U4 Practice Exam 2

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Critical Agendas 2012

Letter

Figures

Words

VCE Unit 4 PSYCHOLOGY

Practice Written Examination 2b from Exam Pack A

Reading time: 15 minutes

Writing time: 1 hour 30 minutes

QUESTION AND ANSWER BOOK

Structure of book

Section Number of

questions

Number of questions

to be answered

Number of

marks

A 45 45 45

B 12 10 35

C 1 1 10

Total 90

Students are permitted to bring into the examination room: pens, pencils, highlighters, erasers, sharpeners,rulers and one scientific calculator.

Students are NOT permitted to bring into the examination room: blank sheets of paper and/or white outliquid/tape.

No calculator is allowed in this examination.Materials supplied

Question and answer book of 24 pages. Answer sheet for multiple-choice questions. Additional space is available at the end of the book if you need extra paper to complete an answer. Instructions

Write your student number in the space provided above on this page. Check that your name and student number as printed on your answer sheet for multiple-choice questions

are correct, and sign your name in the space provided to verify this.

All written responses must be in English. At the end of the examination

Place the answer sheet for multiple-choice questions inside the front cover of this book

Students are NOT permitted to bring mobile phones and/or any other unauthorised electronic devices

into the examination room.

COPYRIGHT 2012

Please read important notice next page


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Multiple Choice Response Grid for Section A

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SECTION A- Multiple-choice questions


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Instructions for Section A

Answer all questions in pencil on the answer sheet provided for multiple-choice questions.

Choose the response that is correct or that best answers the question.

A correct answer scores 1, an incorrect answer scores 0.

Marks will not be deducted for incorrect answers.

No marks will be given if more than answer is completed for any question.

Question 1

Which of the following behaviours is not a learned behaviour?

a) Blinking when air is blown into your eyes

b) Talking with your friends

c) Refusing a Chinese food because it made you sick last time you ate Chinese.

d) A dog salivating at the sound of a bell

Question 2

The process of strengthening new and frequently activated neural connections through experience,and eliminating weak connections that are not used is called

a) graded potentiation

b) developmental potentiation

c) developmental plasticity

d) graded plasticity

Question 3

A neurotransmitter closely associated with the process of learning due to the pleasurable effects it

facilitates is

a) serotonin

b) gamma-aminobutyric acid

c) dopamine

d) glutamate

Question 4

Which of the imaging techniques below can be used to gain information about plasticity and

functional changes that occur in the brain?

a) computed tomography

b) positron emission tomography

c) x-ray

d) magnetic resonance imaging


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Question 5

In Pavlov's experiments, the dogs salivated to the sound of a bell. This illustrated that the neutral

stimulus had evolved into

a) a conditioned stimulus

b) a conditioned response

c) an unconditioned stimulusd) an unconditioned response

Question 6

Classical conditioning is based on

a) reinforcing different stimuli

b) forming an association between different stimuli

c) discriminating between different stimuli

d) spontaneous recovery of different stimuli

Question 7

One of the key differences between classical and operant conditioning is that

a) in classical conditioning, learning is based on voluntary behaviour, while in operant conditioning

learning is based on a reflexive response.

b) in classical conditioning, responses can be extinguished, while in operant conditioning responses

cannot be extinguished.

c) in classical conditioning responses cannot be extinguished, while in operant conditioning

responses can be extinguished.

d) in classical conditioning learning is based on reflexive responses, but operant conditioning is

based on voluntary behaviour.

Question 8

An unintentional side effect of Punishment can be to act as a reinforcer when

a) it is applied too long after the undesirable behaviour has been exhibited.

b) it is applied too soon after the undesirable behaviour is exhibited.

c) the frequency of the undesirable behaviour goes down.

d) the frequency of the undesirable behaviour goes up.

Question 9

In operant conditioning, extinction occurs if enough conditioning trials occur in whicha) the response is not followed by the consequence associated with it on earlier occasions.

b) the response is generalised to similar but alternative situations.

c) the unconditioned stimulus is presented without the presentation of the conditioned stimulus

d) variable-ratio schedules of reinforcement are used as opposed to fixed ratio schedules.


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Question 10

The word 'Operant' in Skinner's operant conditioning refers to

a) the means by which an organism learns to discriminate between different types of reinforcers.

b) the environment an organism inhabits when it is conditioned

c) the positive or negative outcome associated with an organisms behaviour

d) the response or behaviour an organism makes to act on its environment and cause some sort ofoutcome

Question 11

An appropriate example of a Response Cost is

a) being given a lolly for following instructions.

b) Being sent to the corner for throwing a tantrum in the kitchen

c) the removal of a shock when a rat presses a lever in a Skinner Box

d) having your mobile phone confiscated for texting in class

Question 12

Thorndike's law of effect is best illustrated by

a) A girl learning to iron a shirt by watching her mother.

b) blinking when a puff of air is blown into your eye.

c) folding and putting away the washing because you were praised when you did it last time.

d) being scared of the dark

Question 13

The major distinction between one-trial learning as proposed by Garcia and Koelling and the model

of classical conditioning put forward by Ivan Pavlov is that

a) in one-trial learning, the learning takes a more active role in the learning process than in classical

conditioning

b) in one-trial learning, the conditioned response is quick and simple to extinguish, however

considerable time and effort is required to extinguish a classically conditioned response.

c) un one-trial learning, the stimulus and the response may be separated by many hours, whereas

the response must coincide with the stimulus being presented in classical conditioning.

d) in one-trial learning the strength of the conditioned response is weaker than that experienced in

classical conditioning when spontaneous recovery occurs

Question 14In Tolman and Honzik's (1930 research on Latent Learning, rats roamed a maze once a day. One

group of rats was rewarded each time they worked their way through the maze, one group received

no reward throughout the study and a third group was rewarded for their efforts on day 10 of the

experiment. The rats in the thirds group

a) showed no improvement in performance compared to groups 1 and 2.

b) showed performances that were as good as rats rewarded from their first day in the maze.

c) responded better than rats that were never rewarded, but not as well as the group of rats that

were always rewarded.

d) responded equally with the rats that were never rewarded when in the maze.

Question 15


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Which one of the following option is not a characteristic of the work done by Kohler (1927) on

Learning by Insight.

a) The initial time the solution is performed it is done with few if any errors.

b) Solutions generated by this method are more resistant to forgetting, than if learned by trial and

error.

c) The solution is demonstrated with few if any errors the first time it is performed.d) The learning is gradual and partially complete.

Question 16

Bandura's Bobo doll experiments found that

a) children are less willing to imitate the actions of someone they have observed being punished for

their actions.

b) children are willing to imitate the behaviour of a model regardless of the observed consequences.

c) girls are more willing to imitate aggressive behaviours than boys.

d) children are willing to imitate the actions of someone they have observed being punished for their

actions.

Question 17

According to Bandura's Observational Learning Theory, the five elements that underlie observational

learning (in sequence) are

a) motivation, attention, reproduction, reinforcement, retention

b) attention, retention, reproduction, motivation, reinforcement

c) retention, reinforcement, reproduction, attention, motivation

d) attention, motivation, retention, reproduction, reinforcement

Question 18

Dale carefully watches his older brother play a game on the X-Box. When it gets to the stage he

always fails at he pays particular attention to how his brother negotiates his way around the

hazards. When it is his turn, to play he succeeds in getting to the next level using his brothers

strategy. Which learning theory below best reflects the manner in which Dale has learnt how to get

to the next level of the X Box game?

a) Classical Conditioning

b) Operant Conditioning

c) Learning by Insight

d) Observational Learning


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Question 19

If applying for a research grant to conduct an experiment that identically replicates Watson and

Rayner's 1920 study using a child like Little Albert, a modern ethics committee would state that the

design does not meet ethical requirements. Their primary argument for why such a proposal would

be rejected is because

a) Little Albert's fear response was generalisedb) they caused distress to the animals they used

c) the participant was an infant

d) they did not inform the mother of Little Albert about the nature of the experiment

Question 20

Throughout history, many influential and successful people have experienced mental health illnesses

a one point of their lives. This indicates that mental illness

a) is not an abnormal condition and is in fact necessary to achieve success.

b) is a normal aspect of everyones lifespan development and does not need special treatment.

c) is more common than society thinks, but it is still important to diagnose and treat.

d) is frightening and these people used deception to achieve their successful station in life.

Question 21

Beryl likes to be clean and washes her hands regularly to prevent herself from getting sick. Indicate

the behaviour pattern that would make her hand washing a dysfunctional behaviour.

a) Washing her hands after she goes to the toilet.

b) Washing her hands before and after she touches any object in her house.

c) Washing her hands before and after she prepares food.

d) Washing her hands after working in the garden.

Question 22

Which of the following is an advantage of the dimensional approach to classification of mental

disorders?

a) avoids labelling

b) enables categorical grading of a persons condition

c) is based on clear diagnostic guidelines

d) can be used by any mental health practitioner

Question 23The DSM-IV TR is a multi-axial system used to assist mental health practitioners in the diagnosis of

mental health disorders. How many axis are there in the DSM-IV-TR?

a) 1

b) 3

c) 5

d) 7


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Question 24

Which axis of the DSM-IV-TR is used to indicate a persons Global assessment of functioning

_______________? A low score on this axis indicates ______________ .

a) 1; the person has superior functioning

b) 3; the person has superior functioning

c) 5; the person is severely unwelld) 7; the person is severely unwell

Question 25

A biopsychosocial model or framework was proposed by George Engel in 1977 to explain the

interaction of biological, psychological and social factors in explaining mental health and mental

illness. An example of a psychological factor that is relevant to health of illness is

a) Genetic factors

b) Poverty

c) Medication

d) Coping style

Question 26

A stressor can be explained as

a) any change in the internal environment that indirectly affects an organism.

b) any change in the immediate environment which directly affects an organism.

c) the presence of external cues that lead to tension in an organism

d) the presence of internal cues that lead to tension in an organism

Question 27

A persons physiological response to stress can be traced back to the neural activation of the

__________________ and the HPA Axis.

a) SA system

b) SP system

c) PAM system

d) SM system

Question 28

The three interrelated organs involved in the HPA axis are

a) hypothalamus, pituitary gland, adrenal glandb) hepatic gland, pituitary gland, adrenal gland

c) homers gland, pancreas, ACTH

d) hepatic ganglia, placenta, ACTH

Question 29

The 'fight or flight' response to a stressor is triggered by the release of which two chemicals?

a) dopamine and GABA

b) acetylcholine and serotonin

c) noradrenalin and melatonin

d) adrenaline and noradrenaline

Question 30

Seyle described dystress as


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a) stress that has a positive effect

b) prolonged stress that results in physiological damage

c) stress that has a negative effect

d) a subjective experience of stress

Question 31The transactional model of stress and coping holds that an event is assessed as stressful, beneficial

or irrelevant at the __________________ stage.

a) Primary Appraisal

b) Secondary Appraisal

c) Problem-focussed

d) Emotion-focussed

Question 32

A major advantage of the transactional model of stress and coping in accounting for the stress

response is in its emphasis on

a) the socio-cultural appraisal of stress

b) the biological appraisal of stress

c) the cognitive appraisal of stress

d) all of the above

Question 33

According to Lazarus and Folkman, when a person assesses the resources available and their own

abilities to apply coping strategies to deal with a stressor they have entered the

a) primary appraisal stage of the transactional model of stress and coping.

b) secondary appraisal stage of the transactional model of stress and coping.

c) decided to apply problem focussed coping.

d) decided to apply emotion focussed coping.

Question 34

Which of the following is an example of a primary appraisal according to the Lazarus and Folkman

transactional model of stress and coping?

a) deciding the point where additional resources are needed to cope

b) any interaction between the individual and their environment

c) evaluating the usefulness of coping resources that are at hand

d) evaluating the potential effect of the stress

Question 35

Allostatic overload is similar to the ______________ stage of the GAS whereas heterostasis is similar

to the __________________ stage.

a) alarm; resistance

b) alarm; exhaustion

c) shock; resistance

d) resistance; exhaustion

Question 36

An example of how homeostasis differs from allostasis can be shown by


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a) hunger and appetite being highly adaptive to the amount of food available as an example of

allostasis

b) the bodies need to maintain core temperature within very narrow limits as an example of

homeostasis

c) the bodies need to maintain core temperature within very narrow limits as an example of

allostasisd) both A and B

Question 37

In which of the following scenarios is allostatic overload least likely to occur?

a) adapting and changing to the stressor

b) ongoing and recurrent stressors

c) continuing presence of an allostatic response after a stressor has been eliminated

d) one allostatic system failing and another system leading to the over activation of another system

Question 38

The relationship between stress-related disorders and socio-economic status is said to be linear.

a) People with high socio-economic status have high levels of stress-related disorders.

b) People with low socio-economic status have low levels of stress-related disorders.

c) People with high socio-economic status have low levels of stress-related disorders.

d) Socio-economic status has no impact on levels of stress-related disorders.

Question 39

Social support is said to 'offset the effects of stress'. Which of the following options is not a form of

social support people use to help or assist them deal with stress?

a) Appraisal Support

b) Tangible Assistance

c) Emotional Support

d) Cultural Support

Question 40

Acculturation and acculturative stress is most common in

a) Migrants who maintain traditional language and customs in a new society.

b) Migrants who are able to join a supportive expatriate community where cultural traditions and

language are maintained.c) Migrants who must interact with a dominant cultural group but feel alienated and confronted by

the societies cultural norms.

d) Migrants who must interact with a dominant cultural group and adopt the values, behaviours and

cultural persona associated with the societies cultural norms.


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Question 41

Social phobia, obsessive-compulsive disorder, Agoraphobia and Post-traumatic stress disorder are all

example of

a) Somatoform Disorders

b) Phobias

c) Dimensional Disordersd) Anxiety Disorders

Question 42

Panic attacks are a major symptom of Specific Phobia. But which symptoms below are not associated

with a Panic Attack?

a) Sweating

b) Fainting

c) Nausea

d) Chest pain and discomfort

Question 43

When using cognitive behaviour therapy (CBT) in the treatment and management of a specific

phobia, the mental health practitioner will emphasise

a) medication as the means of treating anxiety

b) resolving unconscious conflicts

c) specific environmental triggers

d) cognitive biases

Question 44

As a treatment for phobias, Flooding involves

a) systematically introducing a patient to increasingly real examples of the phobic stimulus

b) challenging the perceptions and beliefs about the dangerousness of the phobic stimulus

c) allowing the patient to use talking therapy to explore the root cause of the phobia

d) exposing the patient to the phobic stimulus or event until their levels of anxiety dissipate.

Question 45

Anti-anxiety drugs have been successfully used to reduce the effects of phobic stimuli on people

with a specific phobia by

a) being able to mimic the excitory effects of the neurotransmitter GABAb) being able to mimic the inhibitory effects of the neurotransmitter GABBA

c) being able to mimic the antagonistic effects of the neurotransmitter ACTH

d) being able to mimic the neurotransmitter dopamine that is an agonist inhibiting anxiety.

End of Section A


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SECTION B Short answer questions

Instructions for Section B

Answer all questions in the spaces provided. Write using black or blue pen.

Question 1

a. Define developmental plasticity.

1mark

b. Explain and justify the pattern of neurological changes associated with developmental plasticitythat occur when a person is very young compared to later stages of the lifespan.

2 marks

2 Describe how a SPECT could be used to measure the developmental plasticity of a personwho is a participant in a research study on the effect of temporal lobe development on the

learning of a musical instrument.

2 marks

Question 2

a. Amanda has developed a phobia of mobile phones. Compare and contrast graduatedexposure and flooding as techniques that could be used to treat her unwanted learnt

behaviour.

3 marks

b. Identify one socio-cultural factor that may have led Amanda to developing a phobia ofphones.


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1 mark

Question 3

Mali has just bought home a new addition to the family, a 10 week old German Shepherd Pup. Mali

is determined to train her dog how to go to the toilet in one corner of the yard. With reference to

the three-phase model of Operant Conditioning as informed by B.F. Skinner, suggest how Mali could

use shaping to achieve her goal.

__________________________________________________________________________________

__________________________________________________________________________________

__________________________________________________________________________________

__________________________________________________________________________________

3 marks

Question 4.

Demonstrate your understanding of Kohlers theory of insight learning and Tolmans theory of latent

learning by stating one difference and two similarities between their findings on learning.

Difference:

__________________________________________________________________________________

__________________________________________________________________________________

1 mark

Similarities:

__________________________________________________________________________________

__________________________________________________________________________________

__________________________________________________________________________________

__________________________________________________________________________________

2 marks


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Question 5

a. Name 2 criteria a person must meet to be considered mentally healthy by a mental healthpractitioner.

2 marks

b. State 2 criteria a person must meet to be considered mentally ill by a mental healthpractitioner.

__________________________________________________________________________________

2 marks

Question 6

a. Name one strength and one limitation of the categorical (DSM IV TR & ICD 10) approach toclassifying mental disorders.

2 marks

b. How is the dimensional (graded and transitional) approach to classifying mental disordersdifferent to the categorical approach?

2 marks

Question 7

a. Which element of biopsychosocial framework does Hans Seyles General Adaptation Syndromealigns itself with?

1 mark


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b. State one strength of the GAS

1 mark

c. State one limitation of the GAS (limitation should be distinctly different to the area addressed inpart b of this question.

1 mark

Question 8

How does meditation improve a persons ability to cope with stress

2 marks

Question 9

What is Psychodynamic therapy and how would a mental health practitioner use this technique to

treat a person with a phobia of feathers?

2 marks


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Answerone of the following questions. Tick the box next to the question you are answering.

Question 10 (Mood disorder: major depression) orQuestion 11 (Addictive disorder: gambling) orQuestion 12 (Psychotic disorder: schizophrenia)

Question 10 Mood disorder: major depression

a. Jessica has been diagnosed with major depression. According to the DSM IV TR, name one signand one symptom Jessica would have presented during her clinical interview with a mental

health practitioner for this diagnosis to be made.

2 marks

b. How would anti-depressant medication change Jessicas physiology to provide treatment forher depression?

2 marks

c. Why people in poverty have higher rates of depression than those with wealth?

2 mark


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or

Question 11 Addictive disorder: Gambling

a. Simon has been diagnosed with a gambling addiction. According to the DSM IV TR, name onesign and one symptom Simon would have presented during his clinical interview with a mental

health practitioner for this diagnosis to be made.

2 marks

b. What is the relationship between the dopamine reward system and gambling addiction?

2 marks

c. Why are recovery groups like gamblers anonymous beneficial as a potential treatment for agambling addiction?

1 mark


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or

Question 12 Psychotic Disorder: schizophrenia

a. Eugene has been diagnosed with Schizophrenia. According to the DSM IV TR, name one signand one symptom Eugene would have presented during his clinical interview with a mentalhealth practitioner for this diagnosis to be made.

2 marks

b. How do antipsychotic drugs (APD) provide treatment for sufferers of Schizophrenia?

1 mark

c. How would removing the social stigma of Schizophrenia aid Eugenes recovery?

2 marks

End of Section B


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SECTION C Extended answer question

Instructions for Section C

Answer the question in the space provided. Write using black or blue pen.

Your response may include diagrams, charts and tables.

Dr Radiocab conducted an experiment of methods used to train taxi drivers. He compared standard

training with his own super training program. Participants in the super training program saw

educational videos, participated in driver/client simulations as well as receiving standard training.

Both courses were run over six weeks. The researcher trained the super training group and an

assistant trained the other group. All participants were given a test of their knowledge of principles

of safe driving both before and after training.

The table below indicates the results of the study. Higher scores indicate better knowledge.

Table 1. Mean scores on Taxi Driver Road Rules and Traffic Safety Testing

Standard Training Group Super Training Group

Before training 5 4

After training 8 19

Statistical testing of the findings indicated a significantly different result at p


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10 marks

End of Section C


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Suggested Solutions:

Section A: Multiple Choice

----------Key----------

1. (a)

2. (c)

3. (c)

4. (b)

5. (a)

6. (b)

7. (d)

8. (d)

9. (a)

10. (d)

11. (d)

12. (c)

13. (c)

14. (b)

15. (d)

16. (a)

17. (b)

18. (d)

19. (d)

20. (c)

21. (b)

22. (a)

23. (c)

24. (c)

25. (d)

26. (b)

27. (a)

28. (a)

29. (d)

30. (c)

31. (a)

32. (c)

33. (b)

34. (d)

35. (d)

36. (d)

37. (a)

38. (c)

39. (d)

40. (c)

41. (d)

42. (b)

43. (d)

44. (d)

45. (a)

Suggested Solutions- Section B

Question 1

Define developmental plasticity.

The ability of synapses in the brain to be modified the process of strengthening new and

frequently activated neural connections through experience with the environment and eliminating

weak connections that are no longer used. 1 mark

Explain and justify the pattern of neurological changes associated with developmental plasticity

that occur when a person is very young compared to later stages of the lifespan.

There is a significant amount of developmental plasticity the occurs in the initial years of life. This is

when infants are stimulated by a wealth of new experiences and environmental stimuli for the first

time. The make new neural connections every day. Thousands of synapses are created for each

neuron in the cerebral cortex early in ones life.


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Developmental plasticity continues throughout the lifespan as a person continues to learn, but

neural growth and development slows with age which in turn limits the rate of developmental

plasticity as a person gets older. 2 marks

Describe how a SPECT could be used to measure the developmental plasticity of a person who is a

participant in a research study on the effect of temporal lobe development on the learning of a

musical instrument.

The person would be scanned prior to the training to establish baseline data on the functionality of

the temporal lobe.

During the training phase learning a musical instrument there would be one or two instances

where the participant would be measured to indicate whether or not developmental plasticity was

occurring.

When the participant can autonomously play the instrument, a final scan would be conducted to

compare the changes in the way the temporal lobe functions as an indicator of the effect treatment

(learning a new instrument) had on temporal lobe functioning. 3 marks

Question 2

Amanda has developed a phobia of mobile phones. Compare and contrast graduated exposure

and flooding as techniques that could be used to treat her unwanted learnt behaviour.

Graduated Exposure:

A process where individuals extinguish the association between the phobic stimulus and anxietythrough a series of graded steps known as a fear hierarchy.

Incremental exposure allows the patient to gradually face the phobic stimulus and replace the fearresponse with the specific relaxed response.

Flooding:

Flooding involves exposing a phobic person repeatedly to the object of fear either in vivo (reallife/natural setting) or indirectly by imagination or virtual reality. The technique initially creates

significant distress in the patient.

It is not suggested for most individuals because it can trigger a higher level of sensitisation or fearreinforcement.

It works well when the individual is highly motivated and given appropriate support through theprocess.

Eventually through sustained contact the patient learns to relax in the presence of the phobic stimulus.Flooding would be a much quicker therapy, however, it would also be far more traumatic for the

patient compared to graduated exposure therapy which would take much longer (many more

sessions) but have only moderate distress causing episodes (more often though). 3 marks

Identify one socio-cultural factor that may have led Amanda to developing a phobia of phones.

Students could refer to any one of the following three options:


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Specific Environmental Triggers: where something in the environment triggers the anxiety-fear response.

All Specific Phobias have a direct relationship to the persons environment or their knowledge of it.

Parental Modelling: where parental influences have shaped the development of anxiety disorders of their

children, particularly relevant in social anxiety.

Transmission of Threat Information: Where parental modelling has transmitted strong threat informationfrom specific stimuli to their children. Often occurs for stimuli a parent has a phobic response with themselves.

- Also occurs through other gatekeepers including peers, friends, teachers and the media.1 mark

Question 3

Mali has just bought home a new addition to the family, a 10 week old German Shepherd Pup. Mali

is determined to train her dog how to go to the toilet in one corner of the yard.

With reference to the three-phase model of Operant Conditioning as informed by B.F. Skinner,suggest how Mali could use shaping to achieve her goal.

3 marks

Shaping Method of successive approximations & Chaining

Shaping is a procedure in which a reinforcer is given for any response that successively approximates and

ultimately leads to the desired response or target behaviour.

Often used with animal training. Skinner applied this technique to teach a pigeon, amongst other things to turn

a complete circle in an anti-clockwise direction and to 10-pin bowl but Mali could easily use the technique to

train her dog to poop in a specific location.

Where more complicated animal tricks are concerned, chaining is often used which is similar to shaping except

that it involves stringing together a number of individual tricks into a sequence and is achieved by working

backwards.

In terms of shaping, if the dog motions towards the desired location and poops reward it initially,

then the dog would need to walk towards the location before being rewarded. Eventually the dog

would only be rewarded if it did its business in the correct location.

Therefore, sequentially she would catch the dog about to go to the toiled and take it to the spot

and then associate a verbal cue (discriminative stimulus), the dog does its stool (behaviour) and then

she rewards the dog with praise and affection (consequence).

If the dog has an accident, no fuss (punishment) would be forthcoming. She would again take the

dog to the spot, give it a chance to relieve itself again and if it did, reward it for the positive

behaviour. Using the verbal cue would also help teach the dog to go to the toilet on demand.

3 marks


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Question 4.

Demonstrate your understanding of Kohlers theory of insight learning and Tolmans theory of latent

learning by stating one difference and two similarities between their findings on learning.

Difference: The primary differences between these two cognitive theories of learning are that:

-in latent learning the participant can learn materials / skills etc via observation, but not

exhibit the behaviour. In insight learning the organism has not watched another organism

perform the behaviour.

-in latent learning the organism learns the behaviour without intending to, and it is not done

with the intent of obtaining information (kind of passive), in insight learning, the organism

must choose to manipulate the environment to get the correct environment (active?)

-insight learning is said to have occurred when the relationships relevant to the solution arefound, and this could happen in a split second (aha-phenomenon), whereas latent learning

can occur over a period of time

Students only need to provide one option from above for 1 mark

Similarities:

-in both, non-observable mental calculations are done (in insight this is done in the

incubation stage, in latent learning this is the cognitive map)

-the learning appears to be "sudden", in one moment/trial it appears that the participant has

not learned anything, in the next, they suddenly have all this exhibited knowledge. learning is

not exhibited until needed 2 marks

Question 5

Name 2 criteria a person must meet to be considered mentally healthy by a mental health

practitioner.

To have Mental Health: Any two of the following criteria should be provided for 2 marks

A state of emotional and social wellbeing in which a person can fulfil his or her abilities Cope with normal stresses of life, Work productively and be able to contribute to the community. With sound mental health, individuals feel good about themselves and are able to get on

with their lives smoothly.


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State 2 criteria a person must meet to be considered mentally ill by a mental health practitioner.

A health condition that affects the way a person thinks, feels and acts and that causes theperson distress and difficulty functioning.

The condition is overwhelming to the point where the individual has great difficulty copingwith day-to-day activities and maintaining relationships.

Symptoms occur for significantly longer periods of time than is the case with a mental healthproblem.

To be diagnosed with a mental illness a qualified mental health professional (such as apsychiatrist, a psychologist or a social worker) must evaluate a person on the basis of the

symptoms he or she has, how long the symptoms have persisted and how his or her life is

being affected. 2 marks

Question 6

Name one strength and one limitation of the categorical (DSM IV TR & ICD 10) approach to

classifying mental disorders.

Strengths: (One needed for credit) 1 mark

A major advantage of classification systems for mental disorders is that inappropriate behaviours canbe distinguished from functional ones.

A range of mental disorders are arranged, organised and described in a particular manner and order.Psychologists and other mental health practitioners use these manuals as they provide a commonlanguage for therapists, researchers, social agencies and health workers worldwide. This aids

diagnosis, selection of appropriate treatments / therapies for the given conditions.

It allows for consistent diagnoses and treatments from hospital to hospital, clinic to clinic, all over theworld.

Limitations: (One needed for credit) 1 mark

The DSM-IV-TR does not explain the causes of the various psychological disorders. This approach boxes people into one of the available categories, sometimes inappropriately, and it

does not accommodate the unique nature of the human condition.

These classifications do not account for people who have atypical symptoms or those that do notclearly follow the script.

Critics claim that categorical systems reduce humans to one-dimensional sources of data rather thanencouraging practitioners to treat the whole person.

Critics also see these systems as tools for social control giving mental health professionals controlover peoples lives.


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How is the dimensional (graded and transitional) approach to classifying mental disorders

different to the categorical approach?

2 points from the list below are required for credit (2 marks)

The dimensional approach is a method of categorising mental illness where an individual has a profile of scoreson different continuums of diagnoses and symptoms. Clinicians grade or rate the severity of the symptoms or

disorder by allocating a score or grade on specified dimensions.

Compared to categorical measures of mental health and mental illness:

Dimensional classification does not attempt to place people into discrete, diagnostic categories.Instead, key characteristics are identified upon which all persons can be placed, recognising that

mental disorders lie on a continuum with mildly disturbed and normal behaviour, rather than being

qualitatively distinct.

The dimensional approach is better able to capture many of the subtleties and complexities ofpersons life that are missed within the categorical systems.

The dimensional approach evaluates symptoms not only on their presence, but also on their severityor degree.

The distinction between normal and abnormal is not absolute, but rather a zone where there can be avarying degree of the symptom or characteristic.

Dimensional approach is more nuanced and provides an accurate reflection of the state of a givencharacteristic or symptom in a person.

It allows sufferers to see improvement in their condition more readily and help to identify whichfactors have the largest impact on their well-being.

In making a diagnosis using the dimensional approach there is much scope for variable judgements onthe part of the clinician evaluating or rating the symptom or characteristic much more inconsistency

in its use.

The dimensional approach increases the complexity of the communication of the disorder to fellowprofessionals and the public.

Most theorists cannot agree on how many dimensions are required; some say one dimension isenough, while others have identified as many as 33 dimensions.

Question 7

Which element of biopsychosocial framework does Hans Seyles General Adaptation Syndrome

aligns itself with? Biological Level of Analysis 1 mark

State one strength of the GAS - Options include: 1 mark

There are a number of stages in response to a stressor If the stressor is prolonged or too severe the organism can no longer adapt and is exhausted. This provides an explanation for the link between stress and disease


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State one limitation of the GAS (limitation should be distinctly different to the area addressed in

part b of this question. 1 mark

Definition of stress states that all stress is non-specific and the body responds the same way this is nottrue.

There are a number of chronic stress related disorders if stress was non-specific, the bodys response to alltypes of stressors would be identical and therefore there would be only one type of stress-related disorder.

This also is not true.

Individuals stress responses differ in the specific components of the stress response due to genetic,environmental and social factors.

Question 8

How does meditation improve a persons ability to cope with stress 2 marks

Meditation: A collection of different strategies that aim to direct a persons focus away from current everyday

concerns the techniques redirect the flow conscious thought to a focussed pathway which causes alpha brainwaves which promote calmness and relaxation. There are two major methods of meditation which improve a

persons ability to cope with stress:

Concentration method: where the person focuses on a single thought or function, such as breathing, and

dismisses all other thoughts, ideas, emotions or distractions.

Non-concentration meditation: where the person focuses on their current thought or emotion not directly,

but observes it as if they were in someone elses shoes.

Question 9

What is Psychodynamic therapy and how would a mental health practitioner use this technique to

treat a person with a phobia of feathers?

(one relevant point defining Psychoanalytic therapy and one relevant point on techniques of

treatment are required for 2 marks).

Psychodynamic psychotherapy is based on the theories proposed by Freud It is a type of psychological treatment that aims to help people understand the roots of emotional

distress by exploring unconscious conflicts, motives, needs and defences

Based on Freuds theory that all mental disorders are caused by unresolved psych ological conflictsthat occur in the unconscious with their origins being in early childhood

These conflicts show up in fantasies and dreams but the conflicts are so threatening that they appearin disguised forms, in the shape of symbols.

The aim of this treatment is to help people to understand the cause of the emotional distress (whatthe symbols mean) and resolve the unconscious conflicts

Through talk therapy the psychoanalyst would explore the persons past to enable the patient to identify the

manifestation behind the phobia of feathers using a range of the techniques below:

Free association is when the client is encouraged to say whatever comes to their minds in order toidentify the themes involved in their gambling

Dream interpretation involves clients sharing their dreams as the psychodynamic perspective has thebelief that dreams symbolically represent information stored in the unconscious mind


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Identification of defence mechanisms is essential for treatment to work as it prevents the unconsciousconflicts from being explored and resolved. Denial and omnipotence are two common defence

mechanisms that gamblers use

Denial is the refusal to believe whatever it is that may be causing ones anxiety or emotional conflict;omnipotence refers to the feeling of being all powerful and is a direct defence against feelings of

inadequacy and helplessness

Transference provides a valuable source of information by the client unconsciously responding to thetherapist as though they are a significant person in their life

Question 10 Option 1 - Mood disorder: major depression

Jessica has been diagnosed with major depression. According to the DSM IV TR, name one sign

and one symptom Jessica would have presented during her clinical interview with a mental health

practitioner for this diagnosis to be made. 2 marks

One Sign and One Symptom from the list below for 2 marks:

Depressed mood most of the day Less interest or pleasure in all activities Weight loss or gain (when not dieting) Sleeping difficulties Slowed or fastened movements Tiredness or loss of energy Feeling worthless Difficulty concentrating Thoughts of death

How would anti-depressant medication change Jessicas physiology to provide treatment for her

depression? 2 marks

Despite a delayed onset of two to six weeks for action, antidepressants relieve symptoms and make

people feel better but they do not change their personality or the psychological / socio-cultural

underlying issues that may have caused the condition in the first place.

SSRIs: Selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitors (SSRIs) reduce or block the reabsorption of serotonin

by the presynaptic neurons that release that neurotransmitter. Consequently, a relatively normal orhigh level of serotonin is allowed to accumulate in the synapse which influences the activity of

postsynaptic neurons and reduces negative affect.

MAOIs: Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) and tricyclics increase the level of noradrenaline and

serotonin in the brain which relieve depressed feelings, elevate arousal and mood and reduce

anxiety. These changes restore normal sleeping patterns and appetite.


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Why people in poverty have higher rates of depression than those with wealth? 1 mark

Any of the options below are appropriate.

People in poverty have an undermined sense of competence, personal control and self-esteem.

For people in poverty, the concept of learned helplessness is also a relevant consideration,as in many cases, it doesnt matter what they do to break the poverty cycle, they can never

get ahead.

These factors all contribute to and act as triggers for depression in people who are alreadypredisposed to suffer from it.

However, not all people will react in the same way so one should be careful not to pigeon hole all

people who live in poverty as being depressed.

or

Question 11 Option 2 - Addictive disorder: Gambling

Simon has been diagnosed with a gambling addiction. According to the DSM IV TR, name one sign

and one symptom Simon would have presented during his clinical interview with a mental health

practitioner for this diagnosis to be made.

Two points below are needed for credit: 2 marks

The individual experiences excessive and persistent fear of a specific object or situation.Examples of common specific phobias are listed in the next section.

The individual experiences feelings of anxiety, fear, or panic immediately upon encounteringthe feared object or situation.

The person recognizes that the fear is excessive, unreasonable, or out of proportion to theactual risk in the situation.

The individual tends to avoid the feared object or situation, or if he or she doesnt avoid it,endures encounters with the feared object or situation with intense anxiety or discomfort.

The individuals fear, anxiety, or avoidance causes significant distress (i.e., it bothers theperson that he or she has the fear) or significant interference in the persons day -to-day life.

For example, the fear may make it difficult for the person to perform important tasks at

work, meet new friends, attend classes, or interact with others. In children younger than 18 years of age, the problem must be present for at least six

months before a diagnosis of specific phobia would be considered appropriate.

The persons fear, panic, and avoidance are not better explained by another disorder. Forexample, an individual with an extreme and impairing fear of public speaking only, and who

is concerned that others will judge him or her negatively, might be considered to have social

anxiety disorder, rather than a specific phobia.


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What is the relationship between the dopamine reward system and gambling addiction? 2 marks

The dopamine is commonly associated with the reward-seeking system of the brain, providingpleasure and reinforcement /motivation for a person to perform certain activities.

When dopamine is released into certain areas of the brain (dopamine reward pathway), feelings ofsatisfaction and enjoyment occur and this experience becomes desirable to a point where people will

repeat behaviours that elicit those same feelings / satisfy that desire.

Each time a person has a gambling win enormous amounts of dopamin e are released. It does notappear to matter how much a person loses, the dopamine reward pathway of the brain is powerful

enough to motivate the individual to keep gambling to satisfy the desire and they become addicted.

Why are recovery groups like gamblers anonymous beneficial as a potential treatment for a

gambling addiction? 1 mark

The programs are free to the public (so do not add financial strain to the individual) They are facilitated by peers, use group support and a set of guided principles (the 12 steps)

to obtain and then maintain sobriety from the addictive behaviour.

Gamblers have easy access to social support and advice from others on how to deal withtheir addiction.

The use of a sponsor a former gambler who has had experience in remaining soberprovides guidance and assistance.

or

Question 12Option 3 Psychotic Disorder: schizophrenia

Eugene has been diagnosed with Schizophrenia. According to the DSM IV TR, name one sign and

one symptom Eugene would have presented during his clinical interview with a mental health

practitioner for this diagnosis to be made. 2 marks

Characteristic symptoms: Two (or more) of the following, each present for a s ignificant portion of

time during a 1-month period (or less if successfully treated):

delusions hallucinations disorganized speech (e.g., frequent derailment or incoherence grossly disorganized or catatonic behaviour negative symptoms, i.e., affective flattening, alogia (poverty of speech), or

avolition (lack of motivation)


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How do antipsychotic drugs (APD) provide treatment for sufferers of Schizophrenia? 1 mark

Antipsychotic drugs reduce dopamine activity are the most effective in controlling the positivesymptoms (delusions and hallucinations) of schizophrenia.

They lower dopamine activity by occupying dopamine receptor sites in the neuron and blocking itsactivity.

How would removing the social stigma of Schizophrenia aid Eugenes recovery? 2 marks

Stigmawhen an individual or group is characterised as being unacceptable, outside the social or community

group.

There are 3 key elements to stigma:

Labelling of someone as unacceptably different Stereotyping the person as having a number of undesirable fixed characteristics Devaluing or excluding the labelled and stereotyped person.

To reduce stigma all three aspects need to be addressed to eliminate the ignorance, prejudice and

discrimination it creates.

Removal of social stigma is important to reduce social isolation and stress.

SECTION C Extended answer question

Dr Radiocab conducted an experiment of methods used to train taxi drivers. He compared standard

training with his own super training program. Participants in the super training program saw

educational videos, participated in driver/client simulations as well as receiving standard training.

Both courses were run over six weeks. The researcher trained the super training group and an

assistant trained the other group. All participants were given a test of their knowledge of principles

of safe driving both before and after training.

The table below indicates the results of the study. Higher scores indicate better knowledge.

Table 1. Mean scores on Taxi Driver Road Rules and Traffic Safety Testing

Standard Training Group Super Training Group

Before training 5 4After training 8 19

Statistical testing of the findings indicated a significantly different result at p


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iv. Discussion: Write the initial section of the Discussion which should contain theconclusion(s) based on the hypothesis (or hypotheses) and a statement of the

implications of the conclusion(s). Weaknesses of this experimental design and

procedures to eliminate these should be described.

Elements to be included in the introduction:

Variables to be studied:

IV:Super Training Program in addition to normal training vs normal training alone

DV: Taxi driver knowledge of principles of safe driving.

Independent Variable operationalized as educational videos, participated in driver/client simulations

as well as receiving standard training.

Dependent variable operationalized as the improvement in testing scores on a taxi driver road rules

and traffic safety test.

Possible Hypothesis: That trainee taxi drivers who participate in a super training program in will

achieve a greater knowledge of road rules and traffic safety than trainee taxi drivers who complete a

standard training course.

Elements to be included in the discussion:

Conclusion: The results are significant at p


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Criteria 1: Knowledge and Comprehension (5 marks)

The following points should be assessed as being present on the basis of Very High, High, Medium,

Low, Very Low or Not Shown:

Introduction contains IV and DV, acknowledges different levels of the IV and correctlyexplains operationalization of the DV.

The hypothesis includes population, IV, DV Discussion contains a conclusion (accepted/rejected hypothesis) Implications for the conclusion are correct Weaknesses of the design are correctly identified and appropriate procedures for

elimination are identified.

Criteria 2: Higher Order Thinking Skills (5 marks)

The following points should be assessed as being present on the basis of Very High, High, Medium,

Low, Very Low or Not Shown:

Effectiveness and clear application and use of report-writing conventions Effective and clear written communication Critical and insightful interpretation and evaluation of the study to draw conclusions Comprehension correct use of psychological terminology and information

U4 Practice Exam 2

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