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1 Consider the following about the recently constituted Banks Board Bureau (BBB).
It will be a subsidiary of the RBI, consisting of eminent professionals and officials1.
for public sector banks (PSBs).
It will replace the Appointments Board of Government.2.
It will approve mergers and acquisition of commercial banks in India.3.
It will restructure the bad loans of distressed banks.4.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
1, 2 and 4 onlyA.
2 onlyB.
1 and 3 onlyC.
1, 2, 3 and 4D.
User Answer :Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
Justification:Statement 1 & 2: BBB will be a super authority (Autonomous Body)
of eminent professionals and officials for public sector banks (PSBs). It will replace
the Appointments Board of Government.
Statement 3 & 4: It will guide banks on mergers and consolidations and also ways to
address the bad loans problem among other issues. It will not regulate mergers and
restructure bad loans.
Q
Source:http://www.thehindu.com/business/Industry/centres-nod-for-bank-board-bur
eau/article8293334.ece
2 The Amending Act (1781) to the Regulating Act of 1773 had which of the following
provisions?
Increase in the jurisdiction of Supreme Court established by the Regulating Act1.
1773
Recognition of the appellate jurisdiction of the Governor-General-in-Council2.
Enactment of a temporary Uniform Civil Code3.Select the correct answer using the codes below.
1 onlyA.
2 and 3 onlyB.
1 and 3 onlyC.
2 onlyD.
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
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Answer Justification :
Justification:Statement 1: It was actually the opposite. The act significantly reduced
the powers of the Supreme Court at Calcutta. The actions of the servants of the
Company in their official capacity were exempted from the jurisdiction of the
Supreme Court.
It also separated the Governor-General-in-Council and revenue matters from the
Court's jurisdiction.
Statement 2: The Act recognized the appellate jurisdiction of the Governor-General-
in-Council.
It empowered the Governor-General and Council to convene as a Court of Record to
hear appeals from the Provincial Courts on civil cases. It meant that appeal could be
taken from the provincial courts to the Governor General & Council and that was to
be the final court of appeal.
Statement 3: The Act asserted that Mohammedan cases should be determined by
Mohammedan law and Hindu law applied in Hindu cases. So, 3 is clearly wrong.
Q Source:Improvisation: Chapter 1: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
3 The International Finance Corporation (IFC), the investment arm of the World Bank has
launched its first Uridashi Masala Bonds. Why corporate prefer Masala Bonds over
External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs)?
Masala bonds do not face currency fluctuation risks.A.
There is no limit to borrowing under Masala bonds unlike ECBs.B.
Masala Bonds are subsidized by the government.C.
Masala bonds are not bought and sold under market mechanism unlike ECBs.D.
User Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
Justification:Option (b) can be easily eliminated as India has quantitative
restrictions over capital account (like foreign currency borrowing and lending).
Option (c) is wrong. Option (d) is also wrong, as Masala bonds are also market
related instruments issued by the IFC.
Option (a): They are issued to foreign investors and settled in US dollars. Hence the
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currency risk lies with the investor and not the issuer, unlike external commercial
borrowings (ECBs), where Indian companies raise money in foreign currency loans.
While ECBs help companies take advantage of the lower interest rates in
international markets, the cost of hedging the currency risk can be significant.
You can read all about Masala bonds in the Q Source.
Q
Source:http://www.thehindubusinessline.com/opinion/columns/masala-bonds/articl
e7194362.ece
4 Which of the following phenomenon is observed due to Doppler Effect?Increase in sound of Car Siren when it is approaching1.
Redshift2.
Neutron bombing in Nuclear Reactors3.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
1 and 2 onlyA.
3 onlyB.
2 and 3 onlyC.
1, 2 and 3 onlyD.
User Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
Justification:The Doppler Effect (or Doppler shift) is the change in frequency of a
wave (or other periodic event) for an observer moving relative to its source.
For e.g. it causes a car engine or siren to sound higher in pitch when it is
approaching than when it is receding.
The Doppler Effect for electromagnetic waves such as light is of great use in
astronomy and results in either a so-called redshift or blueshift. It has been used to
measure the speed at which stars and galaxies are approaching or receding from us;that is, their radial velocities.
Q Source:East coast of India to get sixth Doppler Radar for weather forecasting:
Current Affairs
5 Consider the following statements about the Act of 1909 which is also known as Morley-
Minto Reforms.
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It introduced a system of communal representation.1.
It provided for the association of Indians with the executive Councils of the Viceroy2.
and Governors.
It curtailed the deliberative functions of the legislative councils at the provincial3.
level but increased the same at Central level.
It relaxed the central control over the provinces by separating the central and4.
provincial subjects.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
1 and 2 onlyA.
3 and 4 onlyB.
1, 2 and 4 onlyC.
1, 2, 3 and 4D.User Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
Justification:Statement 1: It introduced a system of communal representation for
Muslims by accepting the concept of 'separate electorate'. Under this, the Muslim
members were to be elected only by Muslim voters. Thus, the Act 'legalised
communalism' and Lord Minto came to be known as the Father of Communal
Electorate.
Statement 2: Satyendra Prasad Sinha became the first Indian to join the Viceroy'sExecutive Council. He was appointed as the law member.
Statement 3: It enlarged the deliberative functions of the legislative councils at both
the levels. For example, members were allowed to ask supplementary questions,
move resolutions on the budget, and so on.
Statement 4: This was done in the Act of 1919.
Q Source:Chapter 1: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
6 The protected area which hosts Mangroves as well as the Giant Salt Water Crocodiles is
Hemis National ParkA.
Bhitarkanika National ParkB.
Khirganga National ParkC.
Papikonda Wildlife SanctuaryD.
User Answer :
Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
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Learning:Mangroves, saltwater crocodile, white crocodile, Indian python, black
ibis, wild pigs, rhesus monkeys, chital are the major attractions in the Bhitarkanika
park.
Both Hemis and Khirganga are in Himachal Pradesh and thus cannot host
mangroves and salt water crocodile. Option (a) can be eliminated.
Papikonda does not host mangroves. So, (d) is also eliminated.
Q Source:Test 14 Syllabus
7 A geostationary orbit is a particular type of geosynchronous orbit where a satellite ingeosynchronous orbit returns to the same point in the sky at the same time each day. This is
made possible as
The satellite orbits directly above the poles.1.
The satellite follows the direction of the Earth's rotation.2.
Which of the above is/are correct?
1 onlyA.
2 onlyB.
Both 1 and 2C.
NoneD.
User Answer :
Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
Justification:It is a circular orbit nearly 36,000 kilometres above the Earth's equator
following the direction of the Earth's rotation.
An object in such an orbit has an orbital period equal to the Earth's rotational period
(one sidereal day), and thus appears motionless, at a fixed position in the sky, to
ground observers.
Communications satellites and weather satellites are often placed in geostationary
orbits, so that the satellite antennas (located on earth) which communicate with them
do not have to rotate to track them, but can be pointed permanently at the position in
the sky where the satellites are located
Q Source:Revision previous Tests: SET A: Q67: CDS 2011
8 The raga which is sung late in night is
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Raga DarbariA.
Raga TodiB.
Raga BhopaliC.
Raga BhimpalasiD.
User Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
Justification:Todi should be performed in the late morning.
Raga Bhopali should be sung after sunset.
Bhimpalasi should be sung in late Afternoon.
Raga Darbari is a raga in the Kanada family, which is thought to have originated in
Carnatic music and brought into North Indian music by Miyan Tansen, the 16th-
century composer in emperor Akbar's court.
Q Source: CSP 2000
9 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT with regard to Polar Vortex?
It is a large-scale cyclone.A.
Coriolis force is needed for a Polar vortex to be sustained.B.It strengthens in the winter and weakens in the summer.C.
It reduces depletion of ozone.D.
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
Justification:Option (a): There are two polar vortices in the atmosphere of planet
Earth, one around the North Pole, and one around the South Pole. Each polar vortex
is a persistent, large-scale cyclone, circling the planet's geographical poles.
The bases of the two polar vortices are located in the middle and upper troposphere
and extend into the stratosphere.
Option (b): As with other cyclones, their rotation is caused by the Coriolis effect.
Option (c): These cold-core low-pressure areas strengthen in the winter and weaken
in the summer due to their dependence upon the temperature differential between
the equator and the poles.
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When the polar vortex is strong, the Westerlies increase in strength. When the polar
cyclone is weak, the general flow pattern across mid-latitudes buckles and
significant cold outbreaks occur, for e.g. in 2013 North America.
Option (d): Ozone depletion occurs within the polar vortices - particularly over the
Southern Hemisphere - reaching a maximum depletion in the spring. So, (d) is
wrong.
Q Source:Improvisation: CSP 2000
10 As per the Indian Independence Act of 1947, the Governor-general of India was to be
Elected by the first Constituent Assembly or Central Legislative Assembly ofA.India
Appointed by the Viceroy on the advice of the executive councilB.
Appointed by the British Monarch on the advice of the dominion cabinetC.
Nominated by the dominion cabinet based on the recommendation of theD.
Viceroy
User Answer :
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
Learning:The Act abolished the office of viceroy and provided, for each dominion,
a governor-general, who was to be appointed by the British King on the advice of
the dominion cabinet.
His Majesty's Government in Britain was to have no responsibility with respect to
the Government of India or Pakistan.
It also abolished the office of the secretary of state for India and transferred his
functions to the secretary of state for Commonwealth Affairs.
Q Source:Chapter 1: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
11 Consider the following about United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).
UN Economic and Social Council is its parent organization.1.
The status of UNDP is that of an executive board within the United Nations General2.
Assembly.
UNDP is funded entirely by voluntary contributions from member nations.3.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
1 and 2 onlyA.
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2 and 3 onlyB.
1 and 3 onlyC.
1, 2 and 3D.
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
Learning:Statement 1: UNDP activities are coordinated trough the machinery of the
Economic and Social Council. It is the United Nations' global development network,
(headquartered in New York City).
Statement 2: The UNDP Administrator is the third highest-ranking official of theUnited Nations after the United Nations Secretary-General and Deputy Secretary-
General.
Statement 3: UNDP works with nations on their own solutions to global and national
development challenges. As they develop local capacity, they draw on the people of
UNDP and its wide range of partners.
Q Source:Test 14 Syllabus and Chapter 2: Indian Economy 5th Edition by Ramesh
Singh
12 A 'Trickle-down' approach to economic policy making will rely on which of the
following?
High tax rates for corporations and wealthy individuals1.
Complete nationalization of the means of production2.
Improving economic growth rates3.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
1 and 2 onlyA.
3 onlyB.
1 and 3 onlyC.
1, 2 and 3D.
User Answer :Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
Justification:
It is argued by trickle down economists that cutting income tax for the rich
will not just benefit high-earners, but also everyone as it generates additional
demand and employment in the economy.
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Also, increased profits for firms may be reinvested into expanding output.
This again leads to higher growth, wages and incomes for all.
Lower income taxes increase the incentive to for people to work leading to
higher productivity and economic growth.
So, clearly statement 1 is wrong, and 3 is correct as per the Trickle down
economic approach.
Q Source:Often in news
13 The Constituent Assembly was constituted in 1946 under the scheme formulated by the
Cabinet Mission Plan. As per the Plan
Each province and princely state was to be allotted seats in proportion to their1.
respective population.
Princely states could veto the resolutions passed in the Constituent assembly.2.
The representatives of princely states were to be nominated by the heads of the3.
princely states.
Community based representation was to be abolished in the constituent assembly.4.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
1 and 3 onlyA.
1, 2 and 4 onlyB.
3 onlyC.
1, 3 and 4 onlyD.User Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
Justification:Statement 1: Roughly, one seat was to be allotted for every million
population.
Statement 2: There was no such provision. In fact, the 93 seats allotted to the
princely states were not filled as they decided to stay away from the Constituent
Assembly.
Statement 3: The representatives of each community were to be elected by members
of that community in the provincial legislative assembly and voting was to be by the
method of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote.
Statement 4: Seats allocated to each British province were to be decided among the
three principal communitiesMuslims, Sikhs and general (all except Muslims and
Sikhs), in proportion to their population.
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Q Source:Chapter 2: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
14 Consider the following statements about the external sector.
Assertion (A): Current Account deficit as a percentage of GDP has steadily1.
increased during the last decade.
Reason (R): India has recently abolished controls over the current account2.
convertibility.
In the context of the above, which of these is correct?
A is correct, and R is an appropriate explanation of A.A.
A is correct, but R is not an appropriate explanation of A.B.
A is correct, but R is incorrect.C.
Both A and R are incorrect.D.
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
Justification:CAD had increased and then steadily decreased during the last decade,
and more so in the last 5 years to now nearly 1.5% of GDP. So, A is incorrect.
India had long abolished controls on the current account. It is the capital account
which is not fully convertible. So, R is also incorrect.
Q Source:Annual Budget 2016-17
15 Which of the following was/were committees associated with the Constituent Assembly
of India?
Welfare State Ideals committee1.
A States Committee for Negotiating with the States2.
A provincial Constitution Committee3.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
1 and 2 onlyA.
2 onlyB.
1 and 3 onlyC.
2 and 3 onlyD.
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
Learning:The Constituent Assembly appointed a number of committees to deal
with different tasks of constitution-making. Out of these, eight were major
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committees and the others were minor committees. The names of these committees
and their chairmen are given below:
Major Committees:
Union Powers Committee - Jawaharlal Nehru
Union Constitution Committee - Jawaharlal Nehru
Provincial Constitution Committee - Sardar Patel
Drafting Committee - Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities and Tribal and
Excluded Areas - Sardar Patel.
Rules of Procedure Committee - Dr. Rajendra Prasad
States Committee (Committee for Negotiating with States) - Jawaharlal
Nehru
Steering Committee - Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Q Source:Chapter 2: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
16 Effective Revenue Deficit is
Revenue deficit minus grants for creation of capital AssetsA.
Revenue receipts adjusted for expenditure on interest paymentsB.
Fiscal deficit minus revenue expenditureC.
Revenue deficit minus plan allocation to States and UTsD.
User Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
Learning:Broadly, the expenditure which does not result in creation of assets for
the Government of India, is treated as revenue expenditure.
All grants given to the State Governments/Union Territories and other parties are
also treated as revenue expenditure even though some of the grants may be used for
creation of capital assets.
Revenue expenditure which results in the creation of capital assets is reduced from
revenue deficit to arrive at the effective revenue deficit (ERD).
Q Source:http://indiabudget.nic.in/ub2016-17/keybud/keybud2016.pdf
17 Which of the following erstwhile provinces had the largest membership in the
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Constituent Assembly of India?
United ProvincesA.
MadrasB.
West BengalC.
BombayD.
User Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
Learning:Both the Indian provinces and Princely states were the members of
constituent assembly of India.
Former taken together were greater in number than the princely states.
United Provinces had 55 members, Madras had 49, West Bengal 19 and Bombay 21.
Out of all princely states, Travancore had the highest membership of 6. Other
princely states had 1-4 members in the constituent assembly of India.
Q Source:Table 2.1: Chapter 2: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
18 In ancient Indian Buddhist monasteries, a ceremony called Pavarana used to be held. It
was theOccasion to elect the Sanghaparinayaka and two speakers one on DhammaA.
and the other on Vinaya
Confession by monks of their offences committed during their stay in theB.
monasteries during the rainy season
Ceremony of initiation of new person into the Buddhist Sangha in which theC.
head is shaved an when yellow robes are offered
Gathering of Buddhist monks on the next day to the full moon day ofD.
Ashadha when they take up affixed abode for the next four months or rainy
season
User Answer :
Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
Learning:Pavarana is a Buddhist holy day celebrated on Aashvin full moon of the
lunar month.
It marks the end of the 3 lunar months of Vassa, sometimes called "Buddhist Lent."
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This day marks the end of the rainy season in some Asian countries like Thailand,
where Theravada Buddhism is practiced.
On this day, each monk must come before the community of monks (Sangha) and
atone for an offense he may have committed during the Vassa.
Most Mahayana Buddhists do not observe Vassa, though many Son/Thien monks in
Korea and Vietnam do observe an equivalent retreat of three months of intensive
practice in one location.
Q Source:Direct from CSP 2001
19 Consider the following about the federal structure of India.
The Indian federal structure is the result of an agreement between the states.1.
All states have a legitimate right to secede from the federation by legislative means.2.
Which of the above is/are correct?
1 onlyA.
2 onlyB.
Both 1 and 2C.
NoneD.
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
Justification:The term 'Federation' has nowhere been used in the Constitution.
Article 1 describes India as a 'Union of States'.
This implies two things: one, Indian Federation is not the result of an agreement by
the states; and two, no state has the right to secede from the federation. So, a
secessionist movement by say the state of Nagaland is not legitimate and
constitutional.
Both statements 1 and 2 are wrong.
Hence, the Indian Constitution has been variously described as 'federal in form but
unitary in spirit'.
Q Source:Chapter 3: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
20 The Constitution establishes the parliamentary system not only at the Centre but also in
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the states. Which of the following is/are the major features of parliamentary government in
India?
Sovereignty of the Indian Parliament1.
Collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature and Judiciary2.
Membership of the ministers in the legislature3.
Presence of nominal and real executives4.
Resolution of all Parliamentary disputes by the Judiciary5.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
1, 2 and 4 onlyA.
2, 3 and 4 onlyB.
3 and 5 onlyC.
1, 2, 3, 4 and 5D.User Answer :
Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
Justification:Statement 1: The Indian Parliament is not a sovereign body even
though it is based on British Parliamentary model where the Parliament is sovereign.
Statement 2: The parliamentary system is based on the principle of cooperation and
co-ordination between the legislative and executive organs and the collective
responsibility of the latter to the former. It is not accountable to the Judiciary.
Judiciary only reviews the actions of the executive when challenged.
Statement 3: Ministers are mostly chosen from the legislature. They act as the
members of the particular house.
Statement 4: President and Governor are nominal executives, whereas the PM and
CMs are real executives wielding de facto powers.
Statement 5: The Chairman of the house resolves all major disputes within the
Parliament including the charges of political defection under anti-defection law.
However, in some cases like investigation of scams and election related disputes,
Judiciary resolves the disputes.
Q Source:Chapter 3: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
21 Cutch Rebellion in 1819 occured because
The British government destroyed the communication facilities in and outside of1.
Cutch.
The British took control the salt produced at the coasts.2.
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Which of the above is/are correct?
1 onlyA.
2 onlyB.
Both 1 and 2C.
NoneD.
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
Learning:The British interfered in the internal feuds of the Cutch and, in 1819,
defeated and deposed the Cutch ruler Rao Bharamal in favour of his infant.
A British resident governed the areas as the de facto ruler with the help of a regency
council.
The administrative innovations made by the regency council coupled with excessive
land assessment caused deep resentment.
Q Source:Improvisation: Chapter 2: Bipin Chandra: India's Struggle for
Independence
22 What do you understand by the statement, "The Directive principles of State Policy
(DPSP) in the constitution are non-justiciable in nature"?
The courts cannot recognize the DPSP in their judgments.A.
DPSP cannot be enforced by law.B.
They are not enforceable by the courts for their violation.C.
All of (a), (b) and (c)D.
User Answer :
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
Justification:Option (a): They do recognize. For e.g. certain laws that violate
Article 14 of the constitution can be declared legitimate if they fulfil DPSP underparts of Article 39.
In the Minerva Mills case (1980), the Supreme Court held that 'the Indian
Constitution is founded on the bedrock of the balance between the Fundamental
Rights and the Directive Principles'.
Option (b): DPSP like organizing village panchayats, cheap legal remedies for the
poor have already been implemented by law.
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Option (c): For e.g. if adequate steps are not taken to stop circulation of intoxicants
like liquors (a DPSP), the courts cannot dictate the government to do so.
Q Source:Chapter 3: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
23 The value of secularism can be found in which of the following parts of the
constitution?
Preamble1.
Directive Principles of State Policy2.
Fundamental Duties3.
Fundamental Rights4.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
1 and 2 onlyA.
3 and 4 onlyB.
1, 3 and 4 onlyC.
1, 2, 3 and 4D.
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
Justification:Statement 1: The Preamble secures to all citizens of India liberty of
belief, faith and worship.
Statement 2: The State shall endeavour to secure for all the citizens a Uniform Civil
Code (Article 44 of DPSP).
Statement 3: Article 51A mentions this as one of the fundamental duties: "to
promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of
India transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities and to
renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women."
Statement 4: The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or equal
protection of the laws (Article 14). The State shall not discriminate against any
citizen on the ground of religion (Article 15). All persons are equally entitled to
freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practice and propagate any
religion (Article 25).
Q Source:Chapter 3: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
24 AEW&CS project of India's Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)
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is related to
Improving surveillance capabilities of the Indian Air ForceA.
Increasing the cyber security of the armed forcesB.
Improving the strike range of ballistic missilesC.
Establishing dedicated satellite channel for military communicationD.
User Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
Learning:It is called Airborne Early Warning and Control System (AEWACS).
The DRDO AEWACS programme aims to deliver three radar-equipped surveillanceaircraft to the Indian Air Force. It will be mounted on an aircraft.
The Radar will have an extended range mode against fighter aircraft.
Q Source:Set A: Q49: CDS 2011
25 Which of the following matters is/are dealt by the Third Schedule of the Constitution?
Allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the states and the union territories1.
Provisions for elections to the Parliament and state legislatures2.
Provisions relating to the privileges of dignitaries3.
Forms of Oaths or Affirmations for constitutional functionaries4.
Provisions relating to disqualification of the members of Parliament and State5.
Legislatures
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
1 and 5 onlyA.
3 and 4 onlyB.
4 onlyC.
2 and 5 onlyD.
User Answer :
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
Justification:Statement 1: It falls under the fourth schedule.
Statement 2: These are covered by the Representation of People of India Act.
Statement 3: These are matters of the second schedule. It also covers emoluments,
allowances etc.
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Statement 5: The Anti-defection part is covered under the tenth schedule.
Q Source:Table 3.3: Chapter 3: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
26 The victor of this Battle took Bihar province in the end of 12th Century, eradicating
Buddhism in that area, and later in early 13th Century, his army completed the occupation
of the province of Bengal. The battle was
Battle of TarainA.
Battle of chausaB.
Battle of ChausaC.
Battle of PanipatD.
User Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
Learning:The battles were fought in 1191 and 1192 near the town of Tarain
(Taraori), near Thanesar in present-day Haryana, between a Ghurid force led by
Mu'izz al-Din and a Chauhan Rajput army led by Prithviraj Chauhan.
In the Second Battle of Tarian, Prithviraj Chauhan was defeated by Mohammed
Ghori.
The Second Battle of Tarain 1192 A.D. destroyed the imperial power of the
Chauhan Dynasty.
The subsequent attempts of the Hindu kings to resist the Muslim tide proved futile.
Muslim power was strongly founded in Northern India after the battle. Thus the
Second battle of Tarain 1192 A.D. may be regarded as a turning point in Indias
history.
Q Source:Revision Previous Tests: Set A: Q14: CDS 2011
27 Consider the following statements.Assertion (A): Preamble of the Constitution cannot be amended by the Parliament.1.
Reason (R): Preamble is not considered as a part of the constitution.2.
In the context of the above, which of these is correct?
A is correct, and R is an appropriate explanation of A.A.
A is correct, but R is not an appropriate explanation of A.B.
A is correct, but R is incorrect.C.
Both A and R are incorrect.D.
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User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
Justification:The Supreme Court has held that the Preamble is a part of the
Constitution.
As per the SC, the Preamble can be amended under A368, subject to the condition
that no amendment is done to the 'basic features'.
The Preamble has been amended only once so far, in 1976, by the 42nd
Constitutional Amendment Act, which has added three new words-Socialist, Secular
and Integrity-to the Preamble. This amendment was held to be valid.
Q Source:Chapter 4: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
28 Consider the following about the Parliament's power to reorganise the States?
A State reorganization bill can be introduced in the Parliament only with the prior1.
recommendation of the President.
The Home Minister must send the bill to the Governor concerned for his ratification.2.
If a state legislature unanimously opposes reorganization of the state concerned, the3.
bill is sent to the Supreme Court for a review.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
1 onlyA.
1 and 2 onlyB.
2 and 3 onlyC.
None of the aboveD.
User Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
Justification: Statement 1: It is mentioned as a condition in Article 3 of the
constitution.
Statement 2: Before recommending the bill, the President has to refer the same to
the state legislature concerned for expressing its views within a specified period.
Statement 3: There is no such provision. The division of Andhra Pradesh took place
despite the opposition of the state legislature.
Q Source:Chapter 5: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
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29 Which of the following species are NOT State animals of the states of India?
Wild buffalo1.
Snow leopard2.
Giant squirrel3.
Nilgiri tahr4.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
1, 2 and 4 onlyA.
4 onlyB.
1 and 3 onlyC.
All are State animals.D.
User Answer :
Correct Answer : DAnswer Justification :
Learning:This is a comprehensive list of State Animals, Birds, Trees and Flowers
of India.
You should ideally research a bit on some important species mentioned here
http://www.frienvis.nic.in/KidsCentre/State-Animals-Birds-Trees-Flowers-of-India_
1500.aspx
Questions on most of these species have been covered in the previous tests and willbe covered in upcoming tests.
Q Source:Test 14 Syllabus
30 Which of the following fundamental rights are conferred to Indian citizens but not
foreign citizens living in India?
Right against discrimination on grounds of religion1.
Right to conserve one's culture2.
Right to Life and Liberty3.
Right to freedom of speech and expression4.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
2 onlyA.
1, 2 and 4 onlyB.
1 and 2 onlyC.
3 and 4 onlyD.
User Answer :
Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
https://www.insightsias.com/http://www.frienvis.nic.in/KidsCentre/State-Animals-Birds-Trees-Flowers-of-India_1500.aspxhttp://www.frienvis.nic.in/KidsCentre/State-Animals-Birds-Trees-Flowers-of-India_1500.aspxhttps://www.insightsias.com/http://www.frienvis.nic.in/KidsCentre/State-Animals-Birds-Trees-Flowers-of-India_1500.aspxhttp://www.frienvis.nic.in/KidsCentre/State-Animals-Birds-Trees-Flowers-of-India_1500.aspx7/25/2019 Test 14 Solutions
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Learning:Other rights unavailable to foreign citizens are:
Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment (Article 16).
Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions
(Article 30)
Protection of six rights regarding freedom of : (i) speech and expression, (ii)
assembly, (iii) association, (iv) movement, (v) residence, and (vi) profession
(Article 19).It is notable that foreign citizens even enjoy the Right to
elementary education (Article 21A).
Q Source:Chapter 5: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
31 Consider the following about fundamental rights.
They are not available against the action of private individuals.1.
They can be available only to citizens and not to legal or commercial entities.2.
Which of the above is/are correct?
1 onlyA.
2 onlyB.
Both 1 and 2C.
NoneD.
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
Justification:Statement 1: They are available against the actions of private
individuals, for e.g. right against untouchability. So, 1 is clearly wrong.
Statement 2: It is wrong. For e.g. media enjoys the right against government
censorship as a part of Article 19 - Freedom of Speech and Expression.
Q Source:Chapter 7: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
32 A Minimum Support Price (MSP) is announced for certain crops by the UnionGovernment prior to the sowing season. Which of the following approves a hike in the
MSP?
Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP)A.
Cabinet Committee on Economic AffairsB.
Food Corporation of India (FCI)C.
Ministry of Agriculture and Public DistributionD.
User Answer :
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Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
Learning:The prices are decided or hiked by CCEA on the basis of the
recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP).
The MSP of raw Jute was recently hiked by CCEA based on the proposal forwarded
by Union Agriculture Ministry had in order increase the raw jute cultivation which
has been declining in recent years.
MSP and related issues have been covered in previous tests and will be covered in
later tests also.
Q
Source:http://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/economy/agriculture/governmen
t-hikes-raw-jute-msp-by-18-5-to-rs-3200/qtl-for-2016-17/articleshow/51126376.cms
33 Equal Protection of Laws' granted under Article 14 of the Constitution may imply
No person is above the law.A.
Equal treatment of equals under the law.B.
Absence of arbitrary power with the state.C.
The society operates on laws.D.
User Answer :
Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
Justification:Article 14 has two parts: equality before law and equal protection of
laws.
The first concept basically means law is for everyone whoever it might be.
The second concept means law will apply equally to equally situated people. For
e.g. if an adult receives a punishment of 3 years imprisonment, another adult for the
same crime and same circumstances should also get 3 years of imprisonment.
Q Source:Chapter 7: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
34 The Supreme Court held that the freedom of speech and expression includes
Right against tapping of telephonic conversation1.
Right against strike called by a political party or organisation2.
https://www.insightsias.com/http://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/economy/agriculture/government-hikes-raw-jute-msp-by-18-5-to-rs-3200/qtl-for-2016-17/articleshow/51126376.cmshttp://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/economy/agriculture/government-hikes-raw-jute-msp-by-18-5-to-rs-3200/qtl-for-2016-17/articleshow/51126376.cmshttps://www.insightsias.com/http://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/economy/agriculture/government-hikes-raw-jute-msp-by-18-5-to-rs-3200/qtl-for-2016-17/articleshow/51126376.cmshttp://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/economy/agriculture/government-hikes-raw-jute-msp-by-18-5-to-rs-3200/qtl-for-2016-17/articleshow/51126376.cms7/25/2019 Test 14 Solutions
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Freedom of commercial advertisements3.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
1 and 2 onlyA.
2 and 3 onlyB.
1 and 3 onlyC.
1, 2 and 3D.
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
Learning: It includes:
Right to propagate one's views as well as views of others.
Freedom of the press.
Freedom of commercial advertisements.
Right against tapping of telephonic conversation.
Right to telecast, that is, government has no monopoly on electronic media.
Right against bundh called by a political party or organisation.
Right to know about government activities.
Freedom of silence.
Right against imposition of pre-censorship on a newspaper.
Right to demonstration or picketing but not right to strike.
The State can impose reasonable restrictions on the exercise of the freedom of
speech and expression on the grounds of sovereignty and integrity of India, security
of the state, friendly relations with foreign states, public order, decency or morality,
contempt of court, defamation, and incitement to an offence.
Q Source: Chapter 7: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
35 Consider the following items in the Annual budget - Expenditure section.
Plan Assistance to State & UT Governments1.
Subsidies2.States' share of taxes & duties3.
Arrange these items in increasing order of their share in the budget.
2
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Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
Learning: This is the summary of the expenditures of the Union government.
If you are unable to access the image, check page 5 of
http://indiabudget.nic.in/ub2016-17/bag/bag11.pdf
Q Source: http://indiabudget.nic.in/ub2016-17/bag/bag11.pdf
36 Which of the following is the central difference between the economic philosophies of
Socialism and Communism?
State v/s non-state ownership of factors of productionA.
Right of labourB.
Central v/s decentralized planningC.
Role of market in delivering social servicesD.
User Answer :
https://www.insightsias.com/http://indiabudget.nic.in/ub2016-17/bag/bag11.pdfhttp://indiabudget.nic.in/ub2016-17/bag/bag11.pdfhttps://www.insightsias.com/http://indiabudget.nic.in/ub2016-17/bag/bag11.pdfhttp://indiabudget.nic.in/ub2016-17/bag/bag11.pdf7/25/2019 Test 14 Solutions
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Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
Justification: Socialistic economy emphasises the collective ownership of the
means of production (property and assets). It also ascribes a large role to the state in
running the economy.
Communist economy on the other hand advocates state ownership of all properties
including even labour and absolute power to state in running the economy.
So, the most appropriate option is (a).
Q Source: Chapter 1: Indian Economy 5th Edition by Ramesh Singh
37 Consider the following about the writ of Mandamus.
It is used to prevent usurpation of public offices by ineligible individuals.1.
It cannot be issued against public executive authorities.2.
It cannot be issued by the lower courts.3.
Select the correct answer using the codes below
1 and 2 onlyA.
3 onlyB.
2 and 3 onlyC.
1 onlyD.
User Answer :
Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
Justification: Statement 1 & 2: That is the writ of Quo Warranto, not Mandamus.
Mandamus is a command issued by the court to a public official asking him to
perform his official duties that he has failed or refused to perform.
Statement 3: It can also be issued against any public body, a corporation, an inferior
court, a tribunal or government for the same purpose.
Q Source: Chapter 7: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
38 The 1857 revolt did NOT spread to which of the following parts of the country?
Lucknow1.
Allahabad2.
Kashmir3.
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Travancore4.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
3 and 4 onlyA.
2, 3 and 4 onlyB.
1 and 2 onlyC.
4 onlyD.
User Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
Learning: In some regions of Company-controlled India, such as Bengal, the
Bombay Presidency, and the Madras Presidency, remained largely calm.
In Punjab, the Sikh princes backed the Company by providing soldiers and support.
The large princely states of Hyderabad, Mysore, Travancore, and Kashmir, as well
as the smaller ones of Rajputana, did not join the rebellion.
In some regions, such as Oudh, the rebellion took on the attributes of a patriotic
revolt against European presence.
Q Source: Chapter 1: Bipin Chandra: India's Struggle for Independence
39 If a person's "Right to Vote" is infringed, what remedy does she he have?
Move the Supreme Court citing violation of fundamental rightsA.
File a non-judicial petition with the Election Commission of IndiaB.
File a case against the Chief Electoral Officer of the StateC.
Move the High court for infringement of a constitutional rightD.
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
Justification: Right to Vote is a constitutional right, not a fundamental right. So, SC
cannot be approached for issuing a writ petition.
High court enforces legal rights, and should be approached in case of its
infringement.
ECI only conducts elections and maintains the database of voters. It does not have
the authority to enforce the Right to Vote. Same is true for the Chief Electoral
Officer.
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Q Source: Rights Outside Part III: Chapter 7: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
40 The Regulating Act of 1773 is said to be of great constitutional importance in India.
Which of the following can be the reason(s) for it?
It created a federal architecture to govern India decentralizing the administrative1.
system
It transferred control of India from commercial companies to a British government2.
representative in India.
Which of the above is/are correct?
1 onlyA.
2 onlyB.
Both 1 and 2C.
NoneD.
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
Justification: It was the first step taken by the British Government to control and
regulate the affairs of the East India Company in India, and it recognised, for the
first time, the political and administrative functions of the Company. So, 2 is clearly
wrong. The transfer of control happened late in 1858.
Also, the act laid the foundations of central administration in India. There was
neither a provision to decentralize the administration nor creating a federation of
autonomous states. So, 1 is wrong too.
You can read the exact provisions from the Q Source.
Q Source: Chapter 1: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
41 In economics, the term 'invisible hand' is often used in the context of
Indirect effects of government policy on employment and outputA.
Self-correcting quality of the marketB.
Welfare orientation of the StateC.
Role of regulatory mechanisms in preventing market failuresD.
User Answer :
Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
Learning: According to the invisible hand theory, each of us, acting in our own
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self-interests, generates a demand for goods and services that compels others to
deliver those goods and services in the most efficient manner so that they may be
able to receive compensation from others and make a profit in doing so.
In this process, resources are allocated in the most efficient manner, in contrast to a
process that relies on a centrally planned system.
Q Source: Chapter 1: Indian Economy 5th Edition by Ramesh Singh
42 How is the writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court (SC) different from that of a High
Court (HC)?
SC can issue writs for any purpose, whereas HCs can only issue them for the1.enforcement of fundamental rights.
SC can issue writ against the government, whereas HCs cannot.2.
Which of the above is/are correct?
1 onlyA.
2 onlyB.
Both 1 and 2C.
NoneD.
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
Justification: Statement 1: The Supreme Court can issue writs only for the
enforcement of fundamental rights whereas a high court can issue writs not only for
the enforcement of Fundamental Rights but also for any other purpose.
Statement 2: The Supreme Court can issue writs aga-inst a person or government
throughout the territory of India whereas a high court can issue writs against a
person residing or against a government or authority located within its territorial
jurisdiction only or outside its territorial jurisdiction only if the cause of action arises
within its territorial jurisdiction.
Q Source: Chapter 7: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
43 'Economic efficiency' as used by economists and policymakers is related to which of the
following?
Optimal allocation of goods and services1.
Resource efficient production2.
Reaching equal income levels for all economic agents3.
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Select the correct answer using the codes below.
1 and 2 onlyA.
2 and 3 onlyB.
1 and 3 onlyC.
1, 2 and 3D.
User Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
Justification: Statement 1: It is when goods and services are distributed according
to consumer preferences and needs of corporations.
Statement 2: It is when the maximum number of goods and services are produced
with a given amount of inputs.
Statement 3: All agents may not equal incomes, and yet the economic system can be
most efficient. So, 3 is wrong.
For a better understanding of the term please refer to
http://www.economicshelp.org/microessays/costs/efficiency/
Q Source: Chapter 1: Indian Economy 5th Edition by Ramesh Singh
44 If a ship moves from seawater to freshwater, it will
Sink down a little bitA.
Rise above the water a little bitB.
Remain unaffectedC.
Stop floating on water surfaceD.
User Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
Justification: The ship is floated by the buoyant force of the water upwards.
It is proportional to the density of water. Higher the density, like seawater, greater is
the upward force on the ship (cancelling its weight downwards), and higher it its
level.
Freshwater has lower density, hence the ship will sink down a little bit.
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Q Source: Revision previous Tests: Science NCERT
45 Annual Survey of Industries is published by
Ministry of Heavy Industries and Public EnterprisesA.
Ministry of Statistics and Programme ImplementationB.
Ministry of CommerceC.
Department of Industrial Policy and PromotionD.
User Answer :
Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
Learning: The Annual Survey of Industries (ASI) is the principal source of
industrial statistics in India.
The Survey is conducted annually under the statutory provisions of the Collection of
Statistics Act 2008.
The ASI extends to the entire country except the States of Arunachal Pradesh and
Mizoram and Union territory of Lakshadweep. It covers all factories registered
under the sections 2(m) (i) and 2(m) (ii) of the Factories Act 1948 i.e. those factories
employing 10 or more workers using power; and those employing 20 or more
workers without using power.
Q Source: Improvisation: Chapter 1: Indian Economy 5th Edition by Ramesh Singh
46 Consider the following about the Interim Government (1946) of India, whose members
were the members of the Viceroy's Executive Council.
The defence portfolio was held by the President of the Council.1.
There was no Health portfolio in the interim government.2.
External Affairs portfolio was managed by the Home Minister.3.
Select the correct answer using the codes below
1 onlyA.2 and 3 onlyB.
1 and 3 onlyC.
None of the aboveD.
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
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Justification: The Viceroy's Executive Council became the executive branch of the
interim government.
Originally headed by the Viceroy of India, it was transformed into a council of
ministers, with the powers of a prime minister bestowed on the vice-president of the
Council, a position held by Jawaharlal Nehru.
Statement 1: Defense portfolio was held by Sardar Baldev Singh who was only a
member of the council.
Statement 2: Health portfolio existed and was held by Ghaznafar Ali Khan.
Statement 3: External Affairs & Commonwealth Relations was held by Pandit
Nehru, who was the Vice-President of the Council. Home, Information &
Broadcasting portfolio was held by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.
Q Source: Table 1.1: Chapter 1: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
47 Consider the following about the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
It is funded entirely by the Global Environment Facility (GEF).1.
It is a member of United Nations Development Group.2.
It published the report "Global Environment Outlook".3.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.1 and 2 onlyA.
2 and 3 onlyB.
1 and 3 onlyC.
1, 2 and 3D.
User Answer :
Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
Justification: Statement 1: It is not funded by the GEF, but member nations
contribute substantially to it. It is in fact one of the several implementing agencies
for the GEF.
UNEP's main activities are related to:
Climate change, including the Territorial Approach to Climate Change
(TACC);
Disasters and conflicts;
Ecosystem management;
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Environmental governance;
Harmful substances; and
Resource efficiency.
http://www.unep.org/geo/
Q Source: Test 14 Syllabus
48 The Doha Development Round is associated with which of the following organizations?
World BankA.
United Nations Development ProgrammeB.
World Trade OrganizationC.
United Nations Economic and Social CouncilD.
User Answer :
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
Learning: It is the current trade-negotiation round of the World Trade Organization
(WTO) which commenced in 2001.
Its objective is to lower trade barriers around the world, and thus facilitate increased
global trade.
Progress in negotiations stalled after the breakdown of the 2008 negotiations over
disagreements concerning agriculture, industrial tariffs and non-tariff barriers,
services, and trade remedies between some developed and developing nations.
Q Source: Often in news due to trade related issues
49 Which of the following are parts of the eight core industries in India?
Electricity1.
Fertilizer2.
Telecommunications3.
Steel4.Textiles5.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
1, 2 and 4 onlyA.
1, 2, 4 and 5 onlyB.
3 and 5 onlyC.
1, 2, 3, 4 and 5D.
User Answer :
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Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
Justification: There are eight Core Industries in India (with the Base:
2004-05=100), six existing'basic/infrastructure industries' with two new additions
i.e. Natural Gas and Fertilizer.
Core Industries together have a combined weight of 37.90 per cent in the Index of
Industrial Production (IIP).
Individual percentages of them are - Coal (weight: 4.38%); Crude Oil (weight:
5.22%); Natural Gas (weight: 1.71%); Petroleum refinery (weight: 5.94%); Fertiliser
(weight: 1.25%); Steel (weight: 6.68%); Cement (weight: 2.41%); and Electricity
(weight: 10.32%).
Q Source: Chapter 3: Indian Economy 5th Edition by Ramesh Singh
50 'August Offer' of 1940 of the British government relates to
Appointment of a representative Constitution Making Body after the SecondA.
World War
Partition of India based on a referendumB.
Setting up provisional governments in the Princely statesC.
Abolition of the system of communal electorates if India participated in theD.
Second World War
User Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
Learning: After the Congress ministries (in the Provinces) resigned in 1939, the
British asked again for the support of the Congress in WW-II.
Later in 1940, INC passed a resolution offering the British Government support in
war, if a provisional National Government is setup at Centre.
This was responded by Lord Linlithgow in the sort of a proposal which is called
August Offer.
The august Offer turned down the demand of the Congress to set up a national
Government at the centre but proposed the following:
A representative "Constitution Making Body" shall be appointed immediately
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after the war.
The number of the Indians in the Viceroy's Executive council will be
increased.
A war advisory Council would be set up.
The Congress did not approve the August Offer.
Q Source: Table 1.1: Chapter 1: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
51 Exercise Force Eighteen, one of the largest multi-national military exercises, is being
conducted by India as part of its Look (Act) East policy. Which of these nations is/are NOT
its participant(s)?
Pakistan1.
USA2.
China3.
Russia4.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
2 and 4 onlyA.
3 and 4 onlyB.
1 and 3 onlyC.
1 onlyD.
User Answer :
Correct Answer : DAnswer Justification :
Learning: Participating nations are: ASEAN countries along with ASEAN Plus
nations viz. India, Australia, Japan, New Zealand, China, South Korea, Russia and
US .
10 ASEAN countries from South East Asia are Brunei, Cambodia, Laos, Indonesia,
Malaysia, Myanmar, Philippines, Singapore, Thailand and Vietnam.
It is the largest multinational ground forces exercise to be conducted on
Humanitarian Mine Action (HMA) and Peace Keeping Operations (PKO).
The multinational military exercise is an outcome of 2015 ADMM Plus (ASEAN
Defence Ministers' Meeting).
Q Source:
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52 Consider the following statements.
It made the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India and1.
vested all civil and military powers in him.
The Governor-General of India was given exclusive legislative powers for the entire2.
British India.
The provisions above were made in which of the following Acts?
Charter Act of 1833A.
Charter Act of 1853B.
Government of India Act of 1858C.
Pitt's India Act of 1784D.
User Answer :
Correct Answer : AAnswer Justification :
Learning: Statement 1: The act created, for the first time, a Government of India
having authority over the entire territorial area possessed by the British in India.
Lord William Bentick was the first governor-general of India.
Statement 2: It deprived the governor of Bombay and Madras of their legislative
powers. The Governor-General of India was given exclusive legislative powers for
the entire British India. The laws made under the previous acts were called as
Regulations while laws made under this act were called as Acts.
Others: It ended the activities of the East India Company as a commercial body,
which became a purely administrative body. It provided that the company's
territories in India were held by it'in trust for His Majesty, His heirs and successors'.
Q Source: Chapter 1: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
53 Which of the following is the single largest source of annual receipts for the
government?
Interest receiptsA.
Union Excise DutiesB.External GrantsC.
Corporation TaxD.
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
Learning: Please go through major items of receipts here
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Please go through major items of receipts here
Major items of expenditure are here of which interest payments account for the
most.
http://indiabudget.nic.in/ub2016-17/bag/bag3.pdf
Q Source: 2016-17 Annual Budget
54 The Supreme Court has declared which of the following rights as part of Article 21:
Right to Life and Liberty?
Right to free legal aid1.Right against delayed execution2.
Right to shelter3.
Right to decent environment4.
Right to livelihood5.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
2, 3 and 4 onlyA.
1, 3 and 5 onlyB.
2 and 4 onlyC.
1, 2, 3, 4 and 5D.
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
Learning: Some other important rights under interpretation of Article 21 are:
Right to health.
Right to free education up to 14 years of age.
Right to free legal aid
Right against solitary confinement.
Right to speedy trial.
Right against handcuffing.
Right against inhuman treatment.
Q Source: Chapter 7: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
55 January 26 was specifically chosen as the 'date of commencement' of the Constitution
because
It was on this day in 1930 that Purna Swaraj day was celebrated.A.
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The members of the Constituent assembly appended their signatures to theB.
Constitution of India on this date.
The Government of India Act 1935 was enacted on this date, which becameC.
the bedrock of the Indian constitution
The transfer of power from the British Crown to native Indian governmentD.
took place on this date.
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
Learning: It was chosen because of its historical importance.
It was on this day in 1930 that Purna Swaraj day was celebrated, following the
resolution of the Lahore Session (December 1929) of the INC.
With the commencement of the Constitution, the Indian Independence Act of 1947
and the Government of India Act of 1935, with all enactments amending or
supplementing the latter Act, were repealed.
Option (b) is wrong as it happened on 24th January 1950
Q Source: Chapter 2: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
56 An "Outcome Budget" is presented by each Ministry/Department in respect of all
Demands/Appropriations controlled by them. Apart from financial outlays, the outcome
budget covers which of the following under the Ministry/Department?
Scheme-wise analysis of physical performance1.
Review of performance of statutory and autonomous bodies under its administrative2.
control
Reform measures within the Ministry/Department3.
Select the correct answer using the codes below
1 onlyA.
2 and 3 onlyB.
1 and 3 onlyC.
1, 2 and 3D.
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
Learning: Outcome Budget contains a brief introductory note on the organization
and functions of the Ministry/Department, list of major programmes/schemes
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implemented by the Ministry/Department, its mandate, goal and policy framework,
budget estimates, scheme-wise analysis of physical performance and linkage
between financial outlays and outcome, review covering overall trends in
expenditure vis-a-vis budget estimates in recent years, review of performance of
statutory and autonomous bodies under the administrative control of the
Ministry/Department, reform measures, targets and achievements and plans for
future refinements.
Q Source: http://indiabudget.nic.in/ub2016-17/keybud/keybud2016.pdf
57 Which of the Acts passed by the British Parliament introduced an open competition
system of selection and recruitment of civil servants in India before independence?
Charter Act of 1853A.
Indian Councils Act of 1861B.
Indian Councils Act of 1892C.
Charter Act of 1833D.
User Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
Learning: It introduced an open competition system of selection and recruitment of
civil servants.
The covenanted civil service was thus thrown open to the Indians also.
Accordingly, the Macaulay Committee (the Committee on the Indian Civil Service)
was appointed in 1854.
Before this the Charter Act of 1833 attempted to introduce a system of open
competition for selection of civil servants, and stated that the Indians should not be
debarred from holding any place, office and employment under the Company.
However, this provision was negated after opposition from the Court of Directors.
Q Source: Chapter 1: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
58 The right to property is a legal right and not a fundamental right. This has which of the
following implications?
There is no guaranteed right to compensation in case of acquisition of a private1.
property by the state.
It can be regulated without a constitutional amendment by an ordinary law of the2.
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Parliament.
Which of the above is/are correct?
1 onlyA.
2 onlyB.
Both 1 and 2C.
NoneD.
User Answer :
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
Justification: Statement 1: For e.g. the earlier Land Acquisition Act did not provide
for resettlement and rehabilitation after the acquisition of private land by the state.
Statement 2: Since it is a legal right, it can be curtailed by the Parliament through an
ordinary law.
Other implications are:
It protects private property against executive action but not against legislative
action.
In case of violation, the aggrieved person cannot directly move the Supreme
Court under Article 32 (right to constitutional remedies including writs) for
its enforcement. He can move the High Court under Article 226.
Q Source: Present Position of Right to Property: Chapter 7: Indian Polity: M
Laxmikanth
59 Consider the following about Atal Innovation Mission (AIM).
It is being setup under NITI Aayog.1.
It will fund start-ups.2.
It will provide free grants to all research institutions and organizations for any kind3.
of research being done in India.
Select the correct answer using the codes below
1 and 2 onlyA.
2 and 3 onlyB.
1 and 3 onlyC.
1, 2 and 3D.
User Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
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Learning: It will provide funds to a network of institutions to conduct research on
innovations that can improve economic growth and job creation. It will not fund all
research institutions in India. So, 3 is wrong.
The mission will also provide inputs to all central ministries on innovation and
suggest a funding mechanism for result-oriented researchv
Q Source: Union Cabinet approves establishment of Atal Innovation Mission and
SETU in NITI Aayog: PIB
60 Cultural and educational rights given under Articles 29 and 30 of the Indian constitution
implyMinorities have the right to conserve their language and script.1.
Minorities have a fundamental right to receive financial support from the2.
government to preserve their traditions.
Which of the above is/are correct?
1 onlyA.
2 onlyB.
Both 1 and 2C.
NoneD.
User Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
Justification: Statement 1: In the recent case of Niyamgiri Hills in Odisha, the SC
ordered the MoEF to reconsider its decision to grant bauxite mining license to a
mining company as it was affecting the local tribe's religious and cultural heritage.
So, 1 is correct.
Statement 2: Generally the government does support minorities. For e.g. Jains being
a minority now receive land concessions from the government. However, obtaining
such support is not their fundamental right. So, 2 is wrong.
Q Source: Chapter 7: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
61 Consider the following statements.
It is the largest protected area in the Eastern Himalaya biodiversity hotspot.1.
The park harbours the northernmost lowland evergreen rainforests in the world.2.
The habitat changes with increasing altitude from tropical moist forests to Alpine3.
meadows and perennial snow.
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The park has extensive bamboo forests.4.
The above refer to?
Namdapha National ParkA.
Balpakram National ParkB.
Nongkhyllem Wildlife SanctuaryC.
Nokrek National ParkD.
User Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
Learning: It is located in Arunachal Pradesh in Northeast India. It is also the third
largest national park in India in terms of area. It is located in the Eastern Himalayansub-region and is recognized as one of the richest areas in biodiversity in India
The park is located between the Dapha bum range of the Mishmi Hills and the
Patkai range.
The habitat changes with increasing altitude from tropical moist forests to Montane
forests, temperate forests and at the higher elevations, to Alpine meadows and
perennial snow. The park has extensive bamboo forests and secondary forests in
addition to the primary forests.
Q Source: Test 14 Syllabus
62 Which of the following were introduced or provided for by the Government of India Act
of 1919?
Bicameralism1.
Direct Elections2.
Central Public Service Commission3.
Autonomy to provincial legislatures to enact their budgets4.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
1 and 2 onlyA.
1, 2 and 3 onlyB.3 and 4 onlyC.
1, 2, 3 and 4 onlyD.
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
Justification: Statement 1 & 2: It introduced, for the first time, bicameralism and
direct elections in the country. Thus, the Indian Legislative Council was replaced by
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a bicameral legislature consisting of an Upper House (Council of State) and a Lower
House (Legislative Assembly). The majority of members of both the Houses were
chosen by direct election.
Statement 3: It provided for the establishment of a public service commission.
Hence, a Central Public Service Commission was set up in 1926 for recruiting civil
servants.
Statement 4: It separated, for the first time, provincial budgets from the Central
budget and authorised the provincial legislatures to enact their budgets.
Q Source: Chapter 1: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
63 Which of the following is the competent authority to change the name of any State of
India?
Concerned State LegislatureA.
Governor concernedB.
ParliamentC.
Union Home MinisterD.
User Answer :
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
Learning: The Constitution authorizes the Parliament to form new states or alter the
areas, boundaries or names of the existing states without their consent.
The United Provinces was the first state to have a new name. It was renamed'Uttar
Pradesh' in 1950. In 1969, Madras was renamed'Tamil Nadu'.
Q Source: Chapter 5: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
64 Which of the following statements about Down's syndrome is INCORRECT?
It affects the intelligence of a person.A.It is a genetic disorder.B.
It may cause death earlier than normal.C.
It causes neo-natal paralysis of body.D.
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
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Learning: It is a genetic disorder caused by the presence of all or part of a third
copy of chromosome 21.
It is typically associated with physical growth delays, characteristic facial features,
and mild to moderate intellectual disability.
For e.g. the average IQ of a young adult with Down syndrome can be 50, equivalent
to the mental age of an 8- or 9-year-old child.
The parents of the affected individual are typically genetically normal. The extra
chromosome occurs by random chance.
Q Source: Revision Previous Tests: Set A: Q11: CDS 2011
65 The Preamble to the Indian Constitution is based on the
Preamble of the Nehru Report produced in 1928A.
Prelude of the Government of India Act, 1935B.
'Objectives Resolution' adopted by the Constituent Assembly in 1946C.
'Outcome Paper' of the Lahore Session of the Indian National Congress,D.
1930.
User Answer :
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
Learning: 'Preamble' refers to the introduction or preface to the Constitution. It
contains the summary or essence of the Constitution.
The Preamble to the Indian Constitution is based on the'Objectives Resolution',
drafted and moved by Pandit Nehru, and adopted by the Constituent Assembly. It
has been amended by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act (1976), which added
three new wordssocialist, secular and integrity.
Q Source: Chapter 4: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
66 Some of the developed countries have started to boycott goods manufactured in
developing countries using 'sweat labour' in addition to banning those manufactured by
child labour. 'Sweat labour' implies goods produced by
Labourers trafficked from other nationsA.
Labourers working in inhuman or unhealthy working conditionsB.
Labour working in the unorganized sector which is not regulated by the stateC.
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Children of more than 14 years of age but less than 18 yearsD.
User Answer :
Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
Learning: Sweat labour means those who are employed for long hours, at low pay
and in poor working conditions. This can be common for workers in many poor
countries.
It is also an ethical issue where arguments are forwarded from both sides justifying
sweat labour or not.
You can read about it here
http://www.globalethicsnetwork.org/profiles/blogs/two-faces-of-economic-develop
ment-the-ethical-controversy
Q Source: Revision Previous Tests: Set A: Q39: CDS 2011
67 The higher the concentration of the mineral in rocks, the more economical it is to mine
it. Which of the following processes help in the concentration of minerals on earth?
Hydrothermal deposits1.
Weathering2.Water erosion3.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
1 and 2 onlyA.
2 onlyB.
2 and 3 onlyC.
1, 2 and 3D.
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
Justification:Statement 1: Hydrothermal deposits are produced when groundwater
circulates to depth and heats up either by coming near a hot igneous body at depth or
by circulating to great depth along the geothermal gradient.
Such hot water can dissolve valuable substances throughout a large volume of rock.
As the hot water moves into cooler areas of the crust, the dissolved substances are
precipitated from the hot water solution.
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Statement 2: During chemical weathering and original body of rock is greatly
reduced in volume by the process of leaching, which removes ions from the original
rock. Elements that are not leached form the rock thus occur in higher concentration
in the residual rock.
Statement 3: The velocity of flowing water determines whether minerals are carried
in suspension or deposited. For e.g. when the velocity of the water slows, large
minerals or minerals with a higher density are deposited.
Q Source: Improvisation: Set A: Q40: CDS 2011
68 The Indian Constitution establishes certain independent bodies like ElectionCommission of India, Union Service Public Commission, Comptroller and Auditor General
of India. How does it secure their independence from the government?
The Government has no right to appoint or remove the chairman of these bodies.1.
These bodies are not financed from the Consolidated Fund of India.2.
These bodies are not legal entities like the government.3.
The government cannot take any action against these bodies or their office holders.4.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
3 and 4 onlyA.
1, 2 and 4 onlyB.
2 and 3 onlyC.
None of the aboveD.
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
Justification:Statement 1: The President appoints the CAG, CEC of India and
Chairman of UPSC. So, 1 is wrong.
Statement 2: The expenses of these bodies and their office holders e.g. CAG of
India, are charged on the consolidated fund of India. So, 2 is wrong.
Statement 3: They are legal entities and can be sued just as the government can be
sued.
Statement 4: The government can initiate disciplinary action against the office
holders for malpractices, corruption etc. So, 4 is also wrong.
The Constitution ensures the independence of these bodies through various
provisions like security of tenure, fixed service conditions, expenses being charged
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on the Consolidated Fund of India, and so on.
Q Source:Chapter 3: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
69 A cloudburst is an extreme amount of precipitation. It can be caused due to
Collision of heavy clouds with mountains1.
Mixing of warm air parcel with cooler air resulting in sudden condensation2.
Which of the above is/are correct?
1 onlyA.
2 onlyB.
Both 1 and 2C.
NoneD.
User Answer :
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
Learning:Apart from the conditions mentioned in the question:
Cloud burst is actually a situation when the inter-molecular forces between the H2O
molecules get very high due to the rapid decrease in the temperature or excess of
electrostatic induction in the clouds causing the lighting to remain inside the cloud
only, which causes hyperactive energy inside the cloud.
The water molecules get denser and denser and get condensed but do not leave the
cloud due to excess of electroforces