SIMPLYFYING IAS EXAM PREPARATION - INSIGHTSIAS · The difference between the ages of Kavya and Malika is 3 years. Thus, possible ages Kavya and Malika are (10, 13) or (13, 10) . Because

INSIGHTSIAS SIMPLYFYING IAS EXAM PREPARATION

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Blood Relationship; Puzzles & Seating Arrangement; English Comprehension

1. Pointing towards a man in a photograph, Arun, who does not have any sibling, said “The

man’s father is my father’s son”. How is the man related to Arun?

(a) Son

(b) Uncle

(c) Nephew

(d) Cousin

Solution: A

Since Arun does not have any brother or sister, it means Arun’s father’s son is Arun himself.

Therefore, the man in the photograph is Arun’s son.

2. Pointing to a man in a photograph a woman says, “He is the father of my only daughter-in-

law’s father-in-law”. How is the man related to the woman?

(a) Father

(b) Brother

(c) Husband

(d) Father- in -law

Solution: D

Woman’s daughter-in-law’s father-in-law implies woman’s husband.

Again, the father of the woman’s husband implies woman’s father-in-law.

Hence, the man is woman’s father-in-law

3. Pointing to a woman in a photograph, a man says – “She is the only daughter of the mother-

in-law of my only son.” How is the woman related to the man?

(a) Wife

(b) Daughter

(c) Daughter-in-law

(d) Mother

Solution: C

It is better to go from reverse side to solve this kind of problem.




Therefore, it can be translated as she is that man’s only son’s mother-in law’s only daughter.

Thus, she is wife of man’s only son or daughter-in law of that man.

Therefore, “Only daughter of the mother-in-law of one’s son” implies one’s daughter-in-law.

4. Pointing towards a person in the photograph, Anupama said ‘He is only son of father of my

sister’s brother’. How is that person related to Anupama?

(a) Brother

(b) Brother –in- law

(c) Father – in- law

(d) Father

Solution: A

If we write it in reverse order, person is Anupama’s Sister’s brother’s father’s only son.

Therefore, brother’s father’s only son has to be brother himself.

Thus, person is Anumapa’s brother.

Directions for the following (one) item:

Read the following passage and answer the item that follow. Your answer to this item should be

based on the passage only.

Passage - 1

Governments need to be generous in supporting international humanitarian agencies,

whether with food or funds. Stepping-up supply of food to countries worst-hit by the hunger crisis

is necessary. While this will help ease the symptoms of the crisis, it will not address its underlying

causes. The latter is necessary to address the problem of food insecurity in the world.

Humanitarian food aid is important but simultaneously, we need to put in place medium and long-

term strategies to address conflict and climate shocks.

5. Which of the following is the most logical, critical and rational inference that can be

drawn from the above passage?

(a) Cycle of hunger can be broken only by improving food production and distribution

(b) The presence of hunger remains a global shame

(c) Climate change, extreme weather events and global conflicts remain the primary

cause of hunger

(d) Humanitarian aid is a necessary but not a sufficient condition for addressing global

hunger

Answer. A




The passage states that humanitarian aid is important but other steps are also required

for ending hunger. D appears correct but A is the more logical and critical choice because the

passage harps on the importance of medium and long term steps required for

addressing hunger which is captured by A. Hence A is the correct answer.

Direction for the following 4 (four) items: Consider the given information and answer four items

that follow:

Six friends are sitting in a circle and are facing the center of the circle. Deepa is between Prakash

and Pankaj. Priti is between Mukesh and Lalit. Prakash and Mukesh are opposite to each other.

Prakash is at the right of Deepa.

6. Who is at the immediate left of Prakash?

(a) Deepa

(b) Lalit

(c) Prakash

(d) Pankaj

Solution: A

Arrangement:

Hence, Deepa is at the second left of Prakash.

7. Who is sitting exactly opposite to Deepa ?

(a) Priti

(b) Prakash

(c) Pankaj

(d) Mukesh

Solution: A

Priti is sitting exactly opposite of Deepa




8. Who are immediate neighbours of Pankaj ?

(a) Deepa and Prakash

(b) Deepa and Mukesh

(c) Mukesh and Priti

(d) Lalit and Prakash

Solution: B

Deepa and Mukesh are immediate neighbours of Pankaj.

9. Who is sitting immediate right to Lalit?

(a) Priti

(b) Prakash

(c) Deepa

(d) Mukesh

Solution: A

Priti is sitting immediate right to Lalit.




Passage – 2

There are three standard counter-responses to the claim that technology can be dangerous

in itself. One, the fault is not in technology but in the humans who use such technology: guns don’t

kill, only people do. Two, technology is as useful as it can be harmful. Three, technology will always

be under our control and so we can literally pull the plug when we want. All these views can be

effectively challenged, particularly in the case of artificial intelligence (AI).

10. Which of the following is the most logical and critical inference that can be drawn from

the above passage?

(a) Artificial intelligence is bad for humanity

(b) AI is good for humanity as it has intelligence

(c) AI needs to be developed with caution

(d) The usual arguments that can be brought in defence of technology do not apply in case

of AI

Answer. D.




The passage talks about three arguments which can be brought in the defence technology which is

not true for AI. This is what option D is about.

11. At the cricket game, Ram was sitting in seat 153. Sham was sitting to the right of Ram in

seat 154. In the seat to the left of Ram was Krishna. Ishwar was sitting to the left of Krishna.

Which seat is Ishwar sitting in?

(a) 151

(b) 154

(c) 155

(d) 156

Solution: A

Seat numbers are numbered from left to right which is evident from the given data.

Thus, Seat number of Ram = 153.

Seat number of Sham = 154

Seat number of Krishna = 152

Seat number of Ishwar = 151

Direction for the following 3 (three) items: Consider the given information and answer the three

items that follow:

Eight people – Swati, Prachi, Richa, Kavya, Sheena, Charu, Malika and Naira are sitting in a

straight line facing North. They have different ages – 10, 13, 15, 18, 25, 26, 31 and 40 but not

necessarily in the same order. There are 2 persons sitting between Swati and the one whose age is

18 years. Neither of them is sitting at an extreme end. The difference between the ages of Kavya

and Malika is 3 years. Richa is sitting second to right of one having age 18 years. Prachi is sitting

third to left of one having age 31 years. There are three girls sitting between Kavya and whose age

is 18 years old. Prachi and Malika are immediate neighbors. Richa is not 31 years old. There are

at least 4 persons sitting to the right of Kavya. Naira and the one having age 18 years are

immediate neighbors. The one who is 31 years old is not sitting at second position from any end.

Sheena is 3 years older than Swati. Charu is one year older than Richa.

12. Who is 13 years old?

(a) Kavya

(b) Prachi

(c) Malika

(d) Cannot be determined

Solution: D




Eight people – Swati, Prachi, Richa, Kavya, Sheena, Charu, Malika and Naira are sitting in a

straight line facing North.

They have different ages – 10, 13, 15, 18, 25, 26, 31 and 40 but not necessarily in the same order.

There are 2 persons sitting between Swati and the one whose age is 18 years.Neither of them is

sitting at an extreme end. Therefore, Swati is not sitting at extreme end and her age is not 18

years.

The difference between the ages of Kavya and Malika is 3 years.

Thus, possible ages Kavya and Malika are (10, 13) or (13, 10) . Because it is given that age of

Sheena is 18 years. Thus, possible ages Kavya and Malika (15, 18) or (18, 15) are not possible

Richa is sitting second to right of one having age 18 years.

Prachi is sitting third to left of one having age 31 years. Thus, Prachi’s age is not 31 years.

There are three girls sitting between Kavya and Sheena whose age is 18 years old. Therefore, age

of Sheena is 18 years.

Thus, Richa is sitting second to right of Sheena.

Prachi and Malika are immediate neighbors. Richa is not 31 years old.

There are at least 4 persons sitting to the right of Kavya.

Naira and the one having age 18 years are immediate neighbors. Thus, Naira and Sheena are

immediate neighbors.

The one who is 31 years old is not sitting at second position from any end.

Sheena is 3 years older than Swati.Thus, age of Swati is 15 years.

Charu is one year older than Richa. Thus, age of Charu is 26 and age of Richa is 25.

Since, it is given that age of Prachi is not 31 years, Prachi’s age is 40 years and Naira’s age is 31

years.

Arrangement from left to right in north direction is

Kavya-Swati-Prachi-Malika-Sheena-Naira-Richa-Charu

Hence, option (d) is correct.

13. How many persons are sitting to the left of Sheena?

(a) Two

(b) Three

(c) Five

(d) Four

Solution: D

There are four persons sitting to the left of Sheena (Kavya, Swati, Prachi and Malika)




14. What is the difference in ages of Prachi and Richa?

(a) 7 years

(b) 27 years

(c) 3 years

(d) 15 years

Solution: D

Age of Prachi = 40 years

Age of Richa = 25 years

Therefore, difference = 15 years.




Passage – 3

The notion that people are motivated to work in the public service as a result of altruism,

a desire to serve, or a wish to have an impact on society is a long-standing one. It is closely

associated with the idea of public service ethos, which is rooted in an understanding that the public

service is different from the private sector, both because of the tasks it performs and the behaviours

it expects of its employees.

15. Which of the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be drawn from

the above passage?

(a) Pay is not the motivating factor for public servants

(b) Public service is a position of trust

(c) Altruism is the motivating factor for public service

(d) Public and private sector jobs are vastly different

Answer. C.

The focus of the passage is on bringing out the view that there is an idea that public servants

have an inherent sense of altruism, which is what inspires them to serve the public and

display conduct worthy of public service ethos. The focus is not on explaining that public

and private sector jobs differ. Hence C





items that follow:

Six friends A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in a circle and are facing the centre of the circle. D is

between A and B. C is between F and E. A andF are opposite to each other. A is at the immediate

right of D.

16. Who is at the second left of E?

(a) D

(b) F

(c) B

(d) A

Solution: A

Arrangement:

17. Who is sitting exactly opposite to B?

(a) C

(b) A

(c) F

(d) E

Solution: D

18. Who is sitting immediate right to C?

(a) B

(b) F

(c) E

(d) A




Solution: B

Direction for the following 1 (one) item: Consider the given information and answer the one item

that follow:

There are eight members in a family in three generation i.e. P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and M. Among

them there are only two married couples and only four males. R is married to P. Q is the only child

of S. U is married and she has a mother-in-law. S is paternal grandmother of T. P is father of T’s

mother and V. M is not a female member of a family. T is brother of M.

19. How is R related to M?

(a) Paternal Grandmother

(b) Paternal Grandfather

(c) Maternal Grandmother

(d) Maternal Grandfather

Solution: C

Relations:

R is the maternal grandmother of M.




Passage – 4

Shutting down internet access is a supply-side attempt to curb panic, rumours and hate

speech. But it surely has negative economic costs, in terms of a shutdown of legitimate e-commerce.

It hurts businesses and services that depend on digital connectivity. India had the dubious

distinction of being the world’s leader in internet shutdowns last year, according to Software

Freedom Law Center. India has more users of WhatsApp than the US, and is also among

Facebook’s top three markets globally by subscriber count.




20. Which of the following option(s) is/are valid argument(s) against enforcing a social media

ban?

1. Transparency gets impacted by such bans

2. India ranks poorly in social media freedom indices

There are economic ramifications to social media ban

(a) I, II

(b) II, III

(c) I, III

(d) III

Answer: D.

Reading of the passage indicates that I is incorrect and III is correct. The question is talking in

general about the arguments against social media ban and not restricting itself

specifically to India. Hence II is incorrect.

Mensuration; Data interpretation & Graphs; English Comprehension

Direction for the following 4 (four) items: Consider the given information and answer the four

items that follow:

The following graph shows the percentage growth in population of six cities from 1990 to 2000 and

2000 to 2010.




21. If the population of City F in year 1990 was 12 lakh, what will be its population in year 2010?

(a) 31.65 lakh

(b) 32.55 lakh

(c) 33.4 lakh

(d) 34.64 lakh

Solution: B

It is given that population of City F in year 1990 was 12 lakh.

It has increased by 75 % from 1990 to 2000 for city F.

Thus population of city F in 2000 = 1.75 * 12 = 21 lakh.

Population of city F has further increased by 55 % from 2000 to 2010.

Therefore, population of City F in year 2010 was 1.55 * 21 = 32.55 lakh.

22. The population of City D in year 2000 was what per cent of its population in year 2010?

(a) 57.8%

(b) 60%

(c) 62.5%

(d) 96%

Solution: C

Let the population in year 2000 be ‘x’.

Therefore, its population in year 2010 = (160/100) * x = 8x/5.

Thus, the population of city D in 2000 is ((x)/(8x/5)) * 100 % of its population in year 2010.

= 62.5 %

23. In year 1990 the population of City A and City B are equal and the population of City A in

year2010 is 37.7 lakh. What is the population of City B in year 2010?

(a) 38.4 lakh

(b) 42 lakh

(c) 43.5 lakh

(d) 44 lakh

Solution: B

It is given that, the population of City A in year2010 is 37.7 lakh.




Therefore, the population of City A in year in 1990

(37.7) * (100/145) * (100/130) = 20 lakh

Therefore, the population of City B in year2010 is 20 lakh.

The population of city B in 2010 = 20 * (140/100)*(150/100) = 42 lakh.

24. If the population of City C in year 2010 and that of City D in year 2000 are equal and they

are27.2 lakh each. The population of City C in year 1990 is what percentage of population of

City D in the same year?

(a) 50%

(b) 75%

(c) 80%

(d) 120%

Solution: A

It is given that, population of City C in year 2010 = population of City D in year 2000 = 27.2 lakh.

Therefore, population of City C in year 1990 = (100/170) * (100/160) * 27.2

= 10 lakh

The population of City D in year 1990 = (100/136) * 27.2 lakh = 20 lakh.

The population of City C in year 1990 is 50% of population of City D in the same year.




Passage – 5

Disagreeing with each other is a fundamental human trait. There is not a single individual

who does not disagree with something or the other all the time. Philosophers argue that a baby

meaningfully attains its sense of the self — its recognition of ‘I’ and the concept of ‘mine’ — when

it first begins to say ‘no’. At a primordial level, we become individuals only through this act of

stating our disagreement. There is no family without dissent between parents and the children, or

between the siblings. A family which learns to deal with dissent rather than authoritatively

dismissing it is a more harmonious family.

25. Which of the following is the most logical and critical inference that can be drawn from

the passage?

(a) Dissent is necessary not only for democracy — it is necessary for the survival of human

race

(b) Dissent is the most fundamental of all human traits

(c) Growing up in an authoritative family leads to stifling of free speech and results in

lack of character building




(d) Freedom of speech is the most cherished of all freedoms

Answer. A.

Statement B and D are wrong because it is not directly linked to the central idea of the passage.

Statement A and C do talk about the central idea of the passage. The example about family is

given to highlight that dissent is important even in families, so it’s importance for

society is emphasized. Hence statement C is not the most critical inference. Statement A

captures the inference in the most logical and critical manner.


items that follow:

In the following charts, the first pie-chart shows the percentage distribution of total

students studying in different schools and the second pie-chart shows the percentage distribution

of total girl students studying in these schools. Total number of students in all the schools together

is 30000 and the ratio of boys to girls is 3:2.

Chart 1

Chart 2




26. What is the difference between the total number of boys and the total number of girls

studying in School D?

(a) 2020

(b) 2040

(c) 2066

(d) 2680

Solution: B

Total students = 30000 * 0.18 = 5400

Girls among them = 12000 * 0.14 = 1680

Therefore, number of boys = 5400 – 1680 = 3720

Thus, difference = 3720 – 1680 = 2040.

27. The number of girls studying in School C is what percentage of the number of boys studying

in School E?

(a) 60%

(b) 70%

(c) 75%

(d) 90%

Solution: D

Total students in school C = 30000 * 0.23 = 6900

Total girl students in school C = 12000 * 0.18 = 2160

Total students in school E = 30000 * 0.16 = 4800.

Total girls students in school E = 12000 * 0.20 = 2400.

Therefore, total boys students in school E = 4800 – 2400 = 2400.

Thus required percent = (2160/2400) * 100 = 90%

28. What is the average of the number of boys studying in school A, B and C?

(a) 2150

(b) 2200

(c) 2350

(d) 2400

Solution: D




Boys in school A = (30000 * 0.10) – (12000 * 0.15) = 1200

Boys in school B = (30000 * 0.09) – (12000 * 0.12) = 1260

Boys in school C = (30000 * 0.23) – (12000 * 0.18) = 4740.

Therefore, average = (1200+1260+4740)/3 = 2400.

29. The number of girls in School F is what percentage more than the number of girls in School

A?

(a) 25%

(b) 30%

(c) 40%

(d) 50%

Solution: C

The number of girls in School F = 12000 * 0.21 = 2520

The number of girls in School A = 12000 * .15 = 1800

Thus, required percent = ((2520 – 1800)/1800) * 100 = 40 %




Passage – 6

India accounts for nearly a fifth of the world’s child deaths. In terms of numbers, it is the

highest in the world – nearly 16 lakhs every year. Of these, more than half die in the first month

of life. Officials believe that the reason for this is the absence of steps to propagate basic health

practices relating to breast feeding and immunisation. Also the large reproductive population of

2.6 crore remains bereft of care during the critical phases of pregnancy and post-delivery. Added

to this is the prevalence of child marriages, anaemia among young women and lack of focus on

adolescent sanitation, all of which impact child death rates.

30. Which is the critical inference that can be made from the above passage?

(a) A lot of Indians are illiterate and hence do not recognize the value of basic health

practices

(b) India has a very huge population and the government alone cannot manage public

health services

(c) Universalization and integration of maternal health and child health services can

effectively address the problem

(d) The nutrition of women in child bearing age does not affect child mortality rate

Answer: C




The passage talks about the lack of healthcare services which consequently leads to large

number of child deaths. Hence C is correct.

Direction for the following 1 (ONE) item: Consider the given information and answer One item

that follow:

The pie chart drawn below shows the spending of a country on various sports during a particular

year.

31. If the total amount spent on sports during the year was Rs. 1,20,00,000 how much was spent

on basketball?

(a) 15, 00,000

(b) 10, 00,000

(c) 1,00,000

(d) 1,50,000

Solution: A

Total spending = Rs1, 20, 00, 000

Spending on basketball = 12.5 % of 1, 20, 00, 000

Therefore, spending on basketball = (1/8) * (1, 20, 00, 000) = Rs 15,00,000

Directions for the following 3 (three) items: Read the information carefully and answer the

following questions:–

The following information is about the production of cars by 3 different companies from

Monday to Friday in a specific week-

The total production by 3 companies on Monday was 540 out of which one- third cars were produced

by Tata.

The number of cars produced by Renault on Monday is less than the cars produced by Tata on

Monday by the same extent as the number of cars produced by Maruti on Monday is more than the

cars produced by Tata on

Monday. The difference between cars produced by Renault and Maruti on Monday is 40.




150 cars are produced by Tata on Tuesday, which is 100 less than the cars produced by the same

company on Wednesday. A total of 910 cars were produced by Tata from Monday to Friday.

The ratio between cars produced by Tata on Thursday to cars produced by the same company on

Friday is 5 : 6.

220 cars were produced by Renault on Tuesday, which is 80 less than the cars produced by Maruti

on Wednesday. A total of 570 cars were produced on Tuesday, which is 76% of the total cars

produced on Wednesday.

The number of cars produced by Maruti on Thursday is two-third more than cars produced by Tata

on the same day. Total 580 cars were produced on Thursday. The number of cars produced by

Maruti on Friday is same as that on Monday. 140 cars were produced by Renault on Friday.

32. Find the ratio between total cars produced on Monday to that on Wednesday?

(a) 18 : 29

(b) 18 : 25

(c) 18 : 31

(d) 3 : 5

Solution: B

By the deducing the information given above, we can get the following table

Monday Tuesday Wednesday Thursday Friday

Toyota 180 150 250 150 180

Renault 160 220 200 180 140

Maruti 200 200 300 250 200

Total 540 570 750 580 520

The ratio between total cars produced on Monday to that on Wednesday = 540/750 = 18 : 25

33. Find the total number of cars produced by Renault from Monday to Friday.

(a) 900

(b) 980

(c) 950

(d) 960

Solution: A

The total number of cars produced by Renault from Monday to Friday = 160+220+200+180+140

= 900




34. Find the average number of cars produced per day by Maruti from Monday to Friday.

(approximate)

(a) 230

(b) 220

(c) 270

(d) 240

Solution: A

The average number of cars produced per day by Maruti from Monday to Friday

= (200+200+300+250+200)/5

= 1150/5

= 230




Passage – 7

The miseries of the world cannot be cured by physical help only. Until man’s nature

changes, his physical needs will always arise, and miseries will always be felt, and no amount of

physical help will remove them completely. The only solution of the problem is to make mankind

pure. Ignorance is the mother of evil and of all the misery we see. Let men have light, let them be

pure and spiritually strong and educated; then alone will misery cease in the world. We may

convert every house in the country into a charitable asylum, we may fill the land with hospitals,

but human misery will continue until man’s character changes.

35. With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made:

1. The author gives primary importance to physical and material help in eradicating

human misery

2. Charitable homes, hospitals, etc. can remove human misery to a great extent

Which of the assumption is/are valid?

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 1,2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer. D.

Statement I and II are wrong as the passage gives primary importance to spiritual growth

in man in eradicating human misery.





items that follow:

Eight boxes made of different materials- Aluminum, Iron, Gold, Plastic, Platinum, Silver, Steel,

and Wood. They also weigh different weights – 50,100,150,200,250,300,350 and 400gm not

necessarily in the same order. Two boxes are placed between the boxes weighing 200gm and 400gm.

The number of boxes below Steel box is more than the number of boxes above Steel box. There is

only one box between Steel box and Gold box. There are three boxes between Iron Box and

Aluminum box. The difference between weights of Plastic Box and the Platinum box is 350gm.

There are two boxes between Aluminum box and box which weighs 150gm. The Platinum box is

placed below Plastic box. There are three boxes between Wooden Box and Box which weighs 300gm.

The difference between weights of Silver and the Wooden box is 250gm. Box weighing 350gm is

below Gold box. The 100gm box is placed above 50gms. The heaviest box is either at the top of all

boxes or at the bottom of all boxes. The steel box is placed just above the box weighing 200gms.

Iron box is just above the Gold box. Number of boxes between boxes weighing 350gm and 50gm is

more than two.

36. Which of the following box is placed at the bottom of all?

(a) Silver

(b)Platinum

(c) Plastic

(d) Wood

Solution: B

From the information given above, we can deduce the following facts:

Eight boxes made of different materials- Aluminum, Iron, Gold, Plastic, Platinum, Silver, Steel,

and Wood.

They also weigh different weights – 50,100,150,200,250,300,350 and 400gm not necessarily in the

same order.

Two boxes are placed between the boxes weighing 200gm and 400gm.

The number of boxes below Steel box is more than the number of boxes above Steel box. Therefore,

steel box has to be placed between top and 4th from the top. (i.e 1, 2, 3 or 4 th place from top to

bottom direction)

There is only one box between Steel box and Gold box. (hence, respective possible positions of Steel

box and Gold box from the top to bottom are (1, 3) or (2, 4) or (3, 1 or 5) or (4, 2 or 6)

There are three boxes between Iron Box and Aluminum box. Hence, possible respective positions

of Iron Box and Aluminum box from the top to bottom are (1, 5) or (5,1) or (2, 6) or (6, 2) or (3, 7) or

(7,3) or (4, 8) or (8,4)

The difference between weights of Platinum box and the Plastic Box is 350gm. The only possible

way is either of one box must be 400gms and other is 50gms. Thus one is heaviest and other is

lightest.

There are two boxes between Aluminum box and box which weighs 150gm. Thus, Aluminum box

do not weigh 150 gm or 400gms or 50 gms.




The Platinum box is placed below Plastic box.

There are three boxes between Wooden Box and Box which weighs 300gm. Hence, Wooden box do

not weigh 300gms or 400gms or 50 gms.

The difference between weights of Silver and the Wooden box is 250gm. Hence, weights of wooden

and silver box has to be either (350 gms and 100 gms) or (100 gms and 350 gms)

Now looking back at previous data we can say that Aluminum weigh either 200 gms or 250gms or

300 gms.

Box weighing 350gm is below Gold box. Hence, gold box do not weigh 350gm and also it cannot

weigh 400gms, 50gms, 100gms.

The 100gm box is placed above 50gms.

The heaviest box is either at the top of all boxes or at the bottom of all boxes.

From the above it is clear that heaviest box is at the bottom. And also since, the Platinum box is

placed below Plastic box, it clear that platinum is heaviest and placed at the bottom. Also, plastic

box is lightest.

The steel box is placed just above the box weighing 200gms.

Iron box is just above the Gold box.

Number of boxes between boxes weighing 350gm and 50gm is more than two.

From the above given data we can draw a following table:

Box Weight (in gms)

Aluminum 250

Wood 100

Plastic 50

Steel 150

Iron 200

Gold 300

Silver 350

Platinum 400

37. What is the weight of Silver box?

(a) 100gm

(b) 150gm

(c) 200gm

(d) 350gm

Solution: D

(From Table)




38. Which of the following box is on top of all boxes?

(a) Aluminum

(b)Iron

(c) Plastic

(d) Silver

Solution: A

(from Table)

39. Which of the following combination is false?

(a) Aluminium-250gm

(b) Gold-300gm

(c) Silver-350gm

(d) Platinum-50gm

Solution: D




Passage – 8

Preventing the exploitation of animals is not the only reason for becoming vegan, but for

many it remains the key factor in their decision to go vegan and stay vegan. Having emotional

attachments with animals may form part of that reason, while many believe that all sentient

creatures have a right to life and freedom. Specifics aside, avoiding animal products is one of the

most obvious ways you can take a stand against animal cruelty and animal exploitation

everywhere.

40. Which one of the following statement best sums up the key message of the passage?

(a) The only reason why people become vegan is to prevent animal cruelty

(b) Animal rights is ignored while human rights is talked about incessantly

(c) Adopting veganism is a logical means to achieve the end of prevention of animal

cruelty

(d) Cruelty on and exploitation of animals takes place everywhere

Answer. C.




Option a is wrong as it is says that veganism is the only way to prevent animal cruelty. The

statement in option b is correct but is away from the central theme of the passage. Statement D is

extrapolatory. The summary is best described through statement c

Analytical (verbal reasoning); English Comprehension

Direction for the following 4 (four) items: Consider the given information and answer four items

that follow:

An uncertain number of persons sit in a linear row. All of them face north. Four persons sit between

P and Q. R sits fourth to the right of Q. M sits third to the right of P. O sits fifth to the right of G.

O sits the immediate left of S who sits third from one of the extreme ends of the row. Q sits sixth

to the right of T who is not an immediate neighbor of P. As many persons sit between R and G as

many between G and M. T sits second to the left of J who sits third from the extreme end. S sits

fourth to the right of M.

41. Who among the following person sits sixth to the right of Q?

(a) R

(b) T

(c) G

(d) M

Solution: C

Arrangement

G sits sixth to the right of Q.

42. If N sits immediate right of M then how many persons sits between N and S?

(a) Seven

(b) Two

(c) Four

(d) Three

Solution: B




If N sits immediate right of M then two persons sits between N and S

43. Who among the following person sits seventh to the left of S?

(a) P

(b) M

(c) G

(d) T

Solution: A

P sits seventh to the left of S.

44. How many persons sit between O and S?

(a) Three

(b) Two

(c) None

(d) One

Solution: C

No one sit between O and S.




Passage – 9

Education, without a doubt, has an important functional, instrumental and utilitarian

dimension. This is revealed when one asks questions such as ‘what is the purpose of education?’.

The answers, too often, are ‘to acquire qualifications for employment/ upward mobility’,

‘wider/higher (in terms of income) opportunities’, and ‘to meet the needs for trained human power

in diverse fields for national development’. But in its deepest sense education is not

instrumentalist. That is to say, it is not to be justified outside of itself because it leads to the




acquisition of formal skills or of certain desired psychological – social attributes. It must be

respected in itself. Education is thus not a commodity to be acquired or possessed and then used,

but a process of inestimable importance to individuals and society, although it can and does have

enormous use value. Education then, is a process of expansion and conversion, not in the sense of

converting or turning students into doctors or engineers, but the widening and turning out of the

mind—the creation, sustenance and development of self-critical awareness and independence of

thought. It is an inner process of moral-intellectual development.

45. According to the passage, education must be respected in itself because

(a) it helps to acquire qualifications for employment

(b) it helps in upward mobility and acquiring social status

(c) it is an inner process of moral and intellectual development

(d) All the (a), (b) and (c) given above are correct in this context

Answer. A.

The passage clearly suggests that education is not instrumentalist in its deepest sense. But the

opening sentence calls it to be functional, instrumental and utilitarian. Thus the instrumentalist

view of education is the functional and utilitarian dimension in its purposes.


items that follow:

A family consists of six members P, Q, R, X, Y and Z.

Q is the son of R but R is not the mother of Q.

P and R are married couple.

Y is the brother of R.

X is the daughter of P.

Z is the brother of P.

46. Who is the brother–in-law of R?

(a) P

(b) Z

(c) Y

(d) X

Solution: B




As per the given information, we can derive following information:

A family consists of six members P, Q, R, X, Y and Z.

Q (male) is the son of R but R is not the mother of Q.

Therefore, R (male) must be father of Q.

P and R are married couple.

Therefore, P (female) is mother of Q.

Y (male) is the brother of R.

Therefore, Y is uncle of Q.

X (female) is the daughter of P.

Therefore, P is mother X (daughter) and Q (Son).

Z (male) is the brother of P.

Therefore, Z is uncle of X and Q; and Z is brother-in-law of R.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

47. How many female members are there in the family?

(a) One

(b) Two

(c) Three

(d) Four

Solution: B

As already solved in previous question, it is clear that there are two female members (P and X) in

the family and remaining four (Q, R, Y and Z) are male members of the family.


48. Which of these is a pair of brothers?

(a) P and X

(b) P and Z

(c) Q and X

(d) R and Y




Solution: D

As per the given information, it is clear that R and Y are brothers.

49. Nurse Usha has worked more night shifts in a row than Nurse Asha, who has worked five.

Nurse Minty has worked fifteen night shifts in a row, more than Nurses Usha and Asha

combined. Nurse Monica has worked eight night shifts in a row, less than Nurse Usha. How

many night shifts in a row has Nurse Usha worked?

(a) eight

(b) nine

(c) ten

(d) eleven

Solution: B

From the given data,

Asha has worked five night shifts in a row.

Minty has worked fifteen night shifts in a row.

Since, Minty has worked more night shifts in a row than Usha and Asha (5) combined. Thus, night

shifts in a row has Nurse Usha worked should be less than or equal to nine.

Monica has worked eight night shifts in a row. Since it is given that she has worked less night outs

than Usha, Usha must have worked nine night shifts in a row.




Passage – 10

If a person suddenly encounters any terrible danger, the change of nature one undergoes

is equally great. Sometimes fear numbs our senses. Like animals, one stands still, powerless to

move a step in fright or to lift a hand in defense of our lives, and sometimes one is seized with

panic, and again, act more like the inferior animals than rational beings. On the other hand,

frequently in cases of sudden extreme peril, which cannot be escaped by flight, and must be

instantly faced, even the most timid men at once as if by miracle, become possessed of the necessary

courage, sharp quick apprehension and swift decision. This is a miracle very common in nature.

Man and the inferior animals alike, when confronted with almost certain death ‘ gather resolution

from despair’ but there can really be no trace of so debilitating a feeling in the person fighting, or

prepared to fight for dear life. At such times the mind is clearer than it has ever been; the nerves

are steel, there is nothing felt but a wonderful strength and daring. Looking back at certain

perilous moments in my own life, I remember them with a kind of joy, not that there was any joyful

excitement then, but because they broadened my horizon, lifted me for a time above myself.




50. The author feels happy in the recollection of dangers faced and overcome because

(a) They brought him a new experience.

(b) They added a new perspective and lifted him above himself for a time.

(c) These experiences boosted his confidence.

(d) He felt elated as he was alive.

Solution: B

Directions for the following 2 (two) items: Study the following information to answer the question

given below:

If A + X means A is father of X

A – X means A is mother of X

A ∗ X means A is son of X

A / X means A is daughter of X

Then answer the following question based on the data above.

51. How is P related to R in P+Q-R.?

(a) Grandfather

(b) Grandmother

(c) Father

(d) Mother

Solution: A

P is grandfather of R.

52. Which of the following states A is grandmother of C?

(a) A - B + C

(b) A + B + C

(c) A / B - C

(d) A ∗ B - C

Solution: A

A – B + C means A is grandmother of C.




Directions for the following 2 (two) items: Study the following information to answer the question

given below:

53. What is the distinction in direct enlists and promotee Assistants?

(a) 210

(b) 280

(c) 180

(d) None of the above

Solution:- A

Total number of assistant= 15% of 7000 = (15/100*7000) =1050.

Number of direct recruits= 40% of 1050= (40/100*1050) =420

Number of promotee associates = (1050-420) =630.

Required difference = (630-420) =210

Hence, option (a) is correct.

54. The promotee representative Clerk- I is roughly what percent of that of that of direct enlist

clerk – I?

(a) 10%

(b) 9%

(c) 10.8%

(d) 10.5%




Solution: – C

Number of clerk I =19% of 7000= (7000*19/100) =1330.

Number of direct selects =90% of 1330= (90/100*1330) =1197.

Number of promotes= (1330-1197) =133

∴ required % = (133/1197*100) %= 13300/1197%=10.8%

Hence, option (c) is correct.




Passage – 11

The poor especially in market economies, need the strength that collectives offer for

creating more economic, social and political space for themselves, for enhancing their socio-

economic well-being and voice, and as a protection against free market individualism. It has been

argued that a group approach to farming, especially in the form of bottom up agricultural

production collectives, offers substantial scope for poverty alleviation and empowering the poor as

well as enhancing agricultural productivity. To realize this potential, however, the groups would

need to be voluntary in nature, small in size, participative in decision making and equitable in

work sharing and benefit distribution. There are many notable examples of such collectives to be

found in varied contexts, such as in the transition economies. All of them bear witness to the

possibility of successful cooperation under given conditions. And although the gender impact of the

family cooperatives in the transition economies are uncertain, the Indian examples of women-only

groups farming offer considerable potential for benefiting women.

55. Based on your reading of the passage, which of the following assumption(s) have been made

in the passage?

I. It is imperative for transition economies to have agricultural collectives

II. Agricultural productivity can be increased by group approach to farming

Select the correct code from below:

a) I

b) II

c) I & II

d) Neither I nor II

Answer. B.

Statement I is wrong as there is compulsion on the transition economies to go in for group

farming. The focus of the passage is all about the benefits of group approach to farming.

Hence II is correct.





items that follow:

Pie chart shows the percent of money spent by family on various item during 1999. Study the graph

and answer these questions.

56. If the total amount spent during the year 1999 including on savings was Rs. 120000, what

was the amount spent on Education?

(a) 12000

(b) 16000

(c) 13200

(d) 14,400

Solution: D

Total amount spent = Rs 120000

Amount spent on Education = 12 %

= (12/100) * 120000

= 12 * 1200

= Rs 14400

57. What is the ratio of the total amount of money spent on housing to that spent on clothing?

(a) 3: 1

(b) 3 : 2

(c) 5: 3

(d) 5: 2




Solution: B

Amount of money spent on housing = 15 % of total spent money

Amount of money spent on clothing = 10 % of total spent money

Therefore, required ration = 15/10 or 3: 2

58. If the total amount spent was Rs. 1,50,000, how much money was spent on clothing and

transport together in Rupees?

(a) 25000

(b) 37500

(c) 22500

(d) 15000

Solution: C

Total amount spent = Rs 1,50,000

Money spent on clothing = 10 % of total spent money

Money spent on transport = 5 % of total spent money

The money spent on clothing and transport together is 15 %

= (15/100) * 1,50,000

=15 * 1500

=Rs 22500

59. How many rectangles are present in the given figure?

(a) 15

(b) 12

(c) 18

(d) 24




Solution: A

The rectangles that we get from the given figure are,

AEOH, EBFO, OFCG, HOGD, AEGD, EBCG, ABFH, HFCD, ABCD, EIJF, HEFG, LHGK, IJGH,

EFKL and IJKL.

Thus, we get 15 rectangles in the above given figure.




Passage – 12

The logical way forward for tax administration in India is to make GST reasonably

progressive, and yet, easy to comply with. Income tax could be less progressive. India should aim

for high levels of tax exemption ( ₹10 lakh basic exemption in the next two years), and a shift

towards a flat tax or dual rate regime (10% and 20%) over five years. This can be phased to coincide

with GST beginning to deliver higher revenues, so that there is no loss.

60. Which of the following is the most logical and crucial inference that can be drawn from

the passage?

(a) India’s indirect tax structure needs to be made more progressive

(b) Direct and Indirect tax policies need to move in tandem

(c) Indirect tax revenue is not as important as direct tax revenue


Answer. B.

The passage explains that the loss in revenue on account of reforms in direct tax can be

compensated through GST revenues which means that policy decision need to move in tandem so

that overall revenue is not impacted. Hence B.





items that follow:

Study the table carefully to answer the questions that follow:

Candidates who appeared and passed in the test from four schools in six different years

61. What was the total number of failed candidates from school C in the year 2008 and the

number of candidates who appeared in the exam from school D in the year 2006?

(a) 335

(b) 331

(c) 322

(d) 332

Solution: B

Total failed in school C in 2008 = 354 – 258= 96

Total appeared in school D in 2006 = 235.

Therefore, total = 235 + 96 = 331


62. In which year was the difference between the number of candidates who appeared and

passed in the exam from school B is the second lowest?

(a) 2004

(b) 2005

(c) 2006

(d) 2007

Solution: B

The difference between the number of candidates who appeared and passed in the exam from

school B is lowest in 2004 with the difference of 91.




The second lowest difference is year 2005 with the difference of 110.

63. What was the respective ratio between the number of candidates who appeared from school

C in the year 2006 and the number of candidates who passed in the exam from school D in

the year 2009?

(a) 11 : 4

(b) 11 : 5

(c) 5 : 11

(d) 9 : 11

Solution: A

The number of candidates who appeared from school C in the year 2006= 693.

The number of candidates who passed in the exam from school D in the year2009 = 252.

Therefore, the required ratio = 693/252 = 11/4

64. Number of candidates who passed in the exam from school B in the year 2005 was

approximately what per cent of number of candidates who appeared from school A in the

year 2008?

(a) 80

(b) 70

(c) 90

(d) 85

Solution: A

Number of candidates who passed from school B in the year 2005 = 435.

Number of candidates who appeared from school A in the year 2008 = 546.

Therefore, the required percent= (435/546) * 100 = 79. 6% or approximately 80%.



based on the passage only

Passage – 13

If political leadership fails to emerge, there is likelihood of military taking over power in

developing countries. Radical student groups or labour may try to raise revolution but they are not

likely to compete with the military. Military intervention, rule, and withdrawal from politics is

closely related to a society’s level of political development.




65. In the context of political development, the assumption in the above passage is that

(a) political leadership is not an effective instrument.

(b) military fills in political vacuum.

(c) military intervention is inevitable for development.


Answer. C.

A close reading of the passage suggests that the passage talks about the military filling in political

vacuum in developing societies. Hence B is correct.

66. If a person cycled at 10 km/hr to the office from his house, he reaches 6 minutes late. He

reached 6 minutes early when he increased his speed by 2 km/hr. What is the distance

between his house and office?

(a) 10 km

(b) 11km

(c) 8 km

(d) 12km

Solution: D

Let the distance between house and office be ‘x’ km.

=>Therefore, time taken by the person to reach office if he travels at the speed of 10 km/hr = (x/10)

hours

=>Time taken by the person to reach office if he travels at the speed of

12 km/hr = (x/12) hours

Thus, time difference = (x/10) - (x/12) = (6x-5x)/ 60 or x/60 — (Eq 1)

Let the actual time the person is supposed to take to reach office be ‘t’ hours.


10 km/hr = t+6 min or t+(6/60) hour = ((60t+6)/60) hours


12 km/hr = t-6 min or t-(6/60) = ((60t-6)/60) hours.

Thus, time difference= (60t+6-60t+6)/60 = 12/60 hours … (Eq 2)

Equating the equation 1 and equation 2 we get x/60= 12/60

=>x=12km

Therefore, distance between the house of the person and his house is 12kms.




67. How many words of 4 letters with or without meaning be made from the letters of the word

‘NUMBER’, when repetition of letters is not allowed?

(a) 480

(b) 360

(c) 240

(d) 360

Solution: D

To form the word we use arrangement.

The word NUMBER has 6 alphabets.

Therefore, to form 4 letter word from the word NUMBER is 6P4= 6! / 2!

=>6*5*4*3* 2!/2!

=>360

68. A started a business with a capital of 10,000 rupees and four months later B joined him with

a capital of Rs 5000. How much A gets more than B in the profit, if the total profit at the end

of the year is Rs 2000.

(a) Rs 1500

(b) Rs 1000

(c) Rs 500

(d) Rs 666.67

Solution: B

The ratio of the profits will be according to their investment X duration

Ratio of profits of A to B = 10000*12/5000*8

=>Ratio = 3:1

Total profit = 2000

Hence, profit of A = 1500

Profit of B = 500

Therefore, profit of A is Rs. 1000 more than profit of B.

69. In a row of 16 boys, when Parvez was shifted by two places towards left, he became 7th from

the left end. What was his earlier position from the right end of the row?

(a) 7th

(b) 8th

(c) 9th




(d) 10th

Solution: B

Total number of boys in a row = 16.

As we know, when Parvez was shifted by two places towards left, he became 7th from the left end.

So, his original position from the left end = 9th

Position from the right end = 16 – 9 + 1= 8th




Passage – 14

Ecosystems provide people with a variety of goods and services; food, clean water, clean

air, flood control, soil stabilization, pollination, climate regulation, spiritual fulfilment and

aesthetic enjoyment, to name just a few. Most of these benefits either are irreplaceable or the

technology necessary to replace them is prohibitively expensive. For example, potable fresh water

can be provided by desalinating sea-water, but only at great cost. The rapidly expanding human

population has greatly modified the Earth’s ecosystems to meet their increased requirements of

some of the goods and services, particularly food, fresh water, timber, fibre and fuel.

These modifications have contributed substantially to human wellbeing and economic

development. The benefits have not been equally distributed. Some people have actually been

harmed by these changes. Moreover, short-term increases in some ecosystem goods and services

have come at the cost of the long-term degradation of others. For example, efforts to increase the

production of food and fibre have decreased the ability of some ecosystems to provide clean water,

regulate flooding and support biodiversity.

70. The passage mentions that “some people have actually been harmed by these changes”. What

does it imply?

I. The rapid expansion of population has adversely affected some people

II. Sufficient efforts have not been made to increase the production of food and fibre

III. In the short term some people may be harmed, but in the long term everyone will

benefit from modifications in the Earth’s ecosystems.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) I

(b) II

(c) I, III


Answer. A.




Statement II is not correct as the efforts are being taken as mentioned in the passage. Statement

III is also not correct as the short term gain have resulted into long term degradation of other.

Hence A is the correct answer.

71. A bag contains 4 red, 4 green and 4 blue balls. Two balls are drawn at random without

replacement. What is the probability that none of the balls drawn is green?

(a) 7/18

(b) 14/33

(c) 7/36

(d) 2/3

Solution: B

Total non-green balls = 8; hence chance of getting one in first draw = 8/12

After first successful draw, non-green balls = 7, also total balls is now 11

Hence, probability of getting non green = 7/11

Final probability = 8/12 × 7/11 = 14/33

72. One third of Ramesh’s marks in Arithmetic is equal to half his marks in English. If he gets

a total of 150 marks in both the subjects, how many marks has he got in English?

(a) 60

(b) 120

(c) 30

(d) 50

Solution: A

Let the marks obtained in Arithmetic and English be x and y respectively.

According to the given condition,

1/3 *x = y/2

==> 2x – 3y = 0 ….(i)

==> x + y = 150….(ii)

From (i) and (ii) we get,

y= 60.

Thus, the number of marks obtained in English = 60




73. Aman’s age is a two digit natural number. If the two digits of the age of Mr. Aman are

reversed then the new age so obtained is the age of his wife. 1/11 of the sum of their ages is

equal to the difference between their ages. If Aman is elder to his wife, then find the

difference their ages ?

(a) 21 years

(b) 13 years

(c) 11 years

(d) 9 years

Solution: D

Let the age of Mr Aman be (10x + y) years.

and his wife’s age = (10y + x ) years

Then, (10x + y + 10y + x) / 11 = 10x + y -10y-x

(11x + 11 y)/11 = 9x-9y

⇒ x + y = 9x – 9y

⇒ 8x = 10y

⇒ x/y = 5/4

Thus, x = 5 and y =4 (because any other multiple of 5 will make x of two digits).

Thus, Difference of their age = 54-45

= 9 years.

74. Find the missing number in the series shown by ‘?’,

10, 12.5, 17.5, ‘?’, 47.5

(a) 15

(b) 27.5

(c) 22.5

(d) 25

Solution: B

The pattern is,

10 * 2 – 7.5 = 12.5

12.5 * 2 – 7.5 = 17.5

17.5 * 2 – 7.5 = 27.5

27.5 * 2 – 7.5 = 47.5




Or you can observe difference is doubling in each case i.e 2.5 , 5, 10 and 20.

Thus adding 10 to 17.5 will make the missing term as 27.5




Passage – 15

Corporate governance is based on principles such as conducting the business with all

integrity and fairness, being transparent with regard to all transactions, making all the necessary

disclosures and decisions, complying with all the laws of the land, accountability and responsibility

towards the stakeholders and commitment to conducting business in an ethical manner. Another

point which is highlighted on corporate governance is the need for those in control to be able to

distinguish between what are personal and corporate funds while managing a company.

Fundamentally, there is a level of confidence that is associated with a company that is known to

have good corporate governance. The presence of an active group of independent directors on the

board contributes a great deal towards ensuring confidence in the market. Corporate governance

is known to be one of the criteria that foreign institutional investors are increasingly depending on

when deciding on which companies to invest in. It is also known to have a positive influence on the

share price of the company. Having a clean image on the corporate governance front could also

make it easier for companies to source capital at more reasonable costs. Unfortunately, corporate

governance often becomes the centre of discussion only after the exposure of a large scam.

75. According to the passage, which of the following should be the practice/practices in good

corporate governance?

I. Companies should always comply with labour and tax laws of the land

II. Every company in the country should have a government representative as one of

the independent directors on the board to ensure transparency

III. The manager of a company should never invest his personal funds in the company

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) I

(b) II, III

(c) I, III

(d) I, II, III

Answer. A

Statement 1 is correct as it can be inferred from the information given in the passage that

companies shall comply with all the laws of land. Statement II and III are not mentioned in the

passage. Hence A.




Direction for the following 2 (two) items: Consider the given information and answer the two

items that follow:

Six plays – A, B, C, D, E and F are staged on six days of the week starting from Monday to Saturday.

Play C is staged on Tuesday. Plays A, F and B are staged one after other in the same order. Play

D is not staged on Monday or Wednesday.

76. Which play is staged immediately next day to B ?

(a) E

(b) D

(c) C

(d) F

Solution: B

Day Play

Monday E

Tuesday C

Wednesday A

Thursday F

Friday B

Saturday D

77. Which play is staged on Thursday?

(a) A

(b) B

(c) F

(d) D

Solution: C

78. In a 1000 m race, the ratio of the speeds of two contestants A and B is in the ratio of 3 : 4. A

has a start of 280 m. By what distance will ‘A’ wins the race?

(a) 40 m

(b) 60 m

(c) They complete the race together

(d) 10 m




Solution: A

To reach the winning post A will have to cover a distance of (1000 m–280 m), i.e., 720 m

Ratio of the speed of A and B is 3: 4.

By the time A covers 720 m (i.e 240 * 3), B covers 960 m (i.e 240 *4)

Therefore, A betas B by 40 m if A has start of 280 m.

79. A boy has four trousers and eight shirts. In how many different ways can he select a trouser

and a shirt?

(a) 36

(b) 32

(c) 24

(d) 120

Solution: B

The boy can select one trouser in 4 ways.

The boy can select one shirt in 8 ways.

The number of ways in which he can select one trouser and one shirt is 4 * 8 = 32 ways.




Passage – 16

No Right is absolute, exclusive or inviolable. The Right of personal property, similarly, has

to be perceived in the larger context of its assumed legitimacy. The Right of personal property

should unite the principle of liberty with that of equality, and both with the principle of

cooperation.

80. In the light of the argument in the above passage, which one of the following statements IS

the most convincing explanation?

(a) The Right of personal property is a Natural Right duly supported by statutes and

scriptures.

(b) Personal property is a theft and an instrument of exploitation. The Right of personal

property is therefore violative of economic justice.

(c) The Right of personal property is violative of distributive justice and negates the

principle of cooperation.

(d) The comprehensive idea of economic justice demands that the Right of each person to

acquisition of property has to be reconciled with that of others.




Answer: D.

Based on a reading of the last line of the passage, it is clear that right of personal property

should reconcile with similar right of others as well, which is captured by option D.

Extra Practice Questions

1) If two dice are thrown together, what is the probability of getting a multiple of 3 on one die

and multiple of 4 on the other dice?

(a) 2/3

(b) 1/3

(c) 1/4

(d) 1/2

Solution: A

The probability of getting a multiple of 3 on one die and multiple of 4 on the other dice (Multiple

of three on first dice AND multiple of 4 on the second dice) OR (multiple of 4 on the first dice AND

Multiple of three in second dice)

= (2/6 * 1/6) + (1/6 * 2/6) = 2/6 + 2/6 = 4/6 = 2/3

2) In one minute 2/11 of a tank is filled. How much time will it take to fill the remaining part

of the tank?

(a) 11 min

(b) 4. 5 min

(c) 10 min

(d) 6 min

Solution: B

Part filled in 1 min. = 2/11.

Remaining part = (1- 2/11)= 9/11

Let the required time be x min.

Therefore, 2/11: 9/11:: 1: x ⇒ 2x/11 = (9/11*1) ⇒ x= 4.5.




3) Ratio between two numbers is 4:3 and their sum is 91, then find the smaller number ?

(a) 52

(b) 39

(c) 65

(d) 26

Solution: B

Given, the ratio of two numbers = 4 : 3

Let the two numbers be 4x and 3x

Given, their sum = 91

=> 4x + 3x = 91

=> x = 13

Smaller number = 3x = 39

4) By walking at 3/4th of his usual speed, a man reaches office 20 minutes later than usual.

What is his usual time?

(a) 72 min

(b) 60 min

(c) 54 min

(d) 48 min

Solution: B

Let his usual speed = S kmph

Let his usual time = t hours

Let the distance to the office = D km

We know that, D = S * t — (1)

New speed is ¾ of usual speed or ¾ S kmph

His new time = t + 20 min or t + (1/3) hour

Distance to the office remains same = D kms

Therefore, D = ¾ S * (3t + 1)/3

Or D = S * (3t + 1)/4 —- (2)

By equating (1) and (2), we get

S * t = (3St +S)/4 Or 4 St = 3St + S Or S * t = S Or t =1 hour or 60 min





Read the following passage and answer the question that follow. Your answer to this question

should be based on the passage only.

Passage

There has been a significant trend worldwide towards regionalism in government,

resulting in a widespread transfer of powers downwards towards regions and communities since

1990s. This process, which involves the creation of new political entities and bodies at a sub-

national level and an increase in their content and powers, is known as devolution. Devolution has

been characterized as being made up of three factors—political legitimacy, decentralization of

authority and decentralization of resources. Political legitimacy here means a mass demand from

below for the decentralization process, which is able to create a political force for it to take place.

In many cases, decentralization is initiated by the upper tier of government without sufficient

political mobilization for it at the grassroots level, and in such cases the decentralization process

often does not fulfil its objectives.

5) Which among the following is the most logical, rational and critical inference that can

be made from the above passage?

(a) Emergence of powerful mass leaders is essential to create sub-national political

entities and thus ensure successful devolution and decentralization.

(b) The upper tier of government should impose devolution and decentralization on the

regional communities by law or otherwise.

(c) Devolution, to be successful, requires a democracy in which there is free expression of

the will of the people at lower level and their active participation at the grassroots

level.

(d) For devolution to take place, a strong feeling of regionalism in the masses is essential.

Solution: C

The passage states that the devolution of power gains legitimacy when there is a demand for it

from lower level. It is important to have free expression of the will of the people as the passage

states that people at the lower level should be able to create a political force for it which would

require active participation at the grassroot level. Hence C.


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SIMPLYFYING IAS EXAM PREPARATION - INSIGHTSIAS · The difference between the ages of Kavya and Malika is 3 years. Thus, possible ages Kavya and Malika are (10, 13) or (13, 10) . Because

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