Physics Test with ans.

1. A nanosecond is:A. 109 sB. 10−9 sC. 10−10 sD. 10−10 sE. 10−12

Ans: B

2. The SI standard of length is based on:A. the distance from the north pole to the equator along a meridian passing through ParisB. wavelength of light emitted by Hg198

C. wavelength of light emitted by Kr86

D. a precision meter stick in ParisE. the speed of lightAns: E

3. In 1866, the U. S. Congress defined the U. S. yard as exactly 3600/3937 international meter. This was done primarily because:

A. length can be measured more accurately in meters than in yardsB. the meter is more stable than the yardC. this definition relates the common U. S. length units to a more widely used systemD. there are more wavelengths in a yard than in a meterE. the members of this Congress were exceptionally intelligentAns: C

4. Which of the following is closest to a yard in length?A. 0.01mB. 0.1mC. 1mD. 100mE. 1000mAns: C

5. The SI base unit for mass is:A. gramB. poundC. kilogramD. ounceE. kilopoundAns: C

6. A gram is:A. 10−6 kgB. 10−3 kgC. 1 kgD. 103 kgE. 106 kgAns: B

7. Which of the following weighs about a pound?A. 0.05 kgB. 0.5 kgC. 5 kgD. 50 kgE. 500 kgAns: D

8. 1 mi is equivalent to 1609 m so 55 mph is:A. 15 m/s

B. 25 m/sC. 66 m/sD. 88 m/sE. 1500 m/sAns: B

9. 2. During a short interval of time the speed v in m/s of an automobile is given by v = at 2 + bt3, where the time t is in seconds. The units of a and b are respectively:

A. m · s2; m· s4

B. s3/m; s4/mC. m/s2; m/s3

D. m/s3; m/s4

E. m/s4; m/s5

Ans: D

10. 3.Suppose A = BC, where A has the dimension L/M and C has the dimension L/T. Then Bhas the dimension:A. T/MB. L2/TMC. TM/L2

D. L2T/ME. M/L2TAns: A

11. 4.Suppose A = BnCm, where A has dimensions LT, B has dimensions L2T−1, and C hasdimensions LT2. Then the exponents n and m have the values:A. 2/3; 1/3B. 2; 3C. 4/5; −1/5D. 1/5; 3/5E. 1/2; 1/2Ans: D

12. 1.A particle moves along the x axis from xi to xf . Of the following values of the initial and final coordinates, which results in the displacement with the largest magnitude?

A. xi = 4m, xf = 6mB. xi = −4m, xf = −8mC. xi = −4m, xf = 2mD. xi = 4m, xf = −2mE. xi = −4m, xf = 4mans: E

13. 2.A particle moves along the x axis from x i to xf . Of the following values of the initial and final coordinates, which results in a negative displacement?

A. xi = 4m, xf = 6mB. xi = −4m, xf = −8mC. xi = −4m, xf = 2mD. xi = −4m, xf = −2mE. xi = −4m, xf = 4mans: B

14. The average speed of a moving object during a given interval of time is always:A. the magnitude of its average velocity over the intervalB. the distance covered during the time interval divided by the time intervalC. one-half its speed at the end of the intervalD. its acceleration multiplied by the time intervalE. one-half its acceleration multiplied by the time interval.ans: B

15. Two automobiles are 150 kilometers apart and traveling toward each other. One automobile is moving at 60km/h and the other is moving at 40km/h mph. In how many hours will they meet?

A. 2.5

B. 2.0C. 1.75D. 1.5E. 1.25ans: D

16. A car travels 40 kilometers at an average speed of 80km/h and then travels 40 kilometers at an average speed of 40km/h. The average speed of the car for this 80-km trip is:

A. 40km/hB. 45km/hC. 48km/hD. 53km/hE. 80km/hans: D

17. A car starts from Hither, goes 50 km in a straight line to Yon, immediately turns around,and returns to Hither. The time for this round trip is 2 hours. The magnitude of the average velocity of the car for this round trip is:A. 0B. 50 km/hrC. 100 km/hrD. 200 km/hrE. cannot be calculated without knowing the accelerationans: A

18. The coordinate of an object is given as a function of time by x = 4t2 −3t3, where x is in meters and t is in seconds. Its average acceleration over the interval from t = 0 to t = 2 s is:

A. −4m/s2

B. 4m/s2

C. −10m/s2

D. 10m/s2

E. −13m/s2

ans: C

19. Over a short interval near time t = 0 the coordinate of an automobile in meters is given byx(t) = 27t − 4.0t3, where t is in seconds. At the end of 1.0 s the acceleration of the auto is:A. 27 m/s2

B. 4.0 m/s2

C. −4.0 m/s2

D. −12 m/s2

E. −24 m/s2

ans: E

20. Over a short interval, starting at time t = 0, the coordinate of an automobile in meters is given by x(t) = 27t − 4.0t3, where t is in seconds. The magnitudes of the initial (at t = 0) velocity and acceleration of the auto respectively are:

A. 0; 12 m/s2

B. 0; 24 m/s2

C. 27 m/s; 0D. 27 m/s; 12 m/s2

E. 27 m/s; 24 m/s2

ans: C

21. At time t = 0 a car has a velocity of 16 m/s. It slows down with an acceleration given by−0.50t, in m/s2 for t in seconds. By the time it stops it has traveled:A. 15 mB. 31 mC. 62 mD. 85 mE. 100 mans: D

22. Starting at time t = 0, an object moves along a straight line with velocity in m/s given byv(t) = 98 − 2t2, where t is in seconds. When it momentarily stops its acceleration is:A. 0B. −4.0 m/s2

C. −9.8 m/s2

D. −28 m/s2

E. 49 m/s2

ans: D

23. Starting at time t = 0, an object moves along a straight line. Its coordinate in meters is given by x(t) = 75t − 1.0t3, where t is in seconds. When it momentarily stops its acceleration is:

A. 0B. −73 m/s2

C. −30 m/s2

D. −9.8 m/s2

E. 9.2 × 103 m/s2

ans: C

24. A car, initially at rest, travels 20 m in 4 s along a straight line with constant acceleration. The acceleration of the car is:

A. 0.4m/s2

B. 1.3m/s2

C. 2.5m/s2

D. 4.9m/s2

E. 9.8m/s2

ans: C

25. At a location where g = 9.80 m/s2, an object is thrown vertically down with an initial speed of 1.00 m/s. After 5.00 s the object will have traveled:

A. 125 mB. 127.5 mC. 245 mD. 250 mE. 255 mans: B

26. An object is thrown vertically upward at 35 m/s. Taking g = 10 m/s2, the velocity of theobject 5 s later is:A. 7.0 m/s upB. 15 m/s downC. 15 m/s upD. 85 m/s downE. 85 m/s upans: B

27. A heavy ball falls freely, starting from rest. Between the third and fourth second of time it travels a distance of:

A. 4.9 mB. 9.8 mC. 29.4 mD. 34.3 mE. 39.8 mans: D

28. As a rocket is accelerating vertically upward at 9.8 m/s2 near Earth’s surface, it releases aprojectile. Immediately after release the acceleration (in m/s2) of the projectile is:A. 9.8 downB. 0C. 9.8 upD. 19.6 upE. none of the aboveans: A

29. A stone is released from a balloon that is descending at a constant speed of 10 m/s. Neglecting air resistance, after 20 s the speed of the stone is:

A. 2160 m/sB. 1760 m/sC. 206 m/sD. 196 m/sE. 186 m/sans: C

30. An object dropped from the window of a tall building hits the ground in 12.0 s. If its acceleration is 9.80 m/s2, the height of the window above the ground is:

A. 29.4 mB. 58.8 mC. 118 mD. 353 mE. 706 mans: E

31. Neglecting the effect of air resistance a stone dropped off a 175-m high building lands on the ground in:A. 3 sB. 4 sC. 6 sD. 18 sE. 36 sans: C

32. The area under a velocity-time graph represents:A. accelerationB. change in accelerationC. speedD. change in velocityE. displacementans: E

33. An object has a constant acceleration of 3 m/s2. The coordinate versus time graph for this object has a slope:

A. that increases with timeB. that is constantC. that decreases with timeD. of 3 m/sE. of 3 m/s2

ans: A

34. The coordinate-time graph of an object is a straight line with a positive slope. The object has:A. constant displacementB. steadily increasing accelerationC. steadily decreasing accelerationD. constant velocityE. steadily increasing velocityans: D

35. A stone is thrown outward from the top of a 59.4-m high cliff with an upward velocity component of 19.5m/s. How long is stone in the air?

A. 4.00 sB. 5.00 sC. 6.00 sD. 7.00 sE. 8.00 sans: C

36. A newton is the force:

A. of gravity on a 1 kg bodyB. of gravity on a 1 g bodyC. that gives a 1 g body an acceleration of 1 cm/s2

D. that gives a 1 kg body an acceleration of 1m/s2

E. that gives a 1 kg body an acceleration of 9.8m/s2

ans: D

37. The unit of force called the newton is:A. 9.8kg · m/s2

B. 1 kg · m/s2

C. defined by means of Newton’s third lawD. 1 kg of massE. 1 kg of forceans: B

38. A force of 1N is:A. 1 kg/sB. 1 kg · m/sC. 1 kg · m/s2

D. 1 kg · m2/sE. 1 kg · m2/s2

ans: C

39. Acceleration is always in the direction:A. of the displacementB. of the initial velocityC. of the final velocityD. of the net forceE. opposite to the frictional forceans: D

40. The term “mass” refers to the same physical concept as:A. weightB. inertiaC. forceD. accelerationC. volumeans: B

41. The inertia of a body tends to cause the body to:A. speed upB. slow downC. resist any change in its motionD. fall toward EarthE. decelerate due to frictionans: C

42. When a certain force is applied to the standard kilogram its acceleration is 5.0m/s2. When the same force is applied to another object its acceleration is one-fifth as much. The mass of the object is:

A. 0.2kgB. 0.5kgC. 1.0kgD. 5.0kgE. 10 kgans: D

43. A car travels east at constant velocity. The net force on the car is:A. eastB. westC. upD. downE. zeroans: E

44. A constant force of 8.0 N is exerted for 4.0 s on a 16-kg object initially at rest. The change in speed of this object will be:

A. 0.5m/sB. 2m/sC. 4m/sD. 8m/sE. 32m/sans: B

45. A 6-kg object is moving south. A net force of 12N north on it results in the object having an acceleration of:

A. 2m/s2, northB. 2m/s2, southC. 6m/s2, northD. 18m/s2, northE. 18m/s2, southans: A

46. A 9000-N automobile is pushed along a level road by four students who apply a total forward force of 500 N. Neglecting friction, the acceleration of the automobile is:

A. 0.055m/s2

B. 0.54m/s2

C. 1.8m/s2

D. 9.8m/s2

E. 18m/s2

ans: B

47. An object rests on a horizontal frictionless surface. A horizontal force of magnitude F is applied. This force produces an acceleration:

A. only if F is larger than the weight of the objectB. only while the object suddenly changes from rest to motionC. alwaysD. only if the inertia of the object decreasesE. only if F is increasingans: C

48. Two forces are applied to a 5.0-kg crate; one is 6.0N to the north and the other is 8.0N to the west. The magnitude of the acceleration of the crate is:

A. 0.50m/s2

B. 2.0m/s2

C. 2.8m/s2

D. 10m/s2

E. 50m/s2

ans: B

49. A 400-N steel ball is suspended by a light rope from the ceiling. The tension in the rope is:A. 400NB. 800NC. 380 ND. 200NE. 560Nans: A

50. A 1000-kg elevator is rising and its speed is increasing at 3m/s2. The tension force of the cable on the elevator is:

A. 6800NB. 1000NC. 3000ND. 9800NE. 12800Nans: E

51. A 5-kg block is suspended by a rope from the ceiling of an elevator as the elevator accelerates downward at 3.0m/s2. The tension force of the rope on the block is:

A. 15 N, upB. 34 N, upC. 34 N, downD. 64 N, upE. 64 N, downans: B

52. The zeroth law of thermodynamics allows us to define:A. workB. pressureC. temperatureD. thermal equilibriumE. internal energyans: C

53. A constant-volume gas thermometer is used to measure the temperature of an object. When the thermometer is in contact with water at its triple point (273.16 K) the pressure in the thermometer is 8.500 × 104 Pa. When it is in contact with the object the pressure is 9.650 × 104 Pa. The temperature of the object is:

A. 37.0KB. 241KC. 310KD. 314KE. 2020Kans: C

54. When a certain constant-volume gas thermometer is in thermal contact with water at its triple point (273.16 K) the pressure is 6.30 × 104 Pa. For this thermometer a kelvin corresponds to a change in pressure of about:

A. 4.34 × 102 PaB. 2.31 × 102 PaC. 1.72 × 103 PaD. 2.31 × 103 PaE. 1.72 × 107 Paans: B

55. A surveyor’s 30-m steel tape is correct at 68◦ F. On a hot day the tape has expanded to 30.01 m. On that day, the tape indicates a distance of 15.52m between two points. The true distance between these points is:

A. 15.50mB. 15.51mC. 15.52mD. 15.53mE. 15.54mans: B

56. The Stanford linear accelerator contains hundreds of brass disks tightly fitted into a steel tube (see figure). The coefficient of linear expansion of the brass is 2.00 ×10−5 per C◦. The

system was assembled by cooling the disks in dry ice (−57◦ C) to enable them to just slide into the close-fitting tube. If the diameter of a disk is 80.00mm at 43◦ C, what is its diameter in the dry ice?

A. 78.40mmB. 79.68mmC. 80.16mmD. 79.84mmE. 80.5mm ans: D

57. The coefficient of linear expansion of iron is 1.0 × 10−5 per C◦. The surface area of an iron cube, with an edge length of 5.0 cm, will increase by what amount if it is heated from 10◦ C to 60◦ C?

A. 0.0125 cm2

B. 0.025 cm2

C. 0.075 cm2

D. 0.15 cm2

E. 0.30 cm2

ans: D

58. The coefficient of linear expansion of steel is 11 × 10−6 per C◦. A steel ball has a volume of exactly 100 cm3 at 0◦ C. When heated to 100◦ C, its volume becomes:

A. 100.33 cm3

B. 100.0011 cm3

C. 100.0033 cm3

D. 100.000011 cm3

E. 100.01 cm3none of theseans: A

59. The coefficient of linear expansion of a certain steel is 0.000012 per C◦ . The coefficient of volume expansion, in (C◦)−1, is:

A. (0.000012)3

B. (4π/3)(0.000012)3

C. 3 × 0.000012D. 0.000012E. depends on the shape of the volume to which it will be appliedans: C

60. Metal pipes, used to carry water, sometimes burst in the winter because:A. metal contracts more than waterB. outside of the pipe contracts more than the inside

C. metal becomes brittle when coldD. ice expands when it meltsE. water expands when it freezesans: E

61. A gram of distilled water at 4◦ C:A. will increase slightly in weight when heated to 6◦ CB. will decrease slightly in weight when heated to 6◦ CC. will increase slightly in volume when heated to 6◦ CD. will decrease slightly in volume when heated to 6◦ CE. will not change in either volume or weightans: D

62. Heat is:A. energy transferred by virtue of a temperature differenceB. energy transferred by macroscopic workC. energy content of an objectD. a temperature differenceE. a property objects have by virtue of their temperaturesans: A

63. Heat has the same units as:A. temperatureB. workC. energy/timeD. heat capacityE. energy/volumeans: B

64. A calorie is about:A. 0.24 JB. 8.3JC. 250 JD. 4.2JE. 4200 Jans: D

65. The heat capacity of an object is:A. the amount of heat energy that raises its temperature by 1◦ CB. the amount of heat energy that changes its state without changing its temperatureC. the amount of heat energy per kilogram that raises its temperature by 1◦ CD. the ratio of its specific heat to that of waterE. the change in its temperature caused by adding 1 J of heatans: A

66. The same energy Q enters five different substances as heat.The temperature of 3 g of substance A increases by 10KThe temperature of 4 g of substance B increases by 4KThe temperature of 6 g of substance C increases by 15KThe temperature of 8 g of substance D increases by 6KThe temperature of 10 g of substance E increases by 10KWhich substance has the greatest specific heat?

ans: B

67. For constant-volume processes the heat capacity of gas A is greater than the heat capacity of gas B. We conclude that when they both absorb the same energy as heat at constant volume:

A. the temperature of A increases more than the temperature of BB. the temperature of B increases more than the temperature of AC. the internal energy of A increases more than the internal energy of BD. the internal energy of B increases more than the internal energy of AE. A does more positive work than Bans: B

68. The heat capacity at constant volume and the heat capacity at constant pressure have different values because:

A. heat increases the temperature at constant volume but not at constant pressureB. heat increases the temperature at constant pressure but not at constant volumeC. the system does work at constant volume but not at constant pressureD. the system does work at constant pressure but not at constant volumeE. the system does more work at constant volume than at constant pressureans: D

69. A cube of aluminum has an edge length of 20 cm. Aluminum has a density 2.7 times that of water (1 g/cm3) and a specific heat 0.217 times that of water (1 cal/g · C◦). When the internal energy of the cube increases by 47000 cal its temperature increases by:

A. 5C◦

B. 10C◦

C. 20C◦

D. 100C◦

E. 200C◦

ans: B

70. An insulated container, filled with water, contains a thermometer and a paddle wheel. The paddle wheel can be rotated by an external source. This apparatus can be used to determine:

A. specific heat of waterB. relation between kinetic energy and absolute temperatureC. thermal conductivity of waterD. efficiency of changing work into heatE. mechanical equivalent of heatans: E

71. Take the mechanical equivalent of heat as 4 J/cal. A 10-g bullet moving at 2000m/s plunges into 1 kg of paraffin wax (specific heat 0.7 cal/g ·C◦). The wax was initially at 20◦ C. Assuming that all the bullet’s energy heats the wax, its final temperature (in ◦ C) is:

A. 20.14B. 23.5C. 20.006D. 27.1E. 30.23ans: D

72. The energy given off as heat by 300 g of an alloy as it cools through 50C◦ raises the temperature of 300 g of water from 30◦C to 40◦ C. The specific heat of the alloy (in cal/g · C◦) is:

A. 0.015B. 0.10C. 0.15D. 0.20E. 0.50ans: D

73. The specific heat of lead is 0.030 cal/g · C◦. 300 g of lead shot at 100◦ C is mixed with 100 g of water at 70◦ C in an insulated container. The final temperature of the mixture is:

A. 100◦ CB. 85.5◦ CC. 79.5◦ CD. 74.5◦ CE. 72.5◦ Cans: E

74. A heat of transformation of a substance is:A. the energy absorbed as heat during a phase transformationB. the energy per unit mass absorbed as heat during a phase transformationC. the same as the heat capacityD. the same as the specific heatE. the same as the molar specific heatans: B

75. The heat of fusion of water is cal/g. This means 80 cal of energy are required to:A. raise the temperature of 1 g of water by 1KB. turn 1 g of water to steamC. raise the temperature of 1 g of ice by 1KD. melt 1 g of iceE. increase the internal energy of 80 g of water by 1 calans: D

76. During the time that latent heat is involved in a change of state:A. the temperature does not changeB. the substance always expandsC. a chemical reaction takes placeD. molecular activity remains constantE. kinetic energy changes into potential energyans: A

77. The formation of ice from water is accompanied by:A. absorption of energy as heatB. temperature increaseC. decrease in volumeD. an evolution of heatE. temperature decreaseans: A

78. How many calories are required to change one gram of 0◦ C ice to 100◦ C steam? The latent heat of fusion is 80 cal/g and the latent heat of vaporization is 540 cal/g. The specific heat of water is 1.00 cal/g · K.

A. 100B. 540C. 620D. 720E. 900ans: D

79. Ten grams of ice at −20◦ C is to be changed to steam at 130◦ C. The specific heat of bothice and steam is 0.5 cal/g · C◦. The heat of fusion is 80 cal/g and the heat of vaporization is540 cal/g. The entire process requires:A. 750 calB. 1250 calC. 6950 calD. 7450 calE. 7700 calans: D

80. Steam at 1 atm and 100◦ C enters a radiator and leaves as water at 1 atm and 80◦ C. Take the heat of vaporization to be 540 cal/g. Of the total energy given off as heat, what percent arises from the cooling of the water?

A. 100B. 54C. 26D. 14E. 3.6ans: E

81. In an adiabatic process:A. the energy absorbed as heat equals the work done by the system on its environmentB. the energy absorbed as heat equals the work done by the environment on the systemC. the absorbed as heat equals the change in internal energyD. the work done by the environment on the system equals the change in internal energyE. the work done by the system on its environment equals to the change in internal energyans: D

82. In a certain process a gas ends in its original thermodynamic state. Of the following, which is possible as the net result of the process?

A. It is adiabatic and the gas does 50 J of workB. The gas does no work but absorbs 50 J of energy as heatC. The gas does no work but loses 50 J of energy as heatD. The gas loses 50 J of energy as heat and does 50 J of workE. The gas absorbs 50 J of energy as heat and does 50 J of workans: E

83. An automobile tire is pumped up to a gauge pressure of 2.0 × 105 Pa when the temperature is 27◦ C. What is its gauge pressure after the car has been running on a hot day so that the tire temperature is 77◦ C? Assume that the volume remains fixed and take atmospheric pressure to be 1.013 × 105 Pa.

A. 1.6 × 105 Pa

B. 2.6 × 105 PaC. 3.6 × 105 PaD. 5.9 × 105 PaE. 7.9 × 105 Paans: A

84. A sample of an ideal gas is compressed by a piston from 10m3 to 5m3 and simultaneously cooled from 273◦ C to 0◦ C. As a result there is:

A. an increase in pressureB. a decrease in pressureC. a decrease in densityD. no change in densityE. an increase in densityans: E

85. Oxygen (molar mass = 32 g) occupies a volume of 12 liters when its temperature is 20◦ C and its pressure is 1 atm. Using R = 0.082 liter · atm/mol · K, calculate the mass of the oxygen:

A. 6.4gB. 10. g7C. 16 gD. 32 gE. 64 gans: C

86. An ideal gas occupies 12 liters at 293K and 1 atm (76 cm Hg). Its temperature is now raised to 373K and its pressure increased to 215 cm Hg. The new volume is:

A. 0.2 litersB. 5.4 litersC. 13.6 litersD. 20.8 litersE. none of theseans: B

87. Use R = 8.2 × 10−5 m3 · atm/mol · K and NA = 6.02 × 1023 mol−1. The approximate number of air molecules in a 1m3 volume at room temperature (300K and atmospheric pressure is:

A. 41B. 450C. 2.5 × 1025

D. 2.7 × 1026

E. 5.4 × 1026

ans: C

88. An air bubble doubles in volume as it rises from the bottom of a lake (1000 kg/m3). Ignoring any temperature changes, the depth of the lake is:

A. 21mB. 0.76mC. 4.9mD. 10mE. 0.99mans: D

89. An isothermal process for an ideal gas is represented on a p-V diagram by:A. a horizontal lineB. a vertical lineC. a portion of an ellipseD. a portion of a parabolaE. a portion of a hyperbolaans: E

90. An ideal gas undergoes an isothermal process starting with a pressure of 2 × 105 Pa and a volume of 6 cm3. Which of the following might be the pressure and volume of the final state?

A. 1 × 105 Pa and 10 cm3

B. 3 × 105 Pa and 6 cm3

C. 4 × 105 Pa and 4 cm3

D. 6 × 105 Pa and 2 cm3

E. 8 × 105 Pa and 2 cm3ans: D

91. The pressures p and volumes V of five ideal gases, with the same number of molecules, are given below. Which has the highest temperature?

A. p = 1 × 105 Pa and V = 10cm3

B. p = 3 × 105 Pa and V = 6cm3

C. p = 4 × 105 Pa and V = 4cm3

D. p = 6 × 105 Pa and V = 2cm3

E. p = 8 × 105 Pa and V = 2cm3

ans: B

92. During a slow adiabatic expansion of a gas:A. the pressure remains constantB. energy is added as heatC. work is done on the gasD. no energy enters or leaves as heatE. the temperature is constantans: D

93. A real gas is changed slowly from state 1 to state 2. During this process no work is done on or by the gas. This process must be:

A. isothermalB. adiabaticC. isovolumicD. isobaricE. a closed cycle with state 1 coinciding with state 2ans: C

94. A given mass of gas is enclosed in a suitable container so that it may be maintained at constant volume. Under these conditions, there can be no change in what property of the gas?

A. PressureB. DensityC. Molecular kinetic energy

D. Internal energyE. Temperatureans: B

95. A quantity of an ideal gas is compressed to half its initial volume. The process may be adiabatic, isothermal, or isobaric. Rank those three processes in order of the work required of an external agent, least to greatest.

A. adiabatic, isothermal, isobaricB. adiabatic, isobaric, isothermalC. isothermal, adiabatic, isobaricD. isobaric, adiabatic, isothermalE. isobaric, isothermal, adiabaticans: E

96. The force on the walls of a vessel of a contained gas is due to:A. the repulsive force between gas moleculesB. a slight loss in the speed of a gas molecule during a collision with the wallC. a change in momentum of a gas molecule during a collision with the wallD. elastic collisions between gas moleculesE. inelastic collisions between gas moleculesans: C

97. Air is pumped into a bicycle tire at constant temperature. The pressure increases because:A. more molecules strike the tire wall per secondB. the molecules are largerC. the molecules are farther apartD. each molecule is moving fasterE. each molecule has more kinetic energyans: A

98. The temperature of a gas is most closely related to:A. the kinetic energy of translation of its moleculesB. its total molecular kinetic energyC. the sizes of its moleculesD. the potential energy of its moleculesE. the total energy of its moleculesans: A

99. The mass of an oxygen molecule is 16 times that of a hydrogen molecule. At room temperature, the ratio of the rms speed of an oxygen molecule to that of a hydrogen molecule is:

A. 16B. 4C. 1D. 1/4E. 1/16ans: D

100. The rms speed of an oxygen molecule at 0◦ C is 460m/s. If the molar mass of oxygen is 32 g and that of helium is 4 g, then the rms speed of a helium molecule at 0◦ C is:

A. 230m/sB. 326m/sC. 650m/sD. 920m/sE. 1300m/sans: E

101. A sample of argon gas (molar mass 40 g) is at four times the absolute temperature of a sample of hydrogen gas (molar mass 2 g). The ratio of the rms speed of the argon molecules to that of the hydrogen is:

A. 1B. 5C. 1/5D. √5E. 1/√5ans: D

102. If the molecules in a tank of hydrogen have the same rms speed as the molecules in a tank of oxygen, we may be sure that:

A. the pressures are the sameB. the hydrogen is at the higher temperatureC. the hydrogen is at the greater pressureD. the temperatures are the sameE. the oxygen is at the higher temperatureans: E

103. The principle of equipartition of energy states that the internal energy of a gas is shared equally:

A. among the moleculesB. between kinetic and potential energyC. among the relevant degrees of freedomD. between translational and vibrational kinetic energyE. between temperature and pressureans: C

104. The number of degrees of freedom of a rigid diatomic molecule is:A. 2B. 3C. 4D. 5E. 6ans: D

105. The number of degrees of freedom of a triatomic molecule is:A. 1B. 3C. 6D. 8E. 9

ans: E

106. Five molecules have speeds of 2.8, 3.2, 5.8, 7.3, and 7.4m/s. Their root-mean-square speed is closest to:

A. 5.3m/sB. 5.7m/sC. 7.3m/sD. 28m/sE. 32m/sans: B

107. The speeds of 25 molecules are distributed as follows: 5 in the range from 2 to 3m/s, 10 in the range from 3 to 4m/s, 5 in the range from 4 to 5m/s, 3 in the range from 5 to 6m/s, 1 in the range from 6 to 7m/s, and 1 in the range from 7 to 8m/s. Their average speed is about:

A. 2m/sB. 3m/sC. 4m/sD. 5m/sE. 6m/sans: C

108. The internal energy of an ideal gas depends on:A. the temperature onlyB. the pressure onlyC. the volume onlyD. the temperature and pressure onlyE. temperature, pressure, and volumeans: A

109. An ideal gas of N monatomic molecules is in thermal equilibrium with an ideal gas of the same number of diatomic molecules and equilibrium is maintained as the temperature is increased. The ratio of the changes in the internal energies ΔEdia/ΔEmon is:

A. 1/2B. 3/5C. 1D. 5/3E. 2ans: D

110. Two ideal gases, each consisting of N monatomic molecules, are in thermal equilibrium with each other and equilibrium is maintained as the temperature is increased. A molecule of the first gas has mass m and a molecule of the second has mass 4m. The ratio of the changes in the internal energies ΔE4m/ΔEm is:

A. 1/4B. 1/2C. 1D. 2E. 4ans: C

111. Three gases, one consisting of monatomic molecules, one consisting of diatomic molecules, and one consisting of polyatomic molecules, are in thermal equilibrium with each other and remain in thermal equilibrium as the temperature is raised. All have the same number of molecules. The gases with the least and greatest change in internal energy are respectively:

A. polyatomic, monatomicB. monatomic, polyatomicC. diatomic, monatomicD. polyatomic, diatomicE. monatomic, diatomicans: B

112. The Maxwellian speed distribution provides a direct explanation of:A. thermal expansionB. the ideal gas lawC. heatD. evaporationE. boilingans: D

113. The average speed of air molecules at room temperature is about:A. zeroB. 2m/s (walking speed)C. 30m/s (fast car)D. 500m/s (supersonic airplane)E. 3 × 108 m/s (speed of light)ans: D

114. According to the Maxwellian speed distribution, as the temperature increases the number of molecules with speeds within a small interval near the most probable speed:

A. increasesB. decreasesC. increases at high temperatures and decreases at lowD. decreases at high temperatures and increases at lowE. stays the sameans: B

115. According to the Maxwellian speed distribution, as the temperature increases the most probable speed:

A. increasesB. decreasesC. increases at high temperatures and decreases at lowD. decreases at high temperatures and increases at lowE. stays the sameans: A

116. According to the Maxwellian speed distribution, as the temperature increases the average speed:

A. increasesB. decreases

C. increases at high temperatures and decreases at lowD. decreases at high temperatures and increases at lowE. stays the sameans: A

117. As the pressure in an ideal gas is increased isothermally the average molecular speed:

A. increasesB. decreasesC. increases at high temperature, decreases at lowD. decreases at high temperature, increases at lowE. stays the sameans: E

118. As the volume of an ideal gas is increased at constant pressure the average molecular speed:

A. increasesB. decreasesC. increases at high temperature, decreases at lowD. decreases at high temperature, increases at lowE. stays the sameans: A

119. Which of the following change when the pressure of an ideal gas is changed isothermally?

A. Mean free pathB. Root-mean-square molecular speedC. Internal energyD. Most probable kinetic energyE. Average speedans: A

120. When an ideal gas undergoes a slow isothermal expansion:A. the work done by the gas is the same as the energy absorbed as heatB. the work done by the environment is the same as the energy absorbed as heatC. the increase in internal energy is the same as the energy absorbed as heatD. the increase in internal energy is the same as the work done by the gasE. the increase in internal energy is the same as the work done by the environmentans: A

121. A certain ideal gas has a temperature 300K and a pressure 5.0 × 104 Pa. The molecules have a mean free path of 4.0 × 10−7 m. If the temperature is raised to 350K and the pressure is reduced to 1.0 × 104 Pa the mean free path is then:

A. 6.9 × 10−8 mB. 9.3 × 10−8 mC. 3.3 × 10−7 mD. 1.7 × 10−6 mE. 2.3 × 10−6 mans: E

122. A coulomb is the same as:A. an ampere/secondB. half an ampere·second2C. an ampere/meter2

D. an ampere·secondE. a newton·meter2ans: D

123. A kiloampere·hour is a unit of:A. currentB. charge per timeC. powerD. chargeE. energyans: D

124. The magnitude of the charge on an electron is approximately:A. 1023 CB. 10−23 CC. 1019 CD. 10−19 CE. 109 Cans: D

125. The total negative charge on the electrons in 1 mol of helium (atomic number 2, molar mass 4) is:

A. 4.8 × 104 CB. 9.6 × 104 CC. 1.9 × 105 CD. 3.8 × 105 CE. 7.7 × 105 Cans: C

126. The total negative charge on the electrons in 1 kg of helium (atomic number 2, molar mass 4) is:

A. 48CB. 2.4 × 107 CC. 4.8 × 107 CD. 9.6 × 108 CE. 1.9 × 108 Cans: C

127. A wire carries a steady current of 2 A. The charge that passes a cross section in 2 s is:

A. 3.2 × 10−19 CB. 6.4 × 10−19 CC. 1CD. 2CE. 4Cans: E

128. A wire contains a steady current of 2 A. The number of electrons that pass a cross section in 2 s is:

A. 2B. 4C. 6.3 × 1018

D. 1.3 × 1019

E. 2.5 × 1019

ans: E

129. Two small charged objects attract each other with a force F when separated by a distance d. If the charge on each object is reduced to one-fourth of its original value and the distance between them is reduced to d/2 the force becomes:

A. F/16B. F/8C. F/4D. F/2E. Fans: C

130. Two identical conducting spheres A and B carry equal charge. They are separated by a distance much larger than their diameters. A third identical conducting sphere C is uncharged. Sphere C is first touched to A, then to B, and finally removed. As a result, the electrostatic force between A and B, which was originally F, becomes:

A. F/2B. F/4C. 3F/8D. F/16E. 0ans: C

131. The electric field at a distance of 10 cm from an isolated point particle with a charge of 2×10−9 C is:

A. 1.8N/CB. 180N/CC. 18N/CD. 1800N/CE. 18000N/Cans: D

132. A total charge of 6.3×10−8 C is distributed uniformly throughout a 2.7-cm radius sphere. The volume charge density is:

A. 3.7 × 10−7 C/m3

B. 6.9 × 10−6 C/m3

C. 6.9 × 10−6 C/m2

D. 2.5 × 10−4 C/ m3

E. 7.6 × 10−4 C/m3

ans: E133. Charge is placed on the surface of a 2.7-cm radius isolated conducting sphere. The

surface charge density is uniform and has the value 6.9 × 10−6 C/m2. The total charge on the sphere is:

A. 5.6 × 10−10 CB. 2.1 × 10−8 CC. 4.7 × 10−8 CD. 6.3 × 10−8 CE. 9.5 × 10−3 Cans: D

134. A spherical shell has an inner radius of 3.7 cm and an outer radius of 4.5 cm. If charge is distributed uniformly throughout the shell with a volume density of 6.1×10−4 C/m3 the total charge is:

A. 1.0 × 10−7 CB. 1.3 × 10−7 CC. 2.0 × 10−7 CD. 2.3 × 10−7 CE. 4.0 × 10−7 Cans: A

135. A cylinder has a radius of 2.1 cm and a length of 8.8 cm. Total charge 6.1×10−7 C is distributed uniformly throughout. The volume charge density is:

A. 5.3 × 10−5 C/m3

B. 5.3 × 10−5 C/m2

C. 8.5 × 10−4 C/m3

D. 5.0 × 10−3 C/m3

E. 6.3 × 10−2 C/m3

ans: D136. When a piece of paper is held with one face perpendicular to a uniform electric

field the flux through it is 25N · m2 /C. When the paper is turned 25◦ with respect to the field the flux through it is:

A. 0B. 12N · m2/CC. 21N · m2/CD. 23N · m2/CE. 25N · m2/Cans: D

137. A physics instructor in an anteroom charges an electrostatic generator to 25 μC, then carries it into the lecture hall. The net electric flux in N · m2/C through the lecture hall walls is:

A. 0B. 25 × 10−6

C. 2.2 × 105

D. 2.8 × 106

E. 2.6 × 105

ans: D

138. A particle with a charge of 5.5×10−8C is 3.5 cm from a particle with a charge of −2.3×10−8 C. The potential energy of this two-particle system, relative to the potential energy at infinite separation, is:

A. 3.2 × 10−4 JB. −3.2 × 10−4 JC. 9.3 × 10−3 JD. −9.3 × 10−3 JE. zeroans: B

139. A particle with a charge of 5.5 × 10−8C is fixed at the origin. A particle with a charge of −2.3×10−8 C is moved from x = 3.5 cm on the x axis to y = 4.3 cm on the y axis. The change in potential energy of the two-particle system is:

A. 3.1 × 10−3 JB. −3.1 × 10−3 JC. 6.0 × 10−5 JD. −6.0 × 10−5 JE. 0ans: C

140. A particle with a charge of 5.5 × 10−8 C charge is fixed at the origin. A particle with a charge of −2.3 × 10−8 C charge is moved from x = 3.5 cm on the x axis to y = 3.5 cm on the y axis. The change in the potential energy of the two-particle system is:

A. 3.2 × 10−4 JB. −3.2 × 10−4 JC. 9.3 × 10−3 JD. −9.3 × 10−3 JE. 0ans: E

141. Three particles lie on the x axis: particle 1, with a charge of 1×10−8 C is at x = 1 cm, particle 2, with a charge of 2 × 10−8 C, is at x = 2 cm, and particle 3, with a charge of −3 × 10−8 C, is at x = 3 cm. The potential energy of this arrangement, relative to the potential energy for infinite separation, is:

A. +4.9 × 10−4 JB. −4.9 × 10−4 JC. +8.5 × 10−4 JD. −8.5 × 10−4 JE. zeroans: B

142. Two identical particles, each with charge q, are placed on the x axis, one at the origin and the other at x = 5 cm. A third particle, with charge −q, is placed on the x axis so the potential energy of the three-particle system is the same as the potential energy at infinite separation. Its x coordinate is:

A. 13 cmB. 2.5 cmC. 7.5 cmD. 10 cmE. −5 cmans: A

143. Each plate of a capacitor stores a charge of magnitude 1mC when a 100-V potential difference is applied. The capacitance is:

A. 5 μFB. 10 μFC. 50 μFD. 100 μFE. 150 μF ans: B

144. To charge a 1-F capacitor with 2C requires a potential difference of:A. 2VB. 0.2VC. 5VD. 0.5VE. 1.5V ans: A

145. A parallel-plate capacitor has a plate area of 0.2m2 and a plate separation of 0.1mm. To obtain an electric field of 2.0 × 106 V/m between the plates, the magnitude of the charge on each plate should be:

A. 8.9 × 10−7 CB. 1.8 × 10−6 CC. 3.5 × 10−6 C

D. 7.1 × 10−6 CE. 1.4 × 10−5 Cans: D

146. A parallel-plate capacitor has a plate area of 0.2m2 and a plate separation of 0.1 mm. If the charge on each plate has a magnitude of 4 × 10−6 C the potential difference across the plates is approximately:

A. 0B. 4 × 10−2 VC. 1 × 102 VD. 2 × 102 VE. 4 × 108 Vans: D

147. A 20-F capacitor is charged to 200V. Its stored energy is:A. 4000 JB. 4 JC. 0.4JD. 2000 JE. 0.1Jans: C

148. A charged capacitor stores 10C at 40V. Its stored energy is:A. 400 JB. 4 JC. 0.2JD. 2.5JE. 200 Jans: E

149. A parallel-plate capacitor has a plate area of 0.3m2 and a plate separation of 0.1 mm. If the charge on each plate has a magnitude of 5×10−6 C then the force exerted by one plate on the other has a magnitude of about:

A. 0B. 5NC. 9ND. 1 × 104 NE. 9 × 105 Nans: B

150. Conduction electrons move to the right in a certain wire. This indicates that:A. the current density and electric field both point rightB. the current density and electric field both point leftC. the current density points right and the electric field points leftD. the current density points left and the electric field points rightE. the current density points left but the direction of the electric field is unknownans: B

151. A wire with a length of 150m and a radius of 0.15mm carries a current with a uniform current density of 2.8 × 107 A/m2. The current is:

A. 0.63A2

B. 2.0AC. 5.9A2

D. 296AE. 400A2

ans: B

152. A nichrome wire is 1m long and 1 × 10−6 m2 in cross-sectional area. When connected to a potential difference of 2V, a current of 4A exists in the wire. The resistivity of this nichrome is:

A. 10−7 Ω · mB. 2 × 10−7 Ω · mC. 4 × 10−7 Ω · mD. 5 × 10−7 Ω · mE. 8 × 10−7 Ω · mans: D

153. A certain sample carries a current of 4A when the potential difference is 2V and a current of 10A when the potential difference is 4V. This sample:

A. obeys Ohm’s lawB. has a resistance of 0.5 Ω at 1VC. has a resistance of 2.5 Ω at 1VD. has a resistance of 2.5 Ω at 2VE. has a resistance of 0.5 Ω at 2V ans: B

154. A student kept her 60-watt, 120-volt study lamp turned on from 2:00 PM until 2:00 AM. How many coulombs of charge went through it?

A. 150B. 3, 600C. 7, 200D. 18, 000E. 21, 600ans: E

155. The mechanical equivalent of heat is 1 cal = 4.18 J. The specific heat of water is 1 cal/g ·K. An electric immersion water heater, rated at 400W, should heat a kilogram of water from 10◦ C to 30◦ C in about:

A. 3.5 minB. 1 minC. 15 minD. 45 minE. 15 sans: A

156. A certain x-ray tube requires a current of 7mA at a voltage of 80 kV. The rate of energy dissipation (in watts) is:

A. 560B. 5600C. 26D. 11.4E. 87.5ans: A

157. A battery is connected across a series combination of two identical resistors. If the potential difference across the terminals is V and the current in the battery is i, then:

A. the potential difference across each resistor is V and the current in each resistor is iB. the potential difference across each resistor is V/2 and the current in each resistor is i/2C. the potential difference across each resistor is V and the current in each resistor is i/2D. the potential difference across each resistor is V/2 and the current in each resistor is iE. none of the above are trueans: D

158. A total resistance of 3.0 Ω is to be produced by combining an unknown resistor R with a 12 Ω resistor. What is the value of R and how is it to be connected to the 12 Ω resistor?

A. 4.0 Ω, parallelB. 4.0 Ω, seriesC. 2.4 Ω, parallelD. 2.4 Ω, seriesE. 9.0 Ω, seriesans: A

159. Four 20-Ω resistors are connected in parallel and the combination is connected to a 20-V emf device. The current in any one of the resistors is:

A. 0.25AB. 1.0AC. 4.0AD. 5.0AE. 100Aans: B

160. Nine identical wires, each of diameter d and length L, are connected in parallel. The combination has the same resistance as a single similar wire of length L but whose diameter is:

A. 3dB. 9dC. d/3D. d/9E. d/81ans: A

161. Resistances of 2.0 Ω, 4.0 Ω, and 6.0 Ω and a 24-V emf device are all in parallel. The current in the 2.0-Ω resistor is:

A. 12AB. 4.0AC. 2.4AD. 2.0AE. 0.50Aans: A

162. Resistances of 2.0 Ω, 4.0 Ω, and 6.0 Ω and a 24-V emf device are all in series. The potential difference across the 2.0-Ω resistor is:

A. 4VB. 8VC. 12VD. 24VE. 48Vans: A

163. A 3-Ω and a 1.5-Ω resistor are wired in parallel and the combination is wired in series to a 4-Ω resistor and a 10-V emf device. The potential difference across the 3-Ω resistor is:

A. 2.0VB. 6.0VC. 8.0VD. 10VE. 12V

ans: A

164. A virtual image is one:A. toward which light rays converge but do not pass throughB. from which light rays diverge but do not pass throughC. from which light rays diverge as they pass throughD. toward which light rays converge and pass throughE. with a ray normal to a mirror passing through itans: B

165. A ball is held 50 cm in front of a plane mirror. The distance between the ball and its image is:

A. 100 cmB. 150 cmC. 200 cmD. 0E. 50 cmans: A

166. The angle between a horizontal ruler and a vertical plane mirror is 30◦. The angle between the ruler and its image is:

A. 15◦

B. 30◦

C. 60◦

D. 90◦

E. 180◦

ans: C

167. A 5.0-ft woman wishes to see a full length image of herself in a plane mirror. The minimum length mirror required is:

A. 5 ftB. 10 ftC. 2.5 ftD. 3.54 ftE. variable: the farther away she stands the smaller the required mirror lengthans: C

168. A concave mirror forms a real image that is twice the size of the object. If the object is 20 cm from the mirror, the radius of curvature of the mirror must be about:

A. 13 cmB. 20 cmC. 27 cmD. 40 cmE. 80 cmans: C

169. A man stands with his nose 8 cm from a concave shaving mirror of radius 32 cm The distance from the mirror to the image of his nose is:

A. 8 cmB. 12 cmC. 16 cmD. 24 cmE. 32 cmans: C

170. A concave spherical mirror has a focal length of 12 cm. If an object is placed 18 cm in front of it the image position is:

A. 7.2 cm behind the mirrorB. 7.2 cm in front of the mirrorC. 36 cm behind the mirrorD. 36 cm in front of the mirrorE. at infinityans: D

171. A convex spherical mirror has a focal length of 12 cm. If an object is placed 6 cm in front of it the image position is:

A. 4 cm behind the mirrorB. 4 cm in front of the mirrorC. 12 cm behind the mirrorD. 12 cm in front of the mirrorE. at infinityans: A

172. A convex refracting surface has a radius of 12 cm. Light is incident in air (n = 1) and is refracted into a medium with an index of refraction of 2. Light incident parallel to the central axis is focused at a point:

A. 3 cm from the surfaceB. 6 cm from the surfaceC. 12 cm from the surfaceD. 18 cm from the surfaceE. 24 cm from the surfaceans: E

173. A magnifying glass has a focal length of 15 cm. If the near point of the eye is 25 cm from the eye the angular magnification of the glass is about:

A. 0.067B. 0.33C. 0.67D. 1.7E. 15ans: D

174. An object is 20 cm to the left of a lens of focal length +10 cm. A second lens, of focal length +12.5 cm, is 30 cm to the right of the first lens. The distance between the original object and the final image is:

A. 28 cmB. 50 cmC. 100 cmD. 0E. infinityans: D

175. A converging lens of focal length 20 cm is placed in contact with a converging lens of focal length 30 cm. The focal length of this combination is:

A. +10 cmB. −10 cmC. +60 cmD. −60 cmE. +25 cmans: A

176. In a Young’s double-slit experiment the center of a bright fringe occurs wherever waves from the slits differ in phase by a multiple of:

A. π/4B. π/2C. πD. 3π/4E. 2πans: E

177. Waves from two slits are in phase at the slits and travel to a distant screen to produce the third side maximum of the interference pattern. The difference in the distance traveled by the waves is:

A. half a wavelengthB. a wavelengthC. three halves of a wavelengthD. two wavelengthsE. three wavelengthsans: E

178. Waves from two slits are in phase at the slits and travel to a distant screen to produce the second minimum of the interference pattern. The difference in the distance traveled by the waves is:

A. half a wavelengthB. a wavelengthC. three halves of a wavelengthD. two wavelengthsE. five halves of a wavelengthans: C

179. In a Young’s experiment, it is essential that the two beams:A. have exactly equal intensityB. be exactly parallelC. travel equal distancesD. come originally from the same sourceE. be composed of a broad band of frequenciesans: D

180. In a Young’s double-slit experiment, a thin sheet of mica is placed over one of the two slits. As a result, the center of the fringe pattern (on the screen) shifts by an amount corresponding to 30 dark bands. The wavelength of the light in this experiment is 480nm and the index of the mica is 1.60. The mica thickness is:

A. 0.090mmB. 0.012mmC. 0.014mmD. 0.024mmE. 0.062mmans: D

181. A soap film is illuminated by white light normal to its surface. The index of refraction of the film is 1.50. Wavelengths of 480nm and 800nm and no wavelengths between are be intensified in the reflected beam. The thickness of the film is:

A. 1.5 × 10−5 cmB. 2.4 × 10−5 cmC. 3.6 × 10−5 cmD. 4.0 × 10−5 cmE. 6.0 × 10−5 cmans: D

182. In a thin film experiment, a wedge of air is used between two glass plates. If the wavelength of the incident light in air is 480 nm, how much thicker is the air wedge at the 16th dark fringe than it is at the 6th?

A. 2400nmB. 4800nmC. 240nmD. 480nmE. 360nmans: A

183. An air wedge is formed from two glass plates that are in contact at their left edges. There are ten dark bands when viewed by reflection using monochromatic light. The left edge of the top plate is now slowly lifted until the plates are parallel. During this process:

A. the dark bands crowd toward the right edgeB. the dark bands remain stationaryC. the dark bands crowd toward the left edgeD. the dark bands spread out, disappearing off the right edgeE. the dark bands spread out, disappearing off the left edgeans: E

184. An air wedge is formed using two glass plates that are in contact along their left edge. When viewed by highly monochromatic light, there are exactly 4001 dark bands in the reflected light. The air is now evacuated (with the glass plates remaining rigidly fixed) and the number of dark bands decreases to exactly 4000. The index of refraction of the air is:

A. 0.00025B. 0.00050C. 1.00025D. 1.00050E. 1.00000, by definitionans: C

185. A glass (n = 1.6) lens is coated with a thin film (n = 1.3) to reduce reflection of certain incident light. If λ is the wavelength of the light in the film, the least film thickness is:

A. less than λ/4B. λ/4C. λ/2D. λE. more than λans: B

186. Two point sources, vibrating in phase, produce an interference pattern in a ripple tank. If the frequency is increased by 20%, the number of nodal lines:

A. is increased by 20%B. is increased by 40%C. remains the sameD. is decreased by 20%E. is decreased by 40%ans: A

187. If two light waves are coherent:A. their amplitudes are the same

B. their frequencies are the sameC. their wavelengths are the sameD. their phase difference is constantE. the difference in their frequencies is constantans: D

188. To obtain an observable double-slit interference pattern:A. the light must be incident normally on the slitsB. the light must be monochromaticC. the light must consist of plane wavesD. the light must be coherentE. the screen must be far away from the slitsans: D

189. Sound differs from light in that sound:A. is not subject to diffractionB. is a torsional wave rather than a longitudinal waveC. does not require energy for its originD. is a longitudinal wave rather than a transverse waveE. is always monochromaticans: D

190. Radio waves are readily diffracted around buildings whereas light waves are negligibly diffracted around buildings. This is because radio waves:

A. are plane polarizedB. have much longer wavelengths than light wavesC. have much shorter wavelengths than light wavesD. are nearly monochromatic (single frequency)E. are amplitude modulated (AM).ans: B

191. Diffraction plays an important role in which of the following phenomena?A. The sun appears as a disk rather than a point to the naked eyeB. Light is bent as it passes through a glass prismC. A cheerleader yells through a megaphoneD. A farsighted person uses eyeglasses of positive focal lengthE. A thin soap film exhibits colors when illuminated with white lightans: C

192. The rainbow seen after a rain shower is caused by:A. diffractionB. interferenceC. refractionD. polarizationE. absorptionans: C

193. When a highly coherent beam of light is directed against a very fine wire, the shadow formed behind it is not just that of a single wire but rather looks like the shadow of several parallel wires. The explanation of this involves:

A. refractionB. diffractionC. reflectionD. the Doppler effectE. an optical illusionans: B

194. In the equation φ = (2πa/λ) sin θ for single-slit diffraction, φ is:A. the angle to the first minimumB. the angle to the second maximumC. the phase angle between the extreme raysD. Nπ where N is an integerE. (N + 1/2)π where N is an integerans: C

195. At the first minimum adjacent to the central maximum of a single-slit diffraction pattern the phase difference between the Huygens wavelet from the top of the slit and the wavelet from the midpoint of the slit is:

A. π/8 radB. π/4 radC. π/2 radD. π radE. 3π/2 radans: D

196. A plane wave with a wavelength of 500nm is incident normally on a single slit with a width of 5.0 × 10−6 m. Consider waves that reach a point on a far-away screen such that rays from the slit make an angle of 1.0◦ with the normal. The difference in phase for waves from the top and bottom of the slit is:

A. 0B. 0.55 radC. 1.1 radD. 1.6 radE. 2.2 radans: C

197. Consider a single-slit diffraction pattern caused by a slit of width a. There is a minimum if sin θ is equal to:

A. exactly λ/aB. slightly more than λ/aC. slightly less than λ/aD. exactly λ/2aE. very nearly λ/2aans: A

198. Two slits in an opaque barrier each have a width of 0.020mm and are separated by 0.050mm. When coherent monochromatic light passes through the slits the number of interference maxima within the central diffraction maximum:

A. is 1B. is 2C. is 4D. is 5E. is 5ans: D

199. In the equation d sin θ = mλ for the lines of a diffraction grating m is:A. the number of slitsB. the slit widthC. the slit separationD. the order of the lineE. the index of refractionans: D

200. An N-slit system has slit separation d and slit width a. Plane waves with intensity I and wavelength λ are incident normally on it. The angular separation of the lines depends only on:

A. a and NB. a and λC. N and λD. d and λE. I and Nans: D

201. 600-nm light is incident on a diffraction grating with a ruling separation of 1.7 × 10−6 m. The second order line occurs at a diffraction angle of:

A. 0B. 10◦

C. 21◦

D. 42◦

E. 45◦

ans: E