RAILWAY RECRUITMENT BOARDS (RRB) EXAMS QUESTIONS PAPERS
QUESTIONS
GENERAL SCIENCEQ.1. Which of the following is not a bone in the
human body? Pericardium Q.2. Rennin and lactase, the enzymes
required to digest milk, disappear in the human body by the age of
two Q3. Duodenum is situated at the uppermost part of the small
intestine Q.4. The heart is covered by a membrane called
Pericardium Q.5. About ..of the total calcium present in the human
body is in the blood. (d) 1% Q.6. Phenylketonuria is an example of
an inborn error of metabolism. This error refers to atrophy of
endocrine glands Q.7. As in the arms and legs, blood flows against
gravity and is prevented from flowing back by (b) valves Q.8.
Identical twins arise when two (a) cells develop independently from
the same zygote Q.9. Element that is not found in blood is (c)
chromium Q.10. Scratching eases itching because (d) it stimulates
certain nerves which direct the brain to increase the production of
antihistaminic chemicals. Q.11. The gland, which in relation to
body size is largest at birth and then gradually shrinks after
puberty, is? (c) Thymus Q.12. A human sperm may contain ? 1.
X-chromosome 2. Y-chromosome 3. XY-chromosome (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c)1 and 2 (d) l,2 and 3 Ans. c Q.13. Which of the following is not
a bone in the legs of human body? (a) Radius Q.14. Bleeding from
artery is characterized by which of the following? 1. Blood is red.
2. Blood is purple. 3. Bleeding is continuous. 4. Bleeding is
intermittent. (a) 1 and3 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 4 (d) 2 and 4 Ans. b
Q.15. Which of the following is not a vestigial organ? (a)
Centriole (b) Molar tooth (c) Appendix (d) Diaphragm Ans. d Q.16.
Which of the following bone articulations forms the gliding joint?
(a) Humenis and radius (b) Carpals (c) Hip girdle and femur (d)
Skull & neck verterbrae Ans. b Q.17. Pancreas secretes hormones
which help in (a) blood clotting
(b) production of antibodies (c) growth of body (d) keeping
sugar balance in body Ans. d Q.18. S-A node of mammalian heart is
known as (a) Autoregulator (b) Pace-maker (c) Time controller (d)
Beat regulator Ans. b Q.19. Consider the following statements
regarding blood pressure: 1. It is the pressure exerted by the
blood on the walls of any vessel. 2. It decreases in the arteries
as the distance from the heart increases, 3. It is lower in the
capillaries than in the arteries. 4. It is usually lower in women
than in men. Of these, the correct ones are (a) 1 and 4 (b) l, 2and
3 (c) 2,3 and 4 (d) l,2,3 and 4 Ans. d Q.20. The hormone
responsible for the secretion of milk in mothers, is? (a) ACTH (b)
Leutinizing hormone (c) Adrenalin (d) Lactogenic hormone Q.21. What
is the correct sequence of the following in heart attack? 1.
Narrowing of the inner orifice of the vessel 2. Plaque from fibrous
tissue and high cholesterol 3. Inadequate supply of blood and
oxygen 4. Clots of blood carried into the coronary arteries (a)
1,2,3,4 (b) 2,4, 1,3 (c) 2, 3, 1, 4 (d) 4, 2, 1 3 Ans. b Q.22. Bile
juice is secreted by (a) Pancreas (b) Liver (c) Spleen (d) Gall
bladder Ans. b Q.23. Veins differ from arteries in having (a)
thinner walls (b) strong walls (c) narrower lumen (d) valves to
control direction of flow Ans. d Q.24. What is the main function of
insulin in the human body? (a) To maintain blood pressure (b) To
help in digestion of food (c) To control the level of sugar in the
body (d) To check the level of iodine in the body Ans. c
Q.25. An enzyme that works in an acidic medium is (a) pepsin (b)
tiypsin (c) ptyalin (d) maltose Ans. a Q.26. The blood pressure is
the pressure of blood in (a) arteries (b) veins (c) auricles (d)
ventricles Ans. a Q.27. The total number of bones in human skull
are (a) 8 (b) 12 (c) 30 (d) 32 Ans. c Q.28. Which of the following
glands controls the development of sex organs in humans? (a)
Paancreas (b) Thyroid (c) Adrenal (d) Pituitary Ans. d Q.29. Oxygen
is transported to every cell of the human body by? (a) red blood
cells (b) blood platelets (c) white blood cells (d) hormones Ans. a
Q.30. Which of the following components of blood protects human
beings from infection? (a) Plasma (b) Blood Platelets (c)
Haemoglobin (d) White Blood Corpuscles Ans. d Q.31. The normal
temperature of the human body is (a) 90 F (b) 98 F (c) 98.4 F (d)
96.4 F Ans. c Q.32 .If a person can see an object clearly when it
is placed at distance of about 25 cm away from him, he is suffering
from (a) myopia (b) hypermetropia (c) astigmatism (d) None of these
Ans. d Q.33. The blood pressure values of four persons are given
below: 1. Mrs.X-90/60 2. Mr.X-160/120 3. Mr. Y-120/80
4. Mrs.Y-140/l00 Who among the following has normal blood
pressure? (a) Mrs. Y (b) Mr. X (c) Mrs. X (d) Mr. Y Ans. d Q.34. In
the case of a Test-tube baby? (a) fertilization takes place inside
the test tube. (b) development of the baby takes place inside the
test tube. (c) fertilization takes place outside the mother body.
(d) unfertilized egg develops inside the test tube. Ans. c Q.35.
Pituitary gland is present (a) below the brain (b) above the brain
(c) inside the brain (d) nowhere near the brain Ans. a Q.36. Which
of the following organs is used in the purification of blood in
human body? (a) Liver (b) Kidney (c) Spleen (d) Lungs Ans. d Q.37.
Cornea is a part of which of the following organs of human body?
(a) Eye (b) Ear (c) Nose (d) Heart Ans. a Q.38. What is Funny Bone?
(a) A muscle (b) A nerve (c) A bone (d) A blood vessel Ans. b Q.39.
Man cannot digest cellulose whereas cows can do so because? (a)
their gut contains bacteria capable of digesting cellulose. (b)
they have a many chambered stomach. (c) they have efficient
grinding molars. (d) they produce an enzyme cellulose which can
digest cellulose. Ans. a Q.40. Which of the following when taken by
pregnant women, is found to be the cause of deformed children? (a)
Glycerol (b) Xylidine (c) Thalidomide (d) None of these Ans. c
Q.41. The diploid number of chromosomes in human body is ? (a) 24
(b) 40 (c) 46
(d) 48 Ans. c Q.42. The largest cell in the human body is (a)
Nerve cell (b) Muscle cell (c) Liver cell (d) Kidney cell Ans. a
Q.43. Lichens are formed due to the symbiotic association of (a)
moss and fungi (b) bacteria and fungi (c) algae and fungi (d) None
of these Ans. c Q.44. Insects form the largest class of animals
living on land and sea. They are grouped into (a) 22 orders (b) 26
orders (c) 29 orders (d) 32 orders Ans. c Q.45. Which of the
following statements is true for planktons? (a) They live on the
surface of lake water. (b) They live on the bottom of lakes. (c)
They live on the plants growing in water. (d) They live in the
water column. Ans. b Q.46. Which of the following has the smallest
egg? (a) Ostrich (b) Humming bird (c) Pigeon (d) Homo sapiens Ans.
c Q.47. The population of which of the following is maximum on the
earth? (a) Reptiles (b) Fishes (c) Birds (d) Beetles Ans. d Q.48.
Poison glands of snakes are homologous to (a) stings of rays (b)
salivary glands of vertebrates (c) electric organs of fishes (d)
sebaccous glands of mammals Ans. b Q.49. The phylum chordata is
characterized by the presence of (a) spinal cord (b) notochord (c)
nerve chord (d) None of these Ans. d Q.50. Which of the following
activities is suppressed by the presence of auxins in plants? (a)
Growth of lateral buds
(b) Cell division (c) Root initiation (d) Development of fleshy
fruits Ans. c Posted by RRB EXAM PAPERS at 5:18 PM 0 comments Email
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27, 2010
RRB TECHNICAL EXAM PAPERRailway Engineering1. The bent-up length
of rail used in front of nose of crossing which help in
channelising the train wheels in their proper routes are known as:
(a) lead rail (b) point rail (c) wing rail (d) splice rail Ans:- C
2.The point up to which the new railway track laid, at any time is
called: (a) terminal (b) station (c) rail-head (d) base Ans:- C
3.The good quality wood for sleeper is: (a) Deodar (b) Sheesham (c)
Teak (d) Sal Ans:- C 4.Generally the life of wooden sleepers is
taken as: (a) 2 to 3 years (b) 12 to 15 years (c) 35 to 50 years
(d) 5 to 8 years Ans:- B 5.The gradual or tapered widening of the
flangeway which is formed by bending and splaying the end of check
rail or wing rail away from the gauge line is known as: (a) Flare
(b) Toe (c) Heel (d) Loop Ans:- A 6.The minimum height of
embankment above the highest flood mark in the area should be: (a)
zero cm (b) 30 cm (c) 100 cm (d) 60 cm Ans:- D 7.The recommended
depth of ballast cushion on a curved portion of a track is provided
under the ........ edge of the sleeper. (a) upper (b) middle (c)
inner (d) outer
Ans:- C 8. An outward slope provided on the tread of the wheel
is: (a) 1 in 5 (b) 1 in 10 (c) 1 in 20 (d) 1 in 25 Ans:- C 9.The
granular material spread on the formation of a railway track for
the sleepers to rest upon is known as: (a) anchors (b) ballast (c)
subgrade (d) chairs Ans:- B 10.Bone shaped section of fish plate is
commonly used for connecting: (a) double headed rails (b) flat
footed rails (c) bull headed rails (d) all above are correct Ans:-
B 11.The members laid transversely under the rails for supporting
and fixing them at the gauge distance apart are known as: (a)
fastenings (b) sleepers (c) ballast (d) fish plate Ans:- B 12.The
bottom width of foot in a flat footed rail is: (a) 78.6 mm (b)
136.5 mm (c) 66.7 mm (d) 70 mm Ans:- B 13.The rectangular pits in
which wheels of the locomotives are taken out for repairs, are
known as: (a) Track pits (b) Inspection pits (c) Drop pits (d)
Siding pits Ans:- C 14. The wheels are coned to prevent from
rubbing the inside face of the rail head and to prevent lateral
movement of the axle with its wheels. The slope of cone is: (a) 1
in 5 (b) 1 in 20 (c) 1 in 10 (d) 1 in 15 Ans:- B 15. Gauge is the
distance measured in place of the between which faces of two
parallel rails in a track. (a) inner faces (b) centre line of one
rail to inner face of other rail (c) centre lines (d) outer
faces
Ans:- A 16. Most significant which imposes limitations in
raising the high speeds is: (a) adhesion of wheels (b) resistance
due to oscillations (c) flange resistance (d) air or wind
resistance Ans:- A 17. The rails are welded by: (a) Thermit welding
(b) Gas welding (c) Arc welding (d) MIG welding Ans:- A 18. Steel
sleepers are ..... shaped in section. (a) oval (b) rectangular (c)
trough (d) semi-spherical Ans:- C 19. In India generally the
sleeper density of sleepers per rail length used is: (a) 18 (b) 30
(c) 12 (d) 24 Ans:- A 20. The extra rails provided over bridge to
prevent damage and danger in case of derailment on the bridge are
known as: (a) Stock rails (b) Guard rails (c) Check rails (d) Wing
rails Ans:- B 21. The phenomenon of misalignment of rails due to
temperature change is known as: (a) cropping (b) creeping (c)
bulging (d) buckling Ans:- D 22. Creep is the ..... movement of
rails. (a) longitudinal (b) diagonal (c) horizontal (d) vertical
Ans:- A 23. Ballast best suited to steel sleepers is: (a) sand (b)
Gravel (c) Quartzite (d) All the above Ans:- C 24. The section of a
rail is decided on the basis of: (a) Type of rails (b) Spacing of
the sleepers
(c) Speed of trains (d) All of the above Ans:- D 25. While
preparing sub-grade of a railway line, the grubbing operation
means: (a) checking of subgrade (b) filling or cutting of earth
work in railway subgrade (c) compaction and consolidation of earth
work (d) removal and disposal of stumps and roots trees Ans:- D 26.
The sinuous path taken by an engine as against the alignment of the
track is known as: (a) Rolling motion (b) Nosing motion (c)
Lurching motion (d) Vibration Ans:- B 27. The mechanical device
which transfer chemical energy of fuel into mechanical energy in
the form of motion is called: (a) rolling stock (b) railway (c)
wagon (d) locomotive Ans:- D 28. Integrated coach factory is
located in: (a) Chennai (b) Bangalore (c) Jamshedpur (d) Mumbai
Ans:- A 29. C.T.C. stands for: (a) Critical Track Control (b)
Critical Traffic Channeliser (c) Centralised Traffic Control (d)
None of these Ans:- C 30. To reduce the intensity of pressure
particularly on soft variety of sleepers, a rectangular plate is
introduced between the rails and the sleepers. This is known as:
(a) Fish plate (b) Chair (c) Saddle plate (d) Bearing plate Ans:-
D
31. Generally the rail sections used in India is: (a) flat
footed (b) double headed (c) bull headed (d) all above Ans:- A 32.
The arrangement consisting of three tracks used for changing the
direction of engine is called: (a) three ladder track (b) turn
table (c) three throw switch (d) triangle Ans:- B 33. The length of
a wooden sleeper for broad gauge track is: (a) 1.83 m (b) 1.52 m
(c) 2.74 m (d) 1.676 m Ans:- C 34. The technical officer of the
rank of sectional officer in the maintenance organisation of Indian
Railways is called: (a) Permanent Way Inspector (b) Gangmate (c)
Assistant Permanent Way Inspector (d) None of these are correct
Ans:- C 35. The depth of ballast section under sleeper for broad
gauge track as per Indian standard should be: (a) 250 to 300 mm (b)
200 to 250 mm (c) 150 to 200 mm (d) 150 mm Ans:- B 36. The
completed and finished railway line on which wheeled vehicles are
drawn by locomotive is known as: (a) steel way (b) rails (c)
railway (d) permanent way Ans:- D 37. The horse power to weight
ratio steam engine is generally of the order of: (a) 10-15 kg/HP
(b) 60-80 kg/HP (c) 20-30 kg/HP (d) 100-150 kg/HP Ans:- B 38. The
cause of formation of kinks in a rail is:
(a) Loose packing at joints (b) Defect in gauge and alignment
(c) Defect in cross level joints (d) Any of the above Ans:- D 39.
The horizontal distance from the material depot to the rail head is
called: (a) lift (b) site distance (c) rail-head (d) lead Ans:- D
40. On curves, to counteract the effect of centrifugal force, the
level of outer rail is raised above the inner rail by a certain
amount. This is called: (a) Track gradient (b) Track slope (c)
Super elevation (d) Horizontal gradient Ans:- C 41. The measure of
stiffness of track required to produce a unit depression in the
track is known as: (a) Tractive force (b) Load capacity (c) Gauge
(d) Track modulus Ans:- D 42. The head of a gang in maintenance
organisation of railway is called: (a) P.W.I (b) Keyman (c) Ganger
(d) A.P.W.I Ans:- C 43. The fixed rail in a railway track against
which the tongue rail fits s known as: (a) wing rail (b) stock rail
(c) lead rail (d) point rail Ans:- B 44. The standard length of
rail for Broad Gauge track in India is: (a) 19.2 m (b) 25.6 m (c)
11.8 m (d) 12.8 m Ans:- D 45. The thickness of fish plate generally
used in Indian Railway is: (a) 16 mm (b) 10 mm (c) 25 mm (d) 20 mm
Ans:- D 46. Thermal efficiency of a diesel engine may be expected
to be in the range of:
(a) 50-65% (b) 25-35% (c) 15-20% (d) 10-15% Ans:- B 47. Wear on
top or head of rail occurs due to: (a) Abrasion of rolling wheels
(b) Heavy axle load (c) Constant brake application (d) Any or all
of the above Ans:- D 48. Any movement of the locomotive in
different planes, e.g., vertical, longitudinal, transversal etc.,
is known as: (a) Oscillating motion (b) Lurching motion (c)
Shutting motion (d) Vibration Ans:- A 49. In rainy season the dust
in the ballast becomes mud and comes up by suction from below the
rail joint. Such joint is called: (a) Wet joint (b) Water joint (c)
Pumping joint (d) Blowing joint Ans:- C 50. Accidents can be
avoided by adopting: (a) interlocking (b) C.T.C. system (c) pilot
guard system (d) A.T.C. system Ans:- A Posted by RRB EXAM PAPERS at
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TECHNICAL
RRB TECHNICAL EXAM QUESTIONS
Fluid Mechanics1. A single acting reciprocating pump, running at
60 r.p.m, delivers 0.01 m2/sec of water. The area of the piston is
0.05m2 and stroke length is 40 cm. Then theoretical discharge of
the pump will be (a) 0.015 m3/sec (b) 0.02 m3/sec (c) 0.025 m3/sec
(d) 0.03 m3/sec Ans:- B 2.B. In question (A), the co-efficient of
discharge would be (a) 0.9 (b) 0.8 (c) 0.6 (d) 0.5 Ans:- D
3. In question (A), the slip of the pump would be (a) 0.02
m3/sec (b) 0.01 m3/sec (c) 0.005 m3/sec (d) 0.003 m3/sec Ans:- B
4.The possibility of negative slip in reciprocating pump is when
(a) delivery pipe is short (b) suction pipe is long (c) pump is
running at high speed (d) all of the above Ans:- D 5. The slip in
the reciprocating pump will be negative if (a) Qth > Qact (b)
Qth < Qact (c) Qth = Qact (d) none of the above Ans:- B 6. The
power required to drive a single acting reciprocating pump is equal
to (a) w.A.L.N / 4500 (b) w.A.L.N.(hs + hd)4500 (c) A.L.N. (hs +
hd)/4500 (d) w.L.N/4500 where w = specific weight of water Ans:- B
7. The rate of flow of water through a double acting reciprocating
pump is equal to (a) A.L.N /60 (b) 2 AL.N/60 (c) A.L.N./260 (d) 3
A.L.N./60 Ans:- B 8. The rate of flow of water through a single
acting reciprocating pump is equal to (a) A.L.N /60 (b) 2 AL.N/60
(c) A.L.N./260 (d) 3 A.L.N./60 Ans:- A 9. The pump, which works on
the principle of water hammer, is known as (a) centrifugal pump (b)
reciprocating pump (c) hydraulic ram (d) none of the above Ans:- C
10. The pump which raises water without any external power for its
operation, is known as (a) centrifugal pump (b) reciprocating pump
(c) hydraulic ram (d) hydraulic intensifier Ans:- C 11. The power
at the shaft of a centrifugal pump is 100 KW, and the power
available at the impeller is 900 KW. If water horse power is 720
KW, then overall efficiency of the centrifugal pump will be (a) 90%
(b) 80% (c) 75% (d) 72% Ans:- D 12. In the question (A), the
manometric efficiency would be (a) 90% (b) 80% (c) 75% (d) 72%
Ans:- B
13. In question (A), the mechanical efficiency would be (a) 90%
(b) 80% (c) 75% (d) 72% Ans:- A 14. The term W.Q.Hm / (75 S.H.P)
for a centrifugal pump is known as (a) mechanical efficiency (b)
manometric efficiency (c) overall efficiency (d) none of the above
Ans:- C 15. If a circular chamber is introduced between the casing
and the impeller, then casing is known as (a) vortex casing (b)
volute casing (c) casing with guide blades (d) none of the above
Ans:- A 16. The rotating part of a turbine is known as (a) Impeller
(b) Guide mechanism (c) Runner (d) None of the above Ans:- A 17.
The rotating part of a turbine is known as (a) Impeller (b) Guide
mechanism (c) Runner (d) None of the above Ans:- C 18. In case of
Kaplan turbine, velocity of flow at inlet is (a) less than that at
outlet (b) more than that at outlet (c) equal of that at outlet (d)
none of the above Ans:- C 19.Francis turbine is a (a) radially
inward flow turbine (b) radially outward flow turbine (c) axial
flow turbine (d) none of the above Ans:- A 20. The main advantage
of the draft-tube is to convert (a) pressure energy into kinetic
energy (b) kinetic energy into pressure energy (c) pressure energy
into electrical energy (d) none of the above Ans:- B 21. The
pressure at the exist of the runner of a reaction turbine is
generally (a) more than atmospheric pressure (b) equal to
atmospheric pressure (c) less than atmospheric pressure
(d) none of the above Ans:- C 22.In case of draft tube, are of
cross-section of the draft tube (a) increases from inlet to outlet
(b) decreases from inlet to outlet (c) remains constant (d) none of
the above Ans:- A 23. Draft tube is used in case of (a) Pelton
turbine (b) Pelton and Francis turbine (c) Kaplan and Pelton
turbine (d) Francis and Kaplan turbine Ans:- D 24.The pressure
energy goes on changing into kinetic energy in case of (a) Pelton
turbine (b) Francis turbine (c) Kaplan turbine (d) Francis and
Kaplan Ans:- D 25. A turbine is having specific speed of 400. Then
the turbine would be (a) Kaplan turbine (b) Francis turbine (c)
Pelton turbine (d) None of the above Ans:- A 26.A turbine is having
specific speed as 100. Then the turbine would be (a) Kaplan turbine
(b) Francis turbine (c) Pelton turbine (d) Steam turbine Ans:- B
27. The axial flow reaction turbine, in which vanes are fixed to
the hub and they are not adjustable, is known as (a) Kaplan turbine
(b) Francis turbine (c) propeller turbine (d) Pelton turbine Ans:-
C 28.In case reaction turbine, the total head at the inlet of a
turbine consists of (a) pressure energy and kinetic energy (b)
kinetic energy only (c) pressure energy only (d) none of the above
Ans:- A 29. In case of reaction turbine, the total head at the
inlet of a turbine consists of (a) pressure energy and kinetic
energy (b) kinetic energy only (c) pressure energy only (d) none of
the above Ans:- B
30. Kaplan turbine is a (a) reaction turbine (b) impulse turbine
(c) radial flow turbine (d) none of the above Ans:- A 31. Francis
turbine is a (a) reaction turbine (b) impulse turbine (c) axial
flow turbine (d) none of the above Ans:- A 32. Pelton turbine is a
(a) reaction turbine (b) radial inward flow turbine (c) impulse
turbine (d) axial flow turbine Ans:- C 33. The relation between
overall efficiency. mechanical efficiency and hydraulic efficiency
is given by (a) h0 = hmech / hhyd (b) h0 = hmech / hhyd (c) h0 =
1.0 / (hmech hhyd) (d) h0 = hhyd / hmech Ans:- B 34.The ratio of
power at the shaft of a turbine to the power supplied by water at
inlet of a turbine is known as (a) hydraulic efficiency (b)
mechanical efficiency (c) overall efficiency (d) none of the above
Ans:- C 35. The ratio of power available at the shaft of a turbine
to the power developed by the runner of the turbine is known as (a)
hydraulic efficiency (b) mechanical efficiency (c) overall
efficiency (d) volumetric efficiency Ans:- B 36. A jet water of
area of cross-section 20 cm2, having a velocity of 20 m/sec strikes
a curved plate which is moving with a velocity of 10 m/sec in the
direction of the jet. The jet leaves the vane at an angle of 600 to
the direction of motion of vane at outlet as shown in Fig. Z3. The
relative velocity at inlet will be (a) 20 m/sec (b) 10 m/sec (c) 15
m/sec (d) 16 m/sec Ans:- B 37. The velocity of whirl at inlet in
the question (A), will be (a) 20 m/sec (b) 16 m/sec (c) 15 m/sec
(d) 10 m/sec Ans:- A 38. In the FIG Z3, angle f will be (a) 300 (b)
450 (c) 600 (d) 750 Ans:- C 39. In Fig Z2 shows the velocity
triangles triangles at inlet and outlet of a turbine, V1 represents
the absolute velocity at inlet and u1 represents vane velocity at
inlet. The relative velocity at inlet is represented by (a) length
BD (b) Length AD (c) length CD (d) length CB Ans:- D
40. In Fig. Z2 the velocity of whirl at inlet is given by (a)
length DB (b) length AD (c) length CD (d) length CB Ans:- B 41. In
fig. Z2, angle BAC is known as (a) vane angle at inlet (b) nozzle
angle at inlet (c) vane angle at outlet (d) none of the above Ans:-
B 42. In fig. Z2, angle BCD is known as (a) vane angle at inlet (b)
nozzle angle at inlet (c) vane angle at outlet (d) none of the
above Ans:- A 43. A jet water of area 40 cm2 moving with a velocity
of 10 m/sec strikes normally a fixed vertical plate. The force
exerted by the jet on the plate in the direction of jet will be (a)
500 N (b) 400 N (c) 300 N (d) 200 N Ans:- B 44. Pump is a machine
which converts (a) hydraulic energy to mechanical energy (b)
mechanical energy to hydraulic energy (c) mechanical energy to
electrical energy (d) none of the above Ans:- B
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RRB Ahmedabad TC Exam Paper1.) Terminal colours of Rainbow? a:
Violet&Red 2.) First lady in INDIAN NATIONAL CONGRESS? a:
Indira Gandhi b: Sarogini naidu etc 3.) First Nuclear plant in
INDIA is situated in a: Bombay b: Nellore etc 4.) 2 capacitances
are in parallel gives 6 micro farad & in series gives 25 what
will be the value of individual capacitance. 5.) Who invented
THERMOMETER? ANS: Farenheit 6.) Electrostatic potential is a Scalar
Quantity or Vector Quantity? 7.) Among values 1 to100 Probability
of occurance of numbers ending with 9 is? a:1/10 b:9/10 c:1 d:0
8.) Si, Ge lie in .. block of periodic table a: III b: V c:
IVA(ANS) d: IV B 9.) Some eqn was given x=20 sin 157t then
calculate frequency 10.) Which Filter is used for passing ONLY HIGH
frequency a: LADDER b. crystal 11.) In Zener breakdown is
proportional to Ans -ive coefficient of temperature 12.) If water
is heated from 0degree to 10 degree effect on volume a: increase
steadily b: remain same c: decrease steadily 13.) If we dig EARTH
FROM North to South pole and a stone is dropped in it then efffect
on its velocity a: increase continously b: First increase and
become Zero in center c. It Will Start Oscillate 14.) Dandi march
was related to .. a: Salt b: Sugar etc 15.) Radiation pattern of
loop antenna a: cardioid b. semicircular c. circle d. none 16.)
DENMARK lie in which continent 17.) Cooks island is situated in
which continent? 18.) Range of AM Signal? 19.) In an Electrolyte if
rod is immersed then mass on rod will be proportional to a: current
passed in it 20.) largest unit in energy 21.) spelling check of
SATELLITE 22.) plural of DIBIYA IN HINDI 23.) Sarvnam chatiye 24.)
RADDISH is a a: modified root b: bulb c; stem 25.) X Rays are ..
Rays Ans emw 26.) ass:bray::sheep BLEAT 27.) In Hindi Pehle Janma
(AGRAJ, ARGAJA/AAGRAJETC) 28.) Lord Shankar is related to
originaetor of . river 29.) is also called JALDHAR
30) fsk is used in a: telegraphy b: telephony c: radio
transmission etc Posted by RRB EXAM PAPERS at 1:57 PM 0 comments
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OCTOBER 26, 2010
VARIOUS RRB EXAMS QUESTIONS1. When a ray of light passes from an
optically denser medium to a rarer medium, it(a) Remains undeviated
(b) Bends towards normal (c) Bends away from normal (d) None of
these Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers 2.Who is the author of
"Anandmath" ? (a) Rabindranath Tagore (b) Bankim chandra
Chattopadhyaya (c) Sarojini Nayadu (d) Jyotiba Phule Category
:Chennai rrb exam Papers 3. Thimpu is the capital of (a) Nepal (b)
Bhutan (c) Thailand (d) Myanmar Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers
4. The time period of a seconds pendulum is (a) 1 second (b) 4
seconds (c) 3 seconds (d) 2 seconds Category :Chennai rrb exam
Papers 5. The nuclear fuel in the sun is (a) Helium (b) Uranium (c)
Hydrogen (d) Oxygen Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers 6. The
seconds hand of a watch is 2 cm long. The velocity of its tip is
(a) 0.21 cm/sec. (b) 2.1 cm/sec. (c) 21 cm/sec. (d) None of these
Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers 7. In diesel engine, ignition is
caused by (a) Spark (b) Automatic starter (c) Compression (d)
Friction Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers 8. The mass-energy
equivalence, relationship E = mc2 was propounded by (a) Max Plank
(b) Einstein (c) Newton (d) Hertz Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers
9. The filament of bulb is made of (a) Tungsten (b) Iron (c)
Nichrome (d) Carbon Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers 10.
Anti-knocking can be lessened by (a) Iso Octane (b) N Heptane (c)
TEL (d) Benzene Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers 11. In which of
the following oxidation shows a positive oxidation state. (a) CO
(b) N2O (c) NO (d) F2O Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers 12. Which
of the following is used in photography? (a) Silver Bromide (b)
Sodium Bromide (c) Potassium Chloride (d) Sodium Sulphate Category
:Chennai rrb exam Papers 13. Which of the following is used in
accumulator cell? (a) Copper (b) Iron
(c) Lead (d) Zinc Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers 14. Choose
the wrong statement : (a) Single magnetic poles can exist (b)
Magnetic poles are always of equal strength (c) Like poles repel
each other (d) None of these Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers 15.
Laws of electrolysis are given by: (a) Farady (b) Maxwell (c) Lenz
(d) Bohr Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers 16. Flemings left hand
rule is used to fine out: (a) Direction of magnetic field due to
flow of current (b) Direction of induced current due to effect of
magnetic field (c) Direction of motion of a current carrying
conductor in magnetic field (d) None of these Category :Chennai rrb
exam Papers 17. The pH of a neutral solution at 250C is : (a) 0 (b)
1.0 (c) 7.0 (d) 1.4 Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers 18. The raw
material used for the manufacture of Portland cement is : (a)
Limestone and clay (b) Alumina, clay and gypsum (c) Gypsum and
limestone (d) Gypsum and clay19. CaOCI2 is the chemical formula for
a compound commonly known as :(a) Soda Ash (b) Lime (c) Bleaching
Powder (d) Plaster of Paris Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers 20.
The glass used for making laboratory apparatus is :(a) Pyrex glass
(b) Hard glass (c) Soft glass (d) Safety glass Category :Chennai
rrb exam Papers 21. The iron produced in blast furnace is : (a) Pig
iron (b) Wrought iron (c) Stainless steel (d) Steel Category
:Chennai rrb exam Papers 22. Formation is a 40% solution of : (a)
Methanol (b) Methenal (c) Methanoic acid (d) None of these Category
:Chennai rrb exam Papers 23. Which of the following is not an ore
of aluminium : (a) Cryolite (b) Feldspar (c) Bauxite (d) Azurite
Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers 24. Rhombic monoclinic and
plastic sulphur are: (a) Isomers (b) Isotopes (c) Allotropes (d)
Hydrides of sulphur25. The alkaline hydrolysis of oils or fats
gives soap and : (a) Glycerol (b) Ethenol (c) Glycol (d) Ethanoic
acid Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers 26. The sight of a delicious
food usually makes month watery. It is a : (a) Hormonal response
(b) Neural response (c) Optic response (d) Olfactory response
Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers 27. Nitrogen fixing bacteria are
normally found in : (a) Parasitic plants (b) Epiphytic plants (c)
Leguminous plants (d) Aquatic plants Category :Chennai rrb exam
Papers 28. Powdery mildew of wheat is caused by: (a) Bacteria (b)
Virus (c) Fungi (d) Protozoans Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers
29. Septic sore throat is caused by : (a) Bacteria (b) Virus
(c) Fungi (d) Protozoans Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers 30. A
person of blood group AB can give blood to : (a) A and B (b) Only
AB (c) A, B and O (d) All of these Category :Chennai rrb exam
Papers 31. Cell activities are controlled by : (a) Chloroplast (b)
Nitochondria (c) Cytoplasm (d) Nucleus Category :Chennai rrb exam
Papers 32. Which of the following helps eye to adjust the focal
length of the eye lens : (a) Cornea (b) Conjunctiva (c) Ciliary
body (d) Iris Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers 33. When pollen of
a flower is transferred to the stigma of the same plant,
pollination type is referred to as : (a) Autogamy (b) Allogamy (c)
Xenogamy (d) Geitonogamy Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers 34.
Respiration is a : (a) Catabolic process (b) Anabolic process (c)
Both of these (d) None of these Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers
35. The structural and functional unit of kidneys are : (a) Neurons
(b) Nephrons (c) Medula (d) None of these Category :Chennai rrb
exam Papers 36. Which of the following enzymes is generally nor
present in adult human : (a) Renin (b) Pepsin (c) Trypsin (d)
Amylopsin Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers 37. The part of the
plant which is responsible for carrying water and solutes from
roots to various parts of plants is : (a) Phloem (b) Xylem (c)
Duodenum (d) Sclercids Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers 38. Widal
test is used for susceptibility of : (a) Malaria (b) Typhoid (c)
Cholera (d) Yellow fever Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers 39.
Exchange of gases in plants takes place through : (a) Stomata (b)
Lenticels (c) Cuticle (d) All of these Category :Chennai rrb exam
Papers 40. Lieutenant in army is equivalent to following rank in
navy : (a) Lieutenant (b) Sub Lieutanant (c) Lieutenant Commander
(d) None of these Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers 41. Pankaj
Advani is associated with : (a) Snooker (b) Golf (c) Shooting (d)
Archery Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers 42. Which city in the
world is known as the forbidden city : (a) Aberdeen (b) Jerusalem
(c) Mecca (d) Lhasa Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers 43. Rajeev
Gandhi Khel Ratna Award carries a sum of : (a) Rs. 3 lakns (b) Rs.
5 lakhs (c) Rs. 1 lakh (d) Rs. 7 lakhs Category :Chennai rrb exam
Papers 44. Who is known as Nightingale of India : (a) Asha Bhonsle
(b) Begum Akhtar (c) Sarojini Naidu (d) Vijaylaxmi Pandit Category
:Chennai rrb exam Papers
45. Which one of the following is not included in the UNESCOs
list of world heritage site : (a) Kaziranga National Park (b) Qutab
Minar (c) Champaner Pavagarh (d) None of these Category :Chennai
rrb exam Papers 46. Which of the following is not an electric
resistant 46. Which of the following is not an electric resistant?
(a) Lead (b) Ebonite (c) Charcoal (d) Lac Category :Chennai rrb
exam Papers 47. Which of the following is a complementary colour?
(a) Blue (b) Yellow (c) Magenta (d) Yellow and Magenta Category
:Chennai rrb exam Papers 48. The velocity of sound increases in air
by for every degree Celsius increase of temperature. (a) 60 m/sec.
(b) 0.61 m/sec. (c) 60 ft/sec. (d) 0.61 km/sec. Category :Chennai
rrb model Papers 49. Henry is a unit of (a) Capacity (b) Magnetic
field (c) Inductance (d) Frequency Category :Chennai rrb model
Papers 50. The velocity of rotation of Earth is (a) 28 km/min (b)
30 km/min (c) 25 km/min (d) 39.5 km/min Category :Chennai rrb model
Papers 51. What is Hubble? (a) Warship (b) Star (c) Telescope (d)
Missile Category :Chennai rrb model Papers 52. Which acid is
normally found in lemon and grape fruits? (a) Citric acid (b)
Tartaric acid (c) Ascorbic acid (d) Lactic acid Category :Chennai
rrb model Papers 53. At which temperature Fahrenheit and Celsius
show same reading? (a) -400 (b) 00 (c) -574.250 (d) 2730 Category
:Chennai rrb model Papers 54. Limestone is metamorphosed to form
(a) Graphite (b) Quartz (c) Granite (d) Marble Category :Chennai
rrb model Papers 55. Rift valley is formed by (a) Earthquake (b)
Folding (c) Faulting (d) All of these Category :Chennai rrb model
Papers 56. If a piece of ice at 00C is mixed with water at 00C,
then (a) Whole ice melts (b) Some ice melts (c) No ice melts (d)
Temperature decreases Category :Chennai rrb model Papers 57. Mettur
Dam is built on the river (a) Krishna (b) Cauvery (c) Narmada (d)
Mahanadi Category :Chennai rrb model Papers 58. Mahendra Giri peak
is situated in the (a) Eastern Ghats (b) Western Ghats (c)
Shiwaliks (d) Vindhyachal Category :Chennai rrb model Papers 59. In
what time a sum will double itself at 20% per annum rate of
interest? (a) 2 years (b) 3 years (c) 4 years (d) 5 years Category
:Chennai rrb model Papers 60. The famous Dilwara Temple is situated
in (a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Maharashtra
(c) Gujarat (d) Rajasthan Category :Chennai rrb model Papers 61.
Pneumonia affects (a) Lungs (b) Tongue (c) Liver (d) Kidney
Category :Chennai rrb model Papers 62. The chemical name of Vitamin
A is (a) Retinol (b) Jhiamin (c) Biotic (d) Riboflavin Category
:Chennai rrb model Papers 63. A 130m long train crosses a bridge in
30 seconds at 45 kmph. The length of the bridge is (a) 200m (b)
225m (c) 245m (d) 250m Category :Chennai rrb model Papers 64. By
selling an article at some price a person gains 10%. If the article
is sold at twice of the price, the gain percent will be (a) 20% (b)
60% (c) 100% (d) 120% Category :Chennai rrb model Papers 65. Atoms
are electrically charged as (a) Positive (b) Negative (c)
Bi-positive (d) Neutral 66. Ionic bond exists in (a) Kcl (b) H2O
(c) NH3 (d) Cl3 Category :Chennai rrb model Papers 67. Which force
is required to increase the momentum of an object to 40 kg m/s in 5
seconds? (a) 2N (b) 4N (c) 8N (d) 10N Category :Chennai rrb model
Papers 68. The river that does not form delta is (a) Mahanadi (b)
Tapti (c) Krishna (d) Cauvery Category :Chennai rrb model Papers
69. The ratio of the redius and height of a cone is 5 : 12,
respectively. Its volume is 23147cc. Find its slant height. (a)
13cm (b) 14cm (c) 17cm (d) 26cm Category :Chennai rrb model Papers
70. 27 students took part in a debate of a college. What is the
probability that at least 3 of them have their birth days in the
same month? (a) 3/27 (b) 3/12 (c) 12 (d) 1 Category :Chennai rrb
model Papers 71. Who was the first winner of Dada Saheb Phalke
Award? (a) B.N.Sarkar (b) Prithvi Raj Kapoor (c) Devika Rani (d)
Kanan Devi Category :Chennai rrb model Papers 72. How many members
are nominated by the President in the Rajya Sabha? (a) 12 (b) 15
(c) 10 (d) 20 Category :Chennai rrb model Papers 73. Who was the
founder of Brahmo Samaj? (a) Raja Rammohan Roy (b) Aurobindo Ghosh
(c) Vivekanand (d) Dyanand Saraswati Category :Chennai rrb model
Papers 74. The Parliamentary System in India has been taken from
(a) America (b) Britain (c) Australia (d) Ireland Category :Chennai
rrb model Papers 75. The electric supply in India was first started
in (a) Kolkata (b) Chennai (c) Mumbai (d) Darjeeling Category
:Chennai rrb model Papers
76. Bhatnagar Prize is given in the field of (a) Peace (b) Music
and dance (c) Science & technology (d) Fine arts Category
:Chennai rrb model Papers 77. Who discovered the solar system? (a)
Copernicus (b) Kepler (c) Aryabhatta (d) Newton Category :Chennai
rrb model Papers 78. The Nobel Prize in Economics was started in
(a) 1901 (b) 1936 (c) 1957 (d) 1967 Category :Chennai rrb model
Papers 79. In India, the second largest in (a) Bengali (b) Urdu (c)
Telugu (d) Marathi Category :Chennai rrb model Papers 80. The first
Asian Games were held in (a) Manila (b) Tokyo (c) Jakarta (d) New
Delhi Category :Chennai rrb model Papers 81. The Islam was
established in (a) 7th A.D. (b) 5th A.D. (c) 3rd B.C. (d) 5th B.C.
Category :Chennai rrb model Papers 82. The Olympic Games 2012 will
be held in (a) Moscow (b) Paris (c) New York (d) London Category
:Chennai rrb model Papers 83. The main factor of air pollution is
(a) Lead (b) Copper (c) Zinc (d) Gold Category :Chennai rrb model
Papers 84. The bauxite ore is found in (a) Musabani (b) Karnapura
(c) Koderma (d) Palamu Category :Chennai rrb model Papers 85. The
first fertilizer plant in India was established in (a) Trombay (b)
Nangal (c) Alwaye (d) Sindri Category :Chennai rrb model Papers 86.
Which of the following had strong navy? (a) Bahmani (b) Chalukya
(c) Chola (d) Rashtrakuta Category :Chennai rrb model Papers 87.
The last king of Maurya Dynastry was (a) Brihdarth (b) Kunal (c)
Samprati (d) Salishuk Category :Chennai rrb model Papers 88. How
will the image formed by a convex lens be affected if the central
part of the lens is covered by black paper? (a) Remaining part of
the lens will form no image (b) The central position of the image
is absent (c) There will be no effect (d) The full image will be
formed with lessened brightness Category :Chennai rrb model Papers
89. The force between two parallel wires conducting current is used
to define (a) Ampere (b) Coulomb (c) Volt (d) Newton Category
:Chennai rrb model Papers 90. A body is thrown vertically upward
and it reaches 10m high. Find the velocity with which the body was
thrown? (g = 9.8 m/s) (a) 10 m/sec. (b) 18 m/sec. (c) 14 m/sec. (d)
7 m/sec. Category :Chennai rrb model Papers
91. The buoyancy depends on the (a) Depth of the fluid (b)
Density of the fluid (c) Volume of the fluid (d) Weight of the
fluid Category :Chennai rrb model Papers
ANSWERS1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (b)
9. (a) 10. (a) 11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (c) 14. (a) 15. (a) 16. (c) 17.
(c) 18. (b) 19. (c) 20. (a) 21. (a) 22. (b) 23. (d) 24. (c) 25. (a)
26. (d) 27. (c) 28. (c) 29. (a & b) 30. (b) 31. (d) 32. (c) 33.
(a) 34. (a) 35. (b) 36. (a) 37. (b) 38. (b) 39. (d) 40. (b) 41. (a)
42. (d) 43. (b) 44. (c) 45. (d) 46. (a) 47. (d) 48. (b) 49. (c) 50.
(a) 51. (c) 52. (a) 53. (a) 54. (d) 55. (c) 56. (c) 57. (b) 58. (a)
59. (d) 60. (d) 61. (a) 62. (a) 63. (c) 64. (d) 65. (d) 66. (a) 67.
(c) 68. (b) 69. (a) 70. (c) 71. (c) 72. (a) 73. (a) 74. (b) 75. (d)
76. (c) 77. (a) 78. (d) 79. (c) 80. (d) 81. (a) 82. (d) 83. (a) 84.
(d) 85. (d) 86. (c) 87. (a) 88. (d) 89. (a) 90. (c) 91. (b) Posted
by RRB EXAM PAPERS at 12:08 AM 0 comments Email This BlogThis!
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this post Labels: GENERAL INTELLIGENCE, GENERAL KNOWLEDGE, MODEL
PAPERSMONDAY, OCTOBER 25, 2010
RRB GENERAL KNOWLEDGE QUESTIONS1. The only Indian Governor
General was (A) C. Rajagopalachari (B) Pattabhi Sitaramayya (C)
Rajendra Prasad (D) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel 2. . Which plan became
the basis for Indian independence ? (A) Cripps Plan (B) Wavell Plan
(C) Mountbatten Plan (D) None of the above 3. Which part of Indian
Constitution has been described as the soul of the Constitution ?
(A) Fundamental Rights (B) Directive Principle of State Policy (C)
The Preamble (D) Right to Constitutional Remedies 4. Name the
Indian who attended all the Three Round Table Conferences (A) B. R.
Ambedkar (B) Mahatma Gandhi (C) Mohammad Ali Jinnah (D) Tej Bahadur
Sapru 5. Rabindranath Tagore relinquished his Nighthood as a
measure of protest against (A) Partition of Bengal (B) Press Act of
1910 (C) Jallianwala Bagh Massacre (D) Salt Laws 6. The 52nd
amendment to the Constitution of India deals with (A) Defection (B)
Reservation (C) Election (D) Protection of minorities 7. The
Panchayati Raj was recommended by (A) The Government of India Act,
1935 (B) The Cripps Mission of 1942 (C) The Indian Independence
Act, 1947 (D) Balwantrai Mehta Committee Report, 1957 8. The
President of India can nominate (A) 10 members to Rajya Sabha (B) 2
members to Rajya Sabha (C) 15 members to Rajya Sabha (D) 12 members
to Rajya Sabha
9. UNO has fixed the target for Education for All till the year
(A) 2012 (B) 2013 (C) 2014 (D) 2015 10. The subjects on which both
the Centre and State Governments can legislate are contained in (A)
The Union List (B) The State List (C) The Concurrent List (D)
Residuary List 11. Which State Legislative Assembly has the maximum
strength (number of members) ? (A) Andhra Pradesh (B) West Bengal
(C) Maharashtra (D) Uttar Pradesh 12. The concept of Fundamental
Rights enshrined in the Indian Constitution was borrowed from which
countrys constitution ? (A) France (B) Britain (C) U.S.A. (D)
Russia 13. The maximum strength of Lok Sabha has been fixed at (A)
540 (B) 545 (C) 552 (D) 555 14. The Constitution of India was
adopted by the Constituent Assembly on (A) August 15, 1947 (B) June
30, 1948 (C) November 26, 1949 (D) January 26, 1950 15. In India
the Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee is appointed by (A)
President of India (B) Prime Minister of India (C) Speaker of the
Lok Sabha (D) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha 16. Which one of the
following statements is correct regarding the introduction of money
bill ? (A) Money bill is introduced in Rajya Sabha (B) It can be
introduced in either of the Houses of Parliament (C) It cannot be
introduced in the Lok Sabha (D) It is introduced in the Lok Sabha
17. Who is the Chairman of the Planning Commission ? (A) President
(B) Prime Minister (C) Finance Minister (D) Governor of Reserve
Bank 18. The minimum age required for election to Rajya Sabha is
(A) 25 years (B) 30 years (C) 32 years (D) 35 years 19. Which one
of the following taxes is levied and collected by the Union but
distributed between Union and States ? (A) Corporation tax (B) Tax
on income other than on agricultural income (C) Tax on railway
fares and freights (D) Customs 20. Sikkim became a new state by (A)
30th Amendment (B) 34th Amendment (C) 35th Amendment (D) 36th
Amendment 21. On which Indian river is the highest bridge of the
world being constructed ?
(A) Chenab (B) Satluj (C) Jhelum (D) Beas 22. Match ListI
(category) with ListII (54th National Film Award winners) and
select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists
ListI (a) Best Feature Film (b) Best Popular Film (c) Best Children
Film (d) Best Hindi Film ListII 1. Care of Footpath 2. Khosla ka
Ghosla 3. Pullijaman 4. Lage Raho Munnabhai Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 3 2 4 (B) 3 4 1 2 (C) 3 2 4 1 (D) 4 2 1 3 23. In which
district of Uttar Pradesh has the first Police Museum of the
country been established ? (A) Allahabad (B) Agra (C) Ghaziabad (D)
Lucknow 24. The Commercial Banks were Nationalised in (A) 1947 (B)
1951 (C) 1969 (D) 1992 25. Asias first human DNA Bank has been set
up in (A) New Delhi (B) Hyderabad (C) Lucknow (D) Mumbai 26. The
distribution of finances between centre and states is done on the
recommendation of (A) Finance Ministry (B) Finance Commission (C)
Reserve Bank of India (D) NABARD 27. In which one of the following
districts of Uttar Pradesh has the Indian Carpet Technology
Institute been established ? (A) Agra (B) Mirzapur (C) Moradabad
(D) Sant Ravi Das Nagar 28. Which of the following Banks is first
in establishing its branch in China ? (A) Bank of Baroda (B) Punjab
National Bank (C) State Bank of India (D) UCO Bank 29. Sarva
Shiksha Abhiyan covers (A) all children in the age group 310 (B)
all children in the age group 48 (C) all children in the age group
515 (D) all children in the age group 614 30. Swavalamban Scheme is
concerned with providing (A) employment to rural women folk (B)
employment to urban women folk (C) employment to disabled persons
(D) providing training and skills to women
31. Mixed economy means (A) existence of both small and big
industries (B) existence of both private and public sectors (C)
existence of both primary and secondary sectors (D) none of the
above 32. How many IITs will be set up in the 11th Five Year Plan ?
(A) 6 (B) 7 (C) 8 (D) 9 33. Among the following which country has
the highest life expectancy at birth (in years) ? (A) Japan (B)
Denmark (C) U.S.A. (D) Switzerland 34. Match ListI with ListII and
select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists
ListI (Place) (a) Vishakhapatnam (b) Muri (c) Gurgaon (d) Panki
ListII (Industry) 1. Automobile 2. Shipbuilding 3. Fertiliser 4.
Aluminium Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 2 3 4 1 (B) 2 4 1 3 (C) 1 2 3
4 (D) 2 4 3 1 35. Which among the following is a public sector
Commercial Bank ? (A) ICICI Bank (B) HDFC Bank (C) Indian Overseas
Bank (D) UTI Bank 36. Match ListI with ListII and select the
correct answer from the codes given below the lists ListI (Mineral
Production) (a) Mineral Oil (b) Gypsum (c) Gold (d) Bauxite ListII
(State) 1. Orissa 2. Karnataka 3. Gujarat 4. Rajasthan Codes : (a)
(b) (c) (d) (A) 1 2 3 4 (B) 2 1 4 3 (C) 4 3 1 2 (D) 3 4 2 1 37.
Consider the following statements Assertion (A) : Atomic energy in
India promises to meet the future energy demand of the country.
Reason (R) : Atomic minerals are ubiquitous in India. Select the
correct answer from the code given below : (A) Both (A) and (R) are
true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (B) Both (A) and (R)
are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (C) (A) is
true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true 38. Which of the following
states has the longest coast line ? (A) Gujarat (B) Maharashtra (C)
Kerala (D) Tamil Nadu 39. Which of the following rock systems in
India is the main source of coal deposits ? (A) Dharwar system (B)
Gondwana system (C) Cudappa system (D) Vindhyan system 40. Laterite
soil is found in (A) Uttar Pradesh (B) Himachal Pradesh (C) Punjab
(D) Maharashtra 41. Which one of the following is not correctly
matched ? (A) Kirghiz Central Asia (B) Masai West Africa (C) Red
Indians North America (D) Eskimos Greenland 42. Chilka lake is
situated in (A) West Bengal (B) Andhra Pradesh (C) Orissa (D) Tamil
Nadu 43. Damodar is a tributary of river (A) Ganga (B) Hugli (C)
Padma (D) Suvarn Rekha 44. Sangam Yojana is concerned with (A)
provision for clean drinking water (B) provision for cleaning
rivers (C) promoting communal harmony (D) helping the invalids 45.
National Dairy Development Board is located in (A) Anand (B)
Gandhinagar (C) Vadodara (D) Valsad 46. Economic Planning is
included in the Constitution of India in (A) Union List (B) State
List (C) Concurrent List (D) Special List 47. Which one of the
following is not correctly matched ? (A) Kimberley Diamond (B)
Havana Meat packing (C) Milan Silk (D) Sheffield Cutlery 48.
Dudhawa National Park is situated in the district of (A) Lalitpur
(B) Pilibhit (C) Lakhimpur Khiri (D) Sonbhadra 49. The correct
descending order of major states of India in terms of density of
population (2001) is (A) Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Bihar, Kerala
(B) West Bengal, Kerala, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh (C) Uttar Pradesh,
Kerala, West Bengal, Bihar (D) West Bengal, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh,
Kerala 50. The major coffee producing state in India is
(A) Kerala (B) Karnataka (C) Tamil Nadu (D) West Bengal 51.
Which one of the following is the most urbanized states of India
according to 2001 Census ? (A) Gujarat (B) West Bengal (C)
Maharashtra (D) Kerala 52. According to 2001 Census the least
densely populated states of India in ascending order are (A)
Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Nagaland and Sikkim (B) Arunachal
Pradesh, Nagaland, Mizoram and Sikkim (C) Arunachal Pradesh,
Mizoram, Sikkim and Nagaland (D) Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim
and Nagaland 53. Among the following which fruit is a rich source
of iron ? (A) Jamun (B) Karonda (C) Loquat (D) Guava 54. Vitamin
which promotes wound healing is (A) Vitamin B (B) Vitamin C (C)
Vitamin A (D) Vitamin D 55. Bauxite is an ore of (A) Aluminium (B)
Boron (C) Lead (D) Silver 56. Which of the following methods is
used to determine the age of the earth ? (A) Carbon dating (B)
Germanium dating (C) Uranium dating (D) All the above 57. Name the
gas which under normal conditions produces pollution in the
atmosphere ? (A) Carbon monoxide (CO) (B) Carbon dioxide (CO2) (C)
Nitrogen (N2) (D) Oxygen (O2) 58. Electronvolt is the unit for (A)
energy (B) charge of electron (C) potential difference (D) power
59. An atom bomb is based on the principle of (A) nuclear fission
(B) nuclear fusion (C) nuclear spallation (D) none of these 60.
Titan is the largest moon or satellite of (A) Mars (B) Venus (C)
Jupiter (D) Saturn 61. The most toxic metal pollutant of the
automobile exhaust is (A) Copper (B) Lead (C) Cadmium (D) Mercury
62. Which of the following disease is caused by a virus ? (A)
Diphtheria (B) Malaria (C) Cholera
(D) Hepatitis 63. If the circumference of a circle is increased
by 50%, then the area will be increased by (A) 50% (B) 100% (C)
125% (D) 225% 64. The term Siamese Twins is used for (A) twins in
which there is one male and one female (B) twins in which both are
females (C) twins suffering from a common disease of siam (D) twins
physically attached to each other 65. Every solar eclipse takes
place on (A) full moon only (B) new moon only (C) both (A) and (B)
(D) neither (A) nor (B) 66. The headquarter of which of the
following is correctly given ? (A) UNO London (B) WTO Geneva (C)
ILO New York (D) FAO Chicago 67. White bud of maize is caused due
to deficiency of (A) N (B) Zn (C) Cu (D) Mn 68. A number is 20 more
than its 20%. The number is (A) 20 (B) 25 (C) 50 (D) 80 69. The
train which was started on April 14, 2008 between Kolkata (India)
and Dhaka (Bangladesh) has been named (A) Sadbhavna Express (B)
Shanti Express (C) Maitri Express (D) Aman Express 70. Thailands
Ponsana Boonsak won the mens singles of the India open Grand Prix
Badminton championship held in Hyderabad in April 2008. In the
final he defeated (A) Anand Pawar (B) Arvind Bhat (C) Chetan Anand
(D) Zhendong Guo 71. Indian Institute of Remote sensing is located
at (A) Ahmedabad (B) Dehradun (C) Shriharikota (D) None of the
above 72. The winner of the 62nd Santosh Trophy, held in June 2008,
was (A) Karnataka (B) West Bengal (C) Services (D) Punjab 73. Who
among the following was the Chief Guest on the occasion of Republic
Day, 2008 ? (A) British Prime Minister Gardon Brown (B) French
President Nicolas Sarcozy (C) Danish Prime Minister Anders Fogh
Rasmussen (D) Russian President Vladimir Putin 74. In April 2008
fourth convention of Nuclear safety was held in (A) Vienna (B)
London (C) Paris (D) Rome
75. Who among the following received Padma Vibhushan Award of
2008 ? 1. Madhuri Dixit 2. Ratan Tata 3. Sachin Tendulkar 4.
Viswanathan Anand Select the correct answer from the code given
below (A) 1, 2 (B) 2, 3 (C) 3, 4 (D) 2, 3, 4 76. March 24 (2008)
was observed as (A) World AIDS Day (B) World Disabled Day (C) World
Environment Day (D) World Tuberculosis (TB) Day 77. Which one of
the following pairs of Harappan sites and their locations is not
correctly matched ? (A) Alamgirpur Uttar Pradesh (B) Banawali
Haryana (C) Diamabad Maharashtra (D) Rakhigarhi Rajasthan 78.
Jivaka, the famous physician of the time of Gautama Buddha, was
associated with the court of (A) Bimbisara (B) Chanda Pradyota (C)
Prasenajeta (D) Udayana 79. After Presidents signature on the
recommendation of Delimitation Commission, Parliamentary and
Assembly Constituencies with certain exemptions, will be redefined.
Which of the following are exempted ? 1. Arunachal Pradesh and
Manipur 2. Assam 3. Nagaland 4. Jharkhand Select the correct answer
from the code given below (A) 1 only (B) 2 and 3 (C) 3 and 4 (D) 1,
2, 3 and 4 80. The winner of French Open, 2008 (Ladies singles) was
(A) Dinara Safina (B) Ana Ivanovic (C) Jelena Jankovic (D) Svetlana
Kuznetsova 81. Who among the following was of the view that the
Earth revolves round the Sun ? (A) Aryabhatta (B) Brahmagupta (C)
Varahamihira (D) None of the above 82. What is the difference (in
years) between the Vikrama and Saka eras ? (A) 57 years (B) 78
years (C) 135 years (D) 320 years 83. Who among the following
rulers paid attention to the water resource management in Girnar
region some centuries before the Christian era ? 1. Mahapadma Nanda
2. Chandragupta Maurya 3. Ashoka 4. Rudradaman Select the correct
answer from the code given below (A) 1, 2 (B) 2, 3 (C) 3, 4
(D) 2, 3, 4 84. Ptolemy Philadelphus with whom Ashoka had
diplomatic relations was the ruler of (A) Cyrene (B) Egypt (C)
Macedonia (D) Syria 85. The inscription belonging to which one of
the following dynasties confirms the tradition that Lumbini was the
birth place of Sakyamuni Buddha ? (A) Maurya (B) Sunga (C)
Satavahana (D) Kushana 86. Which literature had its classical age
under Krishnadeva Raya, the famous Vijayanagara king ? (A) Konkani
(B) Malayalam (C) Tamil (D) Telugu 87. The city of Jaunpur was
founded by (A) MohammadbinTughlaq (B) Firoz Shah Tughlaq (C)
Ibrahim Shah Sharqi (D) Sikandar Lodi 88. The department of Public
Works was established for the first time by (A) Alauddin Khalji (B)
Balban (C) Firoz Shah Tughlaq (D) Iltutmish 89. . Who were the
Nayanars ? (A) Saivites (B) Saktas (C) Vaishnavites (D) Sun
worshippers 90. Who among the following kings had strong leaning
towards Jainism ? (A) Dasratha (B) Brihadratha (C) Kharavela (D)
Huvishka 91. Which one of the following rulers had granted Diwani
to the East India Company ? (A) Farrukhsiyar (B) Shah AlamI (C)
Shah AlamII (D) Shujaud Daula 92. The transfer of capital of
British India from Calcutta to Delhi was effected during the period
of (A) Lord Minto (B) Lord Hardinge (C) Lord Chelmsford (D) Lord
Reading 93. The Durand line demarcated Indias border with (A)
Afghanistan (B) Burma (C) Nepal (D) Tibet 94. What was the rate of
exchange between the Copper Dam and Silver Rupaya under Sher Shah ?
(A) 16 : 1 (B) 32 : 1 (C) 40 : 1 (D) 64 : 1 95. Arrange the
following events of Akbars reign in a chronological order : 1.
Abolition of Jazia 2. Construction of Ibadatkhana 3. Signing of
Mahzar 4. Foundation of DiniIlahi Select the correct answer from
the code given below
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4 (B) 2, 3, 4, 1 (C) 1, 3, 2, 4 (D) 3, 4, 1, 2 96.
After the arrest of Gandhiji during the Salt Satyagraha, who took
his place as leader of the movement ? (A) Abbas Tyabji (B) Abul
Kalam Azad (C) Jawaharlal Nehru (D) Vallabhbhai Patel 97. Which one
of the following revolutionaries involved in Kakori case had
escaped the trial ? (A) Sachindra Nath Bakshi (B) Mukundi Lal (C)
Chandra Shekhar Azad (D) Manmath Nath Gupta 98. Who changed the
name of Hindustan Republic Association founded by Sachindra Sanyal
to Hindustan Socialist Republic Association ? (A) Ras Behari Bose
(B) Batukeshwar Datt (C) Sardar Bhagat Singh (D) Chandra Shekhar
Azad 99. Which one of the following revolutionaries was executed in
the Gorakhpur Jail ? (A) Ramprasad Bismil (B) Rajendra Lahiri (C)
Roshan Singh (D) Ashfaqullah Khan 100.Whose sustained efforts led
to the establishment of the first womens university in Bombay ? (A)
Dayaram Gidumal (B) D. K. Karve (C) Ramabai (D) Mahadev Govind
Ranade
ANSWERS:1. (A) 41. (B) 81. (A) 2. (C) 42. (C) 82. (C) 3. (D) 43.
(B) 83. (D) 4. (A) 44. (D) 84. (B) 5. (C) 45. (A) 85. (A) 6. (A)
46. (C) 86. (D) 7. (D) 47. (C) 87. (B) 8. (D) 48. (C) 88. (C) 9.
(D) 49. (B) 89. (A) 10. (C) 50. (B) 90. (C) 11. (D) 51. (C) 91. (C)
12. (C) 52. (C) 92. (B) 13. (C) 53. (A) 93. (A) 14. (C) 54. (C) 94.
(C) 15. (C) 55. (A) 95. (A) 16. (D) 56. (C) 96. (A) 17. (B) 57. (A)
97. (A) 18. (B) 58. (A) 98. (C) 19. (B) 59. (A) 99. (A) 20. (C) 60.
(D) 100.(B) 21. (A) 61. (B) 22. (B) 62. (D) 23. (C) 63. (D) 24. (C)
64. (D) 25. (C) 65. (B) 26. (B) 66. (B) 27. (D) 67. (B) 28. (C) 68.
(B) 29. (D) 69. (C)
30. (D) 70. (C) 31. (B) 71. (D) 32. (C) 72. (D) 33. (A) 73. (B)
34. (B) 74. (A) 35. (C) 75. (B) 36. (D) 76. (D) 37. (C) 77. (D) 38.
(A) 78. (A) 39. (B) 79. (D) 40. (D) 80. (B) Posted by RRB EXAM
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