Question

Question Answer

The age limit requirement for vessels in order to be VAT exempted

upon importation is:

15 years for passenger

vessels

The tonnage of vessels that are qualified for VAT exemption on the

importations and local purchase and/or cargo vessels including

engine and spare parts of said vessels is:

150 tons and above

Under R.A.9295, one of the conditions by which the importation of

articles is granted exemption from VAT is that approval must be

obtained prior to importation by which government agency?

MARINA

The certificate issued by MARINA to qualified domestic ship

operators is ______.

Certificate of Public

Convenience

Drydocking of non-classed passenger/passenger cargo ships maybe

extended on a monthly basis but not to exceed _______________. 3 months

When a Phil. Flag vessel engaged in domestic trade, but required to

undertake a single foreign voyage in exceptional circumstances

maybe exempted from the requirement of SOLAS 74/78 provided

the ship ________.

adopts safety requirement

which MARINA considers

adequate for the voyage

The authority to operate extended to all types and classes of vessels

in the domestic shipping shall be valid for a period of not more

than ______ years.

25

Which government agency prescribes the routes, zones or areas of

operations of domestic ship operators? MARINA

Which government agency sets the safety standards for vessels in

the domestic trade in accordance with applicable conditions and

regulations?

MARINA

As prescribed by R.A.9295, all domestic ship operators shall have

the ________to provide and sustain safe, reliable, efficient and

economic passenger or cargo service, or both.

financial capacity

Passenger or cargo rates in the domestic trade as provided for in

R.A.9295 are fixed by: Domestic ship operators

The size of beds in the first class section of inter-island passenger

vessels should be at least ________. 6 x 2 ft

The government authority primarily responsible for the

enforcement and ensuring that only competent, properly trained

and duly licensed Masters, pilots and seafarers are allowed to board

and man ships of Philippine Registry is _______.

Philippine Coast Guard

The manning requirement for tugboats, dredgers and anchor

handling vessels engaged in coastwise voyage between 35 and 100

gross tonnage as required by Chapter XVIII of the PMMRR

comprise ________.

2 deck and 2 engine

personnel

Category A high speed crafts as defined by Reg. XVII/2 of the 450

PMMRR, are passenger crafts carrying not more than ______

passengers.

Which government authority is primarily responsible for the

enforcement of maritime safety rules and regulations for vessel

under the Philippine Registry?

Philippine Coast Guard

MARINA serves the maritime industry through the following

EXCEPT;

Registration and

Enforcement office

MARINA was created and geared towards the following

objectives, EXCEPT;

to create sub-agencies for

the safe transport of goods

and passengers.

Which Certificates is NOT issued by the Phil. Coast Guard? Classification of Hull and

Machinery

PPA Memorandum Circular 40-2002 pertains to _______of Harbor

Pilots rendering pilotage service to vessels. Performance

Every ship documented in the Phils. shall be assigned a/an

_____________as stipulated in the revised PMMRR. official number

The minimum safe manning as provided for in Chapter XVII of

PMMRR is assessed on a case to case basis ________. I. upon

request of the Company II. upon request of the Master of the vessel

I only

A ship?s homeport as defined by Regulation XV/6 of the PMMRR

may be her ___. I. Port of Call II. Area of operation nearest to

where the company?s principal office is located

either I or II

The Certificate of Competence (COC) issued to Master Mariners in

the Philippines should demonstrate theory of operation of the ship

mainly from a safety and legal points of view. Which of the

following training courses ( in the Philippines ) is not made part of

the requirement for COC?

General Management Skills

Training




following training courses ( in the Philippines ) is not made part of

the requirement for COC?

Practical Shiphandling

How many district office/s is/are there in Luzon? 2

The agency responsible for the markings on loadlines of

Philippine-flag vessels is the:

Accredited International

Classification Societies

The legal rights of Filipino seafarers come from two primary

sources: the POEA Contract of Employment and the _______

Migrant Workers and

Overseas Filipino Act of

1995

The legal rights of Filipino seafarers from two primary sources: the

Migrant Workers and Overseas Filipino Act of 1995 and the

_______.

POEA Contract of

Employment

A shipowner intending to register his ship under Philippine

Registry must secure first:

Ship?s Identification

Number

Under R.A.9295, this term means ? the exchange of materials or

products within the Philippines ?? Domestic Trade

For tanker vessels of 250-500 GRT that are on limited coastwise

operation, the ______ can act a s Master. Third Mate

The members of the Board of Examiners for Deck and Engine

Officers are appointed to their positions thru the following process:

I.The candidate is endorsed by the MMAP or MEOP as the case

may be to PRC, then PRC recommends to the Office of the

President of the Philippines for appointment II. The President of

the Philippines appoint directly the member of the Board of

Examiners without benefit of any recommendation from PRC. III.

The Chairman of PRC appoints the member of the Board of

Examiners selected from the endorsement of MMAP or MEOP as

the case may be

I only

How many toilets and bathrooms are required under MARINA

Reg. 65 for Philippine Inter-island vessels?

1 per 50 passengers separate

from men and

women/children

The minimum license required for the rank of Master for a

Philippine registered passenger vessel between 1000 ? 1599 gross

tons, engaged in coastwise trade is:

Chief Mate

Chapter XVII of the PMMRR requires that the master of tugboat of

between100 and 250 gross tonnage engaged in coastwise voyage

should be at least a licensed ______.

second mate or major patron

Category A high speed crafts as defined by Reg. XVII/2 of the

PMMRR are passenger crafts carrying not more than _______

passengers.

450

The Administration shall require all ships registered in the

Philippines except those mentioned in Chapter I Regulation I/3 of

the PMMRR, the following certificates, EXCEPT:

Certificate of Registration

In the revised PMMRR, ships shall be provided with at least two

independent means for communicating orders between navigating

bridge and the machinery space or control room, one of which shall

be:

engine telegraph

In the revised PMMRR, the tonnage as measured in accordance

with the International Tonnage Convention 1969 and for ships of

less than 24 meters in length is called ______.

gross tonnage

______ is defined as the policy limiting the right to engage in

Philippine Coastwise Trade to be limited to vessels carrying a

certificate of Philippine Registry.

Cabotage

Ships engaged in the domestic trade carrying 500 to 2000 one registered nurse or

passengers and having 12 hours or less voyage duration shall carry

______.

midwife

The minimum safe manning of ships for which Chapter XVIII of

the PMMRR apply, takes cognizance of which of the following? I.

Length and nature of voyage and trading route II. Construction and

technical equipment of ships III. Number, size and type of main

propulsion units and Auxiliary

I, II & III

What is the minimum size required before a vessel can be

documented? 5 net tons

A shipowner intending to register his ship under Philippine

Registry must secure first:


Number

In sleeping room for officers where no private sitting room is

provided, the floor area per person of 3,000 GRT and above shall

not be less than _____.

7.5 sqm

As stipulated in the revised PMMRR, Class C ships are _____. tankers

As stipulated in the revised PMMRR, a Philippine registered vessel

shall fly the national flag _____. at all times

Which among the list are Class C ships as stipulated in the revised

PMMRR? tankers

As stipulated in the revised PMMRR, every ship documented in the

Philippines shall be assigned a/an ______. official number

R.A.8981 provides that ? the Commission shall establish and

maintain a high standard of admission to the practice of all

professions and at all times ensure and safeguard the integrity of all

licensure examination ?. This is _____.

an exercise of the powers

and functions of the

commission

A partial survey on a passenger ship shall be made: after a repair

Republic Act No.8981 is otherwise known as _______. The PRC Modernization

Act of 2003

______ are field offices which deliver frontline services and are

organized into semi-autonomous units of MARINA. Port District Offices

Republic Act 9295 is also known as the ______. Domestic Shipping

Development Act


offices EXCEPT: Board of Marine Inquiry

MARINA was created under _____. P.D. 474

Category I ships in the inter-island are classified as such by

MARINA if:

travel time between ports

exceed 4 hours

Under MARINA, which formulates, recommends and continuously

evaluates and analyzes the broads policies and guidelines, plans

and programs of MARINA for the promotion and development of

Planning and Policy Office

the maritime industry?

Under MARINA, which formulates, develops and maintains

information systems to support promotion, development, regulation

and supervision activities of the Authority and monitoring systems

on the implementation of plans, programs, policies and guidelines.

Management Information

systems Office

Which government agency issues Certificate of Ownership to a

Philippine flag vessel? MARINA

Revalidation of certificates falls under _______ of the STCW ?95. Reg. 1/11

Every master, officer holding a certificate issued under any chapter

of the STCW Convention other than Chapter VI, who is serving at

sea or intends to return to sea after a period ashore , shall in order

to qualify for seagoing service shall be required at intervals not

exceeding 5 years to: I. meet the standards of medical fitness

particularly eyesight and hearing II. establish continued

professional competence III. have taken all necessary training

prescribed by the Administration

I & II

Under the STCW Convention for the revalidation of certificates,

continued professional competence is established by: I. approved

seagoing service, performing functions appropriate to the

certificate held for a period of at least one year during the

preceding five years II. having performed functions considered to

be equivalent to the seagoing experience III. passing an approved

test

I, II, III

An Operations Manager of a manning agency has been updating

himself with approved courses required under Reg. 1/11 during 5

years, passed an approved test given by PRC. Is he entitled for

revalidation of his certificate? I. yes, because he met the

requirements of Reg. 1/11. II. No, because he has no approved

seagoing experience for at least one year during the preceding 5

years

I only

When was the comprised amendment 2 (2001) of the STCW as

amended adopted by the maritime safety committee? December 1998

When did the comprised Amendments 2 (2001) of the STCW code

entered into force? 01January2003

As per STCW Code Certificate of Training in PSCRB is mandatory

to what seafarers level? all levels

Which one among the list does NOT belong to the ship onboard

organization as per STCW? Engineering level

Under the STCW as amended, Training for personnel on RO-RO

passenger ships as per STCW (V/2) was implemented on

______________.

01February1997

Recognition of Certificates issued by other parties is under what Reg I/10

Regulation of the STCW as amended?

Is SSBT mandatory under the STCW Convention? I. yes, because

the Administration has enacted laws to make it mandatory II. no,

because only ARPA and ROP are required under the Convention

I only

What kind of system is AIS? transponder system

What was the date of implementation of AIS? July 1, 2002

Seen from an operational point of view, how will you describe the

AIS? AIS is an automatic system

The AIS information transmitted by a ship can be divided into how

many types? 2

Can AIS with MKD operate as a stand-alone system? Yes

In case of AIS overload, what can you expect? targets far away drop out

How much can the AIS broadcast mode be overloaded without any

significant operational effect? 400 ? 500%

The dynamic information update rate of AIS depends on ______. ship?s speed

The status information of AIS is updated every ______. 6 minutes

The Pilot plug of AIS is installed ______. on the Pilot?s conning

position

When should the AIS transponder normally be activated? always

The AIS transmitted information is divided in how many groups? dynamic data, static data, &

voyage-related data

How is voyage information updated in AIS? manually

The AIS transponder is designed to transmit information ______. automatically

How is the AIS technical status checked? automatically

The Tonnage Certificate indicates _______. measurement tons

In the Zone Chart, green is labeled on the _______ Tropical Zone

The load line mark indicates _______. maximum draft allowable

The IMO International Convention on Loadlines was enacted in

______. 1966

A vessel remains seaworthy and assigned minimum freeboard

when loaded to provide: reserve buoyancy

The maximum permissible mean draft to which subdivision

loadlines have been assigned to passenger ships in accordance with

Solas ?74 is called _______.

bulkhead draft

When a container dropped by a SAR aircraft to survivors is colored

yellow, the contents are ______.

blankets and protective

clothing

During inspection the PSCO should further assess whether the ship

and/or crew is able to do the following EXCEPT:

perform its daily duties and

responsibilities

Which of the following is NOT correct? All of these

The PSCO determines the safe manning of a ship, EXCEPT: the capability to operate

equipments in emergency

Self-activating smoke signals shall emit smoke of a highly visible

colour at a uniform rate for a period of at least _____ when floating

in calm water.

15 minutes

Self-activating smoke signals shall continue to emit smoke when

fully submerged in water for a period of ______. 10 seconds

Lifebuoys shall withstand a drop into the water from the height at

which it is stowed above the waterline in the lightest seagoing

condition or a height of ______.

30 meters

Buoyant lifelines shall have a diameter of not less than _____. 8 mm

Each lifejacket light shall have a luminous intensity of not less than

0.75 cd in all directions for a period of at least ______. 8 hours

Rocket parachute flares shall have a burning period of not less than

______. 40 seconds

The burning period of handflares must not be less than ______. 1 minute

Handflares after having been immersed under 100 mm of water

continue to burn for a period of ______ 10 seconds

The Solas Protocol 1978 entered into force on ______. May 1, 1981

The Solas Protocol 1988 entered into force on ______. Feb. 3, 2000

As per Solas, fire pumps shall have a capacity to deliver at least

______. 25 cu.mtr/hr

Static information of AIS includes the following EXCEPT: type of cargo whether

hazardous or not

Which of the following does NOT meet the purpose of SOPEP?

it must be in the English

language for everybody to

understand

When a SAR aircraft drops items in a blue container to survivors,

the contents are: food and water

Tonnage Convention 1969 entered into force on ______. July 18, 1982

Colregs Convention 1972 entered into force on ______. July 15, 1977

Inmarsat C convention 1976 entered into force on ______. July 16, 1979

Salvage Convention 1989 entered into force on _____. July 14, 1996

To reduce the oxygen content of the atmosphere in cargo tanks

during and after the discharge of cargo oil in order to eliminate risk

of explosion, a system is introduced called:

inert gas system

Under the U.N. Convention on Conditions for Registration of

Ships, the following information shall be entered in its

the name, nationality and

address of the owner

regiastration, EXCEPT:

The term ?jurisdiction in the Convention? should be construed in

the light of ______ in force at the time the Convention is applied or

interpreted.

international law

In order to obtain the winter freeboard, 1/48th of the summer draft

is added to the: summer freeboard

Which ILO Convention recommendation specified the manner in

which articles of agreement are to be signed and terminated:

Seaman?s Articles of

Agreement Convention

Which of the following statements is correct concerning the

function of ILO? I. workers and employer?s representative have an

equal voice with those on Governments in formulating policies II.

through ratification by member of States, Conventions and

Recommendations set by Labor Standards III. through ratification

by member of States, Conventions are intended to create binding

obligations to put their provisions into effect

II & III

The 1978 Solas Protocol is known as:

International Conference on

Tanker Safety and Pollution

Prevention

The ISPS Code applies to: I. Passenger Ships II. Mobile Offshore

Drilling Units I & II

AIS performance standards specify requirements by satisfying the

following EXCEPT:

generation of about 5,000

reports per minute

The AIS should comprise the following, EXCEPT:

a back-up processor data

separate from the unit but

which automatically works

when the principal

processor fails

Rocket parachute flares shall have a rate of descent of not more

than _____. 5 m/s

Every cargo ship davit-launched liferaft shall be so arranged that it

can be boarded by its full complement of persons in not more than

______ from the time the instruction to board is given.

3 minutes

No lifeboats shall be approved to accommodate more than ______. 150 persons

The speed of a motor lifeboat when proceeding ahead in calm

water when loaded with its full complement of persons and

equipment shall be at least ______.

6 knots

The certificate of approval for a free-fall lifeboat shall state the

following EXCEPT: the dimension of the boat

Inflatable rescue boats shall be so constructed as to be capable of

withstanding exposure for _____ in all sea condition. 30 days

The steps of an embarkation ladder shall be not less than ___ long 480mm, 115mm

and ___ wide.

The International Life-Saving appliance code was adopted on

______. June 4, 1996

The Solas 1974 entered into force on ______. May 25, 1980

The PSCO is guided with a list of detainable deficiencies. Under

areas of the SOLAS Convention, the following are considered,

EXCEPT:

poorly maintained lifeboats

and/or lifesaving

equipments

Guidelines for PSCO under the 1969 Tonnage Convention for the

purpose of Solas 74 apply to ships whose keel were laid before

______.

Jan. 1, 1986

Survival crafts are installed so that abandonment should be possible

even if the ship is listed to how many degrees? 20 degrees

Under the Solas Convention, when a ship at its deepest draft and

running one half of its service speed, shall be capable of putting the

rudder 15 degrees from one side to 15 degrees on the other side in

not more than:

60 seconds

What is the time limit a person can remain in an atmosphere of less

than 15% oxygen while using a fresh air breathing apparatus? indefinite

Which of the lifeboat parts must be painted bright red? releasing gear

Under the Convention On The High Seas, freedom of the High

Seas is exercised by rules of international law and comprises the

following, inter alia, EXCEPT:

freedom of any State to

naval exercise more than 12

miles off the territorial

limits of another state

The owner of ship registered in a contracting State shall maintain

insurance of other financial security if she carries a cargo of oil in

bulk more than___.

2,000 tons

The International Convention on Tonnage Measurement of Ships,

1969, applies to: new ships

Guidelines for PSCO under the 1969 Tonnage Convention apply to

new ships, i.e. ships whose keel were laid on or after 18 July 1982

came into force in ______.

1982

What ILO Convention/Recommendations require the competent

authority to closely supervise all enlistment and employment and to

license or otherwise regulate private enlistment and employment

services, which operate within its territory?

Recruitment and Placement

of Seafarers Convention,

1996

Which of the following concerning the jurisdiction of UNCLOS

?82 in maritime matters is CORRECT?

it establishes the basic

features in the

implementation of safety

regulations

Under Solas Reg. V/20, passenger ships and ships other than

passenger ships of ______ and upwards constructed on or after 3,000 GRT

2002 must carry voyage date recorders (VDRs) to assist in accident

investigation.

Under Chapter III of Solas ?74, the Maritime Safety adopted the

International Life Saving Appliance Code in ______. June 1996

The compliance of ISPS Code becomes mandatory on _____ as per

provisions of Chapter V and XI of Solas as amended. July 1, 2004

The International Life-Saving Appliance Code was made

mandatory under Solas by amendments to the Convention adopted

by the MSC and entered into force on _______.

July 1, 1998

Under the Convention with respect to collision, actions for

recovery of damages are barred after an interval of _____ from the

date of casualty.

2 years

Under the International Convention on Civil Liability for Oil

Pollution Damage, the loss or damage caused outside the ship by

contamination resulting from the escape or damage of oil from ship

is called _____.

pollution damage

When checking operational requirements, PSCO shall consider the

following EXCEPT: fire and abandon ship drills

Which of the listed routine test and inspections of life saving

appliances is NOT required by the regulations?

general emergency to be

tested daily

User of respiratory equipment must understand air consumption

under varying working conditions and strains. Which of the

following is TRUE on consumption with heavy work?

about 35 to 55 ltrs/min

A vessel?s tropical loadline is 6 inches above the summer loadline,

TPI 127 tons. She will arrive in the summer zone 8 days after

departure burning off about 27 tons fuel/day, water consumption 12

tons/day. How many tons can she load above her summer loadline

if she loads in the tropical zone?

472 tons

The International Life Saving Alliance Code was made mandatory

by Solas on: July 1, 1998

All life saving appliances on all ships shall not be damaged in

stowage throughout the air temperature range _______. -30 deg C to + 65 deg C

All lifebuoys shall not sustain burning or continue melting after

being totally enveloped in a fire for a period of ______. 2 seconds

A lifejacket shall have buoyancy which is not reduced by more

than _____ after 24 hours submersion in fresh water. 5 %

The following are among others to be entered in the Oil Record

Book for every tanker to be crude oil washed EXCEPT:

quantity of crude oil being

washed


book for every tanker to be crude oil washed EXCEPT:


washed

Which is NOT appropriate in the following entries in the Oil effluent discharge is less

Record Book with the discharge of dirty ballast? than 15 ppm

Which is not appropriate in the following entries in the Oil Record

Book with the discharge of dirty ballast?

effluent discharge is less

than 15 ppm

Which of the following is/are appropriate entry/entries during

accidental discharge of oil in the Oil Record Book? all of these

Which of the following is not an appropriate entry in the Oil

Record Book on loading of oil cargo? viscosity of oil

Which of the following is NOT to be entered in the Oil Record

Book on unloading of oil cargo?

date and time commenced

and finished

Which of the following are proper Oil Record Book entry/entries in

cleaning of cargo tanks? all of these

In the discharge of dirty ballast, which is/are to be entered in the

Oil Record Book? all of these

Among others, which entry/entries are appropriate in the Oil

Record Book in the discharge of water from slop tanks into the

sea?

all of these

Which is/are appropriate entry/entries in the Oil Record Book in

the disposal of residue and oily mixtures? all of these

Entries in the Cargo Record Book are required only for operations

involving category/ies ________ substances. A, B, C, D

Which of the following is/are appropriate entry/entries in the Cargo

Record Book on unloading of cargo? all of these

Which is/are appropriate entry/entries in the Cargo Record Book

during accidental discharge? all of these

Noxious liquid substances which if discharged into the sea from

tank cleaning or deballasting operations would present a major

hazard to marine resources or human health is categorized ______.

Category A

Noxious liquid substances which if discharged into the sea from

tank cleaning or deballasting operations would present a hazard to

marine resources or human health id categorized ________.

Category B

Noxious liquid substances which if discharged in to the sea from

tank cleaning or deballasting operations would present a minor

hazard to marine resources or human health is categorized

________.

Category C

Noxious liquid substances which of discharged into the sea from

tank cleaning or deballasting operations would present a

recognizable hazard to marine resources or human health is

categorized ________.

Category D

Contamination of the surface of the sea with oil residue behind

discharging ship depends initially on the following EXCEPT: viscosity of oil

IOPP certificate must be carried by tankers of at least _______. 150 GRT

IOPP certificate must be carried by ships other than tanker of at

least ______. 400 GRT

The instantaneous rate of discharge of oil content of any effluent

shall not exceed _____ liters per mile. 60

Before any ship can discharge any waste from its bilges containing

more than 15 ppm of oily residue, it must comply with the

following EXCEPT:

must be at least 50 n.m.

from the nearest coast

Before a vessel can pump oily water within a Special Area, it has to

comply with the following conditions EXCEPT:

it must be more than 12

miles from the nearest coast

The following operation will be entered in the Oil Record Book for

each and every time any vessel undertakes them EXCEPT:

bunkering, time of operation

and quantity

The following can be found as entries in the Oil Record Book for

the loading of oil cargo EXCEPT:

quantity and viscosity of oil

loaded

The following can be found as entries in the Oil Record Book for

unloading of oil cargo EXCEPT:

quantity and viscosity of oil

unloaded

Annex 1 of Marpol 73/78 Regulation came into force on ______. Oct. 2, 1983

Marpol 73/78 Annex III entered into force on ______. July 1, 1992

Marpol 73/78 Annex IV entered into force on ______. Sept. 27, 2003

Marpol 73/78 Annex V entered into force on ______. Dec. 31, 1988

Annex VI of Marpol 73/78 concerns _______. Prevention of Air Pollution

from Ships

Which of the following is a hazard associated with the water

washing of the cargo tanks and slop tanks containing residues of

certain substances which may produce dangerous reaction ?

reactivity

Which factor is to be considered in mixing residue /water mixtures

containing different substances? compatibility

Substances which are bio accumulated and liable to produce a

hazard to aquatic life or human health falls under ______. Category A

Substances which are practically non-toxic to aquatic life falls

under _____. Category D

What should be the speed of a self-propelled ship move through the

water to be considered enroute? 7 knots

What should be the speed of a non-self propelled ship move

through the water to be considered enroute? 4 knots

A vessel can discharge tank washings from noxious liquid

substances having complied with the requirement of at least 12

miles from the nearest land at a depth of:

25 meters

Any violation of the Marpol 73/78 Convention within the

jurisdiction of any Party to the Convention is punishable under the I & II

_______. I. law of the Party II. Law of the Flagstate

The pipeline from the suction point in a cargo tank to the shore

connection used for loading the cargo and includes all ship piping,

pump and filters is called ______.

associated piping

The minimum sopep requirements for oil dispersant to be carried

out for oil spill is: 200 liters

The minimum sopep requirements for oil dispersant to be carried

out during bunkering is: 13 liters

The minimum sopep requirements for sawdustto be carried out for

oil spill is: 100 kgs

The minimum sopep requirements for waste rags to be carried for


The minimum sopep requirements for absorbent to be carried for


Prevention of Air Pollution from Ships is contained in ______ of

Marpol 73/78. Annex VI

The Prevention of Air Pollution from Ships is adopted in ______. Sept. 1995

An IOPP shall be issued after survey in accordance with Reg. 4 of

Annex I of Marpol 73/78 to any cargo ship of _____ or more. 400 GRT

As per Reg. 26 of Annex I of Marpol 73/78, SOPEP shall be

carried to every oil tanker of _____ or more. 150 GRT

To reduce the oxygen content of the atmosphere in cargo tanks

during and after the discharge of cargo oil in order to eliminate risk

of explosion, a system is introduced called:

inert gas system

Category C under Reg. 3, Annex II of Marpol 73/78 refers to

noxious substances if and when discharged into the sea from

vessels, would present a minor environmental hazard and therefore

require:

special operational measure

Which need NOT be recorded in the Oil Record Book of a tanker?

the method used to

determine the oil content of

discharge not exceeding 100

ppm

As per Reg. 26 of Annex I of Marpol 73/78, SOPEP shall be

carried to every ship other than oil tanker of _____ or more. 400 GRT

Which of the following does NOT meet the purpose of SOPEP?

it must be in the English

language for everybody to

understand

Who is covering pollution liabilities? I. P & I Insurance II.

Shipowner I only

The International Convention for Oil Pollution Preparedness, May 13, 1995

Response and Cooperation 1990 took effect on ______.

On May 13, 1995, which Convention took effect?

International Convention for

Oil Pollution Preparedness,

Response & Cooperation

1990

Why is COW more efficient than water? because of the dissolving

property in crude

What is the dissolving effect in crude dependent on? type of oil

Why was COW made compulsory? to reduce amount of sludge

in cargo tanks

How would you reduce the amount of sludge in cargo tanks? by crude oil washing

The entry into force of the 1978 Protocol relating to the

International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution from ships

was ______.

Oct. 2, 1983

Marpol 73/78 Annex I & II entered into force on ______. Oct. 2, 1983

The Prevention of Air Pollution from Ships entered into force on

_____. May 19, 2005

The regulations in Annex VI of Marpol 73/78 sets limits in: I.

sulphur oxide and nitrogen emissions II. prohibits emissions of

ozone depleting substances

I & II

Which individualized teaching method makes use of workbooks,

teaching machines or computers? Programmed instruction

Which is supportive of the development of creative thinking? Brainstorming technique

Which does NOT go with an integrated teaching strategy? Isolated bits of information

One gives a quiz to his class after teaching a lesson. What does he

give? Formative test

Which is (are) NOT supportive of the development of creative

thinking? Open classroom atmosphere

Which term refers to a teacher helping a colleague grow

professionally? Technology transfer

For mastery of learning and in line with the Outcome-Based

Evaluation model which element should be present?

Construction of criterion-

referenced tests

Perrenialism advocates for the development of the cognitive

faculties. Which of the following teacher's objective taps higher

mental functioning?

Compare and contrast

butterflies from moths.

Which may work against collaborative teaching? "Knee-to-knee" seat

arrangement by group

What is an advantage of point system of grading? It is qualitative.

Which is (are) supportive of the development of creative thinking? Authoritarian teacher

Which statement on IQ test is WRONG ? measures fixed potential

The steps of the goal-oriented instructional model arranged in order

include

pre-assessment,

specification of objectives,

instruction, evaluation.

If we teach our trainees to think creatively, what do we encourage

them to do?

Do "outside-the-box"

thinking

What recent educational development relates with perennialism? Individualizing the learning

experience and activities

The variance, standard deviation, and range are all measures of partition values

Which process does NOT form part of creative thinking? Curiosity

For facts to be useful in research, it is best to _____. select, classify, and

summarize them

Which question demands the highest level of thinking? How should you present a

report in class?

With the gradations of objectives in the affective domain in mind,

under what level does "developing a consistent philosophy of life"

fall?

Characterization

Which is (are) supportive of the development of creative thinking? Convergent questions

With specific details in mind, which one(s) has (have) a stronger

diagnostic value?

Restricted and non-

restricted essay test

The concluding part of the three-level approach is the Facts level

Which teaching method is intended primarily for skill and concept

mastery by way of practice? Project

What psychological principle is invoked when a teacher connects

the new lesson to the one just completed so that the student may

gain a holistic view of the subject?

Conceptualization

Which does NOT hold true to collaborative learning?

Success of the group

depends on one diligent

student

A Teacher believes that every learner can be helped to achieve his

full potential and so functions effectively in society when we

satisfy his needs. On what theory(ies) is the Teacher's belief based?

Cognitive psychology

Which questioning practice will promote more class interaction? Asking rhetorical questions

What functions are associated with the left brain? Verbal, visual, intuitive

The teacher gives indigenous achievement test to his 25 students.

The test consists of 50 items. He wants to classify his students'

performance based on the test result. What is the appropriate

measure of central tendency?

Mean

Which method is "hands-on,minds-on" learning? Unit method

Which of the following activities is the LEAST brain-compatible? Detecting error in the

computer program.

The "mastery learner" learns best from ____. debates

Which items do not affect the variability of test scores? Test items that every

examinee gets correctly

With social development in mind, which is most effective? Puzzle

To develop scientific thinking and problem-solving skills which

activity will be most appropriate? Role play

In the parlance of test construction what does TOS mean? Table of Specifications

I want to diagnose my student's difficulties in written

communication skills. Which one should I use? Short written response

Which role(s) does the teacher play when he sets desirable learning

activities for the individual learner and takes the responsibility of

matching available resources with the needs of each learner?

Counselor and consultant of

learning

Concurrent validity requires peer consultation

Which of the following has as its strength immediate feedback? Laboratory method

Which instructional material is closest to direct experience? Film showing

Which is a sound classroom management practice?

Avoid establishing routines;

routines make your students

robots.

I want my students to identify the strengths and weaknesses of an

event. Which one will I direct them to use? Compare/Contrast matrix

Which holds true to norm-reference testing?

Comparing individual's

performance to the average

performance of a group.

Which questioning practice promotes more class interaction? Asking rhetorical questions

With the linguistically intelligent group in mind, which activity is

least effective? Manipulative

The "self-expressive learner" learns best from ___. lectures

Student B claims: "I cannot see perfection but I long for it so it

must be real." Under which group can he be classified? Pragmatist

A good classroom manager has "eyes on the back of her head."

This means that the effective teacher _____.

gives penetrating looks to

his students

Which is a characteristic of developmentally inappropriate practice

type of education? Contextual learning

Below is a list of methods used to establish the reliability of the

instrument. Which method is questioned for its reliability due to

practice and familiarity?

Test - retest

With individualized teaching strategies as point of reference, which

does not belong to the group? Independent study

Familiarization onboard includes the following EXCEPT: getting used to emergency

exits, where they lead to

Fire fighting exercise is to be held on board the vessel at least

_______. monthly

Basically there are three stages in the task of organizing a training

program, which of the following stages is NOT involved? monitoring stage

During abandon ship drill, PSCO should observe the following

EXCEPT:

sounding the correct alarm

signals

What information must be entered in a Station Bill? duties and station of each

person during emergencies

A fire and boat drill on a tanker shall, by regulation, include

_______. all of these

What is the emergency alarm signal as specified in SOLAS? continuous ringing of the

alarm bells

Onboard training in the use of davit-launched liferafts shall take

place at intervals of not more than ______. 4 months

You are on board a vessel that carries liquefied gas in bulk. The

person on watch is required to have what information about the

cargo easily accessible?

fire fighting procedures

During an emergency, the Master considers it necessary to order all

non-essential personnel off the ship. Which group, if at all possible,

to remain on board and deal with the emergency?

the emergency squad

A passenger vessel must have an emergency squad when ______. the size of the crew permits

At the sound of the lifeboat alarm, the following should be done,

EXCEPT:

stop working immediately

and secure your working

place

Which poses a danger to safety, property and environment? all of these

This is a kind of Terminal Performance Objectives which specify

what the Trainee should be able to apply in their workplace when

the training is completed.

Job Behavior Objectives

This is a particular learning scope for instructional objective which

is concerned with how a trainee controls or moves his body. Psychomotor Objective

This is a particular scope for instructional objective which deals

with how a trainee should do about something in relation to the

training program.

affective objective

At the lifeboat station, the following shall be done, EXCEPT:

help facilitate for the

immediate lowering of

lifeboat

A kind of teaching-learning principle where the trainee must

proceed step by step and each step must be known in some way graduate sequence

more difficult than the previous step.

In determining training needs which of the following ways is used

when the trainor simply lists down all subjects that may possibly be

of help to the personnel concerned?

survey

The government authority primarily responsible for the

enforcement and ensuring that only competent, properly trained

and duly licensed masters, pilots and seafarers are allowed to board

and man ships of Philippine registry is _______.

PCG

All non-containerized foreign cargoes imported, exported or

transshipped through a government-owned wharf shall be charged

_______.

wharfage fee on the basis of

the total metric or revenue

tonnage

Non-containerized foreign cargoes imported, exported or

transshipped through a government-owned wharf shall be charged

_______.

wharfage fee on the basis of

the total metric or revenue

tonnage

The Training Record Book of Deck Cadets has been developed and

published by the:

International Shipping

Federation

Yachts/pleasure crafts staying at a registered marina that comply

with PPA rules on private ports shall not be liable to payment of: domestic dockage fee

Vessels exempted from paying ______ are yachts/pleasure crafts

staying at a registered marina that comply with PPA rules on

private ports.

domestic dockage fee

The Training Record Book of Deck Cadets has been developed and

published by the:

International Shipping

Federation

Idle vessels occupying dockside berth at any government port

despite a shifting order from the Port Manager to give way to an

incoming vessel shall be charged of:

300% of dockage fee for

foreign vessels

How much shall idle ships be charged occupying dockside berth at

any government port despite a shifting order from the Port

Manager to give way to incoming vessel?


foreign vessels

Which of the following are idle ships charged occupying dockside

berth despite of a shifting order by the Port Manager to give way to

an incoming vessel?


foreign vessels

Pursuant to Reg. 1/6 Par 1 of PMMRR, the inspection of fire

fighting and life saving appliances shall be done ________. annually

Dockage at berth is charged at any port of call per GRT per

calendar day or fraction thereof provided that a maximum 0f

50,000 GRT shall be used, at a government port US$ 0.039/GRT;

at a private port officially registered with PPA US$ 0.020/GRT or

fraction thereof to: I. vessels engaged in foreign trade II. vessels

engaged in barter trade III. vessels engaged in domestic trade

I & II

Chapter XVIII of the PMMRR requires that the Master of fishing Minor Patron

vessels engaged in coastwise voyage 150 t0 250 gross tonnage

should at least be a licensed _______.

Under Phil, regulations the scheduled drydocking of classed ships

may be extended to a period not exceeding ______. 6 months

Classed ships under Philippine regulations may extend its

drydocking for a period not exceeding _______. 6 months

Yachts/pleasure crafts from 6 GRT to 100 GRT calling at

government ports shall be liable to the payment of domestic

dockage fee at ______.

P40.00 per calendar day

How much dockage fee shall yachts/pleasure crafts from 6 GRT to

100 GRT calling at government ports are charged? P40.00 per calendar day

Category A high speed crafts as defined by Reg. XVII/2 of the

PMMRR, are passenger crafts carrying not more than _________

passengers.

450

Which law created the Philippine Ports Authority? P.D.857

The law creating the Philippine Ports Authority was ______. P.D. 857

This is gross tonnage less ?deducted spaces? which are

theoretically non-carrying spaces. registered tonnage

Gross Tonnage less ?deducted spaces? which are theoretically non-

carrying spaces is: registered tonnage

Chapter XVIII of the PMMRR requires that the master of a cargo

vessel engaged in coastwise voyage of 500 to 999 GRT should at

least be a licensed ______.

Second Mate

Which of the following are categorized as Category 2 under

Philippine regulations?

vessels whose travel time

between ports is less than 4

hours

The distance between the waterline and the top of the keel is the

_______. moulded draft

As defined in the PMMRR, the tonnage measured in accordance

with the International Tonnage convention 1969 and for ships of

less than 24 meters in length is called:

gross tonnage

The Training Record Book shall be used by Deck Cadets for

attaining experience in applying the knowledge provided in college

and covers required training for:

Officer In Charge of

Navigational Watch

Deck Cadets use the Training Record Book for attaining experience

in applying the knowledge provided in college and covers required

training for ______.

Officer In Charge of

Navigational Watch

To which of the following that dockage at berth is charged, that

berth at any port of call per GRT per calendar day or fraction

thereof provided that a maximum of 50,000 GRT shall be used, at a

government port US$ 0.039/GRT, at a private port officially

I & II

registered with PPA US$ 0.020/GRT or fraction thereof: I. vessels

engaged in foreign trade II. vessels engaged in barter trade III.

vessels engaged in domestic trade

Under MARINA, all STCW certificates shall have 5 years validity

period. MARINA may issue a provisional certificate with a validity

period of not more than year in cases such as, EXCEPT:

loss of eyesight

Which of the following PPA MC covers ? Guidelines and

Documentation of Domestic Container Cargoes at South Harbor,

Manila?

No.4 ? 2003

Which document is issued by the port authority detailing the

amount of dues paid or payable? Tonnage Dues Slip

Under R.A.8981, the PRC is a _______. 3-man commission

The PRC under R.A.8981 is a _______. 3-man commission

Non-classed ships scheduled drydocking may be extended but not

to exceed ______. 3 months

Under Philippine regulations, which of the following falls under

Category 2?

vessels whose travel time

between ports is less than 4

hours

Which of the following vessels falls under Category under

Philippine regulations?

those with less than 4 hours

travel time between ports

Vessels for drydocking or repair at any duly authorized drydocking

shipyard facilities shall be exempted from _______. dockage/usage fee

Which of the following is a vessel not charged when drydocking or

having repair at any duly authorized drydocking shipyard facilities? dockage/usage fee

A vessel is not charged ______ during drydocking or undergoing

repairs at any authorized shipyard facilities. dockage/usage fee

MARINA M.C. 1-75 mandates that ______.

all vessels entering and

leaving port or harbor of

Philippine jurisdiction shall

submit to MARINA a copy

of Cargo Manifest of all

cargoes on board

Which of the following is mandated by MARINA M.C. 1-75?

all vessels entering port or

harbor of Philippine

jurisdiction shall submit to

MARINA a copy of Cargo

Manifest of all cargoes on

board

Pursuant to Reg. I/6 of the PMMRR, the inspection of firefighting

and lifesaving appliances shall be done _______. annually

According to Philippine regulations, the inspection of firefighting annually

and lifesaving appliance shall be done ______.

The minimum safe manning as provided for in Chapter XVIII of

PMMRR is assessed on a case to case basis _______. I. upon

request of the company II. upon request of the vessel subject to

approval of the Company III. upon request of the Master

I only

MARINA Circular No.171 mandates that all Masters and Chief

Mates employed on Philippine flag vessels of less than 500 GRT

plying domestic trades must take recurrency training every

_______.

3 years

The recurrency training which MARINA mandates under Circular

No.171 for Masters and Chief Mates employed on Philippine Flag

vessels of less than 500 GRT plying the Domestic trades must take

place every _______.

3 years

This is the proper agency tasked to impose administrative fines/fees

for violation of the International Convention on STCW as

amended.

Board of Marine Deck

Officers/Engine Officers

Which of the following is tasked to impose administrative

fines/fees for violation of the International Convention on STCW

as amended?

Board of Marine Deck

Officers/Engine Officers

A passenger/cargo or cargo vessel intended to ply Philippine waters

and shall be classified by a government recognized classification

society prior to its operation in domestic shipping shall not exceed

________ from the date of launching.

15 years

In domestic trade where a ship has a voyage duration of over 12

hours, how many passengers are there on board if there is one

medical practitioner and one paramedic onboard?

over 2,000

In domestic trade where a ship has a voyage duration of 12 hours

and there are over 2,000 passengers on board, which of the

following shall she carry?

one medical practitioner and

one paramedic

The Administration requires all ships registered in the Philippines

except hose mentioned in Chapter I, Reg. I/3 of the PMMRR, the

following certificates EXCEPT:

Certificate of Registration

Which of the following agencies manages the port district? Port Management Services

Port Districts are managed by _______. Port Management Services

Pursuant to MARINA M.C. 152, passenger/passenger cargo

classed ships shall be drydocked twice within a period of

________.

5 years

Passenger/passenger cargo classed ships are required under

MARINA M.C. 158 to be drydocked twice within a period of

_______.

5 years

Which of the following agencies manages the port district? Port Management Services

Port Districts are managed by _______. Port Management Services

Pursuant to MARINA M.C. 152, passenger/passenger cargo

classed ships shall be drydocked twice within a period of

________.

5 years

Passenger/passenger cargo classed ships are required under

MARINA M.C. 158 to be drydocked twice within a period of

_______.

5 years

Under the Domestic Shipping ACT, a Filipino who intends to

import vessel/s with a minimum of 150 GRT and/or spare parts

shall be exempted from the payment of all import duties and taxes

for a period of _______.

20 years

Under R.A.8981, the chairperson of the Philippine Regulation

Commission: I. shall be at least 40 years old II. has had at least 5

years of executive and management experience

neither I nor II,


offices EXCEPT: Maritime Regional Office

The maritime industry is served by MARINA through the

following offices EXCEPT: Maritime Regional Office

Dockage at berth is charged to which of the following, that berth at

any port of call per GRT per calendar day or fraction thereof

provided that a maximum of 50,000 GRT shall be used, at a

government port US$ 0.030/GRT; at a private port officially

registered with PPA US$ 0.020/GRT or fraction thereof. I. vessels

engaged in foreign trade II. vessels engaged in barter trade III.

vessels engaged in domestic trade

I & II

As stipulated in the revised PMMRR, ships not classed shall be dry

docked every: 2 years

For mastery of learning in line with the Outcome-Based Evaluation

model, which element should be present?

construction of criterion-

reference tests

Which of the following PPA M.C. covers the ?Regulation on the

Proper Marking and Labeling of Dangerous Cargoes? No.25 ? 2002

The Regulation on the Proper Marking and Labeling of Dangerous

Cargoes is embodied in PPA M.C. _______. No.25 - 2002

PPA M.C. No.25 ? 2002 covers the ______.

Regulation on the Proper

Marking and Labeling of

Dangerous Cargoes

Which of the following M.C. created the Qualification Document

Certificate? M.C. 164

If a Philippine flag vessel becomes involved in a collision, a report

must be made out to the ________ upon arrival in a Philippine port. PCG

A report must be made to the _______ upon arrival in a Philippine PCG

port if a Philippine flag vessel is involved in a collision.

To which government agency should you submit a report upon

arrival in a Philippine port if your vessel which flies a Philippine

flag is involved in a collision?

PCG

All vessels over 500 GRT should carry radar. This

recommendation comes from: RCH Code

Radar is a requirement on vessels of 500 GRT and above. This

recommendation is under: RCH Code

All tankers under OPA 90 are required to carry on board spill

recovery equipment of sufficient capacity to _______. accomodate oil spill on deck

Recurrency training of Masters and Chief Officers engaged on

ships below 500 GRT in the domestic trade is embodied in

MARINA _______.

M.C. 171

Masters and Chief Officers engaged on ships below 500 GRT in

the domestic trade are required to have a recurrency training

embodied in MARINA _______.

M.C. 171

For ships below 500 GRT engaged in the domestic trade, Masters

and Chief Officers are required to have a recurrency training under

MARINA ______.

M.C. 171

Under R.A.8544, a chairperson of the PRC is appointed by the

President of the Philippines. Which of the following statement is

correct?

must be a former member of

any board of PRC

_______ refers to the territorial jurisdiction under the control,

supervision or ownership of the Philippine Ports Authority. Port Zone Limits

Which of the following refers to the territorial jurisdiction under

the control, supervision or ownership of the Philippine Ports

Authority?

Port Zone Limits

The territorial jurisdiction under the control, supervision or

ownership of the PPA is referred to as _______. Port Zone Limits

Which of the following agencies is responsible for the markings on

loadlines of Phil. Flag vessels?



Art. 19 Sec. 17 of ITU Radio Rules allocated additional call signs

to the Phils. Which of the following call sign is assigned? 4DA-4IZ

A Phil. Flag vessel which is not normally engaged in international

voyage but which is required to undertake a single voyage in

exceptional circumstances may be exempted from the requirements

of SOLAS 74/78 provided the ship__________.

adopts safety requirements

that MARINA considers

adequate for the voyage.

What Section of R.A. 8544 defines the grounds for suspension and

revocation of COR and COC? Section 24

I.T.U. Radio Reg. 12-1-1 provides that every ship while at sea,

shall maintain a continuous watch on VHF DSC channel 70, in GMDSS

accordance with the requirement of Reg. 7.1.2, she must be fitted

with _____________.

What survey is required of a ship which includes inspection of

equipment to ensure that the ship is complying with the

requirements of the PMMRR/97?

Renewal Survey

Regulation � Para. 93 of PMMRR/97, defines which of the

following routes? short international voyages

What is the tonnage of vessels that are qualified for exemption

from VAT on the importations and local purchase of passenger

and/or cargo vessels including engine and spare parts of said

vessels?

150 tons and above




following training courses in the Philippines is not made part of the

requirement for COC?

Practical Ship handling






Personnel Management







Training






Computer Literacy

To be exempted from VAT upon importation, the age limit

requirement is:


vessels

For non-classed passenger/passenger cargo ships dry docking

maybe extended on a monthly basis but not to exceed

_______________.

3 months

If a Phil. Flag vessel engaged in domestic trade is required to


may be exempted from the requirement of SOLAS 74/78 provided

the ship ________.




The agency which prescribes the routes, zones or areas of

operations of domestic ship operators is ________. MARINA

All domestic ship operators shall have the ________to provide and

sustain safe, reliable, efficient and economic passenger or cargo

service, or both.

financial capacity

The size of beds in the first class section of inter-island passenger

vessels should be at least ________. 6 x 2 ft

Tugboats, dredgers and anchor handling vessels engaged in

coastwise voyage between 35 and 100 gross tonnage as required by

Chapter XVIII of the PMMRR have a manning requirement which

comprises ________.

2 deck and 2 engine

personnel

High speed crafts under Category A as defined by Reg. XVII/2 of

the PMMRR, are passenger crafts carrying not more than ______

passengers.

450

Which of the following certificates is NOT issued by the Phil.

Coast Guard?

Classification of Hull and

Machinery

MC 40-2002 of PPA pertains to _______of Harbor Pilots rendering

pilotage service to vessels. Performance

Ships documented in the Phils. shall be assigned a/an


Master Mariners in the Philippines are issued COCs that should

demonstrate theory of operation of the ship mainly from a safety

and legal points of view. Which of the following training courses (

in the Philippines ) is not made part of the requirement for COC?


Training

Master Mariners in the Philippines are issued COCs that should

demonstrate theory of operation of the ship mainly from a safety

and legal points of view. Which of the following training courses (

in the Philippines ) is not made part of the requirement for COC?

Practical Shiphandling

Filipino seafarers have legal rights coming from two primary

sources: the POEA Contract of Employment and the _______.

Migrant Workers and

Overseas Filipino Act of

1995

To register his ship under Philippine Registry the ship owner must

secure first:


Number

Tanker vessels of 250-500 GRT that are on limited coastwise

operation, which of the following can act as Master? Third Mate

There are how many toilets and bathrooms are required under

MARINA Reg. 65 for Philippine Inter-island vessels?

1 per 50 passengers separate

from men and

women/children

For the rank of Master for a Philippine registered passenger vessel

between 1000 ? 1599 gross tons engaged in coastwise trade the

minimum license required is:

Chief Mate

PMMRR Chapter XVII requires that the master of tugboat of

between100 and 250 gross tonnage engaged in coastwise voyage second mate or major patron

should be at least a licensed:

The policy limiting the right to engage in Philippine Coastwise

Trade to be limited to vessels carrying a certificate of Philippine

Registry is called _______.

Cabotage

Vessels engaged in the domestic trade carrying 500 to 2000

passengers and having 12 hours or less voyage duration shall carry

______.

one registered nurse or

midwife

The minimum size required before a vessel can be documented in

the Philippines is: 5 net tons

The floor area per person of 3,000 GRT and above for officers shall

not be less than: 7.5 sqm

A Philippine registered vessel shall fly the national flag _____. at all times

Field offices which deliver frontline services and are organized into

semi-autonomous units of MARINA are the _______. Port District Offices

The maritime industry is served by MARINA through the

following offices EXCEPT: Board of Marine Inquiry

Which formulates, recommends and continuously evaluates and

analyzes the broad policies and guidelines, plans and programs of

MARINA for the promotion and development of the maritime

industry?

Planning and Policy Office

Which formulates, develops and maintains information systems to

support promotion, development, regulation and supervision

activities of the Authority and monitoring systems on the

implementation of plans, programs, policies and guidelines.

Management Information

systems Office

The existing SOLAS Chapter V was written in 1974 and came into

force in: 1980

When did the SOLAS Chapter V which was written in 1974 came

into forc3e? 1980

As per ILO Convention No.86 Sec. 9 0f 1990, what is the validity

of PEME if not employed onboard? 3 months

Standards regarding special training requirements for personnel on

roro/passenger ships are contained in _______ of the STCW

Convention

Chapter V

Periodic surveys of all oil tankers and every other vessel issued

IOPP certificate is required at intervals not exceeding _______ to

ensure that the structure, equipment, fitting arrangement and

material fully comply with the requirements of Marpol73/78.

5 years

The Master was up for almost 19 hours in a particular 24-hour

period due to emergency and communication with the home office.

Which is TRUE in regards to rest period? I. Rest period is not

applicable to the Master II. The Master did not meet the prescribed

I only

rest period III. The master should have met the required rest period

if he had 10 hours of rest

The user of respiratory equipment consumes air engaged in heavy

work _______. about 30 to 35 ltrs/min

The consumption of air for a user of respiratory equipment engaged

in heavy work is: about 30 to 35 ltrs/min

Under what chapter of the STCW as amended are the

watchkeeping arrangements and principles to be observed is

defined?

A ? VIII/1

The International Life-Saving Appliance Code was adopted by the

Maritime Safety Committee in June 1996 by its Resolution

_______.

MSC .48 (66)

The IMO Maritime Safety Committee adopted the International

Life-Saving Appliance Code in June 1966 by its Resolution

_______.

MSC .48(66)

The comprised amendment 2 (2001) of the present STCW Code

was adopted by the Maritime Safety Committee in _______. Dec. 1998

The Maritime Safety Committee adopted the comprised

amendment 2 (2001) to the present STCW Code in _______. Dec. 1998

ISPS enhances maritime safety under the SOLAS Convention. It

was adopted by IMO in _______. Dec. 2002

IMO adopted the ISPS to enhance maritime safety in _______. Dec. 2002

As provided for in Chapter 4 of the Code on Noise Level on Board

ships, what is noise level limit for a continuously manned

machinery space?

90 decibels (A)

The North Pacific Winter Seasonal Zone applied for the period

______. Oct. 16 to April 15

Which of the following period is applied to the North Pacific

Winter Seasonal Zone? Oct. 16 to April 15

The status information of AIS is updated every ______. 6 minutes

AIS updates the status information every _______. 6 minutes

The amendment 2 of the STCW Convention entered into force on

______. Jan. 2003

When did the amendment 2 of the STCW Convention entered into

force? Jan. 2003

The validity of PEME if not employed onboard according to ILI

Convention is: 3 months

How much can the AIS broadcast mode be overloaded without any

significant operational effects? 400-500 %

Guidance regarding fitness for duty preventing fatigue is defined B-VIII/1

under what Section (chapter) of the STCW as amended?

Which of the following concerning the jurisdiction of UNCLOS

?82 in maritime matters is CORRECT?

it establishes the basic

features in the

implementation of TSS

The following are TRUE regarding PSCO inspections EXCEPT:

inspections are carried out

specifically to confirm

compliance with the ISM

Code

AIS standards include the following EXCEPT: transmitter specifications

When was the IMO carriage requirement for AIS according to

SOLAS chapter V became effective? July 1, 2002

The IMO carriage requirement for AIS took effect on _______. July 1, 2002

AIS is required to be carried by IMO with the latest changes to

SOLAS Chapter V and became effective on ______. July 1, 2002

When was ILO Convention No.185 adopted? June 2003

The ILO Convention No.185 was adopted in ______. June 2003

The OOW was on 12-4 watch. At 0830, it was announced that one

crew was missing. The Master ordered all officers to be on upper

decks to pose as lookouts while he reversed the course. The search

was given up at 1900 hrs when darkness set in. Which is TRUE? I.

the OOW met the requirements of rest period II. the OOW did not

meet the requirements of rest period III. the OOW fell short of 1

hour to meet the requirements of rest period

I only

Deck hands were on deck works at 0800 hours and a break time

from 1200 ? 1300 Hours. Earlier past midnight, the ship docked

and the deck crew maneuvered from 0030-0230 hours. At 1800

Hrs, a leak was discovered in Hatch No.1 when the ship started to

list. Deck hands and Engineers took part in patching the leak,

finished at 2400 hours. Which is TRUE? I. deck hands met the

requirements of rest period II. deck hands did not meet the

requirements of rest period III. deck hands had exactly 10 hours

rest period

I only

How many loadlines are considered permanent where weather

conditions are similar throughout the year? two

What is the first thing that a Port State Control Team do after

having reported to the Master and informed of their visit?

ensure that certificates of

those onboard are valid

How are watertight doors classified in SOLAS? Class 3

Watertight doors are classified in SOLAS as ______. Class 3

Seafarers performing support duties on keeping a safe watch are

tested by Port State control to determine _______.

their ability to perform

standard duties in keeping

the ship seaworthy

Which certificate covers the machinery casings? Loadline Certificate

Which organization sponsored and coordinated the development of

AIS? IALA

The organization that sponsored and coordinated the development

of AIS is the: IALA

As provided for in Chapter 4 of the Code on Noise Levels on Board

ships, what is the maximum acceptable sound pressure levels at

which ship personnel entering spaces should be required to wear

ear protection?

85 decibels (A)

Fitness for duty to all persons assigned forming part of a watch

shall be provided with 10 hours of rest in any 24 hours period.

Under what Section (Chapter) of the STCW as amended is this?

A-VIII/I

Standards set for AIS are guided by the following criteria,

EXCEPT: quality of output data

Training of personnel on passenger ship is under what Resolution

of STCW Convention? 6

At the time that the Loadline Convention Agreement went into

force, pleasure yachts and existing vessels of ______ were also

exempted.

150 GRT

Lifebuoys shall withstand a drop into the water from the height at

which it is stowed above the waterline in the lightest sea condition

or a height of ______.

30 meters

The intermediate survey must be conducted _______. during validity of the IOPP

certificate

What is the highest technical body of IMO? Maritime Safety Committee

This is known as the 1988 SOLAS Protocol. International Conference on

Seafarer?s Certificate

Certificates and endorsements are contained in which regulation of

the STCW Convention? Regulation I/2

Under the Lisbon Rules on Collision, which of the following is

FALSE?

in the event of a vessel

being a total loss, the

claimant shall be entitled to

damages equal to the

original price of the vessel

As per IMO Convention, what is the validity of PEME if not

employed on board? 3 months

Seagoing service according to STCW Convention means ______.

service onboard relevant to

the issue of a certificate or

other qualifications

According to STCW Convention, seagoing service means ______. service onboard relevant to

the issue of a certificate or

other qualifications

The ILO Convention for Medical Care and sickness Benefits was

adopted in: 1969

The SOLAS Protocol 1978 entered into force on ______. May 1, 1981

When did the SOLAS Protocol 1978 entered into force? May 1, 1981

The use of portable electric lights on petroleum product tankers are

allowed on which of the following conditions?

they can be used only when

the tank is gas free

The user of respiratory equipment consumes air engaged in heavy

work _______. about 30 to 35 ltrs/min

If the user of a respiratory equipment consumes 30 to 35 ltrs/min,

he is engaged in: heavy work

The objective/s of AIS is/are the following: security of navigation

Which of the following is/are the objective/s of AIS? security of navigation

Which of the following is NOT the objective of AIS? I. security of

navigation II. safety of life at sea III. safety and efficiency of

navigation

II & III

Which of the following is the objective of AIS? I. security of


navigation

I only

AIS updates every ______. 2 seconds

As provided for in Chapter 4 of the Code on Noise Level on Board

Ships, what is the noise level limit for navigating bridge and chart

room?

65 decibels (A)

Which of these statements is TRUE?

pre-sea medical

examination is more

stringent than periodic

medical examination

The following statements are FALSE EXCEPT:

pre-sea medical

examination is more


medical examination

Which of the following statements is FALSE? all of these

The North Pacific Winter Seasonal Zone applied for the period: October 16 to April 15

Which period covers the North Pacific Winter Seasonal Zone? October 16 to April 15

The Master was for almost 19 hours in a particular day due to an

emergency and communication with the home office. Which is

TRUE to rest period? I. Rest period is not applicable to the Master

II. The Master did not meet the rest period III. The Master should

have met the rest period if he had 10 hours of rest

I only

Which regulation of SOLAS are passengers and other ships of Reg. V/20

3,000 GRT and upwards are obliged to carry voyage data recorders

(VDR)?

In the use of simulators, what is mandatory in the context of STCW

Convention? I. Radar II. Arpa III. Ship Simulator and Bridge

Teamwork

I & II

ILO Convention No.185 was adopted in June 2003 and went into

force on ______. Feb. 9, 2005

When was ILO Convention No.185 enforced? Feb. 9, 2005

The following should be observed by the PSCO in determining safe

manning of a ship EXCEPT:

the capability to operate

equipments in case of an

emergency

AIS standards include the following EXCEPT: Transmitter specifications

The periodical inspection in connection with the ship?s Loadline

Certificate is held:

3 months after the

anniversary date of the

completion of initial survey

Each inflatable liferafts on vessels on international voyage shall

have a carrying capacity of NOT less than _____.

6% nor more than 25

persons

The carrying capacity of inflatable liferafts on vessels on

international voyage shall NOT be less than _______.

6 % nor more than 25

persons

The loadline zone for ships over 100 GRT in the Baltic is always

______. summer

Ships over 100 GRT in the Baltic have a loadline zone for

_______. summer

The Carriage of Grain Cargo in Bulk come under what

international Regulations? SOLAS 74, Chapter VI

For a more detailed inspection, PSCO checks the following

EXCEPT:

competency of officers and

crew on board

All life saving appliances on all ships shall not be damaged in

stowage throughout the temperature range _______. -30 deg C to + 65 deg C

EDCS means ______ Electronic Data Collection

System

The carriage of EDCS is mandatory. What is this? Electronic Data Collection

System

EDCS was implemented on ______. July 1, 2000

What is the period of validity of a Cargo Ship Safety Equipment? 2 years

When was the EDCS implemented? July 1, 2000

EDCS means ______. Electronic Data Collecting

System

The EDCS was implemented on ________. July 1, 2000

In controlling abandon ship drills, PSCO checks that each survival

craft be in a state of continuous readiness so that 2 crew members

can carry out preparations for embarking and launching in less than

______.

5 minutes

PSCO during abandon ship drills checks that each survival craft be

in a state of continuous readiness so that 2 crew can carry out

preparations for embarking and launching in less than _______.

5 minutes

Liferaft shall be so constructed that when it is dropped into the

water from a height of _________, the liferaft and its equipment

will operate satisfactorily.

18 meters

Ship?s name shall be printed in each of the following EXCEPT: portable fire extinguishers

In each of the following, ship?s name shall be printed EXCEPT: portable fire extinguishers

The IMO carriage requirement for AIS became effective with the

latest changes to SOLAS _______ on July 1, 2002. Chapter V

AIS carriage requirement became effective on July 1, 2002 with the

latest changes to SOLAS _______. Chapter V

The conduct of underwater inspection is specified in the _______. Class Survey Report

In which of the following is the underwater inspection specified? Class Survey Report

The International Life Saving Appliance Code was made

mandatory by SOLAS on: July 1, 1998




service, which operate within its territory? I. Enlistment and

Employment of Seafarers Convention, 1991 II. Recruitment and

Placement of Seafarers Convention, 1996 III. Recruitment,

Placement and Employment of Seafarers Convention, 1991

I only

Which of the following world organizations prepares and publishes

international test standards for electrical, electronic and related

equipment?

International

Electotechnical Commission

Under the Labour Convention, what is the floor area of mess rooms

for officers and for ratings of the planned seating capacity?

not less than 1 square meter

per person

The maximum headroom in all crew accommodations where there

can be full, free and comfortable movement of the crew according

to ILO is _______.

198 cm

What would be the maximum headroom in all crew

accommodations where there can be full, free and comfortable

movement of the crew according to ILO?

198 cm

Radio Communication and Radio Personnel are contained in

______ of the STCW ?95. Chapter IV

Practical test under the STCW Convention as amended is required Reg. I/6

to be carried out under the immediate supervision of an assessor

duly qualified as required in:


Which survey shall every oil tanker of 150 GRT or more are

subjected not exceeding 5 years? classification

What paraffin-based hydrocarbon is used for metal cutting and

flame welding? propane

The paraffin-based hydrocarbon used for metal cutting and flame

welding is ______. propane

For metal cutting and flame welding, the paraffin-based

hydrocarbon used is: propane

In applying the principles to be observed in determining the safe

manning of a ship, the PSCO should take into account the

following onboard functions, when applicable EXCEPT:

fire and emergency signals

What is NOT included in the information provided by AIS? fixed

The following are some of the information provided by AIS

EXCEPT: fixed


purpose of SOLAS 74 apply to ships whose keel were laid before

_______.

Jan. 1, 1986

PSCO?s guidelines under the 1969 Tonnage Convention for the


_______.

Jan. 1, 1986

Which International Convention governs the ISPS Code? SOLAS

In an emergency, a hole in the hull below the waterline, not over 3

inches in diameter, can be temporarily sealed by ______. using a soft wooden plug


recommendations comes from: RCH Code

Radar is a requirement on vessels of 500 GRT and above This

recommendation is under: RCH Code


recommendations comes from: RCH Code

The requirement to carry Radar on vessels of 500 GRT and above

is under: RCH Code

Which of the following information is NOT included in AIS? rate of approach

The empty weight of a 100-lb cylinder in a fixed CO2 fire

extinguishing system is 130 lbs. What is the minimum acceptable

weight of the cylinder before recharging would be required?

220 lbs

In a fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system, what is the minimum

weight of a cylinder before recharging is required? 220 lbs

The Code for the Construction and Equipment of Ship Carrying

Dangerous Chemicals in Bulk became mandatory when Marpol

73/78 and SOLAS is also known is:

IBC Code

All ships and their machinery must be surveyed at prescribed

intervals or special survey normally being held at an interval of

________.

4 years

The UN number assigned to a hazardous cargo represents

________.

only specified cargo and is

unique to it

What would the UN number assigned to a hazardous cargo

represent?


unique to it

Which part of the 1978 STCW Convention has not been amended

by the 1995 STCW Convention as farther amended? The Articles

Which of the following articles of the STCW Convention is

considered as the "backbone" of the Convention? Article I

In reference is made to STCW regulation II/2, what does the roman

numeral stands for? Chapter

What chapter of the 1995 STCW Convention concerns the master

and deck department? II

When reference is made to Regulation I/6, what does the Arabic

number stands for? Regulation

The basic legal requirements of the 1995 STCW Convention are

provided for in the: Regulations

Interpretation of the 1995 STCW Convention is governed by the

_________. Vienna Convention

What part of the 1995 STCW Convention provides the legal basis

for mandatory minimum requirements for the issue of certificate of

proficiency in fast rescue boats?

Regulation VI/2


for mandatory minimum requirements for training in advanced fire

fighting?

Regulation VI/3

Under what chapter of the 1995 STCW Convention is voyage

planning covered? Chapter VIII

The mandatory minimum requirements for certification of masters

and chief mates on ships of 500 gross tonnage or more are

specified in what specific chapter of the 1995 STCW Convention?

Chapter II

The mandatory minimum requirements for the training and

qualifications of masters on ro-ro passenger ships includes

additional familiarization in ________.

crisis management

Inspection on compliance to regulation I/4 of the 1995 STCW

Convention, as amended is done by the ______________. port state control officer

A ship can be detained in port if the Port State Control Officer

(PSCO) believes that the watchkeeping standards are not being

maintained.What particular provisions of the 1995 STCW

Convention empowers the PSCO to effect such detention?

Regulation I/4

Compliance with the mandatory minimum requirements for

certification of masters and chief mates on ships of 500 gross

tonnage or more is required under what Chapter of the 1995 STCW

Convention?

Chapter II

What part of the STCW Code provides guidance and advice on the

implementation of the STCW Convention Regulations. I. Part A II.

Part B

II only

Any practical test required under the STCW Convention is required


duly qualified as required by:

Regulation I/6

Which of the following deficiencies may pose a danger to safety,

property and environment? All of these

A vessel operating "in class" has met all the requirements of the

____________. Classification Society

The "Carriage of Dangerous Goods" is fully covered in

______________. Chapter VI of Solas 1974

You are on a container ship carrying a tank container that had been

filled with sodium hydroxide solution. The container is empty but

has not been cleaned. What placard is required?

black and white corrosive

placard

You are loading general cargo aboard your breakbulk vessel. The

cargo includes liquids disinfectants. Which of the following is

TRUE?

if the disinfectant is a

poison, it must be stowed

away from the Class A

poison.

In testing lifebuoys specification, it should be established by

________. all of these

In testing the lifebuoy's specification by weighing, it should be

established that the lifebuoy has a mass of not less than

_____________.

2.5 kgs

For a lifebuoy to pass a "drop test" the two lifebuoys should be

dropped into the water from a certain height without suffering

damage. From which of the following heights should the lifebuoy

be dropped to satisfy this particular SOLAS requirement?

30 meters if this height is

greater than the height at

which the lifebuoy is

intended to be stowed on

ships in their lightest

seagoing condition

"Drop tests" given to lifebuoys include dropping it 3 times from a

certain height on to a concrete floor. From what height should the

lifebuoy be dropped to satisfy this particular SOLAS inspection

requirements?

2 meters

Which Chapter of SOLAS 74/78 was expanded to accommodate

the ISPS Code? Chapter XI

Regulation 7 of the new chapter IV of SOLAS makes it a

requirement for ships to carry a/an _____________.

Emergency position

indicating radio beacons

The concept of Port State Control is enshrined in Chapter I, part B,

regulation 19 of the __________Convention as amended. SOLAS 1974, as amended

What IMO convention requires all ships to carry ?Minimum Safe

Manning Document??

SOLAS 74, as amended in

1990

In accordance with the STCW Code, a person conducting in-

service assessment on board shall have an appropriate level of

knowledge and understanding of the ______ to be assessed.

competence

ILO requires that every state must exercise its jurisdiction over

ships flying its flag on: Training and Certification

Which of the following is NOT included in the Seafarers Identity

Document by a State to a foreign seafarer in compliance with ILO

Convention NO.108

address

Who would certify that prior to loading of grain in bulk, all

preparations have been made according to regulation in the US? National Cargo Bureau

Which of the following is NOT necessary in the International

Tonnage Certificate?

control number of the

certificate

The pipeline from the suction point in a cargo tank to the shore

connection used for loading the cargo that includes all ship piping,

pump and filters is called _____.

associated piping

The discharge into the sea of substances in Category D is allowed

provided the following are met, EXCEPT:

the effluent is more than

100 ppm

Periodic surveys of all oil tankers and every other vessels issued

IOPP certificate is required at intervals not exceeding ______to

ensure that the structure, equipment, fitting arrangement and

material fully comply with the requirements of Marpol 73/78.

5 years

With regards to OPA 90, what type of vessel shall carry approved

VRP? vessels carrying oil cargo

VRP should be carried on board by _______. vessels carrying oil cargo

SBT shall be provided to ______ of 40,000 tons deadweight and

above. existing crude oil tanker

Which of the following vessels whose deadweight is 40,000 and

above shall carry SBT? existing crude oil tanker

Marpol 73/78 regulates _______ from offshore platforms. displacement water

discharge

Category C under Reg. 3, Annex II Marpol 73/78 refers to noxious

substance if and when discharged into the sea from vessels, would special operational matters

present a minor environmental hazard and therefore justify the

application of ________.

Annex II of Marpol 73/78 under Category C refers to noxious

substance that when they are discharged into the sea from vessels

would require the application of:

special operational matters

Does the definition of an Oil Tanker apply to a Gas Carrier? yes, when carrying even a

part cargo of oil in bulk

What is the minimum bursting pressure for each cargo hose

assembly? at least 600 PSI,

The minimum bursting pressure of a cargo hose assembly is

_______. at least 600 PSI

The Pollution Prevention Regulations state that the ship?s oily

bilge slops may be pumped in port if the _______.

discharge is led to a slop

barge or shore side tank

Ship?s oily bilge slops may be pumped in port if the _______. discharge is led to a slop

barge or shore side

The bolt circle diameter of a standard pipeline to enable pipes of

reception facilities to be connected for residue from machinery

bilges is _______.

183 mm

Historically, the regulation of safety and pollution prevention in

international shipping has developed through three stages. Which

of these is not part thereof?

compliance with the rules

Noxious liquid substances which when discharged at sea from tank

cleaning or deballasting operations would present a recognizable

hazard to marine resources or human health is categorized ______.

Category D

Which category are noxious liquid substances which when

discharged at sea from tank cleaning or deballasting presents a

recognizable hazard to marine resources or human health?

Category D

The Oil Record Book sections preceding the log pages contain

which of the following lists?

list of machinery space

operation items

Where can you find the list of machinery space operation items in

the Oil Record Book?

sections preceding the log

pages

The rate of discharge of oil in liters per hour divided by the speed

of the vessel in knots at the same instant is called _______.

instantaneous rate of

discharge of oil content


Book for every tanker to be crude-oil-washed EXCEPT:


washed

Which of the following should not be record on tankers to be crude

oil washed?


washed

The amendment to Annex I of Marpol 73/78 was adopted on

_______. March 24, 2006

The adoption of amendment to Annex I of Marpol 73/78 was on March 24, 2006

______.

When was the adoption of the amendments to Annex I of Marpol

73/78? March 24, 2006

What is the meaning of ?An Accident? according to Marpol?

the actual or probable

discharge into the sea of a

harmful substance or

effluents containing such

substance

?An Accident? according to Marpol is ______.





substance

If it is necessary to gas free the system of a LPG vessel, which of

the following is employed? I. displacing the containers, liquid and

vapour lines with water II. displacing the container and pipeline

system with CO2 and N2

I & II

In an oil pumping operation where pumping connection are made

up of flange hose, the weakest link is the _______. hose

What would be the weakest link in an oil pumping operation where

pumping connection are made of of flange hose? hose




pumping connection are made of of flange hose? hose

Annex II of Marpol 73/78 entered into force on _______. April 6, 1987

Ships are fined during Marpol inspection by PSCO because

_______.

oil film is found on shipside

near the bilge discharge

manifold




_______.



manifold



Which of the following factors would NOT be considered before

loading crude oil?

pumping arrangement

between terminal and the

ship

The following factors are considered before loading crude oil

EXCEPT:

pumping arrangement

between the terminal and

the ship

Before loading crude oil, which of the following factors would you

NOT consider?

pumping arrangement


ship

Under Marpol regulations for bulk carriers safety, the option of

double hull construction would apply to new bulk carriers of

______ carrying solid bulk cargoes

150 meters

The regulations for bulk carriers safety under Marpol, the option of


______ carrying solid bulk.

150 meters

What makes the U.N. Oil Pollution Act of 1990 (OPA-90) different

from other international recognized laws?

the possibility of unlimited

liability

With regards to OPA-90, what may be the consequences of

unlimited liability?

that P & I will only cover

USD 500 + 200 million and

additional expenses will be

charged the owner/operator

of the vessel, if necessary

by taking legal action to

bring in the funds

With respect to OPA-90, what can lead to ?unlimited liability??

Willful misconduct, gross

negligence, violation of

Federal Safety and

Notification requirements,

etc.

OPA-90 is applicable only to what type of vessels? All types of vessels

Under the provisions of OPA-90, what type of vessels shall carry

an approved VRP?

Vessels carrying oil as

cargo

Which of the following statements regarding OPA-90 is correct?

COTP zones may have

specific rules and

regulations in addition to

OPA-90.

Are there any exceptions from OPA-90?

Yes, transit passage through

U.N. waters to a non-U.N.

port

Which of the following notification requirements is correct

regarding OPA-90.

Notify as soon as you have

knowledge of a spill or

threat of a spill.

With reference to OPA-90, when are reports made?

Safety of the vessel, safe

navigation and safe cargo

handling is affected,

including similar occurrence

With reference to OPA-90, who shall notify the cleaning up The Qualified Individual

contractor when there is an oil spill?

With reference to OPA-90, which of the following Notification

Logging Procedures is CORRECT?

Every report/message must

be logged including

time/date.

OPA-90 is referring to a Qualified Individual (QI). What is

CORRECT?

QI is an authorized

individual, located in the

U.S., and contracted by the

owner/operator of the

vessel.

With reference to OPA-90, do you always have to notify the

National Response Center?

Yes, within thirty (30)

minutes

With reference to OPA-90, who is responsible for the

implementation of the VRP?

The Oil Spill Management

Team

With regards to ?Unlimited liability? under OPA-90, which of the

following is NOT an example of ?gross negligence??

Lack of unity among the

crew

With respect to OPA-90, what can lead to ?Unlimited liability??

Willful misconduct except

violations of Federal safety,

construction or operation

regulations

With reference to OPA-90, what is the OPPT?

A emergency team that is

drilled in pollution

prevention tasks

What is the main purpose of the Oil Transfer Procedure Safety

Meeting under the OPA-90?

to co-ordinate operation,

safety and emergency

routines

With reference to OPA-90, what is the top priority if an incident

occurs in U.N. waters? safety of ship and crew

Under OPA-90, shipboard emergency drills must be carried out at

least. Once a month

Under OPA-90, the COTP can request Unannounced drills

What is the function of an Incident Commander/Spill Manager,

under OPA-90?

he is the Company spill

Manager

What are the master?s main responsibilities in connection with spill

management under OPA-90?

safety of the vessel and

crew

With reference to OPA 90, which of the following considerations

have to be observed regarding public information? All of these

Whenever pollution occur the vessel?s staff & the master should

evaluate the situation determine how best to limit the pollution &

contain the spill. The action to be taken should be referred to I.

Vessel Response Plan II. SOPEP, for details

I and/or II

Ships are fined during Marpol inspection by PSCO because oil film is found on shipside

_______. near the bilge discharge

manifold

Which of the following statements is TRUE? I. there is no need to

familiarize on the location of fire alarm signals under shipboard

familiarization II. safety and emergency procedures are required

under shipboard familiarization III. any crew who just boarded the

vessel must familiarize on the location of fire alarm signals under

shipboard familiarization

I & II

Which of the following statements is FALSE? I. there is no need to






III only

Motivation is defined ______.

factors that cause, channel

and sustain?s people?s

behaviour

When a trainee values and appreciates a training program he has

attended, this is: attitude objective

Through which level of the organization are data transmitted? lateral relationship

Assessment is BEST defined by maritime assessors as:

the process of obtaining and

comparing evidence of

competence with the

required standards

In order to supply human resources, the management must

understand the organization?s: strategy

The human resource management must understand the company?s

_______ in order to supply human resources. strategy

Managers who respond to pressure for change by denying that they

exist are responding in a _______ way. destructive

Any manager who responds to pressure for change by denying that

they exist are responding in a _______ way. destructive

The main objective of a prudent mariner is _______.

to ensure that the ship

reaches its destination safely

and efficiently

A prudent mariner?s main objective is _______.

to ensure that the ship

reaches its destination safely

and effectively

What the trainee should be able to apply in their workplace when

the training is completed is called ______. Job Behavior Objectives

Lifeboat alarm is _______. seven short sound signals

followed by a long sound

signal

Abandon ship signal is ______.

seven short sound signals

followed by one long sound

signal

After teaching a lesson, one gives quiz to his class. What is this? Formative Test

Which of the following quiz is given after teaching a lesson? Formative Test

Which of the following Terminal Performance Objectives specify

what the trainee should be able to value and appreciate when the

training is completed?

attitude objective

When a training is completed, the trainee should be able to value

and appreciate which of the following terminal performance

objectives?

attitude objectives


place at intervals of not more than _______. 4 months

Training onboard in the use of davit-launched liferafts shall take


In determining training needs, which of the following ways is used

when the trainor simply lists down all subjects that may possibly of

help to the personnel concerned?

survey

Which of the following is used in determining training needs when

the trainor simply lists all down the subjects that may possibly of

help to the personnel concerned?

survey

The variance, standard deviation, and range of a process are all

measures of: partition values

Managers respond in a _______ way when they respond to

pressure for change and deny that they exist. destructive

In a matrix structure, _______ are created as the need for them

arises. project teams

Which are created in a matrix structure as the need arises? project teams

Which is/are not supportive of the development of creative

thinking? open classroom atmosphere


place at intervals of not more than ______. 4 months

Training in the use of davit-launched liferafts onboard shall take


What is the basis of a manager making a choice of objectives? effectiveness

The basis of a manager making a choice of objectives is _______. effectiveness

An accurate perception of the operational and environmental

conditions affecting the vessel during a specific period of time is situational awareness

called ______.

Which role does the teacher play when he sets desirable learning

activities for the individual learner and takes responsibility of

matching available resources with the needs of each learner?

counselor and consultant of

learning

In order to make Onboard Pollution Training to work it is

important _______.

it is continuous and stresses

safe and pollution free

operations

Which of the following has its strength immediate feedback? laboratory method

Which teaching method is intended primarily for skill and concept

mastery by way of practice? project

The teaching method intended primarily for skill and concept

mastery by way of practice is ________. project

Which questioning practice will promote more class interaction? asking rhetorical questions

Which of the following will promote more class interaction? asking rhetorical questions

What the trainee will do at the end of the training that he cannot do

before is called: behavioral objective

Which of the following objectives will a trainee to at the end of the

training that he cannot do before? behavioral objective

For facts to be useful in research, it is best to ______. select, classify and

summarize them

In order for facts to be useful in research, it is best to _______. select, classify and

summarize them

A passenger vessel must have an emergency squad when _______. the size of the crew permits

When can a passenger vessel required to have an emergency

squad?

when the size of the crew

permits

A thorough investigation would include all of the following,

EXCEPT: identify the symptoms

Making a thorough investigation would include the following

EXCEPT: identify the symptoms

Basically there are three stages in the task of organizing a training

program. Which of the following is NOT involved? monitoring stage

Which of the following is NOT involved in the task of organizing a

training program? monitoring stage

In developing the curriculum of a training program, which of the

following Job Objectives come FIRST? determine program structure

The following is/are part/s of the rational process. identifying the symptoms of

the problem

Which of the following is/are part/s of the rational process? identifying the symptoms of

the problem

Which is NOT within the scope of organizing a training program? monitoring stage

Which of the following is part of organizing a training program? all of these

The trainee must exhibit a performance when assessment takes

place at the end of the training program. This is called ______.

Terminal Performance

Objective

The performance exhibited by the trainee during assessment at the

end of the training program is called _______.


Objective


with how a trainee should know about something in relation to the

training program.

affective objective

An instructional objective which deals with how a trainee should

know about something in relation to the training program is

______.

affective objective

Which of the following is NOT required under shipboard

familiarization?

location of fire alarm

signals

Shipboard familiarization requires the following EXCEPT: location of fire alarm

signals

Human resource management does not deal with _______. production

Human resource management deals with the following EXCEPT: production

Expectations and desired outcomes which reflect the philosophy,

broad direction and general purposes of an education/training

system is called _____.

education aims

What would you call the expectations and desired outcomes

reflecting the philosophy, broad direction and general purpose of

an education system?

educational aims

The 4 basic steps in planning are ________.

set goals, examine

resources, identify aids and

barriers, develop course of

action

Which of the following is NOT a component of an instructional

objective?

indicate desired terminal

behavior

What particular scope of instructional objective deals with how a

trainee should know about something in relation to the training

program?

affective objective

A thorough investigation should include all of the following

aspects EXCEPT: identifying the symptoms

Which statement is primarily used as base line data from which the

more specific instructional objective can be developed? Educational Objective

A superior?s rating of subordinates is the MOST frequently used

_______. appraisal approach

A superior rates a subordinate by the MOST commonly used appraisal approach

_______.

The ______ criteria involved with the principle of respect for

persons include taking them seriously. criteria

Which implies that we determine the extent of some characteristics

associated with something, e.g. a person or an object? measurement

That we determine the extent of some characteristics associated

with something, e.g. a person or an object implies _______. measurement

When we determine the extent of some characteristics associated

with something, e.g. a person or an object implies ________. measurement

Goals and actions refer to the management function of _______. planning

The correct action of three crewmembers discovering a fire is:

one reports the fire, the

other fights the fire, the

other secures the place

What would be the correct action of three crewmembers

discovering a fire?



other secures the place

If three crewmembers discover a fire, what would be their BEST

action?



other secure the place

Accomplishment of objective is a measure of a/an _______. managerial performance

The measure of an accomplishment of objective is a/an _______. managerial performance

If the objective of a training is accomplished, this measure is

_______. managerial performance

PRC uses a ?Multiple Choice Type? test in the licensure

examination. Which of the following is the LEAST likely reason

why PRC uses this type of test?

It is a type that requires

extended answers with

?open-minded? questions

Which of the following would BEST define the term ?Assessment?

from the point of view of maritime assessors?

It is the process of obtaining

and comparing evidence of

competence with the

standards

Which describes the necessary checks and balances in the

assessment system. verification

Some of assessor?s pitfalls are the following EXCEPT: lack of certain standards

In assessment, the major strength of using historical evidence is the

_____ of the evidence available. I. Quantity II. Quality both I & II

Individualized teaching method that makes use of workbooks,

teaching machines or computers is _______. Programmed instruction

Development of creative thinking is supported by Brainstorming technique

The following go with an integrated teaching strategy EXCEPT: Isolated bits of information

If you give a quiz to your class after teaching a lesson. What do Formative test

you give?

The following are supportive of the development of creative

thinking EXCEPT Open classroom atmosphere

This refers to a teacher helping a colleague grow professionally? Technology transfer

For mastery of learning and in line with the Outcome-Based

Evaluation model which element should be present?

Construction of criterion-

referenced tests

Which of the following teacher's objective taps higher mental

functioning?

Compare and contrast

butterflies from moths.

Which of the following works against collaborative teaching? "Knee-to-knee" seat

arrangement by group

The advantage of point system of grading is: It is qualitative.

Which of the following supportive of the development of creative

thinking? Authoritarian teacher

On IQ test which of the following is WRONG ? measures fixed potential

Which of the following are steps of the goal-oriented instructional

model arranged in order?

pre-assessment,

specification of objectives,

instruction, evaluation.

What do we encourage our trainees to think creatively? Do "outside-the-box"

thinking

The recent educational development relating with perenialism is: Individualizing the learning

experience and activities

he following are processes of creative thinking EXCEPT: Curiosity

To be useful in research, it is BEST to _____. select, clasify, and

summarize them

Which of the following questions demands the highest level of

thinking?

How should you present a

report in class?

With objectives in the affective domain in mind, under what level

does "developing a consistent philosophy of life" fall? Characterization

Which of the following is supportive of the development of

creative thinking? Convergent questions

Which of the following has a stronger diagnostic value? Restricted and non-

restricted essay test

Which is the concluding part of the three-level approach? Facts level

The teaching method intended primarily for skill and concept

mastery by way of practice is _______. Project

When a teacher connects the new lesson to the one just completed

so that the student may gain a holistic view of the subject, what

psychological principle is invoked?

Conceptualization

Which of the following is FALSE on collaborative learning? Success of the group

depends on one diligent

student.

On what theory is a teacher?s belief based that every learner can be

helped to achieve his full potential and functions effectively in

society when we satisfy his needs?

Cognitive psychology

Which will promote more class interaction? Asking rhetorical questions

The functions that are associated with the left brain are _______. Verbal, visual, intuitive

When a teacher gives indigenous achievement test to his 25

students, consisting of 50 items, and wants to classify his students'

performance based on the test result, what is the appropriate

measure of central tendency?

Mean

The LEAST brain-compatible is ______. Detecting error in the

computer program

Which of the following will a "mastery learner" learns best from? debates

Which does not affect the variability of test scores? Test items that every

examinee gets correctly

Which is most effective with social development in mind? Puzzle

In developing scientific thinking and problem-solving skills, which

activity will be most appropriate? Role play

What does TOS in test construction mean? Table of Specifications

To diagnose student's difficulties in written communication skills.

Which should be used? Short written response

The role(s) that a teacher play when he sets desirable learning

activities for the individual learner and takes the responsibility of

matching available resources with the needs of each learner is/are:

Counselor and consultant of

learning

What does concurrent validity require? peer consultation

Which has its strength immediate feedback? Laboratory method

The instructional material closest to direct experience is _______. Film showing

A sound classroom management practice is _______.

Avoid establishing routines;

routines make your students

robots.

Students shall identify the strengths and weaknesses of an event.

What shall they use? Compare/Contrast matrix

Which of the following is TRUE to norm-reference testing?

Comparing individual's

performance to the average

performance of a group.

Which promotes more class interaction? Asking rhetorical questions

Which activity is LEAST effective with the linguistically

intelligent group in mind? Manipulatives

For a "self-expressive learner" it is best to learn from ___. lectures

Under which group does a student belong when he claims: "I

cannot see perfection but I long for it so it must be real." ? Pragmatist

What would this mean when it is said that a good classroom

manager has "eyes on the back of her head."?

gives penetrating looks to

his students

The characteristic of developed, mentally inappropriate practice

type of education is: Contextual learning

Which does NOT belong to the group in individualized teaching

strategies? Independent study

Which of the following is NOT included in familiarization

onboard?

getting used to emergency

exits, where they lead to

The emergency alarm signal as specified in SOLAS is _______. continuous ringing of the

alarm bells

You are on watch on LPG vessel that carries liquefied gas in bulk.

You are required to have what information about the cargo easily

accessible?

fire fighting procedures

Which of the following poses a danger to safety, property and

environment? all of these

What kind of Terminal Performance Objectives which specify what

the Trainee should be able to apply in their workplace when the

training is completed.

Job Behavior Objectives

Which is a particular learning scope for instructional objective

which is concerned with how a trainee controls or moves his body? Psychomotor Objective

To determine training need

which of the following ways

is used when the trainor

simply lists down all

subjects that may possibly

be of help to the personnel

concerned?

ILO Convention No.147 come into force in ______. Nov. 1981

The ILO International Convention defining the minimum standards

for Merchant Ship is _____. ILO Convention 141

Port State Control is a creation of _______. ILO Convention No.134

During inspection, the PSCO should further assess whether the ship

and/or crew is able to do the following EXCEPT:

perform its daily duties and

responsibilities

Which of the following is CORRECT concerning the functions of

ILO? I. In tripartite International Labor Confenrence, worker?s and

employer?s representative have an equal voice with those of

Governments in formulating policies II. Through ratification by

member States, Conventions and Recommendations set

International Labor standards III. Through ratification by member

I,II & III

States, Conventions are intended to create binding obligations to

put their provisions into effect

The Interim Guidance on Control and Compliance Measures to

Enhance Maritime Security was adopted under _______. Resolution MSC .159 (78)

The term ? delivery ? and ?redelivery ? are associated with what

kind of charter party? time charter

Under the Hamburg Rules, the bill of lading must include inter alia,

the following particulars EXCEPT: the basis of liability

In a voyage charter party, the preliminary particulars are contained

in the: introduction

How is it termed in the C/P if they were used for working

agreement between the Master and the charterer?

?Sundays and holidays are

excepted?

The Hamburg Rules relates to ______. Carriage of Goods by Sea

A C/P term usually used to mean that the cargo is to be loaded,

stowed, trimmed and discharged free of expense to the shipowner. F.I.O.S.T.

Deadfreight is the charge for the ______.

difference in the amount of

cargo loaded and the

amount booked but

notloaded

In laytime calculation, hours and minutes of working time is

expressed as part of a day. What part of a day is 17 hours and 37

minutes?

0.734027

Which of the following categories of laytime stated in a charter

party which comprise a set number of hours for loading or

discharging, or both operations combined?

definite laytime

It is a working day where for time to be lost, loading or unloading

must actually be interrupted by bad weather: weather working day

If the intention is for Sundays and holidays not to count as laydays

even if they were used for working agreement between the master

and the charterer, how is it expressed in the charter party?

Sundays and holidays

excepted

This term means that separate calculations are to be made for

loading and discharging and anytime saved in one operation is to

be set against any excess time used in the other:

to average

It provides the ships to be loaded or discharge ?as customary? or

?according to the customs of the port? or ? with all dispatch? or ?as

fast as steamer can receive/deliver?:

intermediate layday

Charter Party Laytime Definitions came into effect in: 1980

______ is an expression that laydays will commence to count as

soon as the vessel has arrived at the port of loading or discharge,

whether a berth is available or not, provided of course the ship is

ready to load or to discharge in every respect and written notice of

free of turn

readiness has been tendered by the Master.

A ship is ready to load or discharge as soon as the following

conditions have been met EXCEPT:

the ship must have already

docked alongside

The term used about the franchise to be applied in the event of

claims for particular average which is customary to the insured

interest is called:

customary average

Under the Merchant Shipping Regulations, occupants in a sleeping

room for ratings must not be ______. more than 2 persons

Vienna Convention deals, inter alia, with: all of these

Vienna convention deals with the following, EXCEPT: laws of salvage and

applicable contracts

The ILO Seafarer Convention ID Convention entered into force on: Feb. 9, 2005

In July 1995, the International Convention on STCW which met in

London adopted Resolution No.9 which concerns:

development of

international standards of

medical fitness for seafarers

The ILO/WHO guidelines for conducting pre-sea and periodic

medical fitness examination for seafarers include the following

EXCEPT:

history of the seafarers

medical past



EXCEPT:


medical past



EXCEPT:


medical past



EXCEPT:


medical past



EXCEPT:


medical past

Provisions concerning medical standards for seafarers are

contained in _____.

The International

Convention on STCW ?95,

Regulation I/9

The international standards concerning medical examinations and

certificates are established in:

The Medical Examination

(Seafarers) Convention of

1946

The medical certificate established in the Medical Examination (

Seafarers ) Convention, 1946 contains: I. that the hearing, sight and

colour vision of the person to be employed in the deck department

(except for certain specialist personnel whose fitness for the work

which they are to perform is not liable to be affected by defective

I & II

colour vision) are satisfactory II. that he/she is not suffering from

any disease likely to be aggravated by or render him/her unfit for,

service at sea or likely to endanger the health of other persons on

board ships

The Medical Examinations (seafarers) Convention, 1946 provides

that the medical certificate remains in force for a period not

exceeding ______ from the date it is granted.

24 months

Which is TRUE on the following statements?

pre-sea medical

examination is more


medical examination

The ILO/WHO Consultation on Guidelines for Conducting Pre-Sea

and Periodic Medical Fitness Examinations for Seafarers was

adopted in Geneva on:

25 ? 27 November 1997

When determining fitness for sea service in the case of persons

with medical problems, the examiner should consider and evaluate

the following points EXCEPT:

the past sea service of the

seafarer when his medical

problem has not posed a

danger to himself nor to

other persons on board

If a person suffers a second-degree burn on the arm, you should

______.

immerse the arm in cold

water

For a Free Fall Test on a lifeboat designated for free fall launching,

which should be taken into account? all of these

The proper stimulant for an unconscious person is a/an _______. ammonia stimulant

A role is a/an _____. expected behavioral pattern

Preserving knowledge is important because it ______. is a foundation for future

development

______ involves the recruitment, training and development, of

organizational members.

human resource

management

Organizations depend upon the ______ for survival. environment

Human relations consider ______. managers interacting with

employees

What is the ability to get things done right? efficiency

______ is the date of a major event, accomplishment, or decision

taking place. milestone

There are three learning scope for instructional objectives, which of

the following objectives is NOT part of these learning scopes? Enabling objectives

Recruitment, training and development, of organization members is

_______.

human resource

management

What is the most effective management development technique? Coaching

A ______ is the means by which data are transmitted across the

levels of the organization. lateral relationship

When an organization implements an MIS, operating managers

suffer anxiety from ______.

loss of control of

information

The function which is most important in the accomplishment of

objectives is _______. coordinating

A well written instructional objective should have three

components. Which of the following is NOT one of these

components?

indicate desired terminal

behavior

A subdivision of International Objectives where the trainee must

exhibit a performance when assessment takes place at the end of

the training program is ______.


Objective

Statements primarily used as a point of departure for base line data

from which the more specific instructional objective can be

developed are termed:

educational objectives

Management experts believe that efficient and effective

organizations had a hierarchial structure called ______. bureaucracy

A kind of teaching/learning principle where the trainee must see

why he should study something is ______. perceived purpose

Accomplishment of _____ is the measure of managerial

performance. objectives

The number of subordinates who report directly to a manager is

known as: the span of management

All of the following are true about decision-making EXCEPT it is needed in stable

environments

Human relations consider _____ managers interacting with

employees

Management is defined as a _______. process

Organizations depend upon the environment for ______. survival

Human resource management must understand the organization?s

_____.in order to supply human resources. strategy

The most competitive management development technique is

______. coaching

Diagnostic meeting requires ______. a brief time

The following are the 3 basic skills that managers display,

EXCEPT: planning

The most basic resource of any organization is ______. people

There are four basic steps in human resource planning: planning for

future needs, planning for future balance, planning for future

recruiting, and planning for _______.

development

Human relations consider ______. managers interacting with

employers

The manager?s choice of the right objectives is ______. effectiveness

What is the MOST effective management development technique? coaching

Designing the organization is a ______ process. continuous

When subordinates are given responsibility for dealing with a

problem, their ______ increases. self-esteem increases


future needs,planning for future balance, planning for recruiting,

and planning for _______.

development

The following concerns Ethics EXCEPT: charity

There are three conflict methods most frequently used in managing

conflicts: supervision, integrative problem solving and ________. compromise

There are three learning scope for instructional objectives. Which

of the following is NOT part of these learning scope? enabling objectives

A _____ is the means by which data are transmitted across the

levels of the organization. lateral relationship

How would a manager BEST overcome resistance to a planned

change?

involving a crew in the

planning process

The more difficult part of ethical decision making involves _____. technical, human,

conceptual

When seeking employment, one of the MOST important thing to

look for is: a good boss

When you carry out a job, you should consider the following

questions. Which of these questions is NOT fitting?

Is it possible for me to carry

out the job?

When a manager plans, his first step is to ______. select goals for the ship?s

organization

Managerial performance is based upon accomplishment of ______. objectives

Three basic kinds of skills that all managers display are: technical, human,

conceptual

Assigning to others authority and responsibility for carrying out

specific tasks is called: delegation

All of the following are true about decision making EXCEPT: it is needed in stable

environment

Delegation is the assignment to others of ____ for carrying out

specific tasks. authority and responsibility

A Master should do the following when faced with difficult

problem situation EXCEPT:

solving the problem ASAP

in order to reduce negative

consequences

Preserving knowledge is important because it is the foundation for

future ____. development

Recruitment, training and development of organizational members

are involved in____.

human resource

management

For the organization to operate efficiently, responsibility for

specific tasks should be given to ______ of the organization having

ability and information to carry them out

the lowest level

The criteria involved with the principle of respect for persons

includes: taking them seriously

The question of human relations considers ______. managers interacting with

employees

The Master remarks ? that is too slow ?. Which of the following

implies this? assessment

What is commonly asked when we talked of human values? why


future needs, planning for future balance, planning for recruiting,

and planning for:

development

The purpose of organization is to _______. all of these

In applying principles to be observed in determining the safe


following no-board functions when applicable EXCEPT:

fire and emergency drills

The most frequently used appraisal approach is ______. a superior?s rating of

subordinates

When you carry out a job, you should consider the following

questions; which of the following is NOT fitting?

is it possible for me to carry

out the job? If not, I should

reason out

The most common OJT training methods are job rotation,

apprenticeship and _______. internship

______ is the assignment to others of authority and responsibility

for carrying out specific tasks. delegation

_____ is the basis of a manager making a choice of objectives. effectiveness

Training programs are directed toward maintaining and improving

______job performance. current

To deal with change constructively, manager can take two major

approaches; they can react to the signs that changes are needed, and

they can ______.

develop a program of

planned change

When detailed plans are drawn to meet the training objectives the

method of training becomes a/an _______. I. Formal training II.

Informal training

I only

Accidents happen because of ______. carelessness

If a drill required by regulations is NOT completed, the Master or

officer in charge must:

log the reason for not

completing the drill

This is the most widely used means for evacuating persons. It is

suited for the purpose of quickly picking up persons, but it is

unsuitable for patients. It may be made of webbed, belted material

similar to that used in parachute harness.

rescue sling

How often should drills be done for operating watertight doors,

sidecuttles, valves and closing mechanism of scuppers, ash-chutes

and rubbish chutes on board passenger ships?

weekly

Once the problem has been defined, the next step is ______. identify the decision

objectives


with how a trainee should know about something in relation to the

training program.

affective objective

During abandon ship drill, PSCO should observe the following,

EXCEPT:


signals

Which of the following activities shall NOT be carried out at

security level?

mustering of crew and

passengers

A continuous blast of the ship?s whistle for a period of not less

than 10 seconds supplemented by a continuous sounding of the

general alarm for a period of not less than 10 seconds is the

______.

fire alarm signal

When a crew meets an accident and become unconscious, you

should first look for evidence of _______. irregular breathing

If you see a person fall overboard, you should ______. all of these

Which of the following is FALSE why there may NOT be enough

oxygen in an enclosed space or tank?

enclosed as it is, no proper

circulation of air

Drinking salt water will ______. promote urine secretion

You hear a hissing sound from an inflated liferaft. What would you

do?

don?t be alarmed as it will

soon stop unless it goes on

for a long period

In order to maintain safe working conditions on board the vessel,

every crewmember should do the following, EXCEPT:

be attentive to all what is

happening in the

surroundings

PSCO checking safety in general shall consider the following,

EXCEPT:

sea charts updating

satisfactory

In order to maintain safe working conditions onboard the vessel,

every crewmember should do the following, EXCEPT:

be attentive to all what is

happening in the

surroundings

This is the MOST widely used means for evacuating persons. It is

suited for the purpose of quickly picking up persons, but it is rescue sling

unsuitable for patients. It may be made of webbed, belted material

similar to that used in parachute harnesses.

Which of the following is NOT CORRECT all is correct

Lifeboat alarm is ______. seven short followed by a

long sound signal


EXCEPT:


signals

At the sound of the lifeboat alarm, the following should be done

EXCEPT:

stop working immediately

and secure your working

place

How many crew for each rescue boat shall be trained and drilled

regularly? at least 2

During lifeboat alarm, note the following EXCEPT:

treat the alarm seriously,

drink plenty of water before

boarding


EXCEPT:


signals

If the cause of severe list or trim is due to off center ballast counter

flooding into empty tanks, it will _______.

decrease list or trim c..

increase the righting arm

A structural and systematic methodology aimed at enhancing

maritime safety, including for use in IMO rule-making process by

using risk analysis and cost benefit assessment is called ______.

Formal Safety Assessment

The Formal Safety Assessment methodology can be applied by: all of these

The term used in Formal Safety Assessment (FSA) which denotes a

combination of the frequency and severity of the consequence is

the ______.

Risk

This is defined as a departure from acceptable practice on the part

of an individual or group of individuals that can result in

unacceptable or undesirable results.

Human Error

What is meant by Risk Analysis as used in Formal Safety

Assessment?

a detailed investigation of

the causes and

consequences which

influences the level of risk

Which of the following is NOT a hazard external to the ship? thermal heating fluid system

Which of the following is NOT a risk control measure under the

Formal Safety Assessment?

increase the probability of

accidents to occur

Which of the following is NOT considered a personal factor

connected with Human-Related Hazards? Lack of Resources

Which of the following is NOT a recognized level of risk? Societal Risk

The term used in Risks Control Measures associated with Formal Preventive Risk Control

Safety Assessment, which means reduction of the probability of an

event to occur is ______.

Character and personality are products of heredity, environment,

training and ______. personal determination

When a person entering seafaring because he wants a better life,

freedom and responsibility, he has ______. higher motivation

The ability to become what one would choose to be is _____. self-determination

The goals of purpose that one chooses to give a sense of direction

and meaning of one?s whole personality are _____. values

Which of the following deters progress? all of these

We are taught to pay great respect to our national flag and the pride

of being a Filipino while singing the national anthem. This is the

effect of ______.

colonialization

The following are some of the Filipino levels of existence

EXCEPT: determined


EXCEPT determined

Which of the following is/are the Filipino principles and norms? all of these

The strength of a Filipino character are the following EXCEPT: non-frustration

The following makes up a culture EXCEPT: national pride

Some of the following comprises Formal Safety Assessment

EXCEPT: error identification

In identifying hazards, it is necessary to rank them, prioritizing

them to discard scenarios of minor significanc

These scenarios are

prioritized by:

One of the most important contributory aspects to the cause and

avoidance of accidents is_________. human element

The purpose of problem definition is/are: all of these

In the preparation for the study of a problem, the following are

considered relevant when addressing ships EXCEPT: age of ship

For application of Formal Safety Assessment, a generic model

should be defined to describe one or all of the following: all of these

For the application of Formal Safety Assessment, the problem

under consideration should be characterized by a number of

functions. Where the problem relates to a type of ship, these

functions include the following EXCEPT:

prevention of fire



functions. Where these problem relates to a type of hazard, these


emergency response

For the application of Formal Safety Assessment in the risk level

identification of hazards, identify a list of hazards and associated

scenarios prioritized by ______.

The identified hazards in Formal Safety Assessment and their

associated scenarios relevant to the problem under consideration

should be ranked according to _____.

all of these

In risk analysis, a detailed investigation of the causes and

consequences of the more important scenarios should be done. This

can be achieved by ______.

all of these

The purpose of Risk Control Options (RCO) comprises the

following stages EXCEPT:

focusing on all problem

areas and consolidating

them

Determine problem areas needing control by ______. all of these

A cost benefit assessment may consist one or more of the

following: all of these

In making recommendations for decision-making in IMO, they

should be based upon: all of these

To facilitate the common understanding and use of Formal Safety

Assessment (FSA)at IMO in the rule making process, each report

of an FSA process should:

all of these

The Formal Safety Assessment methodology comprises: all of these

The acronym of FSA in IMO is: Formal Safety Assessment

The acronym of HRA in IMO is: Human Reliability Analysis

Human Reliability Analysis (HRA) process consists of the

following EXCEPT:

frequency and degree of

human error

Human Reliability Analysis (HRA) can be considered to fit into the

overall FSA process in the following way EXCEPT:

frequency of human tasks

and their errors

Human-related hazards onboard ship is attributed to the following

factors EXCEPT:

restricted visibility or high

traffic density

Shipboard hazards to personnel include the following EXCEPT: personnel unfamiliarity of

the ship

Hazardous substances onboard in accommodation areas include the

following EXCEPT: paint

Hazards are to be prioritized and scenarios ranked. To facilitate the

ranking and its validation, ________, are defied on a logarithmic

scale.

consequence and priority

The minor severity index of a hazard has an equivalent fatality of

_____. 0.01

If the severity index of a hazard is significant, its effect on a ship is

______. non-severe ship damage

If the severity index of a hazard is severe, its equivalent fatality is 1

_______.

If the severity index of a hazard is catastrophic, its effect on human

safety is ______. multiple fatalities

If the severity index of a hazard is remote, it is likely to occur one

per year in a fleet of: 1,000 ships

If the equivalent fatality is 10, the severity index of a hazard is

_______. catastrophic

The two fundamental measures of risk are individual and _______. societal

Individual risk is assessed against frequency of occurrence and

______. severity of outcome

The best practice is to recognize the three levels of risk. Which one

is NOT? tolerable

Generally, accidents that cause one or two fatalities are best

assessed by: individual risk

Where the risk control measure reduces the probability of the

event, this control is called: preventive risk control

Enacted into law by Pres. Gloria Macapagal-Arroyo in May 2004

was the Republic Act 9295, otherwise known as the ?Domestic

Shipping Act of 2004. Which of the following statements is one of

the declared policy of the state which is ? embodied in this law?

All these statements are part

of declared policy of the

state

Which of the following statements is one of the declared policy of

the state which is embodied in this law?

All these statements are part

of the declared policy of the

state

Which of the following statements is one of the declared policy of

the state which is embodied in this law?

all these statements are part

of the declared policy of the

state

For the purpose of R.A.9295 this term means ?the sale, barter or

exchange of goods within the Philippines. Domestic Trade

For the purpose of R.A.9295 this term means ?the exchange of

materials or products within the Philippines.? Domestic Trade

For the purpose of R.A.9295 this term means ?the license or

authority issued by MARINA to a domestic ship operator to

engaged in domestic shipping.?


Convenience

For the purpose of R.A.9295 this term means ?the overhaul,

refurbishment, renovation, improvement of all types of ships.? Ship repair

For the purpose of R.A.9295 this term means ?the design,

construction, launching and outfitting of all types of ships. Shipbuilding

Which of the following ?investment incentives? is provided in

R.A.9295 to insure the continued viability of domestic shipping?

All these exemptions are

provided as investment

incentive under R.A.9295

Which of the following ?investment incentives? is provided in

R.A.9295 to insure the continued viability of domestic shipping?

All these exemptions are

provided for in R.A.9295 as

investment incentive

The importation of the articles under Section 4(a) and (b) of

R.A.9295 shall be granted exemption from VAT subject to which

of the following conditions?

All these conditions are

allowed under R.A.9295

What is the age limit requirement for vessels in order that it will be

exempted from VAT upon importation?


vessels

What is the tonnage of vessels that are qualified for exemption

from VAT on the importations and local purchase and/or cargo

vessels including engine and spare parts of said vessels?

150 tons and above

Under the investments Incentives provision of R.A.9295, one of the

conditions by which the importation of articles is granted

exemption from VAT is that approval must be obtained prior to

importation by which government agency?

MARINA

Under the provisions of R.A.9295, no franchise, certificate or any

other form of authority to carry cargo or passenger in the domestic

trade shall be granted to vessels unless the vessel is _________.

owned by domestic ship

owners or operators

Under the provisions of R.A.9295, no foreign vessel shall be

allowed to transport passengers or cargo between ports or place

within the Phil. Territorial waters, except upon the grant of special

permit by the ___________.

MARINA

What kind of certificate is issued by MARINA to qualified

domestic ship operators?


Convenience

Authority to operate extended to all types and classes of vessels in

the domestic shipping shall be valid for a period of not more than

_________.

25 years

Who prescribes the routes, zones or areas of operations of domestic

ship operators? MARINA

Who sets the safety standards for vessels in the domestic trade in

accordance with applicable conditions and regulations? MARINA

As prescribed by R.A.9295, all domestic ship operators shall have

the ________to provide and sustain safe, reliable, efficient and

economic passenger or cargo service, or both.

financial capacity

Who fixes the passenger or cargo rates in the domestic trade as

provided for in R.A.9295? Domestic ship operators

Refusal to accept or carry any passenger or cargo without just

cause is punishable under what section and chapter of R.A.9295? Section 16, Chapter VI

Failure to obtain or maintain adequate insurance coverage is

punishable under what section and chapter of R.A.9295? Section 16, Chapter Vl

Failure to meet or maintain safe manning requirements is Section 16, Chapter Vl

punishable under what section and chapter of R.A.9295?

Which one among the following Marine Memo Circular created the

Qualification Documentation Certificate? MC 164

The Philippine Seafarer Identification Book creation was under

what Marina memo circular? MC 163

The Phil. National Standard for watch keeping and certification is

under MARINA which issues a Documents for competent domestic

seafarers working Onboard local traders. This certificate is called

___________.

Qualification

Documentation Certificate

In accordance with ILO Medical Examination Convention 1946,

Pre-employment Medical Examination is necessary as per ILO

Convention No.____________.

ILO No.73

A ship which has no superstructure on the freeboard deck is

_________ as defined in revised PMMRR 97 flush deck ship

As stipulated in the revised PMMRR 97 electrical power shall be

made available for 3 hours on the following EXCEPT: at the steering gear area

When was the ILO Convention for Medical Care and Sickness

Benefits was adopted? 1969

An imported disease as defined in the International Health

Regulations as a/an:

infected person in a

international voyage

As defined in the revised PMMRR, the moulded depth amidships

plus the thickness of the freeboard deck stringer plate is

______________.

depth of freeboard

When was the Maritime Industry Authority created ? June 1974

Which one of the following condition is NOT a symptom of

traumatic shock ? slow deep breathing

What should you include in the text of a Radio message asking

advise for a medical emergency treatment onboardship at sea ? all of these

38..MARINA serves the maritime industry through the following

EXCEPT;

Registration and

Enforcement office

MARINA was created and geared towards the following

objectives, EXCEPT;

to create sub-agencies for

the safe transport of goods

and passengers.

Which among the list of Certificates is NOT issued by the Phil.

Coast Guard?

Classification of Hull and

Machinery

PPA Memorandum Circular 40-2002 pertains to _______of Harbor

Pilots rendering pilotage service to vessels. Performance

Every ship documented in the Phils. shall be assigned a/an


There are how many Port District offices (PDO) throughout the 5

Phil. Archipelago?

Under R.A.8544 regarding a chairperson of the PRC appointed the

President. Which of the following statement is CORRECT?

must be a former member of

any board

MARINA?s jurisdiction covers the various sectors of the country?s

maritime industry EXCEPT:

Maritime Manning

Agencies

Domestic passenger ship?s not classed shall be dry docked every

________, as stipulated in the revised PMMRR. 1 Year

Which type of injury should be the first to received emergency

treatment if there are multiple accident victims? Severe shock

Which among the list are Class C ships as stipulated in the revised

PMMRR? Tankers

What is the required capacity of portable extinguishers as stipulated

in the revised PMMRR? 13.5 liters

As defined in the revised PMMRR, the tonnage measured in

accordance with the International Tonnage Convention 69 and for

ships of less than 24 meters in length is called ___________.

gross tonnage

Under PD 97 all Phil. Ports were administered by the

___________. Bureau of Customs

Under MARINA, which office formulates, recommends and

implements policies? Domestic Shipping Office

What law created the Maritime Industry Authority ? P.D. 474

The required weight for portable extinguishers shall not exceed

_______________ as stipulated in the revised PMMRR ? 23 kgs

A Certificate of Public Convenience is a license issued to a vessel

that meets the the safety standards in accordance with domestic

rules and regulations. Which one among the list of Government

agency issue this certificate ?

Maritime Industry Authority

When was the Philippine Port Authority was created? 1977

What is the proper stimulant for an unconscious person onboard? ammonia stimulant

Which one among the following statement is CORRECT regarding

the individual garments for protection against hypothermia?

should not sustain burning

or melting when enveloped

in a fire for a period of 2

seconds

Special purpose ships to which the revised PMMRR applies

include the following EXCEPT:

pleasure ship?s catering to

special people of the

government.

An unconscious person should not be __________. given something to drink

A Phil. Flag vessel shall be deleted or de-registered from the Phil.

Registry in any of the following EXCEPT:

when the ship is undergoing

repairs

What is the law that is also known as the Phil. Merchant Marine R.A.8544

Act of 1998?

Competent and certificated officers and ratings onboard a ship who

safely operate her at all times. safe manning

How often is the renewal survey done, under the revised PMMRR?

at intervals specified by the

administration not

exceeding 5 years

In Domestic trade, vessels over 100 GRT that are authorized to lay-

up and anchor at any government port shall be charge anchorage

fee of___________.

Php 30.50/GRT/Calendar

day or fraction thereof

Drydocking of non-classed passenger/passenger cargo ships maybe

extended on a monthly basis but not to exceed _______________. 3 months

When a Phil. Flag vessel engaged in domestic trade, but required to


maybe exempted from the requirement of SOLAS 74/78 provided

the ship ________.




What International Convention stipulates the standards of safety

equipments and lifesaving appliances onboard ship? SOLAS

What International convention that sets the Standard of Training

and Competency of all seafarers? STCW

In order to prevent fatigue, the STCW Code stipulates that every

bridge team members must take mandatory rest periods of at least

__________in 24 hrs. period.

10 hrs.

Fitness for duty was established and enforce under Reg. __ of

STCW as amended VIII/I

When a vessel is surveyed for the issuance of Cargo Ship Safety

Equipment Certificate, this is in accordance with the requirements

of _________of the SOLAS convention.

Reg I/8

What International Convention governs the ISPS code? SOLAS

When a vessel is surveyed in accordance with the requirements of

Reg. 1/7 of the SOLAS Convention. What certificate will be issued

after the survey is concluded?

Passengers Ship Safety

Equipment

When a vessel is surveyed in accordance with the requirements of

Reg. 1/8 of the SOLAS Convention. Which of one among the list

of Certificate is being issued?

Cargo Ship Safety

Equipment Certificate

What is the first thing that Port State Control Inspection team do

after having reported to the Master and informed of their visit.

ensure that the compliance with Article X of STCW where by the

certificates of those onboard still valid

asses the ability of the crew

in maintaining

watchkeeping stands.

What is the total weight of a fully packed inflatable life raft

container? 185 lbs

During storm conditions, what shall you do with tour EPIRB when bring it inside the life raft

you are in a life raft? and leave it on

In accordance with the compliance of Reg. 1/9 of the SOLAS

Convention which one of the following Certificates must be obtain

by a cargo vessel?

Cargo Ship Safety Radio

Certificate

To enhance the early and efficient collection and exchange of

security related information is one of the objective of the

__________________.

ISPS Code

The following list of dynamic information can be obtain on AIS

EXCEPT; port of departure and arrival

Certificates other than Cargo Ship Safety Equipment Certificate,

the Cargo Ship Safety Construction Certificate and any Exemption

Certificate shall be issued for A period not

exceeding_______________.

1 year

With regards to the Passenger Ship Safety, the ship has been

surveyed as regard to _________. radio installations

As per current SOLAS requirements each lifeboat shall be provided

with how many immersion suits as well as thermal protective aids ? three sets

SOLAS stipulates that all vessels of 500 GRT or more shall have at

least one International connection with inside diameter

of______________.

64 mm

Fixed high-expansion system in machinery spaces shall be capable

of rapidly discharging a quantity of foam at a rate of at least

_________per minute ?

100 mm

When was the SOLAS 1974 Convention entered into force ? 1980

In the STCW Code what does letter ?S? stands for in ?STCW??? seafarer

In STCW Convention what does letter ?S? stands for in ?STCW? standard

The burning period of a rocket parachute flare shall be at least

___________. 40 seconds

Ship?s NAME shall be printed in each of the following equipment

EXCEPT; portable fire extinguishers

What document a Master of a vessel served to the

shippers/charterers informing them that the vessel is ready to load

according to the terms outlined in the charter party?

Notice of readiness

This is a declaration made under oath by the Master of a vessel

before a notary public consul or magistrate with regards to the

apparent loss or damage to both cargo and ship.

Marine sea protest

All of the following is indicated in the ships Register, EXCEPT: vessel?s port of calls

The required number of inflatable life rafts of a vessel can e found

in what vessels certificate? certificate of inspection

How much weight should be suspended from a life buoy and how 14.5 kgs. of iron for a

long should it remain floating when testing to a floatation test? period of 24 hrs.

The following list of liability is covered by P & I club, EXCEPT: Barratry

The standard outside diameter pipelines to enable pipes of

reception facilities to be connected with the ships discharge

pipelines for residues from machinery bilges should be

__________.

215 mm

Obligations of members of the P & I club are the following,

EXCEPT: disclosed material facts

What is the period of validity of cargo ship safety construction

certificate issued to cargo vessel of 500 GRT or more? 5 years

The convention on civil liability applies to ships carrying

________________. oil in bulk

The safety equipment certificate shows that the vessel conforms to

the standard of the _________________. SOLAS Convention

What is the period of validity of a Cargo Ship Safety Equipment

Certificate being issued to vessels of 500 GRT or more? 2 years

Pipelines should be standard to enable pipes of reception facilities

to be connected with the ships discharge pipelines for residues

from machinery bilges. It bolt circle diameter should be

__________.

183 mm

All cargo ships of 300 GRT or more should be issued an ID

number which conforms to what International organization or

convention ship scheme?

IMO

Seafarer?s Pre-employment Examination Certificate is valid for 2

years in accordance with ILO Convention Reg. ________. No.073

The comprised amendment 2 (2001) of the STCW as amended is

adopted by the maritime safety committee on _________. December 1998

The comprised Amendments 2 (2001) of the STCW code was

entered into force on _____________. 01January2003

As per STCW Code Amendments. Certificate of Training in

PSCRB is mandatory to what seafarers level? all levels

As per STCW, which one among the list does NOT belong to the

ship onboard organization? Engineering level

Under the STCW as amended, training for personnel on RO-RO

passenger ships (v/2) was implemented on ______________. 01Febr997

Under the STCW as amended training for personnel on Passenger

ships other 01Jan1999

Recognition of Certificates issued by other parties is under what

Regulation of the STCW as amended? Reg I/10

After having activated the Emergency Position Indicating Radio leave it on continuously

Beacon, you should _________.

EPIRB means _____________. Emergency Position

Indicating Radio Beacon

The hull, machinery and equipment of a cargo ship shall be

surveyed upon completion thereafter at intervals specified by the

administration but not exceeding:

5 years

When testing lifebuoy to a floatation test. It should be subjected to

float in ___. fresh water

During lifeboat alarm, the following must be noted EXCEPT; treat the alarm seriously

drink plenty water

Tankers of 10 years of age and over are required to have

intermediate survey in accordance with __________________. Reg. 1/10

Every rating forming part of a navigational watch shall be

certificates. This mandatory requirement is in accordance with Reg.

________ of the STCW as amended.

Reg. 11/4

Every officer in charge in a navigational watch serving in a foreign

going ship of less than 500 GRT shall hold an appropriate certificat

This mandatory minimum

requirements is in

accordance with Reg.

_________ of STCW as

amended.

The certification of Masters and Chief Officers on ships of 500

GRT or more become mandatory. This minimum requirements is in

accordance with _____________ of the STCW as amended.

Reg. 11/2

Every Management officer on a sea going ship of 3,000 GRT or

more shall hold an appropriate certificate this is defined under

____________ of the STCW as amended.

Reg. 11/2 Par

Officer in charge of a navigational watch on ships of 500 GRT or

more shall hold an appropriate certificate in accordance with

____________ of the STCW as amended.

Reg. 11/1

Regulation V/1 of the STCW as amended, defines the mandatory

minimum requirements and qualifications of Master and crews to

board what type of vessel?

tanker

IMO classes dangerous goods and hazardous substance 1-9.

Flammable liquids is classed______________. class 3

Which one of the following statement is to be undertaken when a

passenger ship is being surveyed for the issuance of Passenger Ship

Safety Equipment Certificate?

all of these

When a charterer has failed to load a full and complete in

accordance with the provision of the charter parts. A term where in

a sum is payable to ship owner is called __________.

dead freight

What was the former name of the International Maritime IMCO

Organization?

All vessels of 500 GRT and above should carry Radar. This

recommendation was made by ____________. RCH code

This is an Association of ship owners that mutually contribute to a

fund to cover member?s losses not normally covered by regular

Hull insurance.

P & I Club

What is the vessel?s frame that runs parallel to the keel? Longitudinal frame

What is the vessels Horizontal joint formed by joining plates in

Hull plating strokes? Seam

This is a part of the vessels structure which gives her watertight

integrity, connects Hull and binds the whole structure together. shell plates

This is the forward part of a vessel?s hull usually raised above the

main deck, typically use as store room or boatswain?s locker? forecastle

This is a vessel?s Equipment used in lowering and hoisting of

lifeboats. Boat winch

A continuous line of plating, extending along the ship?s side length

from forward to aft is called. Strake

The purpose of the deck beams is to ___________. support the deck load

The outboard strake of plating on each side of an inner bottom of a

vessel is called. Margin plate

What do you call the metal plates that cover the top of the haws

pipe? bucker plate

A motor powered vertical drum, revolving on an upright spindle

used for capstan

This area is called grand central station of an oil tanker where all

pipeline meet and interconnect in a relatively small space. pump room

The pipe arrangements wherein the shore pipe connects for the

purpose of loading and discharging oil is called. manifolds

New SOLAS Regulation requires all new built vessels of SWGRT

or more to be equipped with AIS. What does AIS means?

Automatic Information

System

When was the International Convention for the prevention of

Pollution of the sea by oil?

May 12, 1954 b, Feb. 1,

1954

The International for the Prevention of Pollution of the sea by oil

was done and adopted in __________. London

The International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution of the

sea by oil was adopted in London in 1954. When was this

convention entered into force by the Phil. Administration?

Jan 2, 1974

What is the allowable affluent which could be discharge overboard

at sea via the ship oil-water separator as stated in Marpol 73/78

Regulation.

15ppm

What is the explosive range of petroleum vapors mixed with air. 1% to 6%

Chemical action within a substance can caused ____________. spontaneous combustion

The volume of flammable and combustible liquids when its

temperature increase will ____________. expand

What is the validity of 10PP certificate of a tanker vessel of 30,000

DWT in 73/78? 4 years

What is the minimum bursting pressure for each cargo hose

assembly? at least 600 PSI

A new product tanker of 30,000 DWT or more shall be provided

with ______ as per MARPOL 73/78. segregate ballast tanks

Toxic substance are classified as Class 6.1 b . Class 6.5

A ship of 400 GRT is prohibited to discharge oily mixture from the

ship unless certain conditions are satisfied. Which one among the

following statement meet such condition? the ship is more than 12

miles from the nearest shore

none of these meet the

condition

Which one among the following operations must be compulsory

recorded?

bunkering of bulk

lubricating oil

For accidental and exceptional discharge of oil. Which one among

the list should be recorded in the oil record book? all of these

Which of the following list need NOT be recorded in the oil record

book of a tanker ship?

discharge of bilge watch

during the voyage

As per Reg. 26 of Annex I of MARPOL 73/78,shall be carried by

every oil tanker of _______. 150 GRT or more

MARPOL Annex V1 or Regulations for the prevention of Air

Pollution from Ships that limits sulphur oxide emissions from ships

will come into force on _______.

May 19, 2005

MARPOL Annex _________ is also known as the Regulation for

the prevention of air pollution from ships to limit their sulphur

oxide emissions.

Annex V1

Which one of the following method of oil clean-up operation is

NOT usually allowed? using sinking agents

When spills of persistent oil with greater than 1.0 specific gravity

happens, which one among the following statement is TRUE ?

do not readily evaporate and

difficult to recover

How many slop tanks shall be provided to new oil tankers of

70,000DWT? at least 2

Flammable solids are labeled _____________. red and white label

Which of the following list relates to the FTP Code ? fire safety requirements

What is the International Code for the Construction and Equipment

of Ship Carrying Dangerous Chemicals in Bulk ? IBC Code

Which one of the following list is an example of a flammable gasoline

liquid?

International survey shall be done to tankers 10 years of age every

__________.

3 months before or after the

date of the Cargo Ship

Safety Equipment

Certificate expiry.

What should you do to avoid small oil spills on deck going

overboard? plug the scuppers

When a ship is delivered after December 31, 1979 according to

MARPOL Regulations, she is considered a _________________. new ship

Which one of the following list of action should be done when an

incorrect entry were made in the oil record book?

draw a single line through

the wrong entry and initial it

What is the initial step, when ballasting through the cargo piping

system to prevent oil escaping into the sea?

start the cargo pump, then

open sea suction valve

During loading operations, packaged containing dangerous goods

shall be labeled to make clear its dangerous _______________. properties

An oil tanker satisfying the requirements for SBT, PL but not

COW should be designated as __________. product carrier

According to Oil Pollution Regulations, what is the required length

of the cargo hose to be used in transferring oil in Bulk? sufficient for maximum

MARPOL Regulations state no person may transfer oil to or from

vessel unless:

the oil cargo hose is

supported to prevent strain

on the coupling

Before Bunkering operation starts, which one of the following

action usually done first? plugging the scuppers

Which one of the following need NOT to be recorded in the Oil

Record Book of dry cargo vessel?

loading fuel for the voyage,

but may be recorded in the

appropriate log book

Which one among the list of gases is the MOST dangerous to

human safety in confined atmospheres, as it is absorbed by the

blood 300 times more quickly than oxygen?

carbon monoxide

With regards to MARPOL 73/78 regulations, Dedicating Clean

Ballast Tank is under what provisions (Annex)? Annex 1

With regards to MARPOL regulations, the Prevention of Air

Pollution from ships is under what provisions (Annex)? Annex V1

When oil fire is permitted to burn longer, it is usually _______. harder to extinguish

In the United Interpretation of Annex I of Marpol Regulations, the

term ? Protected Location of Segregated Ballast Tanks is

abbreviated:

PL

Which circumstances stated below is an exception to garbage

requirements in Annex V to Marpol 73/78?

a person falls overboard and

a plastic ice chest is thrown

for flotation

The Oil record book must be maintained onboard the vessel for

______.

not less than three years

after the last entry data

The Master and the ______ shall be aware of the serious effects of

operational or accidental pollution of the marine environment and

shall take all possible precaution to prevent such pollution

particularly with the framework of relevant international and port

regulation.

Officer In Charge of the

Watch

Matters in respect of tank cleaning and ballast water related

discharge by tanker ship is covered by what Annex of Marpol

Regulations?

Annex 1

Reducing the oil content from oily water mixtures to the lowest

allowable limit levels may be achieved by what methods? all of these

Annex IV of Marpol 73/78 requires a ship with sewage treatment

plant to have an approved certificate based on standard developed

by IMO. What is this certificate?

International Sewage

Pollution Prevention

Certificate

Under the United Interpretation of Annex I of Marpol 73/78 ? CBT

? means:

Dedicated Clean Ballast

Tanks

Other types of vessels carrying oil cargo (non-tankers) is required

pursuant to Annex I, Reg. 4 par. (1) to Marpol 73/78, to undergo a

survey of its structure, equipment, systems fitting arrangements and

materials before the ship is put into service. What is the required

minimum gross tonnage of such ships?

400 GRT

Regulation 8 (3) of Marpol 73/78 states that no IOPP certificate can

be extended for a period of at least ______. 3 months

For every entry in the Oil Record Book of dry cargo vessel, two

essential signatures are needed. These are the signatures of ______.

the Master and the Officer

In Charge of Operation

A ship of 400 GRT or more may discharge machinery space bilges

while en route and she is more than 12 miles from land provided

the oil of the effluent is less than ______.

100 ppm

Crude Oil is defined as _______.

any liquid hydrocarbon

mixture extracted from the

earth whether treated or not

to render it suitable for

transportation

In the anti-pollution regulations, which of the following means

?Discharge?? all of these

What is the instantaneous rate of discharge of oil content?

rate of discharge of oil in

liters per hour at any instant

divided by the speed of the

ship in knots at the same

instant

In recording in the Oil Record Book of your ship as to accidental

discharge or escape of oil from your ship, the approximate quantity

and type of oil is to be entered. Quantity should be expressed, of

the following terms, EXCEPT:

liters

The discharge of water from slop tanks of tankers shall be recorded

in the Oil Record Book as required by International Convention.

The following lists are activities to be recorded EXCEPT:

date and time started and

duration of operation

If it becomes necessary to pump bilges while your dry cargo vessel

is in port which of the following procedures should be followed?

pump only if discharge

outlet is led to shore tank,

barge or tank trucks

The supplement to the IOPP Certificate contains what type of data?

a checklist of the equipment

installed for controlling the

discharge of oil

Waste oil from the lube oil pumps machinery may NOT be: drained into the vessel?s

bilges

If a leak in a refueling hose coupling cannot be stopped by

tightening the coupling joint, you should:

stop the refueling operation

and correct the leak

Before any crew enter a closed or confined space, the officer in

charge must make sure that the oxygen content in that space is

NOT less than _____.

21%

Which of the following lists must be done if a small oil spill on

deck occurring while refueling?

cover the area with

absorbent material

Before entering an enclosed space containing spilled sewage, you

should test the atmosphere in the compartment for ______. all of these

Under new Marpol Regulations for Bulk Carriers safety, the option

of double hull construction would apply to new bulk carriers of

______ in length, carrying solid bulk cargoes having a density of

tons and above.

150 meters

The discharge of oily mixture into the sea is strictly prohibited

within the special areas EXCEPT:

segregated or clean ballast

water

All new-built product carrier of 30,000 DWT shall be provided

with _____. SBT

Under Reg. 10 of Marpol 74/78 Annex I, how many Special Areas

listed around the earth? 7

Under Marpol, Oil Pollution Regulation, the meaning of oil is

______. all of these

Which of the following actions should be done with the ashes from

your vessel?s incinerator which has burned packages containing

plastic?

discharge to shore facility

only




operation items

When oil spill occurs, what is the initial action to be done?

stop the flow of oil, notify

the authorities and initiate

cleaning procedures

Gasoline is a flammable liquid whose vapors are ______. all of these

When taking samples of a tank atmosphere with an explosimeter,

you should:

sample as much of the tank

as possible especially at the

bottom

As per new Marpol Regulations, ?new tanker? means a tanker

constructed and completed after ______. June 1, 1982

Under the Oil Pollution Act, due diligence describes as ______. all of these

Which among the following deals mainly with SBT, CBT and

COW? OPA 90

Which among the following deals with the Protocol of Marpol? pollution by mandatory

reporting



73/78 and Solas is also known as _____.

IBC Code

Dunnage are to be disposed of how many miles outside Special

Areas? 25 miles

Under Marpol 73/78, what does ?Regulation? mean?

Regulations contained in the

Annexes to the present

convention

The International Code for the Construction and Equipment for

Ships carrying Dangerous Chemicals in Bulk,is mandatory under

Marpol 73/78 but is voluntary under Solas. This is also known as

______.

BCH Code

This Convention was adopted in 1954 to address the growing

concern for Prevention of Pollution. Which one among the list is

this Convention?

International Convention for

the Prevention of Pollution

by Oil

Which of the following addresses the requirements for the

Prevention of Pollution by Sewage and Prevention of Pollution by

Garbage?

Marpol 73 Convention

The saturation of a dry bulk product with water to the point where

it acts as liquid is called ______. flow state

Argon is classified as a ______. non-flammable gas

On which of the following vessels does the the Marpol Convention

NOT apply? naval vessels

Which of the following certificates is required by U.N. Code of

Federal Regulation 33 to vessels entering U.N. waters and issued

by the USCG?

Certificate of Financial

Responsibility

The pipeline from the suction point in a cargo to th4 shore

connection used for loading the cargo and includes all ships,

piping, pump and filters is called _____.

associated piping

Which of the following certificates is issued to any vessel carrying

noxious liquid substance in bulk? INLS Certificate

Marpol 73/78, Reg. 26 of Annex I deals with what aspect of

Pollution Regulation? SOPEP

This substance is soluble with water in all proportion at wash water

temperature and is called ______. high viscosity substance

The Code for the Construction and Equipment of ships carrying

dangerous Chemicals in Bulk is also known as ______. BCH Code

This is a sea area where for recognized technical reasons in relation

to oceanographic and ecological condition and to the particular

character of its traffic for the adoption of special mandatory

methods for prevention of sea pollution is called _____.

Special Area

When did Marpol 73/78 Regulation of Annex I came into force? Oct. 2, 1983

These are noxious substances with melting points less than 15 deg

Centigrade and have temperature at the time of unloading less 5

deg Centigrade above its melting point and are called _____.

solidifying substances

Management process include which of the following? all of these

What is the purpose of an organization? all of these

What is the ability to get things done right? efficiency

How many blasts does the lowering the ship?s lifeboat are sounded

on the ship?s whistle? one short blast

A significant development in the environment of a number of

organizations among nations is called _____. globalization

Assigning others the authority and responsibility for carrying

specific task is called ______. delegation

What is the most basic resource of an organization? personnel

Which among the following is a major incentive for superior

management performance? promotions

The most common On-The-Job training methods are job rotation,

internship and ______. apprenticeship

Personnel ethics concern all of the following EXCEPT: charity

Each liferaft which is launched from a position more than 10 feet

above the water must be ______. launched by a davit

When a ship?s crew suffers from a simple fracture, you should

_______.

prevent further movement

of the bone

When a ship?s crew chokes suddenly, cannot speak and starts to

turn blue, what action should be taken?

administer the Heimlich

maneuver

When a crew meets an accident and became unconscious, you

should first look for evidence of ______. irregular breathing

When a crew faints, you should ______. lay him down with his head

lower than his feet

When there are multiple accidents onboard, which should you

attend first for emergency treatment? severe shock

All of the following operational requirements is verified by PSCO,

EXCEPT:

duties and responsibilities of

every crew onboard

What is the most frequently used appraisal approach? a superior?s rating of

subordinate

It is important preserving knowledge because ______. it is a foundation of future

development

Learning by observation is a kind of: I. formal training II. Informal

training II only

The methods of training on board merchant ships may be classified

as formal or informal. Learning by way of acting as assistant of the

trainer in special operations is a kind of: I. formal training II.

Informal training

II only

The methods of training on board merchant ships may be classified

as formal or informal. Learning by way of acting as assistant of the

trainer in an unusual mooring operation is a kind of: I. formal

training II. Informal training

II only

The best form of assessment of training on board ship is by way of

_____.

demonstrating competence

in the workplace

When detailed plans are drawn to meet the training objectives the

method of training becomes a/an ______. I. formal training II.

Informal training

I only

How long will the training session last is part of what stage in the

formal training method of training on board? planning

Failure to provide the necessary spares such as bulbs, fuses for

overhead projectors, used in training indicates an error or omission

in the _____ stage of the formal training session.

preparation

Where the training is going to be carried out is part of ______. planning

What strategy or methods to be used in the conduct of training on

board, is one of the items to be considered when _____ a formal

training session.

planning

Which of the following methods of training is not to be carried out

when planning a formal training session?

an outline of the training

syllabus

Giving trainees introductory reading or data gathering to carry out

prior to the start of the training session, is what part of formal

training?

information

Showing a video film is what method of training? I. formal training

II. Informal training I only

Which of the following tasks is part of the delivery component of a

formal training session on board ship?

tell the trainees what they

are going to be taught

Which of the following tasks is part of the delivery component of a

formal training session on board?

teach the trainees what you

are going to teach them

In a group discussion method of formal training the trainees are

_____.

encouraged to present the

key points in relation to his

own ship and the particular

voyage

To avoid boring lectures, the trainer must _____ all of these

Summarizing the main points discussed in the training session is

part of the ______ stage in formal training. delivery

When planning a training program onboard, senior sea staff must

recognize that: training time is limited

To make sure the effort and achievements are properly recognized

as part of the certification of competency to international standards,

it is necessary to have:

all of these

Basically onboard training programs must be conducted ______. while the ship is at sea on a

particular voyage

IMO has adopted two very important instruments reflecting

governments views on means to enhance safe ship operation

worldwide. Which are these instruments? I. STCW & ISM II.

STCW & SOLAS

I only

ISM was added on as a new chapter of Solas in 1994. Which

Chapter of Solas is this? Chapter IX

When was ISM added as Chapter IX to Solas? 1994

The STCW 95 Convention represents a comprehensive package of

interrelated measures designed to improve the overall standards of

seafarer�s competence worldwide. These essential areas are the

following EXCEPT.

new ship management staff

onboard responsibilities in

relation to safety

Historically, the regulation of safety and pollution prevention in

international shipping has developed through three stages. Which

of these is not part thereof?

compliance with the rules

The ISM Code directed to Resources and Personnel states that the

company shall establish and maintain procedures for identifying

any _____, which may be required in support of the ISM and

ensure that such is provided for all personnel concerned.

training

_______ implies that we determine the extent of some

characteristics associated with something, e.g. a person or an

object.

measurement

_______ implies that we are comparing a measurement with a

given standard and then judging on the result of that comparison. assessment

? This cadet can use the radar to establish the course and speed of

another vessel in less than ten minutes ?. Which of the following

implies this?

measurement

The master remarks ? That is too slow ? . Which of the following

implies this? assessment

When we are passing a judgment on the basis of a comparison, we

are making a: norm-reference assessment

When we are comparing a measurement with some objective

standards, we are making a _____.

criterion-reference

assessment

Basically, evidence of competence can be collected from the

sources listed herein in order to prove that a candidate can perform

the required tasks to the standard specified in the performance

criteria of the Training Record Boot. Which of these is not

appropriate?

academic background

showing high gradings

In assessment, the major strength of using historical evidence is the

_____ of the evidence available. I. quantity II. Quality both I & II




competence

Some of assessors pitfalls are the following EXCEPT: lack of criterion standards

______ describes the necessary checks and balances in the

assessment system. verification

Which of the following is NOT appropriate before abandoning a

vessel? secure cash and valuables

In training, a trainer makes effective presentation with the

following EXCEPT:

making trainees comfortable

with their coffee and snacks

The following are training methods EXCEPT: one-on-one

The following are training methods EXCEPT: questions and answers

Question Answer

When was the International Health Regulations adopted? 1969

The ILO Convention for Medical Care and Sickness Benefits was

adopted in _____. 1969

A quarantine officer finds your vessel to have a specific deficiency,

he issues_____. controlled free pratique

A Deratting Certificate is valid for ______ 6 months

International Health Regulations 1969 was adopted in _____. Geneva

What would you call an infected person in an international voyage

as defined in the International Health Regulations? imported case

A vessel in an international voyage arrives from a foreign a foreign

port. What is issued to the vessel before port authorities and agents

can board?

Free Pratique

When was the Philippine Merchant Marine Regulation revised? 1997

The provisions of the rules and regulations shall NOT apply to the

following EXCEPT:

passenger ship of 500 GRT

or more

As defined in the revised PMMR, which of the following is the

uppermost deck up to which transverse watertight bulkheads are

carried?

Bulkhead deck

As defined in the revised PMMR, a ship which is not a new ship is

______. existing ship

As defined in the revised PMMR, a ship which has no

superstructure on the freeboard deck is ______. flush deck ship

As defined in the revised PMMR, the distance measured vertically

downwards amidships from the upper edge of the deck line to the

upper edge of the related loadline is ______.

freeboard assigned

As defined in the revised PMMR, the uppermost complete deck

exposed to weather and sea which has permanent means of closing

all openings in the weather part thereof is ______.

freeboard deck

As defined in the revised PMMR, the moulded depth amidships,

plus the thickness of the freeboard deck stringer plate is ______. depth of freeboard

As defined in the revised PMMR, the tonnage as measured in

accordance with the International Tonnage Convention 1969 and

for ships of less than 24 meters in length is called ______.

gross tonnage

As defined in the revised PMMR, the vertical distance measured

from the top of the keel to the top of the freeboard deck beam at

side is ______.

moulded depth

Special purpose ships to which the revised PMMR apply includes

the following EXCEPT:

pleasure ships catering to

special people of the

government

As per revised PMMR, inspection of hull, boilers, machinery,

firefighting/life saving appliances, pilot ladders, navigation lights

and details specified in the certificate shall be made ______.

annually

As stipulated in the revised PMMR, ships not classed shall be

drydocked every ______. two years

As stipulated in the revised PMMR, passenger ships not classed

shall be drydocked every ______. year

As stipulated in the revised PMMR, renewal survey is done at

intervals specified by the Administration but not exceeding

______.

5 years

As stipulated in the revised PMMR, Class C ships are _____. tankers

As stipulated in the revised PMMR, how many ship?s categories

are there? 3

As stipulated in the revised PMMR, ships shall be provided with at

least two independent means for communicating orders between

navigating bridge and the machinery space or control room, one of

which shall be_____.

engine telegraph

As stipulated in the revised PMMR, engine telegraph can be

dispensed with if the main propulsion engine ______.

directly controlled from the

navigating bridge

As stipulated in the revised PMMR, electrical power shall be made

available for three hours on the following EXCEPT: at the steering gear, if any


available for 12 hours on the following EXCEPT: main deck


available for 12 hours on the following EXCEPT:

paint lockers and store

rooms

As stipulated in the revised PMMR, Class A ships are _____. passenger ships

As stipulated in the revised PMMR, the capacity of required

portable fire extinguishers shall not be less than ______. 9 liters

As stipulated in the revised PMMR, the capacity of required

portable fire extinguishers shall not be more than ______. 13.5 liters

As stipulated in the revised PMMR, all required portable fire

extinguishers shall weigh not exceeding ______. 23 kgs

As stipulated in the revised PMMR, each fire extinguisher shall, as

far as practicable, be clearly marked of the following EXCEPT:

name of manufacturer, year

of manufacture, and date of

expiry

As stipulated in the revised PMMR, each fire extinguisher shall, as

far as practicable, be clearly marked of the following EXCEPT:

name of manufacturer and

inspector

As stipulated in the revised PMMR, a fireman?s outfit shall consist

of the following personnel equipment EXCEPT:

an electric lamp with a

minimum burning period of

1 hour

As stipulated in the revised PMMR, a 5,000 GRT vessel shall carry

how many fireman?s outfit? 3 sets

As stipulated in the revised PMMR, every ship documented in the

Philippines shall be assigned a/an_______. official number

As stipulated in the revised PMMR, ______ is the number of

qualified, competent and certificated officers and ratings on board a

ship who can safely operate her at all times.

safe manning

A ship of domestic ownership shall be deleted or de-registered

from the Philippine registry in any of the following EXCEPT:

when the ship is undergoing

major repairs

Ships engaged in the domestic trade carrying 500 to 2000

passengers and having 12 hours or less voyage duration shall

carry_____.

one registered nurse or

midwife

Presidential Decree 97 is replaced by______ R.A. 8544

______is known as the Philippine Merchant Marine Act of 1998? R.A. 8544

The R.A. 8544 took effect in _____. 1998

Republic Act No. 8981 is otherwise known as _________. The PRC Modernization

Act of 2003

The statement wherein the state (the Philippines) recognizes the

important role of Professionals in nation-building is embodied in

________.

Section 2, Republic Act

8981

A declared policy of the state (the Philippines) to ?promote and

insure the safety of life and property at sea? is enshrined in

_________.

Art. II, Section 2 of R.A.

No. 8544.

A statement of policy when the Philippines desires to ?promote the

sustained development of a reservoir of professionals whose

competence has been determined by honest and credible licensure

examinations is enshrined in _________.

Section 2, R.A. No. 8981

Under R.A. 8981, the Professional Regulation Commission is a

________. Three-man commission

Under R.A. 8981, what is the term of the chairperson of the PRC? 7 years

Under R.A. 8981, the Professional Regulation Commission is

_______.

attached to the office of the

President of the Philippines

Under R.A. 8981, the chairperson of the Professional Regulation

Commission _________. I. shall be at least forty (40) years of age

II. has had at least five (5) years of executive and management

experience

Both I and II

R.A. 8981 provides that ?the Commission shall establish and

maintain a high standard of admission to the practice of all

professions and at all times ensure and safeguard the integrity of all

licensure examination?. This is _________.

an exercise of the powers

and functions of the

commission.

The responsibility of publishing the list of successful examinees is

prescribed under ________ of R.A. 8981. Section 7, paragraph (d)

The PRC is duty-bound ?to provide schools, colleges and

universities, public and private? with copies of sample test

questions on examinations recently conducted by the commission?.

Under what particular section of R.A. 8981 is this provision

prescribed?

Section 7, para (d)

The PRC is duty-bound ?to provide schools, colleges and Section 7, para (d)

universities with copies of the syllabi or terms of specifications of

subjects for licensure examinations?. Under what particular section

of R.A. 8981 is this prescribed?

The issuance of endorsement Certificate to the marine deck and

marine engineer officers pursuant to the 1995 STCW convention is

provided in what particular Section of R.A. 8981?

Section 7, para (e)

Once a certification of registration or certificate of competency is

issued to the marine deck and engine officers, these ?certificates

cannot be withdrawn, cancelled, revoked or suspended except for

just cause?. This particular provision of law is specified under

___________ of R.A. 8981.

Section 7, para (e)

The Professional Regulation Commission is empowered to ?create

or abolish position or change the designation of existing positions

in accordance with a staffing pattern? prepared by the Commission.

This power of the Commission is specified under ____________ of

the R.A. 8981.

Section 7, para (h)

The members of the Board of Examiners for Deck and Engine

Officers are appointed to their positions thru the following

processes? I. the candidate is endorsed by the MMAP or MEOP as

the case maybe to the PRC, then PRC recommend to the office of

the President of the Philippines for appointment II. the President of

the Philippines appoint directly the member of the Board of

Examiners without benefit of any recommendation from PRC.

I only

To implement the program for full computerization of the operation

of the Commission, PRC is authorized to use its income, in

addition to its annual budget, an amount not exceeding:

45 million pesos a year for a

period of 5 years

Under the transitory provision of R.A. 8981 the former Executive

Director of PRC shall serve as: Assistant commissioner



Length and nature of voyage and trading route II. Construction and

technical equipment of ships III. Number, size and type of main

propulsion units and auxiliary

I, II & III



Size of ships: tonnage and type II. Care of passenger?s safety III.

Radio and health personnel regulations

I, II & III

The minimum safe manning as provided for in Chapter XVIII of

PMMRR is assessed on a case to case basis ________. I. upon

request of the company II. upon request of the master of the vessel

subject to the approval of the company

I only

The manning requirement for tugboats, dredgers and anchor

handling vessels engaged in coastwise voyage between 35 and 100

2 deck personnel and 2

engine personnel

gross tonnage as required by Chapter XVIII of the PMMRR

comprise ________.

Chapter XVII of the PMMRR requires that the master of tugboat of

between 100 and 250 gross tonnage engaged in coastwise voyage

should be at least a licensed ________.

second mate or major patron

Chapter XVIII of the PMMRR requires that the master of fishing

vessels engaged in coastwise voyage 150 to 250 gross tonnage

should at least be a licensed _______.

Minor Patron

Chapter XVIII of the PMMRR requires that the master of a cargo

vessel engaged in coastwise voyage of 500 to 999 gross tonnage

should at least be a licensed ________.

Second Mate b.Chief Mate

Regulation XVII/1 of the PMMRR adopts the HSC code under

IMO MSC Resolution No. 36(63) dated 20 May 1994. This code

applies to passenger high speed crafts which do not proceed in the

course of its voyage more than _________ hours at operational

speed from a place of refuge when fully loaded.

4

Regulation XVII/1 of the PMMRR adopts the HSC code under

IMO MSC Resolution No. 36(63) dated May 1994. This code

applies to cargo crafts of 500 gross tonnage and upward which do

not proceed in the course of their voyage more than ________

hours at operational speed from a place of refuge when fully

loaded.

.8

Category A high speed crafts as defined by Regulation XVII/2 of

the PMMRR are passenger crafts carrying not more than

_________ passengers.

450

Which of the following type of vessels is exempted from the

issuance of a CWL under Regulation XV/18 of the PMMRR? Fishing boats

What certificate is required before a ship can be issued a CWL? Certificate of Inspection

A ship?s homeport as defined by Regulation XV/6 of the PMMRR

may be her ___________. I. Port of call II. Area of operation

nearest to where the company?s principal office is located

Either I or II

In which of the following condition can a homeport of a ship be

changed as allowed by Regulation XV/6 of the PMMRR? I.

Change in ports of call or area of operation of the ship. II. Change

of owner who is domiciled in another place.

Either I or II

Philippine Fishing Vessels shall be issued a commercial fishing

boat licensed by the _____ Dept. of Agriculture/BFAR

How many persons consist of the Board for Marine Deck Officers

under R.A. 8544? Chairman + 4 members

_______ appoints the Board for Marine Deck Officers? the President of the

Philippines

Under R.A. 8544, the minimum age for a Chairperson of PRC to be

accepted is: 40 years old

Under R.A. 8544, the term for any PRC Commissioner is______. 7 years

A ship Safety Certificate is issued by MARINA valid for a period

not exceeding: 5 years

If a Ship Safety Certificate expires at sea, MARINA may extend it

until the port where it is to be surveyed but in no case shall it be

more than ______.

1 month

______ transferred the safety function of the Philippine Coast

guard to MARINA. E.O. 125/125-A

______ issues authority for motorized boats with outriggers to

carry passengers by: MARINA

MARINA was created under ______. P.D. 474

MARINA was created in _______. June 1974

MARINA has officially started its operations in______. August 1995

MARINA?s jurisdiction covers the various sectors of the country?s

maritime industry EXCEPT:

Maritime Manning

Agencies


offices EXCEPT: Board Of Marine Inquiry


offices EXCEPT:

Registration and

Enforcement Office


offices EXCEPT:

Maritime Management

Office

All Philippine ports were administered by the Bureau of Customs

prior to: 1977

Which of the following administered all Philippine ports prior to

1997? Bureau of Customs

When was the Philippine Ports authority created? 1977

The Philippine Ports Authority was created in_____. 1977

P.D. 857 P.D. 875

Cebu Port Authority was created through _____. R.A. 7621

Cebu Port authority was created on June 26, 1992, became

operationalized on: Jan. 1, 1996

Under what PPA Memo circular falls the Performance of Harbor

Pilots in rendering pilotage services to vessels? M.C. 40-2002

There are how many Port District Offices ( PDO) throughout the

Philippines? 5

Which of the following agencies is responsible for the markings on

loadlines of Phil. Flag vessels?



______ are field offices which deliver frontline services and are

organized into semi-autonomous units. Port District Offices

Under whose jurisdiction are the Port District Offices? Port Management Services

Vessels engaged in foreign trade that enter any Philippine port

whether private or government shall be charged Port Dues at

_____.

$ 0.81/GRT

Vessels engaged in foreign trade that berth at any government port

of call shall be charged DOCKAGE AT BERTH per GRT per

calendar day or fraction thereof, provided that, for the purpose of

computation, a maximum of 50,000 GRT at US$:

$ 0.20/GRT

Vessels over 100 GRT engaged in domestic trade that berth or drop

anchor at any government port shall be charged DOMESTIC

DOCKAGE of_____.

Php 0.60/GRT/Calendar day

or fraction thereof

Vessels over 100 GRT engaged in domestic trade that are

authorized to lay-up and anchor at any government port shall be

charged LAY UP fee of _____

Php 30.50/GRT/calenday

day or fraction thereof

The measurements of a standard shipping container that are

specified by the International Standards Organization? 20 ft x 8.5 ft

What is the equivalent of one such standard unit for measuring a 20

foot container? 1 TEU

40-foot Containers are equivalent to_______ 2 TEUs

Under what government agency is the Philippine Ports Authority?

Department of

Transportation and

Communication

A Philippine flag vessel which is not normally engaged in

international voyage but which is required to undertake a single

voyage in exceptional circumstances may be exempted from the

requirement of SOLAS 74/78 provided the ship _______.

adopts safety requirements



Art. 12 of the _______ requires the Master of any ship sailing

under any flag to render assistance to ships or persons in distress at

sea, as far as this can be done without serious danger to his ship,

the crew or the passengers.

Geneva Convention on the

High Sea (1958)

Which of the following conventions imposes upon flag states the

obligation to ensure safety at sea in the high sea with regard top the

construction, equipment and seaworthiness of ships?

UNCLOS





When did the SOLAS Protocol 1978 enter into force? May 1, 1981




navigation

II & III



navigation

I only


pre-sea medical

examination is more


medical examination



When was ILO Convention No. 185 enforced? Feb. 9, 2005







III only




persons


System


System



in a state of continuous readiness so that 2 crew can carry out


5 minutes













I only




equipment?

International

Electrotechnical

Commission




per person





I & II



to ILO is _______.

198 cm




198 cm



Practical test under the STCW Convention as amended is required


duly qualified as required in _______.

Reg. I/6









hydrocarbon used is _______. propane







EXCEPT: fixed



_______.

Jan. 1, 1986

PSCO?s guidelines under the 1969 Tonnage Convention for the Jan. 1, 1986


_______.





recommendations comes from _____. RCH Code


recommendations is under: RCH Code









220 lbs





73/78 and SOLAS is also known is ______.

IBC Code



________.

4 years


________.


unique to it


represent?


unique to it











The basic legal requirements of the 1995 STCW Convention are Regulations

provided for in the ___.






Regulation VI/2



fighting?

Regulation VI/3






Chapter II



additional familiarization in ____________.

crisis management

Inspection on compliance to regulation I/4 of the 1995 STCW

Convention, as amended is done by the ______________. port state control officer



maintained. What particular provisions of the 1995 STCW


Regulation I/4




Convention?

Chapter II



Part B

II only



duly qualified as required by ________.

Regulation I/6










placard




TRUE?




poison.





_____________.

2.5 kgs










seagoing condition




requirements?

2 meters





Emergency position





Manning Document??


1990




competence





Convention NO.108

address






certificate

Art. 12 of the _______ requires the Master of any ship sailing Geneva Convention on the

under any flag to render assistance to ships or persons in distress at

sea, as far as this can be done without serious danger to his ship,

the crew or the passengers.

High Sea (1958)

Which of the following conventions imposes upon flag states the

obligation to ensure safety at sea in the high sea with regard top the

construction, equipment and seaworthiness of ships?

UNCLOS





When did the SOLAS Protocol 1978 entered into force? May 1, 1981




navigation

II & III




navigation

I only


pre-sea medical

examination is more


medical examination


When was ILO Convention No. 185 enforced? Feb. 9, 2005







III only




persons


System


System



in a state of continuous readiness so that 2 crew can carry out 5 minutes















I only



equipment?

International

Electrotechnical

Commission




per person





I & II



to ILO is _______.

198 cm




198 cm



Practical test under the STCW Convention as amended is required


duly qualified as required in _______.

Reg. I/6






pumping connection are made of flange hose? hose







hydrocarbon used is _______. propane







EXCEPT: fixed




_______.

Jan. 1, 1986

PSCO?s guidelines under the 1969 Tonnage Convention for the


_______.

Jan. 1, 1986















220 lbs





73/78 and SOLAS is also known is ______.

IBC Code


loading crude oil?

pumping arrangement


ship





______ in length, carrying solid bulk.

150 meters



________.

4 years


________.


unique to it


represent?


unique to it









The basic legal requirements of the 1995 STCW Convention are

provided for in the ___. Regulations






Regulation VI/2



fighting?

Regulation VI/3






Chapter II



additional familiarization in ____________.

crisis management

Inspection on compliance to regulation I/4 of the 1995 STCW port state control officer

Convention, as amended is done by the ______________.



maintained. What particular provisions of the 1995 STCW


Regulation I/4




Convention?

Chapter II



Part B

II only



duly qualified as required by ________.

Regulation I/6










requirements?

2 meters





placard



TRUE?




poison.





_____________.

2.5 kgs










seagoing condition





knowledge and understanding of the ___ to be assessed.

competence



Emergency position





Manning Document??


1990


evaluate the situation & determine how best to limit the pollution &



I and/or II





Convention NO.108

address






certificate

What makes the U.S. Oil Pollution Act of 1990 (OPA-90) different

from other international recognized laws?

the possibility of unlimited

liability

With regards to OPA-90, what may be the consequences of

unlimited liability?

that P & I will only cover

USD 500 + 200 million and

additional expenses will be

charged the owner/operator

of the vessel, if necessary

by taking legal action to

bring in the funds.

With respect to OPA-90, what can lead to ?unlimited liability??

Willful misconduct, gross

negligence, violation of

Federal Safety and

Notification requirements,

etc.

OPA-90 is applicable only to what type of vessels? All types of vessels

Under OPA-90, shipboard emergency drills must be carried out at Once a month

least.



under OPA-90?


Manager




crew







I and/or II


_______.



manifold

Which of the following statements regarding OPA-90 is correct?

COTP zones may have

specific rules and

regulations in addition to

OPA-90.

Are there any exceptions from OPA-90?

Yes, transit passage through

U.S. waters to a non-U.S.

port.

Which of the following notification requirements is correct

regarding OPA-90.

Notify as soon as you have

knowledge of a spill or

threat of a spill.

With reference to OPA-90, when are reports made?

Safety of the vessel, safe

navigation and safe cargo

handling is affected,

including similar

occurrence.

With reference to OPA-90, who shall notify the cleaning up

contractor when there is an oil spill? The Qualified Individual

With reference to OPA-90, which of the following Notification

Logging Procedures is CORRECT?

Every report/message must

be logged including

time/date.

OPA-90 is referring to a Qualified Individual (QI). What is

CORRECT?

QI is an authorized

individual, located in the

U.S., and contracted by the

owner/operator of the

vessel.

With reference to OPA-90, do you always have to notify the Yes, within thirty (30)

National Response Center? minutes

With reference to OPA-90, who is responsible for the

implementation of the VRP?

The Oil Spill Management

Team

With regards to ?Unlimited liability? under OPA-90, which of the

following is NOT an example of ?gross negligence??

Lack of unity among the

crew

With respect to OPA-90, what can lead to ?Unlimited liability??

Willful misconduct except

violations of Federal safety,

construction or operation

regulations.

With reference to OPA-90, what is the OPPT?

A emergency team that is

drilled in pollution

prevention tasks

The main purpose of the Oil Transfer Procedure Safety Meeting

under the OPA-90 is:

to co-ordinate operation,

safety and emergency

routines

With reference to OPA-90, what is the top priority if an incident

occurs in U.S. waters? safety of ship and crew

Under OPA-90, shipboard emergency drills must be carried out at

least. Once a month



under OPA-90?


Manager




crew



Under the provisions of OPA-90, what type of vessels shall carry

an approved VRP?

Vessels carrying oil as

cargo



would require the application of _______.





operation items




pages








washed

Which of the following should not be record on tankers to be crude quantity of crude oil being

oil washed? washed




Category D


_______.



manifold


_______. March 24, 2006

The adoption of amendment to Annex I of Marpol 73/78 was on

______. March 24, 2006


73/78? March 24, 2006






substance






substance




pumping connection are made of flange hose? hose




loading crude oil?

pumping arrangement


ship


EXCEPT:

pumping arrangement


the ship


NOT consider?

pumping arrangement


ship



_______ in length, carrying solid bulk cargoes.

150 meters



______ in length, carrying solid bulk.

150 meters








I and/or II



would require the application of _______.





Category D




operation items




pages








washed

Which of the following should not be record on tankers to be crude

oil washed?


washed


_______. March 24, 2006

The adoption of amendment to Annex I of Marpol 73/78 was on

______. March 24, 2006


73/78? March 24, 2006






substance






substance



_______.



manifold




_______.



manifold


EXCEPT:

pumping arrangement


the ship


NOT consider?

pumping arrangement


ship



_______ in length, carrying solid bulk cargoes.

150 meters

A structural and systematic methodology aimed at enhancing

maritime safety, including for use in IMO rule-making process by

using risk analysis and cost benefit assessment is called ______.

Formal Safety Assessment

The Formal Safety Assessment methodology can be applied by: all of these

The term used in Formal Safety Assessment (FSA) which denotes a

combination of the frequency and severity of the consequence is

the ______.

Risk

This is defined as a departure from acceptable practice on the part

of an individual or group of individuals that can result in

unacceptable or undesirable results.

Human Error

What is meant by Risk Analysis as used in Formal Safety

Assessment?

a detailed investigation of

the causes and

consequences which

influences the level of risk

Which of the following is NOT a hazard external to the ship? thermal heating fluid system

Which of the following is NOT a risk control measure under the

Formal Safety Assessment?

increase the probability of

accidents to occur

Which of the following is NOT considered a personal factor

connected with Human-Related Hazards? Lack of Resources

Which of the following is NOT a recognized level of risk? Societal Risk

The term used in Risks Control Measures associated with Formal Preventive Risk Control

Safety Assessment, which means reduction of the probability of an

event to occur is ______.

Character and personality are products of heredity, environment,

training and ______. personal determination

When a person entering seafaring because he wants a better life,

freedom and responsibility, he has ______. higher motivation

The ability to become what one would choose to be is _____. self-determination

The goals of purpose that one chooses to give a sense of direction

and meaning of one?s whole personality are _____. values

Which of the following deters progress? all of these

We are taught to pay great respect to our national flag and the pride

of being a Filipino while singing the national anthem. This is the

effect of ______.

colonialization


EXCEPT: determined


EXCEPT determined

Which of the following is/are the Filipino principles and norms? all of these

One important contributory aspects to the cause and avoidance of

accidents is _______. human element

The strength of a Filipino character are the following EXCEPT: non-frustration

The following makes up a culture EXCEPT: national pride

Some of the following comprises Formal Safety Assessment

EXCEPT: error identification

In identifying hazards, it is necessary to rank them, prioritizing

them to discard scenarios of minor significance. These scenarios

are prioritized by:

risk level

The purpose of problem definition is/are: all of these

In the preparation for the study of a problem, the following are

considered relevant when addressing ships EXCEPT: age of ship

For application of Formal Safety Assessment, a generic model

should be defined to describe one or all of the following: all of these



functions. Where the problem relates to a type of ship, these


prevention of fire



functions. Where these problem relates to a type of hazard, these


emergency response

The acronym of FSA in IMO is: Formal Safety Assessment

For the application of Formal Safety Assessment in the

identification of hazards, identify a list of hazards and associated

scenarios prioritized by ______.

risk level

The identified hazards in Formal Safety Assessment and their

associated scenarios relevant to the problem under consideration

should be ranked according to _____.

all of these

In risk analysis, a detailed investigation of the causes and

consequences of the more important scenarios should be done. This

can be achieved by ______.

all of these

The purpose of Risk Control Options (RCO) comprises the

following stages EXCEPT:

focusing on all problem

areas and consolidating

them

Determine problem areas needing control by ______. all of these

A cost benefit assessment may consist one or more of the

following: all of these

In making recommendations for decision-making in IMO, they

should be based upon: all of these

Hazardous substances onboard in accommodation areas include the

following EXCEPT: paint

To facilitate the common understanding and use of Formal Safety

Assessment (FSA)at IMO in the rule making process, each report

of an FSA process should:

all of these

The Formal Safety Assessment methodology comprises: all of these

The acronym of HRA in IMO is: Human Reliability Analysis

Human Reliability Analysis (HRA) process consists of the

following EXCEPT:

frequency and degree of

human error

Human Reliability Analysis (HRA) can be considered to fit into the

overall FSA process in the following way EXCEPT:

frequency of human tasks

and their errors

Human-related hazards onboard ship is attributed to the following

factors EXCEPT:

restricted visibility or high

traffic density

Shipboard hazards to personnel include the following EXCEPT: personnel unfamiliarity of

the ship

The minor severity index of a hazard has an equivalent fatality of

_____. 0.01

Hazards are to be prioritized and scenarios ranked. To facilitate the

ranking and its validation, ________, are defied on a logarithmic

scale.

consequence and priority

If the severity index of a hazard is significant, its effect on a ship is

______. non-severe ship damage

If the severity index of a hazard is severe, its equivalent fatality is

_______. 1

If the severity index of a hazard is catastrophic, its effect on human

safety is ______. multiple fatalities

If the severity index of a hazard is remote, it is likely to occur one

per year in a fleet of: 1,000 ships

If the equivalent fatality is 10, the severity index of a hazard is

_______. catastrophic

The two fundamental measures of risk are individual and _______. societal

Individual risk is assessed against frequency of occurrence and

______. severity of outcome

The best practice is to recognize the three levels of risk. Which one

is NOT? tolerable

Generally, accidents that cause one or two fatalities are best

assessed by: individual risk

Where the risk control measure reduces the probability of the

event, this control is called: preventive risk control

You are on watch at sea on course 090 degrees T. A man falls

overboard on your starboard side. You immediately start a

Williamson Turn. Which step is not a part of a Williamson Turn?

Step 2: stop the engines

until clear of the man

You suspect that a crew has fallen overboard during the night and

immediately execute a Williamson Turn. What is the PRIMARY

advantage of this maneuver under these circumstances?

you will be on a reciprocal

course and nearly on the

tract line ran during the

night

Upon receipt of a distress message, a merchant vessel is bound to

the scene of the distress. Under which of the following cases would

this NOT apply?

the master of the vessel in

distress has requisitioned

another vessel, and the

vessel has accepted the

requisition

You are approaching a distressed vessel to remove survivors which

is on fire. Your approached should be ______.

to windward of the

distressed vessel

Under which of the following conditions would a racetrack turn to

be superior to the Williamson Turn in a man overboard situation?

the sea water is very cold

and the man is visible

While underway in thick fog, you are on watch and hear ? man

overboard ?. What type of maneuver should you make? Williamson Turn

While underway, a crossing vessel from your portside is coming

close in a collision course. You should ______.

warn her with a series of

short blasts

Portable foam type fire extinguishers are most effective on ______. oil fires

The most effective extinguishing action of dry chemical is ______. breaking the chain reaction

A portable dry chemical fire extinguisher discharges by _______. pressure from a small CO2

cartridge on the extinguisher

A foam type portable fire extinguisher would be most useful in

combating a fire in ______. flammable liquids

How does foam extinguish an oil fire? by excluding the oxygen

from the fire

Traditionally, the signal for fire aboard ship is ______.

continuous sounding of the

ship whistle and the general

alarm for at least 10 seconds

All of the following are part of the fire triangle EXCEPT: electricity

Which statement is TRUE concerning a motor lifeboat? all of these

Of the following medicaments, which is NOT antibiotic? antihistamine

Signs of respiratory arrest requiring artificial respiration is (are)

_____.

blue color and lack of

breathing

A fire in the galley ALWAYS poses the additional threat of _____. a grease fire in the

ventilation system

A shipmate chokes suddenly, cannot speak, and starts to turn blue.

You should:

perform the Heimlich

maneuver

Seawater may be used for drinking _______. under no condition

If you have to abandon the ship, the EPIRB can be used to ______. send radio homing signals

to searching aircrafts

Which procedure should be followed when individuals rescued in

cold climates suffer from hypothermia? immerse them in warm bath

Immediately after abandoning the ship, lookouts should be posted

aboard liferafts to look for: survivors in the water

When dry chemical extinguishers are used to put out Class B fire,

there is danger of reflash because dry chemical ______. does little or no cooling

A rescue helicopter?s hoist area should have a radius of ______. 50 ft of clear deck

The purpose of air tanks in lifeboats is to _______. to keep the boat afloat when

flooded

At sea, which type of hull damage should be repaired FIRST? damage at or just above the

waterline

While working in a space, the fixed CO2 system is accidentally

activated. You should:

retreat to fresh air and

ventilate the compartment

before returning

A useful means of moving a casualty if a ladder or stairway has to

be climbed is the: fireman?s lift

After extinguishing a fire with CO2, it is advisable to ______. thoroughly ventilate the

space of CO2

The lifeboat releasing gear lever should be marked with: ? DANGER, LEVER

DROPS BOAT ?

When using rainwater collection tubes on a liferaft, the FIRST

collection should be ______.

thrown overboard because

of salt water washed off the

canopy

When patching holes in the hull, pillows, beddings and other soft

materials can be used as ______. gaskets

A tourniquet should be used to control bleeding ONLY _______. when all other means have

failed

In case a patient has to be moved after basic life support has been

started, interruption time should not exceed ______. 15 seconds

Each hand portable fire extinguisher must be marked with

_______. an identification number

The abandon ship signal on the ship?s whistle is ______. six short blasts followed by

one long blast

Repairing damage to the hull at or above the waterline reduces the

threat of ____.

continued progressive

flooding

When shoring a damaged bulkhead, effort should be taken to

spread the pressure over the ______. maximum possible area

How should cargo tank hatches be protected when the ullage

opening is open and the tank is NOT gas free? with flame screens

Fixed CO2 system should not be used on crews quarters and: paint locker

At sea, there is a fire aft aboard your vessel. To help fight the fire

being the OOW, you should _______.

head the bow into the wind

and decrease speed

A person who sees an individual fall overboard should: call for help and keep the

individual in sight

You are the OOW on thick fog. You have been observing on your

radar screen a vessel approaching your portside to be on collision

course. Which vessel has the right of way?

neither vessel

You are the OOW on thick fog. You heard series of short blasts on

your portside. How would you react?

stop engines and sound the

appropriate fog signal

In radiotelephone communications, the prefix PAN PAN indicates

______.

a calling station has an

urgent message about the

safety of a person

?PAN PAN ? repeated three times over the radiotelephone

indicates which type of message will follow? urgent

Every inspected vessel is required to maintain a radio log. Which

among these is NOT to be logged?.

Channels and frequencies

used

In a radio log, which among the following is NOT a proper entry? Contact with the shipowner

Entries in radio log may never be erased. If a change is to be made,

which of the following should be done?

the error should be stricken

with a a line and initialed

In a Radio Log, which of the following is NOT to be entered? the name of the Radio

Officer on Watch

MAYDAY PAN-PAN

Which of the following radio traffic has the second priority? PAN-PAN

Which of the following traffic has the least priority among priority

messages? SECURITE

______ is a radio traffic characterizing a vessel in immediate

danger of sinking, or grounding. MAYDAY

_______ is a radio traffic characterizing a vessel is in urgent

situation requiring assistance. PAN PAN

Which of the following messages gives information regarding

vessel movement, a navigation safety or severe weather warning? SECURITE

Which radio message should a large tug and tow in a narrow

channel send? SECUTITE

A priority message should be made in which channel? Ch. 16

To report a missing aid in navigation, one should send_____. SECURITE

If a ? man overboard ? is heared over the radio, what precedes the

message? PAN PAN

A vessel receiving a distress signal should respond ______. ROMEO, ROMEO,

ROMEO

If a vessel in distress is having difficulty with interfering traffic,

she may transmit ______ which would silence all other traffic.

? Seelonce distress ?

message

When VHF transmission is poor, phonetic pronunciation is used.

How do you pronounce number one? OFF-NAH-WUN

The phonetic pronunciation of number two is ______. BEE-SOH-TOO

Which number is usually NOT used in phonetic pronunciation? No. 8

On which distress frequency is SSB used? 2,182 kHz

When maintenance and repair is performed by a licensed radio

technician, it must be entered in the log. Which of the following

should NOT be entered?

class of license

The phonetic pronunciation of number nine is _______. NO-VAY-NINER

Which of the following would be used to call all stations in your

vicinity by radiotelephone? Charlie Quebec

Radio station logs involving communication incident to a disaster

shall be retained by the station licensee for a period of ______. 3 years from date of entry

How would you pronounced phonetically the number three? TAY-RAH-TREE

In a distress situation, the two tone alarm signal should be followed

immediately by the:

spoken words ? MAYDAY,

MAYDAY, MAYDAY

According to regulations, your are required to retain a record of the 12 months

use of your radiotelephone for a period of not less than _____.

When maintenance work is performed on the radiotelephone

equipment by a licensed operator who is not employed aboard a

vessel on a full time basis, the entry on the radiotelephone log is

not required to include ______.

the issue date of his license

If you are transmitting a distress message by radiotelephone, you

should ______.

use plain language if

possible

The operator of a vessel?s radiotelephone must hold at least a

______.

restricted radiotelephone

operator permit

Number six in phonetics is pronounced ______. SOK-SEE-SIX

If your vessel is equipped with a radio telephone, what must also be

aboard? radio station license

? Charlie Quebec is used as a_______. general call

Any person maintaining a listening watch on a bridge-to-bridge

radiotelephone must be able to ______. speak English

A statement about the operating condition of the required

radiotelephone equipment shall be made in the radiotelephone log

each ______.

day

A call between any two ship stations on an intership working

frequency shall have a maximum duration of ______. 3 minutes

According to the Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act, which is

NOT required in the radiotelephone log? routine navigational traffic

When calling a ship on VHF-FM frequencies, call stations

normally use ______. Ch. 16

According to the ? Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act,

your radiotelephone log must contain:

a summary of all distress

calls and messages

If possible, when making ship to shore calls on VHF, you should

use the: VHF-FM service

If you are calling ship-to-shore using the VHF-FM service, you can

tell that the working channel of the desired coast station is busy if

you hear _____.

any of these

Which of the following is the required location of the

radiotelephone station aboard a vessel to which the Vessel Bridge-

to-Bridge Radiotelephone applies?

on the bridge or in the

wheelhouse

A message giving the warning of a hurricane should have the

following prefixes sent by radiotelephone: Securite Securite Securite

A message warning of a tropical storm should be sent as a/an: safety message

Which of the following is TRUE concerning radiotelephone

onboard towing vessels?

the OIC of the wheelhouse

is considered to have the

telephone watch

What VHF Channel does the U.S. Coast Guard use to broadcast

routine weather reports? 21 or 22

Phonetically, number seven is pronounced ______. SAY-TAY-SEVEN

In phonetics, number eight is pronounced ______. none of these

If you wish to transmit a message by voice concerning the safety of

navigation you would preface it by the word ______. Securite

You are required to maintain continuous listening watch on channel

_____. 16(156.8 MHz)

You hear on the radiotelephone the word ? Securite ? spoken three

times. This indicates that ______.

a message about the safety

of navigation will follow

The radiotelephone safety message urgently concerned with safety

of a person would be prefixed by the word: PAN PAN

What frequency is designated for the Bridge-to-Bridge

radiotelephone stations? 156.65 MHz Channel 13

In radiotelephone communications, the prefix PAN-PAN indicates

that

a calling station has an

urgent message about the

safety of a person

Channel 13 (156.65 MHz), the designated bridge-to-bridge

channel, may NOT be used for which of the following?

to exchange operating

schedules with company

dispatcher

The Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act establishes the

frequency for bridge-to-bridge communications as 156.65 MHz or

_____

Channel 13

Channel 13 is primarily used for ship to ship communication. On a

secondary basis, it can be used for ______.

coast to ship navigational

communications

Which vessel would NOT be required to have a radiotelephone? a 12-meter private yacht

The ?Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act applies to:

every power driven vessel

of 20 meters and upward

while navigating

If the batteries for a portable radio are of a type that require

recharging, they shall be brought to a full charge at least ______. a week

The ?Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act applies to which

of the following towboats?

a 60-ft towboat towing by

pushing ahead

The batteries for all fixed and portable radio apparatus on lifeboats

shall, if the batteries are of a type which requires recharging, be

brought to full charge at least once ______.

a week

All entries in the radiotelephone log of vessels engaged on

international voyages shall be kept in ______. GMT

The time kept in the radiotelephone log shall be counted: from 0000 to 2400

beginning at midnight

The date and time kept in the radiotelephone log shall commence

at: midnight

Which of the following statements about transmitting distress

messages by radiotelephone is INCORRECT?

it is advisable to follow a

distress message on 2182

kHz by a long count

What is the normal operating power for ship-to-ship

communication on Ch. 13? 1 watt or less

Your vessel is in distress and you have made radiotelephone

contact with a U.S. Coast Guard vessel which requests you to give

him a long count. This means:

The USCG is taking a radio-

direction finding on your

vessel

A distress frequency used on radiotelephone is ______. 2182 kHz

The U.S. Coast Guard emergency radiotelephone frequency is

______. 2182 kHz

The International Distress Frequency for radiotelephone is _____. 2182 khz

Which radiotelephone transmission may be sent over Channel 16? any of these

If your bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone ceases to operate, you must

______.

exercise due diligence to

restore the system at the

earliest practicable time

A Coast Guard radiotelephone message concerning an aid to

navigation being off station would be preceded by the word: SECURITE

If your radiotelephone fails underway:

the loss of the

radiotelephone must be

considered in navigating the

vessel

Messages concerning weather conditions transmitted over

radiotelephone are preceded by _______. SECURITE

Under the Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act, failure of a

vessel?s radiotelephone equipment:

does not in itself constitute a

violation of the Act

When using VHF Channel 16 (156.8 mHz) or 2182 kHz, and you

need help but are not in danger, you should use the urgent signal: PAN-PAN

PAN-PAN repeated three times over the radiotelephone indicates

what type of message will follow? Urgency

Which vessels must comply with the Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge

radiotelephone regulations while navigating?

towing vessels 26 feet in

length or greater

What is the minimum size power driven vessel, not engaged in

towing required to comply with the Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge

radiotelephone regulations?

20 meters

Whoever is designated to pilot the vessel in U.S. waters must: all of these

After a vessel transmits the original distress message, what signal

should be sent to allow ships to take RDF bearings? MO for 3 minutes

You are testing a Class A EPIRB.You will know the EPIRB is

working properly when the indicator light comes on and you hear

over the test frequency:

an oscillating tone

The difference between a Class Epirb and a Class B Epirb is that

the Class A:

must be of the float free

type and automatically

activated

What is the International calling and distress channel found on all

VHF-FM equipped drilling rigs? Channel 16

Where would you find the ? call sign ? or ? call letters ? of the

radio station on your rig? On the Ship Station License

If your rig is equipped with SSB Radio, what frequency would you

use to initiate a distress call? 2182 kHz

Where would you find the authorization for transmitting on your

rig?s EPIRB? on the Ship Station License

Class C EPIRB:

transmits an alerting signal

on Channel 16 followed by

a homing signal on

Chan.15.

You are monitoring VHF Channel 16 when you hear a call to your

vessel named TEXAS PRIDE. What is the proper way to answer

the call?

This is TEXAS PRIDE,

WSR 1234, REPLY channel

10

You are monitoring VHF Channel 16 when you hear ? BALUT

PINOY?. How would you react?

don?t answer as this is

improper

How should the number nine be spoken over the radiotelephone? NO-VAY-NINER

How would the letter ? I ? be pronounced over the radiotelephone? IN DEE AH

How should the letter ? Q ? be pronounced when spoken on the

radiotelephone? KEH BECK

How should the letter ? T ? be pronounced when spoken over the

radiotelephone? TANG GO

What is the spoken emergency signal over a VHF radio? MAYDAY

Which emergency signal would you use to call a boat to come to

assist a man overboard? Urgency signal

VHF Channel 6 is used exclusively for what kind of

communication?

inter-vessel safety and

search and rescue

PAN PAN is repeated 3 times over the radiotelephone. What type

of emergency signal is this? Urgency signal

After receiving your distress call, the USCG will ask you to switch

to which SSB frequency? 2670

Which VHF Channel should you avoid using as working Channel? Channel 16

On which frequencies do Class A EPIRB operate? 121.5 MHz and 243 MHz

What is the spoken emergency signal for a ? man overboard ? on

the VHF? PAN PAN

When do you use your Call Sign? always at the beginning and

ending of transmission

The height of a VHF antenna is more important than the power

output wattage of the radio because:

VHF communications are ?

line of sight ?

The most important factors affecting the range of SSBT

transmissions are:

the frequency band selected

and time of day and night

What is the average vessel-to-vessel range of VHF-FM

communications? 10 to 15 miles

What is the maximum power allowed for VHF-FM transmissions? 25 watts

If you know that the vessel you are about to call on the VHF

maintains a radio watch on both the working and calling

frequencies, what frequency should you call on?

working frequency

If you log a distress message, it must include the ______. time of its occurrence

When making VHF radio calls to nearby stations, what level of

transmitting power should you use? low power

You have just tried calling another vessel on the VHF, and they

have not replied. How long do you have to wait before trying that

station again?

2 minutes

Routine radio communications should be limited to no more than: 3 minutes

One method of reducing the length of radio communications

without distorting the meaning of your words is by using: procedure words

How long is a ship station license for a radiotelephone valid? 5 years

Whenever your marine radio is on, you are required to monitor: the distress and calling

frequency

The reception of weak radio signals may be improved by ? opening

? the squelch control. What is normal setting of the squelch

control?

just past the point where

background noise is cut off

When sending and receiving messages on the marine radio,

confusion over unusual words can be avoided by using the: standard phonetic alphabet

What is the most important thing to do before transmitting on a

marine radio?

monitor the channel to make

sure that it is clear

What is the calling and distress frequency on a SSB marine

radiotelephone? 2182 kHz

All VHF marine band radios operate in the simplex mode, which

means that:

only one person may talk at

a time

While proceeding to a distress sire, you hear the words ? Seelonce

Mayday ? on the radiotelephone. What action should you take?

monitor the radiotelephone

but do not transmit

Class S EPIRB is a : survival craft Epirb

The EPIRB on board your vessel is required to be tested every: monthly

When communicating on the radiotelephone using plain English,

what procedure indicates that you have received another vessel?s

transmission?

Roger

What radiotelephone signal indicates of a receipt of a distress

signal? received

How should the letter ? O ? be pronounced over the

radiotelephone? OSS CAH

When you are underway in the ocean, you hear a distress message

about 150 miles away. Your speed is 5 knots and you know that

you cannot arrive on time to render effective assistance. What

should you do?

Use the signal MAYDAY

RELAY and transmit the

distress message

You are the first vessel to arrive at the scene of a distress. Due to

the volume of traffic on the radio, you are unable to communicate

with the vessel in distress. What action should you take?

Broadcast ? Seelonce

Distress ?

While proceeding towards a distress site you hear the message ?

Seelonce Feenee? over the radiotelephone. What action should you

take?

resume normal

communications on the

guarded frequency

What radiotelephone signal indicates receipt of a distress signal? Romeo, Romeo, Romeo

There are three levels of radio traffic which have priority over

ordinary traffic. Which among these is TRUE in their decreasing

order?

MAYDAY, PAN-PAN,

SECURITE