PPME

Defending the New Nation:

Block 1

Defending the New Nation:

Who was the last active Continental Navy officer and the first U.S. Navy commissioned officer?

John Barry

Why were the border lakes between the U.S. and Canada of strategic importance during the War of 1812?

The Americans planned to win the war by conquering Canada and needed control of the lakes to do so.Which of the following was NOT an innovation in naval warfare introduced by the U.S. between 1775 and 1815?

Who fought at anchor in Plattsburg Bay to nullify Royal Navy long guns and maximize American carronades, and won the most strategic naval victory of the War of 1812?

Thomas Macdonough

During the War for independence, which countries came to the assistance of America with their navies?

France, Spain, and the Netherlands

How did the frigate Philadelphia complicate the Navys task in the War with Tripoli?

The crew was captured after the frigate ran aground in Tripoli Harbor and the Pasha of Tripoli demanded ransom for its three hundred sailors taken as prisoners of war.

In 1794, Congress authorized the president to create a naval force of 6 frigates in response to ____________________.

the threat from the Barbary Powers of Africa's Mediterranean coast

Sailing in Distant Waters:

Which of following changes in the naval service did NOT pertain to enlisted Sailors in the era before the Civil War?

Establishment of a retirement system

In what years did the Second Seminole War take place?

1835-1842

Between the War of 1812 and the Civil War, the Navy had a variety of missions. These included ____________________.

All of these answers are correct

In the years before the Civil War, U.S. Squadrons established a regular presence in ____________________.

the Mediterranean, off Africa and South America, in the Pacific, and in Asia

Which of the following tasks did the Navy NOT undertake in the Mexican War?

Blockade the coast of Cuba

What tactical advantage did steam power have over sail power in naval warfare?

Steam power enabled a warship to operate independent of the wind when engaged in battle.

____________________ designed a steam engine that was 40% more efficient, half the size, and significantly cheaper than standard steam engines.

Benjamin Franklin Isherwood

Which war left the U.S. with two seacoasts to defend, and propelled the U.S. into Pacific affairs?

The Mexican War

Select True or False: To encourage temperance onboard vessels, in 1831 the Navy allowed Sailors to receive money in lieu of the spirit, or grog ration.

True

____________________ commanded the South Sea Exploring Expedition from 1838 to 1842. This six-vessel expedition surveyed South Pacific islands, charted continental coastlines, proved Antarctica is a continent, and collected natural history and ethnological specimens that formed the basis of the Smithsonian Institution's collections.

Charles Wilkes

Which Antebellum Navy leader earned the title Pathfinder of the Seas for his contributions to ocean science?

Matthew F. Maury

What was the main advantage of the bottle-shape of the Dahlgren gun?

It kept the gun lighter by removing metal where it was not needed.

Which of the following accomplishments was NOT Matthew Fontaine Maurys?

Proved Antarctica is a continent.

What was the significance of Matthew C. Perrys expedition to Japan?

The Japanese opened their ports to American ships.

The Civil War and its Aftermath:

What did the Union naval blockade of the Confederacy accomplish?.

It captured transport vessels, creating acute supply shortages.

Which of the following best characterizes the Navy between 1866 and 1880?

Decreasing in size and deteriorating, with old and outmoded ships.

The Naval War College was established in 1884:

To provide officers the opportunity to study naval tactics, strategy, and policy.

What international developments stimulated resurgence of American naval power in the 1880s?

European nations competing and building large navies to defend their empires.

______________was in charge of Upper Mississippi River forces that participated in the captures of Fort Henry, Tennessee, Fort Donelson, Tennessee, and Island Number Ten, in the Mississippi River.

Andrew Hull Foote

____________ made his first of several expeditions in 1886 that placed him in the vanguard of Arctic explorers.

Robert Edwin Peary

What did the Confederate raiders accomplish?

They drove the carrying of trade to foreign ships, hurting the U.S. Merchant Marine fleet.

Select True or False: Union forces controlled the western rivers, dividing the Confederacy and stopping Texas supplies from reaching Confederate troops, a strategic advantage that resulted in greater mobility for Union troops.

True

Select True or False: After the Civil War the U.S. Navy fell into neglect, while navies of other countries modernized. In the 1880's, the U.S. Navy was modernized and joined the ranks of major world powers

True

In January 1865, the last Confederate port open to blockade-runners fell. Where was this port located?.

Wilmington, North Carolina

For what is David W. Taylor known?

Which distinguished Civil War officer commanded the North Atlantic Blockading Squadron and led naval forces in the 1864 and 1865 assaults against Fort Fisher, North Carolina?

David D. Porter

What did Union control of the Mississippi River accomplish?It prevented Texas supplies from reaching Confederate troops.

The Navy on a Global Stage:

Select True or False: In 1889, eleven nations had warship fleets larger than that of the United States, but less than two decades later only the British Royal Navy was larger than the U.S. Navy.

True

What organization did the Navy establish to institutionalize the contribution of female medical personnel?

Navy Nurse Corps

Who was the strategic thinker and Naval War College professor who developed the Theory of Sea Power?

Alfred T. Mahan

What two new weapons systems of the early 20th century enabled the Navy to fight over and under the surface of the ocean?

The airplane and the submarine

The dawn of undersea warfare dates from 1900 with the launch of the ____________________.

USS Holland

As a result of the Washington Naval Treaty of 1922, the United States and the other victorious Allied powers ____________.

drastically reduced their battle fleets, hoping to stop the arms race and prevent another global conflict.

WWII in the Atlantic and European Waters:

Select True or False: To man its tens of thousands of naval vessels, aircraft, and shore bases, the Navy enlisted over 3 million Sailors.

True

The breakdown of pre-war barriers to the enlistment of African Americans and women was due to wartime necessity and ____________________.

the growing American support for social equality

How many Allied merchantmen and warships did German and Italian submarines sink during the war?

3000

The cipher machine used by the Germans for radio communication security was called the ____________________.

Enigma

So the U.S. and British armed forces could synchronize not only their Atlantic but global operations and speak with one voice about the need for convoy escort vessels, amphibious landing craft, and similar materiel, in 1942 the two nations established an organization named the ______________.

Combined Chiefs of Staff

Early in World War II, which country proved especially effective in signals intelligencethe interception, decryption, and reading of enemy radio signals?

Great Britain

Significant social changes in the Navy during World War II had the greatest impact on which of the following American minority groups?

Women and African Americans

What U.S. Naval leader took steps to standardize anti-submarine training and tactics?

Admiral Royal E. Ingersoll

For a year after the United States entered the war, German U-boats successfully operated throughout the ____________________.

Atlantic, Caribbean, and Mediterranean

What name was given to the escort carriers used to protect convoys and attack German U-boats?

Jeep carrier

What name was given to the escort carriers used to protect convoys and attack German U-boats?

True

WWII in the Pacific:

On what Japanese island did U.S. Marines raise Old Glory in February 1945?

Iwo Jima

Which battle marked the turning point of the Pacific campaign and was considered the most decisive naval battle of WW II?

Midway

Select True or False: Although the Battle of Okinawa was the last major operation of WWII, the U.S. Navy beat their Japanese adversaries with very few casualties.

False

What U.S. naval assets became primary striking assets after the morning of Dec 7, 1941?

Submarines and aircraft carriers

Select True or False: Improvements in the Navys logistical capabilities played a significant role in victories of the Pacific campaign.

True

What key technical system helped U.S. naval forces locate and track enemy surface and air naval forces?

Radar

August 1942 marked the start of a bloody six-month struggle for control of what island?

Guadalcanal

What two naval vessel types did the Japanese NOT destroy during the Pearl Harbor attack?

Submarines and aircraft carriers

The Cold War:

What was the first major armed conflict of the Cold War?

Korean War

Greater than 95% of supplies and logistical support for troops in Vietnam came from this organization:

Military Sealift Command (MSC)

Which fleet improvements were introduced in the Navy in the later Cold War years?

Ticonderoga-class cruisers and Los Angeles-class submarines

In what way did the U.S. Navy contribute to the successful resolution of the Cuban Missile Crisis of 1962?

Navy ships blocked the delivery of Soviet missiles to Communist Cuba.

What was the U.S. strategy in the early period of the Cold War for dealing with the Soviet Union and its allies?

Containment Strategy

The Navy's Cold War mission was to enforce containment of the USSR and its allies through:

Maintenance of sea control in the world's oceans

Forward deployment of naval forces to the periphery of Communist bloc nations

Deployment at sea of nuclear-armed submarines to deter Soviet nuclear attack

Navy-wide directives, or Z-grams, that were issued to improve the life of enlisted Sailors were the inspiration of what Admiral?

Admiral Elmo R. Zumwalt, Jr.At the climax of the Cold War 1989, the SECNAV had generated enough support to build the size of the Navy to almost ____________________ ships.

600

Why is the North Vietnamese naval attack on the USS Maddox in August 1964 important?

It prompted Congress to pass the Tonkin Gulf resolution, which authorized U.S. military operations in the Vietnam Conflict.

What naval vessel types did the Navy deploy during the Cold War to discourage Soviet nuclear attacks on the United States?

Submarines armed with nuclear ballistic missiles

Which attack submarine was lost at sea with her entire crew while returning from operations in the Mediterranean Sea during the Cold War?

USS Skorpion

Who were the first African American and female officers promoted to flag rank?

Samuel L. Gravely and Alene B. Duerk

The climax of the Cold War was marked by U.S. Naval involvement in conflicts such as ____________________.

Naval forces deployed to Grenada and Panama

Littoral Operations:

One of the most significant changes in the Navy in the mid-1990s was a transition from a blue water navy to a navy that would ___________________.

project power ashore in the littoral regions of the world

The UN-sponsored intervention in Somalia in the mid-1990s resulted in ___________________.

Somalia

What two U.S. ships did Iraqi mines damage in 1991

USS Princeton and USS TripoliWhat was the name of the 1987-1988 Persian Gulf operation where U.S. naval units escorted Kuwaiti oil tankers through the Persian Gulf?

Operation Earnest Will

What is the name of the conflict in the Persian Gulf during 1987 and 1988 in which U.S. naval forces protected Kuwaiti oil tankers?

Tanker War

Which ship was damaged by an Iranian mine and was the catalyst for launching Operation Praying Mantis?

USS Samuel B. RobertsFrom which African nation did American forces withdraw when the UN-sponsored intervention failed?

Somalia

The Persian Gulf War was instrumental in opening up many opportunities for women in the following areas:

Combat air squadrons

All major warships

Shore commands

Global War on Terrorism:

Select True or False: The destruction of terrorist cells following 9/11 was primarily confined to the Middle-East

False

Al Qaeda had established a training complex in ____________________, from which it supported terrorist activities worldwide.

Afghanistan

Select True or False: The United States, United Nations (UN), world governments, and international financial institutions joined to identify and destroy terrorist groups and their sources of funding immediately following 9/11.

TrueWhat was the Navys primary focus immediately after the 9/11 attacks?

Homeland securityWhich U.S. led offensive was launched in October 2001 against Al Qaeda and Taliban forces in Afghanistan?

Operation Enduring Freedom

Which command delivered large amounts of the tanks, vehicles, and supplies needed for Operation Iraqi Freedom to staging areas in Kuwait?

Military Sealift Command

Operation Iraqi Freedom was launched to:

Liberate the Iraqi people

Promote democracy in Iraq

Block 2Military Formations:

As a leader, you can only command Sailors to the position of parade rest, from what position?

Attention

Traditionally, awards are handed out in what manner?

From most senior award to most junior

Sailors are in a _________________, when placed in formation one behind the other?

File

Who is known as the Drillmaster of the American Revolution?

Baron von Steuben

Drill instills discipline and fosters what kind of habits?

Precision and automatic response

As a leader, which situation would cause you to expect a personnel inspection of your Sailors?

Prior to the seasonal uniform change

Military Uniforms, Customs, and Courtesies:

What should you do when the national anthem of a friendly foreign country is played?

Salute

What Army rank is associated with the E-6 pay grade?

Staff Sergeant

What does Title 10, U.S. Code mandate with respect to uniforms?

The requirement to generate, maintain, and update the uniform regulations

At what distance do you begin your salute when approaching an officer?

At six paces or closest point of approach

The Air Force rank associated with its highest enlisted pay grade is that of _____________.

Chief Master Sergeant

What is meant by under arms?

When wearing a side arm or carrying a weapon

What is the U.S. Armys highest enlisted pay grade?

Sergeant Major

What is the definition of prescribable items?

Uniform items which may be directed or authorized for wear with the basic uniform. Items may be worn with basic uniform at the individuals discretion unless otherwise directed

Fleet Response Plan:

When is a CSG considered surge ready?

When they have completed integrated phase trainingWhen is a ship, sub, or squadron considered routine deployable?

After successfully completing all necessary capabilities training including completion of underway sustainment phase training and certification of the unit for forward deployed operations

At its core, the Fleet Response Plan is _________________.

a mission driven, capabilities-based response plan

Which report issued a mandate for the U.S. military to transform leading to adoption of FRP?

2001 Quadrennial Defense Review

Presence with a purpose provides what?

Routine deployments in support of specific combatant commander objectives or on shorter pulseemployment periods

The Fleet Response Plan places a carrier strike group in these four categories: ________________________.

emergency surge, surge ready, routine deployable, deployed

Which Sea Power 21 initiative changed the way the U.S. Navy deploys and trains the Fleet?

Sea Basing

What does the 6 + 2 plan provide?

6 CSGs available to deploy within 30 days plus 2 CSGs available to deploy within 90 days

The Fleet Response Plan calls for how many carrier strike groups to be deployable within 30 days?

6

Who did Admiral Vern Clark task with developing a plan to replace the 18-month inter-deployment training cycle (IDTC)?

Commander, Fleet Forces Command

The flexible deployment concept allows units that have attained high readiness to embark on deployments in support of specific national priorities such as _______________.

homeland defense, multi-national exercises, security cooperation events, deterrent operations, or prosecution of the Global War on Terrorism

Chief Petty Officer History:

In the early 1900s Sailors of all rates were promoted to fill what first?

Voids in critical Navy billets, normally in their own command

Voids in critical Navy billets, normally in their own command

Strengthen chief petty officer standards

According to the 1918 BlueJackets Manual, two roles of a chief petty officer were ________.

Technical expert and example setter

The only article of the CPO uniform described in the 1897 Uniform Regulations was the _____.

hat device

On 23 May, 1978, the CNO approved new roles and responsibilities for a chief petty officer. Which of the following was a defined role?

The top technical authority and expert within a rating

On 28 April 1967, ____________ became the first Master Chief Petty Officer of the Navy.

GMCM Delbert Black

The Chief Petty Officer Core Competencies were developed to __________.Strengthen chief petty officer standardsThe duties and responsibilities of a master chief petty officer in 1978 were _______.broadened to include contributing to command-level policy formulationThe Career Compensation Act of 1949 established what significant change?It designated chief petty officers as paygrade E-7 instead of paygrade 1.On 13 January 1967, GMCM Delbert Black was officially appointed as the first _____________.Senior Enlisted Advisor of the NavyThe paygrades of senior chief and master chief petty officer were established in what year?1946

The CNO/MCPON Advisory Panel was established in 1971 to ______.Represent the enlisted force to Navy leadership on professional and personnel issuesWhat is not a responsibility of the Master Chief Petty Officer of the Navy?Report directly to the Chief of Naval Personnel on enlisted retention ratesManpower Management:

TFFMS provide access to current manpower data for ________________.

resource sponsors

Changes to the AMD can come from what factors?

Changes in mission or equipment/systems added or deleted from the platform

Which statement defines Projected Operational Environment (POE)?

Environment in which a command is expected to operate

Which document provides the present and future enlisted manning of a command?

Enlisted Distribution and Verification Report (EDVR)

In manpower management, commands are responsible for what?

Submitting requests to revise, add, or delete requirements

Manpower management determines manpower authorization priorities based on available funding and ______________________.

personal inventory

TFMMS Micro Manpower Change Application (TMMCA) allows a command to ____________________.

initiate AMD change requests

Placement is an advocate for________ and detailers are advocates for__________.

commands, Sailors

OPNAVINST 1300.15, Navy Military Personnel Assignment Policy, states Navy policy is to make only permanent change of station (PCS) moves necessary for ________________________.

national security and/or to ensure equitable treatment of Sailors

The AMD is a single source document that provides ________________.

quantitative and qualitative manpower requirements

For whom does the Personnel Readiness and Support branch (PERS 4013) perform placement functions?EnlistedWhich statement defines Projected Operational Environment (POE)?Environment in which a command is expected to operateNaval Customs:

In general terms, what did the Continental Navy accomplish during the course of the War of Independence?

All the answers are correct

The author of Anchors Aweigh, Charles Adam Zimmerman, received what sort of recognition by the midshipmen


The Battle of Midway is considered important for what reason?

Until that point, the Japanese Navy was on the offensive and this battle was a major turning point in favor of the United States

Advocates for a Navy in 1775, led by John Adams, proposed that a Navy was necessary for what purpose(s)?

All answers are correct

Which of these statements is true regarding Anchors Aweigh?

It is played today at many athletic events and parades

Two days each year are designated specifically to celebrate the U.S. Navys heritage. These days are ____________________.

Midway Night (about 4 June) and the Navys Birthday (13 October)

Which of the following statements is true regarding the Navy Hymn?


Why was the song Anchors Aweigh written?

To inspire U.S. Naval Academy midshipmen at an Army-Navy football game in 1906.

__________ proclaimed the Navy Birthday as a day for reflection on Naval Heritage.

Chief of Naval Operations, Admiral Jay L. Johnson

Midway Night has been observed since 2000. What activities are considered appropriate to commemorate that World War II battle?


What was the objective of the Japanese attack on Midway?

The Japanese hoped to lure the U.S. Pacific Fleet into a battle where they could destroy it.

Customs and Traditions:

Sailors who have not crossed the equator are called ____________________.

PollywogsFormal dinners promote ____________________.

all the answers are correct

Initiation rites that include hazing are ____________________.

a violation of SECNAV Instructions

Which of the following (is a)/are title(s) given to those who cross the equator at a significant line of longitude?

Golden

Which statement is true concerning morning colors?

Honors to foreign ensigns may be rendered by the playing of appropriate foreign national anthems

Which of these rules of etiquette apply to conduct within the boat?

Avoid walking on varnished areas

The conduct of a Dining-In is defined by ____________________.

OPNAV Instruction 1710.7

The following certificate denotes Sailors who have crossed the Arctic Circle ____________________.

Blue Nose

What event resulted in the shift of the center of the Navy social life from aboard ship to shore?

Alcohol was banned from U.S. Navy vessels in 1914.Morning and evening colors have been governed by Navy regulations since __________.since the mid 19th centuryThe oldest of all seafaring traditions is _______.

the burial at sea

SecNav Instruction 1610.2A concerns ____________.

Hazing

The title given to Sailors who have sailed around the southern tip of South America (Cape Horn) is ____________________.

Mossback

A junior officer serving as boat officer when his/her ship is at anchor ____________________.

should overrule the decisions of the coxswain only in emergency

Ships Customs and Traditions:

Before commissioning, a ship must ____________________.

complete and pass a series of Sea Trials

Todays Returning Home Pennant ____________________.


What is the tradition of the quarterdeck?


All of these activities are forbidden on the quarterdeck EXCEPT ____________________.

walking on the port side

You are standing watch at night as the OOD on board a ship at anchor as a small boat approaches. You call out Boat ahoy! and the boats coxswain replies, John Paul Jones! He is ____________________.

announcing that the Captain of the John Paul Jones is on board his boat

Ships in the U.S. Navy ____________________.

are typically commissioned in public ceremonies with the ships sponsor and other prominent guests in attendanceWhile on watch, the Officer of the Deck (OOD) ____________________.

All of these answers are correct

All of these actions take place at the commissioning ceremony of a new ship EXCEPT ____________________.

the Chief of Naval Operations reads the commissioning directive

Boat hailing protocols became necessary ____________________.

in the days prior to WWII, when large ships usually anchored or moored, and boating was required

The Navys battle streamers ____________________.

span the period from the Revolutionary War to Kosovospan the period from the Revolutionary War to Kosovo

On modern ships, the quarterdeck ___________________.

is designated by the Commanding Officer

While a ship is at anchor or at a pier, ____________________.

the OOD stands watch on the quarterdeck

The Returning Home Pennant ____________________.

is distributed to the Commanding Officer, officers, and crew upon arrival in port

The sloop Concord is notable because ____________________.

it was the first Navy vessel christened by a woman

Stars on Navy streamersHonors and Ceremonies:

Passing honors are ____________________.


There are three national holidays, including ceremonies involving a 21-gun salute at noon, which receive special remembrance by the U.S. Navy. These three are ____________________.

Washingtons Birthday, Independence Day, and Memorial Day

At the end of their careers, all Sailors may ____________________.


Instructions for planning a retirement ceremony are contained in ____________________.

MILPERSMAN 1800-010

Half-masting the national ensign ____________________.

is a symbol of mourning and respect

Gun salutes were considered a sign of good faith because ____________________.

in the days of sail, firing left the ship vulnerable

Which of the following is a part of both the morning and evening colors ceremonies?All officers and crew face the ensign and salute.The highest sign of respect for traveling dignitaries is ____________________.passing honorsThe Change of Command Ceremony always includes ____________________.all hands called to quarters, orders read, and statements: I relieve you, Sir, and I stand relievedMilitary Ethics Overview:

Select the result of ethical failures by military personnel.


Select True or False: The character-based system of ethics argues right choices come from pursuing the greatest happiness for the greatest number.

False

Select True or False: In the view of the rule-based system of ethics, there is the notion there are absolute truths and moral standards that are true at all times in all places for all people and all situations.

True

Freedom-based ethics focus on __________________.

decisions arrived at based on self-interests or impulses

Thoughts such as: life has no purpose or meaning, truth can not be known, and what I do doesn't matter best typify which one of the following?

Nihilism

An ethical person is __________________.

someone who chooses to live the life people ought to live

Utilitarianism is sometimes considered to be a subset of __________________.

Consequentialism

Thoughts such as: I do whatever I want, no one can stop me, and I take what I want and harm anyone who gets in my way best typify which one of the following?

Criminality

Select True or False: Some relativists would question whether reality can be accurately assessed or measured.

True

Aristotelian virtue, stoicism, and VADM Stockdales leadership were founded upon the ethical approach of __________________.

character-based ethics

A supposition that some mix of common sense and scientific inquiry will always lead to a conclusion that is true typifies __________________.

a reason-based approach to truth and justice

Ethics in the Profession of Arms:

What differentiates a mercenary from a military professional?

The military professional exhibits a moral dimension earning the trust of society.Moral development requires certain conditions to occur; people must be morally ____________________.


Moral development theory tells us that there are sequential levels of moral reasoning. What is the ideal toward which moral development leads?

It is the path to becoming a person of character

Even with moral awareness, moral reasoning, and moral courage, is it still possible to act ineffectively?

Yes

The key distinction(s) between a profession, craft, and art, is/are ____________________.

All the answers are correct.

The ability, right, and ____________________ of self-regulation are part of what transforms an association into a profession.

Responsibility

Which one(s) of the following constitute(s) the body of moral principles or values governing military professionals?

All of the answers are correct.

An expert with specialized knowledge and skill in a significant field of human endeavor best defines ____________________.

A professional

____________________ is a common bond all military professionals share based on the mutual accountability that comes with self-regulation.

Corporateness

Moral development is a life-long process, with the objective of achieving moral____________________.

Effectiveness

Moral ____________________ is the comprehensive ability to bring together all of ones knowledge, skills, and values in order to accomplish the intended action.

Effectiveness

Select True or False: A military professional must utilize any means necessary to contribute to the common good.

False

Moral ____________________ enables a person to work through a logical and objective process for determining and articulating reasons that distinguish right from wrong.

Reasoning

Ethics and the Warfighter:

Select True or False: The Code of Conduct only applies if the detaining country adheres to the Geneva Convention.

False

Which of the following statements is NOT part of the Code of Conduct?

I will not make an attempt to escape, nor aid others in their attempt to escape.Which of the following is NOT true regarding professional oaths?

Professional oath allows for value judgments to be based on relative truths.

The Geneva Convention provides legal protection for ____________________.

Prisoners of war

Select True or False: A demonstration of moral courage is indicative of the ability to demonstrate physical courage, and vice-versa.

False

The Oath of Enlistement is significant in the Profession of Arms because it ____________________.

clearly states a Sailors duty from the moment of enlistmentJust War Tradition:

The proportionality principle of jus in bello requires ____________________.

that the harm done to civilians and non-combatants in a military operation not outweigh the good accomplished by the operationSelect True or False: In order for a war to be considered just, it must meet a majority of the criteria of jus ad bellum.

False

The jus ad bellum criterion of just cause has traditionally included ____________________.

self-defense and defense of an innocent third party under attack

The just war tradition incorporates historical principles of ____________________.

theology, philosophy, and law

The moral burden of jus ad bellum falls primarily on ____________________.

Political leaders

Select True or False: All members of the U.S. military are bound by the Law of Armed Conflict and the Geneva Conventions.

True

Select True or False: While the moral burden of jus in bello falls primarily on military leaders, political leaders often play a key role in establishing targeting policy, approving specific targets, and developing rules of engagement.

True

The jus ad bellum criterion of probability of success requires ____________________.

reasonable hope of accomplishing the intended good

Select True or False: The jus ad bellum criterion of proper authority limits the decision-making authority to go to war to the most senior military commanders.

False

The moral principles of the Just War Tradition ____________________.

help to set the military professional apart

Select True or False: Jus ad bellum and jus in bello govern all aspects of war.

True

The two key criteria jus in bello criteria are ____________________.

discrimination and proportionality

Select True or False: The Just War Tradition is the informal name of the Laws of Armed Conflict.

False

The following military personnel are considered to be non-combatants:

Chaplains and medical personnel.

Block 3

Military Justice System:

Which of the following is true?

A general court-martial is composed of a military judge, a defense counsel, a prosecutor and at least five members.

Article 138 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice __________.

provides a service member the opportunity to file a complaint of wrongs against his or her commanding officer

The Constitution ______________________.

all of the answers are correct

The maximum punishment which may be given at a special court-martial is limited to _______________.

one year confinement, three months of hard labor without confinement, forfeitures of two-thirds pay for not more than one year, reduction to paygrade E-1, and bad conduct discharge

Nonjudicial punishment, as provided for by Article 15 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice, is also known as _____________.

Captains Mast

A member of a general court-martial _________________.

is the military equivalent of a civilian juror

Which of the following is NOT true?

Because Congress has the Constitutional authority to regulate the military, the Department of Defense is part of the legislative branch of the federal government

A convening authority is responsible for ___________.

All of the answers are correct


Congress is limited by the Constitution to enact only those laws that relate to the authority of the federal government.

A service member _____________.

does not have the protection of the rules of evidence at Captains Mast

Conduct and Government Ethics:

Which of the following would be prohibited?

The commanding officer of a ship is given a pen worth $9.00 by an Ensign (the ships communications officer) as a Christmas present. Two months later the commanding officer is given a framed picture of the ship worth $7.50 by the Ensign as a birthday present. Two months later, the Ensign gives the commanding officer a stuffed animal for his daughter as an Easter present worth $8.00.

Which statement is NOT true?

Each agency within the executive branch of the Federal government has its own, unique ethical code.

Which of the following actions is most likely to be prohibited?

The maintenance officer of a F/A 18 squadron is offered $2000.00 to write a magazine article concerning the maintenance scheduling procedures he was introducing into his squadron.

Which of the following statements is NOT true?

The Standards of Conduct apply only to Department of Defense civilian employees. Military personnel are governed solely by the Uniform Code of Military Justice.


The Standards of Conduct only prohibit actual abuses.

The Commanding Officer of an aircraft carrier is retiring. Which gift(s), if accepted by the Commanding Officer would most likely NOT be prohibited?

One of the carriers divisions pitch in $2.00 per sailor and buys the Commanding Officer a framed picture of the ship valued at approximately $90.00. Another division collects $1.00 per sailor and presents the Commanding Officer with a brass bell valued at approximately $75.00. The Chiefs Mess presents the Commanding Officer with a sword valued at approximately $200.00.

Privacy Act:

Select True or False: The Privacy Act provides that citizens are permitted to access records maintained by the government and request amendments to erroneous information that may be contained in those records.

True

Select True or False: The person who is the subject of a record which falls under the protection provided by the Privacy Act, has the right to access all records held by the government that pertains to him or her.

False

What is a common way for con artists and thieves to obtain someone's personal data?


A record is ___________________________________________.

any collection, grouping, or item of information about an individual maintained by an agency

The purpose of the Privacy Act is to control the collection, maintenance, and use of personal information, as well as to _____________________________________________ .


The records the Government is not required to release to the requester are referred to as _________________.

Exempt.

The release of protected information to a third party, without the consent of the individual of concern, include situations where ____________________________________.

the information is needed for use in a census or statistical research

Select True or False: The Privacy Act doesn't permit the subject of the record to access his or her information.

False.

Lawful and Unlawful Orders:

A service member is accused of violating a general order issued by the base commander. Which of the following is true?

The service member is most likely being prosecuted for violating Article 92 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice.Which of the following is NOT true?

Navy Regulations, Chapter 10, paragraph 1039 provides that flag officers are only required to obey orders from a military police officer if the military police officer is a warrant or commissioned officer.

A commissioned officer may be found guilty violating all of the following except __________.

Article 91 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice

A Navy LT is accused of willfully disobeying a lawful order given to him by a Marine major. At the time the order was given, the LT had never seen the major before, the major was not in uniform and did not have his military ID with him. The LT did not obey the given order. Which of the following is true?

The LT might be not guilty of violating article 90 of the UCMJ if he did not know that the individual giving him the order was a Marine major.

A LT orders a group of enlisted sailors to cease what they are doing in order to help load a truck with supplies so that the supplies can get to the airfield in time to be loaded on a plane headed for Iraq. The sailors inform the LT that their commanding officer (who is also the LTs commanding officer) had ordered them to finish testing the units radios in preparation for an inspection the following day. The LT then directs the sailors to help with loading the truck and then return to the radios. The sailors then head over to help load the truck. Which of the following statements is true?

Navy Regulations, Chapter 10, Paragraph 1024 requires the LT to immediately report his actions to his commanding officer and explain the necessity of diverting the sailors from the task the commanding officer ordered them to accomplish.

Which of the following statements is true?

An order that contradicts an earlier order given by an officer senior to the one giving the contradicting order may be a lawful order.


A Seaman that willfully disobeys a lawful order issued by a Third Class Petty Officer may be prosecuted under Article 91 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice.

What is the proper action for a service member to take when given an order that is obviously illegal?

Refuse the order and report to higher authority.

An officer (LT) receives an order from a superior (CDR) which annuls an order received from another superior (CAPT). The LT protests this new order and shows the CDR the orders from the CAPT. The LT even represents the facts in writing to the CDR. The CDR insists that his order be followed. What should the LT do?

Follow the order issued by the CDR and report the circumstances of the case to the CAPT.

_______ provides instruction on when a junior service member may issue orders to a military senior.

Navy Regulations, Chapter 10, Paragraph1039

Roles, Missions, and Functions of DON:

Currently, ____ contains the service-specific statements that outline the basic purpose of each of the armed forces.

Title 10, U.S. Code

__________ are those tasks assigned to the unified and specified combatant commanders by the President of the United States or the Secretary of Defense.

Missions

Select True or False: By Congressional statute, the Department of the Navy includes the operating forces of the U.S. Maritime Administration and U.S. Coast Guard, including the U.S. Coast Guards reserve component.

False.

As defined by Joint Publication 1-02, the primary purpose of an amphibious operation is to:

Introduce a land force ashore from ships or craft.

Select True or False: By Congressional statute, the Department of the Navy includes the operating forces of the U.S. Maritime Administration and U.S. Coast Guard, including the U.S. Coast Guards reserve component.

False.

The list of service-specific functions continues to evolve over time. Initially authored in Executive Order 9877, the term functions in this context refers to:

Those various activities, operations, and capabilities for which the services are responsible.

Which of the following has been assigned the task of managing strategic sea lift in the Joint arena?

The U.S. Navy and the U.S. Maritime Administration.

Which service is the only one whose minimum force structure is codified in law?

The U.S. Marine Corps

Maritime power projection includes:

All of these answers are correct.

The functions specified for the Department of the Navy by Department of Defense directive 5100.1 authorizes the Department of the Navy to develop force structure to accomplish which one(s) of the following?

Primary functions.

Currently, ____ contains the service-specific statements that outline the basic purpose of each of the armed forces.

Title 10, U.S. Code

The commander of which geographic combatant command is responsible for the largest geographic area?

Pacific Command

The Chief of Naval Operations _________________.

remains in the administrative chain of command of a Navy unit assigned to a combatant commander

A carrier strike group ____________.

has two chains of command administrative and operational

The component commands of the Transportation Command are __________.

(1) the Air Forces Air Mobility Command, (2) the Navys Military Sealift Command and (3) the Armys Surface Deployment and Distribution Command

Which of the following geographic combatant command(s) is/are headquartered outside of the United States?

The European Command

The National Security Council's members include, by law, _____________.

the President, Vice President, Secretary of State and Secretary of Defense

The United States two most senior ranking military officers are __________.

always the Chairman and Vice Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff

Functional combatant commanders ___________________.

are responsible directly to the Secretary of Defense and the President

Administratively, the Commandant of the Marine Corps reports to ________.

the Secretary of the Navy who reports to the Secretary of Defense

National Military Organization:

____________ is responsible for developing the National Military Strategy.

The Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff

A carrier strike group ____________.

has two chains of command administrative and operational

Functional combatant commanders ___________________.

are responsible directly to the Secretary of Defense and the President

Which of the following geographic combatant command(s) is/are headquartered outside of the United States?

The European Command

The component commands of the Transportation Command are __________.

(1) the Air Forces Air Mobility Command, (2) the Navys Military Sealift Command and (3) the Armys Surface Deployment and Distribution Command

The Chief of Naval Operations ___________.

must place his duties as a member of the Joint Chiefs of Staff ahead of his duties to the Secretary of the Navy as a military service chief

The overseas area where U.S. interests are mostly likely to be directly threatened is the area of responsibility of ______________.

the Central Command

The Joint Staff ____________.

is responsible only to the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff

The European Command ___________.

has deployed forces outside of its theater in support of Operations Enduring Freedom and Iraqi Freedom

Administratively, the Commandant of the Marine Corps reports to ________.

the Secretary of the Navy who reports to the Secretary of Defense

The United States two most senior ranking military officers are __________.

always the Chairman and Vice Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff

The Chief of Naval Operations _________________.

remains in the administrative chain of command of a Navy unit assigned to a combatant commander

The Unified Command Plan ________________.

establishes the missions, force structures and responsibilities of the combatant commanders

The Defense Intelligence Agency ____________.

is designated as a Combat Support Agency and thus has some oversight provided by the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff

An outbreak of hostilities between India and Pakistan would most likely occur in the area of responsibility of ______________.

the Central Command and the Pacific Command

The Commandant of the Coast Guard _______________.

is a military service chief but is not a member of the Joint Chiefs of Staff

The Presidents cabinet includes ________________.

the Secretary of Defense as a military representative

The commander of which geographic combatant command is responsible for the largest geographic area?

Pacific Command

The lead combatant command(s) in planning, directing and executing the Global War on Terrorism is/are _________________.

the Special Operations Command

National Security Strategy:

The National Security Strategy states that ___________ is America's most immediate challenge.

Terrorism

To complete the task of Expanding the Circle of Development, the United States will ________.

help build stable, prosperous, and peaceful societies

make foreign assistance more effective

The National Security Strategys essential task of global economic growth includes ___________________.


The National Security Strategy states that ___________.

globalization has exposed us to many new challenges

globalization presents many opportunities

As addressed in the President's cover letter to the National Security Strategy, ________ must take the lead in order for the world to successfully confront problems like human trafficking and the proliferation of weapons of mass destruction.

The United States

The National Security Strategys essential task of transforming the nations National Security Institutions will require _______________.

reorienting the State Department towards transformational diplomacy which promotes effective democracy and responsible sovereignty

The National Security Strategy states that _____________.

peace and international stability are most reliably built on a foundation of freedom.

The National Security Strategy takes the position that ____________.

left unaddressed, regional conflicts can lead to failed states

The current National Security Strategy _____________.

builds upon the framework of the last National Security Strategy, updated to take into account the time that has passed and the events that have occurred

The National Security Strategy points out that _____________.

because of the potentially devastating events of an attack with WMD, the United States will not rule out the use of preemptive force

National Defense Strategy:

The National Defense Strategy deals with ______________.


The National Defense Strategy _______________.

recognizes that a secure international system requires collective action

The National Defense Strategys view of deterrence is ____________.

that there needs to be increased emphasis on protecting against attacks

In order to establish favorable security conditions, the United States _______________.


Stability operations, as discussed in the National Defense Strategy, __________.

include operations ranging from peacekeeping to substantial combat action

When and if actual combat operations are necessary against a hostile force, the National Defense Strategy contemplates the use of all of the following except _____________.

combat operations only when they can be conducted with other nations

National Military Strategy:

The complex battle space used by adversaries to threaten the United States include _______________.


As discussed in the National Military Strategy ________________.

an adversary must believe that the United States has the ability to impose severe consequences inresponse to hostile or potentially hostile actions for deterrence to be successful

Which of the following statements is not true?

Concerning armed conflict, the National Military Strategy is limited to gaining a decisive victory, post-conflict stability is the role of civilian government agencies and departments.

The non-state actors that menace stability and security may include __________________.

terrorist networks, international criminal organizations, illegal armed groups and individuals

The National Military Strategy is _________________.

the highest level guidance document issued by a uniformed military officer

The National Military Strategy provides that the first and foremost military priority is __________________.

the protection of the United States against attack

Which of the following will make the statement not true?

The National Military Strategy _______________.

states that defending the United States against missile attack is no longer a priority

The priorities essential to the success of the Armed Forces outlined in the National Military Strategy are: ______________.

winning the War on Terrorism while protecting the United States; (2) enhancing our ability to fight as a joint force; and (3) transforming the Armed Forces by fielding new capabilities and adopting new operational concepts

Rogue states can threaten global and regional stability by ___________.



The combatant commanders assist the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff in developing the National Military Strategy.

To support the Joint Forces Functions of deploying and sustaining military capabilities?

The national military strategy requires the armed forces to increase its expeditionary logistics capabilities

In its guidance on the development of the Joint Force, the National Military Strategy ______-Deterring aggression and coercion ______________.Must be anticipatory in natureJoint Guidance and Resources:

The ________________ is the overarching description of how the future Joint Force will operate and occupies the highest position in the hierarchy of concepts.

Capstone Concept for Joint OperationsWhich of the following is not true?

None of the answers are correct

Joint concepts are developed and refined through ____________.

Experimentation

________________ provides the unifying framework for the family of joint concepts.

The Capstone Concept for Joint OperationsA joint concept is __________________.

a visualization of future military operations that describes how a commander might employ capabilities to achieve desired effects and objectives

The Joint Operations Concepts Development Process________.

describes a systematic process that will assist in guiding the creation of a Joint Force that will succeed in the battle space of tomorrow

In order to sustain and increase the qualitative military advantages the United States enjoys today requires ________________.

a transformation achieved by combining technology, intellect, and cultural changes across the joint community

Required capabilities and attributes are identified by __________.

Joint Functional Concepts

____________ publications are the top group of joint doctrine documents in the hierarchy of joint publications.

Capstone

A Joint Integrating Concept is __________________.

a description of how a Joint Force Commander will integrate capabilities to generate effects and achievean objective

At the Joint level, the guiding document in synchronizing the effort of joint concept developers to link strategic guidance to the development and employment of future capabilities is the _________________.

Joint Concepts Development and Revision PlanJoint Functional Concepts ________________.

receives their operational context for development and experimentation from a Joint Operating Concept

At the Joint level, the guiding document in synchronizing the effort of joint concept developers to link strategic guidance to the development and employment of future capabilities is the _________________.

Joint Operations Concepts Development Process

The Joint Operations Concepts Development Process________.

describes a systematic process that will assist in guiding the creation of a Joint Force that will succeed inthe battle space of tomorrow

A Joint Operating Concept describes how a joint force commander will accomplish a strategic objective ______________.

10-20 years in the future

A Joint Operating Concept __________________.

identifies broad principles and essential capabilities

Which of the Joint Concepts has the narrowest focus?

Joint Integrating ConceptA Joint Operating Concept describes how a Joint Force Commander will accomplish a strategic objective ______________ The Joint Concepts Development and Revision Plan ____________.Sea Power 21:

_____________ is central to the Sea Shield concept.

Achieving battle-space superiority in forward theatersWhich of the following is NOT true?

ForceNet is the follow-on program to Task Force EXCEL a fully integrated force wide network of linked computers.Which of the following is NOT true?

Seapower 21 does not have a focus that includes regional challenges.

Sea Warrior will address the challenges brought on by ________.

the reduced crew sizes that are the result of optimal manning policies and new platforms

The Sea Power 21 fundamental concept that will lead to the acceleration of expeditionary deployments and employment timelines by pre-positioning vital equipment and supplies in-theater is ____________________.

Sea Basing


ForceNet is the glue that binds together Sea Trial, Sea Warrior and Sea Enterprise.

Which of the following is NOT true?

Sea Basing will use the increasing number of overseas bases to expand our forward presence globally.

Which of the following is NOT considered essential to the Navys ability to counter the increased risk to the United States in the future?

None of the answers are correct.

Sea Strike ______________.

is the ability to project precise and persistent offensive power from the sea

Sea Power 21 was published by ___________________.

The Chief of Naval Operations

The foundation upon which offensive and defensive fires are projected is ____________.

Sea Basing

The Marine Corps tactical aviation integration plan is an example of ___________.

Sea Enterprise

Sea Trial is concerned with ______________.

the implementation of a continual process of rapid concept and technology development

Sea Shield will protect U.S. national interests with defensive power based on ____________.

control of the seas, forward presence, and networked intelligence

Which of the following is true?The Maritime Strategy wasWhich of the following is NOT true?Seapower 21 does not have a focus that includes regional challenges.Block 4The American Way of War:

Select True or False: The French and Indian War ended with a British victory over the French at the Battle of Quebec. This led to the American View that wars were won by the utilization of conventional armies.

False

Guerilla warfare was not present in the Mexican and Civil Wars, which were fought solely between two conventional armies using conventional tactics.

False. Guerilla warfare was present in both the Mexican War and the Civil War.

Select True or False: In order to patrol the vast American frontier and to protect settlers moving West, a large standing army was maintained by the United States after the Civil War.

FalseDuring the American Revolution, the Continental Army ____________________.

was created, in part, to convince potential allies that the United States was a legitimate nation

Following the end of the First World War, the U.S. _______________.

quickly demobilized the vast majority of its large wartime army

The Vietnam War shared what characteristic(s) with the Second Seminole War?


Select True or False: Although regular army forces participated in the hostilities, the Spanish American War was seen as a victory by militia (volunteer) forces and proof that the United States didnt need to maintain a large standing army.

TrueOne of the reasons for the unwillingness to fund a standing regular army following the American Revolution was ____________________.

the absence of an immediate threat to the new nation

The Second Seminole War _______________.

became a stalemate and was abandoned by the United States after declaring victoryCongress was unwilling to expend the funds necessary to maintain a large standing army during the latter part of the 19th century because ____________________.

it did not see any threat to the existence of the nationGenerals Grant and Sherman provided very lenient terms of surrender to the Confederate forces of Lee and Johnston in order to _______________.Select True or False: Todays Reserve Component and National Guard are direct descendents of the militias established by the early European colonists.TRUE

Public opposition to fighting the Philippine Insurrection was largely based on _______________.The Europeans who first settled what would become the United States ____________________.During the American Revolution, the American land forces found success against the British through ____________________.General Winfield Scotts capture of Mexico City during the Mexican War was ____________________.During the time between the First and Second World Wars, the American military was engaged in ________________.a series of small actions throughout Central America and the Caribbean in order to maintain order and discourage European intervention in the Western Hemisphere

The United States maintained a large standing force after World War II because of _______________.the perceived threat of the Soviet Union and the Warsaw PactCooperative maritime strategy______________ will be required to partner to counter the maritime domains emerging threats.All the answers are correctOne of the ways that maritime forces protect the homeland is to ______________.disrupt and neutralize threats far from the U.S.One of the consequences of the expanding global economic system is ______________.increased competition for scarce resourcesMaritime forces provide decision makers with ______________.All the answers are correct.______________ is one of the six key tasks of naval forces.Select True or False: Speed is a characteristic of maritime forces.TRUEMaritime forces require the cooperation of land forces in order to protect our citizensFALSEThe maritime domain supports what percentage of the worlds trade?90%The Naval Way of War:

By establishing control of the sea in the early stages of conflict, the Navy will ____________________.

have strategic and operational freedom of maneuver and assure security for the lines of communicationSelect True or False: Historically, the Navy has generally possessed the most complex technology available.

TrueAll ships are fragile and subject to peril for reasons other than enemy action. If the greatest peril during non-wartime activity is water in the hull, then the second greatest peril is ____________________.

Fire

During non-wartime activity, what can be equally dangerous but less expected in terms of safety of the ship and operating environment?

The attitudes of Naval officers toward their job

Navigation is ____________________.

an art of approximation

Select True or False: According to the rule of Naval Warfare the Navy must achieve an absolute control of the sea.

FalseIn close waters, what Navigational tool will help reduce error and uncertainty of your location to a considerable degree?

GPS

The Navys organizational culture comes from ____________________.


In our time, in order to understand how the U.S. Navy responds to new missions, threats, tactics, and technologies, its important to know ___________________.

The U.S. Navys organizational culture

Organizational culture affects the way the organization ____________________.


The Navys intent in extending control from the sea to the land is to

limit the enemys freedom of action and to make a sea barrier, not an avenue for maneuver

U.S. Navy ships were initially designed to protect aircraft carrier battle groups against the Russians and, at this time, they ____________________.

have adopted a new technology to a different mission for air-ground support operations

Put him in the position, let him do his job, and give him hell if he does not perform is the not-to-centralize philosophy of the U.S. ________________________.

Navy

What is the best example of Independence of Action?All of the answers are correctWhy does the Navy still fear technological advances?It could irrevocably alter, in a harmful way, the values that traditionally have been held near and dear to the Navy.

According to Admiral Nimitz, the primary responsibility of every commanding officer is to ____________________.Theory of War:

An action undertaken by a Navy Seal Team operates at what level of war?

It varies depending on the level of the objective achieved or contributed to by the actionThe concept of operational level of war developed ____________________.

in order to bridge the gap between strategy and national strategic objectives, and the tactics employed on the battlefield to achieve those objectivesThe enemys center of gravity ____________________.

can change particularly at the operational and tactical level

An enemys critical vulnerability ____________________.

is a vulnerability that, if exploited, will do the most significant damage to the enemys ability to resist us

The introduction of a new weapon system by the enemy ____________________.

may change its center of gravity and may change its critical vulnerability

Actions are defined as strategic, operational or tactical based on ____________________.

the level of the objectives achieved or contributed to by the actions

Which of the following is correct?

The principles of war provide a basis for naval doctrine.

Carrier Strike Group and Expeditionary Strike Group commanders generally operate at what level of war?

Tactical

The three components of military art are ____________________.

strategy, tactics, and operational art

The enemys center of gravity ____________________.

can change particularly at the operational and tactical level

Commanders should focus their efforts on ____________________.

concentrating strength against some relative enemy weakness

The concept of an operational level of war was first utilized ____________________.

by Napoleon with his creation of a more manageable battlefield through the use of divisions and corps each commanded by a general officer who was well versed in his strategic objectives

The principles of war ____________________.Operational art ____________________.deals with the study, theory, and practice of planning, preparing, conducting, and sustaining major operations and campaigns designed to accomplish operational or strategic objectivesOperational art was born during the ____________________.period following World War IThe principles of war include ____________________.Doctrine:

Select True or False: Naval forces are best employed as part of a joint and/or multinational force.

TrueSelect True or False: Combatant commanders use the UJTL to develop JMETLs.

TrueJoint doctrine is based on ____________________.

current capabilities

Select True or False: Tactics, techniques, and procedures are all non-prescriptive.

FalseThe Navy Warfare Library provides ____________________.

all publications on the NWDC SIPRNET site

The Navy's Web-based doctrine development process works through ____________________.

NWDC SIPRNET site

The UNTL is ____________________.A comprehensive/hierarchical listing of Navy tasks at all levels of war

Select True or False: Combatant commanders use the UJTL to develop JMETLs.TrueWhich of the following is NOT a characteristic of doctrine?

Detailed threat profilesWhich of the following is NOT characteristic of NTTPs?

They are not related to NWPs.Naval Doctrine Publications are capstone publications which ____________________.link overarching Navy concepts to fleet operationsNaval Doctrine Publications are approved by ____________________.

CNO and Commandant, USMCSelect True or False: Joint doctrine is authoritative, which means it must be followed without exception.

FalseThe joint doctrine development process has four steps: ____________________.initiation, development, approval, maintenanceSelect True or False: Combatant commanders use the UJTL to develop JMETLs.TrueAll doctrinal publications are reviewed ____________________.

continually and revised due to fundamental changes or if it has been ten years since the last revisionSelect True or False: Joint doctrine takes precedence over conflicting service doctrine.trueCommand and Control:

Command and control is ___________________ .

a system and a process

Feedback is most important to control because ___________________ .

It gives commanders information they will need to adapt to changing circumstances.

Control is the ___________________ .

commanders means of guiding a military operation

Naval commanders exercise TACON over ___________________ .


OPCON would be delegated to ___________________ .

JTF commanders

Which of the following fit with the analogy between Command and Control and the functioning of the human nervous system?


C enables the Commander to ___________________ .


Combatant Command is exercised by unified or specified commanders through ___________________ .


Which of the following are considered command and control support?

The people, facilities and equipment that provide information to commanders.

OPCON and TACON:


The C organization is defined to include ___________________ .


Which of the following is not considered Tactical Control or TACON?

Organization, logistics and training

The process of command control includes which of the following?All of the answers are correct.U.S. forces, including U.S. Naval forces are ___________________ .

May be placed under OPCON of a UN commander based upon a Security Council resolution

Operational control or OPCON includes organizing commands and which of the following functions?

All of the answers are correct.The Navy uses the Composite Warfare Commander concept as ___________________its doctrine for tactical command and control

Joint Force Maritime component commander:

The JFMCC concept is _______________________ .

still under development in terms of specific details, although the broad functions have been finalizedAccording to the concept, the JFMCC _______________________ .


What is the unifying factor in all Joint Maritime Operations?

Sea controlWhich of the following are typical war fighting functions of the JFMCC?


The Joint Force Maritime Component Commander ___________________.

Will not be designated if the JFC elects to control maritime operations or relies upon the Navy service component commander

The goal of the JFMCC doctrine is to:

Integrate all Naval assets and capabilities into the Joint Force Commanders campaign plan.

The Maritime Task Plan is a web-based data base that is used by the JFMCC to:


Ordinarily the JFMCC will be given _____________________ .

both OPCON and TACON

Who ordinarily will have functional responsibility for the performance of a JTF's maritime missions?

The JFMCC

The JFMCCs subordinate commanders include:

Both CSG and ESG commanders.

The JFMCC is equivalent to the following commanders ___________________.

the JFLCC and JFACC

The Joint Force Commander has ___________________.wide authority to organize the Joint Task ForceThe functional approach as exemplified in the JFMCC (and the Joint Forces Air Component Commander and the Joint Forces Land Component Commander) serves which of the following purposes?Better integrate military assets during operations.The MARSUPREQ is used by subordinate commanders to ___________________request specific support to execute assigned missionsThe JFMCC is equivalent to the following commanders ___________________ .The MARSUPREQ is designed to ___________________

enable the commanders of Carrier Strike Groups, Expeditionary Strike Groups and other functionalcomponent

to request JFMCC assetsThe JFMCC is ordinarily composed of:

A service or component staff, augmented by service staff.Under the JFMCC concept, logistics, personnel support, and service-specific training would:Remain the responsibility of the service component commander.

CWC Concept:

Admiral Arleigh Burke said that command by negation was important because:

In battle there is too much going on, too fast for one person to manage.

What is the cornerstone tenet of the CWC concept?

Command by negation

The common operating picture, or COP, includes ______________.


The CWC concept addresses defense against:


After the Cold War, the Navy's primary mission:

Shifted in orientation to the littorals.

The CWC would be on a carrier or flag-configured amphibious ship because ___________________ .

that is where the needed C2 assets will be

Under Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) concept, the Officer in Tactical Commands (OTCs) primary focus should be on:Conducting Carrier Strike Group (CSG) offensive operations against an adversary.The chain of command under the Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) concept ______________________.

must be established by the Officer in Tactical Command (OTC) in an Operation General Matter (OPGEN)

The Officer in Tactical Command (OTC) will designate:


Naval historian Thomas Hone asserts that command by negation:

Top of Form

assumes that direct, immediate control is not practical.

The Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) is intended to enable the carrier battle group (CVBG) commander to:Manage information overloadBottom of Form

Under the Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) concept warfare commanders are given call signs that _______________.All of the answers are correct.Decentralization and command by negation are:Design keys of Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) because they reduce complexity and information overload.Why was the Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) concept developed?To attempt to manage the complexity of the environment

The Officer in Tactical Command (OTC) delegation to the Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) is:Tactical Control (TACON):CWC Roles and Responsibilities:

If an alternate CWC is designated, his or her functions would be ______________________ .


Decentralized command is an effective approach because?

It helps to prevent the CWC from being overwhelmed by information overload.It enables tactical commanders to take advantage of fast moving opportunities to achieve mission objectives.

What did Admiral Mustin say about Nelson's plan at Trafalgar?

The plan was good, but what was really decisive was that his subordinates understood the plan and their roles in it.

The functions of a Principal Warfare Commander and a Functional Warfare Commander include ___________________ .


Which of the following are not part of the CWC structure?

JTF commanders

Principal Warfare Commanders are never authorized to:

Assign missions to other Warfare Commanders.

Principal Warfare Commanders are ___________________ .

immediately subordinate to the CWC

What is the role of preplanning of responses in the CWC concept?


The CWC will have _____________________ .

TACONWhich of the following is not an example of a coordinator under the Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) concept?Interagency Working Group Coordinator

TACON over any single asset can be ___________________ .

held by only one commander and any given time

Which of the following are not examples of Functional Warfare Commanders?Secure Telecommunications Group CommanderWhich of the following is not a Principal Warfare Commander (PWC)?Which of the following functions are the responsibility of Composite Warfare Commander (CWC)?Sector Warfare Commanders may be designated in dispersed operations by:Either the Principal Warfare Commander (PWC) or the Composite Warfare Commander (CWCThe Surface Warfare Commander is ordinarily based on ________________ .Tatical Control over any single asset can be ___________________held by only one commander and any given timeJFMCC/CWC Challenges:

What are the challenges to the CWC concept?


Many challenges to the CWC concept are rapidly becoming moot due to ___________________.

developments in the multi-mission capability of ship and aircraft platforms, and improvement in satellite communications

Select True or False: The authoritive joint doctrine stresses decentralized planning and centralized execution.

FalseThe CWC concept formerly promoted a close defensive posture for forces afloat, which means ___________________.


A downside of CWCs dependency on communications is ______________.


According to Robert C. Powers, all of the below mentioned are the subtlest arguments against the CWC concept, except that the ___________________.

CWC creates broad war fighting specialists

Important challenges for CWC include ___________________.


According to CWC concept, the distance for all ships of the formation, in relation to the flagship, must be in the radius of ___________________.

20NM

What mitigates the concern that the CWC concept is too communications intensive?What has allowed a higher dispersion of a naval formation?Origins and Development:

Select True or False: In order to effectively defend itself from hostile forces while simultaneously conducting strike warfare in a joint environment, it is necessary for the on scene Naval air commander to operate independent from the Joint Air Component Commander.

FalseStrike operations are a component of which navy mission?

Projecting power ashoreSelect True or False: During Operation Desert Storm, naval aircraft were limited to deep attacks, targeting the Iraqi infrastructure.

FalseSelect True or False: Strike warfare, as practiced by the Navy during the 1990-91 Gulf War, resulted in the new mission of close-air support being assigned to OV-10 and AH-1 aircraft.

FalseSelect True or False: The Navy mission of projecting power ashore is a relatively new mission, made possible by the introduction of the Tomahawk Land Attack Missile.

FalseSelect True or False: The 1990-1 Gulf War validated the Navy's strike warfare reliance on precision guided munitions and as a result nearly no dumb bombs were utilized.

FalseSelect True or False: Amphibious operations are not considered as part of the Navy's power ashore projection mission because the main components of such operations are Marine Corps and/or Army units.

FalseSelect True or False: While USN strike warfare can project power ashore in a highly effective way, it cannot sustain such operations for an extended period.

FalseHow do the Navys two principal missions influence events on land?

Both influence events on land. Sea control indirectly influence events while power projection ashore directly influences those events.Select True or False: Strike warfare is focused on those platforms that directly attack targets with ordnance. Thus, aircraft such as the EA-6B Prowlers and E-2C Hawkeye have no role in Sea Strike.

FalseDuring Operation DESERT STORM, the Navy's capability to conduct amphibious operations ___________________.caused the Iraqis to divert a portion of its forces to defend Kuwait against amphibious attack whichcontributed to its forces being enveloped by coalition forces

Select True or False: Submarines have no role in strike warfare.FalseThe changes in strike warfare organization and planning resulting from lessons learned in the 1990s Gulf War were tested _______________.

in the series of operations in the Balkans during the late 1990sOperation DESERT STORM introduced ___________________ to the Navy mission of projecting power ashore.ship launched long range non-nuclear guided missilesWhich of the following is not a principal mechanism by which the Navy executes strike warfare?Select True or False: In order to effectively defend itself from hostile forces while simultaneously conducting strike warfare in a joint environment, it is necessary for the on scene Naval Air Commander to operate independent from the Joint Air Component CommanderFALSE

CSG:

Select True or False: The Virginia class submarine is an improved version of the Seawolf class. It is just as quiet, but has greater speed, can operate at increased depth and can carry more weapons than the Seawolf class.

False

The Fleet Response Plans goal is to ______________.

sustain a level of at least six surge-capable CSGs with two additional groups ready to deploy within three months of an emergency order

Select True or False: All of the ships assigned to a Carrier Strike Group have the capability of keeping up with the carrier when the carrier is operating at its maximum speed.

FalseSelect True or False: The Fleet Response Plan and Flexible Deployment concepts have yet to be implemented and tested.

FalseWhich submarine class(es) is/are capable of conducting long range strikes using the Tomahawk missile?


Carrier Strike Groups are employed _____________.


Select True or False: Because a Carrier Strike Group is the main element of the Navys strike warfare mission, the Carrier Strike Group does not have an organic anti-submarine warfare capability.

FalseThe principal platform of a Carrier Strike Group is ___________.always a CV/CVNSelect True or False: Carrier based aircraft are limited in their ability to attack targets located relatively far inland due to their inability to conduct in-flight refuelingFalseWhich submarine class(es) is/are capable of conducting long range strikes using the Tomahawk missile?All of the answers are correct.

Anti-submarine warfare capability is provided to a Carrier Strike Group by _______________.All of the answers are correct.Select True or False: Experience has shown that the Perry-class guided missile frigate cannot withstand the damage caused by an anti-ship guided missile.False

Carrier Strike Groups are dependant on Logistical Supply Squadrons (LSSs) for replenishment of ammunition, fuel and supplies as they do not have logistical support ships organic to themFALSESelect True or False: The Navys Flexible Deployment Concept has been the foundation for the successful use of carrier-based aviation during several major wars and numerous smaller conflicts over the past several decades.FALSECarrier Strike Groups _______________.Protection of a Marine amphibious force while enroute to, and upon arrival in, an amphibious objective area may be provided by ____________.The Fleet Response Plans goal is to ______________.sustain a level of at least six surge-capable CSGs with two additional groups ready to deploy within three months of an emergency orderSelect True or False: Because they have no long-range strike capability, the Perry-class guided missile frigates are the primary means of AAW within a Carrier Strike Group.FALSESelect True or False: Experience has shown that the Perry-class guided missile frigate cannot withstand the damage caused by an anti-ship guided missile.FALSECV/CVN:

What is the effect of PGMs on aircraft sortie rates?

Reduce the number of aircraft required

Flight deck danger can be eliminated by:

None of the answers are correct

___________________ converts the sophisticated technological potential of an aircraft carrier into real and useable power.

Human organization

Successful strike warfare depends upon ?


Iraqi Freedom strike operations illustrate the CV/CVNs unique capability to conduct air operations in:

Sandstorms

Multicarrier and night operations do which of the following?

Permit 24 hour strike warfare

Which of the following is not a current requirement for continuous maintenance and effectiveness of the CV/CVN force?

Improved ship design

What is the largest and most complex ship in the Navy?

Aircraft carrier

The Carrier Air Department is responsible for:Flight deck controlWhich factor(s) impacting sortie rates require(s) the application of non-organic assets?In-flight refueling

Flight deck danger can be eliminated by:None of the answers are correct.

Select True or False: Trade-offs between naval effectiveness and safety of naval operations involve higher acceptance of risk in wartime and less toleration of risk in peacetime.True

Effective strike operations are coordinated through a negotiation process in which officers:Resist demands which could compromise the safety or performance of their unitsMaximize demands on other units for operational and logistics supportNaval Air Strike Warfare is executed by:

Aircraft Carrier WingMulticarrier and night operations do which of the following?Permit 24 hour strike warfareWhat types of redundancy involves shipboard operations-critical units or components such as computers, radar antennas, etc.?

Mission requirements for coordinated air operations must be balanced among which of the following?The Carrier Combat Systems Department is responsible for:Due to the complexity and dangers of flight operations, what is the lowest position authorized to suspend flight deck operations?DECK CREW MEMBERCVW:

Composition of the carrier air wing evolved through punctuated stability; this refers to?

Periods of intense change interspersed with longer periods of relative stability.

The Joint Strike Fighter which will replace the Tomcats and Hornets in some of its versions has all the following advantages except:

ASW capability

What do the Tomcat, Prowler, Viking, Joint Strike Fighter currently have in common?

Recent mission changes

Operational planning for an air strike includes all but which of the following:

National Command Authority

Reduction of CEPs is due to greater precision afforded by:


Match the aircraft with their primary mission.

1. air defense and strikeA. F-14 Tomcat

2. ASW, air refuelingB. E-2C Hawkeye

3. electronic attackC. EA-6B Prowler

4. early warningD. S-3B Viking

Which of the following carrier air wing missions involve protecting critical areas of the combat zone for the purpose of destroying enemy aircraft before they reach their targets?

Combat air patrol

What is the principal limitation of PGMs?

Cost

Attributes of Joint Direct Attack Munitions(JDAM) are?

Operates in adverse weather

Converts dumb bomb into precision guided weapon

Concept of Operations(CONOPS) for a carrier strike does not include:

battle damage assessment

Select the statements that are correct concerning carrier air wings.

Air wing composition has evolved substantially since the end of the Cold War.

The carrier and the air wing are two complementary components of a single fighting system.

Improved targeting, especially through PGMs, has enhanced the effectiveness of the carrier air wing.

What single fighting system gives the carrier air wing its phenomenal punch?

The embarked air wing

Advantages of PGMs include all but one of the following:

reduced costs and maintenance expenses

Detection of enemy air or surface units by radar or other equipment carried in an airborne vehicle and transmission of a warning to friendly units is the mission of:Airborne ear

PPME

Documents

civil war

mexican war

seminole war

prisoners of war

naval warfare

steam power

navy commissioned officer

antebellum navy leader