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PRESTORMING - MOCK TEST 2 - EXPLANATION KEY

1. Ans (b) Explanation: • The legislative procedure is identical in both the Houses of Parliament. Every bill has to pass

through the same stages in each House. A bill is a proposal for legislation and it becomes an act or law when duly enacted.

• Bills introduced in the Parliament are of two kinds: public bills and private bills (also known as government bills and private members’ bills respectively). Though both are governed by the same general procedure and pass through the same stages in the House, they differ in various respects.

• The bills introduced in the Parliament can also be classified into four categories: 1. Ordinary bills, which are concerned with any matter other than financial subjects. 2. Money bills, which are concerned with the financial matters like taxation, public expenditure,

etc. 3. Financial bills, which are also concerned with financial matters (but are different from money

bills). 4. Constitution amendment bills, which are concerned with the amendment of the provisions of

the Constitution. The Constitution has laid down separate procedures for the enactment of all the four types of bills. The procedures with regard to ordinary bills, money bills, financial bills and Constitutional amendment below. • Constitution Amendment Bills: A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both Houses of

Parliament. It would require a simple majority of the total membership of that House, and a two thirds majority of all members present and voting. Further, if the Bill relates to matters like the election of the President and Governor, executive and legislative powers of the centre and states, the judiciary, etc., it must be ratified by at least half of the state legislatures.

• Money Bill: A Money Bill may only be introduced in Lok Sabha, on the recommendation of the President. It must be passed in Lok Sabha by a simple majority of all members present and voting. Following this, it may be sent to the Rajya Sabha for its recommendations, which Lok Sabha may reject if it chooses to. If such recommendations are not given within 14 days, it will deemed to be passed by Parliament.

• Financial Bills: A Financial Bill may only be introduced in Lok Sabha, on the recommendation of the President. The Bill must be passed by both Houses of Parliament, after the President has recommended that it be taken up for consideration in each House.

• Ordinary Bills: An Ordinary Bill may be introduced in either House of Parliament. It must be passed by both Houses by a simple majority of all members present and voting.

In this question Rajya sabha is tasked with passing an ordinary bill. • In this scenario, simple majority of all members present and voting means • The majority of more than 50% of the members present and voting. This is also known

as functional majority or working majority. The simple majority is the most frequently used form of majority in Parliamentary business. When the constitution or the laws do not specify the type of majority needed, the simple majority is considered for voting.

• To understand simple majority, let us deduce the above question for Rajya sabha. On a particular day, out of the total strength of 245, 125 were absent and 75 voted in favour of that bill. So more than half of the members who were present voted in favour of the bill. So the bill is deemed to be passed

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• Ordinary bills need to be passed with a simple majority in both Houses of the Parliament before it is sent to Indian President for his assent.

2. Ans (b)

Explanation: Single transferable vote (STV), also called Hare system, multimember district proportional representation method of election in which a voter ranks candidates in order of preference. Voter has a single vote that is transferable. The Procedure to be followed in this voting system is as follows. • Voters either rank the individual candidates – 1, 2, 3, etc – in the order they prefer from all the

candidates, OR they may vote for the order of preference published in advance by the political party of their choice.

• MPs are elected by receiving a minimum number of votes. This is known as the quota and is based on the number of votes in each electorate and the number of MPs to be elected. Candidates who reach the quota from first preference votes are elected. If there are still electorate seats to fill, a two-step process follows.

• First, votes the elected candidates received beyond the quota are transferred to the candidates ranked next on those votes. Candidates who then reach the quota are elected.

• Second, if there are still electorate seats to fill, the lowest polling candidate is eliminated and their votes are transferred to the candidates ranked next on those votes. This two-step process is repeated until all the seats are filled. The number of MPs elected from each political party roughly mirrors the party’s share of all the first preference votes across the country.

In India, President election is held using this Voting method. Following the above procedure the correct option must be (b)

3. Ans (b) Explanation: • The Answer (b) can be arrived at by eliminating other options. • Tundra is the cryospheric polar biome north of the Arctic Circle which does not support robust

plant growth due to very low temperature. • Deserts is another extreme biome which supports a class of plants similar to cactuses which are

adapted to low precipitation • Savannah ideally supports Grassland vegetation. • Coniferous trees are needle-shaped evergreen trees found in the biome of Taiga between 50 and

60 degrees North latitude in the continental regions of Eurasia and North America. Trees are conical to avoid damage to branches due to excessive snowfall in winter and they do not shed all their leaves in a single season hence remaining evergreen throughout the year.

4. Ans (a)

Explanation: • Statement 1 is correct. Anticyclones are atmospheric conditions which are characterized by High

pressure at the centre surrounded by low barometric pressure. High pressure is the result of strong divergence of air from the above.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. Doldrums is the region very close to the Equator in both sides of the hemisphere which is a region of calm characterized by absence of Trade Winds. The region experiences vertical movement of airmass and is characterized by Low Pressure and not high pressure as seen in anti-cyclonic conditions.

5. Ans (b)

Explanation: Microplastics include broken-down plastic waste, synthetic fibres and beads found in personal hygiene products. They are known to harm marine life, which mistake them for food, and can be consumed by humans too via seafood, tap water or other food. The risk to people is still not known, but there are concerns that microplastics can accumulate toxic chemicals and that the tiniest could enter the bloodstream. Microbeads, a type of microplastic, are very tiny pieces of manufactured polyethylene plastic that are added as exfoliants to health and beauty products, such as some

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cleansers and toothpastes. These tiny particles easily pass through water filtration systems and end up in the ocean and Great Lakes, posing a potential threat to aquatic life. Statement 1: The Great Pacific Garbage Patch (GPGP) is the largest of the five offshore plastic accumulation zones in the world’s oceans. It is located halfway between Hawaii and California. The mass of the plastic in the Great Pacific Garbage Patch (GPGP) was estimated to be approximately 80,000 tonnes. Plastic within the patch was categorized into four size classes: - Microplastics (0.05 - 0.5 cm) - Mesoplastics (0.5 – 5 cm) - Macroplastics (5 – 50 cm) - Megaplastics (anything above 50 cm)

When accounting for the total mass, 92% of the debris found in the patch consists of objects larger than 0.5 cm, and three quarters of the total mass is made of macro- and megaplastics. However, in terms of object count, 94% of the total is represented by microplastics. Therefore statement 1 is wrong.

6. Ans (c) Explanation: The Global Snow Leopard and Ecosystem Protection Program (GSLEP) seeks to address high-mountain development issues using the conservation of the charismatic and endangered snow leopard as a flagship. This iconic and culturally treasured great cat is a good indicator species as it quickly reacts to habitat disturbance and its successful conservation requires sustainable long term systemic solutions to the threats impacting the quality of habitats. Statement 1: The GSLEP is a range-wide effort that unites range country governments, nongovernmental and inter-governmental organizations, local communities, and the private sector around a shared vision to conserve snow leopards and their valuable high-mountain ecosystems. It is not an initiative of UNEP. Statement 2: The goal of the GSLEP is for the 12 snow leopard range countries,(The governments of the Islamic Republic of Afghanistan, the Kingdom of Bhutan, the People’s Republic of China, the Republic of India, the Republic of Kazakhstan, the Kyrgyz Republic, Mongolia, the Federal Democratic Republic of Nepal, the Islamic Republic of Pakistan, the Russian Federation, the Republic of Tajikistan, and the Republic of Uzbekistan, the custodians of the world’s snow leopards and the valuable high-mountain ecosystems they inhabit) with support from conservation agencies, NGOs and others to work together to identify and secure at least 20 healthy populations of snow leopards across the cat’s range by 2020, or "20 by 2020". For this they gathered at a Global Snow Leopard Conservation Forum in Bishkek, Kyrgyz Republic, from 22-23 October 2013, with the shared goal of conserving snow leopards and their fragile habitats and adopted the Bishkek Declaration, by which the Snow Leopard Range Countries pledge to ensure that snow leopards and the people who live among them thrive in healthy ecosystems that contribute to the prosperity and well-being of our countries and the planet.

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7. Ans (b) Explanation: Statement 1: Buddhism never advocated rigorous asceticism. Infact one of the core teachings of Buddha is Following Middle path. Similarities: • Both possessed the background of the Aryan culture and were inspired by the ascetic ideals and

the philosophy of the Upanishads, particularly that of Sankhya-Yoga. Neglect of God or an atheistic attitude, pessimism or conviction that human life is full of misery, the doctrines of transmigration of soul and Karma (action or deed) and a kind of dualism between spirit and matter are common to Hindu-Sankhya philosophy, Jainism and Buddhism. Thus, the source of the philosophies of both was the same though both of them made certain changes in it.

• Both were the products of intellectual, spiritual and social forces of their age and therefore, both stood up as revolts against the prevalent Brahmanical religion.

• Both emerged in eastern India which by that time had successfully retained some features of the pre-Aryan culture. This partly explains the reason of their common place of origin and publicity’.

• Both were started by the members of the Kshatriya caste and both appealed to the socially down-trodden, the Vaishvas who were not granted social status corresponding to their growing economic power, and the Sudras who were definitely oppressed.

• Both, Mahavira and Buddha, the founders of Jainism and Buddhism respectively were Kshatriya princes and were able to get support for their cause from the contemporary ruling class, different Kshatriya rulers and economically prosperous Vaishvas.

• Though both did not attack the caste system, they were opposed to it and therefore, drew large converts from the lower strata of the society.

• Both opposed the ritualism and the sacrifices of Brahmanism and also challenged the supremacy of the Brahmanas.

• Both believed that Nirvana or salvation of an individual meant his or her deliverance from the eternal chain of birth and death.

• Both denied the authenticity of the Vedas as an infallible authority. • Both laid great stress upon a pure and moral life rather than practice of ritualism or even devotion

to and worship of God as a means to attain salvation. • Both emphasized Ahimsa or non-violence. • Both accepted the doctrines of the transmigration of soul and Karma and emphasized the effects

of good and bad Karmas (deeds) upon an individual’s future births and ultimate salvation which was accepted as the highest goal of life.

• Both preached their religion in the common language of the people and discarded Sanskrit as the language of their early religious texts. The early Buddhist-texts were written in Pali and Jaina texts were written in Prakrat.

• Both encouraged the idea of giving up the world and urged to lead the life of an ascetic. • Both organised orders for monks and nuns. Differences Though Jainism and Buddhism resembled each other very much, yet, there were and are differences between the two as follows: • Jainism is a much more ancient religion as compared to Buddhism. According to Jaina traditions it

had twenty-four Tirthankaras and Mahavira was the last of them. That is why, while Mahavira has been regarded as a reformer of an already existing religion, the Buddha has been regarded the originator of a new one.

• The Jaina concept of soul is different from that of Buddhism. Jainism believes that everything in nature, even stone and water, has a soul of its own. Buddhism does not believe so.

• The concept of Ahimsa (non-violence) is different in Buddhism as compared to Jainism. While Jainism emphasized it very much, Buddhism remained liberal in its interpretation in foreign countries, and even permitted eating of animal flesh where it was a necessity or traditional diet of the people. Yet, the Buddhist concept of Ahimsa is more affirmative as compared to that of Jainism. Buddhism emphasized love to all beings which is a more positive virtue as compared to the concept of non-injury to all beings of Jainism.

• Buddhism emphasized elimination of caste distinctions more as compared to Jainism.

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• Jainism advised practice of strict asceticism to attain salvation while Buddhism advised its Upasakas to follow the middle path or Tathagata marg.

• According to Jainism, women and men householders cannot attain salvation while, according to Buddhism, it is possible for both.

• In Digambara sect of Jainism, it is necessary for the monks to go naked while Buddhism denounced it.

• Buddhism emphasized the organisation of Sanghas more as compared to Jainism. • According to Jainism, salvation is possible only after death while according to Buddhism it is

possible during one’s own life if one is able to detach oneself completely from the worldly existence. Thus, while Jainism describes Nirvana as freedom from body. Buddhism describes it as destruction of the self or detachment from worldly existence.

• Buddhism proved more adaptable to circumstances as compared to Jainism. That is why while Buddhism spread all over Asia and accommodated the traditions of the local populace; Jainism remained confined to India alone.

• In practice, Jainism remained closer to Hinduism than Buddhism. Therefore, conflicts between Jainism and Hinduism were negligible while Buddhism and Hinduism challenged each other and proved rivals to each other.

• Jainism never spread beyond the frontiers of India while Buddhism spread over distant countries of Asia. But, while Jainism is still a living force in India Buddhism has practically vanished from the land of its birth.

8. Ans (a)

Explanation: • Gupta Period is called the “Golden age of India” or the “Classical Age of India” partially due to the

unprecedented activities and development in the arts, architecture, sculpture, painting and literature. During Gupta Era, the rock cut architecture reached its zenith and this era marked the beginning of the Free Standing temple Architecture.

• Most of the temples built in the Gupta era were carved with representation of Gods (mainly avatara of Vishnu and Lingams) and Goddesses. The most important temple of Gupta era is Dasavatar Temple of Deogarh, Uttar Pradesh. Other temples of the Gupta Era are as follows: Vishnu Temple of Tigawa Jabalpur • Shiva Temple of Bhumara • Parvati Temple of Nachria Kathura Mukund • Darra Temple of Kota • Lakshaman Temple of Raipur • Shiva Temple of Koh. • Bhitari Temple at Ghazipur

Salient features of the Gupta Temples: In Gupta period, the basic, characteristic elements of the Indian temple consisting of a square sanctum sanctorum and a pillared porch had emerged. • The Shikhara was not much prominent in the early Gupta temples but was prominent in later

Gupta era. • There was a single entrance or mandapa or Porch. • Gupta style temple was modelled on the architectural norms of the Mathura school. • Some Other Notes about Gupta Temples Sanchi temple at Tigwa has a flat roof. • Dasavatar Temple at Deogarh , Bhitargaon temple and Mahadev Temple at Nachna Kuthar have a

square tower of Shikhara. • Manyar Math at Rajgriha is a circular temple of Gupta Era. • Main style of temple architecture in i.e. Nagara style and Dravida style actually began from the

Gupta era. • The earliest stone temple with Shikhara is Dasavatar Temple at Deogarh. • The Bhitargaon temple at Kanpur is entirely made up of Bricks.

9. Ans (b)

Explanation: • Understand the term “Factor Cost”. “Factor” can be correlated with the term “Factory”. If a

product is at the factory stage i.e., Supply Chain is not factored in, then Factor Cost will exclude

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the indirect taxes that are to be paid to the government while including the subsidies that are received by the firm from the government.

• This can be represented through • GDPFC = GDPMP – Indirect taxes + Subsidies • When the same product arrives at the market, i.e., at retail stores, the taxes paid throughout the

supply chain will be added while the subsidies will be deducted. • Example: • One litre petrol at factor cost values at Rs 70 with an input government subsidy of Rs 20 while no

taxes on petrol is paid yet. • When the product arrives at the Petrol bunks, they are sold at Rs 60 due to Rs 10 taxes. • Hence • GDP @ FC = Rs 60 – Rs 10 + Rs 20

10. Ans (c) Explanation: • Capital receipt refers to those receipts which either create a liability or cause a reduction in the

assets of the government. • Here Property Tax receipts comes under the Revenue receipts, Dividends and Profits are under

Non-tax revenue receipts, interest receipts on loans forms a part of revenue receipts while principal on those loans come under capital receipts.

• Hence Option C is remaining which is about the Government borrowings from the Public. Such borrowing creates a liability on the government to pay them back.

• Example: Government needs urgent liquidity for which it is issuing 14 days T-bills. Now the money that is accrued will come under the capital receipt.

11. Ans (c)

Explanation: DNA profiling is the process where a specific DNA pattern, called a profile, is obtained from a person or sample of bodily tissue. Even though we are all unique, most of our DNA is actually identical to other people’s DNA. However, specific regions vary highly between people. These regions are called polymorphic. Differences in these variable regions between people are known as polymorphisms. Each of us inherits a unique combination of polymorphisms from our parents. DNA polymorphisms can be analysed to give a DNA profile. Option c: DNA profiling is not foolproof as it can make mistakes, such as DNA contamination in labs or DNA transferred from one crime scene to another. Option a: Human DNA profiles can be used to identify the origin of a DNA sample at a crime scene or test for parentage. DNA profiling is used to: 1. identify the probable origin of a body fluid sample associated with a crime or crime scene 2. reveal family relationships 3. Identify disaster victims, for example, ESR scientists travelled to Thailand to help identify victims

of the 2004 Boxing Day tsunami. Option b: People that have two different sets of DNA are called human chimeras. It can happen when a woman is pregnant with fraternal twins and one embryo dies very early on. The other embryo can "absorb" its twin's cells. It can also happen after a bone marrow transplant, and (in a very smaller scale) during normal pregnancy. Option d: The medical name for identical twins is monozygotic twins. Mono means one and zygote means a cell that's formed by an egg plus a sperm—so identical twins are created when a single zygote splits into two. The two separate beings who are created in this way share the same DNA, which stands for deoxyribonucleic acid. DNA is made up of the chromosomes that contain the genetic information that determines everything about us—from the colour of our hair and eyes to our athletic ability and personality traits. A typical DNA test performed on monozygotic twins will return results with 99.99 percent similarity. However, DNA from non-identical (fraternal or dizygotic) twins will generally be about 50 percent to 75 percent similar. Because identical twins have the same DNA, it is nearly impossible to distinguish between these individuals when analyzing DNA for paternity testing or for evidence of a crime.

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12. Ans (c)

Explanation: • Electricity travels on long-distance, high-voltage transmission lines, often miles and miles across

country. The voltage in these lines can be hundreds of thousands of volts. • Why so much voltage? To answer this question, we need to review some high school physics,

namely Ohm’s law. Ohm’s law describes how the amount of power in electricity and its characteristics – voltage, current and resistance – are related. Ohm's law states that the current through a conductor between two points is directly proportional to the voltage across the two points. Losses increase with the square of a wire’s current. That square factor means a tiny jump in current can cause a big bump in losses. Keeping voltage high lets us keep current, and losses, low.

• High-voltage transmission lines are big, tall, expensive, and potentially dangerous so we only use them when electricity needs to travel long distances. At substations near your neighbourhood, electricity is stepped down onto smaller, lower-voltage power lines – the kind on wooden poles.

13. Ans (b)

Explanation: Statement 1: All powers of the Bank are vested in the Boards of Governors, the Bank's senior decision-making body according to the Articles of Agreement. However, the Boards of Governors has delegated all powers to the Executive Directors except those mentioned in the Articles of Agreement. The Boards of Governors consist of one Governor and one Alternate Governor appointed by each member country. The office is usually held by the country's minister of finance, governor of its central bank, or a senior official of similar rank. The Governors and Alternates serve for terms of five years and can be reappointed. Statement 2: Each member receives votes consisting of share votes (one vote for each share of the Bank's capital stock held by the member) plus basic votes (calculated so that the sum of all basic votes is equal to 5.55 percent of the sum of basic votes and share votes for all members). Statement 3: The IMF provides short term loans to shorten the duration and lessen the degree of disequilibrium in the international balances of payments of members

14. Ans (c) Explanation: • On and from the 15th of August 1947 full and unqualified responsible government was

established at the centre and in the Provinces of the Dominion of India under the Government of India Act 1935 as adopted by the Governor General of India in the exercise of the powers conferred on him by the Indian Independence Act 1947 and the Governor General and the Governors became purely Constitutional heads of their respective Governments.

• The Indian Independence Act, which came into being in 1947, resulted in the amendment of the Government of India Act, 1935. It led to the abolition of the responsibility of the British Government and Parliament for administration of India. It also made the Governor General and Governors of provinces as constitutional heads. Thus Indian Independence act was merely amendment and government functioned under the provisions of the Government of India Act, 1935.

15. Ans (b)

Explanation: Cabinet is a part of council of ministers. Council of ministers stay in office as long as they enjoy the confidence of the Lok sabha.

16. Ans (c) Explanation:

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• Statement 1 is correct. A Super moon is a special case of the full moon condition. The Moon revolves around the sun in an elliptical orbit and not a circular orbit. Because of this, there are two points where the moon is closest to the earth and farthest from the earth during each revolution. A super moon is when a full moon occurs in the closest position to the earth in the orbit (perigee).

• Statement 2 is correct. A Blue moon is simply a condition in which a second full moon occurs in a single month. A full moon occurs when the Sun, Earth and the moon are in a straight line or in syzygy position.

Statement 1: The name “supermoon” was coined by an astrologer Richard Nolle in 1979 and is often used by the media today to describe what astronomers would call a perigean (pear-ih-jee-un) full moon: a full moon occurring near or at the time when the Moon is at its closest point in its orbit around Earth. The term gives preference to the geometric alignment of Sun-Earth-Moon and allows the occurrence of perigee into a wider time period than the actual instant of perigee (up to about two weeks, which is almost half of the Moon’s orbit). A supermoon can appear up to 14% larger and 30% brighter than a full moon at apogee or the point when it’s furthest away from the Earth. Statement 2: Syzgy means an alignment of three celestial objects, as the sun, the earth, and either the moon or a planet. All eclipses are syzygys but not all syzygys are eclipses. For example, Full moon and New Moon are syzygys involving the lining up of the Sun, Earth and Moon, therefore, lunar and solar eclipses are syzygys. When a planetary moon passes across the face of another body but does not eclipse it, this is called a transit. From Earth, the small disks of Venus and Mercury can be seen passing across the face of the sun during transits of Venus and Mercury. These also involve the straight-line alignment of the Sun, Earth and each planet. A Blue Moon is the second full moon in a calendar month. The technical term for the Full Moon alignment is syzygy of the Sun-Earth-Moon-system.

17. Ans (d) Explanation: • The answer can be arrived at by eliminating the options. • The question starts with describing that the clouds are low. Alto stratus clouds in option (c) are

high clouds and hence it can be eliminated. Cumulo-nimbus clouds are associated with thunderstorms while the description says that the clouds are not related to them. Hence it can further be eliminated.

• Between options (b) and (d) the answer is (d) as we are talking about low, rain clouds which is not the case with cirrostratus which are very thin clouds

18. Ans (d)

Explanation: WWF came into existence on 29 April 1961, when a small group of passionate and committed individuals signed a declaration that came to be known as the Morges Manifesto.WWF International is the secretariat for WWF's global organization, and is based out of four regional hubs. The primary hub, and seat of the Director General, is in Gland, Switzerland. From numerous initiatives, priority areas and priority species, the entire WWF Network will focus on six major goals - forests, oceans, wildlife, food, climate & energy, and freshwater – and three key drivers of environmental problems – markets, finance and governance.

19. Ans (c) Explanation: • The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy launched rent-a-roof’: kind of project, where an

owner of a roof may rent it out to a project developer. The developer would put up the solar power plant and sell the electricity to the grid.

• This is in lieu to the ambitious 40 GW Roof top solar power generation as a part of National Solar Mission

20. Ans (b)

Explanation: Educational Reforms:

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• Bentinck’s great achievement was his intellectual reform. Charter Act of 1813 had provided one lakh of rupees annually for the revival and promotion of education in India. But this money went on accumulating as no proper arrangement could.

• Prior to the arrival of Bentinck a great controversy was going on regarding the medium of education in the schools and colleges. Was it to be given through the Indian language or through English language? The orientalists led by Heyman Wilson and H.T. Princes expressed their opinion in favour of Sanskrit, Arabic and Persian as the medium of education. The Angliasts led by Sir Charles Trevelyan supported by Indian liberals like Raja Rammohan Ray expressed their views in favour of English Language.

• Lord Macauley, the law member of the Council gave a definite shape to the controversy. On his recommendations the decision was taken that the amount which was kept for education should be spent on the education of the Indians and the education be imparted through English medium.

• Macauley’s proposals were accepted by Bentinck and embodied in a resolution of March 7, 1835, which declared that, “His Lordship in council is of opinion that the great object of the British Government ought to be the promotion of European literature and science among the natives of India and that all the fund appropriated for the purpose of education would be best employed on English education alone.” Schools and colleges were established to provide English education. English language also became the official language and it helped the people of India for exchange of ideas.

1853 Act • It introduced an open competition system of selection and recruitment of civil servants. The

covenanted civil service was thus thrown open to the Indians also. Accordingly, the Macaulay Committee (the Committee on the Indian Civil Service) was appointed in 1854.

21. Ans (d)

Explanation: The Hindu texts on temple architecture have an extensive terminology. A few of the more common terms are tabulated below:

Term Explanation

Adhisthana

stylobate, plinth, base typically with mouldings on the side, on which a temple building or pillar stands

Amalaka

a crowning ornament on the top of shikara, shape of an Indian amalok fruit that looks like a cogged wheel. The amalaka supports the kalasha.

Antarala

lit. interior space of any building; in temples, it is the intermediate space (vestibule, antechamber) between the sanctum and space where pilgrims gather

Ardhamandapa half hall at each entrance, usually the reception area that connects to the mandapa

Ayatana assembly hall, grounds inside a temple or monastery compound

Bhadra a projection often aligned to one of the cardinal directions; typically of central part of walls; decoration or a projected porch for pilgrims; also may be a tower storey projection

Gana

a mythical dwarf or goblin usually with a protruded belly and with humorous expression

Garbhagriha

The womb-house, adytum, sanctum sanctorum; it is the loci of the temple and the darshana, the spiritual space that Hindus circumambulate clockwise about. This is where the main murtiimage is placed. Usually the space is very plain, with no distractions from the murti, which is rich in symbolism. A large temple may have many shrines, each with a garbhagriya.

Gavaksha

one of the arch motifs; it is horseshoe-shaped, found with windows or for decorating spires, pillars and other elements

Gopuram

a gateway at entrance or one that connects two sacred spaces of the temple; becomes very large in South Indian temples, which may have several; it has roots

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Term Explanation

in ancient Indian monasteries and the Vedic word gomatipur;

Hara neck ornament such as necklace

Jala a trellis, stone grille, net, first seen in 6th-century temples

Jagati

any moulded base or pedestal for the temple or a statue that extends out, part of platform that forms a terrace to stand on or circumambulate around on, while reading the reliefs and friezes

Kalasha the pinnacle element of a temple, a vase finial, cupola or pitcher

Kunda temple tank, stepwell, pool, usually with steps, public utility for taking a dip; often connected to a nearby river or mountain stream

Lata liana, creeper-style plant, vine, one type of scroll work; also found on sikhara

Makara

a mythical fusion sea creature with fish-crocodile like face, trunk or snout, legs sometimes with lion claws and a tail; vahana of Varuna

Mandapa

pillared hall or pavilion, with pillars usually carved; a mandapa is typically square, rectangle, octagonal or circular; it may have walls with perforated stone windows, it may just be open on some or all sides. Large temples may have many interconnected mandapas. It is a gathering place, a place for pilgrims to rest (choultry), a part of the circumambulation space, or to wait during prayers or Sanskara (rite of passage) rituals. A mandapa may have a tower (shikhara) of its own, but it is lower than that above the sanctum.

Mulaprasada main shrine in a temple complex

Nisha niche on temple walls or in pillars for sculptures or stele

Nyasa the art of arranging images and friezes to create a narrative or composition, in some texts it refers to relative placement of images within a panel to summarize a Hindu legend or fable; also a form a ritual.

Prakara

wall that separates an inner zone of temple ground from an outer zone; typically concentric, defensive and fortified, a feature added after the wars and plunders starting in the 14th-century

Prastara entablature, horizontal superstructure of bands and moldings above column capitals, sometimes functions as a parapet of a storey

Ratha

a facet or vertical offset projection on the plan of the sanctum and shikhara above, or other structure. It is generally carried up from the bottom of the temple to the superstructure. A ratha, meaning cart, is also the temple chariot used for processing the murti at festivals, and a "ratha temple" is one designed to resemble a cart, with wheels on the sides, and often horses. The most famous example is the Sun Temple, Konarak.

Sala

Round barrel-roofed, wagon-roofed pavilion; rooted in the thatched roofed stall for people or cattle tradition, then other materials of construction; any mansion or griha; a pilgrim services building with mandapas or pillared veranda or both inside the temple complex, Hindu texts describe multi-storey Sala; in south, sala are structures used as a decorative motif, or an actual roof, as at the top of gopurams; rooted in ancient thatched roof styles.

Sikhara

In North India, the tower above the sanctum (entire spire above mulaprasada); in South India, that top part of tower that is above the vimana

Stambha

A pillar; it can be a load bearing element or an independent standing element with diya(lamps) and Hindu icons below, around and / or on top; the designs vary significantly by region, in Kerala Hindu temples they are at the entrance; on festive occasions the wick lamps are loaded with oil and lit up.

Sukanasa an external ornamented feature over the entrance to the garbhagriha or inner

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Term Explanation

shrine. It sits on the face of the sikhara tower (in South India, the vimana) as a sort of antefix. Can refer to the antarala below as well.

Tala tier or storey of a shikhara, vimana or gopuram

Torana

any arch or canopy motif, ornament or architectural member in temples and buildings; it also refers to an arched gateway

Urushringa

subsidiary turret-like shikharas on the side of the main shikhara; the primary turret is called shringa

22. Ans (c) Explanation: • Here the factor which influences the currency in circulation as well as proportion of total money

supply is asked. • Statement 1: Physical volume of trade will influence the currency circulation. • In a deflationary situation, the supply of money will reduce since the demand is very meager. • In situations such as festive periods, the demand for various goods and services increases

manifold which leads to lesser Currency deposit ratio with the banks and more currency with the public.

• Hence statement 1 is correct. • Statement 2: Take the example of Zimbabwe which was facing a galloping inflation situation. In

such condition when the value of the currency is reduced to a great extent, more money is needed to purchase the same amount of goods. Thus the level of prices influences the money circulation

• Statement 3: Increase in Term deposits and financial inclusion will limit the currency availability with the public and influence the currency circulation. Banking habit encourages savings and limits the currency circulation.

23. Ans (b) Explanation:

Component Share in total external debt External Commercial Borrowings 38

NRI deposits 24% Multilateral 10..9

Bilateral 4.6

24. Ans (c) Explanation: Statement 1: • Sophisticated instruments, indigenously designed and developed by CSIR-National Aerospace

Laboratories (CSIR-NAL), Bengaluru is called as – DRISHTI. They are used for reporting the runway visual range, which is a critical parameter for safe landing and take-off of aircraft in poor visibility conditions (<25 to >2000 meters).

Statement 2: • The Drishti field site system is completely designed and fabricated at CSIR-NAL. • The Drishti system is very cost-effective and is a mandatory system required at all airports as per

International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) and World Meteorological Organisation (WMO). The complete system is engineered in such a way to enable easy installation and maintenance.

• Another advantage of this indigenous system is that CSIR-NAL can do the health monitoring of the system through web enabling from Bengaluru itself. This drastically reduces the cost of maintenance, which is exorbitant in case of imported systems.

25. Ans (d)

Explanation:

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A Geospatial technology is a term used to describe the range of modern tools contributing to the geographic mapping and analysis of the Earth and human societies. There are now a variety of types of geospatial technologies potentially applicable to human rights, including the following: Remote Sensing: imagery and data collected from space- or airborne camera and sensor platforms. Some commercial satellite image providers now offer images showing details of one-meter or smaller, making these images appropriate for monitoring humanitarian needs and human rights abuses. Geographic Information Systems (GIS): a suite of software tools for mapping and analyzing data which is geo referenced (assigned a specific location on the surface of the Earth, otherwise known as geospatial data). GIS can be used to detect geographic patterns in other data, such as disease clusters resulting from toxins, sub-optimal water access, etc. Global Positioning System (GPS): a network of U.S. Department of Defense satellites which can give precise coordinate locations to civilian and military users with proper receiving equipment (note: a similar European system called Galileo will be operational within the next several years while a Russian system is functioning but restricted). Internet Mapping Technologies: software programs like Google Earth and web features like Microsoft Virtual Earth are changing the way geospatial data is viewed and shared. The developments in user interface are also making such technologies available to a wider audience whereas traditional GIS has been reserved for specialists and those who invest time in learning complex software programs.

26. Ans (c) Explanation: A cluster munition, or cluster bomb, is a weapon containing multiple explosive submunitions. Cluster munitions are dropped from aircraft or fired from the ground or sea, opening up in mid-air to release tens or hundreds of submunitions, which can saturate an area up to the size of several football fields. Anybody within the strike area of the cluster munition, be they military or civilian, is very likely to be killed or seriously injured. Statement 1: Cluster munitions are unacceptable for two reasons. Firstly, they have wide area effects and are unable to distinguish between civilians and combatants. Secondly, the use of cluster munitions leave behind large numbers of dangerous unexploded ordnance. Such remnants kill and injure civilians, obstruct economic and social development, and have other severe consequences that persist for years and decades after use. Statement 2: The Convention on Cluster Munitions (CCM) is an international treaty that prohibits the use, transfer, and stockpiling of cluster bombs. CCM was adopted in Dublin on 30 May 2008 and opened for signature in Oslo on 3 December the same year.The Convention on Cluster Munitions entered into force on 1 August 2010. By ratifying or acceding to the Convention on Cluster Munitions, States Parties commit to never use, produce, stockpile or transfer cluster munitions. In addition, States Parties commit to destroy stockpiled munitions, clear contaminated land, assist victims, provide technical, material and financial assistance to other States Parties, undertake transparency measures, enact national legislation and promote universal adherence to the Convention.

27. Ans (a) Explanation: In India's democratic system, the government cannot spend from the Consolidated Fund unless the expenditure is voted in the lower house of Parliament or State Assemblies. However according to Article 112 (3) and Article 202 (3) of the Constitution of India, the following expenditure does not require a vote and is charged to the Consolidated Fund.

• They include salary, allowances and pension for the President as well as Governors of States, • Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the House of People, • The Comptroller General of India and Judges of the Supreme and High Courts. • They also include interest and other debt related charges of the Government and • Any sums required to satisfy any court judgment pertaining to the Government.

28. Ans (d)

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Explanation: Constitutional Provisions The Constitution of India contains the following provisions with regard to the enactment of budget: 1. The President shall in respect of every financial year cause to be laid before both the Houses of

Parliament a statement of estimated receipts and expenditure of the Government of India for that year.

2. No demand for a grant shall be made except on the recommendation of the President. 3. No money shall be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India except under appropriation

made by law. 4. No money bill imposing tax shall be introduced in the Parliament except on the recommendation

of the President, and such a bill shall not be introduced in the Rajya Sabha. 5. No tax shall be levied or collected except by authority of law. 6. Parliament can reduce or abolish a tax but cannot increase it. 7. The Constitution has also defined the relative roles or position of both the Houses of Parliament

with regard to the enactment of the budget in the following way: (a) A money bill or finance bill dealing with taxation cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha—it

must be introduced only in the Lok Sabha. (b) The Rajya Sabha has no power to vote on the demand for grants; it is the exclusive privilege of

the Lok Sabha. (c) The Rajya Sabha should return the Money bill (or Finance bill) to the Lok Sabha within

fourteen days. The Lok Sabha can either accept or reject the recommendations made by Rajya Sabha in this regard.

8. The estimates of expenditure embodied in the budget shall show separately the expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India and the expenditure made from the Consolidated Fund of India.

9. The budget shall distinguish expenditure on revenue account from other expenditure. 10. The expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India shall not be submitted to the vote of

Parliament. However, it can be discussed by the Parliament.

29. Ans (c) Explanation: Power plants need plenty of cooling water for operation. Irrespective of the type of power plant the principle of operation of power plants is the same – Steam generation from heat which is used to rotate turbines to produce electricity. The steam after moving through turbines has to be cooled to continue the cycle for which plenty of cooling water is necessary. That is why power plants are built near the sea. Even when constructed inland they are close to water sources like lakes and rivers.

30. Ans (b) Explanation: Decomposition is the process in which organic matter is broken down into simpler forms. Bacteria and fungi are the chief decomposers in the environment. Of the forests which are mentioned above, Equatorial forests have the highest rate of decomposition as they experience both high rainfall and high temperature every day of the year.

31. Ans (a) Explanation: Statement 1: Prohibition Literally, it means 'to forbid'. It is issued by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal to prevent the latter from exceeding its jurisdiction or usurping a jurisdiction that it does not possess. Thus, unlike mandamus that directs activity, the prohibition directs inactivity. The writ of prohibition can be issued only against judicial and quasi-judicial authorities. It is not available against administrative authorities, legislative bodies, and private individuals or bodies. Statement 2: Unlike the other four writs, only Quo-Warranto can be sought by any interested person and not necessarily by the aggrieved person.

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32. Ans (a) Explanation: • The Prime Minister, as the head of the government and the real executive authority, plays a very

significant and crucial role in the politico-administrative system of the country. In the fulfilment of his

• Onerous responsibilities, the Prime Minister is assisted by the Prime Minister’s Office (PMO). • Thus, the PMO is a staff agency meant for providing secretarial assistance and crucial advice to the

Prime Minister. It plays an important role in the process of decision-making at the top level in the Government of India. However, it is an extra-constitutional body.

• The PMO enjoys the status of a department of the Government of India under the Allocation of Business Rules, 1961. It has no attached and subordinate office under it.

• The PMO came into existence in 1947 by replacing the Secretary to the Governor-General (Personal). Till June 1977, it was called as the Prime Minister’s Secretariat (PMS).

Composition • The PMO is headed politically, by the Prime Minister and administratively, by the Principal

Secretary. • Additionally, it consists of one or two additional secretaries, three to five joint secretaries and a

number of directors/deputy secretaries and under-secretaries. There are also other officers like private secretaries, officer on special duty (OSD), Social Secretary, Research Officer, Hindi Officer and so on. These officers are supported by the regular office establishment consisting of section officers, UDCs, LDCs, stenographers and so forth.

These personnel are generally drawn from the Civil Service and posted for varying periods. Their status is equivalent to the status of officers of different ministries/departments in the Central Government. The Principal Secretary to the Prime Minister, as the administrative head of the PMO, plays an important role and performs the following functions: • Deals with all governmental files in the office. • Puts before the Prime Minister all important documents for orders and instructions. • Prepares notes on matters to be discussed by the Prime Minister with important dignitaries. • Looks after the affairs of different ministries and departments which are handed over by the

Prime Minister. • Coordinates the activities of various personnel in the office. • Tenders advice to the Prime Minister on various foreign and domestic matters. Functions The PMO performs several functions: • Assisting the Prime Minister in respect of his overall responsibilities as head of the government

like maintaining liaison with central ministries/departments and the state governments. • Helping the Prime Minister in respect of his responsibilities as chairman of the Planning

Commission, and the National Development Council. • Looking after the public relations of the Prime Minister like contact with the press and general

public. • Dealing with all references which under the Rules of Business have to come to the Prime Minister. • Providing assistance to the Prime Minister in the examination of cases submitted to him for orders

under prescribed rules. • Maintaining liaison with the President, Governors, and Foreign Representatives in the country. • Acting as the ‘think-tank’ of the Prime Minister. Statement 1: Two more things should be noted with regard to the functions of PMO. One, it acts as the residual legatee of the Central Government, that is, it deals with all such subjects which are not allotted to any ministry/department. Two, it is not concerned with the responsibilities of Prime Minister as the chairman of the Union Cabinet. The cabinet cases are directly dealt by the Cabinet Secretariat, which also functions under the direction of the Prime Minister. Statement 2: The PMO is headed politically, by the Prime Minister and administratively, by the Principal Secretary. So statement 2 is wrong.

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33. Ans (c) Explanation: • The world’s countries emit vastly different amounts of heat-trapping gases into the atmosphere.

The table below shows data compiled by the International Energy Agency, which estimates carbon dioxide emissions from the combustion of coal, natural gas, oil and other fuels, including industrial waste and non-renewable municipal waste.

• Here is list of 20 countries that emitted the most carbon dioxide in 2015 2015 total emissions

country rank Country

2015 total carbon dioxide emissions from fuel combustion

(million metric tons)

2015 per capita carbon dioxide emissions from fuel combustion

(metric tons) 1 China 9040.74 6.59 2 United States 4997.50 15.53 3 India 2066.01 1.58 4 Russia 1468.99 10.19 5 Japan 1141.58 8.99 6 Germany 729.77 8.93 7 South Korea 585.99 11.58 8 Iran 552.40 6.98 9 Canada 549.23 15.32

10 Saudi Arabia 531.46 16.85 11 Brazil 450.79 2.17 12 Mexico 442.31 3.66 13 Indonesia 441.91 1.72 14 South Africa 427.57 7.77 15 United Kingdom 389.75 5.99 16 Australia 380.93 15.83 17 Italy 330.75 5.45 18 Turkey 317.22 4.10 19 France 290.49 4.37 20 Poland 282.40 7.34

34. Ans (b)

Explanation: • Due to the rapid decline in wildlife population, the Government of India during 1952 had

constituted an advisory body designated as the Indian Board for Wildlife (IBWL). The Indian Board for Wildlife was chaired by the Prime Minister. A comprehensive central legislation was enacted in 1972 called the Wildlife (Protection) Act for providing special legal protection to our wildlife and to the endangered species of fauna in particular. The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 has been amended, the latest being in 2006. As per the amendment of the Act in 2002, a provision was incorporated for the constitution of the National Board for Wildlife, replacing the Indian Board for Wildlife.

• National Board for Wildlife (NBWL) is a statutory Board constituted on 22nd September 2003 under Section 5 of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972. The NBWL is chaired by the Hon’ble Prime Minister. The NBWL has 47 members including the Chairman. It serves as apex body to review all wildlife-related matters and approve projects in and around national parks and sanctuaries.

35. Ans (d)

Explanation: Achievements of the Kushanas: The abundance of coins and inscription as well as of literary evi-dence make it somewhat easy to have an idea of the overall condition of India under the Kushanas and to estimate the achievements of the period. The Dark Age that commenced upon the downfall of the Maurya Empire and the political unity which the labours of Chandragupta and Asoka gave to India, was broken by the intruding Indo-Greek Parthian and the Scythians ended with the triumph of the Kushanas. The darkness was lifted and lost

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political unity was re-established. The Kushana Empire embraced most of northern India, north-western India and beyond, upto Central Asia. The Kushana empire was the second great Indian empire, the first being that of the Mauryas. Administration: • The Kushanas were foreigners who got Indianised. The admi-nistrative system under them was,

therefore, a mixture of both foreign and Indian elements. Government by the system of Satrapies was the foreign elements in the Kushana administration and the use of the names like Satraps for Governors and Viceroys, Strategos for the military governors, Meridarch for district officers, while manifested it, the use of the names such as Mahasenapati, Amatyas, etc. showed the Indian element in the administration.

• It is of interest to note that the areas in the north-west which were under the Bactrians. Parthians and Scythians before coming under the sway of the Kushanas were placed under officers with foreign designations whereas officers with Indian designations were placed in charge of territories in the interior.

• The Indo-Greek system of conjoint rule was also followed as we understand from Kanishka II and Huvishka’s joint rule. The Satraps—senior and junior—were called Mahakshatrapas and Kshatrapas. The Kushana kings assumed titles Mahisvara, Devaputra, Kaisar, Shahnu Shah, etc.

• For administrative purposes the empire was divided into Rashtra, Ahara, Janapada, Desa or Vishaya. There appears to have been no Assembly or Council of Ministers. The king appears to have been the supreme head of the state in all matters, religious and secular. Under the Kushanas there was a spirit of toleration prevalent all over the country.

Society: Although the society, generally speaking, retained the original fourfold division into Brahmanas, Kshatriyas, Vaisyas and Sudras, but the rigidity of the caste-system under the Kushanas does not seem to be so exclusive as to preclude foreigners from entering the Hindu Society. The Kushanas, an outlandish race, gradually became thoroughly Hinduised. This shows the basic virility of the Hindu Society and culture. Religion: • The Kushanas were of the Yue-chi origin and were foreigners who were eclectic in their religious

belief to begin with as we under-stand from the numismatic evidence. But they later became either Buddhists or worshippers of Siva or Vishnu. While Kaniska became an ardent follower of Buddhism, took measures for propagation of the religion even in foreign countries like China, Tibet, Japan etc. some of the Kushana kings, it seems from their coins, honoured Greek, Sumerian, Elamite, Zoroastrian and Mithraic deities. Some again, for instance, Kadphises II was a Saiva and Vasudeva perhaps a follower of both Vishnu and Siva.

• The Kushanas followed a policy of toleration and Brahmanical Hinduism, Jainism and Buddhism flourished side by side under their rule.

Art, Sculpture and Architecture: • The Kushana period witnessed a remarkable development in art, sculpture and architecture. The

Gandhara School of Art and Sculp-ture marked a happy blending of the Graceo-Romano-Buddhist style and techniques. The distinguishing features of the Gandhara Sculp-ture owed their origin to Greek and Roman styles yet the art essen-tially was Indian in spirit. The Gandhara artists had the hand of a Greek but the heart of an India.

• The most remarkable contribu-tion of the Gandhara School of art is to be seen in the evolution of the image of Buddha, perhaps in imitation of the Greek God Apollo. Images of Buddha and Bodhisatva illustrating the past and present lives of Buddha were executed in black stone. The figures show an excellent idea of human anatomy that swayed the artists.

• These works of art offer a striking contrast to similar art that we witness else-where in India. The smooth round features of the idealised human figures, draped in transparent and semi-transparent cloth closely fit-ting to the body and revealing its outline were due to the influ-ence of the Hellenistic art of Asia Minor and the Roman Empire.

• The images of Buddha pertaining to the Gandhara school cen-tres of which were Gandhara, Jalalabad, Hadda and Baniyan in Afghanistan, Peshawar and Swat Valley, were more animated and anatomically perfect than those found in other parts of India. While the former are more beautiful physically and accurate in anatomical details as such more realistic, the Indian art and sculpture

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which pro-duced the images of Buddha were more idealistic giving a spiritual and sublime expression to the images.

• The technique of the Gan-dhara School of art of the Kushana period spread through China to the Far East and influenced the art of China and Japan. The Gandhara art was based on the cosmopolitan art of the Asia Minor and the Roman Empire.

• There were also purely Indian schools of art in India during the period of the Kushanas. There were the schools of art at Amaravati, Jagayyapeta and Nagarjunikonda. In the Amaravati human figures are characterised by slim, blithe features and have been repre-sented in most difficult poses and curves. The technique of art reach-ed a high standard of development. Plants and flowers, particularly lotuses, have been represented in the most perfect, lifelike manner.

• Two Chaityas and a Stupa discovered at Nagarjunikonda are the relics of the indigenous school of art and show a high standard of development. The limestone panel of figures depicting the nativity of Buddha is an excellent piece of sculpture of the Kushana period which was entirely indigenous.

• Architecture of the Kushana period was not so remarkable as the sculpture of the period. There were beautiful temples, monas-teries, Stupas which indicate considerable development during the period although the technique of architecture did not attain the standard of excellence of sculpture. The famous tower of Kanishka at Purushapura (Peshawar) was one of the wonders of the world. Much of the architectural specimens of the period perished with time.

• Caves in solid rock with pillars and sculptures, hundreds of which have been found in different parts of the Kushana Empire show a great improvement upon the technique of excavation that was in use during the time of Asoka. A Chaitya with rows of columns on two sides was a fine work of art of sculpture and architecture. The Chaitya at Karle is an excellent illustration.

• Fa-hien who visited India during the rule of Chandragupta II {5th century) was struck with wonder to find a large number of Stupas, dagobas (small stupa), Chaityas and images of Buddha carved out of stone during the Kushana period.

Literature: • The Kushana period witnessed a remarkable development of literature and Sanskrit language.

Under the patronage enjoyed by the scholars and Buddhist philosophers of the time a massive develop-ment in secular and religious literature took place. A large number of standard works in Sanskrit language were written during the period.

• Asvaghosha’s Buddhacharita, Saudarananda Kavya, Vajrasuchi, Sariputta Prakarana, Vasumitra’s Mahabibhasa—regarded as the Bud-dhist encyclopaedia, Nagarjuna’s Madhyamika-Sutra in which the theory of relativity was propounded, Charaka’s work on medicine, etc. contributed to the fund of human knowledge. Under the Kushanas the royal court became a seat of luminaries mentioned above as also of the Political Scientist Mathara, Greek engineer Agesilaus, etc.

Economy: • The Kushana period saw an all-round development. In the field of economy the peace and

tranquility ensured by the efficient rule of the early Kushana rulers, absence of internal revolt and external in-vasion conduced to an unprecedented economic prosperity. Com-mercial relations with Eastern and Western countries led to an in-flux of gold.

• India had a brisk trade with Rome and China where- from gold poured in due to the balance of trade that India had. Such was the huge amount of gold that came from Rome into India for the export of spices, silk, muslin, gems, etc. to that country that Pliny lamented over the drainage of gold to India.

• The coins of the Kushana were mostly of gold and to some extent of copper. The coins depict the foreign influence—Roman—on the currency system. The eclecticism of the Kushana kings can as well be understood from the representation of deities—Iranian, Elamite, etc. on the coins. The Kushana coins also had representations of Brahmanical deities on them.

• From the cultural point of view the Kushana period marked the beginning of a renaissance which was to reach its peak and flower under the Guptas. The cultural renaissance which saw its beginning under the Kushana rulers was the result of the impact of diverse foreign influences, Hellenic, Roman, Parthian, and Scythian on the Indian cul-ture.

36. Ans (a)

Explanation:

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• In Eastern India, the socio-religious reform movement was spearheaded by Raja Ram Mohan Roy, a reputed linguist, and an erudite scholar born of affluent family.

• Ram Mohan started his service activities from 1814 on settling at Calcutta after relinquishing his job in the East India Company. He started Atemiya Sabha in 1814 and carried on his struggle against idolatry and propagated monotheism by contributing articles in Bengali language to the newspapers.

• Ram Mohan was the first to use print media for the propagation of his views and philosophy to the public and for mobilization activity. The next step was the establishment of a new society, Brahma Sabha or Brahmo Samaj in 1828.

• Raja Ram Mohan advocated the principles, one ‘Supreme Being’ and the Brotherhood of Men and encouraged the followers of various religions to come together. He also refused to regard the Vedas as the last words of God and interpreted religion on the basis of reason and logic. Ram Mohan also criticized and denounced ritualism of Chris-tianity. By incorporating the best principles of other religions he made Brahmo Samaj the advocate of humanism, monotheism and social regeneration.

• He preached monotheism and waged a crusade to better the condition of women by abolishing child marriages, by encouraging ascetic widowhood and putting a stop to sati, the inhuman practice of burning the wife along with the dead husband.

• He also condemned polygamy, early marriage and subjugation of women. He advocated that Western education and scientific knowledge had to be introduced in India. He supported the moves of Macaulay and William Bentinck in introducing English as medium of instruction. Ram Mohan took the socio-religious reform as a necessary step in the direction of nation building. He was a democrat to the core and an internationalist.

• Ram Mohan was not free from defects, but he stands as the first luminous star on the intellectual firmament of the 19th century. He breathed his last in 1835 at Bristol in England. The BrahmoSamaj’s influence began to decline after Ram Mohan Roy’s death but its influence was revived by Devendranath Tagore and Kesab Chandra Sen.

• In 1839, Devendranath Tagore founded the TattvaBodhini Sabha to carry on further the ideology of Brahmo Samaj and in order to stop the rapid growth of Christianity in Bengal; he advocated the development of Vedantism. Devendranath Tagore emphasized more on the indigenous language and culture of India rather than on universalism of Ram Mohan Roy.

• In 1843, he established the Tattua Bodhini Patrika to propagate the new ideas of regenerated Brahmoism. It was another great intellectual of Bengal, Kesab Chandra Sen, who started a new organization known as Bharatiya Brahmo Samaj with the objective of bringing about a total social revolution.

• He dedicated his life to the cause of Indian social reform especially to the uplift of women. He published a pamphlet justifying the need for widow remarriage, submitted petitions to government, rendered valuable service for the cause of woman’s education by opening 35 schools for girls, with his own money, encouraged inter caste marriages and advocated the renunciation of sacred thread. It is no exaggeration to surest that by his effort only, the Widow Remarriage Act of 1856 was passed by the government. One greater intel-lectual of Bengal who contributed to the great renaissance of Bengal and emancipations of woman was PanditIshwara Chandra Vidyasagar.

• He was a great Sanskrit scholar and became the principal of the Sanskrit College in 1851. He opened the gates of Sanskrit College to non-Brahmin students. He intro-duced western thought as one of the subjects to be studied by the students of Sanskrit College. He was also the author of a Bengali premier which helped in the evolution of a distinct modem prose style in Bengal.

• He devoted his entire life for the emancipation of women particularly by promoting the cause of higher education among women and widow remarriage. Between 1855 and 1860, nearly 25 widow remarriages took place in Bengal under his leadership. He also fought against child marriage and polygamy. The BrahmoSamaj by its efforts created a pride among the Indians by reforming the evil-ridden Hinduism and by stressing humanism as an ideal, necessary for the welfare of mankind.

37. Ans (c)

Explanation:

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The Food Corporation of India was setup under the Food Corporation Act 1964, in order to fulfill following objectives of the Food Policy: • Effective price support operations for safeguarding the interests of the farmers. • Distribution of food grains throughout the country for public distribution system • Maintaining satisfactory level of operational and buffer stocks of food grains to ensure National

Food Security

38. Ans (d) Explanation: • Share of Agriculture in India’s GDP declined from 50% during independence to around 17% in

present days. The reason is attributed to the low level growth in the agriculture which is dependent on the vagaries of monsoon, credit availability etc.

• Agriculture growth has been subdued under 4%. Other sector such as services has seen a double digit growth.

• All the other options portray only the picture of Agriculture while Option D emphasizes the growth of secondary and tertiary sectors vis-à-vis agricultural sector.

39. Ans (c)

Explanation: Statement 1: Augmented Reality is an enhanced version of reality where live direct or indirect views of physical real-world environments are augmented with superimposed computer-generated images over a user's view of the real-world, thus enhancing one’s current perception of reality. Augment means to add or enhance something. In the case of Augmented Reality (also called AR), graphics, sounds, and touch feedback are added into our natural world to create an enhanced user experience. Cell phones apps and business applications by companies using augmented reality are a few of the many applications driving augmented reality application development. The key point is that the information provided is highly topical and relevant to what you want you are doing. Augmented reality is incredibly useful for solving everyday problems. Put furniture into your space to see how it looks and fits in your home. Or navigate complicated spaces without ever looking at a map, like enabling service workers to visualise industrial equipment and repair it with greater efficiency and so on. Statement 2: Virtual Reality is a realistic three-dimensional image or artificial environment that is created with a mixture of interactive hardware and software, and presented to the user in such a way that the any doubts are suspended and it is accepted as a real environment in which it is interacted with in a seemingly real or physical way. Virtual reality (also called Virtual Realities or VR) is best understood by first defining what it aims to achieve - total immersion. Total immersion means that the sensory experience feels so real, that we forget it is a virtual-artificial environment and begin to interact with it as we would naturally in the real world. In a virtual reality environment, a completely synthetic world may or may not mimic the properties of a real-world environment. This means that the virtual reality environment may simulate an everyday setting (e.g. walking around the streets of London), or may exceed the bounds of physical reality by creating a world in which the physical laws governing gravity, time and material properties no longer hold (e.g. shooting space aliens on a foreign gravity less planet). Unlike virtual reality, which requires you to inhabit an entirely virtual environment, augmented reality uses your existing natural environment and simply overlays virtual information on top of it. As both virtual and real worlds harmoniously coexist, users of augmented reality experience a new and improved natural world where virtual information is used as a tool to provide assistance in everyday activities. It is not always virtual reality vs. augmented reality– they do not always operate independently of one another, and in fact are often blended together to generate an even more immersing experience.

40. Ans (d) Explanation:

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• ‘Varshadhare’ is a cloud-seeding project, by Karnataka'. Cloud-seeding is a kind of weather modification procedure that attempts to enhance the amount of precipitation from the clouds to generate more rain.

• Artificial rain is produced by spraying clouds with substances like Silver Iodide (costly) or cheaper ones like solid carbon dioxide (dry ice) or even finely powdered Sodium Chloride, or propane. The process is called seeding.

41. Ans (d)

Explanation: The International Court of Justice is composed of 15 judges elected to nine-year terms of office by the United Nations General Assembly and the Security Council. These organs vote simultaneously but separately. In order to be elected, a candidate must receive an absolute majority of the votes in both bodies.

42. Ans (d) Explanation: Option A,B,C: • The Indian Technical and Economic Cooperation (ITEC) Programme was instituted by a decision of

the Indian Cabinet on 15 September 1964 as a bilateral programme of assistance of the Government of India. The decision regarding setting up the ITEC programme was predicated on the underlying belief that "it was necessary to establish relations of mutual concern and inter-dependence based not only on commonly held ideals and aspirations, but also on solid economic foundations. Technical and economic cooperation was considered to be one of the essential functions of an integrated and imaginative foreign policy."

• The ITEC Programme is essentially bilateral in nature. However, in recent years, ITEC resources have also been used for cooperation programmes conceived in regional and inter-regional context such as Economic Commission for Africa, Commonwealth Secretariat, UNIDO, Group of 77 and G-15. In more recent years, its activities have also been associated with regional and multilateral organizations and cooperation groupings like Association of South East Asian Nations (ASEAN), Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC), Mekong-Ganga Cooperation (MGC), African Union (AU), Afro-Asian Rural Development Organization (AARDO), Pan African Parliament, Caribbean Community (CARICOM), World Trade Organization (WTO) and Indian Ocean Rim - Association for Regional Cooperation (IOR-ARC) and India-Africa Forum Summit.

• The ITEC Programme, fully funded by the Government of India, has evolved and grown over the years. Under ITEC and its sister programme SCAAP (Special Commonwealth African Assistance Programme), 161 countries in Asia, Africa, East Europe, Latin America, the Caribbean as well as Pacific and Small Island countries are invited to share in the Indian developmental experience acquired over six decades of India's existence as a free nation. As a result of different activities under this programme, there is now a visible and growing awareness among other countries about the competence of India as a provider of technical know-how and expertise as well as training opportunities, consultancy services and feasibility studies. These programmes have generated immense goodwill and substantive cooperation among the developing countries.

Option D: Under this Programme, India supplies humanitarian aid like food grains, medicines and similar other items to countries struck by natural disasters. Cash assistance is also provided. • https://www.itecgoi.in/about.php

43. Ans (b) Explanation: • The Election Commission is a permanent and an independent body established by the Constitution of India directly to ensure free and fair elections in the country. Article 324 of the Constitution provides that the power of superintendence, direction and control of elections to parliament, state legislatures, the office of president of India and the office of Vice president of India shall be vested in the election commission. Thus, the Election Commission is an all-India body in the sense that it is common to

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• Both the Central government and the state governments. • It must be noted here that the election commission is not concerned with the elections to panchayats and municipalities in the states. For this, the Constitution of India provides for a separate State Election Commission. Article 324 of the Constitution has made the following provisions with regard to the composition of election commission: 1. The Election Commission shall consist of the chief election commissioner and such number of other election commissioners, if any, as the president may from time to time fix. 2. The appointment of the chief election commissioner and other election commissioners shall be made by the president. 3. When any other election commissioner is so appointed, the chief election commissioner shall act as the chairman of the election commission. 4. The president may also appoint after consultation with the election commission such regional commissioners as he may consider necessary to assist the election commission. 5. The conditions of service and tenure of office of the election commissioners and the regional commissioners shall be determined by the president. Statement 2: The chief election commissioner and the two other election commissioners have equal powers and receive equal salary, allowances and other perquisites, which are similar to those of a judge of the Supreme Court. In case of difference of opinion amongst the Chief election commissioner and/or two other election commissioners, the matter is decided by the Commission by majority. Statement 3: Article 324 of the Constitution has made the following provisions to safeguard and ensure the independent and impartial functioning of the Election Commission: 1. The chief election commissioner is provided with the security of tenure. 2. He cannot be removed from his office except in same manner and on the same grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court. In other words, he can be removed by the president on the basis of a resolution passed to that effect by both the Houses of Parliament with special majority, either on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity. Thus, he does not hold his office till the pleasure of the president, though he is appointed by him. 3. The service conditions of the chief election commissioner cannot be varied to his disadvantage after his appointment. 4. Any other election commissioner or a regional commissioner cannot be removed from office except on the recommendation of the chief election commissioner. Though the constitution has sought to safeguard and ensure the independence and impartiality of the Election Commission, some flaws can be noted, viz., 1. The Constitution has not prescribed the qualifications (legal, educational, administrative or judicial) of the members of the Election Commission. 2. The Constitution has not specified the term of the members of the Election Commission. 3. The Constitution has not debarred the retiring election commissioners from any further appointment by the government. Statement 1: In this statement terms of office include their tenure, reappointment procedure and removal. Tenure: The conditions of service and tenure of office of the election commissioners and the regional commissioners shall be determined by the president. Usually Election comissioners hold office for a period of 6 yrs or until the age of 65 whichever is earlier. A member of a Public Service Commission shall hold office for a term of six years from the date on which he enters upon his office or until he attains, in the case of the Union Commission, the age of sixty-five years Removal: The Chairman or any other member of a Public Service Commission shall only be removed from his office by order of the President on the ground of misbehaviour after the Supreme Court, on reference being made to it by the President, has, on inquiry held in accordance with the procedure prescribed in that behalf under article 145, reported that the Chairman or such other member, as the case may be, ought on any such ground to be removed.

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Article 324 (5) of the Constitution safeguards the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) from arbitrary removal. The CEC can be removed from office only by the order of the President, just like a judge of the Supreme Court. However, the same constitutional provision is silent about the procedure for removal of the two Election Commissioners. It only provides that they cannot be removed from office except on the recommendation of the CEC. Reappointment: The constitution has not debarred the retiring election commissioners from any further appointment by the government. The Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission shall be ineligible for further employment either under the Government of India or under the Government of a State; The Chairman of a State Public Service Commission shall be eligible for appointment as the Chairman or any other member of the Union Public Service Commission or as the Chairman of any other State Public Service Commission, but not for any other employment either under the Government of India or under the Government of a State; A member other than the Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission shall be eligible for appointment as the Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission or as the Chairman of a State Public Service Commission, but not for any other employment either under the Government of India or under the Government of a State; A member other than the Chairman of a State Public Service Commission shall be eligible for appointment as the Chairman or any other member of the Union Public Service Commission or as the Chairman of that or any other State Public Service Commission, but not for any other employment either under the Government of India or under the Government of a State. Clearly the manner of removal and reappointment procedure for is different. Even though the tenure is same, for election commissioners it is not specified in the constitution. So Statement 1 is not correct.

44. Ans (c) Explanation: FINANCIAL EMERGENCY Grounds of Declaration • Article 360 empowers the president to proclaim a Financial Emergency if he is satisfied that a

situation has arisen due to which the financial stability or credit of India or any part of its territory is threatened.

• The 38th Amendment Act of 1975 made the satisfaction of the president in declaring a Financial Emergency final and conclusive and not questionable in any court on any ground. But, this provision was subsequently deleted by the 44th Amendment Act of 1978 implying that the satisfaction of the president is not beyond judicial review.

Parliamentary Approval and Duration A proclamation declaring financial emergency must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within two months from the date of its issue. However, if the proclamation of Financial Emergency is issued at a time when the Lok Sabha has been dissolved or the dissolution of the Lok Sabha takes place during the period of two months without approving the proclamation, then the proclamation survives until 30 days from the first sitting of the Lok Sabha after its reconstitution, provided the Rajya Sabha has in the meantime approved it. Once approved by both the Houses of Parliament, the Financial Emergency continues indefinitely till it is revoked. This implies two things: 1. There is no maximum period prescribed for its operation; and 2. Repeated parliamentary approval is not required for its continuation. 3. A resolution approving the proclamation of financial emergency can be passed by either House of

Parliament only by a simple majority, that is, a majority of the members of that house present and voting.

4. A proclamation of Financial Emergency may be revoked by the president at anytime by a subsequent proclamation. Such a proclamation does not require the parliamentary approval.

Effects of Financial Emergency The consequences of the proclamation of a Financial Emergency are as follows: 1. The executive authority of the Centre extends

(a) to directing any state to observe such canons of financial propriety as are specified by it; and (b) to directions as the President may deem necessary and adequate for the purpose.

2. Any such direction may include a provision requiring

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(a) the reduction of salaries and allowances of all or any class of persons serving in the state;and (b) the reservation of all money bills or other financial bills for the consideration of the President

after they are passed by the legislature of the state. 3. The President may issue directions for the reduction of salaries and allowances of

(a) all or any class of persons serving the Union; and (b) the judges of the Supreme Court and the high court.

Thus, during the operation of a financial emergency, the Centre acquires full control over the states in financial matters. H.N.Kunzru, a member of the Constituent Assembly, stated that the financial emergency provisions pose a serious threat to the financial autonomy of the states. Explaining the reasons for their inclusion in the Constitution, Dr BR Ambedkar observed in the Constituent Assembly: This Article more or less follows the pattern of what is called the National Recovery Act of the United States passed in 1933, which gave the president power to make similar provisions in order to remove the difficulties, both economical and financial, that had overtaken the American people, as a result of the Great Depression”. No Financial Emergency has been declared so far, though there was a financial crisis in 1991.

45. Ans (a) Explanation: • Of the given options the answer can be picked by eliminating options. • It is clearly known that none of the rivers form estuaries as they are tributaries of other major

rivers thus eliminating option (b). River Son is a major tributary of the Ganges thus eliminating option (d). Further River Son originates in the state of Madhya Pradesh in central India and flows northwards and hence option (c) is not the answer.

• Rivers Chambal and Betwa originate in Madhya Pradesh and flows northwards and are tributaries of river Yamuna.

46. Ans (d)

Explanation: Syria opens into the Mediterranean Sea in the West. The eastern coast of Kuwait is the Persian Gulf. Saudi Arabia has a very elaborate coastline in both its West (Red Sea) and the East (Persian Gulf)

47. Ans (d) Explanation: • From the options it can be chosen as option (d) has a factual error. The Red Sea is located at a

lower latitude compared to the Mediterranean Sea while the other options are true. • The Surface area is smaller compared to Mediterranean Sea and hence has lower volume of water

compared to Mediterranean and higher salinity. The Sea is itself in a Rift valley and hence has no outlets for to drain salt deposits from the lake. It further has lesser amount of fresh water inflows through rivers which is not the case with Mediterranean Sea. The Mediterranean Sea has multiple river deltas in many peninsulas which are found in the region.

48. Ans (a)

Explanation: • The Answer can be narrowed down to (a) using the options. • Jakarta is located in Indonesia which experiences Equatorial climate which sees rainfall every day

of the year. Using this option (c) can be eliminated. • Riyadh is the capital of Saudi Arabia which is located in desert climate and logically it should have

the least rainfall compared to the other cities. • The question asks to arrange cities in the order of decreasing rainfall. The only option which starts

with Jakarta and ends with Riyadh is option (a).

49. Ans (a) Explanation: Aiming at protecting the climate and the ozone layer, in October of 2016, during the 28th Meeting of the Parties to the Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer in Kigali/Rwanda, more than 170 countries agreed to amend the Protocol. The Kigali Amendment aims for the phase-

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down of hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) by cutting their production and consumption. Given their zero impact on the depletion of the ozone layer, HFCs are currently used as replacements of hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs) and chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), however they are powerful greenhouse gases. With the Kigali Amendment, the Montreal Protocol will be an even more powerful instrument against global warming. The amendment will enter into force on 1 January 2019, provided it has been ratified by at least 20 parties. The goal is to achieve over 80% reduction in HFC consumption by 2047. The impact of the amendment will avoid up to 0.5 °C increase in global temperature by the end of the century.

50. Ans (c) Explanation: Statement 1: Wetlands International is the only global not-for-profit organisation dedicated to the conservation and restoration of wetlands. Wetlands International is dedicated to maintaining and restoring wetlands— for their environmental values as well as for the services they provide to people. It works through network of offices, other partners and experts to achieve its goals. Most of the work is financed on a project basis by governments and private donors. It is also supported by government and NGO membership. Statement 2: Waterbirds are one of the key indicators of wetlands health. Wetlands provide feeding, resting, roosting and foraging habitats for these charismatic species. Every January, thousands of volunteers across Asia and Australasia visit wetlands in their country and count waterbirds. This citizen science programme is the Asian Waterbird Census (AWC). The AWC is an integral part of the global waterbird monitoring programme, the International Waterbird Census (IWC), coordinated by Wetlands International. It runs in parallel with other regional programmes of the International Waterbird Census in Africa, Europe, West Asia, the Neotropics and the Caribbean.

51. Ans (c) Explanation: Position of Princely States in India during British Rule: • The princely states, which covered a total area of 7,12,508 square miles and numbered no fewer

than 562, included tiny states such as Bilbari with a population of 27 persons only and some big ones like Hyderabad (as large as Italy) with a population of 14 million.

• The East India Company acquired, in the process of conquest, important coastal tracts, the valleys of the great navigable rivers and such tracts which were rich in agricultural products and densely populated by prosperous people, while, generally, the Indian states were “the inaccessible and less fertile tracts of the Indian peninsula”.

• The making of Indian states was largely governed by the same circumstances which led to the growth of East India Company’s power in India.

The evolution of relations between the British authority and states can be traced under the following broad stages: I. East India Company’s Struggle for Equality with Indian States from a Position of Subordination (1740-1765): Starting with Anglo-French rivalry with the coming of Dupleix in 1751, the East India Company asserted political identity with capture of Arcot (1751). With the Battle of Plassey in 1757, the East India Company acquired political power next only to the Bengal Nawabs. In 1765 with the acquisition of the Diwani of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa, the East India Company became a significant political power. II. Policy of Ring Fence (1765-1813): This policy was reflected in Warren Hastings’ wars against the Marathas and Mysore, and aimed at creating buffer zones to defend the Company’s frontiers. The main threat was from the Marathas and Afghan invaders (the Company undertook to organise Avvadh’s defence to safeguard Bengal’s security). Wellesley’s policy of subsidiary alliance was an extension of ring fence—which sought to reduce states to a position of dependence on British Government in India. Major powers such as Hyderabad, Awadh and the Marathas accepted subsidiary alliance. Thus, British supremacy was established. III. Policy of Subordinate Isolation (1813-1857):

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• Now, the imperial idea grew and the theory of Paramountcy began to develop—Indian states were supposed to act in subordinate cooperation with the British Government and acknowledge its supremacy.

• States surrendered all forms of external sovereignty and retained full sovereignty in internal administration. British Residents were transformed from diplomatic agents of a foreign power to executive and controlling officers of a superior government.

• In 1833, the Charter Act ended the Company’s commercial functions while it retained political functions. It adopted the practice of insisting on prior approval/sanction for all matters of succession. In 1834, the Board of Directors issued guidelines to annex states wherever and whenever possible. This policy of annexation culminated in usurpation of six states by Dalhousie including some big states such as Satara and Nagpur.

IV. Policy of Subordinate Union (1857-1935): • The year 1858 saw the assumption of direct responsibility by the Crown. Because of the states’

loyalty during the 1857 revolt and their potential use as breakwaters in political storms of the future, the policy of annexation was abandoned. The new policy was to punish or depose but not to annex.

• After 1858, the fiction of authority of the Mughal emperor ended; sanction for all matters of succession was required from the Crown since the Crown stood forth as the unquestioned ruler and the paramount power.

• Now the ruler inherited the gaddi not as a matter of right but as a gift from the paramount power, because the fiction of Indian states standing in a status of equality with the Crown as independent, sovereign states ended with the Queen adopting the title of “Kaiser-i-Hind” (Queen Empress of India).

• The paramount supremacy of the Crown presupposed and implied the subordination of states. The British Government exercised the right to interfere in the internal spheres of states—partly in the interest of the princes, partly in the interest of people’s welfare, partly to secure proper conditions for British subjects and foreigners and partly in the interest of the whole of India.

• The British Government was further helped in this encroachment by modern developments in communication— railways, roads, telegraph, canals, post offices, press and public opinion.

• The Government of India exercised complete and undisputed control in international affairs—it could declare war, peace or neutrality for states. According to the Butler Commission in 1927, “For the purpose of international relations, state territory is in the same position as British territory and state subjects in the same position as British subjects.”

Curzon’s Approach: • Curzon stretched the interpretation of old treaties to mean that the princes, in their capacity as

servants of people, were supposed to work side-by-side with the governor-general in the scheme of Indian Government. He adopted a policy of patronage and “intrusive surveillance”.

• He thought the relation between the states and Government was neither feudal nor federal, a type not based on a treaty but consisting of a series of relationships having grown under different historical conditions that, in the course of time, gradually conformed to a single line.

• The new trend seemed to reduce all states to a single type—uniformly dependent on the British Government and considered as an integral part of Indian political system.

Post-1905: • A policy of cordial cooperation began to counter progressive and revolutionary developments in

face of large-scale political unrests. • According to the recommendations of Montford Reforms (1921), a Chamber of Princes (Narendra

Mandal) was set up as a consultative and advisory body having no say in the internal affairs of individual states and having no powers to discuss matters concerning existing rights and freedoms.

For the purpose of the chamber the Indian states were divided into three categories: 1. Directly represented—109 2. Represented through representatives—127 3. Recognised as feudal holdings or jagirs. The question of extent of sovereignty and Paramountcy was still undefined. The Butler Committee (1927) was set up to examine the nature of relationship between the states and Government. It gave the following recommendations:

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1. Paramountcy must remain supreme and must fulfil its obligations, adopting and defining itself according to the shifting necessities of time and progressive development of states.

2. States should not be handed over to an Indian Government in British India, responsible to an Indian legislature, without the consent of states.

Thus, “Paramountcy” was left undefined and this hydra- headed creature was left to feed on usage, Crown’s prerogative and the princes’ implied consent. V. Policy of Equal Federation (1935-1947): • The Government of India Act, 1935 proposed a Federal Assembly with 125 out of 375 seats for the

princes and the Council of States with 104 out of 160 seats for the princes, under its scheme of an all-India federation, which was subject to ratification by states representing more than half of the population and entitled to more than half of the seats in the Council of States.

• This scheme never came into existence and after the outbreak of World War II (September 1939) it was dropped altogether.

52. Ans (d)

Explanation: • Battle of Wandiwash, (Jan. 22, 1760), in the history of India, a confrontation between the French,

under the comte de Lally, and the British, under Sir Eyre Coote. It was the decisive battle in the Anglo-French struggle in southern India during the Seven Years’ War (1756–63).

• Lally, cut off from sea support by the withdrawal of Admiral d’Aché’s fleet and hampered by a lack of funds and by dissensions among his troops, tried to recover the fort of Wandiwash near Pondicherry (Puducherry). There he was attacked and routed by Coote, with about 1,700 British troops against about 2,000 French. Lally’s best general, the marquis de Bussy, was captured. The French were thereafter confined to Pondicherry, which surrendered on Jan. 16, 1761, after much privation. Lally was later imprisoned and executed, after a trial in Paris, for alleged treason.

53. Ans (b)

Explanation: Inclusive growth means economic growth that creates employment opportunities and helps in reducing poverty. It means having access to essential services in health and education by the poor. It includes providing equality of opportunity, empowering people through education and skill development.

54. Ans (c) Explanation: Nominal Income measures the income levels at the Current Prices. Nominal income accounts the inflation component. Hence an increase in the national income is due to increase in the inflation levels or the price levels with no real growth. All other option signifies the National income with inflation adjusted with the base year.

55. Ans (d) Explanation: • Air gapping is a security measure that involves isolating a computer or network and preventing it

from establishing an external connection. For example, an air gapped computer is one that is physically segregated and incapable of connecting wirelessly or physically with other computers or network devices.

• Air-gapped networks are used to protect many types of critical systems, including those that support the stock market, the military, the government and industrial power industries. Air-gapped computers are considered more secure than others.

• An air-gapped computer is one that is neither connected to the internet nor connected to other systems that are connected to the internet. Air gaps generally are implemented where the system or network requires extra security, such as classified military networks, the payment networks that process credit and debit card transactions for retailers, or industrial control systems that operate critical infrastructure. To maintain security, payment and industrial control systems should only be on internal networks that are not connected to the company's business network, thus preventing intruders from entering the corporate network through the internet and working their way to sensitive systems.

56. Ans (c)

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Explanation: • The Living with a star (LWS) Program provides missions to improve our understanding of how and

why the Sun varies, how the Earth and Solar System respond, and how the variability and response affects humanity in Space and on Earth.

• Parker Solar Probe will swoop to within 4 million miles of the sun's surface, facing heat and radiation like no spacecraft before it. Launching in 2018, Parker Solar Probe will provide new data on solar activity and make critical contributions to our ability to forecast major space-weather events that impact life on Earth.

• In 2017, the mission was renamed for Eugene Parker, the S. Chandrasekhar Distinguished Service Professor Emeritus, Department of Astronomy and Astrophysics at the University of Chicago. In the 1950s, Parker proposed a number of concepts about how stars—including our Sun—give off energy. He called this cascade of energy the solar wind, and he described an entire complex system of plasmas, magnetic fields, and energetic particles that make up this phenomenon. Parker also theorized an explanation for the superheated solar atmosphere, the corona, which is – contrary to what was expected by physics laws -- hotter than the surface of the sun itself. This is the first NASA mission that has been named for a living individual.

Option a: The Aditya-1 mission was conceived as a 400kg class satellite carrying one payload, the Visible Emission Line Coronagraph (VELC) and was planned to launch in a 800 km low earth orbit. A Satellite placed in the halo orbit around the Lagrangian point 1 (L1) of the Sun-Earth system has the major advantage of continuously viewing the Sun without any occultation/ eclipses. Therefore, the Aditya-1 mission has now been revised to “Aditya-L1 mission” and will be inserted in a halo orbit around the L1, which is 1.5 million km from the Earth. The project is approved and the satellite will be launched during 2019 – 2020 timeframe by PSLV-XL from Sriharikota.Aditya-1 was meant to observe only the solar corona. Option b: STEREO (Solar TErrestrial RElations Observatory) is the third mission in NASA's Solar Terrestrial Probes program (STP). The mission, launched in October 2006, has provided a unique and revolutionary view of the Sun-Earth System. Option d: NASA and the European Space Agency joined forces to send Ulysses to study the heliosphere - the region of space influenced by the Sun and its magnetic field - from a unique polar orbit. It was launched on 6 Oct. 6 1990 .Ulysses was the first mission to survey the space environment above and below the poles of our Sun.

57. Ans (d) Explanation: Located in the town of Rajgir, in the northern Indian state of Bihar, Nalanda is a postgraduate, research intensive, international university supported by the participating countries of the East Asia Summit. The University came into being on November 25, 2010 by a special Act of the Indian Parliament and has been designated as an “institution of national importance”. Option C: The Ministry of External Affairs – which is the administrative ministry of this university – constituted a Nalanda Mentors’ Group (NMG) to run it. Option D: The new university will be built in Rajgir, 10 kilometres from the ancient site with buildings planned on old Buddhist principles.

58. Ans (c) Explanation: The Supreme Court has original, appellate and advisory jurisdiction. Its exclusive original jurisdiction extends to 1. any dispute between the Government of India and one or more States or 2. between the Government of India and any State or States on one side and one or more States on

the other or 3. between two or more States, 4. if and insofar as the dispute involves any question (whether of law or of fact) on which the

existence or extent of a legal right depends.

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In addition, Article 32 of the Constitution gives an extensive original jurisdiction to the Supreme Court in regard to enforcement of Fundamental Rights. It is empowered to issue directions, orders or writs, including writs in the nature of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto and certiorari to enforce them. The Supreme Court has been conferred with power to direct transfer of any civil or criminal case from one State High Court to another State High Court or from a Court subordinate to another State High Court. The Supreme Court, if satisfied that cases involving the same or substantially the same questions of law are pending before it and one or more High Courts or before two or more High Courts and that such questions are substantial questions of general importance, may withdraw a case or cases pending before the High Court or High Courts and dispose of all such cases itself. Under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, International Commercial Arbitration can also be initiated in the Supreme Court.

59. Ans (a) Explanation: The judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the president. The chief justice is appointed by the president after consultation with such judges of the Supreme Court and high courts as he deems necessary. The other judges are appointed by president after consultation with the chief justice and such other judges of the Supreme Court and the high courts as he deems necessary. The consultation with the chief justice is obligatory in the case of appointment of a judge other than Chief justice. Controversy over Consultation The Supreme Court has given different interpretation of the word ‘consultation’ in the above provision. In the First Judges case (1982), the Court held that consultation does not mean concurrence and it only implies exchange of views. But, in the Second Judges case (1993), the Court reversed its earlier ruling and changed the meaning of the word consultation to concurrence. Hence, it ruled that the advice tendered by the Chief Justice of India is binding on the President in the matters of appointment of the judges of the Supreme Court. But, the Chief Justice would tender his advice on the matter after consulting two of his senior most colleagues. Similarly, in the Third Judges case (1998), the Court opined that the consultation process to be adopted by the Chief justice of India requires ‘consultation of plurality judges’. The sole opinion of the chief justice of India does not constitute the consultation process. He should consult a collegium of four senior most judges of the Supreme Court and even if two judges give an adverse opinion, he should not send the recommendation to the government. The court held that the recommendation made by the chief justice of India without complying with the norms and requirements of the consultation process are not binding on the government.

60. Ans (b) Explanation: • Air mass is a large volume of air extending across kilometres in length and breadth and hundreds

of meters in height which has similar conditions of temperature, humidity, etc. Air masses are formed in regions of homogeneous geographic conditions with divergent atmospheric conditions, which enable the volume of air standing over an area to acquire similar characteristics.

• Of the options mentioned above, Amazon forest is the only region which does not have these characteristics. Sahel region found close to North Africa having arid climate conditions spread over a large area. The island of Australia is mostly a desert which gives rise to continental air masses. The Northern Atlantic Ocean nurtures maritime air masses.

61. Ans (a) Explanation: • The North Indian Ocean region unlike other ocean basins sees reversal of ocean currents. The

ocean currents reverse based on the direction of the Monsoon which is the dominant force in the region.

• Statement 1 is correct. During the month of July, the dominant wind in the region blows South-West. This results in the Arabian Sea experiencing ocean circulation which starts from the South West and ends up in a clockwise direction.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. Bay of Bengal sees reversal of ocean circulation similar to Arabian Sea in both summer and winter.

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62. Ans (a)

Explanation: The United Nations Economic Commission for Europe (UNECE) Convention on Access to Information, Public Participation in Decision-Making and Access to Justice in Environmental Matters was adopted on 25 June 1998 in the Danish city of Aarhus (Århus) at the Fourth Ministerial Conference as part of the "Environment for Europe" process. It entered into force on 30 October 2001. The Aarhus Convention establishes a number of rights of the public (individuals and their associations) with regard to the environment. The Parties to the Convention are required to make the necessary provisions so that public authorities (at national, regional or local level) will contribute to these rights to become effective. The Convention provides for: • the right of everyone to receive environmental information that is held by public authorities

("access to environmental information"). This can include information on the state of the environment, but also on policies or measures taken, or on the state of human health and safety where this can be affected by the state of the environment. Applicants are entitled to obtain this information within one month of the request and without having to say why they require it. In addition, public authorities are obliged, under the Convention, to actively disseminate environmental information in their possession;

• the right to participate in environmental decision-making. Arrangements are to be made by public authorities to enable the public affected and environmental non-governmental organisations to comment on, for example, proposals for projects affecting the environment, or plans and programmes relating to the environment, these comments to be taken into due account in decision-making, and information to be provided on the final decisions and the reasons for it ("public participation in environmental decision-making");

• the right to review procedures to challenge public decisions that have been made without respecting the two aforementioned rights or environmental law in general ("access to justice").

63. Ans (b) Explanation: • The Minamata Convention is a global treaty to protect human health and the environment from

adverse effects of mercury. • Mercury is considered by experts to be one of the most toxic metals known. Once released into

environment, mercury bio-accumulates and bio-magnifies up in the food chain, and easily enters the human body and impacts the nervous system. The treaty aims at protecting human health and the environment from its adverse effects.

• The major highlights of the Convention include a ban on new mercury mines, the phase-out of existing ones, the phase-out and phase-down of mercury use in a number of products and processes. It also addresses interim storage of mercury and its disposal once it becomes waste, and sites contaminated by mercury as well as health issues.

• The Union Cabinet chaired by the Prime Minister has approved the proposal for ratification of Minamata Convention on Mercury (Feb, 2018) and depositing the instrument of ratification enabling India to become a Party of the Convention. The approval entails Ratification of the Minamata Convention on Mercury along with flexibility for continued use of mercury-based products and processes involving mercury compound up to 2025.

64. Ans (d) Explanation: M.C. Rajah formed the first national level Scheduled Class organization named All India Depressed Classes Association.

65. Ans (a) Explanation: The First Factories Act In 1875, the first committee appointed to inquire into the conditions of factory work favoured legal restriction in the form of factory laws. The first Factories Act was adopted in 1881. The Factory Commission was appointed in 1885. The researcher takes only one instance, the statement of a witness to the same commission on the ginning and processing factories of Khandesh: "The same set

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of hands, men and women, worked continuously day and night for eight consecutive days. Those who went away for the night returned at three in the morning to make sure of being in time when the doors opened at 4 a.m., and for 18 hours' work, from 4 a.m. to 10 p.m., three or four annas was the wage. When the hands are absolutely tired out new hands are entertained. Those working these excessive hours frequently died." There was another Factories Act in 1891, and a Royal Commission on Labour was appointed in 1892. Restrictions on hours of work and on the employment of women were the chief gains of these investigations and legislation.

66. Ans (d) Explanation: A surge in foreign capital will lead to appreciation in the value of the currency. An outflow of capital which was invested by FPI’s in India will lead to depreciation of Rupee. In case of Rupee appreciation, the exports will be costlier and imports cheaper. Since India follows a managed float, the central bank may intervene in the forex market to prevent the market from exchange rate volatility through purchasing the forex and maintaining stability.

67. Ans (c) Explanation: • Making health as a fundamental right is not an objective of the National Health Policy, 2017. • The Policy seeks to reach everyone in a comprehensive integrated way to move towards wellness.

It aims at achieving universal health coverage and delivering quality health care services to all at affordable cost.

• The main objective of the National Health Policy 2017 is to achieve the highest possible level of good health and well-being, through a preventive and promotive health care orientation in all developmental policies, and to achieve universal access to good quality health care services without anyone having to face financial hardship as a consequence.

• In order to provide access and financial protection at secondary and tertiary care levels, the policy proposes free drugs, free diagnostics and free emergency care services in all public hospitals.

68. Ans (c)

Explanation: Scientists have developed a super strong, flexible adhesive material inspired by the glue secreted by slugs that sticks to biological tissues - even when wet - without causing toxicity. The "tough adhesive" is biocompatible and binds to tissues with strength. Slugs secrete a special kind of mucus when threatened that glue it in place, making it difficult for a predator to pry it off its surface.

69. Ans (d) Explanation: Option b: Plutonium: • Over one-third of the energy produced in most nuclear power plants comes from plutonium. It is

created in the reactor as a by-product. • Plutonium recovered from reprocessing normal reactor fuel is recycled as mixed-oxide fuel (MOX). • Plutonium is the principal fuel in a fast neutron reactor, and in any reactor it is progressively bred

from non-fissile U-238 that comprises over 99% of natural uranium. • Plutonium has occurred naturally, but except for trace quantities it is not now found in the Earth's

crust. • There are several tonnes of plutonium in our biosphere, a legacy of atmospheric weapons testing

in the 1950s and 1960s. • Plutonium-238 is a vital power source for deep space missions.

NORM is the acronym for Naturally Occurring Radioactive Material, which potentially includes all radioactive elements found in the environment. Long-lived radioactive elements such as uranium, thorium and potassium and any of their decay products, such as radium and radon are examples of NORM. These elements have always been present in the Earth's crust and atmosphere, and are concentrated in some places, such as uranium ore bodies which may be mined. The term NORM exists also to distinguish ‘natural radioactive material’ from anthropogenic sources of radioactive material, such as those produced by nuclear power and used in nuclear medicine, where incidentally the radioactive properties of a material maybe what make it useful

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70. Ans (d) Explanation: • The Heart of Asia-Istanbul Process (HOA) is an international governmental organization that was

founded on November 2nd, 2011 in Istanbul, Turkey. • The Heart of Asia provides a platform for sincere and results-oriented regional cooperation by

placing Afghanistan at its center, in recognition of the fact that a secure and stable Afghanistan is vital to the prosperity of the Heart of Asia region.

• This platform was established to address the shared challenges and interests of Afghanistan and its neighbors and regional partners. The Heart of Asia is comprised of 14 participating countries, 17 supporting countries (all western countries), and 12 supporting regional and international organizations (UN, SAARC, SCO etc.).

Participating Countries (14) • Afghanistan, Azerbaijan, China, India, Iran, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyz, Pakistan, Russia, Saudi Arabia,

Tajikistan, Turkey, Turkmenistan, United Arab Emirates.

71. Ans (b) Explanation: • The relationship between the two most powerful posts in the India, President and Council of

Ministers, is not clearly layered out in the Constitution of India. This led to various controversies regarding exercising the powers vested with these posts. But it should be noted that every time such a controversy arose, it has been confirmed that the President is just a constitutional head and the real power rests with the Council of Ministers. The controversy between the powers were largely solved by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act. Article 74(1) and 75(3) must be read together to determine how the President can exercise his powers which ultimately states that the advice of the council of ministers needs to be followed by the President as long as parliamentary support is available, and in the event the parliament is being dissolved, the president need not wait for advice from the PM he may use his own discretion at will.

• The President is only a formal or constitutional head who exercises the power and functions conferred on him by or under the Constitution on the aid and advice of his Council of Ministers. Whenever the Constitution requires the 'satisfaction' of the President for the exercise by him of any power or function, it is not his 'personal satisfaction', but, in the constitutional sense, the 'satisfaction of the Council of Ministers'.”

72. Ans (c)

Explanation: • Articles 358 and 359 describe the effect of a National Emergency on the Fundamental Rights.

Article 358 deals with the suspension of the Fundamental Rights guaranteed by Article 19, while Article 359 deals with the suspension of other Fundamental Rights.

According to Article 358, • When a proclamation of national emergency is made, the six Fundamental Rights under Article 19

are automatically suspended. No separate order for their suspension is required. While a proclamation of national emergency is in operation, the state is freed from the restrictions imposed by Article 19. In other words, the state can make any law or can take any executive action abridging or taking away the six Fundamental Rights guaranteed by Article 19. Any such law or executive action cannot be challenged on the ground that they are inconsistent with the six Fundamental Rights guaranteed by Article 19. When the National Emergency ceases to operate, Article 19 automatically revives and comes into force. Any law made during Emergency, to the extent of inconsistency with Article 19, ceases to have effect. However, no remedy lies for anything done during the Emergency even after the Emergency expires. This means that the legislative and executive actions taken during the emergency cannot be challenged even after the Emergency ceases to operate.

73. Ans (d)

Explanation: • The answer could be narrowed down to option (b) through elimination.

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• It is well known that the state of Sikkim shares border with 3 countries Nepal, Bhutan and China. This eliminates options (a) and (b).

• Between the other two, it is well known that Tripura is encased on three sides with Bangladesh and hence option (c) can be eliminated and hence (d) is the answer.

• Uttar Pradesh shares border only with Nepal. Uttarakhand shares border with Nepal and China.

74. Ans (b) Explanation: Atal Innovation Mission: The Government has set up Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) in NITI Aayog with a view to strengthen the country’s innovation and entrepreneurship ecosystem by creating institutions and programs that spur innovation in schools, colleges, and entrepreneurs in general. In 2016-17, the following major schemes were rolled out: (a) Atal Tinkering Labs (ATLs): To foster creativity and scientific temper in students, AIM is helping to

establish 500 ATLs in schools across India, where students can design and make small prototypes to solve challenges they see around them, using rapid prototyping technologies that have emerged in recent years.

(b) Atal Incubation Centres (AICs): AIM will provide financial support of Rs.10 crore and capacity building for setting AICs across India, which will help startups expand quicker and enable innovation-entrepreneurship, in core sectors such as manufacturing, transport, energy, education, agriculture, water and sanitation, etc.

75. Ans (a)

Explanation: Bhitarkanika National Park is a national park located in Kendrapara district of Odisha in eastern India. Bhitarkanika is one of nature’s most beautiful and serene creations- a true spectacle to behold. Surrounded by lush green mangroves in the estuary of Brahmani, Baitarani, Dharma and Mahanadi river systems, the place boasts of a plethora of diverse migrating birds and turtles, the magnificent estuarine crocodiles, and greenery all around. It is a well known name because of the closely monitored population of saltwater crocodiles also.

76. Ans (a) Explanation: • Fly ash is a fine powder which is a by product of burning pulverized coal in electric generation

power plants. Fly ash is a pozzolan, a substance containing aluminous and siliceous material that forms cement in the presence of water. When mixed with lime and water it forms a compound similar to Portland cement. During combustion, mineral impurities in the coal (clay, feldspar, quartz, and shale) fuse in suspension and float out of the combustion chamber with the exhaust gases. As the fused material rises, it cools and solidifies into spherical glassy particles called fly ash. Fly ash is collected from the exhaust gases by electrostatic precipitators or bag filters. The fine powder does resemble portland cement but it is chemically different.

• The fly ash produced by coal-fired power plants provides an excellent prime material used in blended cement, mosaic tiles, and hollow blocks among others.sh

77. Ans (c)

Explanation: The Ghaggar-Hakra River is an intermittent, endorheic river in India and Pakistan that flows only during the monsoon season. The ephemeral Ghaggar-Hakra River of north western India has always been considered to be the remnant of an ancient perennial glacier-fed river (Vedic Saraswati). The exact reason and timing of major hydrological change of this river remains speculative. Most sites of the Mature Harappan Civilisation (aka Indus Valley Civilisation) (2600-1900 BCE) are actually found along the (dried-out) bed of the Ghaggar-Hakkar, while the Late Harappan Civilisation was centred on the upper Ghaggar-Hakkar and the lower Indus.

78. Ans (c) Explanation: • Polygar was the feudal title for a class of territorial administrative and military governors

appointed by the Nayaka rulers of South India (notably Vijayanagara Empire, Madurai Nayakas and the Kakatiya dynasty) during 16th – 18th centuries.

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• Palaiyakkarar was the head of Palayam (Tamil), Paleya (Kannada) or Paalem (Telugu), a fortified district or military camp devised by the noted general Ariyanatha Mudaliar of the Madurai Kingdom.

• The Polygar's role was to administer their Palaiyams (territories) from their fortified centres. Their chief functions were to collect taxes, maintain law and order, run the local judiciary, and maintain a battalion of troops for the king.

• They served as regional military and civil administrators. In turn they were to retain ¼ of the revenue collected as tax, and submit the remaining to the king's treasury. The Polygars also at times founded villages, built dams, constructed tanks and built temples. Also the rulers taxed regions according to the cultivable and fertility of the land. Often several new rainwater tanks were erected in the Semi-Arid tracts of western and south Tamil Nadu.

• Their armed status was also to protect the civilians from robbers and dacoits who were rampant in those regions and from invading armies which often resorted to pillaging the villages and countryside.

• The Polygars of Madurai Country were instrumental in establishing administrative reforms by building irrigation projects, forts and religious institutions. Their wars with the British East India Company after the demise of the Madurai Nayakas is often regarded as one of the earliest struggles for Indian independence. The British hanged many and banished others to the Andaman Islands.

79. Ans (d)

Explanation: • There are a number of schemes directly/indirectly affecting the nutritional status of children (0-6

years age) and pregnant women and lactating mothers. Inspite of these, level of malnutrition and related problems in the country is high. There is no dearth of schemes but lack of creating synergy and linking the schemes with each other to achieve common goal. NNM through robust convergence mechanism and other components would strive to create the synergy.

• NNM will be rolled out in three phases from 2017-18 to 2019-20. NNM targets to reduce stunting, under-nutrition, anemia (among young children, women and adolescent girls) and reduce low birth weight by 2%, 2%, 3% and 2% per annum respectively. Although the target to reduce Stunting is atleast 2% p.a., Mission would strive to achieve reduction in Stunting from 38.4% (NFHS-4) to 25% by 2022 (Mission 25 by 2022).

80. Ans (b)

Explanation: Normally, the supplier of goods or services pays the tax on supply. In the case of Reverse Charge, the receiver becomes liable to pay the tax, i.e., the chargeability gets reversed.

81. Ans (d)

Explanation: Bioassay is defined as estimation or determination of concentration or potency of physical, chemical or biological agents by means of measuring and comparing the magnitude of the response of the test with that of standard over a suitable biological system under standard set of conditions. Bioassay is a

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successful tool in estimation and discovery of biologically active substances and important application in sensitivity and specificity of pharmacological applications. Bioassay is used to detect biological hazards or give a quality assessment of a mixture. Bioassay is often used to monitor water quality, air quality and also sewage discharge and its impact on surrounding.

82. Ans (b) Explanation: • GRIHA is an acronym for Green Rating for Integrated Habitat Assessment. GRIHA is a Sanskrit word

meaning – ‘Abode’. Human Habitats (buildings) interact with the environment in various ways. Throughout their life cycles, from construction to operation and then demolition, they consume resources in the form of energy, water, materials, etc. and emit wastes either directly in the form of municipal wastes or indirectly as emissions from electricity generation. GRIHA attempts to minimize a building’s resource consumption, waste generation, and overall ecological impact to within certain nationally acceptable limits / benchmarks.

• GRIHA attempts to quantify aspects such as energy consumption, waste generation, renewable energy adoption, etc. so as to manage, control and reduce the same to the best possible extent.

• GRIHA is a rating tool that helps people assesses the performance of their building against certain nationally acceptable benchmarks. It evaluates the environmental performance of a building holistically over its entire life cycle, thereby providing a definitive standard for what constitutes a ‘green building’. The rating system, based on accepted energy and environmental principles, will seek to strike a balance between the established practices and emerging concepts, both national and international.

83. Ans (a)

Explanation: Statement 1: The Council of Europe promotes human rights through international conventions, such as the Convention on Preventing and Combating Violence against Women and Domestic Violence and the Convention on Cybercrime. It monitors member states' progress in these areas and makes recommendations through independent expert monitoring bodies. Council of Europe member states no longer apply the death penalty. Statement 2: The organisation is distinct from the 28-nation European Union (EU), although it is sometimes confused with it, partly because the EU has adopted the original European Flag which was created by the Council of Europe in 1955, as well as the European Anthem. No country has ever joined the EU without first belonging to the Council of Europe. The Council of Europe is an official United Nations Observer

84. Ans (b)

85. Ans (b) Explanation: Ameenpur Lake in Telangana was declared Biodiversity Heritage Site in 2016.It is the first in the country for a water body. The lake has become one of the biggest attractions for waterfowl and migratory birds drawing in legions of photographers and birdwatchers. With the biodiversity heritage tag given under the Biological Diversity Act 2002, the lake, which will now be managed by a locally constituted Biodiversity Management Committee, also becomes eligible for funding for upkeep of the lake as well as its protection.

86. Ans (b) Explanation: • Wildlife corridors, also known as "eco-bridges," are areas of habitat that connect wildlife

populations that would otherwise be separated by human activities or structures such as roads, other infrastructure development, or logging and farming. Practically speaking, a wildlife corridor is a link of wildlife habitat, generally made up from native vegetation, which joins two or more larger areas of similar wildlife habitat.

• In a first of its kind, Telangana State will have eco-friendly bridges over a canal cutting across the tiger corridor linking the Tadoba-Andhari Tiger Reserve (TATR) in the Chandrapur district of

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Maharashtra with the forests in Telangana's Kumram Bheem Asifabad district. The intervention requires the laying of fertile soil to grow grass and plants over the structure, so that fragmentation of the reserve forest is camouflaged.

• Eco-bridges may include: underpass tunnels, viaducts, and overpasses (mainly for large or herd-type animals); amphibian tunnels; fish ladders; Canopy bridge (especially for monkeys and squirrels), tunnels and culverts (for small mammals such as otters, hedgehogs, and badgers); green roofs (for butterflies and birds).

87. Ans (b)

Explanation: • Poona Pact, (Sept. 24, 1932), agreement between Hindu leaders in India granting new rights to

untouchables (low-caste Hindu groups). The pact, signed at Poona (now Pune, Maharashtra), resulted from the communal award of Aug. 4, 1932, made by the British government on the failure of the India parties to agree, which allotted seats in the various legislatures of India to the different communities. Mahatma Gandhi objected to the provision of separate electorates for the Scheduled (formerly “untouchable”) Castes, which in his view separated them from the whole Hindu community. Though in prison, Gandhi announced a fast unto death, which he began on September 18.

• Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar, the untouchable leader, who felt that his group’s special interests might be advanced by the government’s system, resisted concessions until Gandhi was near death. He and the Hindu leaders then agreed to the pact, which withdrew separate electorates but gave increased representation to the Scheduled Castes for a 10-year period. Ambedkar complained of blackmail, but the pact marked the start of movement against untouchability within the Indian nationalist movement.

88. Ans (d)

Explanation: Gandhi-Irwin Pact, agreement signed on March 5, 1931, between Mohandas K. Gandhi, leader of the Indian nationalist movement, and Lord Irwin (later Lord Halifax), British viceroy (1926–31) of India. It marked the end of a period of civil disobedience (satyagraha) in India against British rule that Gandhi and his followers had initiated with the Salt March (March–April 1930). Gandhi’s arrest and imprisonment at the end of the march, for illegally making salt, sparked one of his more effective civil disobedience movements. By the end of 1930, tens of thousands of Indians were in jail (including future Indian Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru), the movement had generated worldwide publicity, and Irwin was looking for a way to end it. Gandhi was released from custody in January 1931, and the two men began negotiating the terms of the pact. In the end, Gandhi pledged to give up the satyagraha campaign, and Irwin agreed to release those who had been imprisoned during it and to allow Indians to make salt for domestic use. Later that year Gandhi attended the second session (September–December) of the Round Table Conference in London.

89. Ans (a) Explanation: • Started in 1948 by the US-based Institute of Supply Management, the Purchasing Managers’

Index, or PMI, has now become one of the most closely watched indicators of business activity across the world

• For India, the PMI Data is published by Japanese firm Nikkei but compiled and constructed by Markit Economics (for the US, it is the ISM). A manufacturing PMI and a services PMI are prepared and published by the two. The Nikkei and markit economics websites says that PMI data are based on monthly surveys of carefully selected companies.

What is a PMI? • PMI or a Purchasing Managers’ Index (PMI) is an indicator of business activity -- both in the

manufacturing and services sectors. It is a survey-based measures that asks the respondents about changes in their perception of some key business variables from the month before. It is calculated separately for the manufacturing and services sectors and then a composite index is constructed.

• How does one read the PMI?

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• A figure above 50 denotes expansion in business activity. Anything below 50 denotes contraction. Higher the difference from this mid-point greater the expansion or contraction. The rate of expansion can also be judged by comparing the PMI with that of the previous month data. If the figure is higher than the previous month’s then the economy is expanding at a faster rate. If it is lower than the previous month then it is growing at a lower rate.

90. Ans (b)

Explanation: India's flagship scheme for energy efficiency is Perform, Achieve and Trade (PAT). Under PAT, obligated industries are required to achieve targets either by implementing energy efficient technologies or by purchasing energy efficiency certificates (ESCerts).

91. Ans (c) Explanation: Statement 1: South Asia Co-operative Environment Programme (SACEP) is an inter-governmental organization, established in 1982 by the governments of South Asia to promote and support protection, management and enhancement of the environment in the region. SACEP also serves as the secretariat of South Asian Seas Programme (SASP). Statement 2: SACEP member countries are Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka.

92. Ans (c) Explanation: The 2030 WRG was launched in 2008 at the World Economic Forum and has been hosted by The World Bank Group since 2012. The 2030 Water Resources Group is a unique public-private-civil society collaboration. It facilitates open, trust-based dialogue processes to drive action on water resources reform in water stressed countries in developing economies. The ultimate aim of such reforms and actions is to close the gap between water demand and supply by the year 2030.

93. Ans (a) Explanation: • The Paris Agreement provides for progress assessments (“stocktakes”) every five years in order to

ensure that Parties (UNFCCC term for countries) turn commitment into action and continue to regularly increase their ambition. The first full global stock take will occur in 2023 in order to prepare for a new round of climate commitments, known as Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs), by 2025. However, Parties felt it was important to initiate this cycle prior to the agreement’s anticipated entry into force in 2020, and so a process called the Talanoa Dialogue (initially called a facilitative dialogue) has been established for 2018 to serve as an initial stocktaking exercise.

• The Dialogue is a mandated process requested by Parties to take stock of collective efforts to reduce emissions and build greater resilience, in line with the long-term goals of the Paris Agreement and to prepare updated or new NDCs by 2020. Ultimately, the goal is to help Parties achieve maximum ambition in implementing and improving their NDCs. The Talanoa Dialogue was launched at COP23 in Bonn.

94. Ans (c)

Explanation: The National Green Tribunal has been established on 18.10.2010 under the National Green Tribunal Act 2010 for effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources including enforcement of any legal right relating to environment and giving relief and compensation for damages to persons and property and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto. It is a specialized body equipped with the necessary expertise to handle environmental disputes involving multi-disciplinary issues. The Tribunal shall not be bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, but shall be guided by principles of natural justice

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The NGT has the power to hear all civil cases relating to environmental issues and questions that are linked to the implementation of laws listed in Schedule I of the NGT Act. These include the following: 1. The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974; 2. The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Cess Act, 1977; 3. The Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980; 4. The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981; 5. The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986; 6. The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991; 7. The Biological Diversity Act, 2002. This means that any violations pertaining only to these laws, or any order / decision taken by the Government under these laws can be challenged before the NGT. Importantly, the NGT has not been vested with powers to hear any matter relating to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, the Indian Forest Act, 1927 and various laws enacted by States relating to forests, tree preservation etc. Therefore, specific and substantial issues related to these laws cannot be raised before the NGT. You will have to approach the State High Court or the Supreme Court.

95. Ans (b) Explanation: In the public interest, the Central or the State Government can exempt either wholly or partly, on the recommendations of the GST council, the supplies of goods or services or both from the levy of GST either absolutely or subject to conditions. Further the Government can exempt, under circumstances of an exceptional nature, by special order any goods or services or both. It has also been provided in the SGST Act and UTGST Act that any exemption granted under CGST Act shall be deemed to be exemption under the said Act.

96. Ans (b) Explanation: India has the highest trade deficit with China. With the US, India has a trade surplus. With Switzerland, India has a high trade deficit due to import in gold. India imports crude oil from Iraq and Electronics and Engineering goods from South Korea due to which there is a trade deficit. India incurred the highest trade deficits with the following countries: 1. China: -US$59.5 billion (country-specific trade deficit in 2017) 2. Switzerland: -$19.4 billion 3. Saudi Arabia: -$15.8 billion 4. Iraq: -$14 billion 5. Indonesia: -$12.5 billion 6. South Korea: -$11.7 billion 7. Australia: -$10.4 billion 8. Iran: -$8.5 billion 9. Qatar: -$6.9 billion 10. Nigeria: -$6.3 billion

97. Ans (d)

98. Ans (c)

Explanation: • The middle income trap is a theorized economic development situation, where a country which

attains a certain income (due to given advantages) will get stuck at that level. • Middle income trap is a situation for Middle Income Countries where they are not able to move

up to the Higher income status due to the operation of several adverse factors. • The “middle-income trap” is the phenomenon of hitherto rapidly growing economies stagnating at

middle-income levels (of per capita income) and failing to graduate into the ranks of high-income countries. At the same time, many other countries have made significant progress through industrialization. They were able to expand the national income and thus the per capita income.

• By accelerating structural changes and fastening industrialization, India should raise the per capita income in future so that it can attain a per capita income of upper middle income and later to higher income to escape from the trap.

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99. Ans (c)

Explanation: • WWF-India’s snow leopard study yielded photo evidence of the elusive species in Arunachal

Pradesh. Only a fraction of snow leopard habitat in the state falls into 2 protected areas i.e. Dibang Biosphere Reserve and Namdapha National Park.

• Desert National Park is situated in the Indian state of Rajasthan near the town of Jaisalmer. This is one of the largest national parks, covering an area of 3162 km². The great Indian Bustard is a magnificent bird and can be seen in considerably good numbers in this park. The Desert National Park is a unique and fragile ecosystem. More than 60 per cent of it is simply semi-arid desert.

• Golden langur, a charismatic primate species conspicuous by its lustrous creamy-golden fur and found only in few forest patches of Assam and Bhutan, has been listed in the "World's 25 Most Endangered Primates" In India its distribution is confined to approximately 2,500 square kilometre between the rivers Manas in the east, Sankosh in the west and Brahmaputra in the south in Assam

• The Nilgiri Tahr is an endangered caprid listed in Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972 and categorized as ‘endangered’ by the IUCN. It is endemic to the hill ranges of the Western Ghats of Southern peninsular India in pockets where a suitable mosaic of Montane Grasslands and rugged terrain exist. An estimated 700-800 Nilgiri Tahr inhabit Eravikulam National Park, making it the largest wild population in the world.

100. Ans (c)

Explanation: The ongoing schemes have been rationalized by the Government in financial year 2016-17 and have been brought under Umbrella ICDS as its sub-schemes. These sub-schemes need to be continued for delivering the child related services to the intended beneficiaries. The aims of these schemes are as under: • Anganwadi Services (ICDS) aims at holistic development of children under the age of six years and

its beneficiaries are children of this age group and Pregnant Women & Lactating Mothers. • The objective of the Scheme for Adolescent Girls is to facilitate, educate and empower

Adolescent Girls so as to enable them to become self-reliant and aware citizens through improved nutrition and health status, promoting awareness about health, hygiene, nutrition, mainstreaming out of school AGs into formal/non formal education and providing information/guidance about existing public services.

• The objectives of Child Protection Services are to provide safe and secure environment for children in conflict with law and children in need of care and protection, reduce vulnerabilities through a wide range of social protection measures, prevent actions that lead to abuse, neglect, exploitation, abandonment and separation of children from families etc., bring focus on non-institutional care, develop a platform for partnership between Government & Civil Society and establish convergence of child related social protection services.

• National Crèche Scheme aims at providing a safe place for mothers to leave their children while they are at work, and thus, is a measure for empowering women as it enables them to take up employment. At the same time, it is also an intervention towards protection and development of children in the age group of 6 months to 6 years.