request
C
97 From Andrew Marvellrsquos ldquoTo His Coy Mistressrdquo Had we but world enough and time Thiscoyness lady were no crime We could sit down and think which way To walk and pass ourlong loversquos day This poem opens in the lines above like a (A) Sonnet (B) praise poem (C)ballad (D) dramatic monologue
D
98 Identify the odd term (A) Enjambment (B) Rhyme (C) Plot (D) Alliteration C
99 In the village Screams of delighted children Toss and turn In the din of whirling wind Women Babies clinging on their backs Dart about In and out Madly The Wind whistlesby Whilst trees bend to let it pass In the above extract the movement of the women is (A)leisurely (B) hurried (C) orderly (D) slow
B100 Tossing up things on its tail Like a madman chasing nothing These lines contain an example
of a (A) metaphor (B) simile (C) metonymy (D) paradoxB
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
MATHEMATICS
1
1 (128 x 104 ) divide (64 x 102 ) equals(A) 2 x 10-5 (B) 2 x 10-1 (C) 2 x 100 (D) 2 x 101 (E) 2 x 105
D
2 A man and wife went to buy an article costing N400 The woman had 10 of the cost andthe man 40 of the remainder How much did they have altogether(A) N216 (B) N200 (C) N184 (D) N144 (E) N100
C
3 Add the same number to the numerator and denominator of 318 If the resulting fraction isfrac12 then the number added is(A) 13 (B) 14 (C) 15 (D) 12 (E) 11
D
4 After getting a rise of 15 a manrsquos new monthly salary is N345 How much per monthdid he earn before the increase(A) N330 (B) N39675 (C) N300 (D) N29325 (E) N360
C
5 Assuming loge 44 = 14816 and loge 77 = 20142 then the value of loge frac14 is(A) 05326 (B) 34958 (C) 04816 (D) 00142 (E) 13594
A
6 Evaluate ൫2 + 4ଵଶ൯ଶ
(A) frac14 (B) 54 (C) 94 (D) 4 (E) 9
C
7 Evaluate correct to 4 decimal places 82751 x 0015(A) 88415 (B) 124127 (C) 1241265 (D) 124120(E) 1141265
B
8 Express 130 kilometres per second in metres per hour(A) 78 x 105 (B) 468 x 106 (C) 7800000(D) 468 x 106 (E) 780 x 10-6
B
9 Find the square root of 170-20radic30 (A) 2radic10-5radic3 (B) 3radic5-8radic6 (C) 2radic5-5radic6 (D) 5radic5-2radic6 (E) 5radic10-2radic3
C
10 If (25)x-1 = 64(5frasl2)6 then x has the value(A) 7 (B) 4 (C) 32 (D) 64 (E) 5
B
11 If a circular paper disc is trimmed in such a way that its circumference is reduced in theratio 25 in what ratio is the surface area reduced(A) 8125 (B) 25 (C) 825 (D) 425 (E) 410
D
12 In base ten the number 101101 (base 2) equals(A) 15 (B) 4 (C) 45 (D) 32 (E) 90
C
13 Simplifyହ ୶ ଶହ౮షభ
ଵଶହ౮శభ
(A) 5ଶ୶ ଵ (B) 5୶ାଶ (C) 5ହ (D) 5୶ାଵ (E) 5ଷ
C
14 Simplify(ଵ)൫రయାଵమళ൯
(మଵమ)
(A) ଶଷ (B) ଵଷ (C) ଶ + 1 (D) a (E) ଵଷ
E
15 Simplify ଵଶଶℎଵଷ divide ହଶℎଷ
(A) ( ℎ)ଶ (B) ହଶℎ (C) ହସℎଽ (D)మ
ఱళ(E)
ଵ
మమ
A
16 Simplify 2ହ
ଵଶminus 1
x
ହ
(A) 16 (B) 1320 (C) 1130 (D) 94 (E) 53
A
17 Solve the system of equations 2௫ା௬ = 32 3ଷ௬௫ = 27(A) (3 2) (B) (-3 2) (C) (3 -2) (D) (-3 -2) (E) (2 2)
A
18 The annual profits of a transport business were divided between the two partners A and Bin the ratio 35 If B receives N3000 more than A the total profit was(A) N5000 (B) N1800 (C) N12000 (D) N24000 (E) N8000
C
19 The diameter of a metal rod is measured as 2340cm to four significant figures What is D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
MATHEMATICS
2
the maximum error in the measurement(A) 005cm (B) 05cm (C) 0045cm (D) 0005cm (E) 0004cm
20 The ratio of the price of a loaf of bread to the price of a packet of sugar in 1975 was r t in1980 the price of a loaf went up by 25 and that of a packet of sugar by 10 Their newratio is now(A) 40r50t (B) 44r50t (C) 50r44t (D) 55r44t (E) 44r55t
C
21 The sum of 378 and 113 is less than the difference between 38 and 123 by (A) 323 (B)5frac14 (C) 6frac12 (D) 0 (E) 818
C
22 Two distinct sectors in the same circle subtend 1000 and 300 respectively at the centre ofthe circle Their corresponding arcs are in the ratio
24 What is the number whose logarithm to base 10 is 3482(A) 2236 (B) 02228 (C) 2235 (D)
2237 (E) 002229
E
25 When a dealer sells a bicycle for N81 he makes a profit of 8 What did he pay for thebicycle
(A) N73 (B) N7452 (C) N75 (D) N7552 (E)N8748
C
26 Write the decimal number 39 to base 2(A) 100111 (B) 110111 (C) 111001 (D) 100101 (E) 195
A
27 A father is now three times as old as his son Twelve years ago he was six times as old ashis son How old are the son and the father(A) 20 and 45 (B) 100 and 150 (C) 45 and 65 (D) 35 and 75 (E) 20 and 60
E
28 A steel ball of radius 1cm is dropped into a cylinder of radius 2cm and height 4cm If thecylinder is now filled with water what is the volume of the water in the cylinder(A) cm3ߨ443 (B) 12 cm3ߨ (C) 383 cm3ߨ (D) 403 cm3ߨ (E) 3233 cm3ߨ
A
29 Find a two-digit number such that three times the tens digit is 2 less than twice the unitsdigit and twice the number is 20 greater than the number obtained by reversing the digits(A) 24 (B) 42 (C) 74 (D) 47 (E) 72
D
30 Find the roots of the equation minusଶݔ10 minusݔ13 3 = 0(A) x = 35 or ndashfrac12 (B) x = 310 or -1 (C) x = -310 or 1 (D) x = 15 or -32 (E) x= -15 or 32
E
31 If a function is defined by +ݔ) 1) = minusଶݔ3 +ݔ 4 find (0)(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 0 (D) 8 (E) 2
D
32 If sin x equals cosine x what is x in radians(A) π2 (B) π3 (C) π4 (D) π6 (E) π12
C
33 If x2 + 4 = 0 then x =(A) 4 (B) -4 (C) 2 (D) -2 (E) none of these
E
34 In a geometric progression the first term is 153 and the sixth term is 1727 the sum of thefirst four terms is(A) 8603 (B) 6803 (C) 6083 (D) 8063 (E) 68027
B
35 List all integer values of x satisfying the inequality minus1 lt minusݔ2 5 le 5(A) 2345 (B) 25 (C) 345 (D) 234 (E) 34
C
36 Make c the subject of the equation (+ ) +ହ
ௗminus 2 = 0 D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
MATHEMATICS
3
(A) = 2minus 5 minus (B) = 5 minus 2minus (C) = 5 minus 2minus (D) = 2minus 5 minus (E) = 2minus minus 5
(C) ndash +ݔ) +ݔ)(5 1) (D) minusݔ) 5)(1 minus (ݔ (E) +ݔ) 5)(1 minus (ݔ
D
41 The quantity (x + y) is a factor of A(A) ଶݔ + ଶݕ (B) minusଷݔ ଷݕ (C) minusଶݔ2 +ݕݔ3 minusଶݕ +ݔ 1(D) ଷݔ2 + minusݕଶݔ2 +ݕݔ minusݔ3 ଶݕ + ݕ3 (E) minusହݔ ହݕ
D
42 The set of values of x and y which satisfies the equations ltigtxltsupgt2ltsupgt - y - 1 = 0ltigt and ltigty ndash 2x + 2 = 0ltigt(A) 1 0 (B) 1 1 (C) 2 2 (D) 0 2 (E) 1 2
A
43 The solution of the equation minusଶݔ =ݔ2 8 is(A) x = 0 or 2 (B) x = -2 or 4 (C) x = 2 (D) x = -4 (E) x = 2 or 4
B
44 The solution of the quadratic equation ଶݔ + +ݔ = 0 is given by
(A) =ݔplusmnξ మସ
ଶ(B) =ݔ
plusmnξ మସ
ଶ(C) =ݔ
plusmnξ మସ
ଶ
(D) =ݔplusmnradicమାସ
ଶ(E) =ݔ
plusmnradicమସ
ଶ
A
45 The sum of the root of a quadratic equation isହ
46 Three numbers x y and z are connected by the relationships =ݕସ
ଽ+ݔ 1 and =ݖ
ସ
ଽ+ݕ 1
If x = 99 find z(A) 613 (B) 20 (C) 21 (D) 17649 (E) None of the above
C
47 What factor is common to all the expressions minusଶݔ ݔ ଶݔ2 + minusݔ 1 and minusଶݔ 1(A) x (B) x ndash 1 (C) x + 1 (D) No common factor (E) (2x ndash 1)
D
48 A canal has rectangular cross section of width 10cm and breadth 1m If water of uniformdensity 1gm cm-3 flows through it at a constant speed of 1000mm per minute the adjacentsea is
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
MATHEMATICS
4
(A) 100000 (B) 1000000 (C) 120000 (D) 30000 (E) 35000049 A cuboid has a diagonal of length 9cm and a square base of side 4cm What is its height
50 A cylinder of height h and radius r is open at one end Its surface area is(A) 2πrh (B) πr2h (C) 2πrh+2πr2 (D) πrh+πr2 (E) 2πrh+πr2
E
51 A pyramid is constructed on a cuboid The figure has(A) 12 faces (B) 13 vertices (C) 14 edges (D) 15 edges (E) 16 edges
E
52 A quadrant of a circle of radius 6cm is cut away from each corner of a rectangle 25cm longand 18cm wide Find the perimeter of the remaining figure(A) 38cm (B) (38 + (ߨ12 (C) (86 minus (ߨ12 (D) (86minus (ߨ6 (E) (86 +(ߨ12
B
53 A rectangular picture 6cm by 8cm is enclosed by a frame frac12cm wide Calculate the area ofthe frame(A) 15sqcm (B) 20sqcm (C) 13sqcm (D) 16sqcm (E) 17sqcm
A
54 A regular hexagon is constructed inside a circle of diameter 12cm The area of thehexagon is
56 A solid cylinder of radius 3cm has a total surface area of 36πcm2 Find its height(A) 2cm (B) 3cm (C) 4cm (D) 5cm (E) 6cm
B
57 A square of cardboard is taped at the perimeter by a piece of ribbon 20cm long What isthe area of the board(A) 20sqcm (B) 25sqcm (C) 36sqcm (D) 100sqcm (E) 16sqcm
B
58 A triangle has angles 300 150 and 1350 the side opposite to the angle 300 is length 6cmThe side opposite to the angle 1350 is equal to
61 Find the area of the curved surface of a cone whose base radius is 6cm and whoseheight is 8cm (Take π = 227) (A) 18857cm2 (B) 1320cm2 (C) 188cm2 (D) 18808cm2 (E) 100cm2
A
62 Find the total surface area of a solid cone of radius 2radic3cm and slanting side 4radic3cm
67 PQRS is a cyclic quadrilateral with PQ as diameter of the circle If PQS = 150 findQRS(A) 750 (B) 37frac120 (C) 127frac120 (D) 1050 (E) None of the above
D
68 The difference between the length and width of a rectangle is 6cm and the area is135cm2 What is the length(A) 25cm (B) 18cm (C) 15cm (D) 24cm (E) 27cm
C
69 At what value of x does the function y= -3 ndash 2x +x2 attain a minimum value(A) 4 (B) 2 (C) -1 (D) -4 (E) 1
84 7 pupils of average age 12 years leave a class of 25 pupils of average age 14 years If 6new pupils of average age 11 years join the class what is the average age of the pupils nowin the class(A) 13years (B) 12years 7frac12months (C) 13years 5months (D) 13years 10 months(E) 11 years
A
85 A bag contains 4 white balls and 6 red balls Two balls are taken from the bag withoutreplacement What is the probability that they are both red(A) 13 (B) 29 (C) 215 (D) 15 (E) 35
E
86 Bola chooses at random a number between 1 and 300 What is the probability that thenumber is divisible by 4(A) 13 (B) frac14 (C) 15 (D) 4300 (E) 1300
B
87 Determine the mean monthly salary of 50 employees of a company from the followingfrequency distribution
88 Find the mean deviation of 1 2 3 and 4(A) 25 (B) 20 (C) 10 (D) 15 (E) 12
C
89 If M represents the median and D the mode of the measurements 5 9 3 5 7 5 8then (M D) is(A) (6 5) (B) (5 8) (C) (5 7) (D) (5 5) (E) (7 5)
D
90 In a basket of fruits there are 6 grapes 11 bananas and 13 oranges If one fruit is chosen atrandom what is the probability that the fruit is either a grape or a banana
(A) 1730 (B) 1130 (C) 630 (D) 530 (E) 73
A
91 In a school 220 students offer Biology or Mathematics or both 125 offer Biology and 110Mathematics How many offer Biology but not Mathematics
(A) 95 (B) 80 (C) 125 (D) 110 (E) 120
D
92 In a school there are 35 students in Class 2A and 40 in class 2B The mean score for class2A in an English literature examination is 600 and that for 2B in the same paper is 525Find to one place of decimals the mean for the combined classes
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
MATHEMATICS
7
(A) 15 (B) 560 (C) 562 (D) 563 (E) 56593 In a soccer competition in one season a club had scored the following goals 2 0 3 3 2
1 4 0 0 5 1 0 2 2 1 3 1 4 and 1 The mean median and mode are respectively(A) 1 18 and 15 (B) 18 15 and 1 (C) 18 1 and 15 (D) 15 1 and 18 (E)15 18 and 1
B
94 In how many ways can 2 students be selected from a group of 5 students in a debatingcompetition (A) 25 ways (B) 10 ways (C) 15 ways (D) 20 ways (E)16 ways
D
95 The arithmetic mean of the ages of 30 pupils in a class is 153 years One boy leaves theclass and one girl is enrolled and the new average age of 30 pupils in the class becomes152 years How much older is the boy than the girl
(A) 30 years (B) 6 years (C) 9 years (D) 3 years (E) 1 year
D
96 The letters of the word ldquoMATRICULATIONrdquo are cut and put into a box One letter isdrawn at random from the box Find the probability of drawing a vowel(A) 713 (B) 513 (C) 613 (D) 813 (E) 413
C
97 The mean of the numbers 3 6 4 x and 7 is 5 Find the standard deviation
(A) radic2 (B) radic3 (C) 2 (D) 3 (E) 5
A
98 The weights of 30 new-born babies are given as follows 6 9 5 7 6 7 5 8 9 5 7 58 7 8 7 56 5 7 6 9 9 7 8 8 7 8 9 8 The mode is(A) 6 (B) 5 (C) 8 (D) 7 (E) 10
D
99 Thirty boys and x girls sat for a test The mean of the boysrsquo scores and that of the girlswere respectively 6 and 8 Find x if the total score was 468(A) 38 (B) 24 (C) 36 (D) 22 (E) 41
C
100 Two fair dice are rolled What is the probability that both show up the same number ofpoints (A) 136 (B) 736 (C) frac12 (D) 13 (E) 16
E
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
BIOLOGY
1
1 ____________ is an end product of digestion of fat (A) Glucose (B) Fatty acid (C) Amino acid (D)Fructose (E) Galactose
B
2 Asexual reproduction in Hydra sp is commonly by ____ (A) Binary fission b Fragmentation cBudding d Separation (E) Regeneration
C
3 Benedictrsquos solution is used to test for ___ (A) Carbohydrate (B) Lipid (C) Protein (D) Vitamins (E)Minerals
C
4 Pepsin is an enzyme that digests ___ (A) Starch (B) Sugar (C) Lipid (D) Fat (E) Protein E
5 The breakdown of large organic molecules into smaller simpler soluble molecules is called ndashndash (A)Excretion (B) Digestion (C) Absorption (D) Reproduction (E) Ingestion
B
6 The enzyme that curdles milk is_____________ (A) Pepsin (B) Ptyalin (C) Renin (D) Amylase(E) Trypsin
C
7 Which is the enzyme that begins digestion of starch in the mouth (A) Ptyalin (B) Maltase (C)Amylase (D) Sucrase (E) Lactase
A
8 A group of interacting populations in a particular habitat can be described as ___(A) biome (B)biosphere (C) community (D) population ecosystem (E) environment
C
9 A habitat can be defined as ___(A) a group of animals and plants living within a commonboundary (B) a place in which plants and animals live (C) a community living together in thesame place (D) different areas with a common animal and plant population (E) None of theabove
B
10 A symbiotic relationship in which one organism is completely dependent on another organism iscalled ____ (A) Parasitism (B) Commensalisms (C) Mutualism (D) Saprophytism (E) Competition
A
11 An association between two organisms where both members benefit is known as ___ (A)symbiosis (B) commensalism (C) ammensalism (D) mutualism (E) saprophytism
D
12 An instrument used in measuring the speed of wind is (A) a barometer (B) a wind gauge (C) awind vane (D) an anemometer (E) a hydrometer
D
13 At times hyenas feed on remains of animals killed by other animals At other times hyenasthemselves kill animals for food Therefore hyenas may best be described as ndashndash (A) scavengersand herbivores (B) scavengers and parasites (C) scavengers and predators (D) herbivores andpredators e herbivores and parasites
C
14 Autecology is defined as the study of interrelationship of (A) many species of organisms and theirenvironment (B) same species of organisms and their environment (C) organisms in theatmosphere (D) organisms under the earthrsquos surface (E)None of the above
B
15 Autotrophs are also described as ndashndash (A) Consumers (B) Decomposers (C) Carnivores (D)Producers (E) Herbivores
D
16 If three 30cm lengths of glass tubing are tightly packed with clay sand and loamy soilsrespectively and then stood in a beaker of water for one week the level of water will be (A)Lowest in the tube with clay (B) The same in all the tubes (C) Lowest in the tube with loamy soil(D) Highest in the tube with sandy soil (E) Lowest in the tube with sandy soil
E
17 In a community bacteria and fungi are referred to as ndashndash (A) producers (B) consumers (C)scavengers (D) tertiary consumers (E) decomposers
E
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
BIOLOGY
2
18 Puddles Ponds Rivers Seas and Oceans are grouped together as ndashndash (A) Ecosystem (B) Biosphere(C) Aquatic habitat (D) Terrestrial habitat (E) Marine environment
C
19 The feeding pattern in an ecosystem is calledhelliphelliphelliphellip (A) Pyramid of energy (B) Food web (C)Food chain (D) Pyramid of member (E) Ecology
B
20 The orderly changes that occur slowly and naturally in plant and animal communities in a givenarea over a period of time until a stable community is established is called ndashndash (A)Transformational change (B) ecological succession (C) survival of the fittest (D) weatherchange (E) environmental change
B
21 The sign + is used to indicate an association where an organism gains while 0 is used where anorganism is unaffected An association indicated as +0 is known as ndashndash (A) predation (B)commensalism (C) parasitism (D) competition (E) ammensalism
B
22 The sum total of all the roles an organism plays in a habitat is referred to as (A) ecology (B)ecosystem (C) habit (D) habitat (E) niche
E
23 Which of the following factors does not control population growth (A) Food shortage (B)Emigration (C) Predation (D) Abundance of food (E) Natural disaster
D
24 Which of the following statements best describe an ecosystem (A) A place where livingorganisms can live successfully (B) The interactions between living organism in a habitat and thenon-living part of the environment (C) A biological association between a plant and ananimal (D) A system of grouping organisms in a habitat (E) None of the above
B
25 Which of these represents a correct food chain in nature (A) Crustacea rarr diatom rarrfish rarr man (B) Diatom rarr crustacea rarr fish rarr man (C) Fish rarr crustacea rarr man rarr diatom (D) Diatom rarr fish rarr crustacea rarr man (E) None of the above
B
26 ___________ is involved in the mechanism of expelling water from the protozoans during theprocess of____________ (A) Contractile vacuole Osmoregulation (B) Contractile vacuolePhagocytosis (C) Food vacuole Ultrafilteration (D) Food vacuole Pinocytosis (E) Cell membranePinocytosis
A
27 ______________ is used for photosynthesis in Euglena sp (A) Reservoir (B) Nucleus (C)Chloroplast (D) Paramylon granule (E) Pellicle
C
28 A heart with four chambers is found in______________ (A) Fishes (B) Insects (C) Snails (D) Rats(E) Worms
D
29 Animal cell does not have a ____________ (A) Membrane (B) Nucleolus (C) Food Vacuole (D) Cellwall (E) Golgi body
D
30 Beriberi is caused by deficiency of vitamin_____________ (A) A (B) D (C) K (D) E (E) B E
31 Compound eyes are found in which of the animals below (A) Rat (B) Cow (C) Snail (D) Ant (E) Jellyfish
D
32 Dental formula of man consist of (A) i 22 c22 pm22 m33 (B) i11 c22 pm22 m33 (C)i22 c11 pm32 m22 (D) i22 c11 pm22 m22 (E) i22 c11 pm22 m33
E
33 During digestion of food passage of chyme through the duodenum enables it to become awatery liquid called__________ (A) Digested food (B) Chymatic product (C) Chyle (D) Solublefood (E) Dissolved food
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
BIOLOGY
3
34 Emulsification of fat and oils is caused by______________ (A) Lipase (B) Ptyalin (C) Trypsin (D)Maltase (E) Bile
E
35 Every mammal has (A) One Kidney (B) Two pairs of Kidneys (C) One pair of Kidneys (D) FourKidneys (E) None of the above
C
36 Faeces is removed from the body in a process called (A) Digestion (B) Egestion (C) Elimination(D) Excretion (E) Evacuation
B
37 Glomerulus is found in the______________ (A) Ovary (B) Testes (C) Brain (D) Kidney e)Stomach
D
38 In the respiratory system of man diffusion of gases takes place in (A) Trachea (B) Bronchi (C)Alveoli (D) Bronchioles (E) None of the above
C
39 Incisors are used for (A) Tearing food (B) Cutting food (C) Grinding food (D) Shearing food (E)Crushing food
B
40 Nematocysts are produced by special cells found in (A) Nematodes (B) Annelids (C)Platyhelminthes (D) Cnidarians (Coelenterates) (E) Arthropods
D
41 One of the following is not a function of the skin (A) Excretion (B) Protection (C) Homeostasis(D) Reproduction (E) Absorption of vitamin D
D
42 Open circulatory system is found in _____________ (A) Lizard (B) Toad (C) Fish (D) Insect (E)Chicken
D
43 Ovary is to the female reproductive system as________ is to the male reproductive system (A)Penis (B) Urethra (C) Testis (D) Cowperrsquos gland (E) Prostate gland
C
44 Possession of pinna is a characteristic feature of (A) Mammals (B) Reptiles (C) Fishes (D)Amphibians (E) All of the above
A
45 Tadpoles respire with (A) Lungs (B) Nostril (C) Gills (D) Spiracles (E) Siphon C
46 The excretory organ in the earthworm ishelliphelliphelliphellip (A) Malphigian tubule (B) Stoma (C)Nephriduim (D) Flame cells (E) Gills
C
47 The nerves that connect the eyes to the brain are called ndashndash (A) Cranial nerves (B) Optical nerves(C) Sensory nerves (D) Olfactory nerves (E) Optic nerves
E
48 The nerves that connect the eyes to the brain are called ndashndash (A) Cranial nerves (B) Optical nerves(C) Sensory nerves (D) Olfactory nerves (E) Optic nerves
E
49 The parasympathetic nervous system is involved in (A) Dilation of pupil of the eye (B) Controlthe activities of smooth muscles (C) Dilatation of the skin (D) Controls thinking in mammals (E)Increased metabolism
B
50 The part of the alimentary system of a bird where grinding of food occurs is (A) Crop (B)Stomach (C) Cloaca (D) Rectum (E) Gizzard
E
51 The part of the ear that contains receptors that convert the fluid motion into action potential iscalled ndashndash (A) Auditory nerve (B) Ossicles (C) Semicircular canals (D) Cochlea (E) Oval window
D
52 The thoracic region of the vertebral column is made up of __________ vertebrae (A) 5 (B) 7 (C) 4(D) 12 (E) 10
D
53 Which of the animal below is poikilothemic (A) Toad (B) Chicken (C) Bat (D) Lion (E) Dove A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
BIOLOGY
4
54 Which of the structures below is found in reptiles and birds (A) Scales (B) Legs (C) Beaks (D)Claws (E) All of the above
A
55 Which of these animals is photosynthetic (A) Paramecium sp (B) Amoeba sp (C) Euglena sp(D) Hydra sp (E) None of the above
C
56 Which of these organs regulate the amount of sugar in the blood (A) Liver (B) Kidney (C) Spleen(D) Lung (E) Pancreas
E
57 The basis for growth and asexual reproduction is (A) meiosis (B) cytokinesis (C) mitosis (D)Cytogenesis (E) Cell elongation
C
58 The process which ensures that the chromosome number for each species of organism remainconstant from generation to generation is called (A) fission (B) fusion (C) meiosis (D) mitosis(E) oogenesis
C
59 Which of the following is a major factor in variation among organisms (A) Inbreeding (B)Backcrossing (C) Test crossing (D) Sexual reproduction (E) Gene dominance
D
60 ____________ is an example of an invertebrate (A) Millipede (B) Fish (C) Toad (D) Snake (E) Skin A
61 ____________ is the odd one in the list below (A) Mosquito (B) Bee (C) Moth (D) Tick (E)Beetle
63 _____________ is an example of a unicellular organism (A) Amoeba sp (B) Hydra sp (C) Ascarissp (D) Taenia sp (E) Obelia sp
A
64 _____________ level is the highest level of organization in animals (A) System (B) Tissue (C)Organ (D) Cellular (E) Protoplasmic
A
65 Crocodiles are _____________ (A) Fishes (B) Amphibians (C) Mammals (D) Birds (E) None of theabove
E
66 The mutation theory of organic evolution was propounded by (A) Gregor Mendel (B) Hugo deVrics (C) Jean Lamarck (D) Charles Darwin (E) Robert Hookes
D
67 The theory of natural selection was developed by (A) Lamarck and Darwin (B) Darwin andWallace (C) Wallace and Mendel (D) Mendel and Lamarck (E) Hooke and Darwin
B
68 Which is the odd animal in the list below (A) Lizards (B) Snakes (C) Turtles (D) Tortoise (E) Toad E
69 Which of the following sources is not an evidence of evolution (A) Fossil records B Comparativeanatomy C Comparative embryology (D) Human behavior (E) None of the above
D
70 _______________ is an endoparasite (A) Earthworm (B) Tapeworm (C) Mosquito (D) Housefly (E)Tsetse fly
B
71 The causative agent of bird flu is a (A) Virus (B) Bacteria (C) Fungus (D) Protozoan (E) Ricketsia A
72 In lower plants like mosses the structure which performs the functions of roots of higher plantsis called (A) root hairs (B) rootlets (C) hyphae (D) rhizoids (E) thalli
D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
BIOLOGY
5
73 One common feature of fungi algae mosses and ferns is that they are (A) photosynthetic (B)show alternation of generation (C) can survive harsh weather conditions (D) have no seeds (E)conjugate
D
74 The following are major groups of the plant kingdom EXCEPT (A) Bryophyta (B) Chlorophyta (C)Pteridophyta (D) Spermatophyta (E) Thallophyta
B
75 _____________is a form of sexual reproduction (A) Grafting (B) Budding (C) Fission (D)Conjugation (E) Regeneration
D
76 Sexual reproduction in Spirogyra is called (A) Fertilization (B) Symbiosis (C) Conjugation (D)Reproduction (E) Mutualism
C
77 The carrier of the hereditary characters in plants is the (A) Cell (B) nucleus (C) chromosome (D)chloroplast (E) gene
E
78 All are necessary for photosynthesis except_____________ (A) Water (B) Chlorophyll (C)Sunlight (D) Carbon dioxide (E) Oxygen
E
79 Growing yam tendrils climb for support This growth response is (A) haptotropism (B) geotropism(C) phototropism (D) hydrotropism (E) chemotropism
A
80 Which is the correct order in an evolutionary sequence for the following plant groups (A)Bacteria rarr ferns rarr algae rarr mosses rarr seed plants (B) Bacteria rarr ferns rarr mosses rarr algae rarr seed plants (C) Bacteria rarr algae rarr mosses rarr ferns rarr seed plants (D) Bacteria rarr mosses rarr algae rarr ferns rarr seed plants (E) Seed plants rarr ferns rarr mosses rarr algae rarr bacteria
C
81 ------------ is not part of the whorls of a flower(A)calyx (B) corolla (C) androecium (D)Antheridium (E)Gynoecium
D
82 A dry fruit which can break into several parts each containing one seed is a (A) caryopsis (B)aggregate fruit (C) legume (D) follicle (E) schizocarp
E
83 A dry indehiscent winged fruit formed from one carpel is known as a (A) Schizocarp (B)Caryopsis (C) Samara (D) nut (E) Follicle
C
84 A true fruit is formed from (A) fertilized ovary and other floral parts (B) a fertilized ovary (C) afertilized ovary and calyx (D) a fertilized and fleshy receptacle (E) an unfertilized ovary and otherfloral parts
B
85 Irish potato is a (A) bulb (B) tap root (C) rhizome (D) root tuber (E) stem tuber D
86 One major difference between an Angiosperm and a Gymnosperm is that seeds in Gymnospermsare borne in (A) Cones (B) fruits (C) flowers (D) ovary (E) ovule
A
87 Reserved food material in the seed is stored in the (A) epicarp (B) endocarp (C) endosperm (D)mesocarp (E) all parts
C
88 What type of fruit is a mango fruit (A) Berry (B) Hesperidium (C) Drupe (D) Nut (E) Mango fruit C
89 Which of the following species exhibit an aerial root (A) Ficus (B) Centrosema (C) Antigonon(D) Lantana (E) Dahlia
A
90 Which of these plants has an emerginate apex (A) Bauhinia (B) Pistia (C) Ixora (D) Musa (E)Terminalia
A
91 Which plant stores food in its roots (A) Cassava (B) cocoyam (C) Irish potato (D) onion (E)yam
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
BIOLOGY
6
92 An example of Vascular tissues is -------------- (A) Trichome (B) Xylem (C) Stomata (D) Epidermis(E) Parenchyma
B
93 The living part of phloem tissue is (A) sieve plate (B) companion cell (C) sieve element (D)cytoplasm
B
94 Which of the following tissues are made up of dead cells (A) meristems (B) xylem vessels (C)cambium (D) mesophyll (E) palisade
B
95 A plant vacuole contains (A) dissolved chemicals sugars salts pigments and crystals (B) wasteproducts of metabolism DNA RNA and crystals (C) pigments crystals DNA and waste productsof metabolism (D) RNA DNA sugars and salts
A
96 Excessive loss of water in plants is known as (A) Osmosis (B) Osmoregulation (C) Transpiration (D)Excretion
C
97 Starch granules in plants is equivalent to _____________ granules in animals (A) Food (B)Chromatin (C) Lysosome (D) Mitochondria (E) Glycogen
E
98 Which of the following is a plant excretory product (A) Oil (B) Cytokinin (C) Resin (D)amino acids (E) gibberellins
C
99 A plant which grows on another without causing harm to the host plant is called ndashndash (A) aparasite (B) a saprophyte (C) an epiphyte (D) a predator (E) a prey
C
100 Plants which can survive in places where water supply is limited are (A) bryophytes (B)mesophytes (C) xerophytes (D) hydrophytes (E) pteridophytes
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
1
1 200 cm3 of air was passed over heated copper in a syringe several times to produce copper (II)oxide When cooled the final volume of air recorded was 158 cm3 Estimate the percentage ofoxygen in the air (A) 31 (B) 27 (C) 21 (D) 19
C
2 30cm3 of oxygen at 10 atmosphere pressures is placed in a 20dm3 container Calculate the newpressure if temperature is kept constant (A) 67 atm (B) 150 atm (C) 600 (D) 660
B
3 Bond dissociation energy of 500 KJ mol-1 may be assigned to (A) ionic bonding (B) covalentbonding (C) hydrogen bonding D) metallic bonding (E) van-der-waals bonding
A
4 A mixture of iron and sulphur can be separated by dissolving the mixture in __ (A) steam (B)dilute hydrochloric acid (C) dilute sodium hydroxide (D) benzene
B
5 A mixture of sand ammonium chloride and sodium chloride is best separated by __ (A)sublimation followed by addition of water and filtration (B) sublimation followed by addition ofwater and evaporation (C) addition of water followed by filtration and sublimation (D) additionof water followed by crystallization and sublimation
A
6 A pure solid usually melts __ (A) over a wide range of temperature (B) over a narrow range oftemperature (C) at a lower temperature than the impure one (D) at the same temperature asthe impure one
B
7 A small quantity of solid ammonium chloride was heated gently in a test tube the solidgradually disappeared to produce a mixture of two gases Later a white cloudy deposit wasobserved on the cooler part of the test tube The ammonium chloride is said to haveundergone __ (A) distillation (B) sublimation (C) precipitation (D) evaporation
B
8 CH4 has this geometry (A) trigonal (B) planar (C) tetrahedral (D) octahedral (E) linear C
9 Chlorine consisting of two isotopes of mass numbers 35 and 37 has an atomic mass of 355The relative abundance of the isotope of mass number 37 is ___ ( A)20 (B) 25 (C) 50 (D) 75
B
10 Elements P Q R S have 6 11 15 and 17 electrons respectively therefore (A) P will form anelectrovalent bond with R (B) Q will form a covalent bond with S (C)R will form an electrovalentbond with S (D) Q will form an electrovalent bond with S
D
11 In the oil drop experiment Millikan determined the (A) charge to mass ratio of the electron (B)mass of the electron (C) charge of the electron (D) mass of the proton
C
12 One of these atomic shells is the most stable (A) M (B) N (C) K (D) L (E) 0 C
13 Sieving is a technique used to separate mixtures containing 20 oxygen by volume Which ofthe reactants was in excess (A) Carbon (II) oxide (B) Oxygen (C) Carbon (IV) oxide (D) Nitrogen
A
14 The abnormally high boiling point of water is primarily due to (A) ionic bonding (B) covalentbonding (C) dative bonding (D) coordinate covalent bonding (E) hydrogen bonding
E
15 The energy required to remove an electron from the isolated gaseous atom is known as (A)electron affinity (B) bond energy (C) lonisation energy (D) electronegativity (E) electrovalency
C
16 The group that oxygen belongs to is collectively called (A) allotropes (B) halogens (C)chalcogens (D) alkenes (E) ozonides
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
2
17 The ideal gas equation is ___ ( A) P=nRT (B) PR =nVT (C) PV =gRT (D) V=kT (E) PV = K V A
18 The number of atoms in one mole of a substance is equal to (A) the atomic number (B) theAvogadrorsquos number (C) number of neutrons (D) number of electrons (E) gas constant
B
19 The number of electrons in the outermost shell of the atom represents its (A) period (B)number of shells (C) group (D) atomic number (E) electronegativity
C
20 The number of protons or electrons of an atom represents its (A) electronegativity (B) period(C) number of shells (D) group (E) atomic number
E
21 The partial pressure of oxygen in a sample of air is 500 mmHg If the total Pr pressure 780mmHg what is the mole fraction of the oxygen (A) 064 [B (B) 573 (C) 156 (D) 070 (E) 054
A
22 The periodic classification of the elements is an arrangement of the elements in order of their(A) atomic weights (B) isotopic weights (C) molecular weights (D) atomic numbers
D
23 The process of changing one element into another is called (A) radioisotope (B) radioactivity (C)dating (D) transmutation (E) nuclear reaction
D
24 The shapes of CO2 H2O and CH4 respectively are (A) bent linear and tetrahedral (B) benttetrahedral and linear (C) tetrahedral linear and bent (D) linear bent and tetrahedral
D
25 This compound exhibits ionic bonding (A) H20 (B) H2 (C) KC1 (D) NH3 (E) HF C
26 This type of bonding involves overlapping of orbitals during which electrons are shared (A)hydrogen bonding (B) covalent bonding (C) ionic bonding (D) metallic bonding (E) van-der-waals bonding
B
27 Which one of the following changes is physical (A) Adding iron filings to aerated water (B)Adding sodium metal to water (C) Cooling a solution of iron(II) sulphate to obtain the hydratedsalt (D) Cooling water to obtain ice
D
28 A side effect of soft water is that (A) it gives offensive taste (B) excess calcium is precipitated(C) it encourages the growth of bacteria (D) it attacks lead contained in pipes
D
29 Ammonia is very soluble in water because it is a an molecule (A) non-polar (B) polar (C)reactive (D) basic (E) acidic
B
30 Citrus fruits such as lemon and grape taste sour because they contain (A) ascorbic acid andcitric acid (B) citric acid and ascetic acid (C) citric acid and dilute HCl (D) citric acid and salicyclicacid (E) Sulphuric acid
A
31 Soap lather is an example of a colloid in which a (A) liquid is dispersed in gas (B) solid isdispersed in liquid (C) gas is dispersed in liquid (D) liquid is dispersed in liquid
C
32 The air around a petroleum refinery is most likely to contain(A) CO2 SO3 and N2O (B) CO2 COand N2O (C) SO2 CO and NO2 (D) PH3 H2O and CO2
C
33 The difference between colloids and suspensions is brought out clearly by the fact that whilecolloids (A) do not scatter light suspensions do (B) can be separated by filtration suspensionscannot be so separated (C) can be separated by a membrane suspensions cannot (D) do notsettle out on standing suspensions do
D
34 The following substances are non-electrolytes except (A) chloroform (B) sugar cane (C) aceticacid (D) NaCl (E) C and D
E
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
3
35 The hydrolysis of NH4Cl salt will give (A) acidic solution (B) neutral solution (C) basic solution(D) hot solution (E) all of the above
A
36 The pollutants that are likely to be present in an industrial environment are (A) H2S SO2 andoxides of nitrogen (B)NH3 HCl and CO (C) CO2 NH3 and H2S (D) dust NO and Cl2
A
37 What is the basicity of tetraoxosulphate (VI) acid (A) 2 (B) 1 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) 0 A
38 Which of the following gases is the most dangerous pollutant (A) Hydrogen sulphide (B)Carbon (IV) oxide (C) Sulphur (IV) oxide (D) Carbon (II) oxide
D
39 Which of the following ions is a pollutant in drinking water even in trace amount (A) Ca2+ (B)Hg2+ (C) Mg2+ (D) Fe2+
B
40 Which of the following is an example of a double salt (A) NH4Cl (B) alum (C) NaCO3 (D) AlCl3
(E) NaClB
41 016g of methane when burnt increases the temperature of 100g of water by 400(C) what isthe heat of combustion of methane if the heat capacity of water is 42 Jg-10C-1 (CH4=16) (A)1160kJmol-1 (B) 1180kJmol-1 (C) 1560kJmol-1 (D) 1600kJmol-1 (E) 1680kJmol-1
E
42 A charged car battery has ___ energy that can be converted into another energy called ___energy (A) Chemical electrical (B) mechanical chemical (C) heat mechanical (D) lightelectrical (E) light heat
A
43 Copper oxide is heated with charcoal to produce carbon monoxide and copper The reaction isan example of (A) both oxidation and reduction (B) neither oxidation and reduction (C)oxidation only (D) reduction only (E) neutralization
A
44 For each oxygen atom in hydrogen peroxide which acts as an oxidant there is an oxygen atomwhich acts as a an (A) Oxidant (B) reductant (C) oxidizing agent (D) catalyst (E) inhibitor
B
45 Given the change of phase CO2(g) changes to CO2(s) the entropy of the system (A) decreases(B) increases (C) remains the same
A
46 In which of the following is the entropy change positive (A) Reaction between an acid and abase (B) Addition of concentrated acid to water (C) Dissolution of sodium metal in water(D) Thermal dissociation of ammonium chloride
C
47 One of these elements is the best reducing agent (A) Pb (B) Rb (C) Al (D) In (E) N B
48 The name of the gas driven off at the negative electrode during the electrolysis of brine is ___( A) hydrogen (B) chlorine (C) oxygen (D) sodium (E) hydrogen chloride
B
49 The oxidation state of P in H2P2072- is ___ (A) -3 (B) +3 (C) +1 (D) +5 (E) -2 D
50 The oxidation state of S in Ca(HS03)2 is __ (A) +2 (B) -2 (C) +4 (D) -4 (E) +6 C
51 The oxidizing agent in the reaction 3Br2 + 6OH- = BrO3- + 5Br- + 3H2O is __ (A) Br2 (B) OH- (C)
BrO3- (D) e- (E) H2OA
52 When heat is absorbed during a chemical reaction the reaction is said to be ___(A) thermodynamic (B) exothermal (C) isothermal (D) endothermic (E) thermostatic
D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
4
53 Given the reaction at equilibrium 2CO(g) + O2(g) harr 2CO2(g) When the reaction is subjected tostress a change will occur in the concentration of (A) reactants only (B) products only (C)both reactants and products (D) neither reactants nor products
C
54 Given the reaction at equilibrium N2(g) + O2(g) harr 2NO(g) as the concentration of N2(g)increases the concentration of O2(g) will (A) decrease (B) increase (C) remains the same (D)vanishes (E) pours away
A
55 If a reaction is exothermic and there is a great disorder it means that (A) The reaction is in astate of equilibrium (B) There will be a large increase in free energy (C) There will be a largedecrease in free energy (D) The reaction is static
B
56 In the chemical reaction of A + B = C +D more of D is formed (A) if the concentration of A isreduced (B) if the concentration of B is reduced (C) if the concentration of C is reduced (D) ifthe concentration of C is increased (E) if it is continuously removed from the reaction mixture
E
57 In what way is equilibrium constant for the forward reaction related to that of the reversereaction (A) The addition of the two is expected to be one (B) The product of two isexpected to be one (C) The two equilibrium constants are identical (D) The product of thetwo is always greater than one
C
58 In which reaction will the point of equilibrium shift to the left when the pressure on the systemis increased (A) C(s) + O2(g) harr CO2(g) (B) CaCO3(s) harr CaO(s) + CO2(g) (C) 2Mg(s) + O2(g) harr 2MgO(s) (D) 2H2(g) + O2(g) harr2H2O(g)
B
59 The furring of kettles is caused by the presence in water of __ (A) calcium trioxocarbonate (IV)(B) calcium tetraoxosulphate (VI) (C) calcium hydroxide (D) calcium hydrogentrioxocarbonate(IV)
D
60 Which is a property of a reaction that has reached equilibrium (A) The amount of products isgreater than the amount of reactants (B) The amount of products is equal to the amount ofreactants (C) The rate of the forward reaction is greater than the rate of the reverse reaction(D) The rate of the forward reaction is equal to the rate of the reverse reaction
D
61 Which of the following combination of conditions many increase the rate of a chemicalreaction (A) Decrease in temperature increase in concentration of the reactant (B) Increase intemperature addition of a catalyst decrease in the surface area of the reactant (C) Increase intemperature increase in concentration addition of a catalyst and increase in the surface areaof the reactant (D) Decrease in temperature concentration and surface area of the reactants(E) Addition of catalyst and in the absence of light
C
62 ldquoQuicklimerdquo has the formula __ (A) Ca(OH)2 (B) CaO (C) CaCO3 (D) CaSO42H2O (E) CaCl2 B
63 A Transition metal is different from a non-transition metal because (A) it has an octetconfiguration (B) it is very stable (C) it is coloured (D) it has incomplete outer shell d-electrons(E) it has no electron in the d-orbital
D
64 Chlorine is produced commercially by (A) electrolysis of dilute HCl (B) electrolysis of brine (C)neutralization of HCl (D) heating potassium trioxochlorate (V) (E) action of dilute mineral acidson bleaching powder
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
5
65 Chlorine bromine and iodine resemble one another since they __ (A)dissolve in alkalis (B) reactviolently with H2 without heating (C)displace each other from solutions of their salts (D) aregases (E) are liquids
A
66 Liquid oxygen may be produced by condensation of air using this coolant (A) liquid phosphorus(B) liquid gas (C) liquid paraffin (D) liquid nitrogen (E) butane
D
67 One of these is another form of oxygen (A) hydroxide (B) ozone (C) peroxide (D) sulphoxide (E)water B
68 One of these metals is not an alkali metal (A) K (B) Cs (C) Sr (D) Rb (E) Fr C
70 The formation of ozone by reaction of O2 with atomic oxygen in UV light occurs in (A) upperatmosphere (B) inner atmosphere (C) stratosphere (D) hemisphere (E) none of these
A
71 The halogen which is chiefly produced commercially from sea water is ___ ( A) Fluorine (B)chlorine (C) Bromine (D) iodine (E) Astatine
B
72 The most stable allotropic form of sulphur at normal conditions is ___ ( A) monoclinic sulphur(B) rhombic sulphur (C) amorphous sulphur (D) plastic sulphur (E) ordinary sulphur
B
73 The products obtained when the following chemical reaction is completed and balancedarehellipHNO3 + Ca(OH)2 rarr ______ (A) CaNO3 + H2O (B) Ca(NO3)2 + 2 H2O (C) CaO + 2 NO2 + 3H2O(D) Ca + 2 NO3 + 2 H2O
B
74 What is the role of iron and Aluminium oxide in ammonia production (A) dehydrating agent(B) catalytic agent (C) oxidizing agent (D) bonding agent (E) preservative agent
B
75 When carbon IV oxide is bubbled through lime water the solution becomes milky dueformation of (A) Ca(HCO3)2 (B) CaCO3 (C) Ca(N03)2 (D)CaCl2 (E) CaSO4
B
76 Which of the following gases dissolves in water vapour to produce acid rain during rainfall (A)Oxygen (B) Carbon (II) oxide (C) Nitrogen (D) Sulphur (IV) oxide
D
77 Which of the following is not allotrope of carbon (A) diamond (B) graphite (C) buckminsterfullerene (D) all of the above (E) none of the above
E
78 Which oxide is amphiprotic (amphoteric) (A) MgO (B) NaO (C) CaO (D) ZnO (E) BeO D
79 Why will it always be more difficult to extract potassium ions from sea water than to extractmagnesium ions This is because (A) most potassium compounds are less soluble in water (B)most potassium compounds are quite soluble in water (C) presence of other alkali metal ionshas great influence on it (D) magnesium ion is an alkaline earth metal ion (E) None of theabove
B
80 ___________ can be used to test for reducing sugars (A) Iodine solution (B) bromine water (C)Fehlingrsquos solution (D) de-ionized water
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
6
81 2CH3COOH + Zn rarr The product of this reaction is (A) (CH3COO)2Zn + Zn (B) CH3COO CH3 +Zn (C) (CH3COO)2Zn + H2 (D) CH3COOH + CH4
C
82 A ketone reacts with hydroxylamine to give (A) a hydrazone (B) an alkanonitrile (C) a nitrosocompound (D) an oxime
D
83 Alkanoic acids are weak acids and ionises in solution to give (A) R+ + COOH (B) RCOO- + H+ (C)RCOO+ + H- (D) RCO+ + OH-
B
84 An excess of ethanol heated with concentrated H2SO4 at a temperature of 180oC is dehydratedto give mostly (A) ethane (B) ethene (C) ethanol (D) ethoxyethane
B
85 Butene can be distinguished from benzene by reaction with (A) Hydrochloric acid (B) Brominewater (C) Potassium sulphate (D) Sodium hydroxide
B
86 Detergent is more efficient than soap in cleansing clothes and dishes because of the followingreasons except that (A) the corresponding Ca and Mg compound formed is soluble in H2O (B)detergents are not affected by hardness of water (C) it cleans better than soap (D) it is lessexpensive
D
87 In the manufacture of soap industrially brine is used to__________the acid salt (A) oxidise(B) reduce (C) bleach (D) precipitate
D
88 Methane gas can be made from carbon (II) oxide gas according to the equation2CO(g) + 2H2(g) rarr CH4(g) + CO2(g) Calculate the mass of CO required to produce 875 x 1025
molecules of CH4 At masses C=12011 H= 1008 O = 15999 Avogadrorsquos no 6022 x1023molecules mole (A) 8140g (B) 4070g (C) 1600g (D) 3200g (E) 2035g
A
89 Potassium ethanoate is formed when (A) Methanoic acid reacts with KOH (B) Ethanoic acidreacts with KOH (C) Methanol reacts with KCO3 (D) Ethanol reacts with CH3COOH
B
90 Saponification is defined as (A) Acidic hydrolysis of fat or oil (B) Alkali hydrolysis of fat or oil(C) Condensation of two monomer units (D) Mixture of glacial ethanoic acid and excess ofsimple alkanol
B
91 Soaps and detergents have the same basic characteristics except that the carboxyl group of thefatty acid in detergent is replaced by (A) alcohol (B) sulphate or a sulphonate group (C) ester(D) acids
B
92 The relatively high boiling point of alkanols is due to (A) aliphatic character (B) ionic bonding(C) hydrogen bonding (D) covalent bonding
C
93 Two important sources of detergent are (A) fatoils and hydrocarbons (B) coal and cement (C)pulp and wood (D) water and gas
A
94 What is the process associated with conversion of vegetable oil to soap (A) Esterification (B)Saponification (C) hydrolysis (D) Acidification
B
95 When ethanal vapour is passed over manganese (II) ethanoate (manganese acetate) catalyst inthe presence of air the product is (A) ethanoate (B) ethanol (C) methanol (D) ethanoic acid
D
96 When KOH is used instead of NaOH in the production of soap it has the following advantagesexcept it gives (A) softer soap (B) harder soap (C) soap with lower melting point (D) moresoluble soap
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
7
97 When palm wine is left exposed to air for a few days it goes sour The bacteria in the airoxidises________ in palm wine to _________ (A) ethanol ethanoic acid (B) ethanoic acidethanol (C) ester ethanoic acid (D) ether ethanol
A
98 Which of the following is not true about benzoic acid (A) It is aromatic in nature (B) It can bemanufactured from methylbenzene (C) It has molecular formula C6H6COOH (D) It sublimesreadily
C
99 Which of the following reactions is correct (A) C6H5COOH + CaO rarr C6H5Ca + HCO3 (B)C6H5COOH + CaO rarr C6H6 + CaCO3 (C) C6H5COOH + PCl5 rarr C6H5Cl + H2PO4 (D) C6H5COOH +C2H5OH rarr C6H6 + C3H8COOH
B
100 Which of these is not a property of ethanedioic acid (A) It is a stronger acid than ethanoic acidbut weaker than inorganic acids (B) It is a reducing agent (C) It is an oxidising agent (D) It issoluble in cold water
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
USE OF ENGLISH
1
Read the passages below and answer the questions that follow
PASSAGE AEvery discernible observer could foresee the crisis which engulfed the Edo Houselast week Only a few days before reports were rife about the AC reaching out tosome PDP legislators to cross-carpet The intention being to gain a majority andthen assume the Speakership with the least constraint Zakawanu Garuba the thenSpeaker retorted with a fiat threatening to declare vacant the seat of any defectorThis in spite of the constitutional support for such action as evidenced forexample by the crisis that has torn the PDP apart in Edo State The party has twofactional chairmen in the state even though one is more vociferousThe desperate attempt by Garuba to cling to the Speakerrsquos chair is condemnable Hewas not being recalled from the legislature and so he still has his seat as a floormember As speaker he was only first among equals The Speakership is not hisbirthright With the defection of one PDP lawmaker to the AC the legislaturereconvened hours after the bloodbath and elected a protem Speaker whileimpeaching and suspending Garuba and a few others They are to be probed
(Adapted from The Guardian Thursday March 4 2011 p14)
1 Why did AC woo PDP membersA they are few in numberB they want speakership without stressC PDP members are faithfulD The House is tough
2 The legislators impeachedA GarubaB PDP lawmakersC Garuba and some PDP lawmakersD Garuba and some lawmwkers
3 According to the passage the constitution supportsA The speakerB DefectingC Edo StateD Factional chairmen
4 The lawmakers reconvenedA After the defection of a PDP memberB After the bloodbathC After suspending the SpeakerD After electing a protem Speaker
B
A
D
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
USE OF ENGLISH
2
5 At the end what happened to GarubaA He was vindicatedB He was indictedC He was honouredD He was humiliated
6 To cross-carpet as used in the passage means toA change partyB renew membership of a partyC change onersquos carpetD buy new carpet
7 The crisis in the Edo State House of Assembly could be predicted byA The lawmakersB Edo State indigenesC The protem SpeakerD All conscious observers
B
C
A
PASSAGE B
Nigeria has a troubled power sector which is however undergoing reforms thathopefully should usher in era of private sector dominance in terms of ownershipand management of generation and distribution In this transitory phase it is crucialto lay a foundation for local sourcing of vital inputs and make it the norm for theindustry That is the only way to prevent a replication of the trend in the oil and gassub-sector where capital flight is as much as $ 16 billion per annum as revealed bythe Petroleum Technology Development FundThe PHCN could legitimately insist on quality and standards in its procurement ofequipment and materials but what is playing out is an institutional orientationevinced in several pursuits of the PHCN that are contemptuous of Nigeriarsquosaspiration for local content development In 1998 the defunct National ElectricPower Authority defied a directive by the then Minister of Power and steel AlhajiBashir Dalhatu to source its costable components from Nigerian foundries some ofwhich are of high standards Actuated by a realization of idle capacity in thefoundries and the need to conserve foreign exchange the Minister appliedappropriate pressure on the management of NEPA but found his efforts frustratedThe acute shortage or inefficiency in the metering programme originated from thefact that the only local manufacturer then the Federal Government-ownedelectricity Meter Company in Zaria Kaduna State established in 1976 but sold toDantata Investments Limited in December 2002 is not performing(Adapted from The Punch Wednesday May 25 2011 Pg 18)
8 Why is there shortage of meterA Non-performance of PHCNB Non-performance of NEPAC Non-performance of the Federal Government-owned electricity
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
USE OF ENGLISH
3
Meter CompanyD Non-performance of Dantata Investment Ltd
9 According to the passage the solution to the problem in the power sector lies inA Sourcing for materials locallyB Getting costable componentsC Obeying the ministerD Getting $ 16 billion per annum
10 From the passage it is clear thatA There is money in the countryB There is shortage of electricity meterC NEPA is better than PHCND NEPA was formed in 1998
11 Which of these is not true of the power sectorA There is only one local manufacturer of electricity meterB The power sector is undergoing reformsC The problem of the power sector cannot be solvedD there was procurement of equipment and materials
12 Which of these is undergoing reformsA NEPAB PHCNC NigeriaD The power sector
13 A suitable title for this passage isA Nigeria and her problemsB NEPA versus PHCNC Electricity meterD Problems in the power sector
A
B
C
D
D
Choose the option that best completes the gap14 University students helliphelliphelliphelliphellipbehave well (A) can (B) should (C) may (D)
mustB
15 Gloria helliphelliphelliphellip have finished the project two days ago (A) must (B) may (C)can (D) supposed to
A
16 You are Goodluck (A) are you (B) arenrsquot you (C) arersquont you (D) donrsquotyou
B
17 He helliphelliphelliphelliphellip not come now (A) needs (B) needed (C) need (D) will need C18 Janet to know that we are all here (A) suppose (B) supposes (C) is
supposed (D) should supposeC
19 Let it be that there was no king in Ayegun (A)know (B) knew (C) known(D) knows
C
20 We shall see you soon (A) shall we (B) shanrsquot we (C) shouldnrsquot we (D)should we
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
USE OF ENGLISH
4
21 Neither of the presidential candidates suitable (A) are (B) is (C) is been(D) are been suitable
B
22 Ten miles ____ a great distance (A) is (B) are (C) is been A23 If I were the president I ask for the money (A) will (B) should (C) would
(D) canC
24 I will see you after I spoken with your supervisor (A) might have (B) have(C) will have (D) would have
B
25 ldquoYou - now see the directorrdquo the secretary told the visitors (A) can (B)may (C) should (D) would
B
26 She isnrsquot Gloria (A) is she (B) isnrsquot she (C) arenrsquot she (D) doesnrsquot she A27 We have a bus (A) didnrsquot we (B) havenrsquot we (C) doesnrsquot we (D) hasnrsquot
weB
28 I knew David let us down (A) may (B) will (C) might (D) can C29 You helliphelliphellip me last week (A) ought to see (B) ought to had seen (C) ought to
have seen (D) had to have seenC
30 Twenty dollars ___ enough for my lunch (A) are (B) is (c ) are just B31 The pests ____ our farm every year (A) invade (B) invades (c ) has invades A32 If I were the Governor I ask for the project (A) will (B) should (C) would
(D) canC
33 When helliphellip the Cleric today (A) doesarrives (B) doesarrived (C)doesarrive (D) do arrive
C
34 We shall see you soon (A) shall we (B) shanrsquot we (C) shouldnrsquot we (D)should we
B
35 You missed the match (A) donrsquot you (B) didnrsquot you (C) hadnrsquot you (D)doesnrsquot you
B
36 Walk the dog right now (A) walknrsquot you (B) will you (C)shall you(D)would you
B
37 I am a student (A) Irsquom I (B) arenrsquot I (C) isnrsquot I (D) wouldnrsquot I BPick out the oddwrong expression in each of the following
38 (A) I heard his supposed apology (B) I heard his unconvincing apology (C) Iheard his suppose apology (D) I heard he was supposed apology
D
39 (A) I suppose you know the way (B) I am supposed you know the way (C) Isuppose he knows the way (D) They suppose he knows the way
B
40 (A) I travel next week (B) I will travel next week (C) I suppose to travelnext week (D) I should travel next week
C41 (A) Having discovered the error he apologized (B) Having discovered the
error the apology was tendered (C) Having known the error he apologised(D) Having found out the error he tendered an apology B
42 (A) The job has been done (B) The job has been being done (C) They havedone the job (D) They can have done the job
D
43 (A) She must finish the project in two days (B) She must finish the project twodays ago (C) She must have finished the project two days ago (D) She ought tohave finished the project two days ago
B
44 (A) If I went in there I would beat the security officer (B) If I go in there Iwould beat the security officer (C) If I go in there I will beat the securityofficer (D) If I go in there I can beat the security officer
B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
USE OF ENGLISH
5
Choose the option that most appropriately expresses the idea in theunderlined expression
45 My friendrsquos parentrsquos are magnanimous (A) rich and popular (B) sociable andlovable (C) kind and generous (D) wicked and stingy
C
46 My friend has an overbearing attitude toward me (A) patient (B) impatient(C) opinionated and domineering (D) considerate and respectful
C
47 There are a number of makeshift buildings in town (A) modern buildings (B)old fashion buildings (C) temporary buildings (D) permanent buildings
C
48 Post UME is a hurdle to cross (A) a necessary and simple exam to pass (B) anunnecessary and difficult exam to pass (C) an unnecessary but simple exam topass (D) a necessary and challenging exam to pass
D
49 His contribution to the project is invaluable (A) extremely useful (B) of novalue (C) of little value (D) can not be valued
A
50 That was a dawn-to-earth approach (A) poor (B) ordinary (C) practical (D)immodest
B
51 Concerning my admission I have to cross my fingers (A) wait and hope for thebest (B) wait in frustration (C) wait confidently (D) take some risk
A
52 My father is indifferent to my choice of University (A) supports (B) opposes(C) not decided (D) not concerned
D
53 We need an ad hoc arrangement towards the project (A) intelligent (B)advanced (C) permanent (D) temporary
D
54 The studentrsquos reply to the lecturer betrayed his rudeness (A) covered (B)showed (C) reduced (D) increased
C
55 His conduct in the last elections was above board (A) arrogant (B) honest (C)above average (D) excellent
C
56 That was a dispassionate decision (A) bias (B) personal (C) unaffected (D)ineffective
C
57 On the matter of worship some sit on the fence (A) go to the extreme (B) aredecisive (C) are fanatics (D) are undecided
D
Choose the option that is nearest in meaning to the word underlined58 In this matter we must be prepared to tolerate human frailty (A)
75 Her health deteriorated rapidly (A) worsened (B) improved (C) stagnated (D)declined
B
Which of the following sentences is correct76 (A) One should mind his business (B) One should mind onersquos business (C) One
should mind her businessB
77 (A) This case is between you and I (B) This case is between you and me (C)This case is between the two both of us
B
78 (A) With them around we have a great problem on our hands (B) With themaround we have a great problem on our hand (C) With them around wehave a great problem on hand
A
79 (A) The dog wagged itrsquos tail (B) The dog wagged its tail (C) The dog waggeditsrsquo tail
B
80 (A) A ten year old boy is missing (B) A ten-year-old boy is missing (C) A tenyear-old boy is missing
B
81 Choose the option that sounds the same with two (A) tool (B) too (C) tow (D)to
B
82 Choose the option that sounds the same with bear (A) bare (B) beer (C)bared (D) beard
B
83 Choose the option that sounds the same with the given word Key (A) kiss(B) quay (C) keyed (D) kissed
B
Choose the word that is correctly spelled84 (A) acomodation (B) accommodation (C) accomodation (D) acommodation B85 (A) embarrassment (B) embarassment (C) embarrasment (D) embarasment A86 (A) horrific (B) horific (C) horiffic (D) horriffic A87 As soon as Joy arrived she started looking for food The underlined
expression is an ----------- (A) adverbial phrase of reason (B) adverbial clauseof reason (C) adverbial phrase of time (D) adverbial clause of time
D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
USE OF ENGLISH
7
88 My friend a brilliant lecturer won many prizes The underlined expression isa(n) (A) adjectival clause (B) relative clause (C) appositive phrase (D)subject of lsquowonrsquo
C
89 I passed very well because I studied hard The underlined expression is a (A)relative clause introducer (B) linking verb (C) adverb of reason (D)subordinating conjunction
D
90 Bello and I love each other (A) preposition (B) reciprocal pronoun (C) nounphrase (D) adjectival phrase
B
91 I prefer writing to acting The underlined expressions is a(n) -------- (A) verb(B) participle (C) gerund (D) object
C
92 Having finished my assignment I started watching television The underlinedexpression is a(n) -------- (A) infinitive clause (B) gerund (C) participialphrase (D) noun clause
C
93 If you leave early yoursquoll meet Sola at home The underlined expression is a ----------- (A) nominal clause (B) verbal clause (C) conditional clause (D)adjectival clause
C
94 Wounded by a lion the hunter trudged home The underlined expression is a-----------(A) nominal clause (B) verbal clause (C) participial clause (D)adjectival clause
C
95 Irsquom proud of you The underlined expression functions as(A) prepositionalcomplement (B) adjectival complement (C) subject complement (D) verbalcomplement
B
96 A noun phrase lacks one of the following (A) noun (B) verb (C) adjective (D)adverb
B
97 Eve gave Adam an apple An apple in the sentence functions as------------(A)subject of the verb lsquogaversquo (B) direct object of the verb (C) indirect object ofthe verb (D) object complement
B
98 I wonder if you know where he lives This sentence is a(n) (A) thoughtfulstatement (B) polite command (C) indirect question (D) subtle exclamation
A
99 An example of gradable adjectives is hellip (A) each (B) beautiful (C) dead (D)live
B
100 A clause differs from a phrase because a clause contains helliphelliphellip (A) a largernumber of words (B) a fewer number of words (C) a finite verb (D) a non-finite verb
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
1
1 A ball is thrown up into the air At the highest point of its trajectory the ball (A) Is acceleratingdownwards (B) has zero acceleration (C) is accelerating upwards (D) is still moving upwards
B
2 A ball of mass 200 g moving with a velocity of 8 ms collides and sticks with another ball ofmass 300 g moving in the same direction with velocity 4 ms What is the common velocity ofthe balls after the collision (A) 56 ms-1 (B) 28 ms-1 (C) 112 ms-1 (D) 14 ms-1
A
3 A boy holds the end of a rubber cord from which hangs a solid metal ball if the boy whirls theball in a horizontal circle keeping his hand still If the rubber cord breaks when the ball is at apoint on the circle in what direction will the ball move (A) towards the hand of the boy Baway from the hand of the boy C in the direction of the tangent to the circle at the point ofbreak D None of the above
C
4 A force of 20 N applied parallel to the surface of horizontal table is just sufficient to make ablock of mass 4 kg set for motion Find the acceleration when the force is doubled (A) 2 ms-2
(B) 4 ms-2 (C) 5 ms-2 (D) 10 ms-2
C
5 A man walks 1 km due east and then 1 km due north His displacement is (A) 1 km N15degE (B) 1km N30degE (C) radic2 km N45degE (D) 2 km N75degE
C
6 A motor car moves with a velocity of 20 ms-1 on a rough horizontal road and covers adisplacement of 50 m Find the coefficient of dynamic friction between the type and theground (g = 10 ms-2) (A) 03 (B) 06 (C) 05 (D) 04
D
7 A physics student standing on the edge of a cliff throws a stone vertically downward with aninitial speed of 100 ms The instant before the stone hits the ground below it is traveling ata speed of 300 ms If the physics student were to throw the rock horizontally outward fromthe cliff instead with the same initial speed of 100 ms what is the magnitude of the velocityof the stone just before it hits the ground(A) 100 ms (B) 200 ms (C) 300 ms (D) 400 ms
C
8 A quantity is defined as the product of cross-sectional area and change in momentum per unitlength Which of the following is its SI unit (A) Nm (B) kgs-1 (C) kgm2s-1 (D) Nkgs-1
C
9 A rectangular concrete block 40 cm x 30 cm x 60 cm of mass 10 kg rests on a horizontal flatsurface What is the minimum pressure it can possibly exert on the surface (A) 8166 Nm-2
(B) 816 6 Nm2 (C) 4083 Nm-2 (D) 6084 Nm
C
10 A simple hydrometer consists of uniform cylinder suitably weighted to float upright in mostcommon liquids It is graduated to read the relative density of a liquid directly Which of thefollowing is NOT correct (A) When placed in a liquid it displaces exactly its own weight of theliquid (B) Its graduation increases from top to base (C) When placed in a liquid it displacesexactly its own volume of the liquid (D) The product of the volume and density of liquiddisplaced is equal to its mass
C
11 A stone which is dropped into a dry well hits the bottom in 22 s How deep is the well (Takeg=10ms) (A) 404 m (B) 24 m (C) 484 m (D) 242 m
D
12 A woman whose mass is 70 kg sits 24 m from the fulcrum of a seesaw At what distance fromthe fulcrum should a 60 kg man sit to balance the seesaw (A) 28 m (B) 24 m (C) 32 m (D)38 m
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
2
13 An air bubble trapped at a depth in a liquid rises to the surface Which of the following is trueabout its mass and density as it rises (A) Its mass and density increase (B) Its mass is constantwhile its density decreases (C) Its mass and density is constant (D) Its mass is constant whileits density increases
B
14 Complete the following sentence The operation of a hydraulic jack is an application of (A)Pascals principle B Archimedesrsquo principle (C) Bernoullis principle (D) irrotational flow
A
15 Complete the following statement Today the standard meter is defined in terms of (A) thedistance from the earthrsquos equator to the north pole (B) the wavelength of light emitted from akrypton atom (C) the wavelength of light emitted from a sodium atom (D) the speed of light
D
16 Convert 30 metre per second to centimeter per minute (A) 20000 cmmin (B) 180000cmmin (C) 120000 cmmin (D) 150000 cmmin
B
17 During a football match player A kicks the ball 40 m 30o E of S to player B who instantly kicks it30 m 60o E of N What is the magnitude of the resultant displacement of the ball (A) 30 m (B)40 m (C) 50 m (D) 60 m
C
18 How much work is done against gravity in sliding a 500g object through 2 m up a smooth planethat is inclined at 30o to the horizontal (g = 98 ms-2) (A) 98 J (B) 198 J (C) 162 J (D) 49 J
D
19 If a small body of mass m is moving with angular velocity ω in a circle of radius r what is itskinetic energy (A) mω r (B) m ω 2r2 (C) m ω r22 (D) m ω 2r22
D
20 In free fall two balls of masses 20 kg and 10 kg were dropped from a height If the ball withthe smaller mass reached the ground after 4 s what is the difference between the time thetwo balls reach the ground (A) 8 s (B) 2 s (C) 0 s (D) 4 s
C
21 In what distance can a 1500 kg automobile be stopped if the brake is applied when the speedis 20 ms and the coefficient of sliding friction is 07 between the tyres and the ground(A) 9810 m (B) 7167 m (C) 2915 m (D) 2010 m
C
22 The highest point of a simple pendulum bob is 5cm vertically above the lowest point as itswings to and fro between the two extreme ends At what velocity does it swing past thelowest point (equilibrium point) where the string is vertical (take g = 10 ms2) (A) 1 ms (B) 2ms (C) 5 ms (D) 10 ms
A
23 Three vectors A B and C add together to yield zero A + B + C = 0 The vectors A and C point inopposite directions and their magnitudes are related by the expression A = 2C Which one ofthe following conclusions is correct (A) A and B have equal magnitudes and point in oppositedirections (B) B and C have equal magnitudes and point in the same direction (C) B and Chave equal magnitudes and point in opposite directions (D) A and B point in the samedirection but A has twice the magnitude of B
B
24 Which of the following could be measured in the same units as force (A) Energydistance (B)Energy x distance (C) Energytime (D) Momentum x distance
A
25 Which of the following does not affect the pressure at a point beneath the surface of a liquid(A) Surface area of the liquid (B) Density of the liquid (C) Depth of the point below thesurface (D) Strength of the gravitational field
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
3
26 Which of the following pairs contains one vector and one scalar quantity (A) Displacementacceleration (B) Force kinetic energy (C) Momentum velocity (D) Power speed
B
27 Which of the following statements is correct (A) uniform speed always implies uniformvelocity (B) uniform speed always implies zero acceleration (C) uniform speed may imply non-zero acceleration (D) constant momentum implies constant acceleration
C
28 Which of the of the following is a measurement taken with Venier callipers (A) 20 cm (B)200 cm (C) 2000 cm (D) 20000 cm
B
29 Which of the units of the following physical quantities are derived I Area II Thrust IIIPressure IV Mass (A) I II III and IV (B) I II and III only (C) I II and IV only (D) I and II only
B
30 Which one of the following situations is not possibleA A body has zero velocity and non-zero accelerationB A body travels with a northward velocity and a northward accelerationC A body travels with a constant velocity and a time-varying accelerationD A body travels with a constant acceleration and a time-varying velocity
C
31If C is the thermal capacity of a material of mass m and S is its specific heat capacity then (A)C= sm (B) S = Cm (C) C = Sm (D) DS = ms
C
32 A black car can be more uncomfortably hot on a warm day than a white car because (A) it ishot on a warm day (B) a black object is a better absorber of heat (C) black cars have heatersinstalled in them (D) white cars have air conditioning systems installed in them
B
33 A little sag is left in overhead telephone wires (A) because taut wires do not conduct soundeasily (B) to allow for the effect of a rise in temperature due to heating effect of currentflowing through them (C) to allow for the effect of a rise in temperature of the surroundingatmosphere (D) to allow for the effect of a fall in temperature of the surroundingatmosphere
D
34 A piece of copper wire of length 100 cm at 30oC is heated to 120oC If its linear expansivity is18 times10-4 k its new length is (A) 1666 cm (B) 1016 cm (C) 1806 (D) 108 cm
B
35 A sample of a monatomic ideal gas is originally at 20 degC What is the final temperature of thegas if both the pressure and volume are doubled (A) 5 degC (B) 80 degC (C) 20 degC (D) 899 degC
B
36 A volatile liquid used for cooling purpose in refrigerator is (A) liquid ammonia (B) cold water(C) liquid nitrogen (D) liquid helium
A
37 Complete the following statement A temperature decrease of 30 Cdeg is equal to a temperaturedecrease of (A) 30 Fdeg (B) 17 Fdeg (C) 30 K (D) 86 Fdeg
D
38 Complete the following statement Bimetallic strips used as adjustable switches in electricappliances consist of metal strips that must have different (A) mass (B) volume (C) length(D) expansion coefficients
D
39 Heat can be transferred from one end of a metal rod in contact with heat to the other endwhich is in contact with heat through (A) Conduction (B) Convection (C) Radiation (D)Evaporation
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
4
40 Heat supplied or removed from a system which causes a change of state without a change intemperature is (A) Specific heat (B) Heat capacity (C) Latent heat (D) Boiling heat
C
41 How many atmospheres of pressure must a litre of gas initially at a pressure of 1 atmosphereand temperature -20oC be after it has been compressed to frac12 litre at 40oC A 247 atm(B) 45 atm (C) 80 atm (D) 38 atm (E) 168 atm
A
42 On a cold day a good conductor X feels colder to the torch than a poor conductor Y because(A) Y retains more heat than X (B) the temperature of X is lower than that of Y (C) X conductsheat from the body less rapidly than Y (D) X transfers heat from body more rapidly than Y
D
43 The boiling point of water does not depend on (A) the impurities in water (B) the externalpressure (C) the quantity of water (D) all of the above
C
44 The ice and steam points of a local liquid in glass thermometer are 10 a and 90a respectivelyWhat will the thermometer read when the temperature is 30 0C (A) 40a (B) 38a (C) 36a(D) 34a
D
45 The lower and upper fixed points on a thermometer are 40 and 120 respectively Its reading at60oC is (A) 60 (B) 40 (C) 160 (D) 88
D
46 The pressure exerted by a given mass of gas in a container (A) Decreases if the container isheated (B) Increases if the molecules of the gas move faster (C) Increases if the volume of thecontainer is doubled (D) Decreases as the kinetic energy of the gas molecules increases
B
47 The temperature in an electric iron is regulated by (A) thermometer (B) bimettalic strip (C)steel (D) conductor
B
48 Water has an anomalous behavior between 0o and 4oC Which of the following is correct (A)Mass of water increases between 0oC and 4oC (B) Density of water decreases between 0oC and4oC (C) Volume of water increases between 0oC and 4oC (D) Volume of water decreasesbetween 0oC and 4oC
D
49 What is the Celsius equivalent of 500deg F (A) 10deg C (B) 20deg C (C) 30deg C (D) 40deg C A
50 When water is heated in a glass vessel the level first falls and then rises because (A) Theapparent expansion of the water is initially small and later increases (B) There is anomalousexpansion of water (C)The glass vessel does not expand (D)Glass vessel expands first beforewater starts a more rapid expansion
D
51 Which of the following quantities of water has undergone the greatest change from its heatcontent at melting point (A) 05 kg of water at 3oC (B) 02 kg of water at 8oC (C) 0005 kg ofwater at 80oC (D) 01 kg of water at 12oC
B
52 Which would cause a more serious burn 30 g of steam or 30 g of liquid water both at 100 degC
and why is this so
(A) Water because it is denser than steam (B) Steam because of its specific heat capacity
(C) Steam because of its latent heat of vaporization (D) Water because its specific heat is
greater than that of steam
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
5
53 A certain radioactive element has a half life of 20 years How long will it take the activity tobecome frac14 of its original(A) 20 years (B) 40 years (C) 60 years (D) 80 years
B
54 A plane progressive wave is represented by xty 20100sin2 where all the symbols
have their usual meanings What is the velocity of the wave
(A) 500 m s-1 (B) 400 m s-1 (C) 200 m s-1 (D) 100 m s-1
A
55 A point on a stationary wave where there is no movement of the medium is called (A) Node(B) Antinode (C) Note (D) Amplitude
A
56 A uniform wave has a speed of 10ms and a period of 05 s The distance between two nearestcrests is (A) 02 m (B) 20 m (C) 2 m (D) 5 m
D
57 A vibrating string has a tension of 40 and produces a note of whenݖܪ200 plucked in themiddle When the length of string is unaltered and the tension is increased to160 thefrequency becomes(A) ݖܪ1600 (B) ݖܪ800 (C) ܪ400 (D) ݖܪ200
C
58 An organ pipe closed at one end is 80cm long Determine the frequency of the fundamentalnote assuming that the speed of sound in air is 340ms (A) 213Hz (B) 318Hz (C) 425Hz (D)106Hz
D
59 As transverse wave moves through a medium the particles of the medium (A) vibrate in apath parallel to the path of the wave (B) do not move (C) vibrate in a path perpendicular tothe path of the wave (D) vibrate at an angle of 60o to the path of the wave
C
60 The sound heard after the reflection of sound wave from a plane surface is known as (A) Echo(B) Refraction (C) Vibration (D) Revibration
A
61 Which of the following properties is not common to all waves (A) Reflection (B) interference(C) Diffraction (D) Polarization
D
62 Which of the following statements is true about electromagnetic waves (A) They arelongitudinal (B) They can be seen (C) They have the same frequency in vacuum (D) They travelat the same speed in a vacuum
D
63 Which one of the following statements concerning electromagnetic waves is false (A)Electromagnetic waves are longitudinal waves (B) Electromagnetic waves transfer energythrough space (C) The existence of electromagnetic waves was predicted by Maxwell (D)Electromagnetic waves can propagate through a material substance
A
64 Which one of the following statements concerning waves is false (A) A wave can have bothtransverse and longitudinal components (B) A wave carries energy from one place to another(C) A wave does not result in the bulk flow of the material of its medium (D) A transversewave is one in which the disturbance is parallel to the direction of travel
D
65 A light sensitive area at the back of the eye where images are formed is called (A) Yellow Spot(B) Iris (C) Ciliary Muscle (D) Retina
D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
6
66 A luminous object is placed at a given distance from a converging lens of focal length 12cm anda real image is produced Find the image distance if it is equal to the object distance (A) 6cm(B) 3cm (C) 12cm (D) 24cm
D
67 An object is placed 15 cm in front of a concave mirror of radius 40 cm The image formed is(A) virtual and 60 cm behind the mirror (B) real and 60 cm in front of the mirror (C) virtual and40 cm from the mirror (D) at infinity
B
68 How far from a concave mirror of radius 120 cm must an object be placed such that its erectimage is four times its natural size (A) 72 cm (B) 64 cm (C) 45 cm (D) 50 cm
C
69 How many images are formed when an object is placed in front of two plane mirrors that areinclined at angle 30o to each other (A) 0 (B) 6 (C) 11 (D) 12
C
70 Professor Peters walks directly toward a plane mirror at a speed of 025 ms Determine thespeed of the image relative to him(A) 013 ms (B) 050 ms (C) 025 ms (D) 075 ms
B
71 The angle of incidence in a denser medium when the angle of refraction in the less dense
72 The driving mirror is a (A) plane mirror (B) convex mirror (C) concave mirror (D) thick planemirror
B
73 The following are types of a converging lens except(A) biconvex (B) plano-convex (C) mini-convex (D) converging meniscus
C
74 When the Sun the earth and the moon are in line during their movement with the earth beingthe opaque object and casting its shadow on the moon we have (A) Lunar eclipse (B) Totaleclipse (C) Partial eclipse (D) Annular eclipse
A
75 Which of the following instruments could be used in finding angle of elevation of the sun (A)Periscope (B) Telescope (C) Kaleidoscope (D) Sextant
D
76 Which of the following optical instruments does not depend on the use of plane mirrors (A)Kaleidoscope (B) Simple microscope (C) Sextant (D) Simple periscope
B
77 Which of the following statements supports the assumption that light travels in straight lines(A) light can be diffracted (B) light can be reflected (C) a source of light produces
interferences patterns on a suitably placed screen (D) a source of light produces distinctshadows of opaque objects
D
78Which of the following is correct about nuclear fission It is (A) the splitting of a heavynucleus into two or more lighter particles (B) an agent used to slow down neutrons in acontrolled atomic chain reaction (C) combing light atomic nuclei to form heavy (D) thespontaneous disintegration occurring in the nucleus of certain atoms
A
79 A light energy E falls on a metal and the electrons with a maximum kinetic energy of 02eV areejected If the work function of the metal is 03eV what is the value of E (A) 010eV (B)006eV (C) 050eV (D) 150eV
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
7
80 A nucleus is unstable if (A) it has two or more isotopes (B) its binding energy is not sufficientto hold nuclear particles together (C) it is very light with very low density (D) it has nosignificant mass
B
81 A radioactive substance has a half life of 4 years If its activity today is 200 dps its activity in 8years from today is (A) 50 dps (B) 25 dps (C) 20 dps (D) 10 dps
A
82 A substance has a half-life of 3min After 6min the count rate was observed to be 400Whatwas its count rate at zero time (A) 2400 (B) 200 (C) 1200 (D) 1600
D
83 An element and its isotopes differ only in the number of (A) electrons (B) neutrons (C)protons (D) irons
B
84 Complete the following sentence When electrons from a heated filament accelerate throughvacuum toward a positive plate (A) only an electric field will be produced (B) only amagnetic field will be produced (C) electromagnetic waves will be produced (D) longitudinalwaves will be produced
C
85 Radioactive elements are (A) chemically reactive elements (B) noble elements (C) rare earthelements (D) elements that spontaneously emit radiation
D
86 The following radiations are electrically neutral except (A) α-rays (B) ϒ-rays (C) X- rays (D)neutrons
A
87 Upon which one of the following parameters does the energy of a photon depend (A) mass(B) polarization (C) amplitude (D) frequency
D
88 Which of the following is NOT true about cathode ray (A) It moves in a straight line (B) Itcauses fluorescence (C) It possesses a negative charge (D) It can produce -particles
D
89 Who proposed the planetary model of the nucleus (A) J J Thomson (B) Albert Einstein (C)Ernest Rutherford (D) Marie Curie
C
90 X- rays cannot be used (A) to take photographs of bone structure in the body (B) to detectfinger prints (C) to detect flaws in metal castings (D) to detect alterations to works of art
B
91 1 farad is equivalent to (A) 1 coulombvolt (B) 1 voltcoulomb (C) 1 joulescoulomb (D) 1amperesec (E) volts per unit charge
A
92 A 0 - 10mA galvanometer with a coil resistance of 30 ohm can be converted to a 0-10Aammeter by using (A) 003ohm series resistor (B) 999ohm shunt resistor (C) 003ohm shuntresistor (D) 999ohm series resistor
C
93 A battery has an internal resistance of 4 and an emf of 12V The terminal voltage when a loadof 20 Ω is connected across it is (A) 4 (B) 10 V (C) 20 V (D) 2V
B
94 A conducting sphere has a net charge of 48 1017 C What is the approximate number ofexcess electrons on the sphere if the fundamental natural charge is -16 x 10-19C (A) 100 (B)300 (C) 200 (D) 400
B
95 A magnet cannot be demagnetized by (A) heating (B) hammering (C) chemical treatment (D)the use of solenoid through which an alternating current is flowing
C
96 An ac voltage is connected to an RLC series circuit of resistance 5 Ω inductance 3 mH and acapacitance of 005 microF Calculate the resonance frequency (A) 110 kHz (B) 120 kHz (C)130 kHz (D) 140 kHz
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
8
97 An electric heater converts 1KJ of electrical energy to heat energy every 2 second with 100efficiency The power produced is (A) 05 KW (B) 2 KW (C) 1KW (D) 10W
A
98 Complete the following statement The electromotive force is (A) the maximum potentialdifference between the terminals of a battery (B) the force that accelerates electrons througha wire when a battery is connected to it (C) the force that accelerates protons through a wirewhen a battery is connected to it (D) the maximum capacitance between the terminals of abattery
A
99 If a charged body is moving in a circle on a horizontal plane what is the general direction ofthe resulting magnetic field (A) In the plane of the circle (B) At an angle 45o to the plane ofmotion (C) Along the perpendicular axis through the center of the circle (D) Along thetangent to the circle
C
100 If a resistor is halved in magnitude and the potential across it is tripled then the ratio of theold current to the new current is (A) 13 (B) 31 (C) 61 (D) 16
D
101 The angle between the earthrsquos magnetic field and the horizontal is called angle of (A)declination (B) dip (C) variation (D) inclination
B
102 The basic difference between the galvanometer and the electric motor is (A) The size of themagnetic fields (B) The presence of hair springs in the galvanometer (C) The soft ironarmature in the galvanometer (D) The couple formed on the parallel sides of the rectangularcoil in the
B
103 The electromotive force is in such a direction as to oppose the motion or charge producing itThis is a statement of (A) Faradayrsquos Law (B) Lenz Law (C) Maxwell Law (D) Amperersquos law
B
104 The potential difference across the ends of a wire is doubled in magnitude If Ohmrsquos law isobeyed one of the following statements concerning the resistance of the wire is true (A) Theresistance is one half of its original value (B) The resistance is twice its original value (C) Theresistance is not changed (D) The resistance increases by a factor of four
C
105 The process of adding impurity to a semiconductor to increase its conductivity is called (A)Doping (B) Annealing (C) Heating (D) Hardening
A
106 Which if the following combinations consists of intrinsic properties of materials (A) volumeand density (B) density and mass (C) resistance and resistivity (D) density and resistivity
C
107 Which of the following can be measured with a potentiometer (A) Emf of a secondary cell (B)Resistivity of a wire (C) Potential difference across a conductor (D) Resistance of a wire
A
108 Which of the following devices is odd in the list (A) thermocouple (B) potentiometer (C) dcgenerator (D) solar cell
B
109 Which of the following is an essential physical property of the wires used for making fuses (A)high thermal conductivity (B) low density (C) low melting point (D) low electrical resistivity
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
9
110 Which one of the following statements concerning the magnetic force on a charged particle ina magnetic field is true (A) It is a maximum if the particle is stationary (B) It is a maximum ifthe particle moves parallel to the field (C) It acts in the direction of motion for a positivelycharged particle (D) It depends on the component of the particles velocity that isperpendicular to the field
D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
1
1 A ball is thrown up into the air At the highest point of its trajectory the ball (A) Is acceleratingdownwards (B) has zero acceleration (C) is accelerating upwards (D) is still moving upwards
B
2 A ball of mass 200 g moving with a velocity of 8 ms collides and sticks with another ball ofmass 300 g moving in the same direction with velocity 4 ms What is the common velocity ofthe balls after the collision (A) 56 ms-1 (B) 28 ms-1 (C) 112 ms-1 (D) 14 ms-1
A
3 A boy holds the end of a rubber cord from which hangs a solid metal ball if the boy whirls theball in a horizontal circle keeping his hand still If the rubber cord breaks when the ball is at apoint on the circle in what direction will the ball move (A) towards the hand of the boy Baway from the hand of the boy C in the direction of the tangent to the circle at the point ofbreak D None of the above
C
4 A force of 20 N applied parallel to the surface of horizontal table is just sufficient to make ablock of mass 4 kg set for motion Find the acceleration when the force is doubled (A) 2 ms-2
(B) 4 ms-2 (C) 5 ms-2 (D) 10 ms-2
C
5 A man walks 1 km due east and then 1 km due north His displacement is (A) 1 km N15degE (B) 1km N30degE (C) radic2 km N45degE (D) 2 km N75degE
C
6 A motor car moves with a velocity of 20 ms-1 on a rough horizontal road and covers adisplacement of 50 m Find the coefficient of dynamic friction between the type and theground (g = 10 ms-2) (A) 03 (B) 06 (C) 05 (D) 04
D
7 A physics student standing on the edge of a cliff throws a stone vertically downward with aninitial speed of 100 ms The instant before the stone hits the ground below it is traveling ata speed of 300 ms If the physics student were to throw the rock horizontally outward fromthe cliff instead with the same initial speed of 100 ms what is the magnitude of the velocityof the stone just before it hits the ground(A) 100 ms (B) 200 ms (C) 300 ms (D) 400 ms
C
8 A quantity is defined as the product of cross-sectional area and change in momentum per unitlength Which of the following is its SI unit (A) Nm (B) kgs-1 (C) kgm2s-1 (D) Nkgs-1
C
9 A rectangular concrete block 40 cm x 30 cm x 60 cm of mass 10 kg rests on a horizontal flatsurface What is the minimum pressure it can possibly exert on the surface (A) 8166 Nm-2
(B) 816 6 Nm2 (C) 4083 Nm-2 (D) 6084 Nm
C
10 A simple hydrometer consists of uniform cylinder suitably weighted to float upright in mostcommon liquids It is graduated to read the relative density of a liquid directly Which of thefollowing is NOT correct (A) When placed in a liquid it displaces exactly its own weight of theliquid (B) Its graduation increases from top to base (C) When placed in a liquid it displacesexactly its own volume of the liquid (D) The product of the volume and density of liquiddisplaced is equal to its mass
C
11 A stone which is dropped into a dry well hits the bottom in 22 s How deep is the well (Takeg=10ms) (A) 404 m (B) 24 m (C) 484 m (D) 242 m
D
12 A woman whose mass is 70 kg sits 24 m from the fulcrum of a seesaw At what distance fromthe fulcrum should a 60 kg man sit to balance the seesaw (A) 28 m (B) 24 m (C) 32 m (D)38 m
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
2
13 An air bubble trapped at a depth in a liquid rises to the surface Which of the following is trueabout its mass and density as it rises (A) Its mass and density increase (B) Its mass is constantwhile its density decreases (C) Its mass and density is constant (D) Its mass is constant whileits density increases
B
14 Complete the following sentence The operation of a hydraulic jack is an application of (A)Pascals principle B Archimedesrsquo principle (C) Bernoullis principle (D) irrotational flow
A
15 Complete the following statement Today the standard meter is defined in terms of (A) thedistance from the earthrsquos equator to the north pole (B) the wavelength of light emitted from akrypton atom (C) the wavelength of light emitted from a sodium atom (D) the speed of light
D
16 Convert 30 metre per second to centimeter per minute (A) 20000 cmmin (B) 180000cmmin (C) 120000 cmmin (D) 150000 cmmin
B
17 During a football match player A kicks the ball 40 m 30o E of S to player B who instantly kicks it30 m 60o E of N What is the magnitude of the resultant displacement of the ball (A) 30 m (B)40 m (C) 50 m (D) 60 m
C
18 How much work is done against gravity in sliding a 500g object through 2 m up a smooth planethat is inclined at 30o to the horizontal (g = 98 ms-2) (A) 98 J (B) 198 J (C) 162 J (D) 49 J
D
19 If a small body of mass m is moving with angular velocity ω in a circle of radius r what is itskinetic energy (A) mω r (B) m ω 2r2 (C) m ω r22 (D) m ω 2r22
D
20 In free fall two balls of masses 20 kg and 10 kg were dropped from a height If the ball withthe smaller mass reached the ground after 4 s what is the difference between the time thetwo balls reach the ground (A) 8 s (B) 2 s (C) 0 s (D) 4 s
C
21 In what distance can a 1500 kg automobile be stopped if the brake is applied when the speedis 20 ms and the coefficient of sliding friction is 07 between the tyres and the ground(A) 9810 m (B) 7167 m (C) 2915 m (D) 2010 m
C
22 The highest point of a simple pendulum bob is 5cm vertically above the lowest point as itswings to and fro between the two extreme ends At what velocity does it swing past thelowest point (equilibrium point) where the string is vertical (take g = 10 ms2) (A) 1 ms (B) 2ms (C) 5 ms (D) 10 ms
A
23 Three vectors A B and C add together to yield zero A + B + C = 0 The vectors A and C point inopposite directions and their magnitudes are related by the expression A = 2C Which one ofthe following conclusions is correct (A) A and B have equal magnitudes and point in oppositedirections (B) B and C have equal magnitudes and point in the same direction (C) B and Chave equal magnitudes and point in opposite directions (D) A and B point in the samedirection but A has twice the magnitude of B
B
24 Which of the following could be measured in the same units as force (A) Energydistance (B)Energy x distance (C) Energytime (D) Momentum x distance
A
25 Which of the following does not affect the pressure at a point beneath the surface of a liquid(A) Surface area of the liquid (B) Density of the liquid (C) Depth of the point below thesurface (D) Strength of the gravitational field
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
3
26 Which of the following pairs contains one vector and one scalar quantity (A) Displacementacceleration (B) Force kinetic energy (C) Momentum velocity (D) Power speed
B
27 Which of the following statements is correct (A) uniform speed always implies uniformvelocity (B) uniform speed always implies zero acceleration (C) uniform speed may imply non-zero acceleration (D) constant momentum implies constant acceleration
C
28 Which of the of the following is a measurement taken with Venier callipers (A) 20 cm (B)200 cm (C) 2000 cm (D) 20000 cm
B
29 Which of the units of the following physical quantities are derived I Area II Thrust IIIPressure IV Mass (A) I II III and IV (B) I II and III only (C) I II and IV only (D) I and II only
B
30 Which one of the following situations is not possibleA A body has zero velocity and non-zero accelerationB A body travels with a northward velocity and a northward accelerationC A body travels with a constant velocity and a time-varying accelerationD A body travels with a constant acceleration and a time-varying velocity
C
31If C is the thermal capacity of a material of mass m and S is its specific heat capacity then (A)C= sm (B) S = Cm (C) C = Sm (D) DS = ms
C
32 A black car can be more uncomfortably hot on a warm day than a white car because (A) it ishot on a warm day (B) a black object is a better absorber of heat (C) black cars have heatersinstalled in them (D) white cars have air conditioning systems installed in them
B
33 A little sag is left in overhead telephone wires (A) because taut wires do not conduct soundeasily (B) to allow for the effect of a rise in temperature due to heating effect of currentflowing through them (C) to allow for the effect of a rise in temperature of the surroundingatmosphere (D) to allow for the effect of a fall in temperature of the surroundingatmosphere
D
34 A piece of copper wire of length 100 cm at 30oC is heated to 120oC If its linear expansivity is18 times10-4 k its new length is (A) 1666 cm (B) 1016 cm (C) 1806 (D) 108 cm
B
35 A sample of a monatomic ideal gas is originally at 20 degC What is the final temperature of thegas if both the pressure and volume are doubled (A) 5 degC (B) 80 degC (C) 20 degC (D) 899 degC
B
36 A volatile liquid used for cooling purpose in refrigerator is (A) liquid ammonia (B) cold water(C) liquid nitrogen (D) liquid helium
A
37 Complete the following statement A temperature decrease of 30 Cdeg is equal to a temperaturedecrease of (A) 30 Fdeg (B) 17 Fdeg (C) 30 K (D) 86 Fdeg
D
38 Complete the following statement Bimetallic strips used as adjustable switches in electricappliances consist of metal strips that must have different (A) mass (B) volume (C) length(D) expansion coefficients
D
39 Heat can be transferred from one end of a metal rod in contact with heat to the other endwhich is in contact with heat through (A) Conduction (B) Convection (C) Radiation (D)Evaporation
A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
4
40 Heat supplied or removed from a system which causes a change of state without a change intemperature is (A) Specific heat (B) Heat capacity (C) Latent heat (D) Boiling heat
C
41 How many atmospheres of pressure must a litre of gas initially at a pressure of 1 atmosphereand temperature -20oC be after it has been compressed to frac12 litre at 40oC A 247 atm(B) 45 atm (C) 80 atm (D) 38 atm (E) 168 atm
A
42 On a cold day a good conductor X feels colder to the torch than a poor conductor Y because(A) Y retains more heat than X (B) the temperature of X is lower than that of Y (C) X conductsheat from the body less rapidly than Y (D) X transfers heat from body more rapidly than Y
D
43 The boiling point of water does not depend on (A) the impurities in water (B) the externalpressure (C) the quantity of water (D) all of the above
C
44 The ice and steam points of a local liquid in glass thermometer are 10 a and 90a respectivelyWhat will the thermometer read when the temperature is 30 0C (A) 40a (B) 38a (C) 36a(D) 34a
D
45 The lower and upper fixed points on a thermometer are 40 and 120 respectively Its reading at60oC is (A) 60 (B) 40 (C) 160 (D) 88
D
46 The pressure exerted by a given mass of gas in a container (A) Decreases if the container isheated (B) Increases if the molecules of the gas move faster (C) Increases if the volume of thecontainer is doubled (D) Decreases as the kinetic energy of the gas molecules increases
B
47 The temperature in an electric iron is regulated by (A) thermometer (B) bimettalic strip (C)steel (D) conductor
B
48 Water has an anomalous behavior between 0o and 4oC Which of the following is correct (A)Mass of water increases between 0oC and 4oC (B) Density of water decreases between 0oC and4oC (C) Volume of water increases between 0oC and 4oC (D) Volume of water decreasesbetween 0oC and 4oC
D
49 What is the Celsius equivalent of 500deg F (A) 10deg C (B) 20deg C (C) 30deg C (D) 40deg C A
50 When water is heated in a glass vessel the level first falls and then rises because (A) Theapparent expansion of the water is initially small and later increases (B) There is anomalousexpansion of water (C)The glass vessel does not expand (D)Glass vessel expands first beforewater starts a more rapid expansion
D
51 Which of the following quantities of water has undergone the greatest change from its heatcontent at melting point (A) 05 kg of water at 3oC (B) 02 kg of water at 8oC (C) 0005 kg ofwater at 80oC (D) 01 kg of water at 12oC
B
52 Which would cause a more serious burn 30 g of steam or 30 g of liquid water both at 100 degC
and why is this so
(A) Water because it is denser than steam (B) Steam because of its specific heat capacity
(C) Steam because of its latent heat of vaporization (D) Water because its specific heat is
greater than that of steam
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
5
53 A certain radioactive element has a half life of 20 years How long will it take the activity tobecome frac14 of its original(A) 20 years (B) 40 years (C) 60 years (D) 80 years
B
54 A plane progressive wave is represented by xty 20100sin2 where all the symbols
have their usual meanings What is the velocity of the wave
(A) 500 m s-1 (B) 400 m s-1 (C) 200 m s-1 (D) 100 m s-1
A
55 A point on a stationary wave where there is no movement of the medium is called (A) Node(B) Antinode (C) Note (D) Amplitude
A
56 A uniform wave has a speed of 10ms and a period of 05 s The distance between two nearestcrests is (A) 02 m (B) 20 m (C) 2 m (D) 5 m
D
57 A vibrating string has a tension of 40 and produces a note of whenݖܪ200 plucked in themiddle When the length of string is unaltered and the tension is increased to160 thefrequency becomes(A) ݖܪ1600 (B) ݖܪ800 (C) ܪ400 (D) ݖܪ200
C
58 An organ pipe closed at one end is 80cm long Determine the frequency of the fundamentalnote assuming that the speed of sound in air is 340ms (A) 213Hz (B) 318Hz (C) 425Hz (D)106Hz
D
59 As transverse wave moves through a medium the particles of the medium (A) vibrate in apath parallel to the path of the wave (B) do not move (C) vibrate in a path perpendicular tothe path of the wave (D) vibrate at an angle of 60o to the path of the wave
C
60 The sound heard after the reflection of sound wave from a plane surface is known as (A) Echo(B) Refraction (C) Vibration (D) Revibration
A
61 Which of the following properties is not common to all waves (A) Reflection (B) interference(C) Diffraction (D) Polarization
D
62 Which of the following statements is true about electromagnetic waves (A) They arelongitudinal (B) They can be seen (C) They have the same frequency in vacuum (D) They travelat the same speed in a vacuum
D
63 Which one of the following statements concerning electromagnetic waves is false (A)Electromagnetic waves are longitudinal waves (B) Electromagnetic waves transfer energythrough space (C) The existence of electromagnetic waves was predicted by Maxwell (D)Electromagnetic waves can propagate through a material substance
A
64 Which one of the following statements concerning waves is false (A) A wave can have bothtransverse and longitudinal components (B) A wave carries energy from one place to another(C) A wave does not result in the bulk flow of the material of its medium (D) A transversewave is one in which the disturbance is parallel to the direction of travel
D
65 A light sensitive area at the back of the eye where images are formed is called (A) Yellow Spot(B) Iris (C) Ciliary Muscle (D) Retina
D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
6
66 A luminous object is placed at a given distance from a converging lens of focal length 12cm anda real image is produced Find the image distance if it is equal to the object distance (A) 6cm(B) 3cm (C) 12cm (D) 24cm
D
67 An object is placed 15 cm in front of a concave mirror of radius 40 cm The image formed is(A) virtual and 60 cm behind the mirror (B) real and 60 cm in front of the mirror (C) virtual and40 cm from the mirror (D) at infinity
B
68 How far from a concave mirror of radius 120 cm must an object be placed such that its erectimage is four times its natural size (A) 72 cm (B) 64 cm (C) 45 cm (D) 50 cm
C
69 How many images are formed when an object is placed in front of two plane mirrors that areinclined at angle 30o to each other (A) 0 (B) 6 (C) 11 (D) 12
C
70 Professor Peters walks directly toward a plane mirror at a speed of 025 ms Determine thespeed of the image relative to him(A) 013 ms (B) 050 ms (C) 025 ms (D) 075 ms
B
71 The angle of incidence in a denser medium when the angle of refraction in the less dense
72 The driving mirror is a (A) plane mirror (B) convex mirror (C) concave mirror (D) thick planemirror
B
73 The following are types of a converging lens except(A) biconvex (B) plano-convex (C) mini-convex (D) converging meniscus
C
74 When the Sun the earth and the moon are in line during their movement with the earth beingthe opaque object and casting its shadow on the moon we have (A) Lunar eclipse (B) Totaleclipse (C) Partial eclipse (D) Annular eclipse
A
75 Which of the following instruments could be used in finding angle of elevation of the sun (A)Periscope (B) Telescope (C) Kaleidoscope (D) Sextant
D
76 Which of the following optical instruments does not depend on the use of plane mirrors (A)Kaleidoscope (B) Simple microscope (C) Sextant (D) Simple periscope
B
77 Which of the following statements supports the assumption that light travels in straight lines(A) light can be diffracted (B) light can be reflected (C) a source of light produces
interferences patterns on a suitably placed screen (D) a source of light produces distinctshadows of opaque objects
D
78Which of the following is correct about nuclear fission It is (A) the splitting of a heavynucleus into two or more lighter particles (B) an agent used to slow down neutrons in acontrolled atomic chain reaction (C) combing light atomic nuclei to form heavy (D) thespontaneous disintegration occurring in the nucleus of certain atoms
A
79 A light energy E falls on a metal and the electrons with a maximum kinetic energy of 02eV areejected If the work function of the metal is 03eV what is the value of E (A) 010eV (B)006eV (C) 050eV (D) 150eV
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
7
80 A nucleus is unstable if (A) it has two or more isotopes (B) its binding energy is not sufficientto hold nuclear particles together (C) it is very light with very low density (D) it has nosignificant mass
B
81 A radioactive substance has a half life of 4 years If its activity today is 200 dps its activity in 8years from today is (A) 50 dps (B) 25 dps (C) 20 dps (D) 10 dps
A
82 A substance has a half-life of 3min After 6min the count rate was observed to be 400Whatwas its count rate at zero time (A) 2400 (B) 200 (C) 1200 (D) 1600
D
83 An element and its isotopes differ only in the number of (A) electrons (B) neutrons (C)protons (D) irons
B
84 Complete the following sentence When electrons from a heated filament accelerate throughvacuum toward a positive plate (A) only an electric field will be produced (B) only amagnetic field will be produced (C) electromagnetic waves will be produced (D) longitudinalwaves will be produced
C
85 Radioactive elements are (A) chemically reactive elements (B) noble elements (C) rare earthelements (D) elements that spontaneously emit radiation
D
86 The following radiations are electrically neutral except (A) α-rays (B) ϒ-rays (C) X- rays (D)neutrons
A
87 Upon which one of the following parameters does the energy of a photon depend (A) mass(B) polarization (C) amplitude (D) frequency
D
88 Which of the following is NOT true about cathode ray (A) It moves in a straight line (B) Itcauses fluorescence (C) It possesses a negative charge (D) It can produce -particles
D
89 Who proposed the planetary model of the nucleus (A) J J Thomson (B) Albert Einstein (C)Ernest Rutherford (D) Marie Curie
C
90 X- rays cannot be used (A) to take photographs of bone structure in the body (B) to detectfinger prints (C) to detect flaws in metal castings (D) to detect alterations to works of art
B
91 1 farad is equivalent to (A) 1 coulombvolt (B) 1 voltcoulomb (C) 1 joulescoulomb (D) 1amperesec (E) volts per unit charge
A
92 A 0 - 10mA galvanometer with a coil resistance of 30 ohm can be converted to a 0-10Aammeter by using (A) 003ohm series resistor (B) 999ohm shunt resistor (C) 003ohm shuntresistor (D) 999ohm series resistor
C
93 A battery has an internal resistance of 4 and an emf of 12V The terminal voltage when a loadof 20 Ω is connected across it is (A) 4 (B) 10 V (C) 20 V (D) 2V
B
94 A conducting sphere has a net charge of 48 1017 C What is the approximate number ofexcess electrons on the sphere if the fundamental natural charge is -16 x 10-19C (A) 100 (B)300 (C) 200 (D) 400
B
95 A magnet cannot be demagnetized by (A) heating (B) hammering (C) chemical treatment (D)the use of solenoid through which an alternating current is flowing
C
96 An ac voltage is connected to an RLC series circuit of resistance 5 Ω inductance 3 mH and acapacitance of 005 microF Calculate the resonance frequency (A) 110 kHz (B) 120 kHz (C)130 kHz (D) 140 kHz
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
8
97 An electric heater converts 1KJ of electrical energy to heat energy every 2 second with 100efficiency The power produced is (A) 05 KW (B) 2 KW (C) 1KW (D) 10W
A
98 Complete the following statement The electromotive force is (A) the maximum potentialdifference between the terminals of a battery (B) the force that accelerates electrons througha wire when a battery is connected to it (C) the force that accelerates protons through a wirewhen a battery is connected to it (D) the maximum capacitance between the terminals of abattery
A
99 If a charged body is moving in a circle on a horizontal plane what is the general direction ofthe resulting magnetic field (A) In the plane of the circle (B) At an angle 45o to the plane ofmotion (C) Along the perpendicular axis through the center of the circle (D) Along thetangent to the circle
C
100 If a resistor is halved in magnitude and the potential across it is tripled then the ratio of theold current to the new current is (A) 13 (B) 31 (C) 61 (D) 16
D
101 The angle between the earthrsquos magnetic field and the horizontal is called angle of (A)declination (B) dip (C) variation (D) inclination
B
102 The basic difference between the galvanometer and the electric motor is (A) The size of themagnetic fields (B) The presence of hair springs in the galvanometer (C) The soft ironarmature in the galvanometer (D) The couple formed on the parallel sides of the rectangularcoil in the
B
103 The electromotive force is in such a direction as to oppose the motion or charge producing itThis is a statement of (A) Faradayrsquos Law (B) Lenz Law (C) Maxwell Law (D) Amperersquos law
B
104 The potential difference across the ends of a wire is doubled in magnitude If Ohmrsquos law isobeyed one of the following statements concerning the resistance of the wire is true (A) Theresistance is one half of its original value (B) The resistance is twice its original value (C) Theresistance is not changed (D) The resistance increases by a factor of four
C
105 The process of adding impurity to a semiconductor to increase its conductivity is called (A)Doping (B) Annealing (C) Heating (D) Hardening
A
106 Which if the following combinations consists of intrinsic properties of materials (A) volumeand density (B) density and mass (C) resistance and resistivity (D) density and resistivity
C
107 Which of the following can be measured with a potentiometer (A) Emf of a secondary cell (B)Resistivity of a wire (C) Potential difference across a conductor (D) Resistance of a wire
A
108 Which of the following devices is odd in the list (A) thermocouple (B) potentiometer (C) dcgenerator (D) solar cell
B
109 Which of the following is an essential physical property of the wires used for making fuses (A)high thermal conductivity (B) low density (C) low melting point (D) low electrical resistivity
C
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS
PHYSICS
9
110 Which one of the following statements concerning the magnetic force on a charged particle ina magnetic field is true (A) It is a maximum if the particle is stationary (B) It is a maximum ifthe particle moves parallel to the field (C) It acts in the direction of motion for a positivelycharged particle (D) It depends on the component of the particles velocity that isperpendicular to the field
D
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