TEST No. 1569 Explanation

8/17/2019 TEST No. 1569 Explanation

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GENERAL STUDIES Prelims Mock TEST No. 1569

VISION IAS ONLINE SYSTEM

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Q.1 :c

In Odisha school of architecture, the Shikhara which

is also known as deul, is vertical until the top and

then it suddenly curves sharply inwards.

The ground plan of the main temple known as

jagamohana is almost sqaure in shape. the mostunique feature of this school is that exterior walls of

the temples of this school are lavishly decorated

through inticrate carvings but interior walls are plain.

hence statement 3 is incorrect.

There is no use of stone pillars in this school rather

iron girders were used to support roof, hence

statement 4 is also incorrect.

Hence option c is correct.

Q.2 :d

Chola kingdom which is also known as

Cholamandalam, was situated to the north-east of

the territory of the Pandyas, between the Pennar

and the Velar rivers. Their chief center of political

power was at Uraiyur. One of the main sources of

the wealth of the kingdom was trade in cotton cloth.

Chola king named Elara conquered Sri Lanka and

ruled it for nearly 50 years.

Romans set up two regiments at Muziris in CheraKingdom not in Chola Kingdom. Hence statement 4

is incorrect and option d is correct.

Q.3 :c

Both statements are correct regarding Pre-

Historic rock Paintings of Bhimbetka.

Bhimbetka is excellent example of

develoment of art and rock paintings.

Q.4 :d

Different styles of Hindustani music are

Dhrupad, Dhamar, Thumri, Khayal, Sadra and

Tappa.

Q.5 :a

During chalcolithic period, in Maharashtra, people

buried their dead under the floor of their house in

north-south position along with copper objects.

However, Harrapan people buried the dead in

separate cemetries.

Second statement is correct. - Harrapan people inGujrat produced rice and domesticated elephants.

Harrapan people knew the use of wheel but not

spoked rather they used solid wheels in carts.

4th statment is also correct, there were no temples

have been found at any Harrapan site, however,

they used to worship mother goddesses.

Hence option a is correct.

Q.6 :d

All statements are correct.

Q.7 :b

Nalanda became a great centre of learning

during Harsha’s reign. Students from

different parts of the world came here toimbibe learning.

It was supported by the revenues of 200

villages.

Although this huge monastic-educational

establishment was primarily a centre for

learning of Mahayana Buddhism, yet the

curriculum included secular subjects as well.

Grammar, logic, epistemology and sciences

were taught here.

Q.8 :c

Pietra dura is a decorative art that used

precious and semi precious stones - cut,

fitted and polished to create designs and

images. Used the most during Shah Jahan

period.

The arabesque is a form of artistic decoration

consisting of "surface decorations based on

rhythmic linear patterns of scrolling and

interlacing foliage, tendrils" or plain lines,

often combined with other elements.

As among the Muslims the representation of

living beings was taboo by way of decoration

or ornamentation, they introduced

geometrical and arabesque patterns,

ornamental writing and formal

representation of plant and floral life.

Q.9 :d

Orissa, on the eastern sea coast, is the home

of Odissi, one of the many forms of Indian

classical dance. Sensuous and lyrical, Odissi

is a dance of love and passion touching on

the divine and the human, the sublime and

the mundane. The Natya Shastra mentions

many regional varieties, such as the south-eastern style known as the Odhra


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Magadha which can be identified as the

earliest precursor of present day Odissi.

Archaeological evidence of this dance form

dating back to the 2nd century B.C. is found

in the caves of Udayagiri and Khandagiri

near Bhubaneshwar.

Q.10 :a

Correct answer is a

B refers to Boorugu in kuchipudi

C refers to Ilakiattam in Kathakali

D refers to Karanas in general. Most

prominent in Bharatnatyam

Q.11 :d

As an answer to Lord Birkenhead's challengegiven to Indian politicians to produce an

agreed constitution, an All Parties

Conference met in Feb.1928 and appointed a

sub-committee under the chairmanship of

Motilal Nehru to draft a Constitution, and

thus Nehru Report came up .

Q.12 :b

Madame H.P. Blavatsky and Colonel M.S.

Olcott founded the Theosophical Society in

the United States in 1875, were inspired byIndian culture and thought. The Society, in

1882, shifted their headquarters in to Adyar(

Madras), accepted the hindu beliefs in

reincarnation and karma and drew

inspiration from the philosophy of

Upanishads, samkhya, yoga and vedanta

schools of thought. The Theosophical

Movement came to be allied with Hindu

renaissance. Hence, both statements are

wrong.

Q.13 :c

The first humble beginnings with respect to

education were made by the Charter Act of

1813, which directed the East India Company

to sanction one lakh rupees annually to

encourage learned Indians and promoting of

modern sciences and not oriental knowledge.

Hence, 1st statement is incorrect.

However, there arose a debate among the

members within the General Committee on

Public Instruction , popularly known as

Orientalist-Anglicist controversy, with respect

to government spending on education on

which subjects and medium of instruction. Itwas Lord Macaulay , who settled this row in

favour of Anglicists i.e. the government

resources to be spent on teaching western

sciences and literature through the medium

of English language alone, through his

famous Macaulay Minute in 1835. Hence, 2nd

statement is incorrect.

Wood's Despatch of 1854, also known asMagna Carta of English Education in india ,

was the first comprehensive plan for the

spread of education and asked the

Government to assume the responsibility for

education of the masses. Hence, only 3rd

statement is correct.

Q.14 :b

Dr. Ambedkar thought that separate

electorate might help in empowerment of

lower classes. But according to Gandhiji, thismight have created a permanent chasm

between upper classes and lower classes. So

Gandhiji opposed this idea of separate

electorate and in opposition of the communal

award he started fast unto death which

forced Ambedkar to sign Poona Pact with him

and let go his demand of separate electorate

, paving way for unstead , reservation of

seats for the Depressed Classes in general

constituencies. Hence, 1st statement is

correct and 2nd statement is incorrect.

Dr. Ambedkar was not opposed to

partition. Ambedkar, in his treatise Thoughtson Pakistan (1941), held that a Pakistan withpeaceful transfer of population is desirable

for a strong India with national feeling.

Hence, 3rd statement is incorrect.

Q.15 :c

statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct regarding

Deccan riots of 1875. In 1867 the

government raised land revenue by nearly

50% and the situation worsened by a

succession of bad harvests. Initially the

movement was peaceful with peasants

resorting to social boycott of outside

moneylenders. Later the movement turned

into riots and the peasants attacked

moneylender houses and shops. They seized

and publicly burnt debt bonds and deeds

during the riots. Ryotwari system was

followed in Deccan during 1870s.

Q.16 :a

In the Zamindari system, the Zamindars

were vested with ownership of land and theycollected revenue from the Peasants.


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In the Ryotwari system, land ownership was

vested with Peasants and revenue was

directly collected from them.

In the Mahalwari system, village committee

was responsible for tax collection and the

land ownership was vested with the village

community

Q.17 :d

British subjects in 1873 had been exempted

from trial by Indian magistrates, and in cases

involving death or transportation they could

only be tried by a high court.

Ilbert Bill proposed by Lord Ripon in 1883

sought to allow senior Indian magistrates to

preside over cases involving British subjects

in India.

This proposal as embodied in the Ilbert Billprovoked furious protests, especially among

the Calcutta (Kolkata) European business

community and the Bengal indigo planters,

and there was covert sympathy from many

officials.

Indian National Congress was not yet formed

during the controversy. The bitter

controversy surrounding the measure

deepened antagonism between British and

Indians and was a prelude to the formation of

the Indian National Congress the following

year.

Q.18 :c

As an answer to the Lord Birkenhead’s

challenge to Indian politicians to produce an

agreed Constitution was accepted by

all Indian political parties and therefore was

called an, All Parties Conference at Delhi in

January 1928. The conference was attended

by all the important parties including Indian

National Congress, All India Muslim League,

National Liberal Federation, Hindu

Mahasabha, Central Sikh League etc .Hence,

1st Statement is correct.

Nehru report included the points

like Dominion status for India ; Rejection of

separate electorate; 19 Fundamental rights

which include universal adult franchise as a

fundamental right.Hence, 3rd Statement is

correct.

Q.19 :b

After sudden withdrawal of Non-cooperation

movement , two groups were formed, swarajists and

no-changers. no-changers favoured constructivework. Swarajists wanted to join legislative councils

because they wanted to expose the weakness of

legislative councils and use councils for political

struggle to arouse popular enthusiasm. So option (b)

is correct.

Q.20 :b

Ground Source Heat Pumps (GSHP’s) use the

earth's relatively constant temperature

between at a depth of 20 feet to provide

heating, cooling, and hot water for homes

and commercial buildings.

GSHP harvests heat absorbed at the Earth's

surface from solar energy. It uses the earth

as a heat source (in the winter) or a heat sink

(in the summer).

GHP’s is effective in all kind of climate zonesor can be deployed anywhere in India.

The basic principle on which the GSHP works

is "refrigeration cycle". The refrigerant

carries the heat from one "space" to another.

So option B correct.

Q.21 :d

The demand of the Satyagraha was the total

remission of land revenue due to failed crops

and not to reduce the untimely increase of

land revenue. Hence, 1st statement isincorrect.

Gandhiji did not undertake any fasting in

Kheda, rather he asked the farmers to

withhold the revenue payments. Gandhi

undertook fast unto death in Ahmedabad Mill

Strike and later on the issue of Communal

Award..Hence, 2nd Statement is incorrect.

The government never agreed to the

demands and reduced the revenues. The

government was not willing to openly

concede the peasants' demands. However

ther they issued secret instructions directing

that revenue should be recovered only from

the peasants who afford to pay it.Hence, 3rd

Statement is incorrect.

Q.22 :c

Kharai Camels- are an eco-tonal breed, as

they survive in a dry land ecosystem as well

as in a coastal ecosystem, and can easily

swim in deep sea.They are the only camels

who can swim and who have adapted to the

extreme climate of Rann and shallow seas

and high salinity.Gujarat(Rann of Kutch) is

the only home to this breed of camel. Theyfeed and digest on mangoves, saline trees


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and shrubs.The growth of industrial activities

in the coastal areas of Kutch has minimized

the availability of camel food and water

sources. Salinity has increased throughout

the region. Thus, the socioeconomic

condition of Kharai camel breeders (

Maaldhari Community) in Kutch is underthreat.

As per latest counting, the state has 6,200

camels out of which around 2,200 are found

in areas such as Lakhpat, Abdasa, Mundra

and Bhachau in Kutch whereas the remaining

are seen in South Gujarat near Aliya Bet.

As the breeds having less than 10,000

population are identified as endangered, it

can get special recognition and care.

Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

Q.23 :a

More than 70 per cent of all the species

recorded are animals, while plants (including

algae, fungi, bryophytes, gymnosperms and

angiosperms) comprise no more than 22 per

cent of the total.

Among animals, insects are the most species-

rich taxonomic group, making up more than

70 per cent of the total. That means, out of

every 10 animals on this planet, 7 are

insects.

The number of fungi species in the world is

more than the combined total of the speciesof fishes, amphibians, reptiles and mammals.

All statements are correct so option A

Q.24 :c

GST will subsume the indirect taxes for Goods and

Services produced in India - not those imported into

India. Customs duty, although an indirect tax, is

imposed on goods imported, not manufctured.

Corporation tax is a direct tax. Entertainment tax is

levied at state and local level. The state component

of the tax has been subsumed in the GST while local

component has not.

Q.25 :d

All the statements are correct

The Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD) is defined by

the difference in sea surface temperature

between two areas (or poles, hence a dipole)

– a western pole in the Arabian Sea (western

Indian Ocean) and an eastern pole in theeastern Indian Ocean south of Indonesia.

During a ‘positive IOD’, the eastern

equatorial Indian Ocean off Sumatra in

Indonesia becomes colder than normal while

the western tropical part of the ocean near

the African coast becomes unusually warm.

An IOD can counter or worsen an El Nino’s

impact on the monsoon.

Q.26 :c

Labrador Current is a cold current of North

Atlantic ocean.

Canary Current is a cold water Current,

which flows along the western coast of

Northern Africa

Kuroshio (or Kuro Siwo) Current of Pacific is

similar to the gulf stream of Atlantic.

The Cold Oyashio (or Oya Siwo) Current

(similar to Labrador current) is also known asKurile current & it flows through the Bering

Strait in a southerly direction.

Peru Current, also known as the Humboldt

Current is a cold current, which flows along

the west coast of South America.

Agulhas Current (Warm Current) is a branch

of the south equatorial current, which flows

along the eastern coast of Madagascar.

Q.27 :c

Geostrophic winds: Air under the influence of both the pressure gradient force and Coriolis

force tends to move parallel to isobars in

conditions where friction is low (1000 meters

above the surface of the Earth) and isobars

are straight.

Geostrophic winds come about because

pressure gradient force and Coriolis force

come into balance after the air begins to

move.

A geostrophic wind flows parallel to the

isobars.

In this model of wind flow in the Northern

Hemisphere, wind begins as a flow of air

perpendicular to the isobars under the

primary influence of the pressure gradient

force (PGF). As the movement begins, the

Coriolis force (CF) begins to influence the

moving air causing it to deflect to the right of

its path. This deflection continues until the

pressure gradient force and Coriolis force are

opposite and in balance with each other.

Q.28 :b


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Lifting air masses cool adiabatically (by expansion)

to reach the dew-point temperature. Moisture in the

saturated air then can condense and form clouds,

and perhaps precipitation. Four principal lifting

mechanisms operate in the atmosphere:

■ Convergent lifting—air flows toward an area of lowpressure

■ Convectional lifting—air is stimulated by local

surface heating

■ Orographic lifting—air is forced over a barrier such

as a mountain range

■ Frontal lifting—air is displaced upward along the

leading edges of contrasting air masses

Q.29 :d

A similar council can also be established in a state

having scheduled tribe but not scheduled areas,

therein if the president so directs.

The governor is empowered to direct that any

particular act of the parliament or the state

legislature doesnot apply to a scheduled area.

Q.30 :c

The constitution is the source for enabling or barring

a candidate from becoming CM.

Normally, a non-member can be CM for a maximum

of six months only if he/she is eligible for contesting

an election. It is mentioned in article 164.

The law is that the disqualification continues for six

years from the date of release not from the date of

conviction.

Q.31 :b

Amendments to a bill can be introduced at

the stage of second reading only. During the

first reading the bill is introduced while

during the third reading the whole bill is

voted upon.

It is not mandatory for every bill to be

referred to a parliamentary committee

during second reading. House may or may

not refer the bill to the committee.

A private member bill does not require

permission of President.Defeat of money bill indicates loss of

confidence of Lok Sabha in the government.

Hence, the government has to resign.

Q.32 :c

NASA plans to send solar-powered airships toexplore Venus’ atmosphere and to eventually

establish a permanent human colony in a

floating cloud city above the Earth’s nearest

planetary neighbor. NASA’s High Altitude

Venus Operational Concept (HAVOC) mission

aims to explore the atmosphere of Venus

instead of exploring the surface.

Q.33 :b

The Convention on the Elimination of All

Forms of Discrimination against Women(CEDAW), adopted in 1979 by the UN

General Assembly, is often described as an

international bill of rights for women.

Under this convention, States parties agree

to take all appropriate measures, including

legislation and temporary special measures,

so that women can enjoy all their human

rights and fundamental freedoms. Countries

that have signed the Convention are legally

bound to put its provisions into practice. The

Convention is the only human rights treaty

which affirms the reproductive rights of

women and targets culture and tradition asinfluential forces shaping gender roles and

family relations.

Q.34 :b

Post of king was hereditary but he did not

enjoy unlimited power. And there is also

evidence of some election body (assembly)

like samiti.

Widow remarriage was allowed as mentioned

in Rig Veda. There is no instance of child

marriage.

We find most hymns devoted to Indra and

Agni.

Q.35 :d

Digital India has 3 focus areas:

1. Digital Infrastructure to all Citizens

2. Governance and Service on demand

3. Digital Empowerment of all Citizens

Digital India is an Umbrella mission which has

subsumed under it various earlier programmes likeNeGP, ESDM Pollicy, National Optic Fibre Network,


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etc.

It seeks to promote 9 pillars of growth including

Electronics Manufacturing and IT for Jobs

Q.36 :d

The civil disobedience movement with no

rent, no tax campaings encouraged the

peasant movements.Hence, 1st Statement is

correct.

The economic depression of 1930 brought

agricultural prices crashing down. High rents

and taxes gave impetus for peasant

movements.Hence, 2nd Statement is correct.

The formation of congress ministries

provided for greater civil liberties and various

agrarian legislation. This encouraged the

peasant movements.Hence, 3rd Statement iscorrect.

The outbreak of second world war made the

government to launch severe repression

against left leaders and kisan sabha leaders.

And hitler's attack on Soviet union made the

communists to take pro-war stand. This

acted as a setback for the peasant

movements. Hence, 4th Statement is

incorrect.

Q.37 :b

Particulate Matter are tiny particles in the air that

reduce visibility and cause the air to appear hazy

when levels are elevated. They are able to travel

deeply into the respiratory tract, reaching the lungs.

Exposure to fine particles can cause short-term

health effects such as eye, nose, throat and lung

irritation, coughing, sneezing, runny nose and

shortness of breath. There are outdoor and indoor

sources of fine particles. Outside, fine particles

primarily come from vehicle exhausts, burning of

fuels such as wood, construction dust, etc. Fine

particles also form from the reaction of gases or

droplets in the atmosphere from sources such as

power plants. Because fine particles can be carried

long distances from their source, events such as

wildfires or volcanic eruptions can raise fine particle

concentrations hundreds of miles from the event.

Outdoor air levels of fine particles increase during

periods of stagnant air (very little wind and air

mixing), when the particles are not carried away by

wind.

Q.38 :d

All pairs are correctly matched. Hence Option D is

correct.

More Information -

Nutrient Disease Symptoms

Nitrogen (N) Red leaf of cotton 1. Nitrogen deficien

respiration.2. Plant

poorly and is light g

colour.3. Lower leavyellow.

Magnesium (Mg) Sand drown disease in

tobacco

First older then you

leaves becomes mo

chlorotic then reddi

and margins of leav

upward.

Molybdenum (Mo) Whiptail disease of

cauliflower.

Melon plants exhibit

yellowing and stunti

they fail to set fruit.

Copper (Cu) Dieback of citrus Chlorosis symptoms

, stone fruit, diebac

twinges in summer

Q.39 :b

Podsolization is associated with humid cold

mid-latitude climates & coniferous

vegetation. Cold & humid climate is most

favorable for podsolization. Siliceous (sandy)

materials with poor reserves of weatherable

minerals favor the operation of podsolization

as they help in easy percolation of water.

Hence 1st statement is incorrect.

Laterization is pedogenic process commonto soils found in tropical & subtropical

environments. Hence 2nd statement is

correct

Calcification occurs when

evapotranspiration exceeds precipitation

causing the upward movement of dissolved

alkaline salts from groundwater and is

common in the prairie grasslands. Hence 3rd

statement is correct

Gleization is a pedogenic process

associated with poor drainage. This process

involves the accumulations of organic matter

in upper layers of soil. Hence 4th statement

is incorrect.

Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

Q.40 :b

It decreases with increase in latitude. At the

Equator, a circumference of 40,077 km is to

be covered in 24 hrs. Hence the speed is

calculated to be about 1660 km/hr, but it

decreases as we move towards the Poles. At

450latitude, the earth spins at the rate of

about 1,120 kilometers per hour. At the

poles, the movement is very little.


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Q.41 :a

Mountains in Karnataka are gently sloping,

compared to the steep slopes of the Ghats in

Maharashtra and Kerala.

Q.42 :c

Most of the erosion in Chambal valley is in form of

gully erosion.

Q.43 :b

Second statement is wrong. Patkai Bum

forms the international boundary between

Arunachal Pradesh and Myanmar.

Q.44 :b

Plants are in continuous struggle against heat, dry

air, excessive evaporation and prolonged droughts.

Trees with small broad leaves are widely spaced and

never very tall.The absence of shade is a distinct

feature of Mediterranean lands.

Conditions in Mediterranean do not suit grass,

because most of the rain comes in cool season when

growth is slow.

Q.45 :c

MFN status essentially means normal trade among

member countries and doesn’t ask for special

treatment to any country.

In WTO, there is no way of enforcing the verdict of

the dispute settlement body.

Special Safeguard Mechanisms (SSMs) are set of

provisions through which a WTO member country

can temporarily impose higher than bound tariff

rates on the import of a particular agricultural

product if there is a sudden surge in imports of that

product into the country. The SSM provisions are

available to all developing and least developed

country members of the WTO.

Q.46 :c

Import Quotas are imposed to reduce the quantity

and thus protect the domestic producers.

Administrative Barriers means countries use

administrative rules regarding food safety,environmental standards etc. as a way to introduce

barriers to imports.

Government’s subsidies are given to local firms that

cannot compete against foreign imports. These

subsidies aim to protect local jobs, and to help local

firms to adjust to the world markets.

Export subsidies are used by governments to

increase exports. Exporters are paid a percentage of

the value of their exports. It increases the amount of

trade and help local producers.

Q.47 :b

Grievances based on non implementation of

Directive Principles cannot be challenged in Court.

All these different Acts are to give effect to different

DPSPs mentioned in constitution like right towork,equal pay for equal work,protection of interests

of workers etc.

Q.48 :c

Power to issue writs is a method of protecting

fundamental rights of the people. It has no relation

with the maintenance of federal features.

Adjudication of disputes is directly related with

federal feature of the constitution. Power of judicial

review in specific cases may preserve the federal

feature.

Q.49 :d

Question hour is the first hour of sitting session of

both lok sabha and rajya sabha. Zero hour starts at

mid noon (12pm) in which members of parliament

raises important question. Filbustering is a political

tool used for delaying a specific legislation on being

put to vote by means of extension of debate.

Q.50 :d

All the statements are correct.

Section 377 of the Indian Penal Code led to

nondiscrimination of homosexuality .

Lord Macaulay drafted Indian Penal

Code,1860 and introduced it in 1861.The

credit for drafting the IPC, 1860, including

the controversial Section 377 goes to

him.Thus the British drafted Section 377 of

the IPC, while replacing a tolerant Indian

attitude towards sexuality with a highly

oppressive one.

Sexual orientation is a ground analogous tosex and that discrimination on the basis of


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sexual orientation is not permitted by Article

15. Section 377 of IPC also violates the

constitutional protections embodied in

Articles14 and 21. It makes it an

unreasonable classification as it unfairly

targets the homosexuals or gay community,

thus infringing their right under article 14. Italso unreasonably and unjustly infringes

upon the right of privacy which is sine qua

non to article 21, under its expanded scope.

IPC is in concurrent list so can be amended

by State governtments with consent of

President.

Q.51 :a

Currency notes and coins are therefore called fiat

money. They do not have intrinsic value like a gold

or silver coin. They are also called legal tendersasthey cannot be refused by any citizen of the country

for settlement of any kind of transaction. Cheques

drawn on savings or current accounts, however , can

be refused by anyone as a mode of payment. Hence,

demand deposits are not legal tenders.

Currency that a government has declared to be legal tender,

but is not backed by a physical commodity. The value of fiat

money is derived from the relationship between supply and

demand rather than the value of the material that the money

is made of.

Q.52 :c

Sonar and Radar work on the same

principle of detecting an object through echo.

SONAR (Sound Navigation and Ranging) uses

sound waves as in water radio waves are

easily absorbed but sound waves can travel

far.

RADAR (Radio detection and ranging) is

used for aerial detection as radio waves have

high penetration in air whereas sound waves

have low penetration in air.

Hence, statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct

as range of SONAR will decrease as radio waves are

absorbed more easily. Statement 3 is incorrect as

sound waves are reading absorbed in air

Q.53 :d

· Convention on International Trade in

Endangered Species of Fauna and Flora (CITES):

In order to regulate international trade in

endangered species of Wild Life, the Convention on

International Trade in Endangered Species of wildfauna and flora (CITES) was signed in March 1973.

· World Heritage Convention:

India is a member of World Heritage Convention

responsible for listing of World Heritage Sites, which

include both Cultural and natural sites. The World

Heritage Convention is a Convention under the aegis

of the United Nations Educational, Scientific andCultural Organization (UNESCO). Wild Life wing of

the Ministry of Environment and Forests is

associated with the conservation of the Natural

World Heritage sites.

· The Convention on Conservation of Migratory

Species (CMS) or Bonn Convention aims to conserve

migratory species throughout their range. The

Convention came into force in 1979. India is a

signatory to the convention since 1983.

· International Union for Conservation of Nature

and Natural Resources - The IUCN Red List of Threatened Species (also known as the IUCN Red

List or Red Data List), conservation status of plant

and animal species

Q.54 :d

speculative demand for money can be written as

M=(Rmax-R)/(R-Rmin)

where R is the market rate of interest and Rmax and

Rmin are the upper and lower limits of R, both

positive constants. It is evident from equation thatas R decreases from Rmax to Rmin, the value of M

increases from 0 to ∞.

Hence 2nd statement is correct.

Similarly 1st statement is also correct. Another way

to understnd is -

to grasp why bond prices move opposite to interest

rates is to consider zero-coupon bonds, which don't

pay coupons but derive their value from the

difference between the purchase price and the par

value paid at maturity.

if a zero-coupon bond is trading at $950 and has a

par value of $1,000 (paid at maturity in one year),

the bond's rate of return at the present time is

approximately 5.26% ((1000-950) / 950 = 5.26%).

If current interest rates were to rise, giving newly

issued bonds a yield of 10%, then the zero-coupon

bond yielding 5.26% would not only be less

attractive, it wouldn't be in demand at all. Who

wants a 5.26% yield when they can get 10%? To

attract demand, the price of the pre-existing zero-

coupon bond would have to decrease enough to

match the same return yielded by prevailing interest

rates.


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Q.55 :d

· Biomethanation is anaerobic

digestion of organic materials which isconverted into biogas, a gaseous

combustible mixture, of methane (CH4).

Biomethanation is a biological treatment

method that can be used to recover both

nutrients and energy contained in wet

biodegradable municipal waste.

· Gasification is incomplete

combustion which produces combustible gas

such as hydrogen, synthetic fuels and is a

process that converts dry organic or fossil

based carbonaceous materials into carbon

monoxide, hydrogen and carbon dioxide at

elevated temperature (500-1800C)· Pyrolysis uses heat to break down

combustible polymeric materials in the

absence of oxygen, producing a mixture of

combustible gases (primarily methane,

complex hydrocarbons, hydrogen, and

carbon monoxide), liquids and solid residues.

The products of pyrolysis process are: (i) a

gas mixture; (ii) a liquid (bio-oil/tar); (iii) a

solid residue (carbon black).

· Incineration technology is complete

combustion of waste with the recovery of

heat to produce steam that in turn produces

power through steam turbines. ButIncineration produces dioxins which are POPs

(Persistent Organic Pollutants)

Q.56 :d

All the statements are correct.

While calculating national output ,the assumption

made is that the bulk of the commodities and

services produced are exchanged for

money.India,where agriculture is carried on a

subsistence basis ,a considerable portion of the

output does not come to the market for sale.At

present ,there is no proper method of finding out the

amount consumed at home or bartered away with

producers.So 1st statement is correct.

A very large number of producers carry on

production at family level or on a very small

scale.They are so illiterate that they dont maintain

regular accounts.As relatively high proportion of the

economy being in Unorganised sector,margin of

error in the estimation increases.So statement 2nd is

correct.

A significant part of the economy operates as hiddenor subterranean economy and the income generated

in it goes as unreported income .so statement 3rd is

also correct.

Q.57 :a

The MEIS has replaced five existing schemes: Focus

Products Scheme, Market-linked Focus Products

Scheme, Focus Market Scheme, Agriculture

Infrastructure Incentive Scrips and Vishesh Krishi

Grameen Udyog Yojana (VKGUY).

Q.58 :d

The Global Innovation Index 2014 (GII), in its 7th

edition this year, is co-published by Cornell

University, INSEAD, and the World Intellectual

Property Organization (WIPO, an agency of the

United Nations, UN)

The theme of the 2014 GII, the ‘Human

Factor in Innovation’, explores the role of the

individuals and teams behind the innovation

process. Statistically capturing this human

contribution to innovation is a daunting

challenge.India slipped off 10 places to 76 th place. India

is worst performer among BRICS countries.

China -29, Russia 49, SA – 53, Brazil 61 (each

country is moving up places except India

Q.59 :d

Unlike National Investment Fund (NIF), Special

National Investment Fund is a fund maintained

outside the Consolidated Fund of India to transfer

the shares of certain listed loss making central

public sector enterprises (CPSEs) which were found

to be non-compliant with the Rule that minimum

10% of the shares issued be held by the public

(which means non-promoter entities) to be eligible

to remain listed on stock exchanges of the country.

Presently, NIF is part of public accounts. Hence

statement 1 is incorrect.

In structure, it mimics the original concept of

National Investment Fund(NIF) created for receiving

the disinvestment proceeds of central public sector

enterprises. The difference stems from the fact thatonly shares are transferred here and not receipts


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from the sale of shares of CPSEs. Further special NIF

is aimed only at loss making CPSEs. Hence

statement 2 is correct.

The Special NIF would be managed by independent

professional fund managers as was originally the

case with NIF. Hence statement 3 is correct. Theshares so transferred to the fund will be sold in the

capital market gradually over a period of 5 years by

the fund managers. The funds realized from the sale

of shares would be used for social sector schemes of

the Government. Hence statement 4 is incorrect.

Hence option d is correct.

Q.60 :a

Cut in CRR and SLR affects the supply side of thebanks, thus leading to decrease in base rate. Hence

they are directly related to base rate. Hence option

(a) is incorrect.

Cut in repo rate affects the demand side and thus

lead to decrease in base rate. Thus, it is also directly

proportional to base rate.

Open market operations are carried out by RBI for

selling and re-selling of government bonds to

monitor liquidity.

Cut in repo rate will lead to monetary transmissiononly if bank decreases the base rate.

Q.61 :a

El Nino Modoki — which causes warm moist

conditions in the Central Pacific and dry cold

conditions in Eastern and western pacific.

A more familiar phenomenon, El Nino, was

found to suppress cyclone formation in the

Arabian Sea.

The number of cyclones per year show

significant differences indicating those El

Nino Modoki years are conducive for cyclone

formation over Arabian Sea while El Nino is

conducive for cyclones over the Bay of

Bengal.

All statements correct, option A

Q.62 :b

Easterly Jet streams steers the tropical cyclone in

India so Statement 1 is wrong. Statement 2 and 3

are correct.

Hence correct option is (b)

Q.63 :c

In India, the Dryland farming is largely

confined to the regions having annual rainfall

less than 75 cm.

It is in West Bengal, farmers grow threecrops of rice annually called ‘aus’, ‘aman’

and ‘boro’.

Assam accounts for about 53.2 per cent of

the total cropped area and contributes more

than half of total production of tea in the

country.

Q.64 :c

Pulses are the legume crops which increase

the natural fertility of soils through nitrogen

fixation. The cultivation of pulses in India islargely concentrated in the drylands of

Deccan and central plateaus and

northwestern parts of the country.

Fruits and vegetables are majorly grown

during Zaid season (April-June).

About 2,33,000 hectares across the country

was used for floriculture, producing

17,29,000 metric tonnes (MT) of loose

flowers and 76,732 lakh cut flowers. Andhra

Pradesh leads in loose flowers production

with 2,24,410 MT cultivated over 34,850

hectares, followed by Karnataka at 2,07,500

MT cultivated in 29,700 hectares and TamilNadu with 3,12,970 MT grown in 28,700

hectares.

Q.65 :c

Both the statements are correct. Tectonic lakes are

formed due to fractures and faults in the earth’s

crust. On the other hand, crater lakes are formed

when the craters and calderas of volcanoes are filled

with water.

bhojtal is an unique man-made wetland,

characteristic of the Central Indian Plateau region.

During the in tervening 900 years the ecosystem has

stabilized and presently it represents a near natural

wetland.

Q.66 :b

A strait is a naturally formed, narrow,

typically navigable waterway that connects two

larger bodies of water. Straits are the converse of

isthmuses. That is, while a strait lies between two

land masses and connects two larger bodies of water, an isthmus lies between two bodies of water


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and connects two larger land masses. Artificial

waterways are Canals.

A bay is a body of water connected to an ocean

or lake, formed by an indentation of the shoreline. A

large bay may be called a gulf or a sea.

Bays can exist as the estuary of a river. Bays may be

nested in each other; for example, James Bay is an

arm of Hudson Bay. Some large bays, such as

the Bay of Bengal and the Hudson Bay, have

varied marine geology.

Q.67 :c

Algae and cyanobacteria are autoprophic , they

prepare their own food but zooplankton donot.

Organisms are divided into autotrophs andheterotrophs according to their energy pathways.

Autotrophs are those organisms that are able to

make energy-containing organic molecules from

inorganic raw material by using basic energy

sources such as sunlight.

Plants are the prime example of autotrophs, using

photosynthesis. All other organisms must make use

of food that comes from other organisms in the form

of fats, carbohydrates and proteins. These

organisms which feed on others are called

heterotrophs.

Q.68 :d

All are true. Hence answer is option (d)

Q.69 :a

This writ is issued by the court to enquire into the

legality of claim of a person to a public office. Hence,

it prevents illegal usurpation of public office. The

writ can be issued only in case of a substantive

public office of permanent character. Therefore, it is

not applicable to a ministerial post. Further, this writ

can’t be issued against members of higher judiciary,

who only be removed through impeachment

procedure.

Q.70 :b

Non-mulberry silk, otherwise known as Vanya silk

are abundantly found in remote regions, hilltops and

in forest interiors of Burma, China, India, Korea and

parts of equatorial Africa and South- East Asia.

Vanya Silk includes Tasar, Eri and Muga silks. India isthe only country producing all the three vanya silks

commercially exploited besides, of course, the

mulberry silk. Muga silk, the golden silk of assam is

the exclusive product of India.

Q.71 :c

Sugarcane is the main raw material for making sugar

and south India having more favorable conditions i.e.

The production of sugarcane per hectare is higher,

the sucrose content is higher in the tropical variety

of sugarcane grown in south India apart from that

crushing season in south India is longer than in north

India provides better output.

In south India most of the mills have modern

machinery and most of the mills in Peninsular India

are in cooperative sector, where profit maximization

is not the sole objective and can be seen as a reason

for shifting the sugar industry.

Cheap and abundant supply of power is available in

south India is not the reason behind this shift.

Q.72 :b

Keibul Lamjao National Park, which is located amid

the Loktak Lake in Bishnupur district in Manipur, is

known for the floating decomposed plant materials

called ‘Phumdis’ and it is the only floating park in the

world and this is included under Ramsar site.

Phawngpui National Park is located in the blue

mountains of Mizoram is habitat for species like the

mountain goat, tiger, leopard, leopard cat, serow,

Asiatic black bear, and langur and bird species like

blyth’s tragopan, falcon, sunbird, dark-rumped swift,

hume’s pheasant, hornbills and grey sibia.

Nameri National Park , Assam consists of mainly

semi-evergreen and moist deciduous forest

Established as an elephant reserve, today it is home

to several other endangered species like tigers,

leopards, dholes and Himalayan black bears. Other

common animal species that are found in Nameri

National Park are pygmy hog, gaur, wild boar, sloth

bear, capped langur and Indian giant squirrel.

The Balphakram National Park, Meghalayaalso

comprising the Garo Hills, is home to a rich variety of

flora and fauna. The national park is home to water

buffalo, red panda, elephant and eight species of

cats.

Q.73 :a

PCI is a statutory quasi-judicial authority mandated

by the Parliament to preserve the freedom of thepress and maintain and improve the standards of


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newspapers and the news agencies in India.

Press Trust of India (PTI) is India’s largest news

agency. It is a non-profit sharing cooperative owned

by the country’s newspapers with a mandate to

provide efficient and unbiased news to all the

subscribers.

The PCI has rendered its opinion from time-to-time

to Law Commission and also to Election Commission

on issue of Paid News etc.

NAM News Network uses English, French, Spanish

and Arabic for exchange of News among its member

countries.

Q.74 :c

The concept of Sevottam is related to reforms,performances and public grievances and comes from

the Hindi words “Seva” and “Uttam” and means

excellence in service delivery.

The Shram Suvidha Portal was launched in the Pt.

Deen Dayal Upadhyay Shramev Jayate programme

in 2014. This portal will facilitate ease of reporting at

one place or various Labour Laws, consolidated

information of Labour Inspection and its

enforcement. This initiative will bring together all

multiple labor enforcement agencies on a common

platform.

eBiz is to avail 14 Government of India Services

through online single window portal.

"Sagarmala Project" has been launched with an

objective of modernizing the ports along India's

coastline and achieving rapid expansion of port

capacity and development of inland and coastal

Navigation.

Udaan scheme is for youth of Jammu & Kashmir to

provide skills and provide employ-ability with the

help of National Skill Development Council (NSDC).

Q.75 :c

Disciplinary action can be only by Centre but

transfers, promotion and other controls lies in the

hands of state. So option 1 is correct.

New All India service may be created only when

Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by majority of 2/3

rd of members resent and voting. So option 2 is

wrong.

Creation of all India services affects the interests of

states this is the reason because of whichconstitution made provision that prior permission of

Rjaya sabha is required before the creation of All

India Services.

Q.76 :b

Zonal councils are statutory bodies and chairman isunion home minister. So option 1 and 2 are wrong.

Scheduled areas has certain specific features, need

so special power are given to governor to take care

of them such that he can make rules for scheduled

areas, he is empowered to direct that an act of

parliament does not apply to a schedule area. So

option 3 is correct

Q.77 :a

- First statement is incorrect as the term threatenedin IUCN Red List includes Critically Endangered,

Endangered as well as vulnerable species.

- According to recently published IUCN Red List for

2014, India added 15 more species to threatened

category; however, since China added 37 more

species which made India to come down one spot to

7th position. But if we analyse the rise in species

under this head since 2008, there is almost 50%

increase in the number of species under threatened

category due to modern research tools used for

species exploration and deforestation.

- SOS is a funding initiative under the guidance of

IUCN and funding from World Bank and Global

Environment Facility, which focuses on the

conservation and protection of threatened species,

their habitat and the communities which depend on

them. It was launched in October, 2014.

- Last statement is also correct as the given species

are threatened and they are from India.

Q.78 :b

Dissolving a substance in a liquid lowers its freezing

point and elevates its boiling point.

Q.79 :a

Temporary hardness is a type of water

hardness caused by the presence of

dissolved bicarbonate minerals (calcium

bicarbonate and magnesium bicarbonate).

Permanent hardness is hardness (mineral

content) that cannot be removed by boiling.


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Hard drinking water is generally not harmful

to one's health, but can pose serious

problems in industrial settings, where water

hardness is monitored to avoid costly

breakdowns in boilers, cooling towers, and

other equipment that handles water. In

domestic settings, hard water is often

indicated by a lack of suds formation when

soap is agitated in water.

Q.80 :a

1. Tungsten disulfide

2. Graphite

Q.81 :b

Rust is composed of iron oxides. In colloquial usage,

the term is applied to red oxides, formed by the

reaction of iron and oxygen in the presence of water

or air moisture.

Q.82 :c

This is the concept of relative motion that as the

earth rotates on its axis from west to east the sun

appears to rise from east and set in west

Q.83 :d

the displacement of a body is the shortest distance

between the final and initial positions of the body. If

the body is travelling along a straight line, the

distance = displacement. In all other cases it is less

than the distance.

Q.84 :b

The Supreme Court is authorized to grant in its

discretion special leave to appeal from any judgmentin any matter passed by any court or tribunal in the

country (except military tribunal and court martial).

Therefore, options (a) and (c) are incorrect. SLP

cannot be claimed as a matter of right. This power of

Supreme Court falls under Appellate jurisdiction.

Q.85 :b

Constitution lays down only two qualifications for the

appointment of a person as a governor. These are:

1. He should be a citizen of India.

2. He should have completed the age of 35 years.

Statements 3 and 4 are also correct but these are

conventions that have developed in this regard.

These are not provided for in the Constitution.

Q.86 :c

Citizenship (Amendment) Act 2015 was passed by

the Parliament in March, 2015.

The Act provides for Persons of Indian Origin

cardholders to be considered as Overseas

citizen of India cardholders.

Therefore, both will now get life-long visa.

Earlier, PIO cardholders were entitled to visa

free entry into India for 15 years.

The Act provides that where a person

renounces their overseas citizenship, their

minor child shall also cease to be an

Overseas Citizen of India. The Act also provides that any person who

is/has been a citizen of Pakistan or

Bangladesh or any other country which is

notified by the central government will be

ineligible to apply for Overseas Citizenship of

India.

Q.87 :b

Pyramid of Energy is always upright but for an

oceanic ecosystem Pyramid of Biomass is inverted

as biomass increase at higher trophic levels fromphytoplankton to zooplankton.

Leaching is the process of extracting minerals from a

solid by dissolving them in a liquid, either in nature

or through an industrial process. In agriculture,

leaching refers to the loss of water-soluble plant

nutrients from the soil, due to rain and irrigation

leaching/geochemistry of soil

The Montreal Protocol is an international treaty

designed to protect the ozone layer by phasing out

the production of numerous substances responsible

for ozone layer depletion.

Q.88 :b

IGMSY –a conditional Maternity Benefit Scheme,

under this, a cash of 4000 will be provided directly to

woman 19 years and above for the first two live

births subject to woman fulfilling some predefined

criteria–this is to emphasize institutional delivery.

‘SABLA’ aims at empowering adolescent girls of

11-18 years by improvement in their nutritional and

health status and upgrading various skills like home

skills, life skills and vocational skills and mainstreamout of school girls into formal and non-formal


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education.

National Mission for Empowerment of woman has

following components:

--Economic empowerment for woman.

--Progressive elimination of violence against woman.

--Social empowerment of woman with particular

emphasis on health and education.

--Gender mainstreaming of programmes, policies

and institutional arrangements.

Nirbhaya fund is to support initiatives by the

government and the NGOs working towards

protecting the dignity and ensuring safety of women

in India.(press release 26 April 2013).

ICDS is a welfare scheme of government of India

which provides food, preschool education, and

primary healthcare to children less than 6 years of

age and for their mothers.

Q.89 :b

Compulsory Licensing is provided in the TRIPS

agreement which allows a government to

temporarily override a patent to meet a public

health crisis.

Parallel Importation is another safeguard which

allows importation of drugs from another country

where they are sold at a lower price to meet a public

health crisis.

DIPP deals with following legislations:

The Patent Act, 1970(finally amended in 2005)

through the patent Offices at Kolkata Head Quarter

at Mumbai, Chennai and Delhi.

The Designs Act, 2000 through the patents Offices at

Kolkata, Mumbai, Chennai and Delhi.

The Trade Marks Act, 1999 through the Trade Marks

Registry at Mumbai (HQ) Chennai, Delhi, Kolkata and

Ahmadabad.

The Geographical Indications Of Goods (Registration

and protection) Act, 1999 through the Geographical

Indications Registry at Chennai.

Q.90 :a

In the Indian context, Social Security is a

comprehensive approach designed to preventdeprivation, assure the individual of a basic

minimum income for himself and his dependents

and to protect the individual from any uncertainties.

One Rank One Pension scheme doesn’t increase

pension coverage but it is to address existing

anomalies in pension provisions for retired defence

personnel.

Mission Indradhanush is to to fully immunize more

than 89 lakh children who are either unvaccinated or

partially vaccinated.

Atal Pension Yojana: Under the scheme, a pension of

Rs.1,000 to Rs.5000 will be provided to people over

60 years of age .The focus is on all those not

covererd under any other social security

program.Government will contribute 50% of the total

contribution for five years,up to a maximum of

Rs.1000 per annum.

Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana: It provides

life insurance worth Rs.2 lakhs at 90 paise per day in

event of death due to any reason (amounts to

Rs.330 per annum.)for the people in the age group

of 18-50 years.

Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana is a Flagship

outcome-based skill training scheme of the newly

created Ministry of Skill Development and

Entrepreneurship.

Q.91 :b

Q.92 :b

Industrial Gas Emission are bigger contributor than

automobile/transport emission.

Carbon dioxide is the major contributor in Green

house effect.

Q.93 :d

Interspecific interactions arise from the interaction of

populations of two different species. They could be

beneficial, detrimental or neutral (neither harm nor

benefit) to one of the species or both.

Laying eggs merely does not harm the other

in direct way. so not parasitic in true sense.

Female anopheles though harms humans by

sucking blood they do not live on human

body for long period of time as well as can

survive without it. Hence, not a parasite.

Foetous does not harm mother directly and

in fact is a conscious choice.

Head louse lives on human body as well as

harms humans so it is a parasite in truesense.


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Table 13.1 : Population Interactions

Species A Species B Name of

Interaction

+ + Mutualism

– – Competition

+ – Predation

+ – Parasitism

+ 0 Commensalism

– 0 Amensalism

Q.94 :c

Wetlands are areas of standing water that support

aquatic plants. Marshes, swamps, and bogs are all

considered wetlands. Wetlands have the highest

species diversity of all ecosystems. Many species of

amphibians, reptiles, birds (such as ducks and

waders), and furbearers can be found in the

wetlands.

The characteristics of a river or stream change

during the journey from the source to the mouth.

The temperature is cooler at the source than it is at

the mouth. The water is also clearer, has higher

oxygen levels, and freshwater fish such as trout and

heterotrophs can be found there. Towards the

middle part of the stream/river, the width increases,

as does species diversity—numerous aquatic green

plants and algae can be found. Toward the mouth of

the river/stream, the water becomes murky from all

the sediments that it has picked up upstream,

decreasing the amount of light that can penetrate

through the water. Since there is less light, there isless diversity of flora, and because of the lower

oxygen levels, fish that require less oxygen, such as

catfish and carp, can be found.

Q.95 :b

FDI reduces cost of production if the labor market is

cheaper and the regulations are less restrictive in

domestic market. FDI opens local industries to outer

world and hence exchange of technologies and best

practices. A Foreign direct investment (FDI) is an

investment in a business by an investor fromanother country for which the foreign investor has

control over the company purchased jn domestic

country.

Q.96 :c

The major components of the scheme are

feeder separation; strengthening of sub-

transmission and distribution network;

Metering at all levels (input points, feeders

and distribution transformers).So option 1 is

incorrect

Rural Electrification Corporation (REC) is the

Nodal Agency for operationalization of this

Scheme.

So option 2 is incorrect

Till march 2014, 96.7% of villages have been

electrified. So option 3 is correct.

Q.97 :c

Alkaline soils are soils (mostly clay soils) with a high

pH (> 9) and a poor soil structure and a low

infiltration capacity.

The causes of soil alkalinity are natural or they can


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be man-made. The natural development is due to

the presence soil minerals producing sodium

carbonate upon whethering. The man-made

development is due to the application of irrigation

water (surface or ground water) contaning a

relatively high proportion of sodium bicarbonates).

Soil alkalinity is associated with the presence of

sodium carbonates (Na2CO3) in the soil, either as a

result of natural mineralization of the soil particles or

brought in by irrigation and/or floodwater.

Alkalinity problems are more pronounced in clay

soils than in loamy, silty or sandy soils. Hence 3rd

statement is incorrect.

Alkaline soils with solid CaCO3 can be reclaimed with

grass cultures, ensuring the incorporation of much

acidifying organic material into the soil, and leaching

of the excess sodium. Deep ploughing andincorporating the calcareous subsoil into the topsoil

also helps. It is also possible to reclaim them by

adding like pyrite and gypsum (calcium sulphate,

CaSO4)

Q.98 :c

Q.99 :c

GRIHA is a rating tool developed by TERI to tackle

the problem of rapid urbanization, resource

requirement, sustainable use of resources andenvironmental balance.It is a tool to facilitate design,

construction and operation of green buildings that

measures “greenness” of a building in India

It was adopted as national rating system for green

buildings by Government of India in 2007. It

evaluates building over its complete life cycle, from

pre to post construction, with respect to a national

benchmark.

Indira Paryavaran Bhavan, MOEF building in delhi,

has the largest rooftop solar-powered panel in the

country. It is India’s first ‘Net Zero Building’ which

produces its own energy and doesn’t require outside

power supply.

Q.100 :c

According of the forest survey of India report

2014-15, forest cover of India increased by 5871 km.

sq. Of this increase West Bengal alone accounts for

64%, while north-eastern states like Nagaland,

Tripura, Manipur and Arunachal Pradesh has

recorded decline in forest cover. Main reasons

attributed for this are increase of commercial

plantation, shade trees in tea garden, afforestationand coppice growth (dense growth of small trees).


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TEST No. 1569 Explanation

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