REVISED OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS 1. End of steel bar sometimes painted in various colors & color combination as a mean of identifying different grade of steel. 1. Solid colors identify the alloy & strips identify the carbon contents (*) 2. Strips identify the alloy & solid colors identify the carbon content. 3. Both 1 & 2 are correct 4. None of the above is correct 2. Which gage is used to measure the backlash between gears 1. Filler Gage (*) 2. Screw Pitch Gage 3. Fillet age 4. DTI 3. Accuracy of finished screw thread is determined by 1. Screw pitch gauge (*) 2. Ring thread gauge 3. Thread Gauge 4. Plug thread gauge 4. Highest size of drill is 1. No. 80 (0.0135) 2. 3/16 (0.1875) 3. 3.75 mm (0.1475) 4. E (0.2500) (*) 5. Schematic diagrams are used mainly for 1. A/C maintenance & repair 2. Trouble shooting 3. Installation of parts 4. All of the above are correct (*) 6. Mark the correct statement 1. Turboprop engine requires lengthy runway than piston engine of same power 2. Turbojet has more weight than piston engine of same power 3. Turbofan required sort runway as compare to turbojet (*) 4. All of the above are correct 7. In towing the a/c (light) mark the correct statement. 1. All tail wheel a/c towing towards backward 2. All nose wheel a/c towing towards backward 3. If steerable nose wheel a/c, locking scissors are set of full swivel position (*) 4. None of the above is correct 8. While starting the piston engine, which type of fire extinguisher is permitted 1. Water & water based agent 2. CO 2 , 516 capacity (*) 3. Dry chemical 4. CC14 (Halon Gas) 9. Which core material don't gives deflection in composite 1. Honey comb (*) 2. Synthetic resin 3. Foam 4. All of the above is correct 10. Paralketone used on 115 CORRECT ANSWER IS MARKED * AT END
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REVISED OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
1. End of steel bar sometimes painted in various colors & color combination as a mean of identifying different grade of steel.
1. Solid colors identify the alloy & strips identify the carbon contents (*)
2. Strips identify the alloy & solid colors identify the carbon content.
3. Both 1 & 2 are correct4. None of the above is correct
2. Which gage is used to measure the backlash between gears
1. Allen key (*)2. Special type of ratchet spanner3. Suitable screw driver4. Special tool
80. An altimeter has
1. Stack of three evacuated bellows2. Stack of two evacuated bellows3. Barometric pressure setting provision
CORRECT ANSWER IS MARKED * AT END 116
REVISED OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
4. All of the above is correct (*)
81. In a micrometer in the main scale each cm divided into 10 equal parts & in circular scale, 9 division of main scale equals to 11 divisions of circular scale the least count of the micrometer is
1. 1 mm2. 0.01 mm3. 0.01 cm (*)4. 0.0001 mm
82. In a micrometer the smallest division on main scale is 0.5 mm. The vernier scale is divided into 25 division & it moves one division on the main scale for complete rotation of the vernier scale then the least count of he micrometer is
1. 0.01 mm2. 0.002 cm (*)3. 0.01 cm4. 0.001 mm
83. Altimeter in absence of manometer may be checks
1. Vacuum gauge2. Vacuum chamber (*)3. Micro manometer4. All of the above is correct
84. In four digit Non Ferrous alloy index system 2024, the first digit indicates
1. The % of Aluminum-added2. The different alloy in this group3. Alloy group4. Copper is the major alloying element (*)
85. Why it is considered good practice to normalize a part after welding
1. To relieve internal stresses developed within base metal (*)
2. To introduce a slight amount of carbon to improve the surface hardness of the weld
3. To remove the surface scales formed during welding
4. All of the above is correct
86. The color of 100 LL fuel is
1. Blue (*)2. Green
3. Red4. None of the above is correct
87. Select the characteristics of a good gas weld
1. The depth of penetration shall be sufficient to ensure fusion of filler rod
2. The height of weld healed should be 1/8" above base metal
3. The weld should taper off smoothly into base metal (*)
4. These should be no oxide on the weld.
88. Which tool can be used to measure the alignment of a rotor shaft or the place of rotation of disk
1. Dial indicator (DTI) (*)2. Shaft gage3. Protector4. All of the above is correct
91. What tool is generally used to set a divider to an exact dimension
1. Mechanic scale (*)2. Surface gauge3. Dial indicator4. All are correct
92. Which statement is correct regarding tie-down of small a/c
1. Manila rope has a tendency to stretch when it gets wet
2. Nylon or Dacron rope is preferred to manila rope (*)
3. The a/c should be headed down wind in order to eliminate or minimize wing lift
115 CORRECT ANSWER IS MARKED * AT END
REVISED OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
4. Leave the nose wheel or tail wheel unlocked
93. Flow of aviation fuel which passes greater antiknock quality than 100 octane, classified
1. According to the multiplies of lead2. By reference to normal Heptanes3. By performance number (*)4. None of the above is correct
94. A primary cause of intergranular corrosion is
1. Improper heat treatment (*)2. Dissimilar metal contact3. Improper application of heat4. None of the above is correct
95. Corrosion caused by galvanic action is result of
1. Excessive anodization2. Contact of two unlike metals (*)3. Excessive etching4. All of the above is correct
96. The internal surface of sealed structural steel tubing is best protected against corrosion by
1. A coating of hot linseed oil (*)2. Evacuation of tubing before sealing3. A coating of Zn – chromate primer4. None of the above is correct
97. One way to obtain increased resistance to stress corrosion is obtained by
1. Releasing compressive stress on metal2. Creating compressive stress on metal. * 3. Producing non-uniform deformation
while cold working4. All are correct
98. Which statement is correct regarding hand tap
1. Taper, plug, bottoming2. As in (1) & bottoming tap is used to cut
thread at bottom (*)
3. Plug, taper & bottoming.4. As in (3) & bottoming tap is used to cut
thread at bottom.
99. Which maintenance record entry best describe the action taken by FAR when a 0.125" dent in a straight section o9f ½" Al-alloy tubing is found
1. Dent is acceptable limit & repair not necessary
2. Dented section removed & replaced with identical new tubing flared 45.
3. Dent removed by drawing appropriate size bullet through the tubing (*)
4. Deferred to maintenance check.
100. EMF is produced in generator by
1. Lenz's Law2. Electromagnetic Induction (*)3. Right Hand Fleming Rule4. None of the above is correct
101. AN coupling used in Aluminum tube ½ inch diameter is
1. AN 818-52. AN 818-23. AN 818-8 (*)4. None of the above.
102. Roller bearing take more radial load than ball bearing of same size because
1. Larger contact area (*)2. High rotation speed.3. Low rotation speed.
103. In brinell hardness testing, the thickness of material should not be less than
1. 5 times diameter of the ball. 2. 10 times diameter of the ball. *3. 20 times diameter of the ball.4. 50 times diameter of the ball.
104. Which statement is correct
1. Swg 0 is small2. Swg 14 is thicker than swg 18 (*)3. Swg 14 is smaller than swg 184. None of the above is correct
105. Bottle jack is used.
1. To raise one wheel to remove brake unit
CORRECT ANSWER IS MARKED * AT END 116
REVISED OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
2. To raise single wheel3. To raise single wheel to remove one
brake unit4. All are correct (*)
106. Liquid penetrant test is carried out in
1. Porous plastic2. Nonferrous metal (*)3. Unpainted cleaned wood4. Any one or all of the above are correct
107. Which statement is correct
1. Tank inserted into handle is knows as safe edge
2. When filling is done, use lubricant3. Blade is made of steel & is not heat
treated4. None of the above is correct (*)
108. Ohm's Law is
1. I V2. V I (*)3. I R4. V R
109. Flux used in soldering is
1. Chemically clean the metal by removing oxide film (*)
2. Increase strength.3. Make strong joint.
110. Edge distance is
1. 2 times the shank diameter (*)2. 2 times the sheet thickness3. 2 times of head diameter4. None of the above is correct
111. Which statement is correct regarding Air speed indicator (ASI).
1. Pitot pressure is given inside capsule.2. Static pressure is given outside the
capsule.3. Measure differential pressure.4. All are the correct (*)
112. Which one is input device
1. Keyboard2. Mouse3. Telephone line4. All are the correct (*)
113. MODAM (Modulator – Demodulator) used is
1. A part of CPU2. A software3. Input / output peripheral (*)4. Operating system
114. When jacking the aircraft
1. Aircraft nose put to the wind.2. Select hard & smooth surface.3. Both 1 & 2 are correct.(*)4. None of the above is correct
115. When defuelling is done on swept back wing a/c. best precaution is
1. Outboard tank drain first (*)2. Fuselage tank drain first3. Inboard tank drain first4. All tank drained together
116. When a/c fuelling with pressure fuelling, precaution taken
1. Fuel nozzle pressure kept minimum to the fuel filter
2. Pressure should be adequate or correct setting (*)
3. Electric s/w on to indicate the fuel quantity on gauge
4. Fuel nozzle inserted before grounding
117. Negative plate of Ni-cd battery is of
1. Pure cadmium (*)2. Nickel hydroxide3. Cadmium hydroxide4. None of the above is correct
118. Electrolyte used in lead acid battery
1. KOH2. Dilute H2SO4 (*)3. Concentrated H2SO4
4. None of the above is correct
119. Transistor used as
1. Voltage Regulator / Doublers.2. Rectifier3. Amplifier (*)4. All the Correct
120. Convert 37 decimal into binary 115 CORRECT ANSWER IS MARKED * AT END
REVISED OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
1. 100101 (*)2. 1111113. 1010104. 110110
121. How will you remove the screw
1. By welding2. Drill the head (*)3. Both 1 & 2 are correct4. None of the above is correct
122. Bevel gear is used to
1. Transmit single load2. Transmit heavy load3. Transmit motion at on angle to (*)4. Transmit motion between two parallel
shaft
123. After cyaniding quenching is done in
1. Brine2. Water3. Oil4. Both 1 & 3 are correct (*)
124. To stop solder from flowing normally
1. Clay is used2. A flux is used (*)3. Metal boundary is used.4. None of the above is correct.
125. Hard soldering (silver soldering is low temperature brazing)
1. Is done at low temperature brazing2. Produces strength equal to parent metal3. Both 1 & 2 are correct (*)4. None of the above is correct
126. Flame is used to heat metal during heat treatment for
1. Small parts2. Where furnace is not available3. Heat treatment requirement is not very
exacting4. Large parts & where a particular area is
to be heated (*)
127. Mark the correct statement
1. Detection w4elds in thicker material UFD is best
2. X-ray best for welds in sheets3. Both 1 & 2 are correct (*)4. All of the above is correct
128. When flying along magnetic equator, dip will be
1. Increased2. Remain unchanged (*)3. Decreased4. Depends upon direction of flight
129. Identification of alloy is made of by
1. Alloy identified by color, content by stripes (*)
2. Alloy by stripes & content by color.3. As in 2 and number.4. None of the above is correct.
130. Heat treated parts having bake-dirt & scale can be cleaned
1. Wire brush2. Scraping3. Sand blasting4. None of the above is correct (*)
131. Pre & past treatment of cad-plating of ferrous part depends on
1. Strength of part2. Surface hardening & hard spots3. Corrosion resistance4. All of the above is correct (*)
132. The soaking time varies as
1. Till alloy uniformly heated2. 2 hrs / unit volume3. 1 hr / unit cross section area4. None of the above is correct (*)
133. Vernier scale is also used in
1. Microscope & spectrometer2. Sextant & spectrometer 3. Both 1 & 2 are correct4. None of the above is correct (*)
134. In brazing
CORRECT ANSWER IS MARKED * AT END 116
REVISED OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
1. Post heat treatment may be carried to relieve stresses (*)
2. Post heat treatment may not be carried to relieve stresses
3. As 1 & 2 are in correct
135. Pre-pregs material is
1. Eleminate manual mixing & weighing2. Must be stored in freeze.3. Also made in unidirectional4. All of the above is correct (*)
136. Which statement is correct
1. Boron fibre is made by depositing boron2. Tungsten & ceramic fibre in high heat
application3. Ceramic used in heat application,
dissipating heat slowly (*)4. Both 1 & 2 are correct
137. Disbond & water in honeycomb & impect damage is detected by
1. Laser holography (*)2. Ultrasonic3. Visual inspection4. None of the above is correct
138. In NPN transistor, arrow heat indicates
1. Hole flow (*)2. Electron flow 3. Minority carrier flow from emitter to base4. Majority carrier flow from emitter to base
139. Which statement is correct
1. Weld in thick material can not be detected by ultrasonic
2. Weld in thin material can be detected by X-ray (*)
3. Always detected by dye penetrant4. All above are correct
140. The opposition offered in AC circuit are called
1. Impedance. *2. Resistance
3. Inductance4. All of the above is correct
141. Which of the following is used as voltage regulator device
1. Carbon pile voltage regulator2. Magnetic amplifier regulator3. Transistor regulator4. All are correct (*)
142. Range of ammeter can be increased by
1. Connecting high resistance in parallel2. Connecting high resistance in series3. Connecting low resistance in parallel (*)4. Connecting low resistance in series
143. Ampere meter has
1. Low resistance in series2. High resistance in series3. Low resistance in parallel (*)
144. Transistor is biased
1. Base & emitter forward biased. 2. Base & emitter reverse biased.3. Collector is reversed biased.4. 1 & 3 are correct. *
145. In tetrode, the screen grid is
1. Always at positive potential & the voltage is less than plate voltage (*)
2. At negative potential & the voltage is less than plate voltage
3. Voltage is more than plate voltage4. None of the above is correct
146. In square threads
1. Width, height & length are same2. Difficult to machine3. More strength4. All are correct (*)
109. In a given figure, what may be the cause of fault for the installation of rivet
1. Greater allowance on the formal head2. Snap not regular to the head3. Bucking bar not in position4. None of the aboe is correct
110. The type of corrosion which occurs when two making surfaces, normally at rest with respect to one another, are subject slight relative motion is know as?
111. The letter : 0 in heat treatment process represents the following condition
1. Strain hardened
2. Annealed (*)3. Solution heat treated4. None of the above is correct
112. When an aircraft catches fire, (made of aluminium) conductivity & resistivity of aluminium respectively
1. Increases decreases2. Decreases increases3. Both will increases4. Both will decreases (*)
113. The rivet head indicates the material
1. 20242. 211713. Monel (Nickel copper alloy)4. None of the above is correct
114. The abbreviation "Unix" used in computer indicates:
1. A new operating system2. Operating system other than MS-DOS
(Microsoft Disk Operating System)3. PC – AT computer may have "Unix"
operating system in addition of MS-DOS.
4. None of the above is correct
115. The most sophisticated computer is
1. Micro computer2. First generation computer3. Super computer (*)4. None of the above is correct
116. Which is principal load carrying member in composite materials
1. Fabric (*)2. Matrix3. Resin4. None of the above
117. The size range of an allen wrench is
1. 3/64 to ½"2. 1/64 to ½"3. 3/64 to 1/8"4. 1/64 to 1/8"
118. The function nut on an a/c landing gear requires a torque of 100 inch pounds. To reach the nut, a 3" straight adapter must be used on an 15" torque wrench. How many inch pound will be indicated on the torque
CORRECT ANSWER IS MARKED * AT END 116
REVISED OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
wrench when the required torque of the nut is reached?
1. 1002. 83.3 (*)3. 0.804. 115.6
119. Carbon steel is
1. Strongly magnetic & shows slow chemical reaction with nitric acid test
2. Non magnetic & non action with HN3. Strongly magnetic & rapid action with
HNO3 test4. Slightly magnetic & slow chemical
reaction with HNO3 test
120. In a vernier micrometer, 9 part of main scale is divided into 10 parts of vernier scale, the main scale has graduation of 1 mm. Find the least count
1. 0.01 cm (*)2. 0.001 cm3. 0.001 mm4. 0.009 mm
121. The scales on the surface of a heat treatment part is removed by
1. Using scrapper2. Sand blasting (*)3. Dipping in any solvent4. All of the above
122. What is the difference between quantity & quality of x-ray in radiographic inspection:
1. Three is no meaning of quantity & quality means the penetrating power of a beam of radiation (*)
2. Quantity is related with penetrating power of x-ray & quality is related with frequency of x-ray
3. The quantity refers to the amount of radiation penetrating the specimen which affects the darkness of a radiograph & quality refers to the penetrating power of a beam
4. None of the above is correct
123. Artificially aged & then cold worked is represented by
1. T1
2. T7
3. T10 (*)
4. None of the above is correct
124. Which of the following is used as filler material
1. Flox2. Chopped fibers3. Both 1 & 2 (*)4. None of the above is correct
125. During welding, the welding torch should be kept
1. Into the molten metal2. Above the colten metal3. Depending on welding position &
processes (*)4. All the above is correct
126. Two wires each 1 meter long are kept at a distance of 0.02 mt apart if 1 amp current is flowing through each wire, then force acting on the wire will be
1. Attractive if the direction of the current flowing through wires is same
2. Attractive if the direction of current will opposite
3. Repulsive if direction of current will be reverse
162. The grip length of all line fasteners is given in
1. 1/100" (*)2. 1/1000"
163. Meuntz metal is a
1. Brass & is resistant to salt water (*)2. Is a bronze
164. Which is correct
1. A driven, clockwise2. B driver, clockwise (*)3. C driven, clockwise4. D driven, clockwise
165. In the absence (substitute) of Baron which composite hybrid may be used
1. Aramid + Carbon / Graphite (*)
Paper II (February – 1998)
1.The tool shown in figure is
1. Box – end wrench2. Double end offset wrench3. Flare nut wrench4. Combination wrench
2.Identify the following
1. Rheastal & sc diode2. Resistance & photo diode3. Rheastal & SCR4. None of the above is correct
3.The figure shows
1. Collect2. Tap
3. Die4. Chuck
4.The figure shows process of
1. Riveting with the riveting gun on rivet head
2. Bucking bar on the rivet3. Dimpling the rivet4. None of the above is correct
5.For threading a hole, the hole should be drilled
1. Approximately 0.003" to 0.007" undersize (*)
2. Approximately 0.003" to 0.007" oversize3. 0.007 undersize4. None of the above is correct
6.Secondary cell stores
1. Capacity2. Energy (*)3. Power4. Work
7.In a scale 39 division of main scale concides with 10 division of vernier & 1 division of main scale indicate 1 mm. 1 division of vernier scale indicates
1. 0.01 cm2. 0.01 mm3. 1 mm4. 0.001 cm
8.In a scale 24 main division is concide with 25 division of vernier scale & 1 division of main scale indicate 1 mm then 9 division of vernier scale indicates
1. 0.004 cm2. 0.001 mm3. 0.01 mm4. 0.01 cm
9.Force to be applied on file is backward direction
1. To remove the cutting chips of metal force is applied on file is forward direction for cutting
2. For saving the life of file3. More metal to be cut4. None of the above is correct (*)
CORRECT ANSWER IS MARKED * AT END 116
REVISED OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
10. Ceramic fibres are often used with
1. Modified polyester resin2. Exoxy resin3. Metal metrix (*)4. None of the above is correct
11. In nitric acid test, the material shows rapid action with greenish blue color, the material is
1. CRS2. Carbon steel3. Nickel (*)4. All of the above is correct
12. Highest compressive strength of composite is
1. Carbon / Graphite (*)2. Ceramic3. Baron4. Both 1 & 2 are correct
13. Which NDT cannot be used to test a 0.5 mm Al-steel
1. Magnetic particle inspection (*)2. Eddy current test3. X-ray4. None of the above is correct
14. In a transformer the primary has 200 turns & the secondary has 400 turns. If the supply of 28 v is given in primary then the secondary voltage is
1. 70 v2. 110 v3. 56 v(*)4. 24 v
15. Calipers are used for the purpose of
1. Measure inside diameter2. Measure outside diameter3. Measure distance between two surface4. All of the above is correct (*)
16. The flow chart symbol indicates
1. Activity2. Input3. Output4. Both 2 & 3 are correct
17. "O" or "A" indicates
1. Anhealed recrystallized (*)2. Quenched
3. Forged4. Both 1 & 2 are correct
18. With increase in temperature, resistance of cu
1. Increase (*)2. Decrease3. Infinite4. Same
19. If the plate is more +ve w.r.t. cathode, the electrons
1. Will start to flow toward plate (*)2. Will not start to flow toward plate3. Will start to flow toward plate but will
damage diode none4. None of the above is correct
20. Which of the NDT testing method is suitable for the inspection of most metal, plastic & ceramic surface defects
1. Eddy current2. Magnetic particle inspection3. Ultrasonic test (*)4. Dye penetrant method
21. How many of these factors are considered essential of knowledge for x-ray exposure
1. Processing of film2. Material thickness & density3. Exposure distance4. Film characteristics (*)
22. Which type of crack can be detected by magnetic particle inspection using either circular or longitudinal magnetization
1. 452. Longitudinal3. Transverse4. Sub-surface
23. Alclad is metal consists of
1. Al-alloy surface & pure Al-core2. Pure Al-surface & Al-alloy core (*)3. A homogenous mixture of pure N & N-
alloy4. All are correct (Multiple layer of Al-alloy
& pure n)
24. A fibre type self locking nut must not be used on a/c if bolt is
115 CORRECT ANSWER IS MARKED * AT END
REVISED OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
1. Under shear load2. Under tensile load3. Subjected to rotation (*)4. Subjected to vibration
25. A triode consists of
1. Plate, gird & a heater2. Plate, cathode & heater3. Cathode & a plate4. Plate, cathode, heater & a screen
between the plate & cathode (*)
26. Diode, triode & transistors
1. Obeys ohm's law2. Does not obey ohm's law3. Not a linear resistance4. Both 2 & 3 are correct (*)
27. Fibre glass sheet is used between Al & carbon / graphite joint to
1. Protect it from corrosion (*)2. Used as core metal3. Provide better strength4. All are correct
28. Mark the correct statement
1. The diametrical pitch & pitch diameter in a spur gear are same
2. If the diametrical pitch (DP) is given, you can find out the addendum (*)
3. If we divide DP by PD, we can get size of teeth
4. If the DP is given, you can fin out the addendum
29. The useful load of an a/c is the
1. Difference between maximum gross weight & empty weight (*)
2. Difference between the net weight & total weight
3. Sum of the empty weight & maximum gross weight
4. None of the above is correct
30. What is the color of AN-steel flared tube filling is
1. Black (*)2. Blue3. Green4. White
31. What is the advantage of double flaring on Al-tubing
1. Easy of connection2. It is less resistant to the shearing effect3. It is more resistant to shearing effect of
torque (*)4. None of the above is correct
32. Flexible hose used in a/c plumbing is classified in size according to
1. Outside diameter2. Class sectional area3. Inside diameter (*)4. All are correct
33. Which tubing has the characteristics – (high strength & abbrassive strength) for use un a high pressure (32,000 psi) hydraulic sysem of operation of landing gear & flap
1. 2024 – T2. 5052 – O Al-alloy3. CRS (*)4. 1100 – ½ or 3003 – ½ H, Al-alloy
34. The setting in the micrometer indicates
1. From rotary to reciprocating2. From reciprocating to rotary3. Rotary to linear (*)4. All the above is correct
35. When a gear sector is engaged with a rack the motion will be
1. Intermittent rotary2. Reciprocatry3. Intermittent straight line (*)
1. Allen key (*)2. Special ratchet spanner3. Suitable screw driver4. Special tool
38. Milling machine is
CORRECT ANSWER IS MARKED * AT END 116
REVISED OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
1. Used for surface finishing2. Used for sawing the metal3. Used for grinding the metal4. All of the above is correct (*)
39. 25 division of vernier scale concides 24 cms of main scale & 1 cm in main scale is divide into 20 equal parts
1. 0.01 cm (*)2. 0.05 cm3. 0.01 cm4. 0.1 cm
40. Considering all factors the most commonly used metal as electrical conductor in a/c is
1. Aluminium (*)2. Copper3. Silver4. Tungsten
41. A galvanometer may be converted to a voltmeter by connecting
1. Low resistance coil in parallel with meter2. High resistance in parallel to meter3. Low resistance in series with meter4. High resistance in series with meter to
increase range (*)
42. As per ATA 100 code the size & type of electrical wire in aircraft are given
1. By prefix & suffixes2. Side by side3. At the beginning & at the end4. By letters & numbers (*)
43. Transformer is a device
1. Used in transistors set2. Transfer electrical energy from one
circuit to another by changing frequency3. Both 1 & 2 are correct (*)
44. Hydrogen evolves
1. Towards the end of the charging cycle of Ni-cd battery (*)
2. Throughout the servicing of lead acid battery
3. When the battery is over charged4. All of the above is correct
45. The strength of an electromagnet depends on
1. Number of the turns of the coil2. Strength of rotation of the magnet3. Speed of rotation of the magnet (*)4. All of the above is correct
46. The setting in vernier caliper indicates
1. Positive error2. Negative error3. No error (*)4. All are false
47. Altimeter consists of stack of
1. 3 evacuated capsule2. 2 evacuated capsule3. Barometric scale adjustment4. All are correct (*)
48. Normalizing of steel is done by heating
1. Heating just above the critical point & cooling in air (*)
49. In British system of electromagnetic flow detection is indicated by
1. WFD2. EFD3. MFD (*)
50. Butyl rubber used for
1. Tyre & tube2. Seals & gasket (*)3. A/C Fuel tank lining4. None of the above is correct
51. Dump flux used while welding with oxyacetelene flame will cause
1. Porosity (*)2. Crater3. Channeling
52. Alclad is a
1. Aluminium alloy sandwiched between for aluminium coating (*)
53. Number of threads per inch is measured by
1. Steel rule2. Screw pitch gauge (*)3. Ring gauge4. All of the above is correct
115 CORRECT ANSWER IS MARKED * AT END
REVISED OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
54. Decimal 29 is equivalent to binary
1. 11101 (*)2. 1011013. 1101014. 101011
55. SCR has
1. 2 terminals2. 3 terminals (*)
56. In pitot & static system static vents & pitot vents are placed at separated location to prevent
1. Position error2. Ice firmation3. All of the above is correct (*)
57. Difference of both pressure is measured
1. Altimeter2. ASI (*)
58. The phenomenon which causes continuous spin of outer ring due to coincidence of rotor ring with outer gimble ring axis is called
107. Difference of pilot & static pressure is measured by
1. ASI (*)2. Altimeter3. VSI
108. Altimeter operation mechanism consists of a
1. Two aneroid capsule2. Three aneroid capsule3. Adjustment for barometric pressure
provided4. All of the above is correct (*)
109. Free gyro has
1. The plane of freedom2. The planes are right angle to each other
& three plane (*)
110. Turn & slip indication operates respective by
1. Gyro only (*)2. External force & gravity3. Gyro & gravity
111. Acceptable deviation in compass from the equipment
1. 1 degree from the needle to the compass
2. 2 degree from the needle to the compass (*)
3. 3 degree from the needle to the compass
112. Spherical roller bearing will take
1. Radial load heavy
2. Axial load slightly3. Both the above are correct (*)
Paper – II (June – 1999)
1.The main memory of a computer is
1. RAM (*)2. ROM3. Hard Disc4. Micro processor chips
2.T6 designation of Al-alloy indicates
1. Solution heat treated & then artificially aged (*)
2. Solution heat treated & then stabilized3. Artificially aged only4. Solution heat treated & then cold worked
3.0.10 mm is equivalent to
1. 0.039"2. 0.041"3. 0.035"4. 0.045"
4.The major alloying element in 7075 Al-alloy is
1. Magnesium2. Silicon3. Mg & Si4. Zinc (*)
5.The purpose of turnbuckle is to
1. Make minor adjustment in cable length2. Adjust cable tension3. Both 1 & 2 are correct (*)4. None of the above is correct
6.A 7 19 cable is made up of
1. 7 strands of 19 wire each (*)2. 19 strands of 7 wire each3. Both are correct4. None of the above is correct
7.For cast iron, the included angle of drill is
1. 118 (*)2. 703. 904. 140
8.Select the correct sta5tement
1. Hand taps are available in two sets
115 CORRECT ANSWER IS MARKED * AT END
REVISED OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
2. Bottoming tap is used to smoothen the bottom of a blind hole
3. Plug tap is used at the last4. Taper tap is used first (*)
9.The external threads on a bar is made by
1. Taps2. Stock3. Dies (*)4. Reamer
10. The defect in wheel plus is inspected by
1. Dye penetrant process (*)2. Magnetic particle inspection3. Eddy current testing4. Ultrasonic testing
11. The voltage rating of fully charged cell of 20 Ni-cd battery is
1. 1.8 to 2.1 v2. 1.24 to 1.3 v3. 1.4 to 1.7 v4. 1.3 to 1.5 v (*)
12. If the temperature of a confined liquid is held constant & its pressure tripled, the volume will be
1. Triple2. Be reduce to 1/3rd its original (*)3. Remain the same4. None of the above is correct
13. If the pitot head is blocked then which instrument is affect
1. ASI (*)2. Altimeter3. Turn & bank indicator4. Slip indicator
14. Which statement is correct
1. QNE setting gives height above sea level of the airport
2. QNH setting gives airfield elevation3. QFE setting makes the altimeter read
zero on landing at aerodrome (*)4. All of the above is correct
15. A double flare should be used on
1. Stainless steel2. Nickel steel3. Cast iron
4. Al alloy only (*)
16. Bead width of bolt weld should be
1. 2 to 3 T2. 3 to 5 T3. ¼ to ½ T4. 1 1/3 T to 1 ½ T
17. In a fillet weld, the penetration requirements are
1. 60 to 80% of the thickness of the base metal
2. 100% of the thickness of the base metal3. 200% of the thickness of the base metal4. 25 to 50% of the thickness of the base
metal (*)
18. In the fluerescent penetrant inspection,
1. The defect will show the flow as a brilliant yellow green (*)
2. The defect will show the flow as a light yellow green
3. The sound area will appear white (deep blue violet)
4. The diffect will show as deep blue violet
19. In jacking of aircraft
1. Main wheels are raised together (*)2. Nose wheel is raised 6" above the
ground3. Nose wheel is raised for free movement
of it4. None of the above is correct
20. Centre drill is used to
1. Make hole & reaming in one operation2. Make hole & countersunk in one
operation (*)3. Make taper hole4. All of the above
21. Unless otherwise specified, torque value for tightening a/c nuts & bolts relate to
1. Clean dry thread (*)2. Clean Lightly oiled thread3. Either 1 & 24. None of the above
22. A fibre type, self locking nut must never be used on an a/c if the bolt is
CORRECT ANSWER IS MARKED * AT END 116
REVISED OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
1. Under shear loading2. Under tension loading3. Both tension & shear loading4. Subjected to rotation (*)
23. Aircraft bolts are usually manufactured with a
1. Class 1 fit for the threads2. Class 2 fit for the threads3. Class 3 fit for the threads (*)4. Class 4 fit, for the threads
24. Generally speaking, bolt grip length should be
1. One & one half times the thickness of the material through which the extend
2. Equal to the thickness of the material through which they extend plus approximately one diameter
3. Equal to the thickness of the material through which they extend (*)
4. 2 times the diameter
25. A particular component is attached to the a/c structure by the use of an a/c bolt & a castleted tension nut combination, if the cotter pin hole does not align with the recommended torque range, a acceptable practice is
1. Exceed the torque range2. Lubricate the threaded section of the
nut, bolt & torque3. Change washers & try again (*)4. Change the nut
26. How is a clevis bolt used with a fork end cable terminal secured
1. With a shear nut lightened to a sung fit, but with no strain imposed on the fork & satefied with a cotter pin
2. With a castle nut tightened until slight binding occure between the fork & the fitting to which it is being attached
3. With a shear nut & cotter pin or a thin self locking nut tightened enough to prevent rotation of the bolt in the fork (*)
4. All are correct
27. A bolt with an X (cross) inside a triangle on the head is classified as a
1. Standard a/c bolt2. Close tolerance bolt NAS (*)3. CRS bolt4. Special bolt
28. Through which material will magnetic lines of force pass the most
1. Copper2. Iron (*)3. Aluminium4. All of the above is correct
29. With an ohmmeter connected into the circuit as shown, what will ohmmeter read
1. 20 2. Infinite3. 10 4. None of the above is correct
30. How can the state of charge of a Ni-cd battery be determined
1. By measuring the specific gravity of the electrolyte
2. By measuring charge (*)3. By the level of electrolyte4. All of the above is correct
31. Zero fuel weight is the
1. Dry weight plus the weight of full crew, pax & cargo
2. Basic operating weight without fuel3. Maximum permissible weight of a
loaded a/c including pax, crew, cargo without fuel (*)
4. Maximum weight of the a/c with crew, oil, pax, less fuel in wing tank
32. The empty weight of an aircraft is determined by
1. Adding the net weight of each weighing point & multiplying the measured distance to the datum
2. Subtracting the tare weight from the scale reading & adding the weight of each weighing point (*)
3. Multiplying the measured distance from each weighing point to the datum times the sum of scale reading less the tore weight.
33. Compound gear is used for
1. Better efficiency2. Better transmission of motion3. Greater range of speed4. All of the above is correct (*)
115 CORRECT ANSWER IS MARKED * AT END
REVISED OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
34. Mg-alloy used with other metal should be
1. Given two coasts of zinc chromate & a layer of pressure – sensitive _____ tape 0.003 in thick is applied smoothly & firmly enough to prevent air bubbles & wrinkles (*)
2. Given one coat of zinc chromate & a coat of pressed vinyl
3. Given two coat of zinc chromate & two coat of pressed vinyl
4. None of the above is correct
35. An automotive type flaring tool will produce a flare
1. Died blue (*)2. Color less3. Died green4. None of the above is correct
37. With prepregs
1. Manual application not required2. Has to be kept in freeze3. Both 1 & 2 are correct (*)4. None of the is correct
38. The measurement reading on the illustrate micrometer is
1. 0.2857"2. 0.2901"3. 0.2511"4. 0.2861"
39. A primary cause of inter granular corrosion is
1. Improper heat treatment (*)2. Dissimilar metal contact3. Improper application of primary4. None of the above is correct
40. Galvanic corrosion is likely to be most rapid & sever when
1. The surface area of the cathodic metal is similar than surface area of anodic metal
2. The surface area of the anodic & cathodic metals are approximately the same
3. The surface area of the anodic metal is smaller than the surface area of the cathodic metal (*)
41. Jet fuel identifiers are
1. Performance number to designate the volatility of the fuel
2. Performance number & are relative to the fuel performance in the a/c engine
3. Type number with no relation to the fuel is performance in the aircraft engine (*)
4. None of the above is correct
42. Brinell hardness testing is applicable to
1. Small part & high hardness2. Large part & small hardness3. Small part & small hardness4. Large part & high hardness (*)
43. Which one id incorrect
1. ATA – 62 communication2. ATA – 30 ice & rain protection3. ATA – 52 dcor4. ATA – 78 engine exhaust
44. What will be the speed of driven gear if driver gear is 120 rpm.
1. 60 rpm2. 120 rpm3. 100 rpm4. 240 rpm
45. In dye penetrant test, the vol, of defect can be interpreted by
1. Staining route2. Staining extent (*)3. Staining speed4. All of the above is correct
46. The test sample which can be tested by making both probe simultaneously in opposite direction to defect flames on surface
1. Flash butt metal (*)2. Thin sheet metal3. Cast ingot4. None of the above is correct
CORRECT ANSWER IS MARKED * AT END 116
REVISED OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
47. During repair procedure of composite, part heat treatment is done for
1. Small disbond2. Seal be smallest3. Restore surface protection4. None of the above is correct (*)
48. When grain size of the steel will be smallest
1. Heated first below critical range2. Heated just above critical range (*)3. Below lower critical range4. None of the above is correct
49. If a body is given shape & lorituation is exposed to uniform flow of incompressible fluid, each component of the force which the fluid exerts the body can be expressed as product of
1. Area 2. Dynamic pressure3. Reynolds no.4. All of the above is correct
50. PARAL KETONE is used for preventing corrosion of
1. Mg alloy parts2. Welded steel structure3. Cables, ferros & non ferros (*)4. B & C
51. The process used for checking moisture extrapped in composite is
1. Radiography2. Ohmmeter3. Laser holography4. All of the above is correct (*)
52. What procedure is used to digtinguish heat treatable alloys from non heat treatable alloys
1. 10% solution of caustic soda (*)2. 5 % solution of muriatic acid3. Rockwell test4. 10% solution of H2Sc
53. When welding various metals you may reduce the chances crack of during by
1. Preheating (*)2. Anodizing
3. Heat treating4. Clamping
54. Which of the follow of a/c parts or units should not be welded
1. Items which are not responsive to heat treatment
2. Plain carbon, Ni-steel of SAE 2300 series
3. Turn buckle barrel ends (*)4. Steel tubular members of basic structure
55. When welding a high carbon steel use a
1. Low carbon rod2. High carbon rod (*)3. Rod of either low or high carbon content4. Rod of intermediate carbon content
56. High carbon steel can be readily welded by
1. Are welding procedure2. Oxidizing flame & high carbon rod3. Neutral flame & high carbon rod (*)4. Carbonising flame & low carbon rod
57. N.W.V.
1. Strength of the compositor material2. Strength of the material & composing
with charge3. Strength of reinforcing fibre4. None of the above is correct
58. An flared tube fitting is made of
1. Al (*)2. Cu base alloy3. Steel4. All of the above is correct
59. Correct statement regarding refueling is
1. Earthing is not required2. Disconnect the earthing line first before
disconnecting the fuelling nozzle3. If a/c is earthed, fuelling vehicle, doesn't
require earthing4. None of the above is correct (*)
60. Scales are removed from lightly stressed steel parts by
1. Hard abrasive paper2. Buffing Wheel (*)3. Wire brush
115 CORRECT ANSWER IS MARKED * AT END
REVISED OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
4. None of the above is correct
61. If you have some 178 rivet, above 3/16" in diameter that had been aged for the hours after quenching
1. You could use them frouding they have not exceeded 5 hours of ageing
2. You could not use them because 178 rivets should be used within 10 minutes after quenching
3. You could use them provided they had not exceeds 3 hours of ageing
62. Flux from ferrous metals can be removed by using
1. 25% sol of silver nitrate2. No need of flux by welding ferrous
metals3. You have to remove flux from ferrous
metals (*)4. A wire brush
63. A flux for silver soldering is obtained by using
1. Zn Cl2 (*)2. Nitric acid3. Muriatic acid4. None of the above is correct
64. Welding of a/c from welding of steel differs in that
1. It is considered harder to weld because of high temp.
2. Steel does not have a color change that is apparent in Al
3. M.P. of Al is much lower than steel & the expansion is nearly three times as great (*)
4. It is much easier to weld because a flux is used
65. Wrought iron is identified by
1. Red colored spark2. Straw yellow spark (*)3. White spark4. None of the above is correct
66. Which gage of telescoping gauge is identified by its
1. 1/16 to 6"2. 5/18 to 6"3. 5/8 to 6"4. ½ to 6" (*)
67. Line used to show an edge which is not visible is a
1. Break line2. Hidden line (*)3. Imaginary line4. Phantom line
68. When flaring Al-tubing for used with AN coupling nuts & sleeves, the flat angle should be
1. 672. 453. 37 (*)4. 60
69. The dia of flexible hose for a/d plumbing is classified in size according
1. Cross sectional area2. Inside dia (*)3. Outside dia4. Both 1 & 2 are correct
70. Make an external thread which tool is used
1. Tap 2. Threaded spanner3. Die (*)4. None above is correct
71. Pulleys are normally made of
1. Asbestos2. Pnenolic formaldehyde (*)3. Mica4. Both 1 & 2 are correct
72. Function of turnbuckle is to
1. Adjust the cable tension2. Adjust the minor length of cable3. Both 1 & 2 are correct (*)4. As in a, & for frequently connecting &
disconnecting the cable
73. Mark the correct statement
1. The weld should be taper off smoothly into the base metal
2. The depth of penetration should be different to ensure fusion of the filler rod.
3. The height of the weld should be 1/8 inch above the base metal
CORRECT ANSWER IS MARKED * AT END 116
REVISED OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
4. The ripples should be even & well feathers into the ________ metal which shows no burn due to overheating (*)
74. Mark the correct statement
1. Fibre lock nut should not be used on the place where vibration is more
2. Fibre lock nut should not be used on the place where temp is above 250 F (*)
3. Fiber lock nut should not be used on the place where there is relative motion between parts
4. Both 2 & 3 are correct
75. Al clad is
1. Coating of Al alloy on the pure Al2. Coating of pure Al on the Al-alloy (*)3. Coating of pure Al on non-metal4. None of the above is correct
76. In SAE 2040, the last two digits indicates
1. Percentage of alloying element2. Percentage of carbon content (*)3. Number of carbon molecules4. Both 2 & 3 are correct
77. Parts should be normalized after welding
1. To relieve internal stresses (*)2. To remove the surface scale formed
during welding3. To introduce slight amount of carbon to
improve the surface harness of the weld4. To make improve mechanical property
1. Detecting cracks running perpendicular to the axis of the part
2. Detecting cracks running parallel to the axis of the part (*)
3. Detecting cracks which is al. angle to the axis of the part
4. 2 & 3 are correct
3.Mark the correct statement
1. Fatigue cracks are normally formed on parts that are in services but not on new parts
2. Fatigue cracks give sharp clear pattern3. Fatigue cracks are normally found on
L/G torsion link legs attachment point4. All of the above is correct (*)
4.Intergranular corrosion occurs due to
1. Lack of uniformity in the alloy structure2. As in (1) & is difficult to detect in its
original state (*)3. Combine effect of tensile stress &
corrosive environment
5.Mark the correct statement1. As length increases for a given size of
wire the resistance increase2. As size of wire increase for a given wire
length resistance decrease3. As size of wire decrease for a given wire
length resistance decrease4. Only 3 is wrong (*)
6.A resistor if second color land is brown then
1. It will indicate the age of tolerance of brown
2. It will indicate the ohmic value of brown (*)
3. No tolerance4. It will indicate the number of zero to be
added
7.Fuses are normally made up of metal having low melting point statement is rue
1. Low melting point material is alloy of tin & bismuth
2. If fuses made of copper than it is called current limiter
3. As 1 & 2 & fuses are installed in the circuit so that all the current must pass through it
4. All the above is correct (*)
8.Micro switches are mostly used in a/c, making contact open or close movement is about
1. 1/8 inch or less2. 1/6 inch or less3. 1/16 inch or less (*)4. ¼ inch or less
CORRECT ANSWER IS MARKED * AT END 116
REVISED OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
9.Which equation is used to find out capacitive reactance
1. Xc = 2 fc2. Xc = ½ fc (*)3. Xc = 2 /fc4. Xc = ¼ fc
10. The minimum thickness which can be measured by fealer gage is
1. 0.0020 inch2. 0.0015 inch (*)3. 0.015 inch4. 0.001 inch
11. Steel containing 0.7 to 2% carbon is known as
1. Plain carbon steel2. Medium carbon steel3. High carbon steel4. Cast iron (*)
12. Which statement is correct for flame hardening
1. Normally carried out in shafts, chains2. Normally carried on parts where only a
portion is required to be hard (*)3. The main disadvantage of this method is
that the time required for the is much more
4. All are correct
13. Which statement is correct in case of introducing hardening
1. Heating the metallic substance by means of alternating magnetic field
2. The depth of the case depends upon frequency intensity of the em field but not on time period
3. With this method property of core material is not affected
4. All are correct (*)
14. Which statement is true regarding titanium
1. Ti is approx. 70% heavier than Al & 50% lighter than stainless steel
2. Fatigue resistance of Ti is greater than Al & less than steel
3. Corrosion of Ti is uniform4. Both 1 & 2 are correct (*)
15. Magnetic is
1. The process in which the parts are magnetized
2. The process in which the parts are magnetized out the magnetic power used in select the flow is fluorescent
3. As in (2) & will glow under black light (*)4. All are wrong
16. In lead acid battery the positive plate & the negative plate is made up of
1. Positive plate is made up of lead while negative plate is made up of lead sulphate
2. Positive plate is made up of lead while negative plate is made up of lead peroxide
3. Positive plate is made up of lead peroxide while negative plate is made up of sulphate
4. Negative plate is made up of lead peroxide while positive plate is made up of sulphate
17. Match the following
TITANIUM BEARING GEAR1. Ni-Cr steel Non – magnetic Teeth2. Teeth Ni – Cr Non – magnetic3. Non – magnetic Ni – Cr Teeth (*)4. Teeth Ni – Cr Non – magnetic
1. Heat treated Al alloy sheet (*)2. Stain steel3. Fibre4. All of the above
2.Soldering used for electrical connections has the MP range
1. 100 degree to 200 degree C (*)2. 100 to 300 degree3. 300 – 600 degree C4. 200 – 300 degree C
3.Helical grars are used for
1. Transmit motion to shaft at an angle2. Transmit motion to shaft which are
perpendicular together3. To carry larger load (*)4. None of the above is correct
4.The heat conductor available during all features in aircraft used is
1. Copper2. Aluminium3. Bras4. Silver
5.The most accurate system for drill size is
1. Friction (1/16 inch – 3 & ½ inch)2. 1/63 inch to 1/63. a to z letter system4. No 80 to no 1 system (*)
6.In a vernier scale 24 division are equal to 25 division of vernier scale, 1 centimeter of main scale is divided 20 equal parts & the least count.
1. 0.001 cm2. 0.002 mm3. 0.02 mm (*)4. 0.009 cm
7.In vernier macrometer 9 parts of main scale is divided into 10 parts of vernier scale the main scale has the graduations of 1 mm find the length count.
1. 0.01 cm2. 0.001 cm3. 0.09 mm (*)4. 0.009 mm
8.SCR is
1. Four junction diode2. Three junction diode3. Two junction forward biased with one
1. 10 cm2. 1.0 cm3. 10 mm4. All of the above is correct
106. In a vernier caliper, there are 10 clivisons on the vernier on the main scale is divided in 10 parts while measuring in zero of the vernier lies should of 1.8 cm & 4th division coinsided with a main scale division the length is
1. 1.84 cm2. 1.04 cm3. 1.86 cm
107. When the plate current is 16 amp, the number of electron flows
1. 10 – 8 electron / sec2. 10 ?? electron / sec3. 10 electron / sec4. None of the above is correct
108. Six equal resistance of 1 ohm each are connects in a circuit ABCDEF, the resistance offered by the
combination, if the current A & leaves at B is:
1. 2.5 ohm2. 3 ohm3. 1.5 ohm (*)4. None of the above is correct
109. A torch bulb when cold has 1 A current, it draws a current when growing from a source of 3 v, the resistance of bulb is
1. 52. 103. 64. 8
110. In a electron magnetic induction unit of magnetic flux is
1 Weber (*)2 Ampere x meter3 Newton / meter4 Newton
111. Mark the correct statement is
1. Rheostat is a variable resister used to vary amount of the circuit (*)
2. Potential meter is a variable resister used to vary amount in the circuit
3. Potentiometer has two terminals4. None of the above are correct
112. When 2 conductor of 1 mt in length carrying a current at 2 amp are .025 meter a part from each other
1. Conductor carrying current in the same direction will attract (*)
2. Conductor carrying current in the opposite direction will attract
3. No effect4. None of the above is correct
113. Unix is the
1. Double operating unit (*)2. CAD & record of engineering
organization3. None of the above is correct
114. The most powerful computer is
1. Micro computer 2. Super computer (*)3. Mini computer4. Laptop computer
CORRECT ANSWER IS MARKED * AT END 116
REVISED OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
115. Matrix is used to
1. Transfer stress to fibre (*)2. Take stress from the fibre3. Increase the hardness of adhesive4. None of the above is correct
116. Catalyst in a composite acts as
1. Hardener (*)2. Curing agent3. To increase the property of resin4. None of the above is correct
117. The used of grid in a triode is
1. To reduce space charge region2. To control the electron flow between the
cathode, & the anode 3. None of the above is correct4. 1 & 2 are correct (*)
118. The semi conductor having high negative co-efficient is
1. Thermister (*)
119. DP indicates in a gear for
1. Distance between two teeth2. Height of the teeth3. Pitch circle4. None of the above are correct (*)
120. Diode triode or transistor works on
1. Ohm's law2. Do not obey ohm's law (*)
121. Change 1010101 in decimal
1. 85 (*)2. .653. .1114. None of the above is correct
122. PN junction is knows as
1. Forward bios (*)2. Reverse bios
123. Counter sunk rivet:
1. When riveting different layers of sheets
124. In a step down transformer the input voltage is 220 v & current 5 A & the output voltage is 11v & the current is
90 A, the calculate the efficiency of the transformer
1. 30%2. 90% (*)3. 60%4. 70%
125. In a given circuit 1.4 A current flowing from point A. what is the current at point B
1. a.4 A2. 1.03. .6 A4. 1.2 A
126. EDP stands for in computer
1. Electrical data processing2. Electronic data processing (*)3. Entry data processing4. Electronic discrete program
127. Electronic digital computer
1. Mathematical calculation2. Data processing3. Stress data in given instruction4. All of the above are correct (*)
128. (010100)2 convert into octal
1. (24)8 2. (15)8
3. (26)8
4. (50)8
129. Fillers is
1. Epoxy2. Cellulose (*)3. Polyester4. Boron
130. Which statement is true for leveling
1. Leveling of large a/c is critical than lighter a/c (*)
2. Leveling is done normally on longitudinal axis
3. Leveling is done more accurate on lighteral axis
4. None of the above is correct
131. The difference between digital & analog computer
1. Analog computer has large memory
115 CORRECT ANSWER IS MARKED * AT END
REVISED OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
2. Digital compute cost more & in comparatively difficult to program
3. Analog computer is less accurate (*)4. 2 & 3 are correct
132. Excess size of computer depends upon
1. Software used2. Frequency & signal received3. To software & hardware both4. Hardware (*)
133. The greatest memory of which device
1. Winchester type device disks (*)2. Tape type recording instrument3. Floppy disk unit4. None of the above is correct
134. Which are related to the memory
1. Hard disk (*)2. Keyboard3. CD – Rom4. Monitor
135. If twist drill is not printed clearly, it can be checked by
1. Drill size gauge number system on left & fraction system on right
2. Drill size gauge with number system on right fraction on left
3. SWG4. By micrometer (*)
136. Mark correct statement
1. A transistor connected in common base configuration has a low input resistance & high output resistance
2. At transmeter connected in common emitter configuration a medium input resistance & a output resistance
3. The input & output signals of a common emitter are out of phase
4. All the above are correct
137. The arrow head on the transistor symbol always pointing the direction of
1. Hole flow (*)2. Electron flow3. Electrons are the majority carrier4. Holes are the majority carrier
138. The energy loss in a transformer is due to
1. Heating the coils2. Eddy current in the core3. Low permeability of ferro magnetic
substance4. Both 1 & 2 are correct (*)
139. A computer stored instruction in
1. English language2. Decimal number system3. Octal number system4. Binary number system (*)
140. An input unit of a computer communicate
1. Between operate and computer (*)2. Between memory with printer3. Between cpu with monitor4. Between output and computer
141. For jacking the a/c
1. Normally the jack points are given in all a/c
2. Three points on a/c for jacking is provided to stabilize the a/c about three points
3. Jacking points are located in relation to CG position
4. All the above are correct (*)
142. In ATA specification the electrical cable number is instructed as
1. Prefix suffix2. In iddle3. Side & side4. All of the above are correct
143. Thread in deep holes are cut by
1. Extension tap (*)2. Round split die3. Bottoming tap4. 1 & 3 are correct
144. Size of flat cold chisel is identified by
1. Length of cutting edge2. Width of cutting edge (*)3. Weight of the chisel4. All of the above are correct
145. Mark the correct statement
CORRECT ANSWER IS MARKED * AT END 116
REVISED OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
1. Corrosion on carbon steel is in form of brown, red color (*)
2. Corrosion on CBS in sheets dimeling is the necessary
OCTOBER / SEPTEMBER 1996
1. In transformers, mark the correct statement
1. If any of windwings are shorted, it is easy to detect by measuring resistance
2. In case if shorted windwing, the transformer becomes hot
3. If there is shorted windwing, the output voltage will be very high
4. Both 2 & 1 are correct (*)
2. If the frequency of the primary voltage of a transformer is increased from 50 Hz to 60 Hz, keeping peak voltage same, the voltage in the secondary will
1. Increase by a factor of 60/502. Increased by a factor of 50/603. Be unpredictable for want of sufficient
data4. Not change (*)
3. 'n' identical cells, each of the emf E & internal resistance r, are connected in series to form closed circuit. an ideal voltmeter connected across 'n' cells will be
1. NE (*)2. Zero3. (n – N)E4. N (1 – N/n) E
4. Very high insulation resistance of electric cable is measured by
1. Meggar (*)2. High range ohm meter3. Ammeter4. Voltameter
5.When batteries are connected in parallel
1. Voltage increases, capacity remains the same
2. Voltage remains same but capacity increases (*)
3. Voltage depends upon plate area4. No effect on either powder or voltage
6.To increase the voltage of battery
1. Cells are connected in series (*)
2. Cells are connected in parallel3. Plates are connected in series4. Electrode area is increased
7.Voltage drop across a conductor of known resistance depends on
1. Current flowing inside the current2. Voltage of circuit 3. The amount of thickness of wire
insulation (*)
8.E – glass is
1. Also known as electric glass2. Also known as borosilicate glass3. Has low strength & weight ratio 4. All of the above is correct (*)
1. Input device (*)2. Output device 3. Input / output device4. None of the above are correct
39. A software is a
1. Set of programmes2. Set of instructions3. All of the above are correct (*)4. None of the above are correct
40. Disk operating system is
1. A system software2. Software environment3. Software utility package4. A high level language
41. Computer virus is a
1. Software programme (*)2. Hardware programme3. Machine language4. Assembly language
42. Assembly language is
1. Low level language2. High level language (*)3. Machine language4. All generation language
43. Which of the following language used memories
1. Machine language2. Assembly language3. High level language4. All generation language (*)
44. Vol storages are those from where data are lost
1. When the programme is over
2. With respect to time3. When the power is shutoff4. All of the above except c
45. Locate the odd man out
1. Light pen2. Plotter (*)3. Mouse4. Joystick
46. The 'Printed document" in computer terminology is termed as
1. Soft copy2. Hard copy (*)3. Firm copy4. Live copy
47. The display of MONITOR of a computer system is mostly
1. Semi conductor display2. LED type display (*)3. LCD type display4. Electron beam type
48. Choose the correct statement among the following
1. Line printer is non impact printer2. LASER printer is a non impact printer (*)3. DOT matrix printer is non impact printer4. Character printer is faster than line
printer
49. Printer is connected through
1. Parallel port2. Serial port3. Both 1 & 2 are correct (*)4. None of the above are correct
50. The screen in the laptop computer is
1. CPT2. LCD3. Semi conductor display4. All of the above are correct
51. Which of the following is fixed disk drive
1. Hard disk drive (*)2. Floppy disk drive3. Winchaster disk drive4. CD-ROM drive
52. Unix is a
CORRECT ANSWER IS MARKED * AT END 116
REVISED OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
1. A software2. A programme3. Multiuser operating system (*)4. All of the above are correct
53. Assembler is
1. A software2. A translator (*)3. A programme4. All of the above are correct
54. High level language are
1. Machine dependent2. Machine independent3. Language in which programme is done
in 1 & 04. Both 2 & 3 are correct (*)
55. Interpreter in computer field is a
1. Software (*)2. Floppy3. Hardware4. The special electronic circuit which
translate high level to low level
56. Internet system is based on
1. WAN system (*)2. LAN system3. Mainframe computer system4. Many computers connected to a other
computer
57. GUI stands for
1. Graphical user interface (*)2. Graphical user internet3. Graph & user interface4. Graph & user internet
58. Y2K problem is a
1. Software problem2. Hardware problem3. Data problem (*)4. All of the above are correct
59. Virus affects
1. Hardware2. Software3. Both 1 & 2 are correct (*)4. None of the above are correct
60. Anti virus software is
1. Dreaded software2. Software to scan & remove virus (*)3. Package4. None of the above are correct
61. Which of the following is a scientific language
1. COBOL2. ADA (*)3. FOPTRAN4. BASIC
62. Which of the following is not a language
1. FOXPRROT2. LISP3. C4. VISUAL C++
63. Pick the odd man out
1. DOS2. UNIX3. WIN – 954. DBASE
64. A package is a
1. Software2. Set of instruction3. A programme4. All of the above are correct (*)
65. Windows 3.1 is a/an
1. Operating system (*)2. Operating environment3. Package4. Language
66. Which of the following is not a high level language
1. Basic2. C3. Assembly4. Cobol5. None of the above are correct
67. Which of the following is not a high level computer language
1. Windows (*)2. Visual C++3. Coral4. Pascal
68. DOS stands for 115 CORRECT ANSWER IS MARKED * AT END
REVISED OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
1. Data operating system2. Disk operating system (*)3. Diode operating system4. None of the above are correct
October 1998
1. In d.c. generator single plain coil is rectangle, coil is perpendicular to main flux, emf induced in coil.
1. Maximum2. Minimum3. Zero (No
Voltage) (*)4. None of the
above
2. In carbon pole voltage regulator carbon pile is
1. Granular Surface
2. Resistance between two carbon faces depends on area of contact
3. Resistance between two carbon faces depends on pressure of contact
4. All above correct (*)
3. In Nickle Cadmium battery specific gravity of electrolyte is
1. Unchanged (*)2. Gives number
indication of the state of the charge of the cell
3. All above are correct
4. In Lead – Acid cell grid plates alloy is
1. Lead2. Lead Peroxide3. Lead Antimony
(*)4. None of the
above
5. In a.c. circuit rms value divided average value
1. Creast Factor2. Amplitude
Factor
3. Form Factor (*)4. All above are
correct
6. Resistor colour coding is yellow, violet, orange will silver band.
1. 470 5%2. 47 5%3. 47000 5%4. 47000 10% (*)
7. Selenium rectifiers, base sheet material is
1. Selemium2. Germenium3. Alluminium (*)4. Cu
8. Selenium rectifiers when connected in series increases
1. Current handling ability of rectifiers (Inparallel)
2. Current and voltage handling ability of rectifiers.
3. Voltage handling ability of rectifiers (*)
4. None of the above
9. Silicon rectifier (cathode) is made of
1. Silicon2. Germinium3. Copper (*)4. Alluminium
10. "Firing" term used in
1. Diode2. LED3. SCR (*)4. Transistor
11. In dot metric system use
1.2. 7 4 Led = 28
Segment3.
12. Transformer rectifiers secondary winding is connect in
1. Star2. Delta3. Star Delta (*)
CORRECT ANSWER IS MARKED * AT END 116
REVISED OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
4. Delta Star
13. In general services wiring which wire is suitable
1. PVC2. Glass Braid3. Nylon4. All above are
correct (*)
14. In high operating temperature which wire is use
1. PREN2. EFGLASS (*)3. TERSIL4. FEPSIL
15. In UNIFRE – 'F' conductor is
1. Aluminum Plating
2. Copper Plating3. Nickel Plated
Cu (*)4. Tinned Copper
16. Electrical Bonding
1. Limit potential difference between all parts
2. Eliminate spark discharge and fire risk.
3. Prevent the possibility of electrical shock
4. All above are correct (*)
17. ATA – 100 coding for cable 'Position 2' indicate
1. Functional Circuit (*)
2. Unit Number3. The segment of
cable4. None of the
above are correct
18. ATA – 100 coding for cable 'Position – b' (N) indicate
1. Neutral2. Phase3. Earth
Connected Cable (*)4. None of the
above are correct
19. In general electrical circuit
1. Switch in off2. De-energise
relay3. Close C.B.4. All above are
correct (*)
20. Co-axial cable
1. Shielded against electrostatic and magnetic field
2. Do not radiate, they will not pick up and energy
3. An electrostatic field does not extend beyond the outer conductor.
4. All above are correct (*)
21. Current Limiter
1. Low Melting Wire
2. High Melting Wire (*)
3. Thermal Device4. None of the
above are correct
22. In D.C. starter generator
1. Shunt2. Series3. Fully
compounded (*)4. All above are
correct
23. In D.C. shunt motor running at rated speed field winding is open, the motor is
1. Rotate at rated speed
2. Stopped immediately (*)
3. Slowly decrease speed
4. None of the above are correct
24. Mark the correct statement
1. Nibble is half byte (*)
2.3.4.
115 CORRECT ANSWER IS MARKED * AT END
REVISED OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
25. In Lead – Acid Battery, spillage electrolyte is neutralize by
1. Ammonia & Water
2. Vinegar3. Bi – Carbonate
(Backing Soda) & Water4. 1 & 3 are
correct (*)
26. Printed circuit board made by
1. Lithographic2. Photographic3.4.
27. Light emitting diode
1. Conduct forward bias
2. Conduct reversed bias
3. 4 7 dot matrix = 28 diodes
4. 1 & 3 are correct (*)
28. In Servo Mechanism System gain B
1. Open loop2. Close loop (*)3. As in (1)
Negative feedback4. As in (2)
Positive feedback
29. Boolean algebra Theorems
1. A . = 12.3. A + = 1 (*)4.
30. In 16 bite hexadecimal
1. 2 162. 162
3. (*)
4. 2 + 16
31. Make the correct statement
1. LSI more than 100 gate (*)
2. MSI 12 to 99 gate
3. SSI gate using less than 10
4. None of the above
32. Current flowing in a circuit having resistance of 8 inductive reactance of 12 and capacitive reactance of 18 , connected in series and across the supply of 20 v is
1. 1.5 amp.2. 2 amp. (*)3. 1 amp.4. 4 amp.
33. A transformer having primary turns of 2000 connect across supply of 250 v, give second output of 200 v. what is the number of turns in second.
1. 15002. 1000 (*)3. 20004. 1000
34. While working of Lead acid battery, electrolyte is touched to the eyes, whit will do ?
1. Rinse the eyes with plenty of water2. Eye rinse with solution of bicarbonate of
soda (*)3. Rinse the eyes with water & KOH.4. None of the above.
35. When megger is not in use, where its point is located.
1. Extreme right hand side2. Extreme left hand side (*)3. In centre4. None of the above
36. CE Transistor having highest.
1. Power gain (*)2. Current gain3. Voltage gain4. Input Impedance
37. Capacitance of a capacitor is measured by
1. Maxwell bridge2. Wheat stone bridge3. Schering bridge (*)
CORRECT ANSWER IS MARKED * AT END 116
REVISED OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
4.
38. Slip speed of motor having speed of 1440 rpm 50 Hz.
1. 1002. 60 (*)3. 504. 120
39. Synch speed of a motor having 4 poles, 50 Hz.
1. 1600 rpm2. 1500 rpm *3. 1200 rpm4. 2000 rpm
40. Energy stored in a inductor having inductance of 10 m H and current of 4 amp.
1. 160 milli joules2. 80 milli joules (*)3. 160 joules4. 1600 joules
October 2003
1. A resistance of 6 and inductance of 8 connected in series across 200 v. 50 cps power supply. Voltage drop across 6 res. Is
1. 200 v2. 60 v3. 120 v (*)4. 100 v5.
2. Two signals of same amplitude, frequency and phase difference forms lissijons figure of
1. Circle2. Straight line with angle of 453. Straight line with angle of 1304. Ellipse
3. Lap wdg is used for
1. High torque2. High voltage3. Low voltage4. Low current
4. Transistor connecting in which configuration having highest current gain.
1. Common base
2. Common collector3. Common emitter (*)4. None
5. In nodole analysis
1. Number of simultaneous equation to be solution becomes (n – 1)
2. Network Sh__________ atleast ______________
3. 1 & 2 are correct (*)4. None of the above
6. Peab value is
1. (*)
2.
3.
4.
7. Minimum distortion is achieved in
1. Class A (*)2. Class B3. Class A – B4. Class C
8. Power gain in a PNP Transistor is Maximum in
1. CC2. CB3. CE (*)4. None of the above
9. Voltage build up condition for shunt generator
1. Their must be sufficient diode at magnetism in the poles (*)
2. If excited on open circuit positive field resistance should be more then critical resistance.
3. If excited on load, field resistance should be equal to the minimum resistance.
4. All of the above
10. Conduction for half cycle is possible in
1. Class A amplifier2. Class B (*)3. Class C
115 CORRECT ANSWER IS MARKED * AT END
REVISED OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
4. Class D
11. Insulators have
1. Full valence bend2. Empty conductor bend3. High energy gap4. All of the above (*)
12. In a triode the usual working point on the slope called
1. Tube factor2. Tube coefficient3. Amplification factor4. All of the above (*)
13. Scott connection is used for
1. To convert 3 to 2 2. To convert 2 to 3 3. 1 & 2 4. To convert 3 to 3
14. Starting of slip ring induction motor by
1. Start 2. Tehostatic Control3. Resistance in rotor circuit (*)
15. Alternating values normally given in
1. r.m.s. (*)2. Av value3. Max value
16. Which winding is nearest to the core
1. L.V. (*)2. H.V.
17. Thickness of lamination reduced in xmer
low eddy current loss
1. Low eddy current loss (*)2. Hyst loss 3. Both4. None of the above
25. The purpose of the 'Dump valve' in a pressurized aircraft is to relieve
1. All the positive pressure from the cabin2. A negative pressure differential3. Pressure in excess of the maximum
differential
26. External power 'TRU' supply connected to
1. DC relays and DC consumers2. Feedback supply to hold in circuit of the
ground power unit 115 CORRECT ANSWER IS MARKED * AT END
REVISED OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
27. Mark the correct statement
1. Essential services directly connected to battery bus bar
2. Generator bus bar are normally isolated
28. Clorona effect is reduced by
1. Static discharger (*)2. Coaxial cable
29. Brush wearing at high attitude due to
1. Friction between commutator and brush2. Static electrical charge due to friction3. Contact resistance is negligible4. All of the above are correct (*)
30. In modern turbojet aircraft
1. Two batteries of are connected in series and in parallel during starting of engine
2. Only one battery switch is on and then connected in parallel
3. 48 volts is supply at the starting of the engine by connecting the batteries in series and then 24 volts is applied by connecting batteries in parallel (*)
31. When operating temperature is low, lead – acid battery capacity,