SBI PO Exam Study Package {Examples+Papers} [2014] SCOrpion

1 SBI PO Exam 2014 eBook

2 SBI PO Exam Study Package

Preface

Jagranjosh’s State Bank of India Probationary Officers Recruitment Preparation Package (SBI PO Study Package) is an ideal platform for every candidate, who desires to achieve a good score in the SBI Probationary Officers Recruitment.

The SBI PO Study Package has been prepared by experts of Jagranjosh.com. Our team of experts has put in its utmost efforts to bring out a perfect preparation package by blending in all the ingredients of the bank recruitment examinations.

It is highly advisable for all those appearing for the examination to go through the package with utmost seriousness and time their performance. This will allow them to get used to the time limit set for the examination and accordingly manage time. Moreover the results of this exam should be taken as a benchmark for their preparations so far, and students should try to improve further more.

Jagranjosh SBI PO Exam Study Package includes-

Reasoning

Data Analysis and Interpretation

English Language

The questions from all the chapters have also been included to perfectly suit the candidates need and to finally overcome the written examination. We have tried hard to ensure that each and every question will help the students to brush their readings so far. The students on completion of the test will be left feeling more confident on their preparation skills and this will boost their overall performance at the time of the examination. JagranJosh.com requests all the students to provide their valuable feedback on the package, so we can provide better versions of preparatory packages to the candidates in the future.

Our team at Jagranjosh.com wishes all the students appearing for the examination.

All The Best.

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Contents

PREFACE ............................................................................................................................................. 1

REASONING ........................................................................................................................................ 6

Puzzles ................................................................................................................................................................... 6 Solved Examples ................................................................................................................................................ 7 Practice Questions ........................................................................................................................................... 15

Input- Output....................................................................................................................................................... 20 Solved Examples .............................................................................................................................................. 21 Practice Questions ........................................................................................................................................... 31

Syllogism ............................................................................................................................................................. 44 Solved Examples .............................................................................................................................................. 46 Practice Examples ............................................................................................................................................ 55

Data Sufficiency ................................................................................................................................................... 60 Practice Questions ........................................................................................................................................... 64

Coding-Decoding.................................................................................................................................................. 73 Practice Examples ............................................................................................................................................ 76

Coded Relations ................................................................................................................................................... 80 Practice Questions ........................................................................................................................................... 81

Digits/Symbols & Codes ....................................................................................................................................... 84 Practice Questions ........................................................................................................................................... 84

Strengthening and Weakening Arguments........................................................................................................... 87 Practice questions ............................................................................................................................................ 89

Courses of Action ................................................................................................................................................. 95 Practice Questions ........................................................................................................................................... 99

Cause and Effect ................................................................................................................................................ 106 Practice Questions ......................................................................................................................................... 107

Non Verbal Reasoning ....................................................................................................................................... 113 Solved Examples ............................................................................................................................................ 119 Practice Questions Set-1 ................................................................................................................................ 128 Practice Questions Set- 2 ............................................................................................................................... 131

DATA ANALYSIS AND INTERPRETATION ............................................................................. 135


Table Charts ....................................................................................................................................................... 138 Solved Examples ............................................................................................................................................ 139 Practice Questions ......................................................................................................................................... 142

Bar Graphs ......................................................................................................................................................... 146 Solved Examples ............................................................................................................................................ 146 Practice Questions ......................................................................................................................................... 156

Line Graphs ........................................................................................................................................................ 158 Solved Examples ............................................................................................................................................ 159 Practice Questions ......................................................................................................................................... 165

Pie Charts .......................................................................................................................................................... 167 Solved Examples ............................................................................................................................................ 168 Practice Questions ......................................................................................................................................... 177

Case Lets ............................................................................................................................................................ 180 Solved Examples ............................................................................................................................................ 181 Practice Questions ......................................................................................................................................... 187

Miscellaneous Graphs ........................................................................................................................................ 190 Solved Examples ............................................................................................................................................ 190

Permutations ..................................................................................................................................................... 199 Practice Questions ......................................................................................................................................... 201

Combinations .................................................................................................................................................... 210 Practice Questions ......................................................................................................................................... 212

Probability ......................................................................................................................................................... 222 Solved Examples ............................................................................................................................................ 225 Practice Questions ......................................................................................................................................... 231

Ratio & Proportion ............................................................................................................................................ 235 Practice Questions ......................................................................................................................................... 236

Average ............................................................................................................................................................. 239 Practice Questions ......................................................................................................................................... 241

Percentage ......................................................................................................................................................... 243 Practice Questions ......................................................................................................................................... 244

ENGLISH LANGUAGE ................................................................................................................... 246

Antonyms .......................................................................................................................................................... 246

List of Commonly used Antonyms ...................................................................................................................... 247

List of Some More Commonly used Antonym .................................................................................................... 250 Practice Examples .......................................................................................................................................... 256


Synonyms .......................................................................................................................................................... 260

List of Commonly used Synonyms ...................................................................................................................... 261 Solved Examples ............................................................................................................................................ 270 Practice questions .......................................................................................................................................... 274

Fill in the Blanks (Sentence Completion) ............................................................................................................ 278 Practice Questions set-1 ................................................................................................................................ 279 Practice Questions set-2 ................................................................................................................................ 284

Error Detection .................................................................................................................................................. 290

List of Important Prepositions with Uses ........................................................................................................... 298 Solved Examples ............................................................................................................................................ 304 Practice Questions ......................................................................................................................................... 307

Idioms & Phrases ............................................................................................................................................... 311 List of Important Idioms and Phrases ............................................................................................................. 311 Solved Examples ............................................................................................................................................ 323 Practice Questions ......................................................................................................................................... 329

Cloze Tests ......................................................................................................................................................... 335 Practice Questions ......................................................................................................................................... 337

Reading Comprehension (Passages) ................................................................................................................... 341 Practice Questions ......................................................................................................................................... 347

Sentence Reconstruction (Para Jumbled) ........................................................................................................... 356 Practice Questions ......................................................................................................................................... 360

FEEDBACK ..................................................................................................................................... 368


Reasoning

Puzzles

Introduction: In the reasoning section of State Bank of India Probationary Exam, the questions

from puzzles are very important to get good marks in the exam. The questions of puzzles can be

asked in 2 or 3 sets and the number of questions can be 10 to 15.

Here we will do some exercises of puzzles which are very much similar to the expected

questions of SBI PO Exam 2014.

In the chapter of puzzle test we get questions in the form of puzzles. Broadly there are five types of questions in this topic.

The problems can be classified into the following

(1) Classifications or categorization

(2) Questions based on blood relation

(3) Seating and placing arrangements

(4) Comparison type test

(5) Sequential order of things

(6) Selections based on certain given pre-conditions


SOLVED EXAMPLES

1. Classification or Categorization

In this type of test, the questions are based upon the given data belonging to different groups or possessing different qualities. You would be supposed to analyse data by placing the different items or concepts in different categories with the help of given information. These problems can be easily solved by constructing a proper table or chart.

Read the question carefully by keeping in mind every point or detail. It will take a few seconds. After reading the question, you will get the general idea as to what the general theme of the problem is. Determine the usefulness of each of the information and classify all the information into (P) Actual information (Q) Useful secondary information and finally (R) Negative information.

Refer to example given below:

Example ─ Read the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow.

There are six places P, Q, R, S, T and U. There are exactly two district parks, two shopping malls and two amusement parks not a district park.

Q and T are not shopping malls.

S is not an amusement park.

P and S are not shopping malls.

P and Q are not alike.

1) Which two cities are amusement parks? a) P and Q b) T and P c) R and S d) Q and U e) P and S

2) Which two cities are shopping malls? a) P and C b) Q and U c) R and U d) Q and T e) P and S


3) Which two cities are district parks? a) P and Q b) R and P c) Q and S d) P and U e) None of these

4) Which two cities are neither shopping malls nor district parks? a) P and Q b) P and T c) U and R d) Q and S e) None of these

Detailed Explanation:

Step ─ I: The information’s can be analysed in the following manner.

P Q R S T U

Shopping mall

Amusement park

District Park

Step ─ II: In the above-mentioned example, we see that first and last sentences have useful secondary information whereas all the remaining has negative information. By studying the second, third, fourth and fifth sentences we put × mark.

We can observe that above table gives some definite information about P and S. P is neither a shopping mall nor a district park. It is, therefore, an amusement park. In the same way, S is neither shopping mall nor amusement park so it must be a district park. We can mark at the appropriate places.

P Q R S T U

Shopping mall × × × ×

Amusement park

×

District Park ×


Step ─ III: Finally we come to useful secondary information and negative information, for instance P and Q are not alike. This means that Q is not an amusement park. As Q is not a shopping mall, so it must be a district park. Hence, the table will look like this:

Here in the example, there is no negative information about R and U and partly about T. We can assure that R and U are district parks, amusement park and shopping malls and T is amusement park as well as district park.

Step ─ IV: Now in the question it is given that there are exactly two district parks, two shopping malls and two amusement parks. We know the two district parks i.e. Q & S, so we put a × sign on others and then T has to be amusement park. Then we have the two amusement parks i.e. P and T, so we put a × sign on others. The table will look like this:

Now, U and R have to be Shopping Malls. Hence, our final table is as below:

P Q R S T U


Amusement park

× ×

District Park ×

P Q R S T U


Amusement park

× × × ×

District Park × ×

× ×

P Q R S T U


Amusement park

× × × ×

District park × ×

× ×


On the basis of above table, the answers can be drawn.

1. (b) P & T 2. (c) R & U 3. (c) Q & S 4. (b) P & T

2. Comparison Type Test

In such type of questions, comparison of different objects or persons has to be made with respect to one or more qualities. The candidates are required to analyse the information and form either ascending or descending sequence. There may be comparison of heights, marks and age etc.

This can be illustrated through the given example:

Example ─ Read the information given below and answer the questions that follow ─

i. There is a group of five boys. ii. Rohit is second in height but younger than Rahul. iii. Lalit is taller than Pradeep but younger in age. iv. Rahul and Pradeep are of the same age but Rahul is tallest among them. v. Sanjay is taller than Lalit and elder to Rahul.

5) If they are arranged in the ascending order of height who will be in third position? a) Pradeep b) Rahul c) Rohit d) Sanjay` e) Data inadequate

6) Who is the youngest person in the group? a) Pradeep b) Kamini c) Pradeep d) Rohit e) Data Inaquate

7) To answer the questions, “Who is the youngest person in group”, which of the given statements is superfluous? a) Only (i) b) Only (ii) c) Only (v) d) Either (i) or (iv) e) None of these


Answers with Explanation ─

We have to determine the sequence of height as well as sequence of age.

By (iii), We have Pradeep < Lalit

By (v), We have Lalit < Sanjay

It is clear that Rahul is the tallest and Rohit is second in height.

Hence, the sequence of height is

Pradeep < Lalit < Sanjay < Rohit < Rahul

For Age sequence

By (ii) we have Rohit < Rahul

(iii) we have Lalit < Pradeep

(iv) we have Rahul = Pradeep

(v) we have Rahul < Sanjay

There are two possibilities

I is Sanjay < R = Pradeep < Rohit < Lalit

II is Sanjay < R = Pradeep < Lalit < Rohit

5. (d) Clearly, in the increasing order of height Sanjay is in third position. 6. (d) Clearly, in the descending order of ages, Rohit is the youngest person. 7. (a) Clearly I statement is not necessary.

3. Selection Based on Certain Given Pre-conditions

This type of question is solved by keeping in mind various given pre-conditions and a few essential criteria for selection of group items. The candidate has to make the required selection as per the directions given in each question. The best way to solve these questions is through the options. Example ─ Directions ─ (Q. 8 to 12) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions below. A team of five is to be selected from amongst five boys P, Q, R, S and T and four girls A, B, C, and D. Some criteria for selection are ─

I. P and D have to be together II. A cannot be put with C

III. S and B cannot go together


IV. R and T have to be together V. C cannot be put with Q

8) If two of the members have to be boys, the team will consist of ─ a) PQDPB b) PSDBC c) QSDCB d) RTDAB

9) If C be one of the members, the other members of the team are ─ a) ADPS b) BDPS c) BDRT d) DPRT

10) If two of the members are girls and S is one of the members, the members of the team other than S are ─ a) ABQR b) ABRT c) ADPQ d) ADRT

11) If P and R are the members, the other members of the team cannot be ─ a) QTD b) STD c) TDA d) ABT

12) If including A at least three members are girls, the members of the team other than A are ─ a) BDPQ b) BDQS c) BDRT d) CDPS

Answers with Explanation ─

8. (A) If A is selected naturally S has to be selected. If B is selected R cannot be selected. If D is selected Q cannot be selected. So, the options ADSQR and QD are wrong and RTDCB is not possible because D has to be accompanied with P.

9. (D) If C is selected A cannot be selected, therefore option ADPS is wrong. S and B cannot go together. So, BDPS is wrong.


S and P have to be together. So, BDRT is wrong. Now, the team combination will be DPRT.

10. (C) If S is selected B cannot be selected. therefore ABQR and ABRT are not correct. D and P have to be always together. Therefore, ADRT is wrong.

11. (D) If P and R are the members, D and T have to be selected. Therefore, option (D) ABT is not the correct combination.

12. (A) Alpha numeric sequence is a sequence comprising of the combination of letters and numbers. In this type of sequence the letters and numbers may have a common sequence pattern or may have separate sequence patterns. In this type of questions, a jumbled sequence of some letters, numbers and symbols is given. Following examples will explain the concept of Alpha – Numeric Sequential Puzzle. Directions (Q. 13 to 17): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below:

R E 5 D A P $ 3 T I Q 7 9 B # 2 K % U 1 M W 4 * J 8 N 13. Which of the following is exactly in the middle between 3 and 1 in the above arrangement? (a) B (b) K (c) 9 (d) # (e) None of these 14. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and not immediately followed by a consonant? (a) None (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3 (e) none of these 15. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately followed by a number but not immediately preceded by a consonant? (a) None (b) 1 (c) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4


16. Which of the following is seventh to the left of the sixteenth from the left in the above arrangement? (a) A (b) U (c) 4 (d) T (e) none of these 17. Four of the following 5 are alike in a certain way based on their position in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which of the following does not belong to that group? (a) BK7 (b) M*U (c) DPE (d) WJ1 e) 3QP

Answers and Explanations:

13. (a) There are 11 elements between 3 and 1. So, the middle letter will be the sixth one, which is B.

14. (c) 7 and 4 are the two numbers. 15. (b) U is the only element. 16. (d) The 16th element from the left is 2, and the element 7 steps to the left of 2 is T. 17. (c) In all the other groups, the first element moves 3 steps forward to give the second element, which in turn moves 5 steps backward to the third element.


PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Directions (Q. 1 – 5): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given

below.

A, B, C, D, E, F and G are travelling in three different cars Alto, Punto and Vento and there are at

least two persons in any of these cars. Each of them has a favourite (likes) colour, viz black, red,

yellow, green, white, blue and pink, not necessarily in the same order.

B likes yellow and is not travelling in Vento.

The one who likes black is travelling in the same car in which E is travelling.

C likes blue and is travelling in the same car in which G is travelling.

D is going in Punto only with the one who likes pink.

G is not travelling either in Punto or Vento.

F does not like black.

G does not like either green or white.

D does not like green.

E does not like pink.

1. Who likes Black?

(a) A

(b) B

(c) C

(d) D

(e) None of these

2. Which of the following combinations is correct?

(a) D – Vento – White

(b) F – Alto – Pink

(c) G – Alto – Red

(d) B – Punto – Yellow

(e) All are correct


3. What is E’s favourite colour?

(a) Red

(b) Green

(c) White

(d) Either Black or Yellow

(e) None of these

4. Which of the following person is travelling in Alto?

(a) CD

(b) BCE

(c) DF

(d) BCG

(e) None of these

5. Who likes White?

(a) A

(b) B

(c) C

(d) Data inadequate

(e) None of these

Directions (Q. 6 – 10): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given

below.

A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table facing the centre but not necessarily in

the same order.

C is sitting third to the left of E.

D and G are not the immediate neighbour C and E.

A is second to the right of G and third to the left of H.

F is not an immediate neighbour of E.

6. Who is third to the left of G?

(a) E

(b) F

(c) H

(d) Data inadequate

(e) None of these


7. What is F’s position with respect to B?

(a) Fourth to the right

(b) Third to the left

(c) Third to the right

(d) Fourth to the left

(e) None of these

8. Who is fourth to the right of A?

(a) E

(b) F

(c) G

(d) H

(e) None of these

9. Who is second to the left of G?

(a) A

(b) B

(c) C

(d) D

(e) None of these

10. Who are the immediate neighbours of C?

(a) AB

(b) AC

(c) BF

(d) AF

(e) None of these

Directions (Q. 11 – 15): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions

given below.

There are six friends; A, B, C, D, E and F sitting around a circular table. All the friends are facing

the centre. All of them are working as a Doctor, Engineer, Lawyer, Teacher, Shop keeper and

Manager but not in the same order.

The manager and the teacher are the immediate neighbour of the shop keeper.

A is sitting second to the left of the shop keeper and second to the right of B who is a

lawyer.

Teacher is not an immediate neighbour of A.

Doctor is not the immediate neighbour of B.


F is a manager.

C is not an engineer.

E is neither an engineer nor a shop keeper.

11. D is working as a/an

(a) Doctor

(b) Engineer

(c) Teacher

(d) Data inadequate

(e) None of these

12. Who are the immediate neighbours of the engineer?

(a) Shop keeper and Lawyer

(b) Doctor and Manager

(c) Teacher and Lawyer

(d) Cannot be determined

(e) None of these

13. Who is sitting between A and C?

(a) B

(b) D

(c) E

(d) F

(e) None of these

14. What is F’s position with respect to D?

(a) Second to the right

(b) Third to the right

(c) Second to the left

(d) Third to the left

(e) None of these

15. Which of the following pairs is sitting opposite to each other?

(a) AC

(b) FE

(c) DC

(d) BD

(e) None of these


Answers:-

1. (a)

2. (c)

3. (b)

4. (d)

5. (e)

6. (c)

7. (b)

8. (a)

9. (e)

10. (d)

11. (b)

12. (e)

13. (d)

14. (a)

15. (c)


Input- Output

Introduction: The questions of Input-Output in the PO exams are very common and can be very

much scoring within few minutes. These questions are pattern based in which you have to find

the hidden pattern and then answer the given questions.

Here we will practice the questions of Input-Output

These are the problems that test your aptitude. You will be given some input and a machine (its working) using some examples. You have to study this working and accordingly process the data given to you.

In the questions related to this topic, you are expected to be the “machine”. You would be told what processing has to be done. You would be given the input, your job would be give the output in accordance to the input.

In the topic of input output there are primarily four types of operation that can be asked in a particular question. The four operations are as follows:

1. Ordering input according to given criteria, e.g. alphabetically, in increasing/decreasing order etc.

2. Mathematical Manipulations on the output which would in this case obviously be numerical. The operations could be doubling, squaring, adding.

3. Shifting or Interchanging positions of characters/alphabets/words etc., in the input according to questions e.g. ‘shift 1st character to last’ or ‘interchange 1st & last’ etc.

4. Others like making an alphabet capital, replacing alphabet by corresponding number etc.

So, which out of these is being used can be decided as:

If words (of the input) do not change in the output after an operation, the operations is either reordering or shifting. In this case check for rearrangement first, if it is not the operations performed then check for shifting next.

If words (of the input) do change in the output, the operation is either Mathematical (if numbers are used) or fall into category of other operations (if alphanumeric data is used).


SOLVED EXAMPLES

1. A computer rearranges a particular input using some operations 01, 02, 03, and 04.

Input: I have long waited for your arrival.

Step 01: arrival long have waited for your I Step 02: long arrival waited have for I your Step 03: Your waited arrival have for I long Step 04: Waited your have arrival for long I

If step 4 gives “I know you will not come back” what step will have “you back I come not will know”?

Solution: Since words remain unchanged here, so this is case of either rearrangement or shifting. So, let us number each word

I = 1, have = 2, long = 3, waited = 4, for = 5, your = 6, arrival = 7

Input: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7

Step 01: 7 3 2 4 5 6 1

Step 02: 3 7 4 2 5 1 6

Step 03: 6 4 7 2 5 1 3

Step 04: 4 6 2 7 5 3 1

So, the logic being following is as follows:-

Step 01 = Swap 1st & last; 2nd & 3rd

Step 02 = Swap 1st & 2nd, last two & 3rd and 4th

Step 03 = Swap 1st & last, 2nd & 3rd.

Step 04 = 1st & 2nd, last two, & 3rd and 4th.

Since after two steps operations again repeat and hence you can guess the 5th, 6th, 7th steps.

Step 04: I know you will not come back

Step 05: back you know will not come I

Step 06: You back will know not I come

Step 07: Come will back know not I you


Step 08: Will come know back not you I

Step 09: I know come back not you will

Step 10: Know I back come not will you

Step 11: You back I come not will know

Hence step 11 is the answer.

2. Answer the question on basis of the information given below.

Input: 36, 28, 16, 50, 45, 21, 70, 32

Step I: 70, 36, 28, 16, 50, 45, 21, 32

Step II: 70, 50, 36, 28, 16, 45, 21, 32

Step III: 70, 50, 45, 36, 28, 16, 21, 32

Step IV: 70, 50, 45, 36, 32, 28, 16, 21

Step V: 70, 50, 45, 36, 32, 28, 21, 16

I. If input is 71, 89, 53, 32, 20; how many steps would machine take? a) 4 b) 7 c) 5 d) either 7 or 5 II. If input is 102, 72, 32, 48, 110; which would be the last step? a) 110, 102, 72, 48, 32 b) 32, 48, 72, 102, 110 c) Cannot say d) None of these

Solution: It is obvious that machine arranges the number descending order:

I. Since we have 5 numbers, reordering them would require 4 steps, so machine would take 4 steps to complete. Answer is (a)

II. Since descending order is required, (a) is the obvious choice.

Directions (Q. 3-6): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:

A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement. (All the numbers are two-digit numbers.) (IBPS CWE (PO/MT) 2012)


Input: tall 48 13 rise alt 99 76 32 wise jar high 28 56 barn

Step I: 13 tall 48 rise 99 76 32 wise jar high 28 56 bam alt

Step II: 28 13 tall 48 rise 99 76 32 wise jar high 56 alt barn

Step III: 32 28 13 tall 48 rise 99 76 wise jar 56 alt barn high

Step IV: 48 32 28 13 tall rise 99 76 wise 56 alt barn high jar

Step V: 56 48 32 28 13 tall 99 76 wise alt barn high jar rise

Step VI: 76 56 48 32 28 13 99 wise alt barn high jar rise tall

Step VII: 99 76 56 48 32 28 13 alt barn high jar rise tall wise And Step VII is the last step of the above input, as the desired arrangement is obtained.

As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.

Input: 84 why sit 14 32 not best ink feet 51 27 vain 68 92 (All the numbers are two-digit numbers.)

3. Which step number is the following output? 32 27 14 84 why sit not 51 vain 92 68 feet best ink

1) Step V

2) Step VI

3) Step IV

4) Step III

5) There is no such step.

Solution:

The machine rearranges words and numbers in such a way that numbers are arranged from left side with the smallest number coming first and move subsequently so that in the last step numbers are arranged in descending order. While the words are arranged from right side as they appear in English alphabetical order.

Input: 84 why sit 14 32 not best ink feet 51 27 vain 68 92

Step I: 14 84 why sit 32 not ink feet 51 27 vain 68 92 best

Step II: 27 14 84 why sit 32 not ink 51 vain 68 92 best feet


Step III: 32 27 14 84 whys it not 51 vain 68 92 best feet ink

Step IV: 51 32 27 14 84 why sit vain 68 92 best feet ink not

Step V: 68 51 32 27 14 84 why vain 92 best feet ink not sit

Step VI: 84 68 51 32 27 14 why 92 best feet ink not sit vain

Step VII: 92 68 84 51 32 27 14 best feet ink not sit vain why

Ans. 5

4. Which word/number would be at 5th position from the right in Step V?

1) 14

2) 92

4) best

5) why

Solution:










Ans. 4


5. How many elements (words or numbers) are there between 'feet' and '32' as they appear in the last step of the output?

1) One

2) Three

4) Five

5) Seven

Solution:










Ans. 2; 27, 14 and best

6. Which of the following represents the position of ‘why' in the fourth step?

1) Eighth from the left

2) Fifth from the right

3) Sixth from the left

4) Fifth from the left

5) Seventh from the left


Solution:










4. 3; Step IV: 51 32 27 14 84 why sit vain 68 92 best feet ink not

The position of 'why' in this step is sixth from the left end.

Directions (Q. 7-11): Study the following information to answer the given questions.

A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule. The following is an il1ustration of input and rearrangement. (All the numbers are two-digit numbers.) (IBPS CWE PO/MT 2011)

Input: sine 88 71 cos theta 14 56 gamma delta 26

Step I. cos sine 71 theta 14 56 gamma delta 26 88

Step II. delta cos sine theta 14 56 gamma 26 88 71

Step III. gamma delta cos sine theta 14 26 88 71 56

Step IV. sine gamma delta cos theta 14 88 71 56 26

Step V. theta sine gamma delta cos 88 71 56 26 14

Step V is the last step of the rearrangement.

As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate steps for the given input.


Input for the questions:

Input: for 52 all 96 25 jam road 15 hut 73 bus stop 38 46

(All the numbers given in the arrangement are two-digit numbers.)

7. Which word/number would be at 8th position from the right in step IV?

1) 15

2) road

3) hut

4) jam

5) stop

Solution:


Step I. all for 52 25 jam road 15 hut 73 bus stop 38 46 96

Step II. bus all for 52 25 jam road 15 hut stop 38 46 96 73

Step III. for bus all 25 jam road 15 hut stop 38 46 96 73 52

Step IV. hut for bus all 25 jam road 15 stop 38 96 73 52 46

Step V. jam hut for bus all 25 road 15 stop 96 73 52 46 38

Step VI. road jam hut for bus all 15 stop 96 73 52 46 38 25

Step VII. stop road jam hut for bus all 96 73 52 46 38 25 15

Step IV: hut for bus all 25 jam road 15 stop 38 96 73 52 46 Eighth from the right - road.

Ans. 2;

8. Which step number would be the following output? bus all for 52 25 jam road 15 hut stop 38 46 96 73

1) There will be no such step.

2) III

3) II

4) V


5) VI

Solution:










Ans. 3

9. Which of the following would be step VII?

1) stop road jam hut for bus all 15 96 73 52 46 38 25

2) road jam hut for bus all stop 15 25 38 46 52 73 96

3) stop road jam hut for bus all 96 73 52 46 38 25 15

4) jam hut for bus all 25 road stop 15 96 73 52 46 38

5) There will be no such step.

Solution:











Ans. 3

10. Which word/number would be at 6th position from the left in step V?

1) 25

2) stop

3) jam

4) all

5) road

Solution:










Ans. 1; Step V: Jam hut for bus all 25 road 15 stop 96 73 52 46 38 Sixth from the left is 25

11. Which of the following would be step III?

1) hut for bus all 25 jam road 15 stop 38 96 73 52 46

2) for bus all 25 jam road 15 hut 38 stop 96 46 73 52

3) hut for bus all jam road 15 stop 38 96 73 52 46 25


4) for bus all 25 jam road 15 hut stop 38 46 96 73 52

5) None of these

Solution:










Ans. 4


PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Directions (Q. 1 to 5): Refer to the following data, answer the question that follows a set of

numbers when put through a machine comes out in a particular sequence. The table is given

which has six steps. Study the table and answer the questions that follow:

Input: 94 32 54 18 09 08 17 21 68 77 84 92

Step 1: 94 32 54 18 09 17 21 68 77 84 92 08

Step 2: 94 92 32 54 18 17 21 68 77 84 09 08

Step 3: 94 92 84 32 54 18 21 68 77 17 09 08

Step 4: 94 92 84 77 32 54 21 68 18 17 09 08

Step 5: 94 92 84 77 68 32 54 21 18 17 09 08

Step 6: 94 92 84 77 68 54 32 21 18 17 09 08

1. If two new numbers 30 and 22 are added to the sequence, then the position of number 32

with respect to 94 in the last step would be:

(a) 7th

(b) 9th

(c) 10th

(d) 8th

(e) 6th

2. By putting the sequence given below in the same machine, what would be the third step in

the sequence?

Input: 24 28 37 11 78 89 96 68 48 54

(a) 96 89 78 11 24 28 37 68 54 48

(b) 96 78 37 89 68 54 48 28 24 11

(c) 96 89 78 37 68 54 48 28 24 11

(d) 89 78 96 37 68 54 11 28 48 24

(e) None of these


3. For the sequence in above question what will be the 7th number from left?

(a) 37

(b) 54

(c) 48

(d) 24

(e) None of these

4. What would be the middle term of the following sequence after final step?

Input: 24 36 48 54 09 11 17 26 98

(a) 26

(b) 36

(c) 24

(d) 48

(e) none of these

5. For the sequence in above question, how many steps are involved to get the final

arrangement?

(a) 3

(b) 4

(c) 5

(d) 6

(e) none of these

Directions (Q. 6 to 10): The arrangements of given input will follow a particular logic.

Understand this logic and solve the questions that follow.

Input: 45 328 877 24 159 648

Step 1: 877 328 45 24 159 648

Step 2: 877 328 45 648 159 24

Step 3: 877 648 45 328 159 24

Step 4: 877 648 159 328 45 24

Output: 877 648 328 159 45 24


6. Which of the following will be 2nd last result of the following input:

Input: 92 87 153 234 645

(a) 92 153 87 234 645

(b) 87 92 153 234 645

(c) 645 92 153 234 87

(d) None of these

(e) Can’t be determined

7. If the given result is 5th and final then what will be the input?

Step 5: 334 224 114 84 64 4

(a) 224 114 84 64 4 334

(b) 114 224 84 4 64 334

(c) 334 224 4 84 64 114

(d) None of these


8. Which will be the last result of given input?

Input: 789 798 79 98 778

(a) 798 79 98 789 778

(b) 778 79 789 98 798

(c) 79 98 778 789 798

(d) 798 789 778 98 79

(e) None of these

9. Given result is first which will be the IIIrd result of input?

Step 1: 656 224 170 589 264

(a) 656 224 589 170 264

(b) 224 656 589 170 264

(c) 264 170 589 656 224

(d) None of these


10. Following is the fourth result what will be the sixth?

Step 4: 317 314 263 219 87 85

(a) 317 314 219 263 87 85

(b) 85 87 219 263 314 317

(c) 263 87 219 85 314 317

(d) None of these



Directions for questions 11 to 15: A word arrangement, when rearranged by given input

follows a particular logic behind it. Study that logic and answer the questions that follow.

Input: Blankets And Warm Quilts Help In Winter.

Step 1: Winter Blankets And Warm Quilts Help In

Step 2: Winter Warm Blankets And Quilts Help In

Step 3: Winter Warm Quilts Blankets And Help In

Step 4: Winter Warm Quilts In Blankets And Help

Output: Winter Warm Quilts In Help Blankets And

11. Which of the following will be Step 2 for the given input?

Input: “Life without success is boring”

(a) Is life boring without success

(b) Without life is boring success

(c) Without success life is boring

(d) Data insufficient

(e) None of these

12. In the above question, how many steps are required to get the final output?

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) 4

(e) None of these

13. If the following Step is 2nd for a certain input then what will be the fourth Step?

Step-II: The success my is outcome of diligence.

(a) My success is outcome of the diligence

(b) The my success is outcome of diligence

(c) Success is the outcome of my diligence

(d) The success outcome of my is diligence

(e) None of these


14. Which of the following will be the last Step of given input?

Input: “Never break your elders trust.”

(a) Break never trust your elders

(b) Trust your elders never break

(c) Break your elders trust never

(d) Can’t be determined

(e) None of these

15. How many Steps will be required to get the final output in the above question?

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) 4

(e) None of these

Directions for questions 16 to 20: A word arrangement machine, when given an input line of

words, rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration

of input and the steps rearrangement.

Input: Guest forum to Thank Busy Easter To Access Bank

Step 1: Access Guest forum to Thank Busy Easter To Bank

Step 2: Access Bank Guest forum to Thank Busy Easter To

Step 3: Access Bank Busy Guest forum to Thank Easter To

Step 4: Access Bank Busy Easter Guest forum to Thank To

Step 5: Access Bank Busy Easter forum Guest to Thank To

Step 6: Access Bank Busy Easter forum Guest Thank to To

Step 7: Access Bank Busy Easter forum Guest Thank To to


As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in the given questions the appropriate

step for the given input.

16. Which of the following will be Step 4 for the given input?

Input: Star Fast arise on water Heater attire

(a) arise attire Fast Heater on water star

(b) arise attire Fast Heater on star water

(c) arise attire Fast Heater star on water

(d) arise attire Heater Fast star on water

(e) None of these

17. Which of the following steps will be the last but one?

Input: The other stations on first target sorted

(a) 2

(b) 3

(c) 4

(d) 5

(e) None of these

18. The Step II of an input is as follows: “are Dare persons to over that”

Which of the following would definitely be the input?

(a) Dare over persons to are that

(b) Dare persons to are that over

(c) Dare are persons to over that


(e) None of these

19. Which of the following steps would be: “an and every for peer to”?

Input: every and peer to an for

(a) 2

(b) 3

(c) 4

(d) 5

(e) None of these


20. Which step number will be the last step of the above input?

Input: Over Go Forum the at once

(a) 3

(b) 5

(c) 6

(d) 7

(e) None of these

Answers:-

1. (e)

2. (e)

3. (b)

4. (a)

5. (b)

6. (c)

7. (e)

8. (d)

9. (d)

10. (e)

11. (c)

12. (b)

13. (d)

14. (e)

15. (c)

16. (c)

17. (d)

18. (e)

19. (b)

20. (e)


Answer and Explanations

Solutions to questions 1 to 5:

The above questions can be solved using the following rules:

Input: 94 32 54 18 09 08 17 21 68 77 84 92

Step 1: The smallest is found out and is put at the end. At the same time, the largest is found

out and placed at the beginning of the series.

94 32 54 18 09 17 21 68 77 84 92 08

Step 2: leaving the ones that have been sent at the end of the sequence, step 1 is repeated till

the series is in decreasing order.

94 92 32 54 18 17 21 68 77 84 09 08

Step 3: 94 92 84 32 54 18 21 68 77 17 09 08

Step 4: 94 92 84 77 32 54 21 68 18 17 09 08

Step 5: 94 92 84 77 68 32 54 21 18 17 09 08

Step 6: 94 92 84 77 68 54 32 21 18 17 09 08

Q1: Ans. (e)

Final step would be the series in descending order. There is no need to go through all the steps.

The last step after re-arranging will be:

94 92 84 77 68 54 32 30 22 21 18 17 09 08

Q2: Ans. (e)

Input: 24 28 37 11 78 89 96 68 48 54

Step 1: 96 24 28 37 78 89 68 48 54 11

Step 2: 96 89 28 37 78 68 48 54 24 11

Step 3: 96 89 78 37 68 48 54 28 24 11


Q3: Ans. (b)

From above

Q4: Ans. (a)

Final step would be the series in descending order. There is no need to go through all the steps.

The last step after re-arranging will be:

98 54 48 36 26 24 17 11 09

Q5: Ans. (b)

Input: 24 36 48 54 09 11 17 26 98

Step 1: 98 24 36 48 54 11 17 26 09

Step 2: 98 54 24 36 48 17 26 11 09

Step 3: 98 54 48 24 36 26 17 11 09

Step 4: 98 54 48 36 26 24 17 11 09

Solutions to questions 6 to 10:

The above questions can be solved using the following rules:

Input: 45 328 877 24 159 648

Step 1: The largest interchanges its position with the first one. 87745

877 328 45 24 159 648

Step 2: The smallest interchanges its position with the last one. 24648

877 328 45 648 159 24

Step 3: Now the first and the last are left-out and steps 1 and 2 are repeated till the

sequence is arranged in descending order.

648328

877 648 45 328 159 24

Step 4: 45159


877 648 159 328 45 24

Step 5: 328159

877 648 328 159 45 24

(This is final output, as the series is now arranged in descending order.)

Q6: Ans. (c)

Input: 92 87 153 234 645

Step 1: 645 87 153 234 92

Step 2: 645 92 153 234 87

Step 3: 645 234 153 92 87

So the 2nd last will be Result 2.

Q7: Ans. (e)

Previous steps can’t be determined as we can’t assume the position of the number in previous

results.

Q8: Ans. (d)

The answer can be easily found out by re-arranging the series in descending order. There is no

need to go through all the steps.

Q9: Ans (d)

Step 1: 656 224 170 589 264

Step 2: 656 224 264 589 170

Step 3: 656 589 264 224 170

Q10: Ans. (e)

Because 317 314 263 219 87 85 is already arranged in descending order.


Solutions to Questions 11 to 15: These questions are based on alphabetical reverse order like Z

Y X W V U. In every step the lowest in alphabetical order is found out and put at the beginning.

Input: Blankets And Warm Quilts Help In Winter.

Step 1: Winter Blankets And Warm Quilts Help In

Step 2: Winter Warm Blankets And Quilts Help In

Step 3: Winter Warm Quilts Blankets And Help In

Step 4: Winter Warm Quilts In Blankets And Help

Step 5: Winter Warm Quilts In Help Blankets And (This is the final step)

Q11: Ans. (c)

Input: Life without success is boring

Step 1: Without life success is boring

Step 2: Without success life is boring (This is the final step)

Q12: Ans. (b)

Q13: Ans. (d)

Step 2: The success my is outcome of diligence.

Step 3: The success outcome my is of diligence.

Step 4: The success outcome of my is diligence.

Q14: Ans. (e)

In such type of problems direct rule follows that is to arrange the input in descending order.

Last Step will be “Your trust never elders break”

Q15: Ans (c)

Input: Never break your elders trust.

Step 1: Your never break elders trust

Step 2: Your trust never break elders


Step 3: Your trust never elders break

Solution for questions 16 to 20

In the given arrangement, the words have been arranged alphabetically in a sequence, altering

the position of only one word in each step.

Input: Guest forum to Thank Busy Easter To Access Bank

Step 1: Access Guest forum to Thank Busy Easter To Bank

Step 2: Access Bank Guest forum to Thank Busy Easter To

Step 3: Access Bank Busy Guest forum to Thank Easter To

Step 4: Access Bank Busy Easter Guest forum to Thank To

Step 5: Access Bank Busy Easter forum Guest to Thank To

Step 6: Access Bank Busy Easter forum Guest Thank to To

Step 7: Access Bank Busy Easter forum Guest Thank To to

Q16: Ans. (c)

Input: star Fast arise on water Heater at

Step 1: arise star Fast on water Heater at

Step 2: arise at star Fast on water Heater

Step 3: arise at Fast star on water Heater

Step 4: arise at Fast Heater star on water

Q17: Ans. (d)

Input: The other stations on first target sorted

Step 1: first The other stations on target sorted

Step 2: first on The other stations target sorted

Step 3: first on other The stations target sorted

Step 4: first on other stations The target sorted


Step 5: first on other stations sorted The target

Step 6: first on other stations sorted target The

Clearly, Step 6 is the last step and 5 is the last but one (second last).

Q18: Ans. (e)

Clearly, none of the given input gives the desired output at Step 2 on rearrangement.

Q19: Ans. (b)

Input: every and peer to an for

Step 1: an every and peer to for

Step 2: an and every peer to for

Step 3: an and every for peer to

Q20: Ans. (e)

Input: Over Go Forum the at once

Step 1: at Over Go Forum the once

Step 2: at Forum Over Go the once

Step 3: at Forum Go Over the once

Step 4: at Forum Go once Over the

Since, all the words in the given input have been arranged alphabetically in Step 4, so it is the

last step.


Syllogism

Introduction: In this unit we will study some useful concepts of Syllogism and questions which

are generally asked in the SBI PO Exam. After analyzing previous year papers, it is clear that in

the exam you can get 5 to 7 questions from Syllogism.

Syllogism: The literal meaning of syllogism is ‘Conclusion’ or ‘inference’. The questions in the

syllogism are in the form of statements (premises) followed by Conclusion (proposition) and the

students are asked to find the correct conclusion on the basis of the statements.

The general form of statements and conclusions in the syllogism is;

All As are Bs.

Some As are Bs.

No A is a B.

The graphical representation of the statements

1. All As are Bs.

2. Some As are Bs.

3. No A is a B.

Syllogism is mode of thinking in which one reasons from two statements or propositions, called premises to a third statement or a propositions called the conclusion. A premise is a statement that serves as the basis of the argument. Let us see some statements to elaborate the concept.


1. All stars twinkle

In this statement all the stars are twinkles, hence they should come under twinkles. So the representation will be as follows:

S = Stars, T = Twinkle

2. Some stars twinkle.

As in this statement only some stars are twinkles, there should be two intersecting circles. So the representation will be as follows:

The shaded area represents the stars that twinkle. S = Stars, T = Twinkle

3. No stars twinkle

As no stars twinkle, hence these two are independent of each other. So the representation will be as follows:


4. Only stars twinkle

In this case only stars twinkle, twinkle will come under stars. Nothing else can twinkle so twinkle will not have anything except starts intersecting with it. So the representation will be as follows:


Let us now see some examples to understand this better.

S

T

S T

S T

S

T


SOLVED EXAMPLES

1. Statements: 1. All trees are green.

2. Banyan is a tree.

Solution) We will get the following diagrams from the above two statements.

B = Banyan, T = Tree, G = Green,

As seen from the diagram, if all trees are green and Banyan is a tree. Banyan is included in the set of Greens and must be Green as well.

2. Statements: 1. some professors are serious peoples.

2. All serious people wear spectacles.

Solution) We will get the following diagrams from the above two statements.

Therefore some professors wear spectacles. Here the shaded area represents those professors who wear spectacles

3. Statements: 1. All dogs bark.

2. Tommy barks

Solution) Here, Tommy is another element in the set of barking things and may not be a dog. The diagrammatic representation would be as follows:

B

T

G

Proof

Serious People

those who wear spectacles

Prof


However, here we cannot conclude that Tommy is a dog. All we can conclude is that Tommy may or may not be a dog.

4. Statements I : All tomatoes are red.

Statements II : All grapes are tomatoes.

Conclusion I : All grapes are red.

Conclusion II : Some tomatoes are grapes.

Solution) The statements will give the following diagram:

When all tomatoes are red and all grapes are tomatoes, then all grapes are also red. When all grapes are tomatoes, then some tomatoes must be grapes. Therefore, both conclusions I and II are correct.

5. Statements I : All rivers are mountains.

Statements II : Some rivers are deserts.

Conclusion I : Some mountains are deserts.

Conclusion II : Some deserts are not mountains.

Grapes

Tomatoes

Red


Solution) The statements will give the following diagram:

or

When all rivers are mountains and some rivers are deserts, then some deserts may or may not be mountains. Therefore, only conclusion I follow.

Directions (Q.6-12): In each group of questions below are given two/three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two/three statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer

1) if only conclusion I follows.

2) if only conclusion II follows.

3) if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.

4) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.

5) if both conclusion I and conclusion II follow.

6. Statements:

Some exams are tests.

No exam is a question.

Conclusions:

I. No question is a test.

II. Some tests are definitely not exams.

Mountains

Rivers Deserts

Rivers Deserts

Mountains


Solution:

Ans. 4; Some exams are tests → conversion → Some tests are exams (I) + No exam is a question (E) = I + E = O = Some tests are not questions.

Hence, neither conclusion I nor II follows.

7. Statements:

All forces are energies.

All energies are powers.

No power is heat.

Conclusions:

I. Some forces are definitely not powers.

II. No heat is force.

Solution:

Ans. 2; All forces are energies (A) + All energies are powers (A) = A + A = A = All forces are powers (A) + No power is heat (E) = A + E = E = No force is heat → conversion → No heat is force.

Hence, conclusion II follows but conclusion I does not follow.

8. Statements:

All forces are energies.

All energies are powers.

No power is heat.

Conclusions:

I. No energy is heat.

II. Some forces being heat is a possibility.

Solution:

Ans. 1; All energies are powers (A) + No power is heat (E) = A + E = E = No energy is heat.

Hence, conclusion I follows.

But, All forces are power (A) + No power is heat (E) = A + E = E = No force is heat.


So, conclusion II does not follow.

9. Statements:

No note is a coin.

Some coins are metals.

All plastics are notes.

Conclusions:

I. No coin is plastic.

II. All plastics being metals is a possibility.

Solution:

Ans. 5; All plastics are notes (A) + No note is a coin (E) = A + E = E = No plastic is a coin → conversion → No coin is plastic.


Again, No plastic is coin (E) + Some coins are metals (I) = E + I= O* = Some metals are not plastics. It means All plastics being metals is a possibility.

10. Statements:

No note is a coin.

Some coins are metals.

All plastics are notes.

Conclusions:

I. No metal is plastic.

II. All notes are plastics.

Solution:

Ans. 4; All plastics are notes (A) → conversion → Some notes are plastics.

Hence, conclusion II does not follow.

Again, All plastics are notes (A) + No note is a coin (E) = A + E = E = No plastic is a coin (E) + Some coins are metals (I) = E + I = O* = Some metals are not plastics.

Hence, conclusion I does not follow.


Thus neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.

11. Statements:

Some symbols are figures.

All symbols are graphics.

No graphic is a picture.

Conclusions:

I. Some graphics are figures.

II. No symbol is a picture.

Solution:

Ans. 5; Some symbols are figures → conversion → Some figures are symbols (I) + All symbols are graphics (A) = I + A = I = Some figures are graphics → conversion → Some graphics are figures.


Again, All symbols are graphics (A) + No graphic is a picture (E) = A + E = E = No symbol is a picture.

Hence, conclusion II follows.

Thus, both conclusion I and II follow.

12. Statements:

All vacancies are jobs.

Some jobs are occupations.

Conclusions:

I. All vacancies are occupations.

II. All occupations being vacancies is a possibility.

Solution:

Ans. 2; All vacancies are jobs (A) + Some jobs are occupations (I) = A + I = No conclusion.

Hence, I does not follow.


All vacancies are jobs → conversion → Some jobs are vacancies (I) + Some jobs are occupation (I) = I + I = I = No conclusion

However, All occupations being vacancies is a possibility.

Thus, conclusion II follows.

Directions (Q. 13-17): In each question below are given two/three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer

1) if only conclusion I follows.

2) if only conclusion II follows.

3) if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.

4) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.

5) if both conclusion I and conclusion II follow.

13. Statements:

All gliders are parachutes.

No parachute is an airplane.

All airplanes are helicopters.

Conclusions:

I. No helicopter is a glider.

II. All parachutes being helicopters is a possibility.

Solution:

Ans. 2; All gliders are parachutes + No parachute is an airplane = A + E = E = No glider is an airplane + All airplanes are helicopters = E + A = O* = Some helicopters are not gliders.

Hence I does not follow. No parachute is an airplane + All airplanes are helicopter = E + A = 0* = Some helicopters are not parachutes. That leaves us with the possibility of II.

14. Statements:

All gliders are parachutes.

No parachute is an airplane.


All airplanes are helicopters.

Conclusions:

I. No glider is an airplane.

II. All gliders being helicopters is a possibility.

Solution:

Ans. 5; I follows (see above). Again, we get Some helicopters are not gliders. That leaves us with the possibility of II.

15. Statements:

Some mails are chats.

All updates are chats.

Conclusions:

I. All mails being updates is a possibility.

II. No update is a mail.

Solution:

Ans. 1; There are not negative statements.

16. Statements:

No stone is metal.

Some metals are papers.

All papers are glass.

Conclusions:

I. No glass is metal.

II. At least some glasses are metals.

Solution:

Ans. 2; Some metals are papers + All papers are glass = I + A = I = Some metals are glasses → conversion → Some glasses are metals (I).


17. Statements:

No stone is metal.

Some metals are papers.

All papers are glass.

Conclusions:

I. All stones being glass is a possibility.

II. No stone is paper.

Solution:

Ans. 1; No stone is metal + Some metals are glasses = E + I = 0* = Some glasses are not stones. That still leaves us with the possibility in conclusion I. No stone is metal + Some metals are papers = E + I = 0* = Some papers are not stones. Hence II does not follow.


PRACTICE EXAMPLES

Direction (Q. 1 – 10): In each questions below there are two/three statements followed by two

conclusions I and II. Assuming both the statements true, you have to decide which of the two

conclusions logically follows the statements. Give your answer

(a) If only conclusion I follows.

(b) If only conclusion II follows.

(c) If either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.

(d) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.

(e) If both conclusion I and conclusion II follow.

1. Statements: Some pens are pencils.

Some pencils are books.

Conclusions: I. Some pens are books.

II. All books are pens.

2. Statements: All bottles are bags.

All bags are buses.

Conclusions: I. Some bags are bottles.

II. All bags are bottles.

3. Statements: All pens are pencils.

No pencil is a book.

Conclusions: I. Some books are pens.

II. Some pencils are pens.


4. Statements: Some cups are plates.

No plates are bottle.

Conclusions: I. Some bottles are cups

II. No bottle is a cup.

5. Statements: All cups are plates.

All Plates are bottles.

Conclusions: I. Some bottles are cups.

II. Some plates are bottles.

6. Statements: No plane is a river.

No river is a mountain.

Conclusions: I. Some mountains are planes.

II. No mountain is a plane.

7. Statements: No plane is a river.

All rivers are mountains.

All planes are cities.

Conclusions: I. No plane is a mountain.

II. Some rivers are cities.

8. Statements: Some planes are rivers.

Some rivers are mountains.

Some mountains are cities.

Conclusions: I. Some planes are mountains.

II. Some rivers are cities.


9. Statements: All planes are rivers.

All rivers are mountains.

No mountain is a city.

Conclusions: I. Some cities are rivers.

II. Some mountains are planes.

10. Statements: Some planes are rivers.

Some rivers are mountains.


Conclusions: I. Some cities are planes.

II. No city is a plane.

11. Statement: Some planes are rivers.

No river is a mountain.


Conclusion: I. Some cities are rivers.

II. No city is a river.

Answers:

1. (d)

2. (a)

3. (b)

4. (c)

5. (e)

6. (c)

7. (d)

8. (d)

9. (b)

10. (c)


Explanations:

1. The diagram;

2. The diagram;

3. The diagram;

4. The diagram;


6. The diagram;

7. The diagram can be;

10. The diagram;


Data Sufficiency

Introduction: In the SBI PO exam you can get 5 to 7 questions from data sufficiency test. In this

type of questions the candidates are required to find out whether a questions can be answered

or not with the help of the given data.

Here, we will practice few questions of Data Sufficiency Test

Data sufficiency questions are associated more with quantitative ability. These questions require maximum clarity of understanding. In DS question we need to decide whether the data given is sufficient to answer the question or not.

Each problem consists of a question followed by two statement I and II. We have to determine whether the information given by the statements is sufficient to answer the question with this we should also rely on our knowledge of mathematics and ordinary facts. These are the five option generally provided in the question paper:

(a) Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.

(b) Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

(c) Either statement I or II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

(d) Both the statement together are necessary to answer the question.

(e) Neither statement I nor II is sufficient to answer the question


Flow chart for solving DS questions:

Tricks:

To solve DS questions we should go through the following tricks

1. The given data should provide the unique answer only, then it will be considered as

valid.

2. But the unique answer does not mean that it cannot have two different answers from

two different statements separately.

3. The statement which simply states a mathematics formula is not sufficient to answer

the question.

4. The data is not sufficient if a statement only repeats the information given in the

question.

5. Each statement should be treated as a separate statement. The statement I can give us

something useful and then may be the same information is given in statement II with

some variation, what we generally do is we dump the statement II thinking that we

already have the information in statement I and we do not need the statement II. But

there is also an option that either of the two statements alone can solve the question.

So solve both the statement separately.

6. There is an option that either of the two statements alone can solve the question. Do

not choose this option just because one statement is helpful. We positively need both

the statement.

7. Do not forget to try both the statement together. In a big rush we often eliminate

choice (a) because statement I does not work. Then we eliminate (b) as statement II


does not work. And then immediately we mark the option that state that neither of the

statement is sufficient. We forget that there is a choice that state both the statement

together is necessary to solve the question.

8. As soon as we come to know that the data is sufficient to answer the question, stop. Do

not try to solve these DS problems till the end as the section is called data sufficiency

not problem solving.

Example 1. The remainder when x is divided by 30 is?

I. X is a multiple of 3.

II. X is a multiple of 7

Solution: (e) Neither statement I and II a one nor taken together can give us the remainder as in this case remainder will vary with the value of x.

Example 2. The average of 3 consecutive odd integers is?

I. One of the integer is -1

II. The sum of two of the integers is 4

Solution: (d) From statement I, we get

a-2 a a+2

-1 1 3

-3 -1 1

-5 -3 -1

So we cannot find the average from statement I only.

Using only II we can say that the numbers are -1, 1-, 3 or 1, 3, 5

Using both the only possibility is -1, 1, 3 and hence the average can be find out


Example 3. How many students appeared for the examination?

I. The passed students are only 40%.

II. The pass percentage would have been 42% if 10 more students passed the exam.

Solution: (d) Let the total number of student appeared in the exam be x

Statement I gives the information of passed student i.e 40%.

Statement II is also not complete alone.

If both the statement are combined together we get , 40𝑥

100+ 10 =

42𝑥

100

⟹ 2𝑥

100= 10 ⟹ 𝑥 = 500

Hence x can be calculated.


PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Directions: Each question is followed by two statements 'I' and 'II'. Mark your answer as

(a) If the question can be answered with the help of statement 'I' alone.

(b) If the question can be answered with the help of statement `II' alone.

(c) If the question can be answered with the help of both the statements together but not

with the help of either statement alone.

(d) If the question cannot be answered even with the help of both the statements taken

together or separately.

(e) If the question can be answered with the help of either the statement ‘I’ or the

statement ‘II’.

1. How far is town A from town B? Town C is 15 km west of town A.

I. It is 10 km from town B to town C.

II. There is a canal between town A and town B.

2. Adi had an average score of 85 in three tests. What was the Adi's lowest score?

I. Adi's highest score was 95.

II. The average of Adi's two highest scores was 92.

3. A shopkeeper sold an article for Rs. 100. How much profit did he earn?

I. 20% profit would have been earned if it were sold for Rs.90.

II. The profit was one-third of the purchase price.

4. What is Suman’s age today?

I. Today, Suman’s age is five times her son’s present age.

II. Two years hence, Suman’s age will be three times her daughter’s age at that time.


5. Which is costlier – a cup of sweetened corn or a bottle of beer?

I. Sweetened corns are sold at 4 cups for a Rs. 100.

II. Two bottles of beer can be exchanged for 4 cups of corn.

6. Esha opened a savings account that gives simple annual interest by depositing Rs. 750.

What was the annual rate of interest?

I. The bank does not charge for service and she made no transactions for the first 3

years.

II. Three years later her savings were Rs. 999

7. A city doubles its population every 5 years. How long will it take to increase its population

by 3,600 from its present size?

I. In 1972 the population was 475.

II. The present population is 900.

8. How many students appeared for the examination?

I. Only 50% of students passed the examination.

II. If 10 more students passed, the pass percentage would have been 51%.

9. The ratio of milk to water in a mixture is 5 : 1. How many litres of water should be added to

make the ratio 5 : 3?

I. The amount of water to be added is one third of the original mixture.

II. The ratio of half the amount of milk to the amount of water in the original mixture is

5 : 2.

10. What is the speed of the boat in still water?

I. It takes 2 hours to travel from A to B downstream.

II. It takes 4 hours to travel B to A upstream.


11. Sandhya’s house is 40km away from Delhi. How long does the round trip from home to

delhi and back?

I. Sandhya travelled at a uniform rate of 30km/hr for the whole trip.

II. If Sandhya travelled 10km/hr faster, then it would have taken her three fourths of

the time for the whole trip.

Answers:

1. (d)

2. (b)

3. (c)

4. (d)

5. (b)

6. (c)

7. (b)

8. (c)

9. (d)

10. (d)

11. (c)

Explanations:

1. Ans.

Given:

From the first statement, we realise that the distance between town B and town C is 10km;

but the direction is not known.

A C 15 km

10 km B

10 km A C 15 km B

A C 15 km


From second statement nothing is known about the direction.

Thus the question cannot be answered using the given statements. Option (d)

2. Ans.

Let the lowest score be 𝑙, the highest be ℎ, and the middle one be 𝑚

Then,

𝑙 + 𝑚 + ℎ

3= 85

⇒ 𝑙 + 𝑚 + ℎ = 85 × 3 = 255

Statement I:

𝑙 = 95 ⇒ 𝑚 + ℎ = 255 − 95 = 160

Thus statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question

Statement II:

𝑚 + ℎ

2= 92

⇒ 𝑚 + ℎ = 92 × 2 = 184

Also, 𝑙 + 𝑚 + ℎ = 85 × 3 = 255

Thus, 𝑙 = 255 − 𝑚 + ℎ = 255 − 184 = 71

Thus Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Option (b)

B

10 km

A C 15 km


3. Ans.

S.P. = Rs. 100.

Statement I:

When S.P. = Rs. 90, Gain = 20%.

C.P. = Rs. 100

90120

= Rs. 75.

Now, (C.P. = Rs. 75 and S.P. = Rs. 100)

Profit = Rs. 25.

Thus, statement I alone gives the answer.

Statement II:

Let the C.P. be Rs. x. Then, gain = Rs. 3

x.

S.P. = Rs. 3

xx

= Rs.

4

3

x.

Thus, 4

3

x= 100

3 100

4x

= 75 ; so C.P. = Rs. 75.

Thus, statement II alone also gives the answer. Option (c)

4. Ans.

Statement I:

Today,

Suman’s age = 5 × (Her son’s age).


Statement II:

Two years hence,

Suman’s age = 3 x (her daughter’s age)


Thus statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question

Clearly, data even in I and II is not sufficient to get Suman’s present age.

Option (d)

5. Ans.

Statement I:

A cup of corn costs Rs. 100/4 = Rs. 25.

The rate of a bottle of beer is unknown so comparison cannot be made.


Statement II:

2 x (bottle of beer) = 4 x (Cup of corn)

Bottle of beer = 2 x (Cup of corn)

Thus a bottle of beer is costlier than a cup of corn.

Thus statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question

Option (b)

6. Ans.

Statement I:

Statement I indicates that the amount deposited initially remained unchanged for 3 years. It

does not talk about anything else.


Statement II:

It indicates the amount accumulated at the end of 3 years.

Here we are not sure if any transaction was made during the three years or not.

Thus statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

Clearly, data in I and II is sufficient to answer the question as shown below:


Total interest in three years = 999-750 = 249

Interest per year = 249/3 = 83

Annual Rate of interest = 83/750 = 11.06%

(It should be noted here that the actual rate need not be calculated to answer this question)

Option (c)

7. Ans.

Statement I:

Statement I is of no use since present year/population is not mentioned.


Statement II:

Present population is 900

Population after 5 years = 1800

Population after 10 years = 3600

Thus, the answer is 10 years.

Thus statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Option (b)

8. Ans.

Let the total number of students that appeared in the examination be x.

Statement I:

No of passed students = 50% of x = 0.5x

Thus, statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question

Statement II:

Let the passed number of students be p.


P + 10 = 51% of x


Statement I and II together:

0.5x + 10 = 0.51x

0.01x = 10

X = 1000

Option (c)

9. Ans.

Since the volume is not given in any of the statements, the question cannot be solved using

both the information together.

Option (d)

10. Ans.

Let the distance between A and B be D km and the speed of the boat and current in still

water be x km/hr and y km/hr, respectively.

Statement I:

D = (x–y) 2

Thus, statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question

Statement II:

D = (x–y) 4


Statement I and II together:

Even if we combine both statements, we cannot find out the answer, because we have two

equations and three variables.

Option (d)


11. Ans.

Let the speed of Sandhya be x km/hr.

Time for round trip = 80/x

Statement I:

x = 30km/hr

Time = 80/30 hrs.

Thus, statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question

Statement II:

If speed = x + 10

Then, time = ¾ of 80/x = 60/x

Also, distance = 40km

i.e. (x + 10) (60/x) = 40

From this equation x can be found out, and so can be time.

Thus statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Option (c)


Coding-Decoding

Introduction: In this unit, we will study about the different types of coding-decoding problems.

In the SBI PO Exam this chapter consists of 5 to 7 questions. So this unit needs good practice so

that the students can be familiar with each and every type of questions which can be asked.

Coding: Coding is a process by which certain information is written into another form of

information on the basis of certain principles.

Decoding: Decoding is use to infer the right information from the coded information.

For Example, In a certain code language, BOOK is written as 2151511. In the same language

how PEN be written?

Answer:- In the above example the letters of BOOK is coded on the basis of their position in the

English alphabet. The letters B=2, O = 15, K = 11. In the same way we can encode PEN as 16514.

Coding Decoding test is to judge a candidate’s ability to decipher the code language. Coding is the process of converting a word into another language by using letters and numbers while decoding is to convert the coded value back into the normal language. In each question of this topic a word and coded form of the word will be given to the student. A student will required to decode the logic behind this coding and then apply the logic to another given word to find the answer in form of a code.

English alphabets and their corresponding number values helps the candidate to increase the performance in this area. The position of the letter in the English Alphabet is considered to be the value of the alphabet in questions on letter series. Also, when we are counting from A to Z, we again start with A, i.e. we treat the letters as being cyclic in nature. While attempting the letter series one should know the value of each of the alphabet as

Alphabets in natural series are:

A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

11

12

13

14

15

16

17

18

19

20

21

22

23

24

25

26

The Word EJOTY is very helpful in finding the position of the alphabet as

E J O T Y

5 10 15 20 25


For example, if we want to find the position of the alphabet ‘S’, then as we know that ‘T’ is 20, so ‘S’ is 20 - 1 = 19. Also, we can find the position of an alphabet from the end by subtracting its value from 27. For example, the position of D from the end is 27 – 4 = 23.

The pattern below is very useful to find many types of question in Alphabet Series when we write the last 13 alphabets in front of the first 13 alphabets of the English:

A B C D E F G H I J K L M

Z Y X W V U T S R Q P O N

The questions on coding and decoding are basically of three types as given below.

I. LETTER TO LETTER

1. In a certain code ‘SHIMLA’ is written as ‘RGHLKZ, how will PATNA be coded then? a) OZTMZ b) OZSMZ c) QBUMB d) OZTZM

Sol: Each letter is coded as the letter previous to it, i.e. S = R, H = G, I = H, M = L, L = K, A = Z. PATNA will become OZSMZ. Hence the answer is (b).

2. If CEJQ is coded as XVQJ, then BDIP will be coded as :

a) WURQ b) YWRK c) WUPI d) YWPI

Sol: The first 13 letters of the alphabet are coded by the 13 letters of the alphabet in reverse, i.e.

= A B C D E F G H I J K L M (first 13 letters)

= Z Y X W V U T S R Q P O N (13 letters in reverse)

It is obvious from the above coding scheme that :

B = Y, D = W, I = R and K = P or P = K

Therefore, B D I P will be coded as Y W R K.

So, the answer is (b).


II. LETTER TO NUMBER

3. If LODES is coded as 46321, how will you code the word DOES?

a) 1234 b) 4321 c) 3621 d) 3261

Sol: Here, you will observe that all the letters of DOES are included in the letters of LODES, for which you have the code D = 3, O = 6, E = 2, S = 1. Therefore DOES = 3621. So, the answer is (d).

4. DAZE is written as 41265 in a certain code. How will BOY be written in the same code?

a) 41425 b) 5120 c) 21525 d) 359

Sol: In this question the position of each alphabet is given like D is 4 , Z is 26 etc. So the Code of BOY will be 21525 as B is 2, O is 15 and Y is 25. So, the answer is (c)

III. MISCALLANEOUS TYPES

5. In a certain code ‘415’ means ‘milk is hot’; ‘18’ means ‘hot soup’; and ‘895’ means ‘soup is tasty’. What number will indicate the word ‘tasty’?

a) 9 b) 8 c) 5 d) 4

Sol: The code for ‘hot’ is 1.So, the code of ‘soup’ is 8. Now the code of ‘is’ is 5. Hence we can say that the code of ‘tasty’ is 9. So, the answer is (a)

6. If ‘black’ is called ‘pink’, ‘pink’ is called ‘blue’, ’blue’ is called ‘brown’, ‘brown’ is called

‘orange’, ‘orange’ is called ‘violet’, ‘ violet’ is called ‘red’ and ‘red’ is called ‘black’, what is the colour of blood ?

a) black b) brown c) pink d) orange

Sol: As the colour of blood is red and red is called black in the given coded language. So the colour of blood is black in the given coded language. So the answer is (a)


PRACTICE EXAMPLES

1. If in a certain language, PAPER is written as OZODQ. Which word would be written as RZKD?

(a) SEAL

(b) SALE

(c) SELL

(d) SKIP

(e) None of these

2. If in a certain language, MANIPULATION is written as NOITALUPINAM. Which word would

be written as ERUTCURTS?

(a) STRUCTURE

(b) FRACTURE

(c) MANUFECTURE

(d) LECTURE

(e) None of these

3. If in a certain language, TRIANGLE is written as SSHBMHKF. In the same language, COUNTRY

is written as:

(a) BPVOSSX

(b) DNVMUQZ

(c) BPTOSSX

(d) DNVNVQ

(e) None of these

4. In a certain language, TRY is coded as ABC and SHAPE is coded as DEFGH. How can THREE be

coded in the same language?

(a) ABEHH

(b) BAEFH

(c) AECHF

(d) AEBHH

(e) None of these

5. In a certain code language, ANGLE is coded as IJKMN and STRIKE is coded as OPQRSN. How

can TRIANGLE be coded in the same language?

(a) PQRQJJMN

(b) PQMNROJJ

(c) POMNROJJ

(d) PQRIJKMN

(e) None of these


6. In a certain code language, BRAIN is coded as ZYXWV and CREATE is coded as UYTXST. How

can CERTAIN be written in the same language?

(a) UTYSXWV

(b) UTYSVWX

(c) UTYSXVW

(d) UTYVWXS

(e) None of these

7. If in a certain code language, TEACHER is coded as klmnolp. How can EARTH be coded in the

same language?

(a) lmpok

(b) lmpko

(c) lmkop

(d) lmokp

(e) None of these

8. If OUGHT is coded as ABCDE in a certain language. How can TOUGH be coded in the same

language?

(a) ABCDE

(b) BCDEA

(c) CDEAB

(d) EABCD

(e) None of these

9. If BITER is coded as KLMNO in a certain language. How can TRIBE be coded in the same

language?

(a) MOLNK

(b) MOLKN

(c) MOKLN

(d) MOKNL

(e) None of these

10. If GROWN is coded as ABCDE in a certain code language. How can WRONG be coded in the

same language?

(a) DBACE

(b) DBAEC

(c) DBCAE

(d) DBCEA

(e) None of these


11. If F = 6, CAT = 24, then WORD = ?

(a) 59

(b) 60

(c) 61

(d) 62

(e) None of these

12. If DOG is coded as 4157, then how would BLUE be coded?

(a) 212215

(b) 213215

(c) 212125

(d) 212521

(e) None of these

13. If EDUCATION is coded as 2F5D1V34P, then how can EQUAL be coded?

(a) 2R15M

(b) 2RM15

(c) 2R51M

(d) 2R5M1

(e) None of these

14. If N = 16, FAN = 27, then FRANCE = ?

(a) 56

(b) 57

(c) 58

(d) 59

(e) None of these


Answers:-

1. (b)

2. (a)

3. (c)

4. (d)

5. (d)

6. (a)

7. (b)

8. (d)

9. (b)

10. (d)

11. (b)

12. (a)

13. (c)

14. (d)

Answer Hints:-

1. (b) The every letters has been decreased by one in the code according to the English

alphabet.

2. (a) The letters are written in the reversed order.

3. (c) In the code, the letters at odd places is decreased by one and the letters at even places is

increased by one according to the English alphabet.

4. (d) Here, the code for T = A, R = B, Y = C, S = D, H = E, A = F, P = G, and E = H. therefore the

code for THREE is AEBHH.

5. (d) Here, the code for A = I, N = J, G = K, L = M, E = N, S = O, T = P, R = Q, I = R and K = S.

Therefore the code for TRIANGLE is PQRIJKMN.

6. (a) Here, the code for B = Z, R = Y, A = X, I = W, N = V, C = U and T = S. Therefore the code for

CERTAIN is UTYSXWV.

7. (b) Here, the code for T = k, E = l, A = m, C = n, H = o and R = p. Therefore the code for EARTH

is lmpko.

11. (b) Here, F = 6, CAT = 3 + 1 + 20 = 24. Therefore, WORD = 23 + 15 + 18 + 4 = 60.

14. (d) Here, N =(14 + 2), FAN = (6 + 2) +(1 + 2) + (14 + 2),

Therefore, FRANCE = (6 + 2) + (18 + 2) + (1 + 2) + (14 + 2) + (3 + 2) + (5 + 2) = 59.


Coded Relations

Introduction: In this unit we will study about the questions of coded relation. In the SBI PO

Exam, there can be 5 questions from this section. With practice the candidates can solve all the

five questions from this section very easily.

Solving the questions from Coded-Relation involves these steps

Convert the coded relation value in the mathematical relations. Generally these relations

are;

‘<’

‘≤’

‘>’

‘≥’

‘=’

Place the mathematical relation in the statement of each statement and conclusion.

And answer the conclusion which follows the respective statement.


PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Directions (Q. 1 – 10): in the following questions, the symbols @, #, $, © and % are used with

different meanings as follows:

P @ Q means “P is not smaller than Q”.

P # Q means “P is not greater than Q”.

P $ Q means “P is neither greater than nor equal to Q”.

P © Q means “P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q”.

P % Q means “P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q”.

Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of

the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true.

Give answer

(a) If only conclusion I is true.

(b) If only conclusion II is true.

(c) If either conclusion I or II is true.

(d) If neither conclusion I nor II is true.

(e) If conclusions I and II both are true.

1. Statement: A @ B, B © C, C % D

Conclusions: I. A @ D

II. D % B

2. Statement: A # B, B © C, C @ D

Conclusions: I. A @ C

II. B © C

3. Statement: A @ B, B @ C, C @ D

Conclusions: I. D # B

II. C % A


4. Statement: A @ B, B © C, C # D

Conclusions: I. A © C

II. B % D

5. Statement: A © B, B % C, C $ D


II. B $ D

6. Statement: A @ B, B @ C, C # D


II. A % C

7. Statement: A $ B, B # C, C % D

Conclusions: I. D % B

II. A # C

8. Statements: A $ B, B @ C, C # D

Conclusions: I. C © A

II. B % D

9. Statement: A # B, B $ C, C @ D

Conclusions: I. B % D

II. C © A

10. Statement: A $ B, B # C, C $ D

Conclusions: I. C © A

II. B $ D


Answers:-

1. (d)

2. (b)

3. (a)

4. (a)

5. (e)

6. (c)

7. (d)

8. (d)

9. (b)

10. (e)

Answer Hints:

1. (d) The coded relation of A, B, C and D in the statement is; A ≥ B > C = D.

2. (b) The coded relation of A, B, C and D in the statement is; A ≤ B > C ≥ D.

3. (a) The coded relation of A, B, C and D in the statement is; A ≥ B ≥ C ≥ D.

4. (a) The coded relation of A, B, C and D in the statement is; A ≥ B > C ≤ D.

5. (e) The coded relation of A, B, C and D in the statement is; A > B = C < D.

6. (c) The coded relation of A, B, C and D in the statement is; A ≥ B ≥ C ≤ D.

7. (d) The coded relation of A, B, C and D in the statement is; A < B ≤ C = D.

8. (d) The coded relation of A, B, C and D in the statement is; A < B ≥ C ≤ D.

9. (b) The coded relation of A, B, C and D in the statement is; A ≤ B < C ≥ D.

10. (e) The coded relation of A, B, C and D in the statement is; A < B ≤ C < D.


Digits/Symbols & Codes

Introduction: When you will go through the questions of previous exams conducted by State

Bank of India you will find that the examining authorities have asked five questions from

Digits/Symbols & Codes.

These questions are relatively easy and require less time to be solved but at the same time

these questions require very good concentration otherwise you can mark a wrong answer

because the answer options are very close to the right answer.

Here, we will do few exercise of solving these questions.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Directions (Q. 1 – 10): In each question below, a group of digits/symbols is given followed by

four combinations of letters options (a), (b), (c) and (d). You have to find out which of the

combination is the correct code on the following coding system and the conditions that follow.

If none of the four correctly represents the group of digits/symbols, mark (e), i.e. “None of

these” as the answer.

Digits/Symbols 7 9 5 # 4 & 3 * 1 8 $ 2 0 @ 6 %

Letter Codes K L O P W R T E X M N B Z Y S D

Conditions:

i. If the first unit in the group is an even digit and the last unit is a symbol both these are

to be coded as the code for the symbol.

ii. If the first unit in the group is an odd digit and the last unit is even digit, there codes are

to be interchanged.

iii. If both the first and the last units are symbols both these are to be coded as ‘A’.

1. 53&8%

(a) OTRDM

(b) OTRMD

(c) DTRMO

(d) DTROM

(e) None of these


2. 84#7* (a) MWPKE

(b) MWPEK

(c) EWPKM

(d) EWPKE

(e) None of these

3. #560&

(a) POSZR

(b) ROSZP

(c) AOSZA

(d) AOSZR

(e) None of these

4. 2@9%3

(a) BYLDT

(b) TYLDB

(c) AYLDA

(d) TYLDT

(e) None of these

5. 1$7&8

(a) XNKRM

(b) ANKRA

(c) MNKRM

(d) XNKRX

(e) None of these

6. 9#*%5

(a) LPEDO

(b) OPEDO

(c) OPEDL

(d) APEDA

(e) None of these

7. &4%58

(a) MWDOM

(b) RWDOM

(c) AWDOM

(d) AWDOA

(e) None of these


8. 7#2$6

(a) KPBNS

(b) SPBNS

(c) SPBNK

(d) APBNA

(e) None of these

9. 4#78*

(a) WPKME

(b) EPKMW

(c) EPKWM

(d) APKWA

(e) None of these

10. 2%0@6

(a) SDZYB

(b) SDZYS

(c) ADZYA

(d) BDZYS

(e) None of these

Answers:-

1. (b)

2. (d)

3. (c)

4. (a)

5. (e)

6. (a)

7. (b)

8. (c)

9. (e)

10. (d)


Strengthening and Weakening Arguments

Introduction: In the State Bank of India Probationary Exam you can find questions which will be

dealing with statements and arguments which can be strengthening or weakening in their

nature. The numbers of questions of these types are generally 5.

Here, we will practice few questions which are very similar to the questions which can be asked

in the exam.

In this topic a statement based on areas, such as, society, politics, economy, law is given followed by two arguments - one in favor and one against it. Candidate is required to identify a STRONG and a WEAK argument. The arguments given in the question are contrary to each other and present a positive and a negative result of the statement. A strong argument is the one, which is directly related to the issue presented in the statement and its relevance is clearly seen, while the weak argument is the one which is not directly related to the statement is unnecessarily linked to it and contains superfluous data.

The candidate is required to read and infer the statement to further read the arguments and judge which one is directly related to the issue raised in the statement.

In such type of questions, a statement is followed by two arguments Candidates are required to distinguish between these two arguments and find out which one is strong.

An argument may be strong in the following condition ─ 1. A strong argument should give the real diagnosis of the situations described in the

statement. 2. A strong argument should be directly related with the statement and should be

supported by facts. 3. A strong argument should not be mere repetition of the situations given in the

statement.

No argument should be based on abstracts, such as, emotion, feeling etc., because a weak argument is very ambiguous to judge.

Example 1) Statement ─ Will Rita get a second class in the examination?

Argument ─ Yes, she always stands second.

Explanation) If she always stands second, it does not mean that she will come second this year also. Hence, we can say that this argument is not strong.

Example 2) Statement ─ Should there be student union’s elections in college/university?

Argument ─ No. This will create a political atmosphere in the campus.


Explanation) we are aware that such elections in colleges or universities will certainly create some political atmosphere in the campus. Hence, we can say that this argument is strong.

Example 3) Statement ─ Should prohibition on alcohol be banned?

Argument ─ Yes, Prohibition on alcohol should be banned.

Explanation) This argument is merely repetition of the statement. Hence, this is not a strong argument.

Example 4) Statement ─ Should luxury hotels be banned in India?

Argument ─ Yes, these are the places from where international criminals operate.

Explanation) The luxury hotels are symbol of country’s standard and places for staying for affluent foreign tourists and it cannot be stayed with confirmation that the criminals always stay there. Hence, this is not a strong argument.

Example 5) Statement ─ Should State Government ban on Lottery?

Argument ─ Yes, to spend money aimlessly is not a proper thing.

Explanation) ─ It is not clear that the money is being spent on lottery or on other things. In addition, use of the word aimlessly makes the argument ambiguous. Hence, it is not a strong argument.

Example 6) Statement ─ Should we encourage computerizations?

Argument ─ Yes, America is also doing this.

Explanation) Any argument cannot be taken with the context of a person, incident of a country or some examples. We cannot say that just because America is doing something then India shall also be doing it. Hence, it is not a strong argument.

Example 7) Statement ─ Will the political activities go on this year?

Argument ─ Yes, many of the newspapers endorse the statement.

Explanation) if the newspaper write this, it does not mean that the political activities will go on. Hence, it is not a strong argument.


PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Directions (Q. 1 – 20): Each of the following questions consists of a statement followed by two

arguments I and II. Give answer as

(a) If only argument I is strong;

(b) If only argument II is strong;

(c) If either I or II is strong;

(d) If neither I nor II is strong and

(e) If both I and II are strong.

1. Statement: Should foreign films be banned in India?

Arguments:

I. Yes. They depict a culture which adversely affects the Indian value system.

II. No. Foreign films are of a high artistic standard.

2. Statement: Should the government jobs be offered only to the wards of government

employees?

Arguments:

I. No. It denies opportunity to many deserving individuals and government may lose in the

long run.

II. No. It is against the principle of equality of all.

3. Statement: Should young entrepreneurs be encouraged?

Arguments:

I. Yes. They will help in industrial development of the country.

II. Yes. They will reduce the burden on employment market.

4. Statement: Should the sex determination test during pregnancy be completely banned

Arguments:

I. Yes. This leads to indiscriminate female foeticide.

II. No. People have a right to know about their unborn child.

5. Statement: Should government jobs in rural areas have more incentives?

Arguments:

I. Yes. Incentives are essential for attracting government servants there.

II. No. Rural areas are already cheaper, healthier and less complex than big cities. So, why

offer extra incentives!


6. Statement: Should there be only one rate of interest for term deposits of varying durations

in banks?

Arguments:

I. No. People will refrain from keeping money for longer duration resulting into reduction

of liquidity level of banks.

II. Yes. This will be much simple for the common people and they may be encouraged to

keep more money in banks.

7. Statement: Should government stop spending money on international sports?

Arguments:

I. Yes. This money can be utilized for upliftment of the poor.

II. No. Sports persons will be frustrated and will not get international exposure.

8. Statement: Should officers accepting bribe be punished?

Arguments:

I. No. Certain circumstances may have compelled them to take bribe.

II. Yes. They should honestly do their duty.

9. Statement: Should India become a permanent member of UN's Security Council?

Arguments:

I. Yes. India has emerged as a country which loves peace and amity.

II. No. Let us first solve problems of our own people like poverty, malnutrition and then

think of other nations.

10. Statement: Should income tax be abolished in India?

Arguments:

I. Yes. It is an unnecessary burden on the wage earners.

II. No. It is a good source of revenue for the government.

11. Statement: Should fashionable dresses be banned?

Arguments:

I. Yes. Fashions keep changing and hence consumption of cloth increases.

II. No. Fashionable clothes are a person's self expression and therefore his/her

fundamental right.


12. Statement: Should cottage industries be encouraged in rural areas?

Arguments:

I. Yes. Rural people are creative.

II. Yes. This would help to solve the problem of unemployment to some extent.

13. Statement: Should a health warning essentially appear on cigarette packs?

Arguments:

I. Yes. It is a sort of brainwash to make the smokers realize that they are inhaling

poisonous stuff.

II. No. It hampers the enjoyment of smoking.

14. Statement: Is paying ransom or agreeing to the conditions of kidnappers of political figures,

a proper course of action?

Arguments:

I. Yes. The victims must be saved at all cost.

II. No. It encourages the kidnappers to continue their sinister activities.

15. Statement: Should the vehicles that have been running for more than 15 years be rejected

in India?

Arguments:

I. Yes. This is a significant step to lower down the pollution level.

II. No. It will be very difficult for vehicle owners to shift to other parts of world because

they will not get suitable job for their very I existence.

16. Statement: Should children be legally made responsible to take care of their parents during

their old age?

Arguments:

I. Yes. Such matter can only be solved by legal means.

II. Yes. Only this will bring some relief to poor parents.

17. Statement: Should India support all the international policies of United States of America?

Arguments:

I. No. Many other powerful countries do not support the same.

II. Yes. This is the only way to gain access to USA developmental funds.


18. Statement: Should all the drugs patented and manufactured in Western, countries be first

tried out on sample basis before giving license for sale to general public in India?

Arguments:

I. Yes. Many such drugs require different doses and duration for Indian population and

hence it is necessary.

II. No. This is not feasible and hence cannot be implemented.

19. Statement: Should so much money be spent on advertisements?

Arguments:

I. Yes. It is essential in a capitalist economy.

II. No. It leads to wastage of resources.

20. Statement: Should jobs be linked with academic degrees and diplomas?

Arguments:

I. No. A very large number of persons with average academic qualifications will apply.

II. No. Importance of higher education will be diminished.

Answers:-

1. (d)

2. (e)

3. (e)

4. (a)

5. (a)

6. (a)

7. (b)

8. (b)

9. (a)

10. (b)

11. (b)

12. (b)

13. (a)

14. (e)

15. (a)

16. (d)

17. (d)

18. (a)

19. (a)

20. (b)

Answer and Explanations:

1. Ans. (d) clearly, foreign films depict the alien culture but this only helps in learning more.

So, argument I does not hold. Also, the reason stated in argument II is not strong enough in

contradicting the ban. So, it also does not hold.

2. Ans. (e) Merit, fair selection and equal opportunities for all - these three factors, if taken

care of, can help government recruit competent officials and also fulfill the objectives of the

Constitution. Thus, both the arguments hold strong.

3. Ans. (e) clearly, encouraging the young entrepreneurs will open up the field for the

establishment of new industries. Thus, it shall help in industrial development and not only


employ the entrepreneurs but create more job opportunities for others as well. So, both the

arguments hold strong.

4. Ans. (a) Parents indulging in sex determination of their unborn child generally do so as they

want to keep only a boy child and do away with a girl child. So, argument I hold. Also,

people have a right, to know only about the health, development and general well-being of

the child before its birth, and not the sex. So, argument II does not hold strong.

5. Ans. (a) clearly, government jobs in rural areas are underlined with several difficulties. In

lieu of these, extra incentives are needed. So, only argument I holds strong.

6. Ans. (a) clearly, the proposed scheme would discourage people from keeping deposits for

longer durations (the rate of interest being the same for short durations) and not draw in

more funds. So, only argument I holds.

7. Ans. (b) clearly, spending money on sports cannot be avoided merely because it can be

spent on socio-economic problems. So, argument I does not hold. Also, if the expenses on

sports are curtailed, the sports persons would face lack of facilities and training and our

country will lag behind in the international sports competitions. So, II holds.

8. Ans. (b) clearly, officers are paid duly for the jobs they do. So, they must do it honestly.

Thus, argument II alone holds.

9. Ans. (a) a peace-loving nation like India can well join an international forum which seeks to

bring different nations on friendly terms with each other. So, argument I holds strong.

Argument II highlights a different aspect. The internal problems\of a nation should not

debar it from strengthening international ties. So, argument II is vague.

10. Ans. (b) Income -tax is levied so that every citizen can contribute a share of his earning

towards the infrastructural development of the nation. So, argument I seems to be vague.

However, income-tax is no doubt a good source of revenue for the government. Hence,

argument II holds strong.

11. Ans. (b) clearly, imposing ban on fashionable dresses will be a restriction on the personal

choice and hence the right to freedom of an individual. So, only argument II is strong.

12. Ans. (b) clearly, cottage industries need to be promoted to create more job opportunities

for rural people in the villages themselves. The reason that rural people are creative is

vague. So, only argument Il holds.


13. Ans. (a) clearly, such words on cigarette packs would warn the smokers beforehand of its

adverse effects. So, argument I holds strong. However, smoking is a bad habit with' long-

term health hazards and is no means of enjoyment. So, argument II is vague.

14. Ans. (e) both the arguments are strong enough. The conditions have to be agreed to, in

order to save the life of the victims, though actually they ought not to be agreed to, as they

encourage the sinister activities of the kidnappers.

15. Ans. (a) clearly, 15 year old vehicles are not Euro-compliant and hence cause much more

pollution than the recent ones. So, argument I holds. Argument II is vague since owners of

these vehicles need not shift themselves. They might sell off their vehicles and buy new

ones — a small price which every citizen can afford for a healthy environment.

16. Ans. (d) Taking care of the parents is a moral duty of the children and cannot be thrust upon

them legally, nor can such a compulsion ensure good care of the old people. So, none of the

arguments holds strong.

17. Ans. (d) our country cannot support USA's policies blindly without analysis, just to gain

monetary help. Also, we should not withdraw our support without considering the policies,

just because some other nations have done so. So, none of the arguments holds strong.

18. Ans. (a) clearly, health of the citizens is an issue of major concern for the Government. So, a

product like drugs must be first studied and tested in the Indian context before giving

license for its sale. So, only argument I holds strong.

19. Ans. (a) clearly, the advertisements are the means to introduce people with the product

and its advantages. So, argument I holds strong. But argument II is vague because

advertisements are an investment for better gain and not wastage.

20. Ans. (b) clearly, delinking jobs with degrees will diminish the need for higher education as

many of them pursue such education for jobs. So, only argument II is strong.


Courses of Action

Introduction: In the SBI PO exam, the questions on Courses of Action are asked to judge the

Applicable knowledge of a candidate. These questions are related to decision making situations

in which you have to suggest the most suitable and correct action which will be required in a

given situation.

Here, we will practice few questions from the topic.

Evaluating courses of action is an important area of logical reasoning. In these types of questions a situation is given in the form of a statement and some courses of action are suggested in the context of given situation.

Generally there are two types of relationship between the given situation and suggested courses of action.

1. Problem – Solution relationship: - where the given statement talks about a problem and the suggested courses of action talk about solutions. Example: Statement: Malaria and Typhoid are on rise in Delhi. Courses of action:

I. Government must increase the number of doctors and medical facilities as soon as possible

II. Government must take necessary steps to clean Delhi.

Solution:

Here both the courses of action should be undertaken because by increasing the number of doctors and medical facilities the government can control the rise of Malaria and Typhoid and it is also a practical solution. The second course of action is also a practical solution because the city must be cleaned for controlling such type of diseases.


2. Fact – Improvement relationship: - where the given statement talks about the fact and suggested courses of action talk about the ways of improvement. Example:

Statement: Courts take too long in deciding important disputes of various departments. Courses of action:

I. Courts should be ordered to speed up matters. II. Special powers should be granted to officers to settle disputes concerning their

department. Solution: Here it is clear that, either the work in the court needs to be speeded up or the system should be reorganized so that the number of problems can be resolved at the lower levels itself and this will provide the speedy justice to the people. Therefore both the courses should follow.

There are two types of questions that could be asked in Bank PO Examination.

Type I: - Based on two courses of action

In these types of questions, a statement is followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. The candidate is required to analyze the problem or policy mentioned in the statement and then decides which of the courses of action logically follows.

Directions (Example 1-2): In each of the questions given below is a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true and on the basis of the given information given in the statement, decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow (s).

Give your answers as: (a) If only I follows (b) If only II follows (c) If either I or II follows (d) If neither I nor II follows (e) If both I and II follows

Example 1:

Statement:

A group of college students was reported to be enjoying at a picnic spot during college hours.


Courses of action: I. The principal of the college should contact the parents of those students and

inform them with a real warning for future. II. Some disciplinary action must be taken against those students for the awareness

of all the other students.

Solution: (e) Students who bunk the classes should be punished so that the other students will not do

the same. Also their parents should be well informed about these kinds of activities. Therefore both the courses should follow.

Example 2:

Statement:

Every year, at the beginning or at the end of the monsoons, we have some cases of conjunctivitis, but this year, it seems to be a major epidemic, witnessed after nearly three years.

Courses of action: I. Precautionary measures should be taken after every three years to check this

epidemic. II. People should be advised to drink boiled water during rainy season.

Solution: (b) Since this disease occurs at the end of monsoon season every year. So, precautionary

measures every year can work. But the second course of action shall be a preventive measure. So, only course II follow.

Type II: Based on Three courses of action

In these types of questions, a statement is followed by three courses of action numbered I, II and III. The candidate is required to analyze the problem or policy mentioned in the statement and then decides which of the courses of action logically follows.

Example 3: In this question a statement is given which is followed by three courses of action numbered I, II and III. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true and on the basis of the given information in the statement, decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow (s).

Statement:

The Company R has rejected first lot of values supplied by Company S and has cancelled its entire huge order quoting use of inferior quality material and poor craftsmanship.

Courses of action:


I. The Company S needs to investigate functioning of its purchase, production and quality control departments.

II. The Company S should inspect all the valves rejected by Company R. III. The Company S should inform Company R that steps have been taken for

improvement and renegotiate schedule of supply.

Give your answer as: (a) Only I and II follow (b) Only II follows (c) II, and either I or III follow (d) None of these

Solution: (a) Company S should inspect the rejected valves to ensure if they are really sub - standard.

If they are not up to the mark then company A should scrutinize its working thoroughly and remove its lacking.


PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Directions (Q. 1 to 20): In each question below given is a statement followed by two courses of

action numbered I and II. Assume everything in the statement to be true and on the basis of the

information given in the statement, decide which of the suggested courses of action logically

follow.

Mark your answer as:

(a) if only I follows;

(b) if only II follows,

(c) if either I or II follows;

(d) if neither I nor II follows and

(e) if both I and II follow.

1. Most of the development plans in the country develop in papers only.

I. The in-charges should be instructed to supervise the field-work regularly.

II. The supply of, paper to such departments should be cut short.

2. The Central Bureau of Investigation receives the complaint of an officer taking bribe to do

the duty he is supposed to.

I. CBI should try to catch the officer red-handed and then take a strict action against him.

II. CBI should wait for some more complaints about the officer to be sure about the

matter.


3. Due to substantial reduction in fares by different airline services, large numbers of

passengers so far travelling by upper classes in trains have switched over to airline services.

I. The railways should immediately reduce the fare structure of the upper classes

substantially to retain its passengers.

II. The railways should reduce the capacity of upper classes in all the trains to avoid loss.

4. The availability of imported fruits has increased in the indigenous market and so the

demand for indigenous fruits has been decreased.

I. To help the indigenous producers of fruits, the Government should impose high import

duty on these fruits, even if these are not of good quality.

II. The fruit vendors should stop selling imported fruits so that the demand for indigenous

fruits would be increased.

5. A large number of engineering graduates in the country are not in a position to have gainful

employment at present and the number of such engineers is likely to grow in the future.

I. The government should launch attractive employment generation schemes and

encourage these graduates to opt for such schemes to use their expertise and

knowledge effectively.

II. This happened due to proliferation of engineering colleges in the country and thereby

lowered the quality of the engineering graduates. Those colleges which are not

equipped to impart quality education should be closed down.

6. A large number of people in ward X of the city are diagnosed to be suffering from a fatal

malaria type.

I. The city municipal authority should take immediate steps to carry out extensive

fumigation in ward X.

II. The people in the area should be advised to take steps to avoid mosquito bites.

7. There have been many instances of derailment of trains due to landslide in the hilly areas

which caused loss of many lives.

I. The railway authority should arrange to deploy pilot engines before the movement of

passenger trains in the hilly areas to alert the trains in case of any landslide.


II. The railway authority should strengthen the hill slopes by putting iron meshes so that

the loose boulders do not fall on the track.

8. Footpaths of a busy road are crowded with vendors selling cheap items.

I. The help of police should be sought to drive them away.

II. Some space should be provided to them where they can earn their bread without

blocking footpaths.

9. It is necessary to adopt suitable measures to prevent repetition of bad debts by learning

from the past experiences of mounting non- performing assets of banks.

I. Before granting loan to customers their eligibility for loan should be evaluated strictly.

II. To ensure the payment of installments of loan, the work, for which loan was granted,

should be supervised minutely on regular basis.

10. The sale of a particular product has gone down considerably causing great concern to the

company.

I. The company should make a proper study of rival products in the market.

II. The price of the product should be reduced and quality improved.

11. Exporters in the capital are alleging that commercial banks are violating a Reserve Bank of

India directive to operate a post shipment export credit denominated in foreign currency at

international rates from January this year.

I. The officers concerned in the commercial banks are to be suspended.

II. The RBI should be asked to stop giving such directives to commercial banks.

12. The police department has come under a cloud with recent revelations that at least two

senior police officials are suspected to have been involved in the illegal sale of a large

quantity of weapons from the state police armory.

I. A thorough investigation should be ordered by the State Government to bring out all

those who are involved into the illegal sale of arms.

II. State police armoury should be kept under Central Government's control.


13. Every year large number of devotees die due to severe cold on their way to the shrine

located at the top of the mountain range.

I. The devotees should be discouraged to visit the shrine without having proper warm

clothes and other amenities.

II. The government should provide warm clothes and shelter to all the devotees visiting the

shrine.

14. It is reported that though Vitamin E present in fresh fruits and vegetables is beneficial for

human body, capsuled Vitamin E does not have the same effect on human body.

I. The sale of capsuled Vitamin E should be banned.

II. People should be encouraged to take fresh fruits and vegetables to meet the body's

requirement of Vitamin E.

15. A large number of people visiting India from country X have been tested positive for

carrying viruses of a killer disease.

I. The government of India should immediately put a complete ban on people coming to

India from country X including those Indians who are settled in country X.

II. The government of India should immediately set up detection centres at all its airports

and seaports to identify and quarantine those who are tested positive.

16. The Minister said that the teachers are still not familiarized with the need, importance and

meaning of population education in the higher education system. They are not even clearly

aware about their role and responsibilities in the population education program.

I. Population education programme should be included in the college curriculum.

II. Orientation programme should be conducted for teachers on population education.

17. Mr. X, an active member of the Union, often insults his superiors in the office with his rude

behavior.

I. He should be transferred to some other department.

II. The matter should be referred to the Union.


18. As stated in the recent census report the female to male ratio is alarmingly low.

I. The government should conduct another census to verify the results.

II. The government should immediately issue orders to all the departments to encourage

people to improve the ratio.

19. There has been large number of cases of internet hacking in the recent months creating

panic among the internet users.

I. The government machinery should make an all out effort to nab those who are

responsible and put them behind bars.

II. The internet users should be advised to stay away from using internet till the culprits are

caught.

20. Some serious blunders were detected in the Accounts section of a factory.

I. An efficient team of auditors should be appointed to check the Accounts.

II. A show cause notice should be issued to all the employees involved in the irregularity.

Answers:-

1. (a)

2. (a)

3. (a)

4. (d)

5. (b)

6. (e)

7. (c)

8. (e)

9. (e)

10. (a)

11. (d)

12. (a)

13. (a)

14. (b)

15. (b)

16. (b)

17. (d)

18. (b)

19. (a)

20. (e)

Answer and Explanations:

1. Ans. (a) clearly, proper supervision alone can see the development in practice. So, only

course I follows.

2. Ans. (a) clearly, one complaint is enough for a wrong doing. This should be confirmed by

catching the guilty red-handed and then strict action taken against him. So, only course I

follows.

3. Ans. (a) Airlines, being convenient and faster means of transport, people would surely

prefer it to the railways if there is a marginal difference between the fares. Hence, a


considerable gap between the two fares is a must for the railways. So, course I follows.

Following course II would reduce the volume of passengers. Hence, II does not follow.

4. Ans. (d) the ideas suggested in both I and II represent unfair means to cut competition. The

correct way would be to devise methods and techniques such that the indigenous

producers could produce better quality fruits and make them available in the market at

prices comparable with those of the imported ones. Hence, neither I nor II follows.

5. Ans. (b) the emphasis should be not on the Government putting all the engineering

graduates to jobs but on the colleges producing not 'degree-holders' but real technical

minds which could compete well for gainful employment. So, only course II follows.

6. Ans. (e) clearly, prevention from mosquitoes and elimination of mosquitoes are two ways to

prevent malaria. So, both the courses follow.

7. Ans. (c) clearly, either something should be done to alert the trains well in advance in case

of a landslide or some means should be adopted to prevent blockage of tracks during

landslides. Thus, either I or II follows.

8. Ans. (e) crowding on footpaths is a great inconvenience for walkers. So, stern action needs

to be taken to remove the vendors. But at the same time these people ought to be provided

alternative means of livelihood. So, both the courses follow.

9. Ans. (e) to ensure that debts taken are repaid promptly, the customers' requirements and

future prospects ought to be studied and their work constantly checked. Thus, both the

courses follow.

10. Ans. (a) clearly, a study of rival products in the market will help assess the cause for the

lowering down of sales and then a suitable action can be taken. Thus, only I follows.

11. Ans. (d) the statement mentions that the commercial banks violate a directive issued by the

RBI. The remedy is only to make the banks implement the Act. So, none of the courses

follows.

12. Ans. (a) clearly, the situation demands finding out the real culprits first. So, only I follows.

13. Ans. (a) clearly, the problem can be solved by warning the devotees of the excessive cold at

the shrine. So, only I follows.


14. Ans. (b) the statement implies that capsule Vitamin E does not function so effectively as

natural Vitamin E. Since no negative effect of capsule Vitamin E is mentioned, so I does not

follow. Hence, only II follows.

15. Ans. (b) clearly, the non-infected persons should not be debarred from visiting India. So,

only course II follows.

16. Ans. (b) clearly, the statement stresses on teachers' lack of awareness and knowledge in

population education and as such the best remedy would be to guide them in this field

through orientation programs. So, only course II follows.

17. Ans. (d) clearly, the only remedy is to somehow attempt to change the habit. If transferred,

the habit will create problem elsewhere. Also, it is no legal complaint to be referred to the

Union. So, neither of the courses follow.

18. Ans. (b) a census is always conducted with the utmost precision, leaving chances of only

negligible differences. So, I does not follow. Further, the ratio can be improved by creating

awareness among the masses and abolishing female foeticide. Thus, only course II follows.

19. Ans. (a) clearly, internet users should not suffer on account of certain individuals who

indulge in internet hacking. However, such wrong-doers ought to be penalised so that there

are no hassles in the use of internet. So, only course I follows.

20. Ans. (e) clearly, the situation demands that the faults in Accounts be properly worked out

and the persons involved be interrogated about the matter. So, both the courses follow.


Cause and Effect

Introduction: In the SBI PO exam, there can be questions based on the Cause and Effect

relationship and the candidates are asked to identify the relationship. These type of questions

are asked to test the candidate’s analytical skill.

Here, we will practice few questions on the Cause and Effect relationship.

The cause is the event that makes the other occur and the effect is the event that follows from the cause. The questions based on the cause and effect reasoning are basically designed to analyze the candidate’s ability to understand a pair of statements and to correlate them in terms of cause and effect.

The following solved examples will help you to get a clear understanding of this question type.

Directions (Q.1-2): In each of the following questions, two statements numbered I and II are given. There may be cause and effect relationship between the two statements. These two statements may be the effect of the same cause or independent causes. These statements may be independent causes without having any relationship. Read both the statements in each question and mark your answer accordingly.

Give your answer as:

(a) If statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.

(b) If statement II is the cause and statement I is the effect.

(c) If both the statements I and II are independent causes.

(d) If both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.

(e) If both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.

Ex.1 I. There is unprecedented increase in the number of young unemployed in comparison to the previous year.

II. A large number of candidates submitted applications against an advertisement for the post of manager issued by bank.

Solution: (a) There is a huge increase in the number of unemployed young people, so that a large number of candidates is applying for a single post.

Ex.2 I. The private Engineering colleges have increased the tuition fees in the current year by 100% over the last year’s fees to meet the expenses.

II. The Government Engineering Colleges have not increased their fees in spite of price escalation.


Solution: (c) There is no change in the fees of the Government Engineering colleges, but the increase in the fees of the private engineering colleges seems to be policy matters undertaken by the individual decisive boards at the two levels.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Directions: Below in each question are given two statements (I) and (II). These statements may

be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause.

One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statements

and decide which of the following answer choice correctly depicts the relationship between

these two statements.

Mark (A) If statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.

Mark (B) If statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect.

Mark (C) If both the statements I and II are independent causes.

Mark (D) If both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.

Mark (E) If both the statements I and II are effects of some common causes.

1.

I. Many schools in the district are closed down this year.

II. Severe draught situation gripped the state resulting into acute shortage of drinking

water.

2.

I. A ban on the use of plastic products has been imposed.

II. Small scale units producing plastic products are on the verge of closure.

3.

I. Police had launched a crackdown on all the criminal activities in the locality last

month.

II. There has been a significant decline in the cases of criminal activities in the locality.

4.

I. A large number of devotees visited the shrine on Sunday.

II. Every Sunday special prayers are offered.


5.

I. The government has empowered the Village Panchayats to settle cases of land

disputes in the villages.

II. There has been significant reduction in the number of criminal cases in the district

court.

6.

I. The average day temperature of Delhi has increased by about 2°C in the current year

over the average of last 10 years.

II. More people living in rural areas of the state have started migrating to the urban

areas in comparison to earlier years.

7.

I. Many shopkeepers have closed their shops for the second continuous day.

II. Two groups of people have been fighting with each other with bricks and stones and

forcing people to stay indoors.

8.

I. The Govt has decided to increase the prices of LPG gas cylinders with immediate

effect.

II. The govt has decided to increase the price of petrol and diesel with immediate

effect.

9.

I. A cyclone is expected to hit the coastal areas within next 24 hours.

II. Warning has been issued that heavy rains are expected in the coastal areas in the

next 24 hours.


10.

I. A majority of the first year students failed in Mathematics.

II. The management has terminated the service of the contractual mathematics

teacher.

11.

I. Taliban is now trying to capture other areas, after its success in Swat valley.

II. Pakistan government is decided to fight against the Taliban.

12.

I. There was a huge rush of people to the temple on 15th and 16th of the month.

II. The temple authority had decided to close down the temple for repairs from 17th of

the month.

13.

I. Large number of people living in the low lying areas has been evacuated during the

last few days to safer places.

II. The Government has rushed in relief supplies to the people living in low lying areas.

14.

I. The Reserve Bank of India has recently put restrictions on few small banks in the

country.

II. The small banks in the private and co-operative sector in India are not in a position

to withstand the competitions of the bigger banks in the public sector.

15.

I. The prices of petrol and diesel in the domestic market have remained unchanged for

the past few months.

II. The crude oil prices in the International market have gone up substantially in the last

few months.


16.

I. The performance of Indian sports persons in the recent Olympics could not reach

the level of expectation the country had on them.

II. The performance of Indian sports person in the last Asian games was far better than

any previous games.

17.

I. The university officers have decided to conduct last examination every year in

March/April in order to announce the result at proper time.

II. In past, the result was declared late by the University due to the lack of number of

examiners.

18.

I. The State Government has announced special tax package for the new industries to

be set-up in the State.

II. Last year the State Government had hiked the taxes for all industrial activities in the

State.

19.

I. The government has allowed private airline companies in India to operate to

overseas destinations.

II. The national air carrier has increased its flights to overseas destinations.

20.

I. The Government has imported large quantities of groundnut from other countries.

II. The price of groundnut in the domestic market has fallen sharply.


Answers:-

1. (d)

2. (a)

3. (a)

4. (b)

5. (d)

6. (d)

7. (b)

8. (e)

9. (a)

10. (a)

11. (a)

12. (b)

13. (e)

14. (b)

15. (c)

16. (e)

17. (b)

18. (b)

19. (a)

20. (a)


1. Ans. (d) there is no relation between schools and draught and drinking water. Both the

statements are the effects of independent causes.

2. Ans. (a) clearly, statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.

3. Ans. (a) clearly, decline in criminal activity is the result of Police activity.

4. Ans. (b) devotees visited shrine on Sunday because special prayers are offered every

Sunday.

5. Ans. (d) there cases of land are civil cases, and village panchayats have been empowered to

settle civil cases; and there is no link between civil and criminal cases. Both statements are

independent effects.

6. Ans. (d) the increase in temp is due to some reason say climate change or pollution but that

has no link to migration of people. They might be migrating because of n number of reasons

poverty, jobs, social issues, disease… So clearly I & II are effects whose causes are

independent.

7. Ans. (b) clearly because of chaos the shopkeeper have been forced to stay indoors and

cannot open shops. So the cause is the conflict and effect is closing of shops.

8. Ans. (e) Govt has decided to raise the price of LPG, Diesel and Petrol also but reason is not

given here but surely the reason will be same because they all belong to same category –

i.e. fuels.

9. Ans. (a) Cyclone is expected to hit the coastal region so warning has been issued that there

might be heavy rains.


10. Ans. (a) since all the students failed, the Management no longer wanted this teacher, so it

terminated its services. Again Because of statement I(cause), statement II was taken into

action (effect).

11. Ans. (a) clearly, Pakistan’s action (Effect) is a result of Taliban’s activity (Cause).

12. Ans. (b) since the temple authority had decided to close down the temple for repairs from

17th of the month, hence, there was a huge rush of people to the temple on 15th & 16th of

the month.

13. Ans. (e) clearly, both the statements are effects of some common cause.

14. Ans. (b) as, the small banks in the private and co-operation sector in India are not in a

position to withstand the competitions of the bigger banks in the public sector, therefore,

the Reserve Bank of India has recently put restrictions on few small banks in the country.

15. Ans. (c) clearly, both are independent causes.

16. Ans. (e) both the statements are effects of some common cause as both are talking of

performance of Indian Sports Persons.

17. Ans. (b) since in the past the result was declared late by university, it has decided to

conduct the examination in March/April in order to announce the result at proper time.

18. Ans. (b) due to hike of taxes last year, the State Government has announced special tax

package the new industries to be set up in the State.

19. Ans. (a) when private airlines will operate overseas, the frequency of national flights to

overseas destinations will increase.

20. Ans. (a) since the Government has imported large quantities of groundnut, its price has

fallen.


Non Verbal Reasoning

The purpose of non-verbal reasoning is to measure the reasoning power of candidates. In non verbal reasoning, instead of words and numbers, diagrams are used for expressing ideas.

Non-verbal reasoning involves the ability to understand and analyze visual information and solve problems using visual reasoning. For example: identifying relationships, similarities and differences between shapes and patterns, recognizing visual sequences and relationships between objects.

To be successful in a non-verbal reasoning test one will need to: 1. See how objects relate to each other 2. Apply logical deduction skills 3. Understand concepts such as symmetry and rotation

Each question will usually have a sequence of 3 – 5 shapes and one is required to find the shape that best completes the sequence.

There are numerous elements in each non verbal reasoning question such as the outline shape, the fill, the direction of the shape. The shape may rotate, be inverted, have different layers, increase or decrease in size. Some also require basic counting skills.

Non-verbal reasoning requires good spatial awareness and it is a skill that some humans will have naturally. For those who don’t posses it can learn good technique by being highly disciplined and systematic, isolating each element of the sequence or pattern in turn in order to rule out the options one-by-one

You should carefully study the explanations and examples. Then you should do the practice test.

The best method for increasing your speed and accuracy, is to do more and more practice tests

within the allowed time.

Non-verbal reasoning is classified into three groups as 1. Series 2. Analogies 3. Odd Man Out

Series

In this, the problems are based on continuation of figures. There is a sequence of figures depicting a change step by step. One has to choose one of the figure from the answer set which will continue the same sequence.


The questions on series are further classified as follows:

Finding the next figure based questions.

Finding the missing figure based questions.

Type 1 : Finding the next figure based questions.

In these questions, five problem figures followed by answer figures are given. By observing the pattern followed by the problem figures, one of the answer figure which continues the same pattern has to be chosen as the answer.

Type 2 : Finding the missing figure based questions.

These question are almost same as the previous type, but in these questions one of the five problem figures is not given. From the answer figures we have to choose the one which along with the other problem figures can form a logical series.

Example 1) In the following question what will come in place of the question mark so that the figures are in series.

Solution) The figures become half and become detached in the alternative figures. Hence the question make will be replaced by two rectangles aligned horizontally and at a distance from each other.

Example 2) The figures given in the following questions follow a series. Out of the figures A, B, C and D which will replace the question mark so that the series is continued?

Solution) In each figure the 3 lines rotate by 45 degrees in the clockwise direction. Hence (D) will be the correct answer figure.


Example 3) The figures given in the following questions follow a series. Out of the figures A, B, C and D which will replace the question mark so that the series is continued?

Solution) In each next figure the already presents lines start to deplete with the figures at their end being deleted. Also a new line is added with titled lined at its ends. The titled lines increase in each figure. Hence, the correct answer should be option (A).

Analogies

Analogy means ‘relationship’. In the problems on analogy, a pair of related figures is given and a similar relationship is to be found between two other figures by selecting one of them from the set of answer figures.

The questions on analogy are further classified as follow:

Four figure based questions

Finding a similar pair based questions

Type 1 : Four figure based questions

These questions contain two pairs of problem figures followed by five answer figures. Among the two figures in the second pair of problem figures one is not given. An answer figure should be chosen in such a way that a relation between the two figures of the second problem pair is established, which is similar to the relationship existing between the two figures of the first pair of the problem figures.

Type 2 : Finding a similar pair based questions

These questions contain a pair of problem figures, followed by five pairs of answer figures. The answer pair which has a relationship between its two figures, which is similar to the relationship existing between the two figures of the problem pair, should be chosen as the answer.

Example 1) In the following question the two figures on the left of ‘::’ follow a relationship. Which figure should replace the ‘?’ so the figures on the right of ‘::’ should follow the same relationship?


Solution) The first figure has a triangle inside a square. In the figure 2 the square comes inside the triangle, also the square is placed at the center of the triangle. Similarly in the 3rd figure, the triangle is given inside a pentagon. So in figure 4, the pentagon should be inside the triangle and also the triangle should be exactly at the center of the triangle. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.


Solution) The first figure has 3 petals out of which only the middle petal is lined and only 1 strobe is present. In figure two the flower rotates by 1800 and the number of strobes double. Similarly in the third figure there are 3 petals out of which only 1 is lined and there is only 1 strobe present. So, in figure four we will have 1800 rotated version of figure three and number of strobes will be 2. Hence the correct answer is (a), as the strobes don’t change their positions.



Solution) The first figure has a square outside and a circle inside it. While the figure 2 has the circle outside and the square inside. While in figure three there is a hexagon outside and a square inside, so figure four should have a square outside and the hexagon inside. While the line containing z in figure 1 now becomes a water + mirror image in figure two. So the line with c in figure 3 will become water + mirror image in figure 4. Hence, the answer will be option (c).

Odd one Out

In the problems of Odd one out, a set of figures are given where all except one have similar features. So, one has to find that figure which differs from the other figures.

Example 1) In the following question four figures have been shown. Out of the four, three figures are similar while one is different in some manner. Find the odd one out.

Solution) In each of the above figures the two arrows point in different directions while in figure (B), the arrows point in the same direction. Hence figure (B) is odd one out.


Solution) In each of the above figures the shaded part is aligned to x – axis or is horizontal, except in figure (A) where the shaded part is vertical or aligned to y – axis. Hence figure (A) is odd one out.



Solution) In each of the above figures there are 3 different symbols being shown except in figure (C) where 4 different symbols are being shown. Hence figure (C) is odd one out.


SOLVED EXAMPLES

Directions (Q.1-5): In each of the questions given below which of the five Answer Figures on the right should come after the Problem Figures on the left, if the sequence were continued? (IBPS CWE PO/MT-2012)

1.

Problem Figures Answer Figures

Solution:

Ans. (2)

2.



Solution:

Ans. (2)

3.


Ans. (2)

4.


Solution:

Ans. (3)


5.


Solution:

Ans. (1) All elements rotates 900 CW and next picture's elements rotates 1350 Cw. Same as I → 2 then 5 → 6.

Directions (Q.6-10): In each of the following questions below, the figures follow a series/sequence. one and only one out of the five figures does not fit in the series/sequence.

6.

The number of that figure is you answer.

Solution:

Fourth and fifth elements interchange their positions and first element shifts to third place and pushes both the elements in upper side But 3 → 4 figure is not So

Ans. (4)


7.

Solution:

Arrow rotates 450 ACW, 900 ACW then again 450 ACW and again 900 CW. Then the sequence is not followed.

Ans. (5)

8.

Ans.(5)

9.

10.

Ans. (5)

Ans. (3)

Directions (Q.11-15): The first figure in the first unit of the Problem Figures bears a certain relationship to the second figure. Similarly, one of the figures in the Answer Figures bears the same relationship to the second figure in the second unit of the Problem Figures. You are, therefore, to locate the figure which would fit in the question mark. (IBPS CWE PO (PO/MT)-2011)


11.


Solution:

From fig II to I: The upper and the left element rotate by 90° ACW and go to right and upper respectively while one of their heads gets inverted. The lower element rotates 90° CW and goes to the left. The left element also rotates by 90° CW, one of its head gets inverted and goes to lower position.

Ans. (1)

12.


Ans. (3)

13.



Solution:

From fig II to I: The upper and middle elements are encircled by the middle and lower elements respectively. The lower element gets enlarged in its place and a clone of the upper element comes inside it.

Ans. (1)

14.


Solution:

From fig II to I: The left middle goes to upper middle, upper middle to centre, The lower middle goes to lower right → right middle → lower middle.

Ans. (2)

15.


Solution:

From fig II to I: The vertical bar rotates by 90° ACW while the horizontal bar rotates by 90° CWO The upper-left element goes to upper right → lower left → lower right → upper left.

Ans. (3)


Directions (Q.16-20): In each of the questions given below, which one of the five Answer Figures on the right should come after the Problem Figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?

16.


Solution:

In alternate steps the uppermost element goes to lowermost the other elements shift one step upward and the element reaching the uppermost position is replaced by a new one.

Ans. (5)

17.


Solution:

In each step the elements shift one side ACW, rotate by 180° and a new element is added on the ACW end.

Ans. (2)


18.


Solution:

In each step the elements interchange places in pairs and one element is replaced by a new one alternately on either side.

Ans.(3)

19.


Solution:

In alternate step the elements of the upper row shift towards left and a new element appears on the left end.

Ans. (2)


20.


Solution:

In alternate steps the first, the third and the fourth elements from ACW end shift half-a-side ACW. The second from ACW shifts one-and-a-half side ACW while the CW end shifts two sides.

Ans. (1)


PRACTICE QUESTIONS SET-1

Directions (Q.1-10): In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued? (IBPS CWE Specialist Officers-2012)


Directions (Q. 11-20): In each of the questions given below, which one of the following five Answer Figures on the right should come after the Problem Figures on the left, if the sequence were continued? (Indian Overseas Bank PO Exam-2011)



Practice Questions Set- 1 Answers

1 (5) 11 (3)

2 (3) 12 (1)

3 (1) 13 (2)

4 (2) 14 (4)

5 (2) 15 (3)

6 (5) 16 (2)

7 (4) 17 (1)

8 (1) 18 (4)

9 (1) 19 (3)

10 (4) 20 (4)


PRACTICE QUESTIONS SET- 2

Directions (Q.1-20): In each of the questions given below, which one of the five Answer Figures on the right should come after the Problem Figures on the left, if the sequence were continued? (Corporation Bank PO Exam-2011)

Problem figures Answer figures




Practice Questions Set- 2 Answers

1 (2) 11 (5)

2 (3) 12 (2)

3 (5) 13 (1)

4 (4) 14 (1)

5 (2) 15 (2)

6 (3) 16 (5)

7 (3) 17 (4)

8 (4) 18 (1)

9 (5) 19 (5)

10 (5) 20 (1)


Data Analysis and Interpretation

Analyzing data is the major part of our daily routine. Financial data as in P & L sheet, marketing

and sales data, data on productivity, data on performance appraisal, data on each and every

thing that we can imagine. In some companies entire department generates and manages every

conceivable data that we can imagine.

To collect information from all the amount of data it needs to be presented in a lucid and

concise manner. Therefore we use data representation as it immediately provides the overall

scenario and it is also sufficient to compute any detailed information.

Strategies:

While studying the DI section one should follow few strategies given below:

1. Solve the graph with which you are most comfortable for example some are more

comfortable with line graph while the other may be with pie chart.

2. The problems with numbers with 2 or 3 digits like 82, 114 etc are easier to solve then

the problem with number of 4 or 5 digits like 3457, 52468.

3. In pie charts if sectors are 15% 20% etc then it will be easier calculation then the sectors

like 17.5%, 23.6 % etc.

4. We must also look at the number in answer option, if the answers are 12.5 5 6.33% etc

then it will be easier to arrive at.

5. Wider are the choices in answer, easier will be the elimination process and lesser will be

the calculation.

6. The answer choice “ Cannot be determined “ makes the question much easier as it

becomes data sufficiency question and if the question can be answered then only four

options are left.

7. Pick the alternative which is the middle one and check if your answer is less than, equal

to or greater than this value. In this way only one iteration will give you the correct

answer.


8. Te answer choice “None of these “on the other hand make it more difficult as we have

to calculate the question to the exact value.

9. It is better to solve a line chart with two lines and 5 points than to solve a table with 5

rows and 6 columns. But this may not be the case always looking at the other factors.

Growth rate and Growth:

Growth and Growth rate are two different cases. Growth refers to just increase in the

underlying value, while the Growth rate refers to the percentage increase. For example

following table shows the sales and profit of a company A in Rs. Lakhs

1999 2000 2001 2002 2003

Sales 240 290 320 350 380

Profit 50 55 70 50 40

Here,

Growth during the period from 2000 to 2002 is simple the difference of sales = 350-290 = 60

But the Growth rate during this period is the percentage of growth = 350−290

290× 100 = 20.98%

Profit Percentages:

The profit percentage is not profit

selling price× 100 but it is

profit

cost price× 100 . For example in above

table the profit percentage of year 1999 is not =50

240× 100 = 20.83 % .

But the profit percentage of year 1999 is = 50

190× 100 = 26.31% as cost price of this year is 190

Also the percentage change in profit percentage is percent of profit percent of two years with

base as previous year profit percent. For example the percentage change in profit percentage in

the year 2002 over that in year 2001 is:


= 𝑝𝑟𝑜𝑓𝑖𝑡 𝑝𝑒𝑟𝑐𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑖𝑛 2002 −𝑝𝑟𝑜𝑓𝑖𝑡 𝑝𝑒𝑟𝑐𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑖𝑛 2001

𝑝𝑟𝑜𝑓𝑖𝑡 𝑝𝑒𝑟𝑐𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑖𝑛 2001× 100

= 16.66−28

28× 100 = −40.5 %

But in line graph growth rate is related to slope of line. There are few points to understand:

1. The slope of each segment is same across all years of company B but still the growth

rate is not the same in all years. The same slope simply means the sales grow by a

constant amount each year. But the growth rate depends on the base value so in

company B it’s decreasing from 2000 to 2004.

2. The line representing sales of A in 2002-03 is steeper but 2003 is not the year with

highest growth rate of sales of A . The highest growth rate of sale of A is in year 2001.

0

20

40

60

80

100

120

2000 2001 2002 2003 2004

sale

s (

Rs

'00

0 )

Sales of A and B ( 2000-2004 )

A

B


Table Charts

Introduction: The questions on table charts in the State Bank of India (SBI) Probationary

Officers exams have been asked frequently. After the study of the previous year question

papers we can say the data interpretation section will consist of 2 – 3 table charts with 10 – 15

questions. It is advisable to every student to understand the concept of table chart so that they

can earn good marks in the section.

Table Charts: These are the charts of facts and figures shown in horizontal rows and vertical

columns. A table chart can contain facts and figures related to cities, states, countries, time

periods, individual names, companies and miscellaneous information.

The questions on the basis of the table charts are generally asked to find the relation among

the facts and the figures. The question can be asked to find average, ratio or percentage of

some facts and figures related to some other facts and figures.


SOLVED EXAMPLES

Directions (Q. 1 – 5): Study the following table carefully to answer the questions that follow:

Numbers (N) of five types of FMCG products sold by six different stores in a month and the

price per product (P) (price in Rs 000) charged by each store.

Store A B C D E

Product N P N P N P N P N P

P 56 125 58 122 60 124 61 128 42 126

Q 73 3.5 43 4.8 55 5.6 59 3.9 57 4.5

R 58 13 57 19 52 13 57 12 64 15

S 52 55 55 52 51 54 54 59 49 57

T 62 75 63 76 58 82 55 88 49 86

1. The number of P type products sold by Store E is what per cent of the number of the same

type of products sold by Store C?

(a) 80

(b) 75

(c) 70

(d) 125

(e) None of these

Answer: (c) here, type P from Store E is 42 and from Store C is 60. Therefore, 𝟒𝟐

𝟔𝟎 × 𝟏𝟎𝟎 = 𝟕𝟎.

2. What is the ratio of the total number of P and Q type products together sold by Store C and

that of R and T type of products sold by Store B?

(a) 4 : 5

(b) 5 : 4

(c) 24 : 23

(d) 23 : 24


(e) None of these

Answer: (d) the type P and Q product from store C are 60 and 55 respectively and the type R

and T from store B are 57 and 63. Therefore, the required ratio is 115 : 120 = 23 : 24.

3. What is the average price charged by all the Stores together for the product T?

(a) Rs. 81,400

(b) Rs. 80,600

(c) Rs. 81,600

(d) Rs. 80,400

(e) None of these

Answer: (a) the total price for product T from all the stores is Rs. 4,07,000. Therefore the

average = 4,07,000

5= 𝟖𝟏, 𝟒𝟎𝟎.

4. What is the difference in the amount earned by Store A through sale of P type products and

that earned by Store C through the sale of S type products?

(a) Rs. 4.246 lakhs

(b) Rs. 42.46 lakhs

(c) Rs. 424.6 lakhs

(d) Rs. 0.4246 lakhs

(e) None of these

Answer: (b) the amount earned on P from store A = 56 × (Rs. 1,25,000) = Rs. 70,00,000 and the

amount earned on S from store C = 51 × (Rs. 54,000) = Rs. 27,54,000.

Therefore the difference = Rs. 70,00,000 – Rs. 27,54,000 = Rs. 42,46,000.

5. What is the total amount earned by Store D through the sale of S and T type products

together?

(a) Rs. 8,026 Lakhs

(b) Rs. 802.6 Lakhs

(c) Rs. 8.026 Lakhs

(d) Rs. 0.8026 Lakhs

(e) None of these

Answer: (e) the amount earned by Store D through the sale of S and T type products is;

54 × (Rs. 59,000) + 55 × (Rs. 88,000) = Rs. 31,86,000 + Rs. 48,40,000 = Rs. 80,26,000.


In studying problems on statistics, the data collected by the investigator are arranged in systematic form, called the tabular form. In order to avoid some heads again and again, we make tables, consisting of horizontal lines called rows and vertical lines called columns with distinctive heads, known as captions. Units of measurements are given along with the captions.

Example:

The table given below shows the population, literates and illiterates (in thousands) and the percentage of literacy in 3 states, in a year:

State Population Literates Illiterates Percentage of literacy

Madras 49342 6421 …………….. ……………………

Bombay ……………. 4068 16790 ……………………..

Bengal 60314 …………… …………… 16.1

After reading the table, mark a tick (√) against the correct answer in each question given below and hence complete the table.

6. Percentage of literacy in Madras is

(a) 14.9% (b) 13.01% (c) 12.61% (d) 15.04%

7. Percentage of literacy in Bombay is

(a) 19.5% (b) 16.7% (c) 18.3% (d) 14.6%

8. Number of literates in Bengal(in thousands) is:

(a) 50599 (b) 9715 (c) 76865 (d) 9475

Solution: 6. (b) percentage of literacy in Madras = (6421/49342)×100% = 13.01%

7. (a) Population of Bombay = (4068+16790) thousands = 20858 thousands.

Therefore, percentage of literacy in Bombay = (4068/20858)×100% = 19.5% 8. (b) Number of literates in Bengal =(16.1/100)×60314 = 9715 thousands


PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Direction (Q. 1 – 5): Study the given table carefully and answer the questions that follow:

Percentage of marks obtained by five students in five different subjects in a school

SUBJECT English Hindi Science Mathematics Social Studies

STUDENT (100) (50) (125) (150) (75)

Abhinav 59 76 92 90 64

Brajesh 78 80 72 70 84

Chandan 75 74 80 86 80

Dhruv 71 76 68 78 68

Eeshita 73 72 88 92 80

Figures in brackets indicate maximum marks for a particular subject.

1. What is the average mark obtained by all the students together in Science?

(a) 92

(b) 98

(c) 100

(d) 102

(e) 105

2. What is Chandan’s overall percentage in the examination?

(a) 80.0

(b) 80.2

(c) 80.4

(d) 80.6

(e) 80.8


3. What is the ratio of the total marks obtained by Chandan in Science to the marks obtained

by Abhinav and Eeshita in Social Science?

(a) 25 : 24

(b) 24 : 25

(c) 27 : 25

(d) 25 : 27

(e) None of these

4. If in order to pass the exam a minimum of 102 marks is needed in Science, how many

students pass the exam?

(a) Three

(b) One

(c) Two

(d) Zero

(e) More than three

5. Who got the maximum marks among these five students?

(a) Eeshita

(b) Dhruv

(c) Chandan

(d) Brajesh

(e) Abhinav

Direction (Q. 6 – 10): Study the given table carefully and answer the questions that follow:

A survey of online shopping habits of city dwellers from 5 cities A, B, C, D and E is given below. The first column gives the percentage of people who do online purchasing less than two times a month. The second column gives the total number of people who do online purchasing two or more times per month.


City I II

A 65% 1,75,000

B 30% 3,85,000

C 86% 1,40,000

D 72% 2,38,000

E 56% 3,30,000

6. How many people in city D do online purchasing loss than times in a month?

(a) 6,04,000

(b) 6,00,000

(c) 6,12,000

(d) 6,55,000

(e) None of these

7. The city with the lowest number of people who do online shopping less than two times in a

month is

(a) A

(b) B

(c) C

(d) D

(e) None of these

8. The highest number of people who purchase online less than two times in a month from

any given city (in the survey) is

(a) 8,60,000

(b) 6,12,000

(c) 4,20,000

(d) 3,25,000

(e) None of these


9. What are the total number of people who purchase online less than two times in a month

from A and B?

(a) 3,25,000

(b) 1,65,000

(c) 8,65,000

(d) 6,12,000

(e) None of these

10. What is the average number of people who purchase online less than two times from all the

five the cities?

(a) 4,75,000

(b) 4,75,300

(c) 4,76,300

(d) 4,76,400

(e) None of these

Answers:-

1. (c)

2. (b)

3. (d)

4. (a)

5. (e)

6. (c)

7. (b)

8. (a)

9. (e)

10. (d)


Bar Graphs

Introduction: The questions on Bar Graphs in the State Bank of India (SBI) Probationary Officers

exams have been asked frequently. After the study of the previous year question papers we can

say the data interpretation section will consist of 2 – 3 Bar Graphs with 10 – 15 questions. It is

advisable to every student to understand the concepts of Bar Graphs so that they can earn

good marks in the section.

Bar Graphs: These graphs are one of the oldest methods to present a data. The bar graphs

consist of bars, each of which is a thick box. The value of the reading the bar is determined by

the height of the bar. The bar graphs are generally presented with different colours, shades,

dots, dashes, etc.

The questions on the basis of the Bar Graphs are generally asked to find the relation among

facts and the figures. The question can be asked to find average, ratio or percentage of some

facts and figures related to some other facts and figures.

SOLVED EXAMPLES

Direction (Q. 1 – 5): Study the given graph carefully and answer the questions that follow:

Number of people (in thousands) using three different types of Bank Account P, Q and R over

the years.

0

10

20

30

40

20052006

20072008

20092010

12 15 18 20 2430

8 10 14 18 21 2512 16 20

2530 32

P Q R


1. What is the average number of people using Bank Account R over the six years together?

(a) 18,000

(b) 20,500

(c) 22,000

(d) 22,500

(e) None of these

Answer:- (d)

2. The total number of people using all the three bank accounts in the year 2008 is

approximately what per cent of the total number of people using all the three bank

accounts in the year 2006?

(a) 180

(b) 175

(c) 154

(d) 150

(e) None of these

Answer:- (c)

3. The number of people using bank account Q in the year 2007 forms approximately what per

cent of the number of people using bank account P in the year 2009?

(a) 55

(b) 58

(c) 60

(d) 65

(e) None of these

Answer:- (b)

4. What is the ratio of the number of people using bank account R in the year 2006 to the

number of people using bank account P in the year 2009?

(a) 3 : 4

(b) 4 : 3

(c) 1 : 2

(d) 2 : 1

(e) None of these

Answer:- (e)

5. What is the total number of people using bank account P over the six years together?

(a) 1.19 lakhs

(b) 11.9 lakhs

(c) 119 lakhs


(d) 0.119 lakhs

(e) None of these

Answer:- (a)

In a bar diagram, information is presented by means of rectangles, whose lengths indicate the

quantity of the variable which the bar is representing. The following points are important:

6. All bars are in the form of rectangles and the width of the bars is uniform throughout the

diagram.

7. The height of each bar is proportional to the frequency of the variable.

8. The gap between various bars is uniform.

9. The base line of all the bars is the same.

10. The bars can be either horizontal or vertical depending on the space available.

Example: The expenditure of a company under different heads(in thousands of rupees) is given below:

Head Expenditure(in thousands of rupees)

Salary of employees 400

Travelling allowance (TA) 100

Rent 150

Equipment 200

Miscellaneous 300


Draw a bar chart to depict the above data.

Example: The following bar diagram represents the percentages of total expenditure incurred by a state during the years 1981- 90 for different items. In each bar the blue portion stands for the expenditure during the first five years and the red portion stands for the next five years. Study the graph and answer questions 1-5.

0

50

100

150

200

250

300

350

400

450

salary of employes

TA rent equipment miscellaneous

Series 3

Series 2

Column1

0 10 20 30 40 50 60

industry

agriculture

communication

education

health

housing

miscellaneous

industry agriculturecommunica

tioneducation health housing

miscellaneous

1981-85 28 8 5 8 5 10 7

1986-90 25 7 5 2 5 8 9

Chart Title


11. Which of the items listed below accounts for the maximum expenditure during the year 1981

to 1985?

(a) Communication (b) education (c) health (d) housing

12. Which of the items listed below accounts for the maximum expenditure during 1986 to 1990?

(a) Agriculture (b) communication (c) education (d) health

13. The amount of expenditure on Agriculture is approximately what proportion of that on

industry during the year 1986-90?

(a) 1/5 (b) ¼ (c) 1/3 (d) data inadequate

14. If the total expenditure on housing is Rs. 610 crores during 1981-85, the total expenditure on

industry during the same period would (approximately)

(a) Rs 2440 crores (b) Rs 1220 crores (c) Rs 4620 crores (d) none of these

15. Out of every 10,000 rupees spent during 1981-90 approximately, how much was spent during

the years 1981-85 on housing?

(a) Rs 1400 (b) Rs 700 (c) Rs 1000 (d) Rs 2800


11. (d) out of the items listed in the question, clearly maximum expenditure during 1981-85 is on

housing.

12. (a) out of the items listed in the question, clearly the maximum expenditure during 1986-90 is

on agriculture.

13. (a) expenditure on agriculture during 1986-90

= (15-10)% of total expenditure = 5x/100 = x/20 Expenditure on industry during 1986-90 = (52.5-27.5)% of total expenditure = 25x/100 =x/4. Required ratio = x/20 : x/4 = 1:5

14. (d) expenditure on housing during 1981-85 = 10% of total expenditure.

Let the total expenditure be Rs.x. Then , 105 of x = 610 crores or 10x/100 =610 crores x=6100 crores total expenditure on industry during 1981-85 = 25% of 6100 crores = Rs 1525 crores.

15. (c) 20% of total expenditure during 1981-90 was spent on housing.

Expenditure on housing during 1981-90 for a total expenditure of Rs 10000 = (20×10000/100) = Rs 2000 Ratio of expenditure on housing during 1981-85 and that during 1986-90= 10%/(20-10)% = 1/1 Expenditure on housing during 1981-85 = Rs 1000


Directions (Q. 16-20): Study the following graph and answer the questions given below:

16. Out of the total number of students who opted for the given three subjects, in the year 2009, 38% were girls. How many boys opted for Mathematics in the same year?

(1) 1322 (2) 1332 (3) 1312 (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these

Solution: Number of students who opted for all three subjects in 2009 = (20 + 20 + 5) thousand = 45000

Number of boys = 45000 ×62

100 = 27900

Since, we do not know the number of girls in Mathematics, number of boys opted for Mathematics cannot be determined.

Ans : (4)

17. If the total number of students in the University in the year 2007 was 455030, then, the total number of students who opted for the given three subjects were approximately what percent of the total students?

(1) 19 (2) 9


(3) 12 (4) 5 (5) 23

Solution: Required percentage = 15+30 ×1000

455030 × 100

= 40000

455030 ×100 ≈ 9

Ans: (2)

18. What is the total number of students who opted for Hindi and who opted for Mathematics in the years 2006, 2007 and 2009 together?

(1) 97000 (2) 93000 (3) 85000 (4) 96000 (5) None of these

Solution: Required number of students

= (5 + 35 + 15 + 15 + 20 + 5) x 1000

= 95 x 1000 = 95000

Ans: (5)

19. The total number of students who opted for Mathematics in the years 2005 and 2008 together are approximately what percent of the total number of students who opted for all three subjects in the same years?

(1) 38 (2) 28 (3) 42 (4) 32 (5) 48

Solution: Required percentage

= 15+30 ×1000

5+35+15 + 25+30+30 ×1000 ×100

= 15+30

55+85 × 100 =

45

140 × 100 ≈ 32

Ans: (4)


20. What is the respective ratio between the number of students who opted for English in the years 2006 and 2008 together and the number of students who opted for Hindi in the year 2005 and 2009 together?

(1) 11: 5 (2) 12: 7 (3) 11: 7 (4) 12:5 (5) None of these

Solution: Required ratio = (25 + 30): (5+20) = 55:25 = 11:15

Ans: (1)

Directions (Q. 21-25): Study the following graph carefully to answer the questions that follow:

Monthly income (Rs in thousand) of three different persons in six different years (IBPS RRB Grade ‘A’ Officers Exam 2012)

21. What was the difference between the total monthly salary of Arun in all the years together and Suman's monthly income in the year 2007?

(1) Rs. 1.24 Iakh (2) Rs. 1.14 Iakh (3) Rs. 11.4 lakh (4) Rs. 12.4 lakh (5) None of these

0

5

10

15

20

25

30

35

40

2005 2006 2007 2008 2009 2010

Mo

nth

ly in

com

es (i

n R

s th

ou

san

d)

Year

Arun

Suman

Jyoti


Solution. Arun monthly income in all year together

= 14 + 18 + 23 + 21 + 27 + 26

6= 129 𝑡ℎ𝑜𝑢𝑠𝑎𝑛𝑑

Suman's monthly income in the year 2007

= 15 thousand

∴ Difference = 129 – 15 = 114 = 114 ⤬ 1000 = 114000 lakh

Ans: 2

22. What is the ratio of Arun's monthly income in the year 2006, Suman's monthly income in the year 2007 and Jyoti's monthly income in the year 2005?

(1) 6:3:5

(2) 6:4:5

(3) 5:6:4

(4) 5:4:7

(5) None of these

Solution. Ratio = Arun : Suman : Jyoti

18 : 15 : 9

6 : 5 : 3

Ans: 5

23. In which year was the difference between Jyoti's and Arun's monthly income the second highest?

(1) 2005

(2) 2006

(3) 2007

(4) 2009

(5) 2010

Solution. Difference in 2005 → 14 – 9 = 5

2006 → 18 – 10 = 8

2007 → 23 – 18 = 5

2008 → 27 – 21 = 6


2009 → 27 – 26 = 1

2010 → 35 – 26 = 9

Ans: 2

24. The monthly income of Suman in the year 2009 was approximately what percentage of the monthly income of Jyoti in the year 2010?

(1) 72

(2) 89

(3) 83

(4) 67

(5) 95

Solution. Monthly income of Suman in 2009 = 29000

Monthly income of Jyoti in 2010 = 35000

𝑅𝑒𝑞𝑢𝑖𝑟𝑒𝑑 % =29000

35000× 100 =

580

7= 82.85 ≈ 83

Ans: 3

25. What was the percentage increase in the monthly income of Jyoti in the year 2008 as compared to the previous year?

(1) 50

(2) 150

(3) 160

(4) 60

(5) None of these

Solution. 𝑅𝑒𝑞𝑢𝑖𝑟𝑒𝑑 % 𝑖𝑛𝑐𝑟𝑒𝑎𝑠𝑒 =9

18× 100 = 50%

Ans: 1


PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Directions (Q. 1 – 5): Study the graphs carefully to answer the questions that follow:

Total number of children in 5 different schools and the percentage of boys in them

1. Approximately what percentage of girls is in the schools A and F together?

(a) 40

(b) 44

(c) 46

(d) 42

(e) 48

2. What is the total number of girls in School C and E together?

(a) 200

(b) 225

(c) 210

(d) 217

(e) 219

3. The number of girls in school B is what percent of the number of girls in school D?

(a) 45

(b) 35

(c) 40

(d) 55

(e) 54

050

100150200250300350400

A B C D E F

Number of Children

6065 66

50 54

70

0

20

40

60

80

A B C D E F

percentage of boys


4. What is the average number of boys in the schools C and F?

(a) 183

(b) 180

(c) 182

(d) 192

(e) 186

5. What is the ratio of the number of boys in schools D to the number of boys in school E?

(a) 4 : 3

(b) 6 : 5

(c) 36 : 25

(d) 32 : 29

(e) None of these

Answers-

1. (b)

2. (d)

3. (c)

4. (a)

5. (e)


Line Graphs

Introduction: The questions on Line graphs or X – Y Graphs in the State Bank of India (SBI)

Probationary Officers exams have been asked frequently. After the study of the previous year

question papers we can say the data interpretation section will consist 2 – 3 Line Graphs with

10 – 15 questions. It is advisable to every student to understand the concepts of Line Graphs so

that they can earn good marks in the section.

Line Graphs: These graphs are one of the oldest methods to present a data related to time

series and frequency distribution. This type of representation is widely used by news papers,

televisions, government reports, magazines and research papers.

The Line graphs can be;

Single dependent Variable Graph

More than One variable Graph

Graphs with two Scale (two continuous variable)

Range Graph

Band Graph

Speed time Graph

The questions on the basis of the Line Graphs are generally asked to find the relation among

the facts and the figures. The question can be asked to find average, ratio or percentage of

some facts and figures related to some other facts and figures.


SOLVED EXAMPLES

Directions-(Q.1-5): Study the following graph carefully to answer the questions that follow:

Number of Trees planted by three different NGOs in five different States

(Allahabad Bank Probationary Officers Exam 2011)

1. In which state was the total number of trees planted by NGO A and NGO B together second lowest?

(1) Bihar (2) Punjab (3) Haryana (4) Assam (5) Tamil Nadu

Solution: Number of tree planted by NGO-A and NGO-B together in

Bihar: 100 + 60 = 160

Punjab: 120 + 80 = 200

Haryana: 80 + 140 = 220

Assam: 150 + 160 = 310

Tamil Nadu: 140 + 180 = 320

Ans: (2)

2. What was the difference between the trees planted by NGO A in Haryana and the number of trees planted by NGO C in Tamil Nadu?


(1) 90 (2) 60 (3) 120 (4) 100 (5) None of these

Solution: Required difference = 160 – 80 = 80

Ans: (5)

3. What was the average number of trees planted in Haryana by all the NGOs together?

(1) 420 (2) 140 (3) 120 (4) 390 (5) None of these

Solution: Required average = 168+140+50

3 =

388

3 ≈ 129

Ans: (5)

4. The total number of trees planted by NGO A and NGO B together in Bihar was approximately what per cent of the total number of trees planted by NGO-B and NGO-C together in Punjab?

(1) 85 (2) 90 (3) 105 (4) 110 (5) 95

Solution: Required percentage = 100+60

88+80 × 100 =

160

168 × 100 ≈ 95%

Ans: (5)

5. What was the ratio of the number of trees planted by NGO B in Tamil Nadu, number of trees planted by NGO C in Assam and the number of trees planted by NGO A in Assam?

(1) 5: 3 : 6 (2) 5: 6 : 3 (3) 6: 4 : 5 (4) 6: 5 : 3 (5) None of these


Solution: Required ratio: 180: 120 + 150 = 6: 4: 5

Ans: (3)

Direction (Q. 6 – 10): Study the graph carefully and answer the questions that follow:

Per cent profit made by two companies over the years

𝐏𝐞𝐫 𝐜𝐞𝐧𝐭 𝐏𝐫𝐨𝐟𝐢𝐭 =𝐈𝐧𝐜𝐨𝐦𝐞 − 𝐄𝐱𝐩𝐞𝐧𝐝𝐢𝐭𝐮𝐫𝐞

𝐄𝐱𝐩𝐞𝐧𝐝𝐢𝐭𝐮𝐫𝐞× 𝟏𝟎𝟎

6. If in the year 2006 the expenditures incurred by company P and Q were same, what was the

ratio of the income of company Q to that of company P in that year?

(a) 26 : 27

(b) 27 : 26

(c) 24 : 25

(d) 25 : 24

(e) None of these

Answer: (c)

7. If the amount of profit earned by company Q in the year 2007 was Rs. 2.4 lakhs, what was

its expenditure in that year?

(a) Rs. 13 lakhs

(b) Rs. 15 lakhs

(c) Rs. 24 lakhs

(d) Rs. 16 lakhs

(e) Rs. 20 lakhs

20

25

30

25

15

35

25

20

15

25

30

20

0

5

10

15

20

25

30

35

40

2005 2006 2007 2008 2009 2010

Percentage Profit

Company P

Company Q


Answer: (d)

8. What is the average per cent profit earned by company P over all the years together?

(a) 30

(b) 25

(c) 40

(d) 33

(e) None of these

Answer: (b)

9. If in the year 2009, the incomes of both the companies P and Q were same, what was the

ratio of the expenditure of company P to the expenditure of company Q in the same year?

(a) 26 : 23

(b) 23 : 26

(c) 24 : 25

(d) 25 : 24

(e) None of these

Answer: (a)

10. What is the ratio of the amount of profit earned by company A to that by company B in the

year 2010?

(a) 27 : 24

(b) 24 : 27

(c) 23 : 24

(d) 24 : 23

(e) None of these Cannot be determined

Answer: (e)

Line graphs of a frequency distribution is obtained from the histogram of the frequency distribution by joining the mid points of respective tops of the rectangles in a histogram.

To complete the line graphs, the mid-points at each end are joined to the immediately lower or higher mid-points (as the case may be) at zero frequency.


Study the following graph and answer the following questions:

11. The total expenditure of which of the following pairs of years was equal to the income in

1992?

(a) 1987 and 1988 (b) 1987 and 1989 (c) 1988 and 1989 (d) 1988 and 1990 (e) none of these

12. What was the percentage decrease in expenditure from 1988 and 1989?

(a) 80 (b) 50 (c) 40 (d) 10 (e) none of these

13. In how many of the given years was the expenditure more than the average expenditure of

the given years?


14. In which of the following years was the percentage of expenditure to income, the highest?


15. What was the approximate percentage increase in income from 1991 to 1992?

(a) 35 (b) 40 (c) 20 (d) 15 (e) 25

Solution:

11. (c) : income in 1992= 475 crores

Total expenditure in 1988 and 1989 = Rs.( 250+225) crores =Rs. 475 crores.

12. (d) : expenditure in 1988 = Rs. 250 crores

Expenditure in 1989 = Rs. 225 crores.

Decrease % = 25 𝑐𝑟𝑜𝑟𝑒𝑠

250 𝑐𝑟𝑜𝑟𝑒𝑠× 100 % = 10%

0

100

200

300

400

500

600

700

800

900

1000

1987 1988 1989 1990 1991 1992

years

income and expenditure of a company over the years(Rs. in crores)

expenditure

income


13. (b): average expenditure =Rs. 300+250 +225+375+175 +400

6

=Rs. 287.5 The expenditure is greater than the average expenditure during the years 1987, 1990 and 1992. Required no. of years =3

14. (e): the required percentage :

In 1987 is (300×100/450)% = 66.66% In 1988 is (250×100/400)% = 62.5% In 1989 is (225×100/350)% = 64.29% In 1990 is (375×100/425)% = 88.24% In 1991 is (175×100/375)% = 46.6% In 1992 is (400 ×100/475)% = 84.21% Clearly the percentage is highest in 1990.

15. (e): income in 1991 = 375 crores

Income in 1992 = 475 crores Therefore increase % = (100×100/375)% = 26.6% = 25% nearly


PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Direction (Q. 1 – 5): Study the given graph carefully and answer the questions that follow:

The line diagram shows the cost of production and profit of six companies for the year 2011-12. (The figures are in 'Lakhs').

Revenue = Cost of Production + Profit.

1. The ratio of profits of company B and D to the profits of A and E is:

(a) 2 : 3 (b) 10 : 9 (c) 3 : 2 (d) 10 : 7 (e) None of these

2. The profit of company C is what percentage of the revenue of company F?

(a) 20% (b) 25% (c) 30% (d) 35% (e) None of these

12

15

18

16

14

19

34

56

4

6

0

2

4

6

8

10

12

14

16

18

20

A B C D E F

Cost of Production

Profit


3. The revenue of company C is how many times of company E's profit?

(a) 5.5 (b) 5.25 (c) 5.75 (d) 5 (e) None of these

4. Which company has the maximum percentage of profit?

(a) C (b) D (c) E (d) F (e) None of these

5. What is the average profit of the last five companies (B, C, D, E and F)?

(a) Rs. 500 (b) Rs. 5,000 (c) Rs. 50,000 (d) Rs. 4,66,667 (e) None of these

Answers:-

1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (e)


Pie Charts

Introduction: The questions on Pie Chart Graphs in the State Bank of India (SBI) Probationary


papers we can say the data interpretation section will consist of 2 – 3 Pie Charts with 10 – 15

questions. It is advisable for every student to understand the concepts of Pie Charts so that

they can earn good marks in the section.

Pie Charts: These charts are specific types of data presentation technique where the data is

represented in the form of a circle. In a Pie Chart, a circle is divided into various sections or

segments such that each sector or segment represents a certain type of data in a certain

percentage, proportion or angle. The total of the angles in a Pie Chart is equal to 360°.

The questions on the basis of the Pie Charts are generally asked to find the relation among the

facts and the figures. The question can be asked to find ratio or percentage of some facts and

figures related to some other facts and figures.


SOLVED EXAMPLES

Direction (Q. 1 – 5): Study the given pie-charts carefully and answer the questions that follow:

Discipline-wise breakup of the number of candidates appeared in Interview and Discipline-wise

breakup of the candidates selected by and organisation.

Total number of candidates appeared in the interview = 6,100 and total number of candidates

selected after interview = 2,100.

Science28%

Art12%

Commerce16%

Engineering20%

Management

18%

Others6%

Percentage Distribution of Appeared candidates

Science32%

Art8% Commerce

12%

Engineering24%

Management

20%

Others4%

Percentage Distribution of selected candidates


1. What was the ratio of the number of candidates appeared in interview from Art discipline

and the number of candidates selected from Science disciplines?

(a) 56 : 55

(b) 61 : 56

(c) 56 : 61

(d) 55 : 56

(e) None of these

Answer: (b)

2. The total number of candidates appeared in interview from Management and Others

disciplines was what per cent of the number of candidates from Engineering and Art

disciplines?

(a) 66.67

(b) 75

(c) 80

(d) 133.33

(e) 150

Answer: (a)

3. What was the difference between the number of candidates selected from Art discipline

and the number of candidates selected from others discipline?

(a) 21

(b) 210

(c) 2100

(d) 84

(e) None of these

Answer: (d)

4. From which discipline was the difference in number of candidates selected to number of

candidates appeared in interview the maximum?

(a) Management

(b) Engineering

(c) Science

(d) Art

(e) Commerce

Answer: (c)


5. What was the total number of candidates selected from Commerce and Art discipline

together?

(a) 1,000

(b) 840

(c) 1,050

(d) 630

(e) 924

Answer: (e)

In a pie chart, the values of different components of a frequency distribution are represented by the sectors of a circle. These sectors are so constructed that the area of each sector is proportional to the corresponding value of the component.

Since the sum of all the central angles is 360 degrees, we have

Central angle of a component = (𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑐𝑜𝑚𝑝𝑜𝑛𝑒𝑛𝑡

𝑡𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒× 360)degrees

Example: The following pie diagram shows the expenditure incurred on the preparation of a book by a publisher, under various heads.

A: Paper 20, B: Printing 25%, C: Binding, Canvassing, Designing etc 30%

D: Miscellaneous 10% E: Royalty 15%

Study the diagram carefully and answer the questions 1-5:

6. What is the angle of pie diagram showing the expenditure incurred on paying the royalty?

(a) 15 degrees (b) 24 degrees (c) 48 degrees (d) 54 degrees

Sales

A

B

C

D

E


7. The marked price of a book is 20% more than the C.P. If the marked price of the book be Rs

30, what is the cost of paper used in a single copy of the book?

(a) Rs 6 (b) Rs 5 (c) Rs 4.50 (d) Rs 6.50

8. Which two expenditures together will form an angle of 108 degrees at the centre of the pie

diagram:

(a) A and E (b) B and E (c) A and D (d) D and E

9. If the difference between two expenditures be represented by 18 degrees in the pie-

diagram, these expenditures are :

(a) B and E (b) A and C (c) B and D (d) none of these

Answers:

6. (d) Angle representing royalty D = (15×360/100)degrees = 54 degrees

7. (b) C.P. of a book = Rs ( 100×30/120) = Rs 25

Cost of paper = Rs (20×25/100) = Rs 5

8. (c) angle A = (20×360/100)degrees =72 degrees

Angle B = (25×360/100) degrees = 90 degrees Angle C = (30×360/100)degrees = 108 degrees Angle D = (10×360/100) degrees = 36 degrees Angle E = (15×360/100) degrees = 54 degrees Thus, A and D together will form an angle of 108 degrees.

9. (d) These expenditures are A and B; Band C; D and E; and A and E.

Direction (Q. 10-14): Study the following pie-chart and answer the questions given below:

Preferences of students among six beverages in terms of degree of angle in the pie-chart

Total No. of students = 6800


10. What is the difference between the total number of students who prefer Beverage A and C together and the total number of students who prefer beverage D and F together?

(1) 959 (2) 955 (3) 952 (4) 954 (5) None of these

Solution: Difference of corresponding angles = (122.4 + 21.6)0 - (79.2 + 14.4)0 = 50.40

∴ required difference = 50.4

360 x 6800 = 952

Ans: (3)

11. What is the ratio of the number of students who prefer beverage F and the number of students who prefer beverage A?

(1) 3: 11 (2) 3: 13 (3) 6: 11 (4) 5: 11 (5) None of these

Solution: Required Ratio = 21.6: 79.2 = 3: 11

Ans: (1)

12. The number of student who prefer beverage E and F together is what per cent of the total of student?

(1) 18 (2) 14 (3) 26 (4) 24 (5) None of these

Solution: Required percentage = ( 64.8+21.6

360) × 100 =24%

Ans: (4)


13. The number of students who prefer beverage C are approximately what percent of the number of students who prefer Beverage D?

(1) 7 (2) 12 (3) 18 (4) 22 (5) 29

Solution: Required percentage = 14.4

122 .4 × 100 = 11.76 ≈ 12%

Ans: (2)

14. How many students prefer beverage B and beverage E together?

(1) 2312 (2) 2313 (3) 2315 (4) 2318 (5) None of these

Solution: Number of students who prefer beverages B and E together

= 57.6+64.8

360 × 68000 =

12.4+21.6

360 = 2312

Ans: (1)

Directions (Q. 15-19): Study the following pie-chart and answer the following questions.

Percentagewise distribution of teachers in six different universities.

Total number of teachers = 6400 (IBPS RRB Group ‘A’ Officers Exam 2012)


15. The number of teachers in University B is approximately what per cent of the total number of teachers in University D and University E together?

(1) 55 (2) 59 (3) 49 (4) 45 (5) 65

Solution. Number of teachers in University B =17×6400

100= 1088

Number of teachers in University D =6×6400

100= 384

Number of teachers in University E =29×6400

100= 1856

∴ Required percentage =1088

1856 +384× 100

=108800

2240= 48.57 ≈ 49%

Ans: 3


16. If twenty five per cent of the teachers in University C are females, what is the number of male teachers in University C?

(1) 922 (2) 911 (3) 924 (4) 912 (5) None of these

Solution. Number of teachers in University C =19×6400

100= 1216

Number of female teachers in University C

= 1216 ×25

100= 1216 ×

1

4= 304

Number of male teachers in University C

= 1216 – 304 = 912

Ans: 4

17. The difference between the total number of teachers in University A, University B and University C together and the total number of teachers in University D, University E and University F together is exactly equal to the number of teachers of which University?

(1) University A (2) University B (3) University C (4) University D (5) University F

Solution. Number of teachers in University A =11×6400

100= 704

Number of teachers in University B =17×6400

100= 1088

Number of teachers in University C =19×6400

100= 1216

Number of teachers in University D =6×6400

100= 384

Number of teachers in University E =29×6400

100= 1856

Number of teachers in University F =18×6400

100= 1152


∴ Difference = 3392 – 3008 = 384

Quicker method:

Difference = (D + E + F)% – (A + B + C)%

= (53 – 47) = 6%

6% of 6400 = 384

Hence, University of D is equal to 6%.

Ans: 4

18. If one-thirty sixth of the teachers from University F are professors and the salary of each professor is Rs. 96000, what will be the total salary of all the professors together from University F?

(1) Rs. 307.2 lakh (2) Rs. 32.64 lakh (3) Rs. 3.072 lakh (4) Rs. 3.264 lakh (5) None of these

Solution. Number of teachers in University F =18×6400

100= 1152

Number of professors in University F = 1152 ×1

36= 32

∴ Total Salary of professors in University F

= 32 ⤬ 96000 = 30.72 lakh

Ans: 5

19. What is the average number of teachers in University A, University C, University D and University F together?

(1) 854 (2) 3546 (3) 3456 (4) 874 (5) None of these

Solution. Average =704 +1216 +384 +1152

4=

3456

4= 864

Ans: 5


PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Direction (Q. 1 – 5): Study the given pie-charts carefully and answer the questions that follow:

Discipline-wise breakup of the number of candidates appeared in Interview and Discipline-wise

breakup of the candidates selected by and organisation.

Total number of candidates appeared in the interview = 25,600 and total number of candidates

selected after interview = 7,500.

Science26%

Art14%

Commerce

18%

Engineering

20%

Management16%

Others6%

Percentage Distribution of Appeared candidates

Science32%

Art10%Commer

ce16%

Engineering

22%

Management16%

Others4%

Percentage Distribution of selected candidates


1. What was the ratio of the number of candidates appeared in interview from other

disciplines and the number of candidates selected from art disciplines?

(a) 256 : 125

(b) 125 : 256

(c) 125 : 216


(e) None of these

2. The total number of candidates appeared in interview from Management and Art disciplines

was what per cent of the number of candidates from Engineering discipline?

(a) 66.67

(b) 75

(c) 80

(d) 120

(e) 150

3. What was the difference between the number of candidates selected from Science

discipline and the number of candidates selected from Commerce discipline?

(a) 1,000

(b) 1,100

(c) 1,200

(d) 1,250

(e) None of these

4. From which discipline was the difference in number of candidates selected to number of

candidates appeared in interview the maximum?

(a) Management

(b) Engineering

(c) Commerce

(d) Science

(e) Art

5. What was the total number of candidates selected from Commerce and Art discipline

together?

(a) 1,800

(b) 1,950

(c) 2,100

(d) 2,250

(e) 2,400


Answers:-

1. (a) 2. (e) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (b)


Case Lets

Introduction: The questions on Case based Data in the State Bank of India (SBI) Probationary


papers we can say the data interpretation section will consist of 2 – 3 Cases with 10 – 15

questions. It is advisable to every student to understand the concept of Case base data so that

they can earn good marks in the section.

Case Based Data: These types of data are presented in the competitive exams to test the

candidate’s interest in numbers, for variables and their inter-relationship and ability to convert

the data into a more meaningful form of information.

These things should be kept in mind when you are solving questions of Cases.

First read and indentify the variables in the data and respective inter-relationship.

Chart out the data and fill the data in a more meaningful format.

And now, try to solve the questions on the Case based data.

The questions on the basis of the case based data are generally asked to find the relation

among the facts and the figures. The question can be asked to find average, ratio or

percentage of some facts and figures related to some other facts and figures.


SOLVED EXAMPLES

Direction for questions 1 to 5: Answer these questions on the basis of the following information.

Shekhar bought 10 acres of land for Rs.250000 in 2011. That year he cultivated Sugarcane and Soya bean in the 10 acres with the ratio of area under Sugarcane and Soya bean being 5:4. The profit obtained from Sugarcane and Soya bean was in the ratio 3:2 with the total profit being Rs.58500. This was 15% of the amount he invested in cultivation that year. The next year he again cultivated Sugarcane and Soya bean, with the areas being same as before and reaped a profit of Rs.66000 in total with that from Sugarcane and Soya bean being in the ratio 8:7 but his return on his investment that year was only 14%.

1. What is the amount invested by Shekhar for cultivation in 2011?

(a) Rs.356000

(b) Rs.374800

(c) Rs.380000

(d) Rs. 390000

Solution: (d) Shekhar had a profit of Rs.58500 and this profit was 15% of the money he invested, his investment was

58500

15 × 100 = 390000

2. What is the profit obtained by Shekhar by cultivating Sugarcane in 2011?

(a) Rs.43800

(b) Rs.35100

(c) Rs.36200

(d) None of these

Solution: (b)

The profit obtained by Shekhar by cultivating Sugarcane in 2012 = 3

5 × 58500 = 35100.


3. What is the profit obtained by cultivating Soya bean in 2012?

(a) Rs.30800

(b) Rs.36100

(c) Rs.24200

(d) None of these

Solution: (a)

The profit obtained by cultivating Soya bean in 2012 = 7

15 × 66000 = Rs. 30800.

4. What is the ratio of the profit obtained from Sugarcane and Soya bean in the two years together?

(a) 89 : 79

(b) 167 : 211

(c) 703 : 542

(d) None of these

Solution: (c)

The profit obtained in 2011 from Sugarcane = Rs.35100

The profit obtained in 2012 from Sugarcane = 66000 - 30800 = Rs.35200

Total profit from Sugarcane = Rs.70300

Total profit in the two years = Rs.58500 + Rs.66000 = Rs.124500

Therefore, Profit from Soya bean Rs.54200.

Now, the required ratio = 70300: 54200 = 703 : 542.

5. What is the approximate amount invested by Shekhar for cultivation in 2012?

(a) Rs.428500

(b) Rs.471400

(c) Rs.495300

(d) Rs.518650


Solution: (b) Here the profit of 66,000 is 14% of the amount invested, therefore, the invested = 66000

14 × 100 = Rs. 471400.

Directions: (6-10) Study the following information and answer the questions that follow: (IBPS CWE PO MT 2012) The premises of a bank are to be renovated. The renovation is in terms of flooring. Certain areas are to be floored either with marble or wood. All rooms/halls and pantry are rectangular. The area to be renovated comprises of a hall for customer transaction measuring 23 m by 29 m, branch manager’s room measuring 13 m by 17 m, a pantry measuring 14 m by 13 m, a record keeping cum server room measuring 21 m by 13 m and locker area measuring 29 m by 21 m. The total area of the bank is 2000 square meters. The cost of wooden flooring is f 170/- per square meter and the cost of marble flooring is Rs. 190/- per square meter. The locker area, record keeping cum server room and pantry are to be floored with marble. The branch manager's room and the hall for customer transaction are to be floored with wood. No other area is to be renovated in terms of flooring. 6. What is the respective ratio of the total cost of wood en flooring to the total cost of marble flooring? (1) 1879: 2527 (2) 1887: 2386 (3) 1887: 2527 (4) 1829: 2527 (5) 1887: 2351 Solution: Total flooring area with marble = locker area + record keeping + pantry = 182+273 +609 = 1064 sqm Cost of flooring = 1064 × 190 Total flooring area with wooden = Branch Manager room + Hall = 221 + 667 = 888 sqm Cost of flooring = 888 × 170 Ratio= 888 × 170: 1064 × 190 = 888 ×17: 1064 ×19 = 15096 : 20216 = 1887: 2527 Ans: 3


7. If the four walls and ceiling of the branch manager’s room (The height of the room is 12 meters) are to be painted at the cost off 190/- per square meter, how much will be the total cost of renovation of the branch manager's room including the cost of flooring? (1) Rs. 1, 36,800/- (2) Rs. 2, 16,660/- (3) Rs. 1, 78,790/- (4) Rs. 2, 11,940/- (5) None of these Solution: Cost of flooring of branch manager room =221 × 170= Rs. 37570 Cost of painting = [2(17 × 12+ 13 × 12)+ 13 x 17] × 190 = [2( 204 + 156) + 221] × 190= (2 × 360 + 221) × 190 = (720 + 221) × 190 = 941 × 190 = Rs. 178790 Total cost = 178790 + 31570 = Rs.216360 Ans: (5) 8. If the remaining area of the bank is to be carpeted at the rate of Rs. 110/- per square meter, how much will be the increment in the total cost of renovation of bank premises? (1) Rs. 5,820/- (2) Rs. 4,848/- (3) Rs. 3,689/- (4) Rs. 6,890/- (5) None of these Solution: Total area of bank = 2000 sqm Total flooring area = 1952 sqm Remaining area = 2000 - 1952 = 48 sqm ∴ Cost of carpeting = 48 × 110 = Rs.5280 Ans: (5)


9. What is the percentage area of the bank that is not to be renovated? (1) 2.2 % (2) 2.4 % (3) 4.2 % (4) 4.4 % (5) None of these Solution: Area not to be renovated = 48 sq m

∴ Reqd % = 48

2000× l00 = 2.4%

Ans: 2 10. What is the total cost of renovation of the hall for customer transaction and the locker area? (1) Rs. 2, 29,100 (2) Rs. 2, 30,206 (3) Rs. 2, 16,920 (4) Rs. 2, 42,440 (5) None of these Solution: Cost of renovation of hall + locker area = 667 × 170 + 609 × 190 = 113390 + 115710= Rs. 229100 Ans: (1)

Directions (Q. 11 – 15): Study the given information carefully to answer the questions that

follow:

An organization consists of 3500 employees working in different departments, viz HR,

Marketing, IT, Production and Accounts. The ratio of male to female employees in the

organisation is 3 : 2. 8% of the males work in the HR department. 22% of the female work in the

account department. The ratio of males to females working in the HR department is 3 : 5. One-

seventh of the females work in the IT department. 46% of the males work in the Production

department. The number of females is one-sixth of the males working in the same. The

remaining females work in the Marketing department. The total number of employees working

in the IT department is 375. 22% of the males work in the Marketing department and remaining

work in the Account department.


11. The number of males working in the Account department forms approximately what per

cent of the total number of males in the organisation?

(a) 6

(b) 8

(c) 10

(d) 11

(e) 12

Answer: (a)

12. How many females work in Production department?

(a) 140

(b) 200

(c) 180

(d) 160

(e) None of these

Answer: (e)

13. The total number of employees working in the Account department forms approximately

what per cent of the total number of female employees in the organisation?

(a) 28

(b) 32

(c) 29

(d) 31

(e) 30

Answer: (d)

14. The ratio of the numbers of females working in IT department to the numbers of males

working in the same department is

(a) 15 : 8

(b) 1 : 2

(c) 8 : 15

(d) 2 : 1

(e) 7 : 11

Answer: (c)

15. What is the total number of employees working in the Marketing and Production

departments together?

(a) 1900

(b) 2040

(c) 2020


(d) 2031

(e) 2042

Answer: (b)

PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Directions (Q. 1 – 5): Study the given information carefully to answer the questions that follow:



organisation is 5 : 3. 12% of the males work in the HR department. 24% of the female work in

the account department. The ratio of males to females working in the HR department is 6 : 11.

One-tenth of the females work in the IT department. 42% of the males work in the Production

department. The number of females 5% of the males working in the same. The remaining

females work in the Marketing department. The total number of employees working in the IT

department is 300. 20% of the males work in the Marketing department and remaining work in

the Account department.

1. The number of males working in the IT department forms what per cent of the total number

of males in the organisation?

(a) 5

(b) 10

(c) 12

(d) 15

(e) 18

2. How many males work in Accounts department?

(a) 840

(b) 400

(c) 220

(d) 240

(e) None of these

3. The total number of employees working in the HR department forms what per cent of the

total number of employees in the organisation?

(a) 28

(b) 28.75

(c) 29

(d) 29.75

(e) 30


4. The number of females working in the Production department forms what per cent of the

total number of males in the organisation?

(a) 21

(b) 12

(c) 5

(d) 3.1

(e) 2.1

5. What is the total number of employees working in the Marketing and IT departments

together?

(a) 190

(b) 200

(c) 220

(d) 240

(e) 42

Directions (Q. 6 – 10): Study the given information carefully to answer the questions that

follow:



organisation is 3 : 2. 8% of the males work in the HR department. 22% of the female work in the

account department. The ratio of males to females working in the HR department is 3 : 5. One-

seventh of the females work in the IT department. 46% of the males work in the Production

department. The number of females is one-sixth of the males working in the same. The

remaining females work in the Marketing department. The total number of employees working

in the IT department is 375. 22% of the males work in the Marketing department and remaining

work in the Account department.

6. The number of males working in the Account department forms approximately what per

cent of the total number of males in the organisation?

(a) 6

(b) 8

(c) 10

(d) 11

(e) 12


7. How many females work in Production department?

(a) 140

(b) 200

(c) 180

(d) 160

(e) None of these

8. The total number of employees working in the Account department forms approximately

what per cent of the total number of female employees in the organisation?

(a) 28

(b) 32

(c) 29

(d) 31

(e) 30

9. The ratio of the numbers of females working in IT department to the numbers of males

working in the same department is

(a) 15 : 8

(b) 1 : 2

(c) 8 : 15

(d) 2 : 1

(e) 7 : 11

10. What is the total number of employees working in the Marketing and Production

departments together?

(a) 1900

(b) 2040

(c) 2020

(d) 2031

(e) 2042

Answers:-

1. (d)

2. (c)

3. (b)

4. (e)

5. (a)

6. (a)

7. (e)

8. (d)

9. (c)

10. (b)


Miscellaneous Graphs

SOLVED EXAMPLES

Directions: (1-5) Study the following graph and table carefully and answer the questions given below: Time Taken To Travel (In Hours) By Six Vehicles On Two Different Days

Distance covered (in kilometers) by six vehicles on each day

(IBPS CWE PO MT 2012)

1. Which of the following vehicles travelled at the same speed on both the days? (1) Vehicle A (2) Vehicle C (3) Vehicle F (4) Vehicle B (5) None of these Solution: The speed of Vehicle B on both the days is 43 km/hr. Ans: (4)


2. What was the difference between the speed of vehicle A on day 1 and the speed of vehicle C on the same day? (1) 7 km/hr (2) 12 km/hr (3) 11 km/hr (4) 8 km/hr (5) None of these Solution: Speed of A on 1st day = 52 km/hr Speed of C on 1st day = 63 km/hr ∴ Difference = 65 - 52 = 11 km/hr Ans: 2 3. What was the speed of vehicle C on day 2 in terms of meters per second? (1) 15.3 (2) 12.8 (3) 11.5 (4) 13.8 (5) None of these Solution: Speed of Vehicle C on 2nd day = 45 km/hr

= 45 × 5

18 = 2.5 × 5 = 12.5 m/sec

Ans: (5) 4. The distance travelled by vehicle F on day 2 was approximately what percent of the distance travelled by it on day 1? (1) 80 (2) 65 (3) 85 (4) 95 (5) 90

Solution: Reqd % = 636

703 × 100 = 90.46 ≈ 90%

Ans: (5)


5. What is the respective ratio between the speeds of vehicle 0 and vehicle E on day 2? (1) 15: 13 (2) 17: 13 (3) 13: 11 (4) 17: 14 (5) None of these

Solution: Reqd Ratio = Speed of vehicle D on day 2

Speed of vehicle E on day 2

= 51

39 =

17

13 = 17:13

Ans: (2) Directions (6-10) Study the following pie-chart and table carefully and answer the questions given below: Percentagewise distribution of the number of mobile phones sold a shopkeeper during six months Total number of mobile phones sold = 45000

The respective ratio between the numbers of mobile phones sold of company A and company B during six months


6. What is the respective ratio between the number of mobile phones sold of company B during July and those sold during December of the same company? (1) 119: 145 (2) 116: 135 (3) 119: 135 (4) 119: 130 (5) None of these Solution: Total number of mobiles sold in the month of July

= 45000 × 17

100 = 7650

Mobile phones sold by Company B in the month of

July = 7650 × 7

15 = 3570

Total number of mobile phones sold in the month of

December = 45000 × 16

100 = 7200

Mobile phones sold by Company B in the month of

December = 7200 × 9

16 = 4050

∴ Reqd ratio = 3570

4050 =

357

405 =

119

135 = 119: 135

Ans: (3) 7. If 35% of the mobile phones sold by company A during November were sold at a discount, how many mobile phones of company A during that month were sold without a discount? (1) 882 (2) 1635 (3) 1638 (4) 885


(5) None of these Solution: Number of mobile phones sold in the month of

November = 45000 × 12

100 = 5400

Number of mobile phones sold by Company A in

the month of November = 5400 × 7

15 = 2520

∴ Number of mobile phones without discount in the month of November by Company A

= 2520 ×65

100 = 2520 × 0.65 = 1638

Ans: 3 8. If the shopkeeper earned a profit of Rs. 433/- on each mobile phone sold of company B during October, what was his total profit earned on the mobile phones of that company during the same month? (1) Rs. 6,49,900 (2) Rs. 6,45,900 (3) Rs. 6,49,400 (4) Rs 6,49,500 (5) None of these Solution: Number of mobile phones sold in the month of

October = 45000 × 8

100 = 3600

∴ Number of mobile phones sold by Company B in

the month of October = 3600 × 5

12 = 1500

∴ Total profit earned by Company B in the month of October = 1500 × 433 = 649500 Ans: (4) 9. The number of mobile phones sold of company A during July is approximately what percent of the number of mobile phones sold of company A during December? (1) 110 (2) 140 (3) 150 (4) 105 (5) 130 Solution: Number of mobile phones sold in the month of July


= 45000 × 17

100 = 7650


the month of July = 7650 × 8

15 = 4080

Number of mobile phones sold in the month of

December = 45000 × 16

100 = 7200


the month of December = 7200 × 7

16 = 3150

Reqd % = 4080

3150 × 100 = 129.52 ≈ 130

Ans: (5) 10. What is the total number of mobile phones sold of company B during August and September together? (1) 10000 (2) 15000 (3) 10500 (4) 9500 (5) None of these Solution: Number of mobile phones sold in the month of

August = 22

100 × 45000=9900

Number of mobile phones sold in the month of

September = 25

100 ×45000 =

1

4 ×45000 = 11250

Number of mobile phones sold by Company B in the month of August

= 9900 × 5

9 = 5500

Number of mobile phones sold by Company B in

September= 11250 × 2

5 = 4500

Total number of mobile phones sold in August and September by Company B = 5500+4500= 10000 Quicker Method: Total number of mobile phones sold by Company B in August and September .

22

100 × 45000 ×

5

9+

25

100 × 4500 ×

2

5 = 10000


Ans: (1) Directions: (11-15) Study the following information and answer the questions that follow: The graph given below represents the production (in tonnes) and sales (in tonnes) of company a from 2006-2011.

The table given below represents the respective ratio of the production (in tonnes) of Company A to the production (in tonnes) of Company B, and the respective ratio of the sales (in tonnes) of Company A to the sales (in tonnes) of Company B.

11. What is the approximate percentage increase in the production of Company A (in tonnes) from the year 2009 to the production of Company A (in tonnes) in the year 2010? (1) 18% (2) 38% (3) 23% (4) 27% (5) 32% Solution: Production of Company A in year 2009 = 550 Production of Company A in year 2010 = 700


Reqd % = 700−550

550 × 100 =

150

550 × 100

= 300

11 = 27.27 ≈ 27%

Ans: (4) 12. The sale of Company A in the year 2009 was approximately what percent of the production of Company A in the same year? (1) 65% (2) 73% (3) 79% (4) 83% (5) 69% Solution: Sales of Company A in year 2009 = 400 Production of Company A in year 2009 = 550

Reqd % = 400

550 × 100 =

800

11 = 72.72 ≈ 73%

Ans: (2) 13. What is the average production of Company B (in tonnes) from the year 2006 to the year 2011? (1) 574 (2) 649 (3) 675 (4) 593 (5) 618 Solution: Average production of Company B

= 600 +700 +800+600+650 +700

6

= 4050

6 = 675

Ans: (3)


14. What is the respective ratio of the total ‘production (in tonnes) of Company A to the total sales (in tonnes) of Company A? (1) 81: 64 (2) 64: 55 (3) 71: 81 (4) 71: 55 (5) 81: 55

Solution: Total Production of Company A

Total Sales of Company A

= 4050

2750 =

81

55 = 81: 55

Ans: (5) 15. What is the respective ratio of production of Company B (in tonnes) in the year 2006 to production of Company B (in tonnes) in the year 2008? (1) 2: 5 (2) 4: 5 (3) 3: 4 (4) 3: 5 (5) 1: 4 Solution: Production of Company B in the year 2006 = 150 × 4 = 600 Production of Company B in the year 2008 = 200 × 4 = 800

Ratio = 600

800 = 3: 4

Ans: (3)


Permutations

Introduction: In the SBI PO exams the questions based on Permutation have been asked few

times and from the exam point of view it is very important to understand the basic concepts of

permutation to solve those questions.

Factorial Notation: The product of n consecutive positive integers beginning with one is

denoted by n! And read as factorial n.

∴ n! = 1 × 2 × 3 ×……. × n – 1) × (n)

For example, 6! = 1 × 2 × 3 × 4 × 5 × 6 = 720.

0! = 1! = 1.

Permutation: The number of different arrangements which can be made by taking some or all

of the given things or objects at a time is called as permutation.

The symbol for permutation of n different things taking r at a time = n P r or n P r = 𝑛 !

𝑛 − 𝑟 !

For example, 5 P 3 = 5!

5−3 ! =

5!

2!=

1 × 2 × 3 × 4 × 5

1 × 2= 60.

Here, we will practice few questions to understand more about permutation.

The arrangement of a number of things taking some or all of them at a time is called permutation. If there are ‘n’ number of things and we have to select ‘r’ things at a time then

the total number of permutation is denoted by n𝑃𝑟 = 𝑛 !

𝑛−𝑟 !

For example if there are 3 candidates A ,B and C for the post of president and vice president of a college , since we have to select only 2 candidates , it can be done in 3! Ways. i.e. (A, B) (B, C) (A, C) (B, A) (C, B) and (C, A). Here order of arrangement matters.

Restricted Permutation:

Sometimes we have to find out the number of permutation keeping few specific objects at specific places. In this case, we find out the number of permutation of filling remaining vacant places by the remaining objects.

If r objects are taken out of n dissimilar objects

(i) A specific object is taken each time: if there are n objects 𝑎1 , 𝑎2 …………… . 𝑎𝑛 .

Suppose that 𝑎1 is taken each time. If 𝑎1 takes first place then the remaining (n-1)


objects can be arranged in n-1𝑃𝑟−1 ways. Since 𝑎1 can take any place so number of

permutation is r× n-1𝑃𝑟−1.

(ii) Specific object never taken: then r objects are taken out of (n-1) objects, so number of

permutation is n-1𝑃𝑟 .

{Note: n𝑃𝑟 = n-1𝑃𝑟 + r× n-1𝑃𝑟−1 }

Permutation of things when some are identical:

If we have n things in which p are exactly of one kind , q of second kind , r of third kind and the

rest are different then the number of permutation of n things taken all at a time n𝑃𝑟 = 𝑛 !

𝑝 !𝑞 !𝑟 !

Example: In how many ways can the letters of the word LEADER be arranged?

Solution: The word LEADER contains total 6 letters namely 1L, 2E, 1A, 1D, 1R

Therefore, the number of ways to arrange the letters of the word LEADER

= 6!

1!2!1!1!1! = 360.

Repetition of things:

The number of permutation formed by taking r things at a time out of n things in any object arrangement such that each object can be taken any number of time is 𝑛𝑟 .

Circular permutation:

If we fix one of the objects around the circumference of a circle then number of permutation of n different thing taken all at a time is (n-1)! Ways. It will be same as by putting (n-1) objects at (n-1) places.

But if we do not consider the direction i.e. clockwise and anticlockwise then the number of

permutation is 𝑛−1 !

2 .


PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Directions (Q. 1 – 20): Consider the arrangements of the letters of the word RAINBOW

1. In how many ways can the letters be arranged?

(a) 5040

(b) 4050

(c) 3040

(d) 8040

(e) None of these

2. How many words begin with R?

(a) 720

(b) 360

(c) 1440

(d) 1080

(e) None of these

3. How many words begin with R and ends with W?

(a) 120

(b) 240

(c) 180

(d) 360

(e) None of these

4. How many words are there in which R and W are at the end positions?

(a) 120

(b) 180

(c) 210

(d) 240

(e) None of these

5. How many words are there in which N and B are together?

(a) 720

(b) 360

(c) 540

(d) 1440

(e) None of these


6. How many words are there in which I and O are never together?

(a) 1440

(b) 720

(c) 3600

(d) 1440

(e) None of these

7. How many words are there in which vowels are never together?

(a) 720

(b) 1440

(c) 360

(d) 3600

(e) None of these

8. How many words are there in which A is always before I and I is always before O?

(a) 840

(b) 420

(c) 720

(d) 1080

(e) None of these

9. How many words are there in which vowels are always before the consonants?

(a) 72

(b) 144

(c) 96

(d) 120

(e) None of these

10. How many words are there in which first and last letters are vowels?

(a) 360

(b) 720

(c) 1440

(d) 2880

(e) None of these

11. If all the words formed are arranged in a dictionary form, then what is the position of the

word RAINBOW in that dictionary?

(a) 3136

(b) 3631

(c) 3361

(d) 1363


(e) None of these

12. If no two consonants are together then in how many ways can the letters be arranged?

(a) 441

(b) 420

(c) 360

(d) 144

(e) None of these

13. How many words can be formed so that the vowels may occupy only even positions?

(a) 567

(b) 144

(c) 576

(d) 625

(e) None of these

14. How many different words can be formed so that the vowels occupy odd places?

(a) 676

(b) 625

(c) 343

(d) 576

(e) None of these

15. In how many ways can the letters be arranged so that only two vowels always remain

together?

(a) 2880

(b) 1440

(c) 3200

(d) 4096

(e) None of these

16. There are 6 books on Physics, 3 on Chemistry and 4 on Biology. In how many ways can these

be placed on a shelf if the books on the same subject are to be together?

(a) 622080

(b) 888000

(c) 222000

(d) 413080

(e) None of these


17. In how many ways can the letters of the word TAMANNA be arranged?

(a) 120

(b) 420

(c) 840

(d) 720

(e) None of these

18. There are 3 red. 4 green and 5 pink marbles in a bag. They are drawn one by one and

arranged in a row. Assuming that all the 12 marbles are drawn, determine the number of

different arrangements.

(a) 22770

(b) 27720

(c) 22077

(d) 27270

(e) None of these

19. How many numbers of 5 digits can be formed with the digits 0, 2, 3, 4 and 5 if the digits

many repeat?

(a) 2500

(b) 250

(c) 120

(d) 2400

(e) None of these

20. How many numbers each lying between 9 and 1000 can be formed with the digits 0, 1, 2, 3,

7, 8 (numbers can be repeated)?

(a) 30

(b) 120

(c) 210

(d) 90

(e) None of these

Answers:-

1. (a)

2. (a)

3. (a)

4. (d)

5. (d)

6. (c)

7. (b)

8. (a)

9. (b)

10. (b)

11. (b)

12. (d)

13. (b)

14. (d)

15. (a)

16. (a)

17. (b)

18. (b)

19. (a)

20. (c)



1. There are 7 letters in the word RAINBOW and each letter is used only once. So all the 7

letters can be arranged in 7! Ways.

7! = 7×6×5×4×3×2×1 = 5040.

2. If we fix R as the initial letter, then we have to arrange only 6 remaining letters.

Hence required number of permutations = 6!

= 6 × 5 × 4 × 3 × 2 × 1 = 720

3. If we fix R and W as the first and last letters then we have to arrange only 5 remaining

letters which can be arranged in 5! = 120 ways.

4. When R and W are the first and last letters of all the words then we can arrange them in 5!

Ways. Similarly when W and R are the first and last letters of the words then the remaining

letters can be arrange in 5! Ways.

Thus the total number of permutations = 2 × 5!

= 2 × 120 = 240

Alternatively: Except to R and W all the remaining 5 letters can be arranged in 5! Ways and

R and W can be arranged in 2! Ways at the end positions.

The total number of permutations = 2! × 5! = 2×120 = 240

5. Assume N and B as a single letter, then we have only 6 letters for the arrangement

i.e., A, I, R, O, W, BN

which can be arranged in 6! Ways.

Now B and N can also be mutually arranged in 2! Ways

Therefore total number of arrangements = 2! × 6!

= 2 × 720 = 1140

6. Number of permutations when I and O are together

= 2! × 6! = 1440

(Very similar to the previous question)

Total number of permutations = 7! = 5040


Number of permutations when I and O are not together

= 5040 – 1440 = 3600

7. There are three vowels viz., A, I and O

First of all arrange all the four consonants which can be done in 4! Ways.

Now we have 5 places available for the three vowels to be filled up, which can be done in 5P3 ways.

Thus the total number of arrangements = 5

3

5!4! 24

2!P

= 24 × 60 = 1440

8. First of all we arrange all the 4 consonants in 4! Ways.

Now we have 5 places for the 3 vowels as 1. C1 2. C2 3. C3 4. C4 5.

I. When all the three vowels AIO are together then 5 places can be filled in 5 ways.

II. When A and I are together and O is separated from “AI” then the 5 places can be

filled up in 10 ways.

III. When I and O are together and A is separated from “IO” then the 5 places can be

filled up in 10 ways.

IV. When A, I and O are separated from each other then the 5 places can be filled up in

10 ways.

Thus there are total 5 + 10 + 10 + 10 = 35 ways in which 5 places can be filled up such that A

is before I and I is before O. Hence total number of ways in which all the 7 letters of

RAINBOW can be arranged in which A is before I and I is before O = 4! × 35 = 24 × 35 = 840.

Alternatively: All the 7 letters of the word RAINBOW can be arranged in 7! Ways.

And 3 particular letters (A, I, O) can be arranged in 3! Ways. But the given condition is

satisfied by only 1 cut of 6 ways, hence required number of arrangements.

7!7 6 5 4 840

3!

9. Let all the vowels be in a single packet and all the consonants be in the other packet.

Now all the vowels can be arranged in 3! Ways and all the consonants can be arranged in 4!

Ways.

Hence total number of arrangements = 3! × 4! = 6 × 24 = 144


10. The first and last letters can be arranged in 3P2 ways and the remaining letters can be

arranged in 5! Ways.

Hence required number of permutations

= 3P2 × 5! = 6 × 120 = 720

11. The correct order of the letters is as follows:

A, B, I, N, O, R, W

Number of words begin with A = 6!

Number of words begin with B = 6!

Number of words begin with I = 6!

Number of words begin with N = 6!

Number of words begin with O = 6!

Number of words begin with RAB = 4!

Number of words begin with RAIB = 3!

Now the next word is RAINBOW (it is the first word which begins with RAIN)

So the ranking of the word RAINBOW

= 5 × 6! + 4! + 3! + 1 = 3631

12. First arrange the 3 vowels which can be done in 3! Ways. Now there are 4 places created by

the 3 vowels which can be filled up by 4 consonants in 4P4 ways.

Therefore total number of required permutations

= 3! × 4P4 = 6 × 24 = 144

13. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7

In order that vowels may occupy even places arrange all the 3 vowels, then arrange all the

four consonants in four places. Thus the required number of arrangements = 3! × 4! = 144


14. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7

First or all arrange any 3 consonants at even places in 4P3 ways. Now the newly created

four odd places can be filled by the remaining letters which includes 3 vowels and 1

consonants, which can be done in 4P4 ways. Hence the required number of permutation

= 4P3 × 4P4 = 24 × 24 = 576

15. First of all arrange all the four consonants R, N, B, W in 4! Ways.

Then there are 5 places to be filled up by the vowels. But any two vowels are always

together then we assume that there are only two vowels which can be filled in 5 places in 5P2 ways. But we have to take any two vowels together out of 4 vowels then this can be

done in 3P2 ways.

Hence the total number of permutation = 5P2 × 3P2 × 4!

= 20 × 6 × 24 = 2880

16. All the 6 books on Physics can be mutually arranged in 6! Ways.

Similarly 3 books on Chemistry and 4 books on Biology can be arranged in 3! And 4! Ways

respectively.

Besides it the three sets of Physics, Chemistry and Biology also can be arranged in 3! Ways

Required number of permutations = 3! × 6! × 3! × 4! = 622080

17. There are total 7 letters of which A occurs 3 times and N occurs 2 times.

Hence, the required number of ways = 7!

4203! .2!

18. There are total 3 + 4 + 5 = 12 marbles of which 3 are red (alike), 4 green (alike) and 3 are

pink (alike).

The required number of arrangements 12 !

3! 4! 5!

= 27720

19. Ten thousands place can assume only non-zero digits hence ten thousands place can be

filled up in 4 ways and thousands place can be filled up in 5 ways since repetition is allowed

(and 0 can be filled up in this place). Similarly hundreds, tens and unit place be filled up in 5

ways each.

The required number of numbers = 4 × 5 × 5 × 5 × 5 = 2500


20. The number lying between 9 and 1000 consist of 2 or 3 digits in which repetitions are

allowed.

Case 1. (For two digit numbers)

As the tens place can be filled by only non-zero digits and unit digit can be filled up in 6

ways.

The number of 2 digit numbers = 5 × 6 = 30

Case 2. (For three digit numbers)

Hundreds place can be filled up by only non-zero digits hence it can be done in 5 ways and

the rest of the places i.e., tens and unit places can be filled up in 6 ways each.

The number of 3 digit numbers = 5 × 6 × 6 = 180

Total number of numbers = 30 + 180 = 210


Combinations

Introduction: In the SBI PO exams the questions based on Combination having been asked few

times and from the exam point of view it is very important to understand the basic concepts of

Combination to solve these questions.

Combination: The number of different selections or groups which can be made by taking some

or all of a number of given things or objects at a time is called combination.

The number of combinations of n different things taken r at a time = n C r or n C r .

Here, n C r = 𝑛 !

𝑟 !× 𝑛−𝑟 !

For example, 6 C 3 = 6!

3! × 6−3 !=

6×5×4×3×2×1

3×2×1×3×2×1= 20.

Few important results,

n C 0 = n C n = 1.

n C 1 = n C (n – 1) = n.

Here, we will practice few questions to understand more about combination.

From a given group of object each of the number of groups which are formed by taking some objects or all objects at a time without caring about the sequence of the objects is called combination. The number of combination formed by taking r objects at a time out of n object is denoted by n𝐶𝑟 where C expresses combination.

n𝐶𝑟 = 𝑛 !

𝑟! 𝑛−𝑟 !

For example if we have 3 objects A , B and C , 2 objects are taken out at a time then 3 combination are formed AB , BC and CA.

Note:

If r= 0 , then n𝐶0 = 𝑛 !

0! 𝑛−0 ! = 1

If r= 1 , then n𝐶1 = 𝑛 !

1! 𝑛−1 ! = n

If r= n , then n𝐶𝑛 = 𝑛 !

𝑛 ! 𝑛−𝑛 ! = 1

n𝐶𝑟 = n𝐶(𝑛−𝑟)


Example: Find the value of 𝟏𝟎𝟎𝑪𝟗𝟗.

Solution: We have, 100𝐶99 =

100 !

100−99 ! ×99! =

100 !

1! ×99! = 100 {Because 1! =1}

Restricted combination:

The combination of r object out of n objects on which p specific objects:

1. Are always included is n-p𝐶𝑟−𝑝 . We have to keep aside p specific objects and to select

remaining (n-p).

2. Are never included is n-p𝐶𝑟 . Since p specific object are never included we have to form

the combination taking r obects out of (n-p) objects.

The number of ways to select some or all thing out of any number of given thing:

There are 2 ways to select anything i.e. either it will be selected or not. Therefore number of ways to select n things is 2 × 2 × …………… n times = 2𝑛 . In these empty selection is also include. For non- empty selection is 2𝑛 -1.

Note: n𝐶1 + n𝐶2 +…………………………. + n𝐶𝑛 = 2𝑛 -1.

Difference between permutation and combination:

Suppose there are 5 objects out of which 2 have to be chosen.

Permutation Combination

Number of required way

= 5!

5−2 !

= 5!

3! = 5×4 = 20

= 5!

2! 5−2 !

= 5!

2!3! =

5×4

2= 10

So it is clear that in permutation order matters while in combination order does not matter.


PRACTICE QUESTIONS

1. In a test paper there are total 10 questions. In how many different ways can you choose 6

questions to answer?

(a) 210

(b) 540

(c) 336

(d) 120

(e) None of these

2. In the above question if the question number 1 is compulsory in how many ways can you

choose to answer 6 questions in all?

(a) 53

(b) 63

(c) 126

(d) 210

(e) None of these

3. Deepti has 5 friends. In how many ways can she invite one or more of them to a dinner?

(a) 31

(b) 55

(c) 13

(d) 25

(e) None of these

4. In how many ways can a committee of 6 members be formed from 7 men and 6 ladies

consisting of 4 men and 2 ladies?

(a) 252

(b) 525

(c) 625

(d) 256

(e) None of these

5. A committee of 5 persons is to be formed from a group of 6 gentlemen and 4 ladies. In how

many ways can this be done if the committee is to be included at least one lady?

(a) 123

(b) 113

(c) 246

(d) 945

(e) None of these


6. A committee of 7 persons is to be chosen from 13 persons of whom 6 are Americans and 7

are Indians. In how many ways can the selection be made so as to retain a majority of

Indians?

(a) 945

(b) 1057

(c) 923

(d) 1056

(e) None of these

7. In how many ways can a committee of 4 men and 3 women be appointed from 6 men and 8

women?

(a) 480

(b) 408

(c) 420

(d) 840

(e) None of these

8. In the previous question what will be the number of committees in which Miss A refuses to

serve if Mr. B is a member?

(a) 210

(b) 420

(c) 630

(d) 720

(e) None of these

9. A committee of 3 experts is to be selected out of a panel of 7 persons, three of them are

engineers, three of them are managers and one is both engineer and manager. In how

many ways can the committee be selected if it must have at least an engineer and a

manager?

(a) 33

(b) 22

(c) 11

(d) 66

(e) None of these

10. A committee of 5 persons is to be formed out of 6 gents and 4 ladies. In how many ways

this can be done, when at most two ladies are included?

(a) 186

(b) 168

(c) 136


(d) 169

(e) None of these

11. Mr. Adi has 18 acquaintances of whom 13 are relatives. In how many ways he may invite 10

guests so that 8 of whom are relatives?

(a) 12870

(b) 22022

(c) 20222

(d) 12780

(e) None of these

12. If there are 11 players in a cricket team, all of whom shake hands with each other, how

many shake hands take place in the team?

(a) 36

(b) 55

(c) 66

(d) 96

(e) None of these

13. Amit has a list of 24 friends. He wishes to invite some of them in such a manner that he can

enjoy maximum number of parties, but in each party the number of friends (i.e., invitees)

be same and each party must have different set of persons. Then how many parties can

Amitabh enjoy?

(a) 2704156

(b) 357600

(c) 235763

(d) 270156

(e) None of these

14. An ice-cream parlor offers only family packs of ice-creams with 11 different flavors. If each

member of a family loves different flavors, the maximum how many such families can

purchase the ice-cream if each family contains equal number of persons?

(a) 246

(b) 462

(c) 123

(d) 11C2

(e) None of these


15. In the previous question what is the maximum possible number of member in a family?

(a) 4

(b) 5

(c) 6

(d) 8

(e) None of these

16. In a meeting everyone had shaken hands with everyone else, it was found that 66

handshakes were exchanged. How many members were present in the meeting?

(a) 10

(b) 14

(c) 12

(d) 8

(e) None of these

17. A cricket team of 11 players is to be formed from 16 players including 4 bowlers and 2

wicket keepers. In how many different ways can a team be formed so that the team has

atleast 3 bowlers and at least one wicket keeper?

(a) 2472

(b) 2274

(c) 2472

(d) 1236

(e) None of these

18. A cricket team of 11 players is to be formed from 20 players including 6 bowlers and 3

wicket keepers. In how many different ways can a team be formed so that the team contain

exactly 2 wicket keepers and at least 4 bowlers?

(a) 22725

(b) 27225

(c) 22275

(d) 22775

(e) None of these

19. An urn contains 5 different red and 6 different green balls. In how many ways can 6 balls be

selected so that there are at least two balls of each colour?

(a) 425

(b) 245

(c) 125

(d) 625

(e) None of these


20. Find the number of straight lines formed by joining 6 different points on a plane, no three of

them being collinear.

(a) 21

(b) 15

(c) 16

(d) 24

(e) None of these

Answers:-

1. (a)

2. (c)

3. (a)

4. (b)

5. (c)

6. (b)

7. (d)

8. (c)

9. (a)

10. (a)

11. (a)

12. (b)

13. (a)

14. (b)

15. (c)

16. (c)

17. (a)

18. (b)

19. (a)

20. (b)

Answer Explanations:-

1. Out of 10 questions, 6 questions can be selected in 10C6 ways

10C6 = 210

2. Since question number 1 is compulsory so we have to choose only 5 questions from rest of

the 9 questions, which can be done in 9C5 ways

9C5 = 126

3. She may invite one or more friends by selecting either 1 or 2 or 3 or 4 or 5 friends out of 5

friends.

1 friend can be selected out of 5 in 5C1 ways

2 friends can be selected out of 5 in 5C2 ways




Hence the required number of ways

= 5C1 + 5C2 + 5C3 + 5C4 + 5C5

= 5 + 10 + 10 + 5 + 1 = 31


Alternatively: 5C1 + 5C2 + 5C3 + 5C4 + 5C5 = 25 – 1 = 3 !

Since, nC1 + nC2 + nC3 + …. + nCn = 2n –1

4. A men can be selected out of 7 men in 7C4 ways

And ladies can be selected out of 6 ladies in 6C2 ways

Hence, the required number of ways = 7C4 × 6C2 = 35 × 15 = 525

5. A committee of 5 persons is to be formed from 6 gentlemen and 4 ladies by taking.

a. 1 lady out of 4 and 4 gentlemen out of 6.

b. 2 ladies out of 4 and 3 gentlemen out of 6.

c. 3 ladies out of 4 and 2 gentlemen out of 6.

d. 4 ladies out of 4 and 1 gentlemen out of 6.

In case I the number of ways = 4C1 × 6C4 = 4×15 = 60

In case II the number of ways = 4C2 × 6C3 = 6×20 = 120

In case III the number of ways = 4C3 × 6C2 = 4×15 = 60

In case IV the number of ways = 4C4 × 6C1 = 1×6 = 6

Hence, the required number of ways = 60 + 120 + 60 + 6 = 246

6. A committee of 7 persons retaining a majority of Indians can be made from 6 Americans

and 7 Indians by taking.

a. 1 American out of 6 and 6 Indians out of 7.

b. 2 Americans out of 6 and 5 Indians out of 7.

c. 3 Americans out of 6 and4 Indians out of 7.

In case I the number of ways = 6C1 × 7C6 = 6 × 7 = 42

In case II the number of ways = 6C2 × 7C5 = 15 ×21 = 315

In case III the number of ways = 6C3 × 7C4 = 20 × 35 = 300

Hence, the required number of ways = 700 + 315 + 42 = 1057

7. Required number of ways = 6C4 × 8C3 = 15 × 56 = 840

8. The number of committees in which both Miss. A and Mr. B are always members. We can

select rest 3 men from the remaining 5 in 5C3 ways and rest 2 women from the remaining 7

in 7C2 ways.

The required number of ways in which both Miss. A and Mr. B are always included


= 5C3 × 7C2 = 10 × 21 = 210

Hence the required number of ways in which Miss. A and Mr. B do not serve together =

840–210 = 630

9. 3 experts including at least an engineer and a manager can be selected by taking.

a. 2 managers out of 3 and 1 engineer out of 3.

b. 1 manager out of 3 and 2 engineer out of 3.

c. 2 persons out of 6 (3 managers and 3 engineers) and 1 person out of one who is both

engineer and manager.

In case I, the number of ways = 3C2 × 3C1 = 9

In case II, the number of ways = 3C1 × 3C2 = 9

In case III, the number of ways = 6C2 × 1C1 = 15

Hence, the required number of ways = 9 + 9 + 15 = 33.

10. A committee of 5 persons, consisting of at most two ladies, can be formed in the following

ways.

a. Selecting 5 gents only out of 6.

b. Selecting 4 gents only out of 6 and one lady out of 4.

c. Selecting 3 gents only out of 6 and two ladies out of 4.

In case I, the number of ways = 6C5

In case II, the number of ways = 6C4 × 4C1

In case III, the number of ways = 6C3 × 4C2

Required number of ways = 6C5 + 6C4 × 4C1 + 6C3 × 4C2

= 6 + 60 + 120 = 186

11. Required number of ways = 13C8 × 5C2 = 1287 × 10 = 12870

12. One hand shake requires two different persons.

Number of hand shakes

= number of ways of selecting two persons out of 11 persons

= 11C2 = 55


13. If n is even, nCr is maximum when r = 2

n

Number of invitees in a party 24

122

And maximum possible number of parties = 24C12 = 2704156

14. If n is odd, nCr is maximum when

–1

2

nr or

1

2

nr

11–1

52

r or 11 1

62

r

11C5 = 11C6 = 462

15. Possible number of members in a family is either 5 or 6.

So, the maximum possible number of family members = 6

16. Let there were n persons in the meeting, then number of handshakes = nC2

nC2 = 66

!

662!( – 2)!

n

n

( – 1)

662

n n

n(n–1) = 132

n = 12

Alternatively: Go through options.

17. Total number of bowlers = 4

Total number of wickets keepers = 2

Rest (normal) players = 10


Possible Combinations:

Bowlers Wicket

Keepers

Normal

Players

3 1 7

3 2 6

4 1 6

4 2 5

Required number of ways

= (4C3 × 2C1 × 10C7) + (4C3 × 2C2 × 10C6) + (4C4 × 2C1 × 10C6) + (4C4 × 2C2 × 10C5)

= (3×1×7) + (3×2×6) + (4×1×6)+ (4×2×5)

= 960 + 840 + 420 + 252 = 2472

18. Total number of bowles = 6

Total number of wicket keepers = 3

Total number of normal players = 11 [20–(6+3)]

Possible combinations:

Bowlers Wicket

Keepers

Normal

Players

4 2 5

5 2 4

6 2 3


Required number of ways

= (6C4 × 3C2 × 11C5) + (6C5 × 3C2 × 11C4) + (6C6 × 3C2 × 11C3)

= 20790 + 5940 + 495 = 27225

19. Total number of red balls = 5

Total number of green balls = 6

Possible Combinations are:

Red Green

2 4

3 3

4 2

Required number of selections

= (5C2 × 6C4) + (5C3 × 6C3) + (5C4 × 6C2) = 425

20. A line required 2 end points for its formation.

Hence required number of lines

= 2 points selected from 6 points

= 6C2 = 15

Thus out of total 6 non-collinear point 15 lines can be drawn.


Probability

Introduction: With the changing pattern of bank PO exams the State Bank of India has also

included few questions from probability to access the quantitative aptitude of a candidate. The

questions of probability in the exam are also based on a given data but in the next exam there

may be some changes in the questioning pattern. Therefore, we have included this chapter for

the candidates to increase their possibility of being selected in the exam. Here, we will study

the basic concepts of probability and also solve few questions.

Probability: It is a mathematical measurement of uncertainty of an event. The value of

Probability varies from 0 to 1. The 0 value of an event’s probability indicates that the event

cannot happen. On the other side the value 1 for any event indicates that the event is certain.

Some Important Term

1. Experiment: It is an operation which produces some well defined outcomes.

2. Random Experiment: It is an experiment in which all the possible outcomes are known but

the exact output cannot be predicted in advance.

For example; Rolling an unbiased dice, Tossing a fair coin etc.

3. Sample Space: It is a set of all possible outcomes of a random experiment.

For Example; if we toss a coin the possible outcomes are head (H) and tail (T). Therefore the

sample space for tossing a coin = {H, T}.

4. Event: It is a subset of a sample space. It can be understood as an element or a group of

elements from the sample space set.

For Example; if we toss two coins, the possible outcomes are {HH, HT, TH, TT}. Here the

events can be; only H = {HH}, only one H = {HT, TH} or no H = {TT}.

5. Probability of an Event:

Let S be the sample space and E be and Event in the given sample space.

Then, E S.

∴ 𝐏 𝐄 =𝐧(𝐄)

𝐧(𝐒).

Some Important Results

1. P(S) = 1,

2. 0P(E)1

3. P( ) = 0

4. For event A and B, P (A ∪ B) = P (A) + P (B) – P (A ∩ B)

5. If A is (not A), then P ( A ) = 1 – P (A).

Some Important Formulae

1. n ! = n (n – 1) (n – 2) ......... 3.2.1


2. 0 ! = 1 = 1 !

3. Selection of r things out of n things = n C r = 𝑛 !

𝑟 ! 𝑛−𝑟 ! =

𝑛 𝑛 − 1 𝑛 − 2 …… 𝑡𝑜 𝑟 𝑓𝑎𝑐𝑡𝑜𝑟𝑠

𝑟 𝑟 − 1 𝑟 − 2 ….. 3.2.1

4. n C n = n C 0 = 1

5. n C r = n C (n – r)

The mathematical measure of the uncertainty is called probability. For example, consider the following questions:

(a) Will it rain today? (b) Which of the three candidates will win? (c) On throwing a dice, the number obtained will be even or odd? (d) On tossing a coin, head will occur or tail will occur?

The answer to all these question is not sure i.e. there is uncertainty .We study the uncertainty of the result of such question in the theory of probability , which may not have one result but more than one result are possible .

Random experiment:

The experiments in which the outcomes cannot be predicted before hand is called random experiments. When these kind of experiment are repeated under identical condition, they do not produce the same outcome every time and there may be many possible outcome which depends upon chance and cannot be predicted. For example, on tossing a coin either the head will come up or the tail will come up, we cannot predict it. This is an example of random event.

Sample Space:

The set of all possible outcomes of experiments is called the sample space and it is denoted by S. And the subset of a sample space is called an event. That is, every subset A of the sample space S is an event of that random experiment. For example, in an experiment of tossing a coin, if h is obtained then it is a random event, since here S = {H, T} and {H}⊆S

Now, the probability of any event A can be defined as the ratio between the number of favourable outcomes to the event A and the number of total equiprobable outcomes, that is

P(A) = 𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟 𝑜𝑓 𝑓𝑎𝑣𝑜𝑢𝑟𝑎𝑏𝑙𝑒 𝑜𝑢𝑡𝑐𝑜𝑚𝑒𝑠 𝑡𝑜 𝑡ℎ𝑎𝑡 𝑒𝑣𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝐴

𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟 𝑜𝑓 𝑡𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑜𝑢𝑡𝑐𝑜𝑚𝑒𝑠 𝑟𝑒𝑙𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑑 𝑡𝑜 𝑡ℎ𝑎𝑡 𝑒𝑣𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝐴=

𝑛(𝐴)

𝑛(𝑆)

Here it should be noted that the probability of a certain or sure event is 1 and that of impossible event is 0.

Now, since the probability of an event to occur is = 𝑛(𝐴)

𝑛(𝑆)

So the probability of an event A not to occur is = 1 – 𝑛(𝐴)

𝑛(𝑆)


Mutually Exclusive events:

Two events A and B are said to be mutually exclusive if they cannot occur together, that is simultaneously. For example , on throwing a dice , the events A = { 2,4,6 } and B = { 1,3,5 } are mutually exclusive events , i.e. A∩B =𝜑.

In term of probability if A and B are mutually exclusive events, then

P (A∪B) = P (A) + P (B) and,

P (S) = P (A) + P (A’) = 1 where A’ is Complement of A.

Example: If a dice is thrown once then the probability of the number appearing on dice is more than 2?

(a) 1/3 (b) 1/2 (c) 2/3 (d) 4.3/4

Solution: As there are 6 faces on a dice, So the total number of possible events are 1, 2 , 3 ……. 6 , that is = 6 Now the number more than are 3, 4 , 5 and 6 So total number of favourable events = Probability of an event = Number of favourable events

Number of possible events

Required probability = 4

6 =

2

3

Example : An urn contains 3 green, 6 red, and 4 black balls. 3 balls are drawn. Find the probability that all 3 balls are of same colour?

(a) 3/44 (b) 25/286 (c) 15/286 (d) 5/286

Solution: Total number of balls in an urn is 13.

Number of ways 3 balls can be drawn out of 13 balls = 13𝐶3= 13×12×11

1×2×3 = 286

Numbers of ways 3 green balls are drawn = 3𝐶3 = 3×2×1

1×2×3 = 1

Numbers of ways 6 red balls are drawn = 6𝐶3 = 6×5×4

1×2×3 = 20

Numbers of ways 4 black balls are drawn = 4𝐶3 = 4×3×2

1×2×3 = 4


Now,

The required probability = 1

286 +

20

286 +

4

286 =

25

286

SOLVED EXAMPLES

1. In how many different ways can the letters of the word 'THERAPY' be arranged so that the vowels never come together? (IBPS CWE PO MT 2012)

(1) 720 (2) 1440 (3) 5040 (4) 3600 (5) 4800 Solution: Total number of letters is 7, and these letters can be arranged in 7! ways . = 1 x 2 x 3 x 4 x 5 x 6 x 7 = 5040 ways There are seven letters in the word THERAPY including 2 vowels. (E, A) and five consonants. Consider two vowels as one letter. We have 6 letters which can be arranged in 6P6 = 6 ways. But vowels can be arranged in 2! ways. Hence, the number of ways, all vowels will come together = 6! x 2! = 1 x 2 x 3 x 4 x 5 x 6 x 2 = 1440 Total number of ways in which vowels will never come together = 5040 - 1440 = 3600 Ans: (4) 2. A bag contains 13 white and 7 black balls. Two balls are drawn at random. What is the probability that they are of the same colour? (IBPS CWE PO MT 2012)

(1) 41

190

(2) 21

190

(3) 59

190

(4) 99

190


(5) 77

190

Solution: Total number of balls = 13 + 7 = 20 Number of sample space = n(S) = 20C2 = 190 Number of events = n(E) = 13C2 + 7C2 = 78 + 21 = 99

∴ P(E) = n(E)

n(S) =

99

190

Ans: (4)

Directions (1-5): Study the given information carefully to answer the questions that follow. An urn contains 4 green, 5 blue, 2 red and 3 yellow marbles.

3. If two marbles are drawn at random, what is the probability that both are red or at least one is red?

(1) 26

91

(2) 1

7

(3) 199

364

(4) 133

191

(5) None of these

Solution: Total number of marbles in the urn

= 4 + 5 + 2 + 3 = 14

Total number of possible outcomes

= Selection of 2 marbles out of 14 marbles

= 14C2= 14 × 13

1 × 2= 91

Total number of favourble cases

= 2C2 + 2C1 + 12C1 = 1 + 2 x 12 = 25

∴ required probability = 25

91

Ans: (5)


4. If three marbles are drawn at random, what is the probability that at least one is yellow?

(1) 1

3

(2) 199

264

(3) 165

364

(4) 3

11

(5) None of these

Solution: Total number of possible outcomes

= 14C3 = 14 × 13 ×12

1 × 2 × 3 = 364

When no marbles is yellow, favourable number of cases

= 14C3 = 11 × 10 ×9

1 × 2 × 3 = 165

∴ Probability that no marble is yellow = 165

364

∴ required probability = (Probability that at least one is yellow) = (1 - Probability that no marble is yellow)

= 1- 165

364 =

364−165

364 =

199

364

Ans: (3)

5. If eight marbles are drawn at random, what is the probability that there are equal numbers of marbles of each colour?

(1) 4

7

(2) 361

728

(3) 60

1001

(4) 1

1

(5) None of these


Solution: Total possible outcomes = 14C8 = 14C6 [∵ nCr = nCn-r]

14×13 × 12×11×10×9

1×2×3×4×5×6 = 3003

Total number of favourable cases

= 4C2 x 5C2 x 2C2 X 3C2 = 6 x 10 x 1 x 3 = 180 = 3003


3003 =

60

1001

Ans: (3)

6. If three marbles are drawn at random, what is the probability that none is green?

(1) 2

7

(2) 253

728

(3) 10

21

(4) 14

21

(5) 30

91


= 14C2 = 14×13 ×12

1×2×3 = 364

Now, according tot the question, no marble should be green.

∴Total number of favourable outcomes

= Selection of 3 marbles out of 5 blue, 2 red and 3 yellow marbles

= 10C3 = 10 x 9 x 8

1×2×3 = 120


364 =

30

91

Ans: (5)


7. If three marbles are drawn at random, what is the probability that two are blue and two are red?

(1) 10

1001

(2) 9

14

(3) 17

364

(4) 2

7

(5) None of these


= 14C4 = 14×13×12×11

1×2×3×4 = 1001

Total number of favourable cases

= 5C2 x 22C = 10 x 1 = 10


1001

Ans: (1)

Directions (Q. 8-10): Study the given information carefully and answer the questions that follow:

A basket contains 4 red, 5 blue and 3 green marbles.

8. If three marbles are picked at random, what is the probability that either all are green or all are red?

1) 7

44

2) 7

12

3) 5

12

4) 1

44


5) None of these

Solution : P(All Green) + P(All Red) = 3C3 / 12C3 + 4C3 / 12C3 = 1/44 Ans : (4)

9. If two marbles are drawn at random, what is the probability that both are red?

1) 3

7

2) 1

2

3) 2

11

4) 1

6

5) None of these

Solution : 4C2 / 12C2 = 1/11

Ans : (5)

10. If three marbles are picked at random, what is the probability that at least one is blue?

1) 7

12

2) 37

44

3) 5

12

4) 7

44

5) None of these

Solution: 1 – P (None Blue)

= 1- (7C3 / 12C3) = 37/44


PRACTICE QUESTIONS

1. Three unbiased coins are tossed. The probability of getting two heads is

(a) 1

8

(b) 3

8

(c) 5

8

(d) 7

8

(e) None of these

2. Three unbiased coins are tossed. The probability of getting one head is

(a) 1

8

(b) 3

8

(c) 5

8

(d) 7

8

(e) None of these

3. Three unbiased coins are tossed. The probability of getting at least one head is

(a) 1

8

(b) 3

8

(c) 5

8

(d) 7

8

(e) None of these

4. Three unbiased coins are tossed. The probability of getting at most one head is

(a) 1

2

(b) 3

8

(c) 5

8

(d) 7

8

(e) None of these


5. Two dice are thrown simultaneously. What is the probability of obtaining a total score of

six?

(a) 1

2

(b) 1

4

(c) 5

36

(d) 1

3

(e) None of these

6. Two dice are thrown simultaneously. What is the probability of getting same digits on both

the dice?

(a) 1

2

(b) 1

4

(c) 5

36

(d) 1

6

(e) None of these

7. Two dice are thrown simultaneously. What is the probability of getting at least total score of

seven?

(a) 7

12

(b) 1

4

(c) 5

36

(d) 1

3

(e) None of these

8. Two dice are thrown simultaneously. What is the probability that the obtained value on the

both faces is not same?

(a) 1

2

(b) 1

4

(c) 5

6

(d) 1

6

(e) None of these


9. A bag contains 6 red and 4 blue balls. If 4 balls are drawn at random. The probability that 2

are red and 2 are blue is

(a) 1

2

(b) 1

4

(c) 3

7

(d) 1

6

(e) None of these

10. A bag contains 7 red and 8 blue balls. If 5 balls are drawn at random. The probability that at

least 4 blue balls are drawn is

(a) 17

2002

(b) 19

2002

(c) 42

1001

(d) 19

3003

(e) None of these

Answers:-

1. (b)

2. (b)

3. (d)

4. (a)

5. (c)

6. (d)

7. (a)

8. (c)

9. (c)

10. (c)

Answer Hints:

1. All the possible outcomes when three coins are tossed;

{hhh, hht, hth, thh, htt, tht, tth, ttt}

3. The favourable events are {hhh, hht, hth, thh, htt, tht, tth}

5. All the possible outcomes when two dice are throw

{(1, 1), (1, 2), (1, 3), (1, 4), (1, 5), (1, 6),

(2, 1), (2, 2), (2, 3), (2, 4), (2, 5), (2, 6),

(3, 1), (3, 2), (3, 3), (3, 4), (3, 5), (3, 6),

(4, 1), (4, 2), (4, 3), (4, 4), (4, 5), (4, 6),


(5, 1), (5, 2), (5, 3), (5, 4), (5, 5), (5, 6),

(5, 1), (5, 2), (5, 3), (5, 4), (5, 5), (5, 6)}

9. Here the number of sample space means selection of 4 balls out of 10 balls = 10C4 = 10!

4! 10−4 !=

10×9×8×7×6×5×4×3×2×1

4×3×2×1×6×5×4×3×2×1 = 201.

Now the favourable events of selecting 2 red balls out of 6 red balls and 2 blue balls out of 4

blue balls = 4 C 2 × 6 C 2 = 4×3×2×1

2×1×2×1×

6×5×4×3×2×1

2×1×4×3×2×1 = 90.

Therefore the required probability = 90

210 =

3

7.


Ratio & Proportion

Introduction: The concept of Ratio and Proportion is very useful to solve questions on Data

Interpretation. In this Unit we will learn the concepts of the topic and solve few questions.

Ratio: A ratio is a comparison of two numbers (quantity in the same unit). It is written as, a: b = a

b = a ÷b, where a and b are two number (quantity).

In a ratio a : b, a and b are the terms of the ratio; ‘a’ is called the antecedent and ‘b’ is called

the consequent.

The word ‘antecedent’ literally means ‘that which goes before’ and the word consequent

literally means ‘that which goes after’.

Compound Ratio: Compounded ratio is a product of two or more ratios.

Example: Find the ratio compounded of the three ratios:

2 : 3, 3 : 4 and 7 : 11

Solution: the required ratio is = 2 × 3 ×7

3 ×4 ×11=

7

22.

Inverse Ratio: If a : b is a given ratio, then 1

a∶

1

b or b : a is called its inverse ratio or reciprocal

ratio.

If the antecedent (a) = the consequent (b), the ratio is called the ratio of equality, such as 2 : 2.

If the antecedent (a) > the consequent (b), the ratio is called the ratio of greater inequality,

such as 3 : 2.

If the antecedent (a) < the consequent (b), the ratio is called the ratio of less inequality, such as

2 : 3.

Proportion: A proportion expresses the equality of two ratios. e.g. a

b=

c

d

Or a : b = c : d or a : b :: c : d.


In a proportion in the form of a : b :: c : d the first and the last terms are called the extremes

and the second and the third terms or the middle terms are called as the mean terms. When

four quantities are in proportion, we can write it in the mathematical form as a : b :: c : d a

b=

c

d ad = bc

PRACTICE QUESTIONS

1. If 2A = 3B =4C, then A : B : C is ;

(a) 2 : 3 : 4

(b) 4 : 3 : 2

(c) 6 : 4 : 3

(d) 3 : 4 : 3

(e) None of these

2. If 𝐴

3=

𝐵

4=

𝐶

5, then A : B : C is ;

(a) 4 : 3 : 5

(b) 3 : 4 : 5

(c) 5 : 4 : 3

(d) 5 : 3 : 4

(e) None of these

3. The ratio of 43.5 : 25 is same as :

(a) 2 : 1

(b) 4 : 1

(c) 8 : 1

(d) 16 : 1

(e) None of these

4. If 1

5:

1

𝑥=

1

𝑥:

1

1.25 then the value of x is :

(a) 1.5

(b) 2

(c) 2.5

(d) 3.5

(e) None of these

5. If x : y = 5 : 2, the (8x+9y) : (8x + 3y) is :

(a) 23 : 29

(b) 26 : 61

(c) 31 : 21

(d) 29 : 23


(e) None of these

6. If 15% of x = 20% of y, then x : y is :

(a) 4 : 3

(b) 3 : 4

(c) 7 : 3

(d) 7 : 4

(e) None of these

7. If x : y =3 : 2, then (x2 – y2) : (x2 + y2) is :

(a) 5 : 13

(b) 13 : 5

(c) 9 : 4

(d) 4 : 9

(e) None of these

8. If 𝑥

4=

𝑦

5, then (x + 4) : (y + 5) is equal to :

(a) 4 : 9

(b) 9 : 4

(c) 5 : 4

(d) 4 : 5

(e) None of these

9. If 𝑎

3=

𝑏

4=

𝑐

5, then

𝑎+𝑏+𝑐

𝑐 is :

(a) 12 : 5

(b) 13 : 5

(c) 13 : 6

(d) 5 : 12

(e) None of these

10. If Rs. 483 be divided into three parts, proportional to 1

2∶

2

3∶

3

4, then the first part is :

(a) 155

(b) 126

(c) 137

(d) 115

(e) None of these


Answers

1. (c )

2. (b)

3. (b)

4. (c)

5. (d)

6. (a)

7. (a)

8. (d)

9. (a)

10. (b)


Average

Introduction: In this unit, we will learn the concept of Average and solve the questions based

on it. The concept of Average is very helpful in solving various kinds of questions on Data

Interpretation and Analysis.

In this unit, we will learn the average, which is in more accurate meaning called as an arithmetic

mean.

Average is defined as the sum of n different numerical values divided by n.

Average = 𝐒𝐮𝐦 𝐨𝐟 𝐧 𝐝𝐢𝐟𝐟𝐞𝐫𝐞𝐧𝐭 𝐍𝐮𝐦𝐞𝐫𝐢𝐜𝐚𝐥 𝐕𝐚𝐥𝐮𝐞

𝐧

Average Speed = 𝐓𝐨𝐭𝐚𝐥 𝐃𝐢𝐬𝐭𝐚𝐧𝐜𝐞

𝐓𝐨𝐭𝐚𝐥 𝐒𝐩𝐞𝐞𝐝

If a person covers half of his journey at a speed of x km/h and the next half at the speed of y

km/h, then the average speed during the whole journey is 𝟐𝒙𝒚

𝒙 + 𝒚 .

Weighted Average of x1, x2 where weight is w1, w2 = 𝒘𝟏𝒙𝟏 + 𝒘𝟐𝒙𝟐

𝒘𝟏 + 𝒘𝟐.

Average of different groups

If the average of a group of n items is a and the average of another group of m items is m,

then the combined average = 𝐧𝐚 + 𝐦𝐛

𝐧 + 𝐦.

The term Average refers to the sum of all observations divided by the total number of observations. Average is used quite regular in our day to day life. For example to calculate the average marks of the students, Average height of a particular group etc. The term average is also referred to as ‘Mean’. Basic formula to calculate the average is as follows:

Average = ( Su m of all observation

Number of observation)

Example. What is the average of First 10 Prime numbers?

Solution: First 10 Prime number are 2,3,5,7,11,13,17,19,23,29.

Hence, Average = {2+3+5+7+11+13+17+19+23+29} / 10

= 129 / 10

= 12.90


So, Average of First 10 Prime numbers is 12.90.

Example. The total number of sales visits made by a Salesman in the month of June is 90. What is the Average visit he makes per day?

Solution: Number of days in the month of June are 30

Hence, Average Visit per day = Number of total visits / Number of total days

= 90 / 30

= 3

So, the salesman makes 3 visits per day.


PRACTICE QUESTIONS

1. The average of a non-zero number and its square is 5 times the number. The number is:

(a) 9

(b) 17

(c) 29

(d) 295

(e) None of these

2. The average age of the boys in a class is 16 and that of the girls is 15 years. The average age

for the whole class is :

(a) 15 years

(b) 15.5 years

(c) 16 years


(e) None of these

3. The average run of a cricket player of 10 innings was 25. How many runs must he make in his

next inning so that his average becomes 30.

(a) 25

(b) 30

(c) 80

(d) 100

(e) None of these

4. The mean of 36 observations was 25. It was found later that an observation 24 was wrongly

taken as 42. The corrected new mean is :

(a) 24

(b) 24.5

(c) 25

(d) 25.5

(e) None of these

5. The average weight of A, B and C is 50 kg. If the average weight of A and B be 45 kg and that

of B and C be 54 kg, then the weight of B is :

(a) 45

(b) 48

(c) 50

(d) 55

(e) None of these


Answers

1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (b)

Answer Hints

1. (a) Let the number be x. Then

x2 + x

2= 5x x2 + x = 10xx2 + x − 10x = 0x x − 9 = 0 ∴ x = 9.

2. (d) We can’t determine the average because there is no information about no. of girls and no.

of boys.

3. (c) His total runs after 10 innings = 25 × 10 = 250 and his total score after 11th inning should

be 11 × 30 = 330 to make his average 30. Therefore he requires another 330 – 250 = 80 runs.

4. (b) The wrongly taken figure is 42 for 24. It means, in the corrected average total value will

decrease by (42 – 24) = 18. Therefore the corrected average will reduce by 18

36 = 0.5.

5. (b) the total weight of A, B and C is

A + B + C = 50 × 3 = 150 ……(1)

Similarly, A + B = 45 × 2 = 90 …….(2)

And B + C = 54 × 2 = 108 ……….(3)

By (2) + (3) – (1)

A + B + B + C – A – B – C = 108 + 90 – 150

∴ B = 48.


Percentage

Introduction: In this unit, we will study about the concepts of Percentage and the questions

based on the topic. The concepts of percentage are very helpful in solving various kinds of

questions on Data Interpretation and Analysis.

Percentage: The term “per cent” means “for every hundred”. A fraction whose denominators

is 100 is called a percentage and the numerator of the fraction is called the rate per cent. It is

denoted by the symbol %.

Here x % = 𝐱

𝟏𝟎𝟎 . For example 10% =

𝟏𝟎

𝟏𝟎𝟎=

𝟏

𝟏𝟎.

Similarly, fraction can be changed in the form of percentage when we multiply them by 100.

For Example 𝟏

∶ 𝟒=

𝟏

𝟒× 𝟏𝟎𝟎 = 𝟐𝟓%.

To decrease a number by a given %:

Multiple the numbers by the factor 100−Rate

100

To find the % increase of a number:

% increase = Total increase

Initial value × 100 =

Final value −Initial value

Initial value × 100

To find the % decrease of a number:

% decrease = Total decrease

Initial value × 100 =

Final value −Final value

Initial value × 100


PRACTICE QUESTIONS

1. In an election between two candidates, 75% of the voters casted their votes, out of which 2%

of the votes were declared invalid. A candidate got 9261 votes which were 75% of the total

valid votes. Find the total number of votes enrolled in that election.

(a) 15000

(b) 16000

(c) 16800

(d) 17000

(e) None of these

2. If 50% of (x – y) = 30% of (x + y), then what percent of x is y?

(a) 25%

(b) 50%

(c) 75%

(d) 100%

(e) None of these

3. The salary of a person was reduced by 10%. By what percent should his reduced salary be

raised so as to bring it at par with his original salary?

(a) 10 %

(b) 111

9%

(c) 12 %

(d) 13 %

(e) None of these

4. A single discount equivalent to a discount series 10%, 20% and 10% is

(a) 40 %

(b) 35.2 %

(c) 30 %

(d) 25.8 %

(e) None of these

5. A single discount equivalent to a discount series 50% + 30% + 20% is

(a) 100 %

(b) 80 %

(c) 75 %

(d) 72 %

(e) None of these


Answers

1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (d)

Answer Hints

1. (c) Let the total enrolled votes are x.

Then, Number of votes cast = 75 % of x. Valid votes = 98 % of (75 % of x).

∴ 75 % 0f [98 % of (75 % of x)] = 9261.

2. (a) here 50% of (x – y) = 30% of (x + y)50

100 x − y =

30

100(x + y) 10(x – y) = 6(x + y)

10x – 6x = 6y + 10y4x = 16y 1

4 x = y 25 % of x = y. because

1

4= 25%.

4. (b) Let we have 100 initially first 10 % discount = 100 × 10

100 = 10.

The second discount 20 % = 90 × 20

100 = 18.

The third discount 10 % = 72 × 10

100 = 7.2.

Hence total discount = 10 + 18 + 7.2 = 35.2.


English Language

Antonyms

Introduction: In this unit we will study about antonyms. The questions about antonyms are generally asked in SBI PO exams. The SBI PO exam will contain about three to five questions based on synonyms.

Antonyms: The word comes from ancient Greek words ‘anti’ and ‘onoma’ where ‘anti’ means

‘opposite’ and ‘onoma’ means ‘name’. The literal meaning of antonyms is the opposite name

which means the word which has opposite meaning. For example; Day – Night, Long – Short, Up

– Down, Small – Large, etc

There are three categories of antonyms as known by the characteristics relationship between the opposed meanings.

Gradable Antonyms: When we have words which have definitions that lie on a

continuous spectrum of meaning. Temperature is such a continuous spectrum so hot

and cold, two meanings on opposite ends of the spectrum, are gradable antonyms.

Other examples include: heavy, light; fat, skinny; dark, light; young, old; early, late;

empty, full; dull, interesting.

Complementary antonyms: When we have words whose meanings do not lie on a

continuous spectrum and the words have no other lexical relationship. There is no

continuous spectrum between push and pull but they are opposite in meaning and are

therefore complementary antonyms. Other examples include: dead, alive; off, on; day,

night; exit, entrance; exhale, inhale; occupied, vacant; identical, different.

Relational antonyms: When we have words where the two meanings are opposite only

within the context of their relationship. There is no lexical opposite of teacher, but

teacher and pupil are opposite within the context of their relationship. This makes them

relational antonyms. Other examples include: husband, wife; doctor, patient; predator,

prey; teach, learn; servant, master; come, go; parent, child.

What type of questions is asked in Antonyms?

A distinctive question on antonyms in Banking and other related competitive exams consists of a random word with four other options whose antonyms has to be picked up. The student needs to pick up nearly the opposite meaning as another word or other words in a language from a set of 4-5 choices.


Tips to Students for solving Questions on antonyms for Competitive Examination effectively

Students should develop their credibility by paying attention to intricacies of the

grammar.

Should have a clear idea about the various parts of speech and how they relate to one

another.

Students are advised to read newspapers daily, they should pick up a word from any of

the paragraph and try to use it in making sentences in its different forms.

List of Commonly used Antonyms

Ancient – modern, young, Fresh, New, current

Annoy – soothe, comfort, delight, enchant, help, make happy, please, quiet, reassure, soothe, mollify, support, gratify

Answer – question, problem, quiet, request, silence, trouble

Apparent – obscure, unlikely, doubtful, dubious, equivocal, hidden, improbable.

Argue – agree, agree, concur, give in, make peace, abstain, comply, harmonize, ignore, keep quiet, keep silent

Arrive – depart, conceal, depart, fail, go, hide, leave, lose, miss, abandon

Arrogant – humble, modest, shy, timid, unsure

Ascend – descend, decline, decrease, drop, fall, slump, go down, low

Attack – defend, retreat, pull, aid, defense, flight, health, protection, reprisal, resistance, shelter, shield, submission, support, surrender

Attract – repel, bore, disenchant, disgust, disinterest, give up, refuse, reject, repulse, shun, turn off

http://thesaurus.com/browse/problem

http://thesaurus.com/browse/quiet

http://thesaurus.com/browse/request

http://thesaurus.com/browse/silence

http://click.dictionary.com/click/nn1ov4?clkpage=the&clkmod=1clk&clksite=thes&clkld=0&clkdest=http%3A%2F%2Fthesaurus.com%2Fbrowse%2Ftrouble


Awake – asleep, ignorant, inattentive, unaware

Awkward – graceful, adroit, artful, clever, convenient, dexterous, easy, elegant

birth – death, death, decease, demise, dying, expiry, illegitimate, adopted, adoptive

bitter – sweet, acceptable, agreeable, allowable, amiable, amicable, ardent, balmy, bearable, blazing, blissful, blithe, blithesome, boiling, bright,

black – white, abetted, ablaze, agleam, aglitter, albescent, alight, allowed, approved, ashen, ashy, authorized, beaming, beamy, blameless, bleached, blithe, blithesome, bright

blunt – sharp, animate, bland, circuitous, civil, conditional, considerate, courteous, courtly, cultivated, cutting, diplomatic, edged, edgy

body – soul, accessory, adjunct, angle, animal, appendage, aspect, beast, beastie, brute, component, constituent, critter, division, element, extension, facet, feature

bold – timid, bashful, coy, timorous, inconspicuous, gradual, fearful, intimidated, invisible, trepid, mousy, mousey, bland,

bottom – top, best, elevated, escalated, heightened, higher, highest, jacked, lifted, loftier, loftiest, raised, side

brave – cowardly, afraid, agitated, anxious, appalled, apprehensive, atrocious, awful, bad, caitiff, careful, cautious, chicken, chicken-livered, chickenhearted, colorless, colourless

brief – long, ceaseless, circuitous, circumlocutory, continuing, dateless, deathless, diffuse, durable

bright – dull, absurd, airheaded, asinine, average, awkward, baleful, balmy, bearish, birdbrained, black, blackened, blank, bleak, blue, blustering, blustery, boneheaded

bring – remove, abolish, arrest, bear away, bear off, can, carry away, carry off, check, clamp down, control, crack down, crush, curb, dampen


boy – girl, daughter, female child

busy – idle, asleep, bone-idle, bone-lazy, dead, dormant, dull, faineant, free, hands-off, heavy, idle, inactive

buy – sell, barter, dispose of, exchange, extravagance, gouging, luxury, markup, overcharge

capture – release, captor, custodian, discharge, dismiss, free, guard

cause – effect, aftereffect, aftermath, by-product, conclusion, consequence, corollary, creation

cautious – careless, absentminded, asleep, bold, brainish, brash, brave, drowsy, dull, forgetful

center – edge, bound, boundary, circumference, conservative, far left, far-right, left, left-of-center

change – remain, abide, bide, constancy, continuance, continue, endure, firmness, fixation, fixedness, fixity, hold, identity, invariability

cheap – expensive, abstruse, admirable, altruistic, arduous, beneficent, benevolent, big-ticket, bounteous

child – adult, ancient, antecedent, base, basis, causation, cause, consideration, determinant

chilly – warm, emotional, hot, balmy, warm, lukewarm, tepid, heated, warmed, compassionate

clean – dirty, addicted, aimless, armed, augean, bawdy, bedraggled, befoul, befouled, begrime, begrimed, below the belt, bemire, besmear

close – open, distant, far, open, open up, yonder, long, yon, loosely knit, out-of-town, ventilated, remote, careless, public, coarse, communicatory, nonadjacent, harsh, generous

cold – hot, active, affable, agreeable, alert, alive, amiable, animate, animated, ardent, awake, aware, baking, baking hot, blazing.


List of Some More Commonly used Antonym

Abundant scarce joy Grief

Accept refuse knowledge Ignorance

Accidental intentional lazy industrious

Accurate incorrect literal Figurative

Admit deny majority Minority

Advance retreat maximum Minimum

Antique modern merciful Cruel

Attack defend miserable Happy

Authentic imitation mix Sort


Beg offer moist Dry

Cease begin naked Clothed

Combine separate necessary Useless

Comedy tragedy nourish Starve

Condemn praise obey Disobey

Conquer fail perfect Faulty

Contract expand permit Forbid

Dangerous safe positive Negative

Depart arrive private Public


Destroy create prohibit Allow

Discourage encourage reluctant enthusiastic

Disgrace honor sane Insane

Drunk sober simple complicated

Dwarf giant shrink Expand

Evil good slavery Freedom

Exhibit conceal solid Liquid

Exterior interior spend Save


Extinguish ignite stationary Movable

Fail succeed stiff Limp

Famous unknown strengthen Weaken

Fertile barren swift Slow

Fiction fact tardy Early

Former latter temporary permanent

Frequent infrequent thaw Freeze

Gather scatter tough Tender

Genuine fake triumph Fail


Generous stingy . unbreakable Fragile

Grin frown unique Ordinary

Harmony discord useful Useless

Harsh mild usually Rarely

Idle busy vacant occupied

Imaginary real vanish Appear

Import export victory Defeat

Imprison free villain Hero


illegal lawful violent Gentle

include exclude wealth Poverty

interior superior worthless Valuable


PRACTICE EXAMPLES

Direction: In the given questions, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word and

mark it in the Answer Sheet.

1. Condensation

(a) Abridgment

(b) Broadening

(c) Compression

(d) Concentration

(e) None of these

2. Condemn

(a) Praise

(b) Censure

(c) Disapproval

(d) Doom

(e) None of these

3. Encroach

(a) Creep

(b) Infringe

(c) Intrude

(d) Recede

(e) None of these

4. Endeavour

(a) Aim

(b) Try

(c) Abandon

(d) Effort

(e) None of these

5. Ferocious

(a) Barbarous

(b) Bloody

(c) Brutal

(d) Humane

(e) None of these


6. Fastidious

(a) Censorious

(b) Critical

(c) Dainty

(d) Careless

(e) None of these

7. Greasy

(a) Lean

(b) Oily

(c) Fatty

(d) Sebaceous

(e) None of these

8. Hallow

(a) Consecrate

(b) Desecrate

(c) Dedicate

(d) Devote

(e) None of these

9. Harmonize

(a) Accord

(b) Differ

(c) Agree

(d) Cohere

(e) None of these

10. Hazard

(a) Adventure

(b) Risk

(c) Secure

(d) Peril

(e) None of these

11. Herculean

(a) Athletic

(b) Colossal

(c) Feeble

(d) Strong

(e) None of these


12. Hypothesis

(a) Proof

(b) Conjecture

(c) Supposition

(d) Theory

(e) None of these

13. Impulsive

(a) Deliberate

(b) Careless

(c) Hasty

(d) Impetuous

(e) None of these

14. Incomplete

(a) Absolute

(b) Defective

(c) Faulty

(d) Partial

(e) None of these

15. Incurable

(a) Hopeless

(b) Irrecoverable

(c) Remediable

(d) Cureless

(e) None of these

16. Judicious

(a) Cautious

(b) Considerate

(c) Cool

(d) Rash

(e) None of these

17. Knot

(a) Complication

(b) Simplicity

(c) Difficulty

(d) Entanglement

(e) None of these


18. Lament

(a) Complain

(b) Moan

(c) Cry

(d) Rejoice

(e) None of these

19. Legend

(a) Caption

(b) Fact

(c) Fiction

(d) Myth

(e) None of these

20. Malpractice

(a) Dereliction

(b) Evil

(c) Misbehavior

(d) Right

(e) None of these

Answers

1. (b)

2. (a)

3. (d)

4. (c)

5. (d)

6. (d)

7. (a)

8. (b)

9. (b)

10. (c)

11. (c)

12. (a)

13. (a)

14. (a)

15. (c)

16. (d)

17. (b)

18. (d)

19. (b)

20. (d)


Synonyms

Introduction: In this unit we will study about synonyms. The questions about synonyms are

generally asked in SBI PO exams. The SBI PO exam will contain about three to five questions

based on synonyms.

Synonyms: The word comes from ancient Greek words ‘syn’ and ‘onoma’ where ‘syn’ means

‘with’ and ‘onoma’ means ‘name’. Synonyms are the word which has similar meanings.

Two words are said to be synonymous when they have similar meanings. The words caste and

class is synonymous because both the words have similar meaning.

Some examples of English synonyms:

Verb -"buy" and "purchase"

Adjective-"big" and "large"

Adverb -"quickly" and "speedily"

Preposition- "on" and "upon"

What type of questions is asked in Synonyms?

A distinctive question on synonyms in Banking and other related competitive exams consists of a random word with four other options whose synonyms has to be picked up. The student needs to pick up nearly the same meaning as another word or other words in a language from a set of 4-5 choices.

Tips to Students for solving Questions on Synonyms for Competitive Examination effectively

Students should develop their credibility by paying attention to intricacies of the

grammar.

Should have a clear idea about the various parts of speech and how they relate to one

another.

Students are advised to read newspapers daily, they should pick up a word from any of

the paragraph and try to use it in making sentences in its different forms.

While attempting questions on Synonyms, eliminate the incorrect options on the basis

of parts of speech and vocabulary.


List of Commonly used Synonyms

Amazing incredible, unbelievable, improbable, fabulous, wonderful, fantastic, astonishing, astounding, extraordinary

Anger enrages, infuriate, arouse, nettle, exasperate, inflame, madden

Angry mad, furious, enraged, excited, wrathful, indignant, exasperated, aroused, inflamed

Answer reply, responds, retort, acknowledge

Ask question, inquire of, seek information from, put a question to, demand, request, expect.

Awful dreadful, terrible, abominable, bad, poor, unpleasant

Bad evil, immoral, wicked, corrupt, sinful, depraved, rotten, contaminated, spoiled, tainted, harmful, injurious, unfavorable, defective, inferior, imperfect, substandard,

Beautiful pretty, lovely, handsome, attractive, gorgeous, dazzling, splendid, magnificent,

Begin start, open, launch, initiate, commence, inaugurate, originate


Big enormous, huge, immense, gigantic, vast, colossal, gargantuan, large, sizable, grand.

Brave

courageous, fearless, dauntless, intrepid, plucky, daring, heroic, valorous, audacious,

Break fracture, rupture, shatter, smash, wreck, crash, demolish, atomize

Bright shining, shiny, gleaming, brilliant, sparkling, shimmering, radiant, vivid, colorful, lustrous, luminous, incandescent, intelligent, knowing, quick-witted, smart, intellectual

Calm quiet, peaceful, still, tranquil, mild, serene, smooth, composed, collected, unruffled,

Come approach, advance, near, arrive, reach

Cool chilly, cold, frosty, wintry, icy, frigid

Crooked bent, twisted, curved, hooked, zigzag

Cry shout, yell, yowl, scream, roar, bellow, weep, wail, sob, bawl

Cut gash, slash, prick, nick, sever, slice, carve, cleave, slit, chop, crop, lop, reduce


Dangerous perilous, hazardous, risky, uncertain, unsafe

Dark shadowy, unlit, murky, gloomy, dim, dusky, shaded, sunless, black, dismal, sad

Decide determine, settle, choose, resolve

Definite certain, sure, positive, determined, clear, distinct, obvious

Delicious savory, delectable, appetizing, luscious, scrumptious, palatable, delightful, enjoyable, toothsome, exquisite

Describe portray, characterize, picture, narrate, relate, recount, represent, report, record

Destroy ruin, demolish, raze, waste, kill, slay, end, extinguish

Difference disagreement, inequity, contrast, dissimilarity, incompatibility

Do execute, enact, carry out, finish, conclude, effect, accomplish, achieve, attain

Dull boring, tiring,, tiresome, uninteresting, slow, dumb, stupid, unimaginative, lifeless, dead

Eager keen, fervent, enthusiastic, involved, interested, alive to

End stop, finish, terminate, conclude, close, halt, cessation, discontinuance


Enjoy appreciate, delight in, be pleased, indulge in, luxuriate in, bask in, relish, devour, savor, like

Explain elaborate, clarify, define, interpret, justify, account for

Fair - just, impartial, unbiased, objective, unprejudiced, honest

Fall - drop, descend, plunge, topple, tumble

False - fake, fraudulent, counterfeit, spurious, untrue, unfounded, erroneous, deceptive, groundless, fallacious

Fast - quick, rapid, speedy, fleet, hasty, snappy, mercurial, swiftly, rapidly, quickly, snappily

Fat - stout, corpulent, fleshy, beefy, paunchy, plump, full, rotund, tubby, pudgy, chubby, chunky, burly, bulky, elephantine

Fear - fright, dread, terror, alarm, dismay, anxiety, scare, awe, horror, panic, apprehension

Fly - soar, hover, flit, wing, flee, waft, glide, coast, skim, sail, cruise

Funny - humorous, amusing, droll, comic, comical, laughable, silly

Get acquire, obtain, secure, procure, gain, fetch, find, score, accumulate, win, earn, rep, catch,

Go recede, depart, fade, disappear, move, travel, proceed

Good excellent, fine, superior, wonderful, marvelous,


qualified, suited, suitable, apt,

Great

noteworthy, worthy, distinguished, remarkable, grand, considerable, powerful,

Gross improper, rude, coarse, indecent, crude, vulgar, outrageous, extreme, grievous, shameful, uncouth, obscene, low

HAPPY PLEASED, CONTENTED, SATISFIED, DELIGHTED, ELATED, JOYFUL, CHEERFUL, ECSTATIC, JUBILANT, GAY.

HATE DESPISE, LOATHE, DETEST, ABHOR, DISFAVOR, DISLIKE, DISAPPROVE, ABOMINATE

HAVE HOLD, POSSESS, OWN, CONTAIN, ACQUIRE, GAIN, MAINTAIN, BELIEVE, BEAR, BEGET, OCCUPY, ABSORB, FILL, ENJOY

HELP AID, ASSIST, SUPPORT, ENCOURAGE, BACK, WAIT ON, ATTEND, SERVE, RELIEVE, SUCCOR, BENEFIT.

HIDE CONCEAL, COVER, MASK, CLOAK, CAMOUFLAGE, SCREEN, SHROUD, VEIL

HURRY RUSH, RUN, SPEED, RACE, HASTEN, URGE, ACCELERATE, BUSTLE

HURT DAMAGE, HARM, INJURE, WOUND, DISTRESS, AFFLICT, PAIN


Idea thought, concept, conception, notion, understanding, opinion, plan, view, belief

Important necessary, vital, critical, indispensable, valuable, essential, significant, primary, principal, considerable, famous, distinguished.

Interesting fascinating, engaging, sharp, keen, bright, intelligent, animated, spirited, attractive, inviting, intriguing, provocative,

Keep hold, retain, withhold, preserve, maintain, sustain, support

Kill slay, execute, assassinate, murder, destroy, cancel, abolish

Lazy indolent, slothful, idle, inactive, sluggish

Little tiny, small, diminutive, shrimp, runt, miniature, puny, exiguous, dinky, cramped,

Look gaze, see, glance, watch, survey, study, seek, search for, peek, peep, glimpse, stare,

Love like, admire, esteem, fancy, care for, cherish, adore, treasure, worship, appreciate, savor

Make - create, originate, invent, beget, form, construct, design, fabricate, manufacture, produce, build, develop, do, effect, execute, compose, perform, accomplish, earn, gain, obtain, acquire, get


Mark - label, tag, price, ticket, impress, effect, trace, imprint, stamp, brand, sign, note, heed, notice, designate

Mischievous - prankish, playful, naughty, roguish, waggish, impish, sportive

Move - plod, go, creep, crawl, inch, poke, drag, toddle, shuffle, trot, dawdle, walk, traipse

Moody - temperamental, changeable, short-tempered, glum, morose, sullen, mopish, irritable, testy, peevish, fretful, spiteful, sulky, touchy

Neat - clean, orderly, tidy, trim, dapper, natty, smart, elegant, well-organized, super, desirable, spruce, shipshape, well-kept, shapely

New - fresh, unique, original, unusual, novel, modern, current, recent

Old - feeble, frail, ancient, weak, aged, used, worn, dilapidated, ragged, faded, broken-down, former, old-fashioned, outmoded, passe, veteran, mature, venerable, primitive, traditional.

Part - portion, share, piece, allotment, section, fraction, fragment

Place - space, area, spot, plot, region, location, situation, position, residence, dwelling, set, site, station, status, state

Plan - plot, scheme, design, draw, map, diagram, procedure, arrangement, intention, device, contrivance, method, way, blueprint

Popular - well-liked, approved, accepted, favorite, celebrated, common, current

Predicament - quandary, dilemma, pickle, problem, plight, spot, scrape, jam

Put - place, set, attach, establish, assign, keep, save, set aside, effect, achieve, do, build


Quiet - silent, still, soundless, mute, tranquil, peaceful, calm, restful

Right - correct, accurate, factual, true, good, just, honest, upright, lawful, moral, proper, suitable, apt, legal, fair

Run - race, speed, hurry, hasten, sprint, dash, rush, escape, elope, flee

Say/Tell inform, notify, advise, relate, recount, narrate, explain, reveal, disclose, divulge

Scared afraid, frightened, alarmed, terrified, panicked, fearful, unnerved, insecure, timid,

Show display, exhibit, present, note, point to, indicate, explain, reveal, prove, demonstrate, expose

Slow unhurried, gradual, leisurely, late, behind, tedious, slack

Stop cease, halt, stay, pause, discontinue, conclude, end, finish, quit

Story tale, myth, legend, fable, yarn, account, narrative, chronicle, epic, sage, anecdote, record, memoir

Strange odd, peculiar, unusual, unfamiliar, uncommon, queer, weird, outlandish, curious, unique, exclusive, irregular


Take hold, catch, seize, grasp, win, capture, acquire, pick, choose, select, prefer, remove,

Tell disclose, reveal, show, expose, uncover, relate, narrate, inform, advise, explain,

Think judge, deem, assume, believe, consider, contemplate, reflect, mediate

Trouble distress, anguish, anxiety, worry, wretchedness, pain, danger, peril, disaster,

True accurate, right, proper, precise, exact, valid, genuine, real, actual, trusty, steady, loyal, dependable, sincere, staunch

Ugly - hideous, frightful, frightening, shocking, horrible, unpleasant, monstrous, terrifying, gross, grisly, ghastly, horrid, unsightly, plain, homely, evil, repulsive, repugnant, gruesome

Unhappy - miserable, uncomfortable, wretched, heart-broken, unfortunate, poor, downhearted, sorrowful, depressed, dejected, melancholy, glum, gloomy, dismal, discouraged, sad

Use - employ, utilize, exhaust, spend, expend, consume, exercise

Wrong - incorrect, inaccurate, mistaken, erroneous, improper, unsuitable


SOLVED EXAMPLES

Directions (Q. 1-5): Below is given a single word with its meaning in different contexts as options. You have to select all those options which are synonyms of the word when the context is changed. Select the correct alternative from 1), 2), 3), 4) and 5) which represents all those synonyms. (IBPS PO/MT Exam 2011)

1. LABOUR

(a) expedite

(b) to move faster

(c) controlled

(d) toil

1) Only (D)

2) Both (A) and (C)

3) Only (B), (C) and (D)

4) Only (A), (C) and (D)

5) All (A), (B), (C) and (D)

2. MEAN

(a) imply

(b) understand

(c) average

(d) characterized by malice

1) Only(C)

2) Both (A) and (D)


4) Only (A), (B) and (D)


5) All (A), (B), (C) and (D)

3. REGULAR

(a) present

(b) common

(c) indiscriminate

(d) uniform

1) Only(D)

2) Both (B) and (D)

3) Both (A) and (C)


5) All (A), (B), (C) and (D)

4. MASK

(a) cover

(b) hide

(c) conceal

(d) disguise

1) Only (A)

2) Both (B) and (D)


4) Only (A), (B) and (C)

5) All (A), (B), (C) and (D)


5. ALONE

(a) exclusively

(b) morose

(c) solitary

(d) human being

1) Only (A)

2) Both (A) and (C)

3) Both (B) and (C)


5) All (A), (B), (C) and (D)

Answers (Q.1 to 5):

1 (1)

2 (3)

3 (2)

4 (5)

5 (2)

Directions (Q. 6-8): Choose the word or group of words which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage. (Indian Bank (PO) 2010) 6. flooded

1) Surged 2) Saturated 3) Overflowed 4) Deluge 5) Overcome 7. evaporated

1) Dehydrated 2) Melted

3) Vaporized 4) Vanished 5) Dodged 8. fuel

1) Petrol 2) Stimulate 3) Sustain 4) Heat 5) Charge


Answers (Q. 6 to 8)

6 (1) 7 (4) 8 (2)

Directions (9 - 12): Choose the word which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage. (Corporation Bank PO 2011)

9. DRAMATIC

1) unprecedented

2) thrilling

3) spectacular

4) effective

5) feeble

10. SHRINK

1) contract

2) physician

3) wither

4) shrivel

5) reduce

11. PREDOMINANTLY

1) clearly

2) aggressively

3) mainly

4) firstly

5) faintly

12. MASSIVE

1) tall

2) tough

3) total

4) little

5) severe

Answers (Q. 9 to 12)

9 (1)

10 (1)

11

12

(3)

(5)


PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Directions: In the given questions out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best

expresses the meaning of the given word.

1. Deposit

(a) Degrade

(b) Dethrone

(c) Place

(d) Removal

(e) None of these

2. Depart

(a) Decamp

(b) Divest

(c) Display

(d) Degrade

(e) None of these

3. Portion

(a) Gallery

(b) Fragment

(c) Site

(d) Case

(e) None of these

4. Exact

(a) True

(b) Pattern

(c) Elusive

(d) Close

(e) None of these

5. Indignant

(a) Bend

(b) Faulty

(c) Gratified

(d) Angry

(e) None of these


6. Incur

(a) Elude

(b) Enhance

(c) Mount

(d) Acquire

(e) None of these

7. Caustic

(a) Acrid

(b) Mild

(c) Cavil

(d) Clue

(e) None of these

8. Cavity

(a) Cave

(b) Hollow

(c) Class

(d) Origin

(e) None of these

9. Charge

(a) Crack

(b) Right

(c) Accuse

(d) Claim

(e) None of these

10. Catastrophic

(a) Callous

(b) Dull

(c) Calamitous

(d) Continuous

(e) None of these

11. Discretion

(a) Rashness

(b) Careless

(c) Carefulness

(d) Disgrace

(e) None of these


12. Imperative

(a) Optional

(b) Authoritative

(c) Elective

(d) Voluntary

(e) None of these

13. Opportunity

(a) Chance

(b) Omission

(c) Artisan

(d) Vital

(e) None of these

14. Numerate

(a) Compute

(b) Denude

(c) Nudge

(d) Account

(e) None of these

15. Noise

(a) Quiet

(b) Blare

(c) Placid

(d) Peaceful

(e) None of these

16. Nimble

(a) Clumsy

(b) Lump

(c) Silent

(d) Agile

(e) None of these

17. Nerve

(a) Courage

(b) Weakness

(c) Fragile

(d) Lame

(e) None of these


18. Notch

(a) Designate

(b) Beck

(c) Cut

(d) Rule

(e) None of these

19. Proclaim

(a) Conceal

(b) Cover

(c) Disguise

(d) Announce

(e) None of these

20. Profane

(a) Hallow

(b) Debase

(c) Dedicate

(d) Consecrate

(e) None of these

Answers

1. (c)

2. (a)

3. (b)

4. (a)

5. (d)

6. (d)

7. (a)

8. (b)

9. (c)

10. (c)

11. (c)

12. (b)

13. (a)

14. (a)

15. (b)

16. (d)

17. (a)

18. (c)

19. (d)

20. (c)


Fill in the Blanks (Sentence Completion)

Introduction: In the SBI PO exam, there can be questions on Fill in the Blanks to assess the candidate’s knowledge of English grammar and composition. The exam can consist of five questions on the Fill in the blanks.

Here, we will practice few questions on the Fill in the Blanks type.

A sentence completion question consists of an incomplete sentence. The sentence may have either one or two blanks. From the answer choices given, you are required to choose a word that can substitute the missing word that by best completing the meaning of the given sentence. Invariably in every sentence completion question there will be a hint or two that could be used as a hint towards identifying the correct choice of word. These clues could be grammatical or logical clues. The words that you choose should agree and blend with the sentence grammatically or logically.

How to solve Sentence completion

Read the complete sentence – Grasping the overall tone of the sentence is essential. Reading the complete sentence can also lead you to few clues. By reading the sentence you can also determine the nature of the word required i.e.; whether the word required is of a positive tone or a negative tone, plays a cause-effect relationship.

Put you own words in the sentence first and then find a closer answer option – Try not to read the options before you put your choice of words in the blank doing so will help you in identifying correct answer choice when you look at one.

Read the sentence after putting in the option – If the sentence makes sense figuratively and literally after filling in your answer option then you can go ahead with marking the same.

Example

Sentence below has a blank; a blank indicates that some thing has been omitted. There are four answer options given choose the word or set of words for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

1. The girl who has joined our office last month dresses up in a very ________manner.

a. Meretricious

b. Tyrranic

c. Enthusiastic


d. Hodge - podge

Answer - (a) The most suitable answer option is ‘Meretricious’ which means ‘bold’ . Rest of the options do not fit in the context of dressing style or manner.


Direction: Fill in the Blanks with the most suitable alternative.

1. The terrorists………………………..a bomb in the local bus.

(a) Planted

(b) Hid

(c) Any

(d) Explode

(e) Stole

2. Every citizen is expected to……………………………the interests of his country.

(a) Protect

(b) Guarantee

(c) Increase

(d) Grow

(e) Obey

3. She says her dress cost her Rs 500. It doesn’t look……………………it.

(a) Less

(b) Worth

(c) In

(d) For

(e) About

4. Pulse Polio is a drive……………………….to eradicate polio from all over the country?

(a) Tinted

(b) Began

(c) Launched

(d) Parked

(e) Aim

5. A…………………………of cars was made available to the minister and his party?

(a) Pack

(b) Group

(c) Number

(d) Fleet

(e) Horde


6. Shikha could not get………………….the examination.

(a) Over

(b) Through

(c) Along

(d) Into

(e) Up

7. The magic show was the prime attraction for the children and adults…………………………..

(a) Alike

(b) Together

(c) All

(d) Either

(e) Altogether

8. It is ……………………………accepted that Jayadeva was born in the village of Kenduli.

(a) Wholesome

(b) Widely

(c) Firmly

(d) Openly

(e) Fairly

9. Abdul is senior to Habib………………………six years in this institute.

(a) Above

(b) Over

(c) By

(d) For

(e) From

10. Ramesh was to appear…………………..the interview for the post of Public Relations Officers.

(a) For

(b) Into

(c) Before

(d) With

(e) At

11. I was speaking to him on phone when the line……………………cut off.

(a) Got

(b) Gets

(c) Gotten

(d) Getting

(e) Get


12. I do not………………………of his conduct although he is my own brother.

(a) Tolerate

(b) Agree

(c) Excuse

(d) Approve

(e) Writer

13. Rakesh promised me that he would be……………………a letter after reaching home?

(a) Wrote

(b) Written

(c) Write

(d) Writing

(e) Writer

14. The judge found him guilty and he was sentenced…………………death.

(a) To

(b) Upon

(c) For

(d) Till

(e) As

15. Satish is the strongest…………………all the boys in our school.

(a) On

(b) Between

(c) Of

(d) To

(e) Before

16. The teacher asked Priya to go home when when she started…………………..of stomach pain.

(a) Complaining

(b) Knowing

(c) Blaming

(d) Feeling

(e) Developing

17. Anuradha’s voice is …………………………..sweet as Lata’s.

(a) More

(b) Far

(c) As

(d) Very

(e) So


18. The child has been……………………sick very often for the last three months.

(a) Felt

(b) Falling

(c) Falls

(d) Fallen

(e) Fall

19. The surgeon advised the patient to…………………………an operation.

(a) Undergo

(b) Underpass

(c) Underset

(d) Undertake

(e) Underlie

20. It was in consultation…………………………the workers union that the management arrived at

this decision.

(a) Over

(b) To

(c) About

(d) By

(e) With

21. She…………………..in slandering people.

(a) Enjoys

(b) Participates

(c) Indulges

(d) Laughed

(e) Angered

22. Many are………………………..under the burden of poverty.

(a) Buried

(b) Pushed

(c) Thrown

(d) Reeling

(e) Pressed

23. We want a law……………………..dowry.

(a) For

(b) About

(c) On

(d) Against

(e) To


24. The curfew was……………..yesterday.

(a) Implemented

(b) Taken

(c) Told

(d) Imposed

(e) Lift

25. He brought oranges……………………..the dozen.

(a) In

(b) By

(c) For

(d) At

(e) To

26. …………………..he woke up, he had missed the station.

(a) Where

(b) After

(c) While

(d) As

(e) When

27. I wanted to know what had………………..beneath it.

(a) Bed

(b) Lain

(c) Laid

(d) Lying

(e) Laying

28. The principal…………………………the boys to go home.

(a) Let

(b) Deems

(c) Allowed

(d) Want

(e) send

29. The couple did not…………………………the rival company.

(a) Hike

(b) Hack

(c) Excel

(d) Represent

(e) Sold


30. This has……………………..many myths.

(a) Broken

(b) Shatter

(c) Fell

(d) Finished

(e) Stopped

Answers:-

1. (a)

2. (a)

3. (b)

4. (c)

5. (d)

6. (b)

7. (a)

8. (b)

9. (c)

10. (a)

11. (a)

12. (d)

13. (a)

14. (d)

15. (c)

16. (a)

17. (c)

18. (d)

19. (a)

20. (e)

21. (c)

22. (d)

23. (d)

24. (d)

25. (b)

26. (e)

27. (b)

28. (c)

29. (d)

30. (b)


Direction: Pick out the most appropriate part to complete the given sentences.

1. The diary is ……………………..on the table…………………..the fire place.

(a) Laying, near

(b) Lying, by

(c) Kept, along

(d) Put, in

(e) Laid, by

2. They continued to move…………………….. ………………….the snow.

(a) Up, inspite

(b) On, despite

(c) Down, above

(d) On, inspite

(e) Along, below


3. A wise parent will ………………………his children…………………read good books.

(a) Want, and

(b) Persuade, against

(c) Want, who

(d) Dissuade, to

(e) Persuade, to

4. ……………………………..the quality of wood the table is not……………………….

(a) Pending, good

(b) For, good

(c) By, bad

(d) Considering, expensive

(e) For, previous

5. One may find, even in democracy, that some live like kings in…………………..and some live

paupers in……………………………….

(a) Palaces, huts

(b) Homes, houses

(c) Places, shelters

(d) Hotels, slum

(e) Huts, palaces

6. You should never impose……………….your servants too…………………works.

(a) On, little

(b) Upon, much

(c) Upon, little

(d) For, much

(e) Against. Less

7. Had he worked…………………………..he………………….have passed.

(a) Harder, should

(b) Harder, could

(c) Hard, would

(d) Hardly, could

(e) Regularly, must

8. I leaned ……………………..the tree and ……………………to the wireless.

(a) Against, listened

(b) by, went

(c) on, heard

(d) against, sent

(e) towards, went


9. There…………………….a strong……………….last night.

(a) Was, air

(b) Blew, air

(c) Was, breeze

(d) Blew, wind

(e) Rained, rain

10. Birds usually blind their ………………………….the trees.

(a) Nests, in

(b) Nests, on

(c) Homes, on

(d) Shelters, near

(e) Build, from

11. The Ganga…………………………..in the Himalayas and ………………………… into the Bay of Bengal.

(a) Comes, goes

(b) Originates, fell

(c) Rises, fall

(d) Flows, enters

(e) Flows, goes

12. For a long time I………………………… not decide whether I …………………………… talk to her or not.

(a) Will, can

(b) Should, could

(c) Could, may

(d) May, might

(e) Could, should

13. …………………………..money I had was spent…………………………..a toy.

(a) The, on

(b) The, little

(c) The few, on

(d) What, by

(e) The much, on

14. I sent an immediate…………………to his letter and I…………………… the same from you.

(a) Answer, expect

(b) Reply, expect

(c) Response, accept

(d) Addition, expect

(e) Letter, expect


15. I’ll……………………… my duties today as my mother is ……………………….better now.

(a) Resume, much

(b) Resume, very

(c) Join, rather

(d) Assume, much

(e) Do, rather

16. He then……………………..to the president.

(a) Requested

(b) Told

(c) Appealed

(d) Lies

(e) Used

17. A……………….inquiry has been ordered against the minister.

(a) Wise

(b) Court

(c) Judicial

(d) Interred

(e) Judicious

18. Will you go to………………….your vote?

(a) Ask

(b) Cast

(c) Put

(d) Do

(e) Carry

19. Some one set his shop……………………..fire and ruined him completely.

(a) To

(b) Upon

(c) In

(d) On

(e) Into

20. I don’t like those who find……………………with me.

(a) Money

(b) Fault

(c) Happiness

(d) Errors

(e) Blunders


21. You have committed a ……………………..by telling her your secrets. Now she

can………………………..you.

(a) Error, threaten

(b) Blunder, help

(c) Sin, use

(d) Crime, blackmail

(e) Blunder, blackmail

22. The lion sprang………………the cow and………………………..it in an instant.

(a) Upon, ate

(b) Upon, killed

(c) On, ate

(d) Over, injured

(e) On, bruised

23. He can’t …………………………..his name he is…………………………….

(a) Tell, illiterate

(b) Hear, deaf

(c) Sign, illiterate

(d) Write, uneducated

(e) Write, illiterate

24. He refused to………………………….my…………………………orders.

(a) Carry, new

(b) Comply, oral

(c) Obey, verbal

(d) Obey, strict

(e) Abide, casual

25. You…………………..finish your work………………you leave.

(a) Can, while

(b) Must, before

(c) Must,after

(d) Ought to, still

(e) May, so

26. If you not careful for your wealth will…………………………….

(a) Grow

(b) Dwindle

(c) Increase

(d) Die

(e) Stop


27. The………………….on the government buildings on the independence day was so beautiful.

(a) Lighting

(b) Lightening

(c) Lightning

(d) Light

(e) Flag

28. I…………………..to go for daily gym sessions.

(a) Rather

(b) No

(c) Slightly

(d) That

(e) Not

29. Every………………….of India should respect…………………..constitution.

(a) Man, the

(b) Person, a

(c) Native, a

(d) Citizen, the

(e) State, its

30. Evening in Mysore are always…………………..and ………………………

(a) Long, short

(b) Cool, cold

(c) Cold pleasant

(d) Pleasant, cool

(e) Cool, litter

Answers:-

1. (b)

2. (b)

3. (e)

4. (d)

5. (a)

6. (b)

7. (c)

8. (a)

9. (d)

10. (a)

11. (c)

12. (e)

13. (a)

14. (b)

15. (a)

16. (c)

17. (c)

18. (b)

19. (d)

20. (e)

21. (e)

22. (b)

23. (e)

24. (c)

25. (d)

26. (b)

27. (a)

28. (b)

29. (a)

30. (e)


Error Detection

Introduction: In the SBI PO exam, there can be questions on Error Detection to assess the candidate’s knowledge of English grammar and composition. The exam can consist of five questions on the Error Detection.

Here, we will practice few questions on the Error Detection.

Question on ‘spotting the Errors’ can be answered on the basis of candidate’s knowledge of grammar especially parts of speech. The important rules of parts of speech can be mentioned categorically in the following manner.

1. Certain nouns always take a singular verb.

Scenery, advice, information, machinery, stationery, furniture, abuse, fuel, gram, issue, bedding, repair, news, poetry, business, economics, physics, mathematics, classics, ethics, innings. Examples: (a) The scenery of Shimla is enchanting. (b) She has given advice.

2. Some nouns are used as plural nouns and always take a plural verb.

Cattle, gentry, peasantry, artillery, people, clergy, company, police. Examples: (a) The people are watching us. (b) The police are in the house.

3. Some nouns are used in a plural form and take a plural verb.

Trousers, scissors, spectacles, shorts, measles, goods, premises, thanks, tidings, annals, chattels, etc. Examples: (a) Where are my spectacles? (b) Trousers are also available at cheaper prices.

4. Certain nouns that indicate length, measure, money, weight or number, if they are

preceded by a numeral, they remain unchanged in form.

Foot, metre, pair, score, dozen, year, hundred, thousand, million. Examples: (a) It is a two-year post-graduation diploma course. (b) I have bought twelve dozen of apples.

5. Collective nouns like jury, public, team, committee, government, orchestra, company, etc.

are used both as singular and plural depending on the meaning. When these words indicate

a unit, the verb is singular, otherwise the verb will be plural.

Examples: (a) The public were furious over the issue.


(b) The orchestra has not started yet. 6. Certain nouns have one meaning in the singular and another in the plural:

advice = counsel, advices = information, authority = command, authorities = persons in good = wise, goods = property iron = metal, irons = fetters, chains, force = strength, forces = army, content = satisfaction, contents = things contained, physic = medicine, physics = physical sciences, respect = regards, respects = compliments work = job, works = compositions, factories, quarter = one-fourth, quarters = houses. Examples: (a) I have the authority to correct it. (b) The authorities will be arriving tomorrow.

7. While using ‘everybody’, ‘anyone’, ‘anybody', and ‘each’ the pronoun is used according to

the content.

Examples: (a) Anyone can do this work if he tries with all the effort (b) Each of the five men in the car has carried his laptop.

8. The pronoun ‘one’ must be followed by ‘one’s’.

Example: (a) One must complete one’s task within the deadline.

9. When two or more singular nouns are joined together by ‘either or’; ‘neither nor’; and ‘or’,

the pronoun should be singular.

Examples: (a) Either Sita or Geeta will attend the function. (b) Neither Mohan nor Krishna has done his task.

10. When a singular and a plural noun are joined by ‘or’, ‘nor’, the pronoun should be plural.

Example: (a) Either the manager or his sub-ordinates failed in completing their assignment.

11. Use of ‘whose’ and ‘which’: ‘Whose’ is used for living persons and ‘which’ for lifeless

objects.

Examples: (a) Whose artwork is this? (b) Which fictional character do you like the most?

12. Use of ‘each other’ and ‘one another’ : ‘Each other’ is used when there are two subjects or

objects and ‘one another’ when there are more than two.

Examples: (a) Those five boys, who are playing football, hate one another.


(b) Sneha and Smita are the best friends; they always stand for each other. 13. Use of pronoun for collective nouns:

Examples: (a) The jury is going to give its verdict tomorrow. (b) The group are divided in their opinion about the reason of corruption in India.

14. Use of ‘some’ and ‘any’ : 'Some' is used in affirmative sentences to express quantity or

degree. 'Any' is used in negative or interrogative sentences.

Examples: (a) I shall buy some apples. (b) I shall not buy any apples. (c) Have you bought any apples?

15. Use of 'few', 'a few', and 'the few' : The use of 'few', 'a few', and 'the few' should be used

with care. They denote 'number'.

'Few' means 'not many'. It is the opposite of many. A 'few' is positive and means 'some at least'. It is the opposite of none. 'The few' means 'whatever there is'. Examples: (a) Few men are perfect in their works. (b) A few boys are present in the class. (c) I have already seen the few movies that I have in my laptop.

16. Use of ‘less' and 'fewer': 'Less' denotes quantity and 'fewer' denotes number.

Examples: (a) No fewer than twenty girls went for the picnic last weekend. (b) There are no less than six liters of water in that pitcher.

17. Use of little, a little, the little: 'Little' means 'hardly any'.

Examples: (a) There is little hope of his coming back. (b) A little knowledge is good for nothing. (c) The little milk that is left in the container may be used for making tea.

18. Use of elder, older:

'Older' refers to persons as well as things and is followed by 'than'. Examples: (a) Sita is five year older that Gita. (b) Sita is the elder sister of Gita.

19. Use of ‘than’: Generally 'than' is used in the comparative degree, but with words like

superior, inferior, senior, junior, prior, prefer 'to' is used.

Examples: (a) Mita is senior to Mohini. (b) After having dinner, I prefer walking to sleeping.


20. In some cases, the comparison must be given proper attention.

Examples: (a) The climate of Mumbai is better than the climate of Delhi.

Or (a) The climate of Mumbai is better that that of Delhi. (b) The summer in Delhi is hotter than that of Mumbai.

21. Use of ‘Many a’ : ‘Many a’ is always followed by the singular verb.

Example: (a) Many a man was dressed in blue.

22. Verb while joining two subjects : When 'as well as', 'along with', 'together with', 'no less

than', 'in addition to', and 'not' and 'with' join two subjects, the verb should be according to

the first subject.

Examples: (a) Ram, as well as his five friends, has gone for the picnic. (b) The teacher, along with the students, is also going for the picnic.

23. While joining two subjects using 'either or', 'neither nor', the verb agrees with the subject

that is near.

Examples: (a) Either Reena or I am supposed to do that task. (b) Neither he nor his friends are going.

24. While joining singular nouns using 'and' point out the same thing or person, the verb will be

singular.

Examples: (a) Bread and butter is good to take in breakfast. (b) The Principle and the Vice-chancellor is on leave today.

25. 'No sooner' should be followed by 'than'.

Example: (a) No sooner had the singer entered the stage than the audience started to applause.

26. 'Lest' is followed by 'Should'.

Example: (a) Study hard lest you should not score well in board exams.

27. 'Such' is followed by 'as'.

Examples: (a) He is such a singer as everybody must listen to him. (b) The taste of the cake was such good that I ate it up all.

28. 'not' is never used with 'unless'.

Example: (a) Unless you study hard, you will not score well.


29. 'not' should never be used with ‘until’.

Example: (a) Keep reading until I say stop.

30. 'Since' indicates a point of time whereas 'for' stands for the length of time.

Examples: (a) I have been working with this company for two months. (b) I have been working with this company since 2010.

31. 'As if' is used to convey the sense of pretension. When 'as if' is used in this sense, 'were' is

used in all cases, even with third person singular.

Example: (a) He talks as if he knew everything.

32. If two actions in a sentence are shown happening in the past, one after the other; the tense

of the action happening first should be in past perfect and that of the second should be in

past indefinite.

Example: (a) The train had left before I reached the railway station.

33. Two actions in the past, one depending on the other, should have the following sequence:

Examples: (a) If you had studied hard, you would have passed in the exam.

Or (a) Had you studied hard, you would have passed in the exam. (b) If you had practiced regularly, you would have won the singing competition.

34. If, in a sentence, two actions are indicated and both are to take place in future, the

sequence of tenses will be as given in examples:.

Examples: (a) If I cry, he will get angry on me. (b) If it rains, I shall not go for the picnic.

35. 'a' is used before a consonant.

Examples: (a) Here is a University, which offers courses in Communication Management (b) A European couple lives in my neighborhood.

36. Words like 'hour', 'honest', 'heir', etc. take 'an' before them as they begin with a vowel

sound.

Example: (a) I have been watching television for an hour.

37. Note the following points to remember regarding the omission of a/an/the:

Examples: 1. Man is a social animal. 2. Gold is a precious metal.


3. Delhi is the heart of India 4. Curiosity is the mother of invention. 5. Hindi is my mother tongue. 6. I am a Christian; I go to church every Sunday. 7. My aunt is arriving today. 8. He is elected vice-chancellor of the university.

38. Uses of 'the' :

Examples: 1. The earth rotates from east to west. 2. He is the best cricket player in his class. 3. The Taj Mahal, The Hindustan Times, The Geeta, The Pacific Ocean 4. The great Ashoka. 5. The rich should help poors. 6. I love to play the piano. 7. The lion is the king of animals 8. The faster we walk, the sooner we reach.

39. While joining two singular nouns by 'and' are preceded by 'each' or 'every' the pronoun

used for them must be singular.

Example: a) Each man and each boy should bring his luggage.

40. If a pronoun comes after a preposition it should be used in the objective case.

Example: a) Between you and me neither of us is responsible for that mess.

41. A pronoun takes an objective case after 'let'.

Example: a) Let me think over it.

42. When Pronouns joined by 'and' remain in the same case.

Examples: a) He and she are husband and wife. b) She and I are roommates.

43. Relative pronoun 'that' is used in preference to 'who' or 'which' after adjectives in the

superlative degree.

Examples: a) This is the best that I can do for you. b) The finest man that I have ever met with is you.

44. When two qualities of a person are compared using 'more' or 'less' before the adjective,

then the adjective following them takes positive degree.

Example: a) Shikha is more beautiful than intelligent.


45. When two or more adjectives are used to show the qualities of the same man, all the

adjectives must be in the same degree.

Examples: a) Sita is more beautiful and wiser than Geeta. b) Rahul is the wisest and the funniest boy of the class.

46. 'Very' is used with adjectives in the positive degree and with present participles.

Examples: a) She is a very intelligent girl. b) It is a very interesting movie.

47. ‘as’: To show equality' as' is used before and after the adjective.

Example: a) Sita is as beautiful as Geeta.

48. Certain adjectives do not admit of comparison and thus they always remain in the positive

degree:

'Absolute', 'chief', 'circular', 'complete', 'entire', 'extreme', 'excellent', 'impossible', 'perfect', 'right', 'round', 'unique', 'universal', 'whole', etc. Example: a) This is the perfect cake I have ever made.

49. Please note that a verb must agree with its subject and not with the complement.

Example: a) The only well-wisher I have is my two childhood friends.

50. When the plural subject denotes a definite amount or quantity taken as a whole, the verb is

singular.

Examples: a) Fifty miles is a good distance. b) Three-fourths of the movies was boring.

51. The plural 'heaps' and 'lots' used for a great amount and take a singular verb unless a plural

noun with 'of' is added.

Examples: a) There is lots of food. b) There are lots of foods to consume.

52. Use of ‘each’ and ‘every’ : When 'each' or 'every' two singular subjects, even if connected

by 'and', take a singular verb.

Example: a) Each boy and every girl was accommodated in the lodge.

53. The following verbs are always followed by an infinitive:

'decide', 'plan', 'expect', 'fail', 'hope', 'learn', 'promise', 'refuse', 'want', 'agree', 'consent', 'love', etc. Example: a) I plan to settle in New York.


54. The following verbs and phrases must be followed by a gerund :

'enjoy', 'admit', 'appreciate', 'regret', 'avoid', 'help', 'consider', 'stop', 'looking forward to', 'accustomed to', 'is used to', 'do not mind', etc. Examples: a) I am looking forward to watching your artwork in my home. b) He is used to talking fast.

55. After certain verbs ('bid', 'let', 'make', 'need', 'see', 'hear') we use the infinitive without 'to'.

Examples: a) Let me handle this. b) Make him go there.

56. Use of 'had better', 'had rather', 'would rather', 'sooner than' and 'rather than': See the

following example for the use of above-

Example: a) You had better ask me before going to picnic.

57. 'no other' should be followed by ‘than’.

Examples: a) That night, I saw no other girl than Riya. b) Ram has no other option than stay at home.

58. Using 'know', 'how', or 'when' as an infinitive : See the example below.

Example: a) I know when to speak.

59. ‘elected as president’ is wrong ‘elected president’ is correct. See the example below for

using the verbs like 'appointed', 'elected', 'considered', 'called'.

Examples: a) He was elected Secretary of our society. b) I regard Sneha as my best friend

60. While expressing quality of the subject, an adjective is used with the verb.

Example: a) The bouquet smelt sweet.


List of Important Prepositions with Uses

A

• abound with

• abstain from

• according to

• accordance with

• accuse of

• accustomed to

• acquaint with

• acquit of

• admit to (hospital, place, class, etc.)

• averse to

• affiliate to/with

• afflict with

• afraid of

• agree to/on

• aim at

• allegation about

• alude to

• alternate with

• alternative to

• appear for (examination)lat

• angry with

• apply to (body)

• appreciation of

• apprise of

• approximate to

• arrest in

• arrive at/in

• ashamed of

• aspire to/after/at

• associate with

• assure of

• attribute to

• averse from/to

B

• begin on

• belief in

• bereft of

• beset with

• beware of

• boast of

• break off

• busy with

• busy in (market, store)/at (shop)

C

• compare with/to


• compatible with

• complain of

• comply with

• compliment on

• compared of

• confer on

• confirmation of

• confirm to

• congratulate on

• conscious of

• consist of (to denote the substance )/in (define the subject)

• contiguity with

• converge on

• convict of

• cope with

• correspond with

• cost of

• credit with

• criticism of

• cure of

D

• deal with (somebody)/ in (goods)

• debar from

• decide on

• deliberate on

• delight in

• depart to of

• departure Jar

• depend on/upon

• deprive of

• derive from

• derogate from

• derogatory to

• despair of

• detrimental to

• devoid of

• die of(disease)/ from (other causes)

• differ from (to be different from)/ with (to disagree)

• difficulty in

• different of

• disabuse of

• disagree with

• disgusted with

• discourse with

• dispose of

• dissociate from

• divest of

• divide into

• dressed in


• due to (used after a noun, not after a verb)

E

• effort in

• embroil in

• emphasis on

• employ in

• endow with

• enlarge on

• engage in

• entrust to

• entrust (somebody) with

• essential to

• expostulate with

• extend to

F

• fed up with

• fill with (enthusiasm)/in (a form)

• fire at (when not hit)/on

• focus on

• forbid to

• fraught with

• fritter in

• full of

G

• give to

• glad of

• grapple with

• good at

• gratitude Jar

• guilty of

H

• hanker after

• hostility to/in/on hand (in possession of)

I

• identical with

• impose on

• incur on

• indict for

• indifferent to

• indulge in

• infatuated with

• infect with

• infest with

• information on

• ingratiate (oneself) with

• inquire into (matter)/of (person)/about, after (thing)

• insist on


• interest in

• intimate to

• intoxicate with

• intrigue with

• intrude on

• invest with (power)/in (bank)

• investigation of

• involve in

J

• jealous of

• jeer at

• jump at

• just to

K

• key of (the door)/to (a problem)

• knock at

L

• lash at

• lay siege to

• leave for

• level against

• live on

• look at/to

• lure into

M

• married to

• meddle with

• meeting for

• motive in/for

N

• neglect of/in

• nominated to

• noted for

O

• oblivious of

• operate on

• opinion on

• overcome with

• owing to (not after a noun)

P

• part from/with

• pay a call on

• persevere in

• persist in

• plan for

• plead for

• pleased with

• prefer to

• preference for


• present with

• prevent from

• preventive for

• priority to

• probe into

• prohibit from

• proud of

• provide with

• put out/off

R

• recoil from

• reconcile to

• remand to

• remonstrate with

• repent of

• replete with

• reply to

• research on

• resolve on/to

• responsibility of

S

• sail for

• satisfied with

• sentence to

• shoot at

• sick of

• side with

• sparing of

• square with

• stickler for

• stricture on

• subsist on

• subversive of

• succeed in

• sue for

• superior to

• supply with

• sure of

• surprised at

• susceptible to

• suspect of

• sympathise with

• sympathy for

T

• take up

• tamper with

• taste of/for

• tear off/up

• testify to

• thank for


• throw at

• tire of

• trace to

• trample on

• translate into

• try to

U

• unequal to (the task)

V

• vest with/in

• view with

• vote for (a candidate)

W

• wait for

• ways of

• wide of

• wish for

• witness of

• wonder at

• write in/with


SOLVED EXAMPLES

Directions: (1-10) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is 'No error', the answer is '5'. (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any). (IBPS PO/MT Exam 2012) 1. The Government has asked individuals / with income of over Rs. 10 lakhs to/ Electronic file

1) 2) 3) tax returns for the year. 2011-12,/something which was optional till last year. / No error 4) 5) 2. The power tariff had already / been increased twice in/ the last 15 months and the Electricity 1) 2) 3) Board had also / levied additional monthly charges to consumers. / No error

4) 5) 3. Despite of curfew/ in some areas, minor/ communal Incidents were reported/ from different 1) 2) 3) 4) areas of the walled city./ No error 5) 4. This comes/ at a time /When fund allocation/ is been doubled. /No error

1) 2) 3) 4) 5) 5. As the prison will get /an official telephone facility soon, the prisoners/won’t have to make 1) 2) 3) calls in discreet manner through smuggled mobile phones./ No error 4) 5) 6. The area was plunged into/darkness mid wave of/ Cheering and shouting/slogans like 'Save 1) 2) 3) 4) The Earth'./ No error 5) 7. The poll contestants approached/the commission complaining that the hoardings/Violated 1) 2) 3) the code of conduct/ and influenced public perception. No error 4) 5) 8. The country has/adequate laws but problems/arise/ when these are not/Implemented in

1) 2) 3) 4)


letter and spirit./ No error 5) 9. The Management feels that/the employees of the organisation are/non-productive, and do

1) 2) 3) not want/to work hard. / No error 4) 5)

10. As far the issue of land encroachment/in villages is concerned, people will/have to make a

1) 2) 3) start from their villages by/sensitizing and educating the villagers about this issue. /No error

4) 5)

Answers (Q.1 to 10)

1 (3) file tax returns electronically

2 (4) ‘on’ in place of ‘to’

3 (1) Remove ‘of ’

4 (4) ‘has’ in place of ‘is’

5 (5) No Error

6 (2) ‘amid’ in place of ‘mid’

7 (4) ‘and was influencing the public perception’

8 (5) Error Free

9 (3) ‘unproductive’ in place of ‘non

productive’

10 (1) It should be ‘as far as’

Directions (Q. 11-20): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.) (Central Bank of India PO Exam 2010)

11. Sugar-sweetened drinks does not 1)/ pose any particular health risk, and /2) are not a unique risk factor /3) for obesity or heart disease. 4)/ No error 5)

12. Airline managements should note 1)/ that the ultimate passenger-un friend iiness 2)/ is to have their planes crash 3)/ due to the adopted of unsafe procedures. 4)/No error 5)


13. Celebrating its ten long years 1)/ in the industry, a private entertainment channel 2) /announce a series of 3)/ programmes at a press conference. 4)/No error 5)

14. The award ceremony ended 1)/ on a note of good cheer 2) / with audiences responding warmly 3) / to its line-up of films. 4)/ No error 5)

15. The actress was ordered for 1)/ wear an alcohol- monitoring bracelet and 2)/ submit to random weekly drug testing after 3)/ she failed to appear for a court date last week. 4) / No error 5)

16. Coaches have the advantage of 1)/ draw on their, personal experiences 2) / and providing their players 3)/ with unique inputs. 4)/No error 5)

17. The actor loves to think, 1) / never enjoys stick to one kind of role 2)/ and finds it difficult to 3)/ fulfil everyone's expectations. 4) /No error 5)

18. A major computer security firm urged 1)/ the social networking site to set up 2)/ an early-warning system after hundreds of users were (3)/ hit by a new wave of virus attacks. 4)/No error 5)

19. The finding may help doctors I)! give more personalised care to patients 2)/ and modify the amount of powerful drugs 3)/ administered over their patients. 4)/ No error 5)

20. The actress made a rare appearance 1)/ at the party and was 2)/ overheard talking in 3)/ her next big project. 4)/ No error /5).

Answers (Q.11 to 20)

11 (1) Use 'do not' in place of 'does not' as the subject of the sentence is plural

12 (4) Use 'adoption' in place of 'adopted' as a noun is required.

13 (3) 'announced' in place of 'announce'

14 (5) No Error

15 (1) 'to' in place of 'for'

16 (2) 'drawing' in place of 'draw'

17 (2) 'to' before 'stick' is required.

18 (3) 'had been' in place of 'were'

19 (4) 'to' in place of 'over'

20 (3) 'about' in place of 'in'


PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Direction: In each sentence below, four words have been printed in Bold Type. One of these may be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context (if any) and is the answer. If all four words are correctly spelt or appropriate in the context, then the answer is ‘(e)’ i.e. no error.

1. They questioned him and me unendingly about our trip to Singapore and the Purchase we

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Had made. No Error

(e)

2. The Passerbyes seemed not to be affected by the gory sight of the crushed dog. No Error

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

3. Mrs Bose, napping on the sofa, woke up started and enquired what happened. No Error

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

4. The lady approached me timidly and sat down besides me fidgeting nervously. No Error

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

5. The M.P. was noticeably upset by the manner in which the Minister conducted himself.

(a) (b) (c) (d) No error. (e)

6. Him not agreeing to the proposal outlined by me is baffling. No Error

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

7. Whenever I felt sorrowful I use to turn towards God. No Error

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

8. The carpentor uses the saw to saw wood and planks. No Error

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

9. I have been ordered to lay in bed and do nothing. No Error

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)


10. I did this just for your sake and her but have to account for it. No Error

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

11. Is there any further reason you give for your strange behavior towards my sister. No error

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

12. The posts were advertised by the Planning Commison in all the local dailies. No Error

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

13. I am utterly exhausted and much annoyed with the turn of events against me. No Error

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

14. His niece is too much tall for her age, isn’t she? No Error

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

15. The old woman hugged her grandsons warmly with tear in her eyes. No Error

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

16. This train takes perfectly ten hours to reach Calcutta. No Error

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

17. His parents were informed of his serious illness and of the surgory performed on him. No

Error

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

18. The appointment will be made initally for period of three years. No Error

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

19. When Satish heard those humiliation words he became furious. No Error

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

20. Rajendra and Ashu came very late lost night. No Error

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)


21. Fluency in English language and last experience in the field would be desirable. No Error

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

22. The fact, as brought out by all the newspaper, are that global tele-communication market is

(a) (b) (c)

Not very global. No Error

(d) (e)

23. Water does not few upward to the mountains but downward to the sea. No Error

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

24. It is written in the book of God that he who has plenty shall be asked to help others. No

Errors

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

25. He is competent and brilliant at his work, but utterly unpretentious. No Error

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

26. He needs not work So hard lest he should fall ill. No Error

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

27. The problem seems to be complicated but the real fact is that it is’nt. Is it? No Error

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

28. The amount that I have paid for it is lesser than what you have paid. No Error

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

29. These boxers dominated the ring with heroic display of their talent for boxing. No Error

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)


30. I who had missed the final round yesterday am very upset. No Error

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

Answers:-

1. (b)

2. (a)

3. (b)

4. (c)

5. (b)

6. (a)

7. (c)

8. (a)

9. (b)

10. (c)

11. (e)

12. (c)

13. (a)

14. (b)

15. (d)

16. (b)

17. (c)

18. (c)

19. (b)

20. (c)

21. (c)

22. (a)

23. (b)

24. (b)

25. (b)

26. (a)

27. (b)

28. (c)

29. (e)

30. (c)


Idioms & Phrases

Introduction: In the SBI PO exam, there can be questions of Idioms & Phrases to assess the candidate’s knowledge of English grammar and composition. The exam can consist of five questions on the Idioms & Phrases.

Here, we will practice few questions on the Idioms & Phrases.

Idioms and phrases refer to commonly used groups of words in English. They are used in specific situations and often used in an idiomatic, rather than a figurative sense. Idioms are often full sentences. Phrases, however, are usually made up of a few words and are used as a grammatical unit in a sentence. It is usually asked in all the competitive exams. Students must practice idiom and phrases in their writing as well as in their speech. It will make them proficient while practicing.

LIST OF IMPORTANT IDIOMS AND PHRASES

Idioms/Phrases Meaning

A big shot Important person

A bird in hand is worth two in the bush

One certainty is worth more than two prospective advantages

A bird's eye view A general view

A blue book A government report

A boon in disguise A benefit in loss

A case in point An illustrative case connected to the subject of discussion

A close shave A lucky escape

A cry in the wilderness

An irrelevant effort

A cuckoo in the nest A child whose parentage is doubtful and may therefore not belong by blood to the family

A duck in a thunderstorm

Distressed

A fair crack of the whip

A period of importance

A feather in one's cap

An achievement to be proud of

A feather in the cap A very good achievement

A flash in the pan Something which lasts only a short time; an effort or partial success which soon turns to failure; a short lived outburst of enthusiasm for something


A henpecked husband

One who is dominated by his wife

A hot line Direct telephone line between heads of states

A hot potato An issue that is awkward or embarassing to deal with

A lady's man A lover of women’s company

A latchkey child A child who returns from school etc. To an empty house because both parents are working

A man of the world An experienced man, often with a cosmopolitan background

A pig in a poke An article which was bought without previous inspection and which turns out to be worth much less than what one paid for it

A red letter day An important day

A sleeping partner A business partner who provides a share of the capital and therefore owns shares in the business but who does not take an active part in managing it

A snake in the grass Unrecognized danger

A soft soap A liking or fondness for something or someone

A storm in the tea-cup

A lot of excitement and discussion about a trivial matter

A thorn in flesh A cause of continual trouble

After my own heart According to my views and tastes

All the same Nevertheless, but, yet

Allow the dust to settle

Wait until the disturbance is well and truly over

An armchair job A regular job which is considered easy and well-paid

An ivory tower A place or state of life that is out of touch with people and reality

Another pair of shoes

Different matter

Apple of discord Cause of dispute

At crossroads Be in confusion because of many choices

At sixes and sevens In a state of confusion

At stake In danger

At the drop of a hat For no reason at all

At the eleventh hour

Just in time

Backstairs gossip Gossip among servants

Bag and baggage Completely

Bear the brunt Endure the greater part of a stress or burden

Beat about the bush Evade the issue

Bell the cat Do the most dangerous job


Between the devil and the deep sea

To be in a dilemma

Birthday suit Naked

Blow hot and cold To be inconsistent

Bolt from the blue Unexpected calamity

Bone of contention Cause of quarrel

Bone of contention Matter of dispute

Born with a silver spoon in mouth

Born in a wealthy family

Break new ground Venture into an untried field

Bring a hornet's nest about one's ears

Run into trouble by being meddlesome

Bring down the house

Receive rapturous applause

Bring home To emphasise

Burning the candle at both ends

Trying to do two opposite and exhausting things at the same time

By hook or by crook By one way or the other

By rule of the thumb

By experience, practical though rough

Cast pearls before a swine

Offer good things to people incapable of appreciating them

Cat and dog life Life of constant discord

Chip off the old block

Exemplifying the family characteristics, like his father

Clear the decks Prepare for action

Cloak and dagger Like a spy

Cock and bull story Ridiculous story

Come cap in hand Very humble

Come out of a bandbox

Be excessively well-dressed

Crocodile tears Hypocritical tears

Cut and dried Settled, decided

Cut no ice To make no effect

Dead men's shows Await someone's death with the expectancy of benefiting from it

Down in the mouth Low spirited

Draw the long bow Exaggerate

Drive into a corner Cut off all means of escape

Dwell in an ivory Be detached from the everyday preoccupations of mankind


tower

Face value Superficially

Fair and square In a fair way

Fair-weather friends

Friends only in good days

Fall to the ground Argument that is unfounded

Fancy price High price

Far and away Certainly

Far and wide All around

Feet of clay To be weak or cowardly

Foam in the mouth To be in extreme hatred

For good and all Permanently

Forty winks Short sleep

Free and easy Casual, unworried, unconcerned

French leave Absence without permission

From pillar to post Hither and thither indiscriminately

Go to the wall Give way, be vanquished

Goes without saying Be self-evident

Gone to the dogs Done for, ruined

Hammer and sickle The emblem of socialism

Hammer and tongs With all one's strength

Hand in glove Close friendship

High and dry Isolated, stranded

Hit below the belt Fight unfairly

Hit the nail on the head

Judge all right. Say something exactly right

Hole and corner policy

Improper policy

In a flutter In a state of nervous excitement

In cold blood Deliberately, without heat

In deed Really

In the same boat Similarly situated; like in a predicament

In the wrong box Out of one's proper place

It does not suit my book

It doesn't fit my arrangements

It makes no odds It makes no difference

Jack of all trades One who turns his hand to anything but excels in nothing

Keep body and soul together

Stay alive


Know chalk from the cheese

Be able to discriminate

Land of milk and honey

Land abounding in good things

Lay by the heels Render harmless

Lay their heads together

Plan an enterprise jointly

Led by the nose Mislead, deceived

Long innings Long spell of success

Lynch law Law of mobs

Make a clean breast Confess, own up

Make a dead set at Attack with determination

Make both ends meet

Live within one's budgeted income

Make no bones Make no objections

Man of iron A man of strong will power

Man of letters Scholar

Man of straw Insignificant

Man of straw Without substance

Meek and mild Gentle and quiet

My hands are full I am busy

Nail in (one’s) coffin Anything that tends to shorten life

Not worth (one’s) salt

Inefficient not worth one's keep

Not worth the candle

Not worth the expense involved

Null and void Invalid, without legal effect

Odds and ends Various articles

Olive branch Emblem of peace

On the cards Likely to happen

Once and for all For ever

Once in a blue moon

Rarely

One’s cup of tea What one likes and can do well

Out of harness Retired, at leisure

Part and parcel Essential portion

Pay the piper Defray the cost or bear the loss in an undertaking

Pay through the nose

Pay an excessive or exorbitant price


Play fast and loose Be inconsistent and unreliable in fulfilling obligations

Pour oil on troubled waters

Soothe strife, use tact and discretion

Pretty kettle of fish Bad business

Pull the wool over somebody's eyes

To deceive

Put a good face on the matter

Make the best of a bad job

Put down the shutters

To go out of business

Put the horse before the cart

Reverse the natural order

Rain cats and dogs Rain heavily

Rank and file Common man

Rank and file Common soldiers, hence followers

Red-letter day Day of special consequence

Rise from ashes To rise high from low

Rough and ready Not exact, only approximate

Rule the roost To be in control

Run-of-the mill An average, ordinary, unexciting

Shop-lifter A thief in the guise of a customer

Short and sweet Brisk, without delay

Show a clean pair of heels

Escape

Show the white feather

Behave like a coward

Smell a rat Detect something suspicious

Soft soap Flattery

Sour grapes Disparaging what is beyond one's reach

Step into another man's shoes

Take over another’s position

Stick one's neck out To take risk

Straight from the shoulder

With full force

Sweat of one's brow

Hard labour

Sweep in the board Take everything

Take the bull by the horns

Attack danger boldly

Take the cake Carry off the honours


Talk through one's hat

Talk nonsense

The bill of fare The menu

The cock of the walk

The most dominating person in a group

The fat is in the fire The mischief is out

The golden handshake

A large sum of money given to a man of high position when he retires from his employment

There is no love lost between them

They dislike one another

Through thick and thin

Under all circumstances

Throw cold water on

Discourage

Throw up the sponge

Admit defeat

To be at the end of one's tether

To have no resources left

To be ill at ease To be on bad terms with somebody

To be in hornet's nest

To be in an unpleasant situation

To be on the horns of a dilemma

To be in a fix

To be out of pocket To lose money or to pay more than one’s share

To beat about the bush

To talk about unimportant things

To beggar description

Beyond description

To black-ball Prevent from doing something

To break the duck To begin

To break the ice To take the first step in breaking down cold reserve or prepare the way

To bring home the bacon

To be successful

To bring one's eggs to a bad market

To fail in one’s plans because one goes to the wrong people for help

To bury the hatchet To make peace

To carry the day To win after a long effort

To catch somebody on the hop

To catch somebody off guard

To chew the cuds To muse on


To clinch the issue Decide

To come down in the world

To lose one's social and financial position

To come off with flying colours

To achieve distinction

To cool one's heels To be kept waiting for some time

To cut both ends To argue in support of both sides of the issue

To cut no ice To have no effect

To die a dog's death Unheroic death

To draw a bead upon

To take aim at

To eat a humble pie Show oneself lull of humility

To enjoy the lion's share

To enjoy the major part

To explore every a venue

To try every method

To feather ones nest

To care for self interest

To feather one's nest

To provide money even dishonestly

To fight tooth and nail

To make all efforts to win

To fish in troubled waters

To make most of a bad bargain

To foot the bill To make payment

To gain ground To become more general

To get away with To escape

To get in someone's hair

To upset or annoy someone

To give someone a piece of mind

To scold

To give the cold shoulder

Snub or behave indifferently towards a person

To give/get the bird To send away

To go against the grain

To work against one's liking

To go with the tide To do as others do

To grease a person's palm

To bribe

To have cold feet To be reluctant


To have finger in the pie

To do something in an affair

To have had one's day

To be past one's prime

To have one's heart in the right place

To be kind

To have the floor To make a speech

To heap coals of fire on one’s head

Put one to shame

To keep one's fingers crossed

To remain anxious, wishing good for somebody

To keep the ball rolling

To continue the work

To keep the wolf away from the door

To keep off poverty from oneself

To keep, the pot boiling

Keep the controversy alive

To kick one's heels To waste time

To kick up a row To make great noise and fuss

To kill two birds with one stone

Achieve two aims with a single effort

To lead one by the nose

To cause to follow blindly

To lead others up the garden

To deceive others

To let the cat out of the bag

To reveal a secret

To look for a needle in a haystack

To seek what is impossible to find

To make an ass of oneself

To act foolishly

To make castles in the air

Daydream

To make neither head nor tail of anything

To be completely baffled

To make no bones about something

To do or say a thing openly if it is unpleasant

To meet one's waterloo

To meet one's final defeat


To oil the knocker To tip the office-boy

To paint the town red

To celebrate noisily in public places

To pay lip service to To pretend to be loyal

To pay through the nose

To pay very dearly

To play a second fiddle

To act as a subordinate to do the secondary role

To play ducks and drakes

To squander money

To play to the gallery

Trying to get appreciation from least intelligent people

To plough a lonely furrow

To do without anybody's help

To put a spoke in one's wheel

To disturb

To put down in black and white

To write down on paper

To put in the corner To punish

To put one's shoulder to the wheel

To help oneself

To raise a dust To create confusion

To read between lines

To understand the hidden meaning of the writer

To read between the lines

To understand more than the actual words

To rip up old soars To revive a quarrel which was almost forgotten

To rise from the ranks

To rise to a high position

To rock the boat Upset the balance

To run in the same groove

Advance in harmony

To see eye to eye To agree

To shoot a line one's success

To exaggerate about

To show white feathers

To show fear

To smell something fishy

To feel that there is something wrong


To snap one's fingers

To become contemptuous of

To sound a red alert To make alert

To spill the beans To reveal secret information

To split hair To indulge in over-refined arguments

To split hairs To make pretty and fine distinctions

To stand to one's guns

To preserve when hardships press

To step into another's shoes

To take another's place

To stick to one's gun

To maintain one's point against all opposition

To take people by storm

To captivate them unexpectedly

To take the law into one's hand

To have a disregard for law and order

To take to one's heels

To run away

To talk shop To talk nonsense

To throw up one's nose at a thing

To treat it with contemptuous dislike or disgust

To throw up the sponge

To surrender or give up a contest

To turn a deaf ear To disregard

To turn a hair To reveal discomfiture

To turn the comer Pass the crisis

To wake up a sleeping dog

To disturb some person or condition capable of causing trouble

To wear one’s heart on one’s sleeve

Expose one’s innermost feeling to other

To work like a dog To work very hard

To wrangle over an ass's shadow

To quarrel over trifles

Turn over a new leaf

Make a fresh start

Turn the tables Reverse the situation between two persons or opponent

Two strings to bow Possessing a second way of attaining one's object

Under a cloud To be in bad book

Valley of the shadow of death

Nearness to death, place of fear for those poor in faith


Wash hands off the matter

Have nothing to do with it

Wear heart on (one's) sleeve

Make public your private feelings

Wear the breeches Domination of the husband by the wife

Wheels within wheels

Situation or extreme complexity

White elephant Something useless and expensive

Win by a hair To win by a narrow margin

With a high hand Arrogantly, imperiously

With heart in (one's) boots (or mouth)

Terrified, apprehensive, alarmed

With neither rhyme nor reason

Without any sense, useless

Without turning a hair

Without any sign of discomfort


SOLVED EXAMPLES

Directions: (1-5) Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below each sentence should replace the word/phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark (5) as the answer. (IBPS PO/MT Exam 2012) 1. US secretary of state made it clear that time running out for diplomacy over Iran's nuclear programme and said that talks aimed at preventing Tehran from acquiring a nuclear weapon would resume in April. 1) Runs out 2) was running out 3) Ran out 4) Run 5) No correction required 2. While the war of the generals rage on, somewhere in small town India, wonderful things are happening, quietly and minus fanfare. 1) rage 2) raging 3) rages on 4) raged on 5) No correction required 3. According to WWF, the small island nation of Samoa was the first in switch off its lights for Earth Hour. 1) first to switch of 2) the first to switch off 3) the first of switch off 4) first in switch of 5) No correction required 4. The campaign is significant because not just the youths are directly appealing to the world but because their efforts challenge the chimera of normalcy in the area. 1) Not just because 2) Just not because 3) Not just 4) Because just 5) No correction required


5. The doctor's association has threatened to go indefinite strike support of their teachers. 1) on supporting to 2) to supporting 3) for support 4) in support of 5) No correction required

Answers (Q.1 to 5)

1 (2)‘was running out’

2 (3)’rages on’ should be used as subject is singular.

3 (2)’ the first to switch off’ should be used.

4 (1)Not just should be used before ‘because’

5 (4)’in’ should be used before ‘support of’

Directions (Q. 6-10): Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below each sentence should replace the word/phrase printed in bold in the sentence, to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark (5) as the answer. (Central Bank of India PO Exam 2010)

6. The poor Brahmin led a hand to mouthful existence and could use any job which paird him a little.

1) handful-to-mouthful existence 2) hand-to-mouth existence 3) handing for mouthful existing 4) hand and mouth exist 5) No correction required.

7. In order to earning decent living we need to have a good job which pays a substantial amount of money,

1) earned decency life 2) earning decency live 3) earn a decent living 4) earned decently life 5) No Correction required

8. We went to the famous-restaurant to eat and were served piped hot food.

1) served piping hotter 2) serving pipe hot 3) served piping hot 4) serve pipe hotten


5) No correction required

9. Akshay considered Suresh a complete pain in the neck as he kept asking baseless questions, '

1) paining in the neck 2) painless neck 3) painful necks 4) pain in necking 5) No correction required

10. I jump through hoop to finish this project in time but was not rewarded adequately,

1) jumped through hoops 2) jumping for hooping 3) jumped on hoop 4) jumping from hoop 5) No correction required

Answers (Q. 6 to 10)

6 (2)’ hand-to-mouth’ is a single word.

7 (3) ‘earn a decent living’

8 (3)the correct word is ‘served piping hot’

9 (5)

10 (1) past tense should be used.

Directions (Q.11-15):Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below each statement should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark (5) as the answer. (United Bank of India PO Exam 2009)

11. One of the main function of the State is maintenance of law and order.

1) main function for

2) main functions of

3) main functions for

4) main functions off



12. Setbacks and failures has always been an integral part of science.

1) has always being

2) were always been

3) has been always

4) have always been


13. The sword of Tipu Sultan was recently brought at an auction by an Indian for Rs 2 crores.

1) brought in a

2) brought in an

3) bought in an

4) bought at a


14. Alcohol in moderate quantity boosts concentration of good cholesterol and inhibiting blood clots.

1) inhibits blood clots

2) inhibit blood clots

3) inhibited blood clots

4) inhabiting blood clots


15. We must realise that learning from mistakes is an important part of life.

1) mistakes are an

2) mistakes are a

3) mistake are a

4) mistakes has an




11 (2) It should be’ main functions of’ as we are choosing one from many.

12 (4) ’have’ should be used for two objects.

13 (3) The correct word is’ bought in an’.

14 (1) Present Indefinite tense should be used.

15 (5)

Directions (Q.16-20): Which of the phrases 1), 2), 3) and 4) given below each statement should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence.fo make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and No correction is required', mark 5) as the answer. (IDBI Bank (PO) Exam 2009)

16. An NGO is working towards providing free education to the girl child so that every girl can stand on their own feet.

1) stands on their own

2) stands on her own

3) stand in her own

4) stand on their own’s


17. The animal rescuers anaesthetised the dog which had been with great pain after having met with an accident.

1) which had been in

2) which is being with

3) who had been in

4) who has been at


18. In its final decision, the court ruled that all the allegations levelled for the accused were false and baseless.

1) allegation levelled against the


2) allegations level against that

3) allegations levelled against the

4) allegation levelled with that


19. If I leave early from home, I could have made it on time to the airport.

1) If I would leave early

2) Had I leave earlier

3) If I could left early

4) Had I left earlier


20. Thousands of fire-fighters were deployed at the factory when a fire suddenly broke out due to a short circuit.

1) on the factory when

2) at the factory while

3) at that factory when

4) in the factory while



16 (2) ‘stands on her own’ as subject is singular.

17 (1)’in’ should be used instead of ‘with’

18 (3)’against’ should be used with allegations not ‘for’.

19 (4) When two events of past are compared, the event that occurred earlier must be in past perfect.

20(5)


PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Direction: Find the word/phrases given below each of the sentences should replace the word/phrase printed in bold letter to make the sentence grammatically correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and no correction is required, then mark (e) as your answer.

1. The government announced much tax concessions for the income tax payers.

(a) A little

(b) Some

(c) Any

(d) Heaps of

(e) No correction required

2. Had you gone to Calcutta, do not forget to visit the Metro Rail.

(a) Had you go

(b) If you had gone

(c) Going

(d) If you go

(e) No Correction Required

3. Swimming cannot be learnt unless one will get down to water.

(a) So long as one gets down

(b) Until one gets down

(c) Unless one gets down

(d) Until one will get down


4. Shabnam asked Laila how did she join Excellent Bank Coaching.

(a) How she has joined

(b) How she joined

(c) How had she joined

(d) That how she joined


5. People are voluntarily helping the riot victims.

(a) Spontaneously

(b) Purposefully

(c) Naturally

(d) Intentionally



6. You are requested to kindly help me.

(a) To help

(b) Kindly to help

(c) To please help

(d) Not to help

(e) No Correction required

7. Ramesh even could not solve the sum.

(a) Ramesh and I both

(b) Only Ramesh

(c) Ramesh but

(d) Ramesh only

(e) No Correction

8. A body of volunteers have been organized for the relief work.

(a) Are also

(b) Could have

(c) Are being

(d) Is being

(e) No Correction required

9. She is in danger to lose her balance.

(a) To loose

(b) Of lose

(c) Of losing

(d) To lose off


10. He is good friend of his and I.

(a) His and me

(b) Him and yours

(c) Hers and mine

(d) Me and his


11. This is the only book which I want.

(a) That I want

(b) I wanted

(c) I had wanted

(d) Which I have wanted



12. The room is rather too dark.

(a) Much too

(b) Too

(c) Rather

(d) Too much


13. Either of these are good.

(a) Either

(b) Both

(c) Any of these

(d) None


14. He walks as if to be drunk.

(a) He were

(b) Though

(c) Like

(d) As


15. Nothing than hard work can help you.

(a) Nothing else than

(b) No other things than

(c) But

(d) Nothing but


16. He is a sales-representative in a company.

(a) Sales-representative

(b) Selling-representative

(c) Sell-representative

(d) Sail-representative


17. It is hard for me re-adjust in life abroad.

(a) With life

(b) To life

(c) By life

(d) Life



18. The drought was followed by months of famine.

(a) By many months

(b) By a months of

(c) By

(d) By severe months


19. There are no raises in the salary.

(a) Is any rise

(b) Are no rise

(c) Is no rise

(d) Are no bonuses


20. The bell was wrung late.

(a) Is wrung

(b) Is rung

(c) Has rung

(d) Was rung


21. The aggregate income of the trader was enormous.

(a) Sum total

(b) Maximum earning

(c) Minimum penalty

(d) Daily sale


22. The passenger was on his own.

(a) Clonely

(b) By one self

(c) With his family

(d) Having his own ticket

(e) By himself

23. I have read only the first three chapters of this novel.

(a) The three

(b) The whole

(c) Most of the

(d) Three first



24. He is cunning and rogue fellow.

(a) A rogue man

(b) An honest man

(c) Crafty fellow

(d) Fast trader


25. It is better to do something than sit idle.

(a) Sitting idle

(b) Be idle

(c) To sit idle

(d) Not to do so


26. He was chosen as captain.

(a) Elected as

(b) Nominated as

(c) Not chosen as

(d) Elected


27. Both of us did not attend school.

(a) Both the two boys

(b) We all

(c) Any of us

(d) All of us

(e) The two of us

28. He is not such a fool.

(a) A

(b) That a

(c) Much of a

(d) Quite a


29. You will have to return my belonging whenever I ask for them.

(a) Should have to

(b) Will have

(c) Would have

(d) Will be



30. I am prepared to lie down my life for the sake of the nation.

(a) Preparing to lie

(b) Prepared to be laid

(c) Preparing to be laid

(d) Prepared to lay


Answers:-

1. (b)

2. (d)

3. (c)

4. (a)

5. (e)

6. (a)

7. (a)

8. (d)

9. (c)

10. (c)

11. (b)

12. (c)

13. (b)

14. (b)

15. (a)

16. (a)

17. (b)

18. (a)

19. (c)

20. (d)

21. (e)

22. (c)

23. (a)

24. (d)

25. (a)

26. (a)

27. (d)

28. (c)

29. (e)

30. (d)


Cloze Tests

Introduction: In the SBI PO exam, there can be questions of Cloze Tests or Cloze Deletion Tests to assess the candidate’s knowledge of English grammar and composition. The exam can consist of ten questions on the Cloze Tests.

From the exam’s point of view it is very important to solve these questions and these questions are relatively easy if you have a good English reading habit. In such kind of questions you have to make relation with the previous sentence and the next sentence then only you will be able to solve these questions with better accuracy and speed.

Cloze test is a type of comprehension exercise in which the reader is required to supply words that have been omitted from the text (passage). Other names of this exercise are:

I. Fill in the Blanks in passages and comprehensions, and

II. Choosing words in a running passage to maintain the sequence of various sentences in the paragraphs.

In the examination you will find a small passage with numbered blanks. Below the passage these numbers are repeated and against each number four or five choices of word are given. You are required to choose an appropriate word from the given choices to fill in the respective blanks in the passage. This test is designed to evaluate your knowledge of words and their correct grammatical usage so as to keep the meaning of the passage intact.

Strategy to Tackle Cloze Tests

To tackle the Cloze test, it is advisable to quickly read through the passage before starting to fill in the blanks. This gives you a fair idea about the content of the passage and with this background choosing appropriate words from the provided answer choices becomes easier.

Example

Tibet up images of a mystic land. Snow-capped mountain peaks pierce the blue sky and fierce chilly winds sweep the rolling grasslands. Maroon-robed Buddhist monks pray in remote monasteries and horsemen pound the rugged earth. People in this high plateau perform punishing rituals like prostrating hundreds of miles in tattered clothes on pilgrimage. Spirits, spells and flying apparitions are part of the Tibetan world. In short, Tibet remains an exotica. Such images are largely the result of books by Western travellers and explorers in the last century, which helped in keeping the mystique alive. And when the Communist rulers took over Tibet in the 1950s and began Chinese language and culture on the people, Tibet's own history started to in the background. Thus, the only books available in English to Tsering Wangmo Dhompa as a young girl growing up in India and Nepal as a refugee those written by Westerners, and so she came to view the


country as a forbidden land, a place where fantasy and fable collaborated against a dramatic backdrop of mountains, black magic and people with strange customs and appearances.

1. (a) makes (b) conjures (c) puts (d) toil.

2. (a) sturdy (b) wobbly (c) handsome (d) herculean.

3. (a) implementing (b) evading (c) imposing (d) experimenting.

4. (a) amplify (b) stretch (c) die (d) recede.

5. (a) are (b) have been (c) was (d) were.

Answers:

1. (b). ‘Makes up’ would mean create by altering or modifying such as ‘making up a story.’ ‘Puts up’ is also an incorrect expression here as it means ‘stays.’ ‘Toil up’ is again incorrect option as it means to put hard work into. Option (b) ‘conjures’ is the right answer which means ‘to recall.’

2. (a). ‘Sturdy’ means ‘with strong built up’, ‘wobbly’ means ‘unsteady’, ‘herculean’ means ‘having great strength.’, ‘handsome’ means ‘good looking.’ Option (a) is the most appropriate here as a horseman is generally visualized as the one having strong built up.

3. (c). Since the sentence talks about communist rulers ‘taking over’, option (c) ‘imposing’ which means ‘to thrust.’

4. (d). ‘Amplify’ and ‘stretch’ both mean an increase. ‘Die’ would be a little extreme word here. ‘Recede’ which means ‘to move back’ matches up with the word background used in the sentence.

5. (e). The correct tense form here would be option (d) i.e.; ‘were.’


PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Close Test (1): In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which is numbered. These numbers are again printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested. One of them is perfectly suitable for the whole passage. Find out the appropriate words.

In June 1422, the first Earth Summit (the UN Conference on the Environment) was held in Stockholm, Sweden. Exactly 20 years later in June 1442-the second Earth Summit was held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil. From Rio, a declaration of (1) and (2) plan (3) eventually. In particular, two international treaties were signed. In particular, two international treaties were signed. One deals with manmade global (4) that is likely to change the world’s climate in the next century. The other is concerned with protecting the (5) of the earth’s plant and animal species. During the 20 years that (6) between the two Earth Summits, our planet has undergone dramatic changes in population and the (7) pressures that humanity puts on its natural (8) are (9) as the (10) of the 21st Century approaches.

1.

(a) Leaders

(b) Nations

(c) Heads

(d) States

(e) Principles

2.

(a) Use less

(b) Inhibited

(c) Unwanted

(d) Active

(e) Action

3.

(a) Emerged

(b) Developed

(c) Came

(d) Started

(e) Ended

4.

(a) Heating

(b) Context

(c) Warming

(d) Booking

(e) Threats

5.

(a) Wealth

(b) Variety

(c) Rich

(d) Threat

(e) Awing

6.

(a) Went

(b) Elapsed

(c) Go

(d) Run

(e) Raced

7.

(a) Polluting

(b) Industry

(c) Immense

(d) Pollution

(e) Pressing

8.

(a) Resources

(b) Funds

(c) Sources

(d) Penances

(e) Beauty


9.

(a) Fashionable

(b) Mainly

(c) Danger

(d) Highlighted

(e) Coming

10.

(a) Twilight

(b) End

(c) Sunset

(d) Dusk

(e) Dawn


Besides (1) the Wireless in (2) Local Loops (WLL) scheme and (3) expansion of some telephone exchanges, the Telecom Department has taken various measures to improve it in Luck now. Steps are also being taken to clear the waiting list of the telephone connection at a (4) pace. The Telephone directory in English also (5) to be ready to March by next year.

Giving this information here on Friday, Principal General Manager (Telecom) said that the “Free Phone Services” would also be introduced under intelligent network services during the (6) month. Under this scheme, the payment would be made by the (7) party and not by the caller. (8) it would be (9) only for the local calls but later it may be (15) to STD and ISD also.

1.

(a) Withdrawing

(b) Allowing

(c) Giving

(d) Introducing

(e) Stop

2.

(a) Starting

(b) Adopting

(c) Giving

(d) Taken

(e) Stopping

3.

(a) Service

(b) Efficiency

(c) Influence

(d) Directory

(e) Service

4.

(a) Advanced

(b) Accelerated

(c) Honest

(d) Abundant

(e) Immense

5.

(a) Thought

(b) Ought

(c) Expected

(d) Has

(e) Expecting

6.

(a) Current

(b) Called

(c) Dialed

(d) Subscribe

(e) No error

7.

(a) Calling


(b) Called

(c) Dialed

(d) Subscribe

(e) Consumer

8.

(a) Foremost

(b) First

(c) Firstly

(d) Presently

(e) Initially

9.

(a) Legal

(b) Authorized

(c) Valid

(d) Invalid

(e) Expanded

10.

(a) Stretched

(b) Extended

(c) Given

(d) Extend

(e) Allowed


For generations man has (1) against the wild to create a world where only he (2) whether animals and plants survive or are (3) out. Earlier, we accepted as self evident that any (4) in our environment brought about by sciences and technology must be improvements the (5) world of our (6). However, many people all over the world have begun to feel that (7) are going too far, and that we should try to (8) some of original before we find it (9) too late. The same sciences which had led us away from nature are now the (10) miracle of creation.

1.

(a) Faced

(b) Stood

(c) Struggled

(d) Challenged

(e) Came

2.

(a) Decides

(b) Think

(c) Advises

(d) Observes

(e) Thanks

3.

(a) Taken

(b) Wiped

(c) Put

(d) Thrown

(e) Kept

4.

(a) Difference

(b) Increments

(c) Changes

(d) Replacement

(e) Turns

5.

(a) In

(b) At

(c) Over

(d) For

(e) To

6.

(a) Aborigines


(b) Ancient

(c) Successors

(d) Ancestors

(e) Modern

7.

(a) Ourselves

(b) We

(c) Us

(d) Some

(e) Our

8.

(a) Demolish

(b) Cherish

(c) Save

(d) Renovate

(e) Latest

9.

(a) Occurs

(b) Sounds

(c) Seems

(d) Gets

(e) Earns

10.

(a) Unfolding

(b) Discussing

(c) Arguing

(d) Narrating

(e) Telling

Answers:-

Close Test (1)

1. (e)

2. (e)

3. (a)

4. (c)

5. (a)

6. (b)

7. (c)

8. (a)

9. (d)

10. (e)

Close Test (2)

1. (d)

2. (a)

3. (e)

4. (b)

5. (b)

6. (a)

7. (b)

8. (e)

9. (b)

10. (a)

Close Test (3)

1. (c)

2. (a)

3. (b)

4. (c)

5. (a)

6. (c)

7. (b)

8. (c)

9. (d)

10. (a)


Reading Comprehension (Passages)

Introduction: In the SBI PO exam, there are questions on Passages to assess the candidate’s knowledge of English Comprehension. The exam can consist of twenty to twenty five questions from two to three passages.

From the exam’s point of view it is very important to solve these questions and these questions are relatively easy if you are comfortable with the English language. In such kind of questions you have to read the complete passage and its original meaning what the writer wants to convey to the readers then only you will be able to solve these questions with better accuracy and speed.

Here, we will practice few questions on Passages.

The comprehension part of any test contains reading passages of about 300 words taken from a published material and we have to answer a series of questions based on the passage. The reading passages are drawn from several areas like History, Geography, Civics, Economics, Literature, Philosophy, Biographies, Essays, and Politics etc.

Questions on the reading comprehension are not only designed to test one’s ability to understand directly stated information in the passage but they also test one’s ability to understand implications and draw inferences. In short, the questions are meant to test one’s ability to read a passage and comprehend its meaning, and express that ability by selecting the correct answer from among the answer choices given for each question.

Note that since the questions asked are to test the ability to read a passage and comprehend its meaning, you have to judge the correctness of an answer on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Even if the information in the passage runs counter to what you believe to be correct, your answer should be based only upon what author says in the passage.

To be able to solve a RC passage with utmost accuracy, it is important to:

to identify the author’s purpose, evaluate the author’s style, or analyse the author’s arguments,

to recognize the main idea or the central idea presented by the author, and to apply his/her view point, to comprehend vocabulary by giving questions on word meanings, synonyms, antonyms, meaning of phrases and idioms.

Format of Reading Comprehension (RC) Section

A passage of about 300-500 words is taken from a published material and a series of questions is asked about the content of the passage. Some of the questions test the ability to understand directly stated information, some test the ability to recognize implications and draw inferences,


and some test the ability to comprehend the text and recognize the main idea presented by the author.

Tactics to tackle RC questions

The following pages list every proven technique for succeeding in the RC section, which, incidentally, is a pitfall for many test-takers. Before we look at the types of questions asked in the RC section, let us consider how to approach reading the passage itself. To answer the questions correctly, one should obviously read and understand the text. But imagine if you are able to finish only three of the six paragraphs given, because you read slowly! You will then get only 50 per cent marks that too if you answer all the questions correctly.

On the other hand, if you finish all the paragraphs quickly and are able to answer only half the questions correctly, you will still get only 50 per cent marks. To answer questions correctly, it is important to comprehend what you read. But reading and comprehending what you are reading are interdependent. In other words, speed can be improved by improving comprehension, and comprehension will, in turn, improve with improved speed. Therefore, the primary goal should be to build up enough speed to finish reading the entire given paragraph in the stipulated time, and also, give as many correct answers as possible.

Example

The wave of anti-Japanese protests that has erupted across China, after tit-for-tat landings by ultranationalists on uninhabited islands which the Japanese call the Senkakus and the Chinese the Diaoyus, is alarming. It is a reminder of how a barren group of disputed rocks could upend pain-staking progress in the difficult relations between Asia’s two biggest powers. And the spat even raises the specter of a conflict that could conceivably draw in America.

China has never formally controlled the Senkakus, and for most Japanese, blithely forgetful of

their country’s rapacious, imperial past, possession is nine-tenths of the law. Yet the islands’

history is ambiguous. The Senkakus first crept into the record lying in the Chinese realm, just

beyond the Ryukyu kingdom, which in the 1870s was absorbed by Japan and renamed Okinawa.

After Japan’s defeat in 1945 the Americans took over Okinawa’s administration, along with the

Senkakus. In the 1951 peace treaty between Japan and the United States, as well as in the

agreement to return Okinawa in 1972, the Senkakus’ sovereignty was left vague (Taiwan claims

them too). The Americans say the dispute is for the parties to resolve amicably.

Three decades ago that looked possible. Deng Xiaoping, the architect of China’s modernization,

recognized the risks. When he signed a Treaty of Peace and Friendship with Japan in 1978, the

two countries agreed to kick the Senkakus into the long grass. “Our generation”, Deng said, “is

not wise enough to find common language on this question. The next generation will be wiser.”

His hopes have been dashed.


Chinese maritime power is growing, in ways that not only challenge Japan’s control of the

Senkakus (but also worry other countries that have maritime disputes with China). The current

squabble began when the right-wing governor of Tokyo declared that the metropolitan

government would buy the Senkakus from their indebted private owner, the better to assert

Japanese sovereignty. Not to be seen as weak, Yoshihiko Noda, the prime minister, retorted

that the Japanese government would buy them instead.

The natural solution

What can be done? Neither side wants to jeopardize good relations, let alone go to war, over

the Senkakus. But the fact that there is a (remote) danger of conflict should prompt both

governments to do two things. The long-term task is to defang the more poisonous nationalist

serpents in both countries’ politics. In Japan that means producing honest textbooks so that

schoolchildren can discover what their predecessors did. In China (no promulgator of honest

textbooks itself) the government must abandon its habit of using Japanophobia as an outlet for

populist anger, when modern Japan has been such a force for peace and prosperity in Asia. But

the priority now is to look for ways to minimize the chances of unwished-for conflict, especially

in seas swarming with rival vessels.

A mechanism to deal with maritime issues between the two countries was set up last year.

Ideally, both sides should make it clear that military force is not an option. China should

undertake not to send official vessels into Japanese waters, as it still occasionally does, and deal

more forcefully with militaristic sabre-rattlers like the general who suggested using the

Senkakus for bombing practice.

As for the Senkakus themselves, Mr. Noda’s proposal to buy them would have value if

accompanied by a commitment to leave them unvisited. Our own suggestion is for

governments to agree to turn the Senkakus and the seas round them—along with other rocks

contested by Japan and South Korea—into pioneering marine protected areas. As well as

preventing war between humans, it would help other species. Thanks to decades of overfishing,

too few fish swim in those waters anyway.

Questions:

1. What is the central idea of the passage?

A. To analyze China’s double faced international policies.

B. To analyze America’s role in international politics.

C. To analyze China and Japan’s current standing on Senkakus.

D. To analyze the history of Senkakus island.


Answer: Option C is the correct answer.

A quick mind map of the passage will help us understand the central idea of the passage which is to discuss China and Japan’s current standing on Senkakus Island. In the passage the author has discussed where the conflict started from, where it is right now and has also suggested how it should move ahead. Hence, option C is correct. Option A is vaguely implied in the passage; but it is certainly not the central idea. Option B can be easily negated as nowhere does the passage discuss America’s role in international politics. Option D can bait a student as a right answer but it can also be eliminated as the passage is more about China and Japan on Senkakus (option C) than Senkakus alone.

2. Why does the author starts the passage with ‘’THE’ wave of anti-Japanese protest?”

A. To highlight the fact that there is only one specific wave that has erupted across China.

B. To highlight the intensity of the spat that has risen.

C. To catch the attention of the reader.

D. To ridicule the fact that two biggest Asian countries are fighting over an issue that can

be amicably resolved.

Answer: Option B is the correct answer. It is after the opening sentence that the author goes ahead to discuss the intensity of the spat between China and Japan. ‘THE’ (in uppercase) emphasizes the extent of tension that exists between the two countries. Hence, option B is the right answer. Option A is too extreme an assumption and hence can be negated. Option C can be the right answer but it cannot be the only reason why the author has used ‘THE’ in the beginning of the passage. Option D can be eliminated as the author has not mentioned talking about an amicable resolving of the dispute anywhere in this passage.

3. What do you infer is the profession of the author?

A. Teacher.

B. Reporter.

C. Foreign relations expert.

D. Diplomat

Answer: Option B is the correct answer.

Option A is easily eliminated as it leaves an ambiguity as to what subject’s teacher and of what capacity. Option D can also be eliminated for same reasons. Option B and C are close options and both would look correct in the first glance but if we read a line from last paragraph carefully it says “Our own suggestion is for governments to agree to turn the Senkakus and the seas round them—along with other rocks contested by Japan and South Korea—into pioneering marine protected areas.” The word ‘our’ indicates that someone has written this piece of article


as a representative of a body whereas a foreign relation expert could work on his own also. Option B makes for a clearer and ambiguity free answer.

4. What is the author’s tone in the passage?

A. Analytical

B. Indignant

C. Optimistic

D. Critical

Answer: Option A is the correct answer. Option B can be eliminated as we do not see the author expressing an indignant or angry tone in the passage. Option C can also be ruled out as the author does not display any sign of hope regarding the issue he deals with in the passage. This brings us to Option A and D, both of which are very close options. Between the two, however, Option A is a better answer as ‘critical’ means being occupied with criticism whereas the author rather than criticizing someone in this passage, tries to analyze the situation and the problem.

5. Why does the author use the sentence: ”It is a reminder of how a barren group of

disputed rocks could upend pain-staking progress in the difficult relations between

Asia’s two biggest powers”?

A. To alarm people of a brewing conflict which can lead to a war-like situation.

B. To highlight the fact that the two biggest nations of Asia are fighting for a barren land

rather than focusing themselves on the path of progress.

C. To explain the importance that even a barren piece of land has in national progress.

D. To show that nationalism is important than any other emotion.

Answer: Option B is the correct answer. Option A is nothing but a mix of few words from the passage. The author does not say this statement in order to alarm people of the brewing conflict. Rather, option B is the right answer because the author uses this statement to show the intensity of the issue i.e., it is such a sensitive issue that the two biggest countries of Asia are fighting over a piece of barren land wherein they could have spend that time in focusing on their respective growth. Option C is a vague option as the author seems to believe exactly the opposite of what is stated here. Option D is an extreme option and is not discussed in the passage.


6. Which of these statements is not true according to the passage?

A. Deng Xiaoping played a major role in emergence of modern China.

B. Yoshihiko Noda is the PM of Japan.

C. Japan has bought Senkakus.

D. Diaoyus is surrounded with controversy.

Answer: Option C is the correct answer.

The statement in Option A is true as the passage clearly says “Deng Xiaoping, the architect of

China’s modernisation, recognised the risks.” Option B is true as well as it is followed from the

passage: “Not to be seen as weak, Yoshihiko Noda, the prime minister, retorted that the

Japanese government would buy them instead.” Option D is also true as the passage is about

controversy regarding Senkakus whose Chinese name is Diaoyus. Option C is the right answer as

it is not mentioned in the passage and is hence a false statament. As per the passage, Japan

has proposed to buy Senkakus but it is not clear whether they have already bought it.

7. What is the author’s position regarding the whole problem?

A. Senkakus and the seas around them should be turned into pioneering marine

protected areas so as to dissolve any conflict.

B. Leaders of both the nations should ideally sit with each other and chalk out a mutual

solution.

C. America, who had initially handed over Senkakus islands to Japan, should intervene

in between.

D. Japan should hand over Senkakus to China as they fall within the Chinese waters.

Answer: Option A is the correct answer.

Option B is incorrect – the author might have implied this but towards the end of the passage, he clearly concludes by saying: “Our own suggestion is for governments to agree to turn the Senkakus and the seas round them—along with other rocks contested by Japan and South Korea—into pioneering marine protected areas.” Hence, option A is correct. Option C is incorrect as the author has just casually mentioned that America does not seem to be interested in intervening in the matter. Option D is incorrect as it is not suggested by the author anywhere in the passage.


PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Passage (1)

Direction: Read the following passage carefully and answer the following question given below it.

The two great epics, the Mahabharata and the Ramayana, were developed over a period of centuries and perhaps put to writing in their present form in the second century AD. The Mahabharata contain about 50000 verses and is the longest single poem in the world. Besides the main story of the war between the Pandavas and the Kauravas, a number of the other interesting stories are woven into the epic. The Bhagvat Gita, a later addition to the Mahabharata, enshrines a philosophical doctrine and it is described the three path of salvation, viz. Karma, Gyan, and Bhakti. The Ramayana, the story of Rama, is shorter than the Mahabharata and is full of interesting adventures and episodes. These two epics have influenced the thinking of millions of people for centuries. This period abounds in influence in the development from early Vedic religion to Hinduism. There were many other shastras and smrities. The shastras contained works of science and philosophy. For Example, the Arthashastra by Kautiliya was treatise on the science of government. There were Shastras on art, mathematics and other sciences. The smirities deals dealt with the performance of duties, custom and laws prescribed according to the Dharma. The most famous of these is Manusmriti.

1. What does the Bhagwat Gita enshrine?

(a) About 50000 poems or verses.

(b) A lates addition to the Mahabharata

(c) The main story of the Kaurvas and the Pandavas

(d) The battle of Kurukshetra

(e) The philosophy of Karma and the Pandavas

2. Why are the Puranas important?

(a) They symbolize the transformation from vedic religion to the Hinduism

(b) They are the masterpiece example of secular literature written I treatises

(c) They contain many shastras and smrities

(d) They contain a lot of works of science and philosophy of Kautiliya

(e) None of these

3. What is prescribed in the Manusmriti?

(a) A philosophical doctrine depicting three paths of salvation

(b) A treatise on the art of governing

(c) Performance of Karma and gyan as described in the Gita

(d) The right way of performing customs duties and the performance of law

(e) None of these


4. When were the two epics written according to the author’s view?

(a) In the second century AD

(b) After the later additions to the Bhagwat Gita

(c) During the period of Ram and The Pandavas and the Kauravas

(d) Perhaps, over a period of centuries

(e) None of these

5. What comprises the Mahabharata?

(a) A single poem

(b) 50000 poems

(c) The Bhagwat Gita

(d) Vedic religious

(e) The concept of the sciences of governance

6. Which stories are woven into the longest poem of the world?

(a) The story of the longest single poem in the world

(b) The smrities and the shastras

(c) The stories from the Puranas

(d) A treatise by Kautilya

(e) None of these

Direction: Which of the following is most nearly the SAME in the meaning as printed in bold letter as used in context of the passage?

7. Epics

(a) Holy

(b) poems

(c) Details

(d) Religious

(e) Story telling

8. Treatise

(a) Treaty

(b) Work

(c) Topic

(d) Knowledge

(e) Treatment


Direction: Which of the following is most nearly the OPPOSITE in meaning as word printed in bold letters as used in the passage?

9. Secular

(a) Democratic

(b) Religious

(c) Communal

(d) Red tapism

(e) Liberal

10. Famous

(a) Known

(b) Best

(c) Magnificent

(d) Ignominious

(e) Ignorant

Passage (2)

Directions: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.

Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the

questions.

Rajendra stayed in a tiny hut with his goat. One day, his uncles tied it alongside the goats that

belonged to the village butcher. The butcher killed all the goats. Now, Rajendra's goat had a bell

around its neck. Rajendra found the bell. Scared that the boy would tell everyone he had killed

a stolen goat, the butcher gave Rajendra some money! His uncles met him and asked about the

money. 'Everyone wanted goat's meat today. My goat somehow ended up at the butcher's and

he sold its meat. This is my share', he replied. His uncles who owned twenty goats slaughtered

them all and went to sell the meat. But there was so much meat in the market that they got

only a few rupees for their goats.

Angry, they set fire to his little hut. Rajendra came home and found a pile of ash. Sadly he

gathered the ash in a bag and decided to leave the village. He walked till he reached a village

where he sat down under a tree to rest. Who was this stranger carrying a bag of ashes? The

villagers wondered. Rajendra's hut had been his dearest possession, so he said, 'It is the ash

from a sacred place'. The villagers asked him to sell it. But he refused. Rumor spread that a holy

man from the Himalayas had ash that could cure all misfortunes. He wanted no money, but it

was only right that you paid a coin. Soon the ash was all gone and in its place was a pile of

coins. Rajendra decided to return to his village. When his uncles saw him they asked Rajendra


his secret. Rajendra said, 'I sold the ash from my burnt hut and got this money'. His uncles burnt

down their fine houses, gathered the ashes and set off for the village, but as soon as they

uttered the word 'ash', the villagers beat them! By then the villagers knew here was no magic in

the ash.

Angry, the uncles decided to kill Rajendra. They invited him for a walk and pushed him in the

river. A girl washing clothes nearby heard his screams for help. Being a good swimmer she

dived in. When she heard his story she thought of a plan. The next day Rajendra went to his

uncles' house with the girl, dressed in finery and said, 'When I fell into the river, she saved me.

She has a palace at the bottom of the river. Do come and visit us'. Saying this, they left in the

direction of the river, The uncles decided to follow Rajendra and cheat him of his newfound

wealth. So they ran to the river and dived into its deep waters. They were never heard of again'.

1. Why did the butcher slaughter Rajendra's goat?

(a) Rajendra's uncles had sold it to him

(b) He had stolen it as he did not have sufficient goats

(c) It was the healthiest of all the goats he had

(d) Rajendra agreed to let him if he was given a share of the profit

(e) None of these

2. Which of the following can be said about Rajendra's uncles?

(a) They treated Rajendra badly because they had not been on good terms with his parents.

(b) They were cunning thieves and had made a lot of money

(c) They were rich but were jealous of Rajendra's wealth

(d) They were creative and found indirect ways of helping Rajendra to make money

(e) They tried to drive Rajendra away from the village because they were ashamed of him

3. Why did Rajendra leave his village one day?

(a) He was so upset over the death of his goat that he could not bear to live there any

longer.

(b) He left in order to sell ash at a nearby village.

(c) He had lost his house in a fire set by his uncles.

(d) He was in search of a wife since he had no family of his own.

(e) His uncles refused him shelter and he had nowhere to stay after his hut burnt down.


4. Why did the villagers donate money to Rajendra?

A. They saw his bag of ashes and felt sorry for him.

B. They felt that it was their duty to help him in his time of trouble.

C. He misled them into thinking he had travelled all the way to the Himalayas.

(a) None

(b) Both A and B

(c) Only B

(d) Only C

(e) None of these

5. How did Rajendra get his uncles to stop harassing him?

(a) He offered them all his wife's wealth

(b) He told them about his good luck so they decided to treat him well

(c) He pushed them into the river

(d) They realised they could not harm him and gave up

(e) None of these

6. What made the villagers angry with Rajendra uncles?

(a) The ash the uncles had sold them was useless

(b) They were asking an unreasonable price for the ash

(c) They thought the uncles wanted to cheat them just as Rajendra had

(d) His uncles had treated Rajendra very badly

(e) None of these

7. Why did the girl go into the river?

(a) She had to enter 'the river to wash her clothes

(b) She wanted to show off her swimming skills

(c) She wanted to save Rajendra

(d) She lived at the bottom of the river

(e) None of these

8. Which of the following is TRUE in the context of the passage?

A. Rajendra plotted with the villagers to teach his uncle a lesson.

B. Rajendra married the girl who saved him from drowning.

C. Rajendra uncles were very greedy.

(a) None

(b) Both (A) and (C)

(c) Only (B)

(d) Only (C)

(e) None of these


Directions: Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as

used in the passage.

9. STAYED

(a) Delayed

(b) Remained

(c) Lived

(d) Postponed

(e) None of these

10. REST

(a) Balance

(b) Relax

(c) Calm

(d) Quiet

(e) Others

Directions: Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold as

used in the passage.

11. SACRED

(a) Devil

(b) Unfaithful

(c) Sinless

(d) Unholy

(e) Religious

12. GOOD

(a) Dishonest

(b) Incapable

(c) Unhealthy

(d) Unsuitable

(e) Disobedient


Passage (3)

Direction: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.

Angry taxi-drivers, lorry drivers and private car owner yesterday threatened “violent opposition” to the Municipal Corporation’s proposed vehicle regulations to control the emissions of carbon dioxide and other poisonous gases. “It will cost far too much. I simply can’t afford it”, shouted one angry motorist, when questioned by this reporter, A bus driver added. Why should the driver of a vehicle have to pay the on-the-spot-fine? This isn’t my personal bus, I just drive it,”

Taxi owners, too are incensed at the new regulations. “Why weren’t we consulted?” They demanded angrily. “We will have to spend a lot of money getting taxis fixed in order to meet these tough regulations. This will put up taxi fares at least by 25%. The public will suffer………….”

1. In what context did the vehicle drivers and car owners threaten a violent opposition?

(a) They were angry with the Municipal Corporation’s sudden vehicle regulation.

(b) They could not afford to get their vehicle regulations.

(c) They were afraid that the public would suffer.

(d) They were unhappy with the government.

(e) None of these

2. What did an angry motorist mean by “I can afford it”?

(a) He was unable to abide by the newly imposed regulations

(b) He did not own a personal bus.

(c) It was costly to get the vehicle fitted as the regulation demanded.

(d) The regulation was passed without sufficient notice and he could not afford the new

device.

(e) None of these

3. Why did the Municipal Corporation pass the regulation?

(a) It wanted the city to be clean

(b) It had the welfare of people in mind

(c) The cars and buses added to the level of pollution

(d) It would check harmful emissions from the vehicles.

(e) None of these

4. Why did the bus driver object to the regulations?

(a) He had to get his bus fitted to meet the new regulations

(b) He supported the other drivers in the city

(c) The bus was not a private bus

(d) He was made to pay the fine

(e) He was supposed to pay a fine for bus that didn’t belong to him


5. Which of the following was the outcome of the proposed regulations?

A. The driver were very angry

B. Taxi fares went up by 25 %

C. It helped to control poisonous emissions

(a) Only A

(b) Only B

(c) Only C

(d) A and C

(e) A, B, and C

6. Which of the following statements is TRUE in context of the passage?

(a) Bus drivers had to pay fine just for driving a bus

(b) Car owner could not afford to get their cars fitted

(c) Public would suffer because of the violent oppositions

(d) Taxi Owner were more angry than taxi drivers

(e) None of these

Direction: Which of the following is mot nearly SAME in meaning as word printed in Bold letters as used in context of the passage

7. Proposed

(a) Offering

(b) Nominated

(c) Suggested

(d) Imposed

(e) Told

8. Regulations

(a) Laws

(b) Restrictions

(c) Ruling

(d) Rules

(e) Bills

9. Incensed

(a) Scented

(b) Angry

(c) Joyous

(d) Irritated

(e) Enjoying


10. Tough

(a) Difficult

(b) Smooth

(c) Stringent

(d) Partial

(e) Lenient

Answer:-

Passage (1)

1. (e)

2. (a)

3. (d)

4. (e)

5. (a)

6. (e)

7. (b)

8. (b)

9. (c)

10. (d)

Passage (2)

1. (e)

2. (c)

3. (c)

4. (d)

5. (e)

6. (c)

7. (e)

8. (d)

9. (c)

10. (b)

11. (d)

12. (b)

Passage (3)

1. (a)

2. (c)

3. (d)

4. (e)

5. (a)

6. (e)

7. (c)

8. (d)

9. (b)

10. (c)


Sentence Reconstruction (Para Jumbled)

Introduction: In the SBI PO exam, there can be questions on Para Jumbled Tests to assess the candidate’s knowledge of English grammar and composition. The exam can consist of five to seven questions on the Para Jumbled Tests.

From the exam’s point of view it is very important to solve these questions and these questions are relatively easy if you have a good English reading habit. In such kind of questions you have to make a relation with the previous sentence and the next sentence then only you will be able to solve these questions with better accuracy and speed.

What type of questions are asked in Sentence Reconstruction?

A distinctive question on Sentence arrangement consists of an opening and a closing sentence with four other sentences in between which have to be sensibly arranged. The student needs to pick up a grammatically correct sentence arrangement from a set of 4-5 choices. There will be only one way of rearranging them to acquire coherence, connection and development. You should choose the correct arrangement from the given answers.

Points to Remember while soving questions based on Sentence Reconstruction

Two sentences cannot be connected without punctuation.

If a transition word is used to join two sentences, Student should precede it with a semicolon and follow it with a comma.

When two sentences are connected by a conjunction, in that case each sentence must be complete Comma splice

Two sentences are never sconnected by a comma alone.

Tips to Students for solving Sentence Reconstruction part effectively

Students should develop their credibility by paying attention to intricacies of the grammar.

Should have a clear idea about the various parts of speech and how they function together.

They should practice to form a right sentence structure and make sure that their verb matches their subject.

Students are highly advised to read to sentences loud to hear pace and rhythm, which directly helps in getting the punctuation in the right place.


They should also Study the rules for the apostrophe and ensure they are placed correctly.

Here we are giving some examples. Students are advised to go through it carefully.

1. There is a fashion now-a-days

P. as an evil

Q. who is born with a silver spoon

R. to bewail poverty

S. and to pity the Youngman

6. in his mouth

(a) PSRQ

(b) RPSQ

(c) RSQP

(d) SPRQ

Ans. (b)

Explanation:

There is a fashion now-a-days to bewail poverty as an evil and to pity the young man who is born with silver spoon in his mouth.

2. Even though he had prepared well

P. in the examination hall

Q. and could not do

R. for the examination

S. he got nervous

6. as well as he have hoped to do

(a) QRSP

(b) RSPQ

(c) PQRS


(d) PRSQ

Ans.(b)

Explanation:

Even though he had prepared well for the examination, he got nervous in the examination hall and could not do as well as he have hoped to do.

3. Though the government claims

P. it has failed to arrest

Q. the rate of inflation is down

R. or the decrease

S. the rise in prices

6. in the per capita income

(a) PQRS

(b) PQSR

(c) PSQR

(d) QPSR

Ans. (d)

Explanation:

Though the government claims the rate of inflation is down, it has failed to arrest the rise in prices or the decrease in per capita income.

4. The main purpose

P. how much

Q. is to find out

R. of this test

S. of English

T. he knows

(a) PQSR


(b) PRQS

(c) RQPS

(d) SPQR

Ans. (c)

Explanation:

The main purpose of this test is to find out how much of English he knows.

5. They would gather information

P. and then report the findings

Q. of the lands

R. through which they travelled

S. about the wealth and military strength

6. to the king

(a) PQSR

(b) PSQR

(c) QRSP

(d) SQRP

Ans. (d)

Explanation:

They would gather information about the wealth and military strength of the lands through which they travelled and then report the findings to the king.

6. The two men who were following

P. and who were separated from the tigress by the rock,

Q. when they saw me stop

R. a few yards behind me

S. stood still

6. and turn my head.


(a) PSQR

(b) QSPR

(c) RPSQ

(d) SQRP

Ans. (c)

Explanation:

The two men who were following a few yards behind me and who were separated from the tigress by the rock, stood still when they saw me stop and turn my head.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Para Jumbled Test (1):

Direction: Rearrange the following sentences in a proper sequence so as to make a meaningful paragraph and answer the questions given below it.

A. Fancy lights in shops and markets are switched on to attract the customers.

B. The festive atmosphere starts even before Dussehra.

C. Diwali is called the festival of light and is most eagerly awaited.

D. Everybody seems to be doing nothing bust shopping.

E. Months before it the shopkeepers are very busy in stocking up their shops

F. The shops and goods are beautifully decorated and displayed.

1. Which of the above should be Fourth sentence?

(a) D

(b) B

(c) C

(d) F

(e) A

2. Which of the above should be the Second sentence?

(a) B

(b) A

(c) D

(d) C

(e) E


3. Which of the above should be Last sentence?

(a) C

(b) D

(c) B

(d) E

(e) F

4. Which of the above should be first sentence?

(a) E

(b) C

(c) A

(d) D

(e) B

5. Which of the above should be the Third sentence?

(a) A

(b) E

(c) C

(d) B

(e) D

Para Jumbled Test (2)

Direction: Rearrange the following sentences in a proper sequence so as to make a meaning paragraph and answer the questions given below it.

A. He noticed a very old man coming towards him.

B. He was leaning against the wall.

C. Abraham sat by the door observing all.

D. He looked very tired and hungry.

E. He was followed by an equality hungry boy.

1. Which of the above should be the fourth sentence?

(a) D

(b) B

(c) C

(d) E

(e) A


2. Which of the above should be the second sentence?

(a) B

(b) A

(c) D

(d) C

(e) E

3. Which of the above should be the last sentence?

(a) C

(b) D

(c) B

(d) E

(e) A

4. Which of the above should be the first sentence?

(a) E

(b) C

(c) A

(d) D

(e) B

5. Which of the above should be the third sentence?

(a) A

(b) E

(c) C

(d) B

(e) D



A. I have gone through all the formalities and will be leaving India on 25th June

B. My sister has sponsored me to go to Australia for higher studies.

C. Could you meet us at the station, too?

D. Could you arrange for a good hotel for us for three days?

E. I’ll be arriving in Bombay on 23rd by Konark Express along with my parents.



(a) D

(b) B

(c) C

(d) E

(e) A

2. Which of the above sentence should be the second sentence?

(a) B

(b) A

(c) D

(d) C

(e) E

3. Which of the above sentence should be the last sentence?

(a) C

(b) D

(c) B

(d) E

(e) A


(a) E

(b) C

(c) A

(d) D

(e) B


(a) A

(b) E

(c) C

(d) B

(e) D




A. To magnetize a screwdriver place it inside a direct current.

B. It becomes magnetized.

C. Remove it from the coil.

D. Place it just over iron fillings.

E. It attracts the iron fillings.

1. Which of the above should be the Second Sentence?

(a) D

(b) B

(c) C

(d) E

(e) A


(a) B

(b) A

(c) D

(d) C

(e) E

3. Which of the above should be the last sentence?

(a) C

(b) D

(c) B

(d) E

(e) A


(a) E

(b) C

(c) A

(d) D

(e) B



(a) A

(b) E

(c) C

(d) B

(e) D



A. However the marketing reports are not good.

B. It is one kind of its kind in India

C. The company, now may bring down the price.

D. The product was launched six months back.

E. One of the reasons is that is that it is costly.

1. Which sentence should come first in the paragraph?

(a) A

(b) B

(c) C

(d) D

(e) E

2. Which sentence should come second in the paragraph?

(a) A

(b) B

(c) C

(d) D

(e) E

3. Which sentence should come third in the paragraph?

(a) A

(b) B

(c) C

(d) D

(e) E


4. Which sentence should be fourth in the paragraph?

(a) A

(b) B

(c) C

(d) D

(e) E

5. Which sentence should come the Last in the paragraph?

(a) A

(b) B

(c) C

(d) D

(e) E


Direction: Rearrange the following sentences in a proper sequence so as to make a meaning paragraph and answer the questions given below it.

A. I called out his name.

B. It was indeed by old friends.

C. He looked around but did not see me.

D. I stopped to have a closer look at the person.

E. I saw a familiar.

1. Which of the following sentence should come second in the paragraph?

(a) A

(b) B

(c) C

(d) D

(e) E

2. Which of the following sentence should be third in the paragraph?

(a) A

(b) B

(c) C

(d) D

(e) E


3. Which of the following sentence should be fourth in the paragraph?

(a) A

(b) B

(c) C

(d) D

(e) E

4. Which of the following sentence should be last in the paragraph?

(a) A

(b) B

(c) C

(d) D

(e) E

5. Which of the following sentence should be first in the paragraph?

(a) A

(b) B

(c) C

(d) D

(e) E

Answers


1. (d) 2. (e) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (d)


1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (a)


1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (e) 5. (b)


1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (b)


1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (e) 5. (c)


1. (a)

2. (c)

3. (d)

4. (b)

5. (e)


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