Page 25
AIR REGULATIONS1. Threshold / Displaced threshold light are.a.
White / Greenb. Green / Green
c. Green / White2. Aeronautical information of shorter nature is
contained in a. AIPb. AIC
c. Operations manual3. An accident is notified to DGCA.a. If a/c
All up Weight is more than 5700 kgs.b. If a/c is carrying
passengersc. All a/c accident must be reported to DGCA.
d. Only if a /c accident occurs in the air.4. A/C intending to
fly in formationa. Can fly only under IFR flight planb. Can fly
only after DGCA permissionc. Can fly with prior arrangement with
ATC
d. Can fly only in uncontrolled air space5. Two red balls
hoisted on a mast near the signal area means.a. Aerodrome is closed
due to bad weatherb. Aerodrome closed due to extreme dangerc. All
a/c to land and return to aprond. Glider flying is in progress
6. A red flag hoisted on ATC building of uncontrolled aerodrome
means.a. Aerodrome under enemy attack, all aircraft are to divertb.
All a/c to land immediately due lo bad weather.c. Glider flying in
progress over aerodrome7. An aircraft on which Navigation Lights
have not been fitteda. Can not fly at night.b. Can not fly at allc.
Cannot fly without DGCA permission8. When two a/c are on converging
or crossing, tracks and there is a risk of collisiona. A small a c
like Chipmunk or Cessna will give wav to bigger a c. like Boeing.b.
Powered a c will give wav lo Gliders.c. If both a/c are powered,
the .1 c u hit h has other a c on its right gives wax1 to that
a/c.d. Both b & c are correct.9. A horizontal while dumbbell
displayed in signal area means a. Aerodrome closed permanentlyb.
All a/c to land, takeoff of runway and taxi on taxi on taxi -
tracks only.c. A/C to land on runway but may taxi on grass.10. A
horizontal while dumbbell with black bars market perpendicular to
shall on circular portion of dumbbell means thata. Aircraft to land
on runway only but may use areas oilier than runway or taxi track
for other maneuvers e.g. taxiing etc,b. Aircraft may land on runway
or taxi track.c. Runway is closed for repairs.11. A horizontal red
square panel with one yellow diagonal displayed in signal an-a
meansa. Runway is closed for repairsb. All aircraft to land and
takeoff from taxi tracks.c. Due to bail stale of manoeuvring area
or some other reason. Pilots lo observe special precaution during
approach and landing.12. Letter 'C displayed vertically in black
against yellow background on a building indicatesa. The place where
Pilots can slay for the night haltb. The place where Pilots are to
report for ATC services.c. Location of Canteen for tea and
snacks.13. Series of White flashes to an ac in flight meana. Do not
Land and give way lo another a/c in emergency.b. Cleared lo land.c.
Land and return to parking apron14. Supersonic a/c is allowed to
fly in Indiaa. At all speeds.b. At speeds below Mach 1.c. Above
Mach 215. A steady white light lo an ac in the air or on ground
indicatesa. Return to starting point on Apron.b. Nothing as per
ICAO approved signalsc. Cleared to land, I he danger is over16. A
Pilot who is forced lo fly low over populated area due to bad
weather.a. Can be sued in court for trespass by the residents of
the colony.b. Cannot be sued in the court.c. DGCA will cancel his
Pilots license17. Smoking is permitted in the a/c only if permitted
vide its COA.a. The rule is not applicable lo private a c.b. The
rule is applicable only lo Public Transport a c.c. The rule is
applicable to all a/c.18. A passenger on a private a c.a. Should
not have consumed alcoholic drinks 12 hours before flightb. Can be
prevented from boarding the a c for flight if he is intoxicatedc.
Cannot be served any alcohol in a private a c.19. DI [Daily
Inspection] and certificate of safety by a licensed Engineer is
requireda. For all flights.b. Only for ac proceeding outstation.c.
Only for solo flight by trainee pilots.20. An a/c without
registration markings can be flowna. For purpose of lest flight
before purchase.b. Only if specially permitted in writing by
Central Govt.c. It JI is Government owned a/c.21. On routes not
designated by specific reporting points, the position report shall
hea. Immediately alter lake all and thereafterb. While crossing a
FIR andc. Every 30 minutes in IMC and one hour when in VMC.d. All
are correct.22. An a/c in distressa. Transmits PAN PAN [3 times on
R/T]b. Transmits MAY DAY [3 times on R/T]23. Petroleum in Bulk
means storage capacity of receipted isa. More than 900 gallons.b.
More than 900 liters.c. More than 1900 liters.d. More than 900
Lbs.24. Route on which flight Navigation is to be carried is
specified in.a. COAb. Maintenance
c. Route Guided. Operations Manual25. Routes to be followed by
international Flights over India are deckled bya. CAOb. DGCAc.
Pilot in Command26. Decision height for an Instrument Approach
Procedure is determined bya. DGCAb. PICc. The operatord. The
manufactures27. An a/c flying over high seas shall follow rules of
the air laid down bya. Rules of the slate from where a c has
departedb. Rules of the state of its destination aerodromec. ICAOd.
DGCA28. A Rescue Co-ordination Centre is placed under the change
ofa. State IG police.b. Controller of Aerodromes.c. Local IAF
commander.29. The Met conditions for an aerodrome are considered
below minimum when cloud amount isa. More than 6/8 in any layer
below specified height.b. More than 2/8 in any layer below
specified height.c. More than 4/8 in any layer below specified
height.30. When Met minima has not been filed with DCCA the
following minima will applya. For takeoff ceiling 90 meters
Visibility 2.7 Kms.b. For takeoff ceiling 1 10 meters Visibility
2.7 Kmsc. For takeoff ceiling 90 meters Visibility 4.7 Kms31. If
Met Minima for a particular aerodrome is QBH 400 feet vis 2 Kms.
The conditions will be considered below minima if a. Cloud base is
3/8 at 300 feet vis 2 Kms.b. Cloud base is 3/8 at 300 feet vis 5
Kms.c. Cloud base is 3/8 at 500 feet vis 2.5 Kms.d. Cloud base is
3/8 at 400 feet vis 2 Kms.32. A VFR flight shall not take-off or
land al an aerodrome unlessa. Ground visibility is loss than 5 Kms
and ceiling less than '00 Motors [1,000] footb. Ground Visibility
is more than 5 Kms [3Nms] and ceiling more than 1500 feet.c. Ground
Vis is more (than 8 Kms and ceiling more than 1500 foot.33. VFR
flights outside controlled airspace air space 3,000 fool amsl can
be conducted provided flight visibility is more thana. 5 Kmsb. 5
nmsc. 8 nms34. With regard to an a o engaged in aerobatics its
heighta. Should not be below 6000 feet when flying over an
aerodrome.b. May be below 6000 feet but not below 2000 feet when
flying at a place which is more than 2 Nms from centre of the
aerodrome.c. May be below 2000 feet when flying over unpopulated
area.d. Not below 2000 feet when flying at a place more than 2 Nms
from the nearest point of perimeter of an aerodrome.
e. Both a and d are correct.35. The minimum safe distance for
personal behind jet engine exhaust is.a. 2 Nmsb. 200 metersc. 200
feet36. A/C departing India on international route must.a. Depart
from only Mumbai, Calcutta, Chennai or New Delhi.b. Depart from a
Custom Notified Airport.c. Depart from Calcutta for Eastbound
flights and Mumbai for westbound flights.37. UTC means.a. Universal
Time Co ordinate and is theoretically same as GMTb. Universal Co
ordinate Time and is practically same as GMT.c. Co ordinate
universal Time and is practically same as GMT.38. A foreign a/c
intending to enter into or transit through Indian airspace on a non
scheduled flight is required to give a notice ofa. On week to seek
DGCA clearanceb. 70 hours to seek DGCA clearancec. No prior notice
is required.39. An ac on FL 125 on track [M] 290 entries adjoining
FIR in which Semi - circular crusing system is in force will.a.
Climp 500 feetb. Continue on FL 125 c. Descend by 500 feet40. An
a/c before entering controlled airspace shall seek permission from
ATS unit a. 30 min in advance b. 10 min in advance if in direct
with ATS unit and 20 min. if seeking permission through another
station.c. Does not require any advance permission if in direct
contact with ATS unit.41. The procedure for transiting through
Transition layer isa. Ascending a c changes altimeter setting to
QNE [1013.2 Mbs] after crossing Transition Altitude k Descending a
c Changes over to local QNH after crossing Transition Level.b.
Ascending a c changes over to 1013.2 Mbs after crossing Transition
Ievel.c. Descending a c changes over to QNH after crossing
Transition altitude.d. Both climbing and Descending a c maintain
QN11 in Transition layer42. If QNH falls below 996 hpa minimum FL
allowed isa. 30b. 55c. 6043. Minimum Vertical separation between
two IFR flights on reciprocal tracks isa. Below FL 290 . [ 500 feet
/ 1,000 feet / 2,000 feet ]b. Above F290 in non RVSM airspace .
(500 feet/lOOOfeet/2000 feet]c. Between f290 and F410 in RVSM
airspace .[ 2000feet/500 feet/1000 feet]A-1000/1000/1000 feet
B-1000/2000/lOOOfeet c) 1000/2000/500 feet44. Which of the
following Flight Levels are available to an a/r on Track [M| 18O
IFR plan
FL 100,
FL 190
FL 200a. 100/190.b. 190/200.c. 100/200.45. This of the following
will matter in selection of minimum Flight Level available to an
a/c, when following high features appear en route.a. A tower 400
feet 6 Nms from runway.b. A hill 5970 feet within 6 Kms of track.c.
A hill 8800 feel 12 Kms off track.46. Prevention of collision
between two IFR ac is responsibility ofa. Flight Information
Service.
b. Pilot in Command only.c. Air Traffic Control service.3d.
'Traffic Police' for a/c on the ground and for a/c in the air'
Control Tower.47. While passing through Transition layer a c
vertical position is reported asa. Height on QNH setting while
climbing and as Level on 1013.2 Mbs while descending.b. As Level on
1013.2 Mbs while climbing and as altitude on QNH during descent,c.
Level on 1013.2 Mbs during both climb and descent stages.48. A
Pilot who has flown 65 hrs as Co-Pilot can fly hrs as PIC in
remaining period of30 consecutive daysa. 60 hrsb. 73 hrsc. 35
hrs49. A typical holding pattern is calleda. Circular Pattern b.
Race-Horse Pattern c. Race-Course Pattern50. A crew member can
operate R/T if he hasa. 100 hrs dual flight experienceb. FR TO
license
c. Cleared CPL Navigation paper51. A Private a c can land at a
Private aerodrome for the purpose of joy ridesa. Without
restrictionb. With Central Govt. permission
c. With DCCA permission52. Any suitable plan1 can be useda. For
unrestricted landings by a private a/c.b. For giving joy rides to
publicc. For one landing and take off for a specific purpose.53. An
a c will be regarded as infected with yellow fevera. If ac has
flown over a place with Yellow Fever epidemicb. If it has landed
tit a place situated in Yellow Fever affected area before its
arrival in India54. If a person on board an a/c falls sit. k the
Pilot will send health report on R/T to its destination aerodromea.
2 hours before ETA.b. 24 hours before ETA.c. Half an hours before
ETA.55. Except at designated points if an ATS route has lo be
crossed it should be done ata. 45 degb. 90 degc. Parallel to
track56. As per ICAO a "standard practice" means all contracting
state willa. Endeavour to conform with the specificationb. Conform
with the specificationc. Change the specification as per local
requirements57. As per ICAO "Recommended practice' means that
contracting, fine, slate willa. Definitely conform lo laid down
specificationb. Endeavour to conform to laid down specificationc.
Recommend to ICAO lo change the specification.58. Time separation
of take-off of light a c behind heavy a/c isa. 1 minb. 3 minc. 30
min59. Difference of TAS allowed between flight plan and actual TAS
is plus or minusa. 20%b. 10%c. 5%60. Flight of a c over Mathura
refinery isa. Allowed b. Restricted c. Prohibited61. Flight of a c
near Malabar Hills is prohibited within a radius ofa. 1 NMb. 50
Nmsc. Nms62. Carrying of a sick passenger on Kurd is permitteda. If
accompanied by an attendantb. Without any permissionc. If permitted
by DGCA63. After an ATC clearance has been obtained, a pilot may
not deviate from that clearance, unless the pilota. Requests an
amended clearance.b. Is operating VFR on topc. Receives an amended
clearance or has an emergency64. Which aircraft has the right of
way over the other aircraft listed?a. Gyroplane b. Airshipc. A/C
towing other aircraft65. Each pilot of an aircraft approaching lo
land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI)
shalla. Stay high until the runway can be reached in a power off
landing.b. Maintain a 3o glide to the runway.c. Maintain an
altitude at or above the glide slope.66. Automatic Terminal
Information service (ATIS) is the continuous broadcast of recorded
information concerning;a. Nonessential information to reduce
frequency congestion.b. Pilots of radar identified a/c whose a/c is
in dangerous proximity to terrain or to an obstruction.c. Non
control information in selected high activity terminal areas.67.
When activated, an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) transmits on
a. 121.5 and 243.0 MHz.b. 118.0 and 118.8 MHz.c. 123.0 and 119.0
MHz.68. A Pilot can act as PIC of a Public Transport Aircraft on an
particular route provided he has flown at least.a. 10 Route flight
on that as co pilot or as PIC without passengers on that route.lb.
200 hours solo on that aircraft.
c. Both 'a' and 'b' are correct.69. Validity of PPL for a person
below 30 years of age isa. 2 yearsb. 36 monthsc. 12 month.d. 10
years70. Maximum age limit for flying by a PPL holder isa. 58
yearsb. No age limit if medically fit c. 60 years71. Which aircraft
has the right of way lover all oilier air traffic?a. An a/c in
distressb. A balloonc. An a/c on final approach to land72. If an
altimeter setting is not available before flight, to which altitude
should the pilot adjust the altimeter.a. The elevation of the
nearest airport corrected to mean sea level.b. Pressure altitude
corrected for non standard temperature c. The elevation of the
departure area.73. In which type of airspace are VFR flights
prohibiteda. Class C.b. Class B.c. Class A.d. 1500 feet.74. A
slightly high glide slope indication from a precision approach path
indicator isa. Two white lights and two red lightsb. Four white
lightsc. Three white lights and one red lights75. The numbers 9 and
27 on a runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximatelya.
009o and 27o true.b. 090o and 270o magnetic.c. 090o and 270o
true.76. Under what condition, if any, may pilots fly' through a
restricted area? a. A. When flying on airways with an ATC
clearance
b. Regulations do not allow this.c. With the controlling agencys
authorization.77. An airplane and an airship are converging. If the
airship is left of the airplanes position which aircraft has the
right of waya. The airplaneb. Each pilot should alter course to the
right.c. The airship.78. What action should the pilots of a glider
and an airplane take if on a head-on collision course?a. Both
pilots should give way to the right,b. The glider pilot should give
way to the right. c. The airplane pilot should give way to the
left79. When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for
the purpose of landing, the right-of-way belongs to the aircraft a.
That is the least maneuverable.b. At the lower altitude, but it
shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to
overtake another.c. That has the- other to its right.80. Unless
other wise authorized, what is the maximum speed at which a person
may operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL?a. 200 Kts IASb. 288
Kts TASc. 250 Kts IASd. 250 Kts ground speed81. Which is true
regarding flight operations in Class A airspace?a. Aircraft must be
equipped with approved distance measuring equipment (PMP)b.
Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and nltHmli1
reporting equipment
c. May conduct operations under visual flight rules.82. Pilots
arc not authorized to land an aircraft from an instrument approach
unless thea. Flight visibility is at, or exceeds the visibility
prescribed in the approach procedure being used.b. Flight
visibility and ceiling are at, or exceeds the minimums prescribed
in the approach being used.c. Visual approach slope indicator and
runway references are distinctly visible to the pilot.83. An ATC
clearance providesa. Adequate separation from all trafficb.
Priority over all other traffic.c. Authorization to precede under
specified traffic conditions in controlled airspace.84. Changes in
domestic routes will be notified in.a. AIPb. CARc. AICd. Aircraft
manual85. With respect to the certification of aircraft, which Is a
category of aircraft?a. Landplane, seaplane.b. Normal, utility,
acrobatic.c. Airplane, rotorcraft, glider.86. With respect to the
certification of aircraft, which is a class of aircraft?a.
Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, balloon.b. Normal, utility,
acrobatic, limited.c. Transport, restricted, provisional.87. A
pilot flying a single-engine airplane observes a multiengine
airplane approaching I mm the left. Which pilot should give way?a.
The pilot of the multiengine airplane should give way; the
single-engine airplane is to its right.b. The pilot of the
single-engine airplane should give way; the other airplane is to
the left.c. Each pilot should alter course to the right.88.
Airplane A is overtaking airplane B. Which airplane has the
right-of-way?a. Airplane B; the pilot should expect to be passed on
the left.b. Airplane B; the pilot should expect to he passed on the
right.c. Airplane A; the pilot should alter course to the right,
the pass.89. An ac on dry lease Iease Indian airlines to IAF will
be flown under categorya. Civilb. Privatec. Military90. Flight data
recorder data is preserved fora. 30 minsb. 30 hrsc. 24 hrs91.
During Test flights passengers fora. Can be carriedb. Can be
carried without remunerationc. Can not be carried92. End of runway
is marked by.a. Green lightb. White lightc. Red light93. A CPL
holder can fly as pic of an a/c with AUWa. Below 1500 kgs onlyb.
5700 kgsc. No restriction94. Cabin crew is carried in ac on the
basis of.a. VIP on board b. Aircraft sealing rapacity.
c. Passengers on board95. Navigator is carried on ac when.a.
Flying over enemy airspace
b. When directed by PIC.c. Distance exceeds 600 nms and
navigation aids are not available within 30 nms of track.96. If
threshold RVR is above but Mid RVR is below minima the Pilot .a.
Can proceed with IAP and landing b. Cannot carry out IAP and
landingc. Can land if co pilot has instrument rating.97. Flight
Engineer is carried on board ata. Flights exceeding 600 nmsb. When
directed by PIC.c. When directed by air hostess.
d. When specified in its CO A.98. Facilities at an aerodrome are
listed in.a. AIPb. Notamsc. AIC d. CARs99. Two digit black colour
against yellow background displayed vertically indicate.a.
Aerodrome elevation b. Runway direction in usec. Wind direction100.
Runway designator 24 means.a. Runway direction [true] is between
024 to 029.b. Runway direction is 235 [M] and 244 [M].c. Runway
direction is 235 [T] and 244 [T].101. Width of airway [ATS route]
is.a. 20Nms [10 nms either side] over land and 40 [20 nms either
side] over sea.b. 20 nms over land and also over sea.c. 10 nms over
land and also over sea.102. FDTL, extension per day due to weather
/ac unserviceability etc isa. 2 hrsb. By concerned statec. By
ATC103. Transition altitude of aerodromes is laid down by.a. ICAOb.
By concerned state
c. BY ATC104. The Pilot of a search plane which has sighted
distress signals displayed by survivors will convey to persons on
ground that it has understood the message by.a. Flying low over the
crash siteb. By circling over the place.c. By rocking wings during
day and switching on and off nav / landing lights twice during
hours of darkness.105. Lowest transition altitude used in India
isa. 3000 ftb. 4000 ftc. 5000 ft106. Control zone isa. Area in
which air traffic control service is provided.b. Area of defined
dimensions extending upwards from ground level to unspecified
height.c. Area of defined dimension extending from ground to a
specified bright upwards.107. The pairs of touchdown zone markings
indicate that LDA threshold to threshold distance, is.a. Less than
2900 mtrs.b. 1200 mtrs upto but not including 1500 mtrs.c. More
than 2100 mtrs.108. Fight threshold stripes indicate that runway
width is.a. 23 mtrsb. 30 mtrsc. 45 mtrs109. Length of runway center
line and spacing between each line isa. 30m/30m
b. 20m/20mc. 30m/20md. 20m/30m110. Deviations if any from JCAO
recommended practices arc given in.a. Aircraft act 1034
b. Aircraft rules 1937
c. AIP111. Amendments to Rules 1937 are published asa. Blackb.
Whitec. Oranged. Green112. On an instrument approach where a Hi I
or MDA 'applicable, the pilot may not operate below, or continue
the approach unless thea. Aircraft is continuously in a position
from which a descent to a normal landing, on the intended runway,
can be made.b. Approach and runway lights are distinctly visible to
the pilot.c. Flight visibility and ceiling are at, or above, the
published minimums for that approach.113. During a night flight,
you observe steady red and green lights ahead and at the same
altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other
aircraft?a. The other aircraft is crossing to the left.b. The other
aircraft is approaching head on.c. The other aircraft is crossing
to the right.
114. During a night flight, you observe steady red and green
lights ahead and at the same altitude what is the general direction
of movement of the other a/c.a. The other aircraft is crossing lo
the left.b. The other aircraft is approaching head on.c. The other
aircraft is flying away from you.115. When departure or destination
aerodrome has not been allotted ICAO designator; in Flight Plan
form appropriate column enter.a. ////b. XXXXc. ZZZZd. Nil116. Prior
to takeoff, the altimeter should beset to which altitude or
altimeter setting? a. The corrected pressure altitude for the
departure airport.b. The current local altimeter setting, if
available, or the departure airport elevation.c. The corrected
density altitude of the departure airport.117. Cabin crew position
at take-off time is.a. Near cockpitb. In crew cabinc. Any
passengers sentd. At floor level near exits118. Track separation
is.a. Vertical separationb. Lateral separationc. Longitudinal
separation.119. An ac may fly without registration markings when.a.
Used for govt purpose.b. Permitted by central govt.c. Under test
flight before purchase.d. All above are correct120. COA is valid in
India for.a. 36 monthsb. 12 months for all a/cc. 12 months for a/c
less than 20 years old and 6 months for a/c more than 20 years
old.121. An ac departing behind a heavy ac should maneuver a/c to
avoid wake turbulence.a. Above and upwind of preceding a/c.b. Below
and upwind of preceding a/c.c. Above and downwind of preceding
a/c.122. A flight plan is considered currenta. When ETD is filled
in it is filed.b. When ETA is filled in.c. When amended and read
back123. Airport information signs area. In green colour nn white
background b. In white colour on black background.c. In yellow
colour on black background d. In black colour on yellow
backgroundAVIATION MEDICINE124. Which statement best defines
hypoxia?a. A state of oxygen deficiency in the body.b. An abnormal
increase in the volume of air breathed.c. A condition of gas bubble
formation around the joints or muscles.125. The most effective
method of scanning for oilier ah craft for collision avoidance
during daylight hours in to use a. Peripheral vision by scanning
small sectors and utilizing off center viewing.b. A series of
short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 10 degrees
sector.c. Regularly spaced concentration on the 3-, 9-, and
12-o'cIock positions.126. What preparation should a pilot make to
adapt the eyes for night flying?a. Wear sunglasses after sunset
until ready for flight.b. Avoid bright white lights at least 30
minutes before the flight.c. Avoid red lights at least 30 minutes
before the flight
127. If a pilot experiences spatial disorientation during flight
in a restricted visibility condition, the best way to overcome the
effect is loa. Consciously slow the breathing rate until symptoms
clear and then resume normal breathing rate.b. Rely upon the
aircraft instrument indications.c. Concentrate on yaw, pitch, and
roll sensations.128. Pilots are more subjects to disorientation
ifa. Eyes are moved often in the process of cross -checking the
flight instruments.b. They ignore the sensations of muscles and
inner ear.c. Body signals are used to interpret flight
attitude.129. Rapid or extra deep breathing while using oxygen can
cause a condition known .ita. Hyper ventilationb. Aerosinusitsc.
Aerotitis130. Which would most likely result in hyperventilation?a.
An extremely slow rate of breathing and insufficient oxygen.b.
Emotional tension, anxiety, or fear, c. The excessive consumption
of alcohol.131. A pilot is able to overcome the symptoms or avoid
future occurrences of hyperventilation bya. Increasing the
breathing rate in order lo increase lung ventilation.b. Closely
monitoring the flight instruments to control the airplane.c.
Slowing the breathing rate, breathing into a bag, or talking
aloud.132. Susceptibility to carbon monoxide poisoning increases
asa. Altitude decreases.b. Altitude increases.
c. Air pressure increases.133. Large accumulations of carbon
monoxide in the human body result ina. Loss of muscular power.
b. An increased sense of well-being.c. Tightness across the
forehead/throbbing in temles.134. What effect does haze have on the
ability to sec traffic or terrain features during flight.a. Haze
causes the eyes to focus at Infinity.b. All traffic or terrain
features appear to be farther away than their actual distance.c.
The colour contrast is less distinct, objects become difficult lo
see eyes tend to overwork in ha/r and do not detect relative
movement easily.135. A stale of temporary confusion resulting from
misleading information being sent to the brain by various sensory
organs is defined asa. Hypoxia.b. Hyperventilation.
c. Spatial disorientation.136. Loss of cabin pressure may cause
hypoxia because cabin altitude increases and.a. Oxygen percentage
decreases
b. Nitrogen percentage Increasesc. Partial pressure[amount] of
oxygen decreasesPage 25