-
1. If the dimensions of a physical quantity are given by MaLbTc,
then the physical quantity will be (1) Force if a = 0, b = 1, c = 2
(2) Pressure if a = 1, b = 1, c = 2 (3) Velocity if a = 1, b = 0, c
= 1 (4) Acceleration if a = 1, b = 1, c = 2 Sol. Answer (2)
Pressure [P] = [M1L1T2] F A = 2. A particle starts its motion from
rest under the action of a constant force. If the distance covered
in first 10 seconds is S1 and that covered in the first 20 seconds
is S2, then (1) S2 = S1 (2) S2 = 2S1 (3) S2 = 3S1 (4) S2 = 4S1 Sol.
Answer (4) 2 1 1 10 50 2 S= a = a 2 2 1 (20) 200 2 S = a = a S2 =
4S1 3. A bus is moving with a speed of 10 ms1 on a straight road. A
scooterist wishes to overtake the bus in 100 s. If the bus is at a
distance of 1 km from the scooterist, with what speed should the
scooterist chase the bus? (1) 10 ms1 (2) 20 ms1 (3) 40 ms1 (4) 25
ms1 Sol. Answer (2) rel rel 1000m 10m/s time 100s S V = = = VS VB =
10 VS = VB + 10 = 20 m/s 4. The mass of a lift is 2000 kg. When the
tension in the supporting cable is 28000 N, then its acceleration
is (1) 14 ms2 upwards (2) 30 ms2 downwards (3) 4 ms2 upwards (4) 4
ms2 downwards Sol. Answer (3) T = m(g + a) 28000 20000 2 4 m/s 2000
a T mg m = = = upwards 5. An explosion blows a rock into three
parts. Two parts go off at right angles to each other. These two
are, 1 kg first part moving with a velocity of 12 ms1 and 2 kg
second part moving with a velocity of 8 ms1. If the third part
flies off with a velocity of 4 ms1, its mass would be (1) 3 kg (2)
5 kg (3) 7 kg (4) 17 kg
-
Sol. Answer (2) P1+P2+P3=0
, = ( + ) P3 P1 P2 + = 2 2 1 2 3 3 P P m v = + = 144 256 20 4 4
= 5 kg. 6. A block of mass M is attached to the lower end of a
vertical spring. The spring is hung from a ceiling and has force
constant value k. The mass is released from rest with the spring
initially unstretched. The maximum extension produced in the length
of the spring will be (1) Mg/2k (2) Mg/k (3) 2 Mg/k (4) 4 Mg/k Sol.
Answer (3) Loss of gravitational potential energy = Gain of spring
potential energy Mgx = 1 2 2 kx = x 2Mg k 7. Two bodies of mass 1
kg and 3 kg have position vectors i+2j+k and 3i 2j+k, respectively.
The centre of mass of this system has a position vector (1) i+j+k
(2) 2i+2k (3) 2ij+k (4) 2i j2k Sol. Answer (3) 1 1 2 2 1 2 cm m r m
r r m m + = + = 2 96 3 4 i+ j+k i j+ k =2i j+k
-
(3) 8. Four identical thin rods each of mass M and length l,
form a square frame. Moment of inertia of this frame about an axis
through the centre of the square and perpendicular to its plane is
(1) 1 2 3 Ml (2) 4 2 3 Ml (3) 2 2 3 Ml (4) 13 2 3 Ml Sol. Answer
(2) A B D C z L/2 Iz = 4 IAB 2 2 4 2 4 12 4 3 ML ML ML . + = 9. A
thin circular ring of mass M and radius R is rotating in a
horizontal plane about an axis vertical to its plane with a
constant angular velocity . If two objects each of mass m be
attached gently to the opposite ends of a diameter of the ring, the
ring will then rotate with an angular velocity (1) M M m + (2) ( 2
) 2 M m M m + (3) 2 M M m + (4) (M 2m) M + Sol. Answer (3)
Conservation of angular momentum
- MR2 = (M + 2m)R22 2 M M m 2 = + 10. A body, under the action of
a force =( + ) F 6i8j 10kN, acquires an acceleration of 1 m/s2. The
mass of this body must be (1) 10 2 kg (2) 2 10kg (3) 10 kg (4) 20
kg Sol. Answer (1) = = + + = | | 62 82 102 10 2 kg. | | 1 m F a (4)
11. If F is the force acting on a particle having position vector r
and be the torque of this force about the origin, then (1) r = 0
and F 0 (2) 0 r and 0 F = (3) r > 0 and F
-
m v S (1) t1 = t2 (2) t1 > t2 (3) t1 = 4t2 (4) t1 = 2t2 Sol.
Answer (4) Areal velocity is constant AreaABS = AreaCDS t1= 2t2 13.
An engine pumps water continuously through a hose. Water leaves the
hose with a velocity v and m is the mass per unit length of the
water jet. What is the rate at which kinetic energy is imparted to
water? (1) 1 2 2 2 m v (2) 1 3 2 mv (3) mv3 (4) 1 2 2 mv Sol.
Answer (2) dK dt = = 2 1 3 2 2 v dmdl mv dt dl 14. A body of mass 1
kg is thrown upwards with a velocity 20 m/s. It momentarily comes
to rest after attaining a height of 18 m. How much energy is lost
due to air friction? (g = 10 m/s2) (1) 10 J (2) 20 J (3) 30 J (4)
40 J Sol. Answer (2) Loss of energy = Initial energy final energy 1
2 2 = mv mgh 1 2 20 1 10 18 2 = . . . = 200 180 = 20 J (5) 15. The
two ends of a rod of length L and a uniform cross-sectional area A
are kept at two temperatures T1 and T2(T1 > T2). The rate of
heat transfer, dQ dt , through the rod in a steady state is given
by (1) dQ kA(T1T2) dt L = (2) dQ kL(T1T2) dt A
-
= (3) dQ k(T1T2) dt LA = (4) (1 2) dQ kLA T T dt = Sol. Answer
(1) Law of conduction = 1 2 dQ kA(T T ) dt L 16. In thermodynamic
processes which of the following statements is not true? (1) In an
adiabatic process PV = constant (2) In an adiabatic process the
system is insulated from the surroundings (3) In an isochoric
process pressure remains constant (4) In an isothermal process the
temperature remains constant Sol. Answer (3) During isochoric
process, volume is constant. 17. A black body at 227C radiates heat
at the rate of 7cals/cm2s. At a temperature of 727C, the rate of
heat radiated in the same units will be (1) 80 (2) 60 (3) 50 (4)
112 Sol. Answer (4) E = T4 4 2 2 1 1 E T E T = 4 2 727 273 7 227
273 E + = . + cal/cm2s = 112 cal/cm2s 18. The internal energy
change in a system that has absorbed 2 kcals of heat and done 500 J
of work is (1) 7900 J (2) 8900 J (3) 6400 J (4) 5400 J Sol. Answer
(1) Q = U + W U = Q W = 2 1000 4.2 500 = 8400 500 = 7900 J 19. The
driver of a car travelling with speed 30 m/sec towards a hill
sounds a horn of frequency 600 Hz. If the velocity of sound in air
is 330 m/s, the frequency of reflected sound as heard by driver is
(1) 500 Hz (2) 550 Hz (3) 555.5 Hz (4) 720 Hz (6)
-
Sol. Answer (4) n2 = 0 330 30 600 s 330 30 v v n v v + + = . =
720 Hz 20. A simple pendulum performs simple harmonic motion about
x = 0 with an amplitude a and time period T. The speed of the
pendulum at x = a/2 will be (1) a 3 T (2) 3 2 a T (3) a T (4) 32a T
Sol. Answer (1) v = a2y2 = 2 2 2 3 4 a a a T T = 21. Which one of
the following equations of motion represents simple harmonic
motion? (1) Acceleration = kx (2) Acceleration = k0x + k1x2 (3)
Acceleration = k(x + a) (4) Acceleration = k(x + a) where k, k0, k1
and a are all positive Sol. Answer (3) In simple harmonic motion
acceleration is directly proportional to displacement and is
opposite to displacement. 22. The electric field part of an
electromagnetic wave in a medium is represented by Ex = 0; = . .
6rad 2rad 2.5 cos 2 10 10 y s m E N t x C , Ez = 0. The wave is (1)
Moving along x direction with frequency 106 Hz and wavelength 200 m
(2) Moving along y direction with frequency 2 106 Hz and wavelength
200 m (3) Moving along x direction with frequency 106 Hz and
wavelength 100 m (4) Moving along x direction with frequency 106 Hz
and wavelength 200 m
-
Sol. Answer (4) = 2 106 rad/s k = 102 rad/m speed c = 2 108 k =
. m/s along +ve x-axis = = = . 2 2 2 200 m k 10 f = 106 Hz 2 = (7)
23. A wave in a string has an amplitude of 2 cm. The wave travels
in the +ve direction of x axis with a speed of 128 m/s and it is
noted that 5 complete waves fit in 4 m length of the string. The
equation describing the wave is (1) y = (0.02) m sin(7.85x 1005t)
(2) y = (0.02) m sin(7.85x + 1005t) (3) y = (0.02) m sin(15.7x
2010t) (4) y = (0.02) m sin(15.7x + 2010t) Sol. Answer (1)
Amplitude A = 0.02 m wavelength, 4 0.8 m 5 = = 2 k 7.85 rad/m = = =
vk = 7.85 128 rad/s = 1004.8 = 1005 rad/s 4 equation is y = (0.02)
m sin(7.85x 1005t) 24. Each of the two strings of length 51.6 cm
and 49.1 cm are tensioned separately by 20 N force. Mass per unit
length of both the strings is same and equal to 1 g/m. When both
the strings vibrate simultaneously the number of beats is (1) 3 (2)
5 (3) 7 (4) 8 Sol. Answer (3) Frequency 1 2 f T L =
-
2 1 2 1 1 1 1 2 f f T L L = . = 3 20 1 1 1 10 2 49.1 51.6 . = 1
51.6 49.1 20000 2 51.6 49.1 . . = 6.97 = 7 25. Three capacitors
each of capacitance C and of breakdown voltage V are joined in
series. The capacitance and breakdown voltage of the combination
will be (1) 3C, 3V (2) , 3 3 C V (3) 3 , 3 C V (4) , 3 3 C V Sol.
Answer (4) , eq 3 C = C V2 = V + V + V = 3V (8) 26. A wire of
resistance 12 ohms per meter is bent to form a complete circle of
radius 10 cm. The resistance between its two diametrically opposite
points, A and B as shown in the figure, is A B (1) 6 (2) 0.6 (3) 3
(4) 6 Sol. Answer (2) A B C D RACB = 1.2 RADB = 1.2 RAB = 0.6 27. A
bar magnet having a magnetic moment of 2 104 JT1 is free to rotate
in a horizontal plane. A horizontal magnetic field B = 6 104 T
exists in the space. The work done in taking the magnet slowly from
a direction parallel to the field to a direction 60 from the field
is (1) 2 J (2) 0.6 J
-
(3) 12 J (4) 6 J Sol. Answer (4) W = MB [cos1 cos2] = 2 104 6
104 [cos0 cos60] = 1 12 6 J 2 . = 28. The magnetic force acting on
a charged particle of charge 2 C in a magnetic field of 2T acting
in y direction, when the particle velocity is (2i+3j).106ms1, is
(1) 8 N in z direction (2) 8 N in z direction (3) 4 N in z
direction (4) 8 N in y direction Sol. Answer (2) F = q(v .B) =
2.106[(2i+3j)106ms1].2jT = 8k 8N in ve z direction 29. A conducting
circular loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field 0.04 T with its
plane perpendicular to the magnetic field. The radius of the loop
starts shrinking at 2 mm/s. The induced emf in the loop when the
radius is 2 cm is (1) 1.6 V (2) 3.2 V (3) 4.8 V (4) 0.8 V (9) Sol.
Answer (2) = Br2cos0 = Br 2 | | d dt = = 2 B rdr dt = 0.04 2 2 102
2 103 V = 3.2 V 30. The electric potential at a point (x, y, z) is
given by V = x2y xz3 + 4. The electric field E at that point os (1)
E=i(2xyz3)+jxy2+k3z2x (2) =(2 +3)+2+3 2 E i xy z jx k xz (3) =2
+(2+ 2)+(3 2) E i xy j x y k xz y (4) =3+ +2 E iz jxyz kz
-
Sol. Answer (2) E = dVi dVj dVk dx dy dt = i(2xy+z3)+jx2+k 3xz2
31. See the electrical circuit shown in this figure. Which of the
following equations is a correct equation for it? R r1 r2 i2 i1 1 2
(1) 1 (i1 + i2) R + i1r1 = 0 (2) 1 (i1 + i2) R i1r1 = 0 (3) 2 i2 r2
1 i1r1 = 0 (4) 2 (i1 + i2) R + i2r2 = 0 Sol. Answer (2) R r1 r2 i2
i1 1 2 i1 + i2 A E D B F C KVL to the ABCD 1 i1r1 R (i1 + i2) = 0 1
(i1 + i2) R1 i1 r1 = 0 (10) 32. A galvanometer having a coil
resistance of 60 shows full scale deflection when a current of 1.0
amp passes through it. It can be converted into an ammeter to read
currents upto 5.0 amp by (1) Putting in parallel a resistance of 15
(2) Putting in parallel a resistance of 240 (3) Putting in series a
resistance of 15 (4) Putting in series a resistance of 240 Sol.
Answer (1) Ammeter 60 15 1 5 1 S G n = = =
-
33. Under the influence of a uniform magnetic field, a charged
particle moves with constant speed V in a circle of a radius R. The
time period of rotation of the particle (1) Depends on both V and R
(2) Depends on V and not on R (3) Depends on R and not on V (4) Is
independent of both V and R Sol. Answer (4) T 2r 2 mv 2m v v qB qB
= = = Independent of both V and R only depends on specific charge.
34. Power dissipated in an LCR series circuit connected to an a.c.
source of emf is (1) + 2 2 2 1 R R L C (2) + 2 2 2 1 R R L C (3) +
2 2 2 1 R L C R (4) + 2 2 2 1 R L C R Sol. Answer (2) = = + 2 2 2 2
2 1 av P R R Z R L C 35. Three concentric spherical shells have
radii a, b and c (a < b < c) and have surface charge
densities , and respectively. If VA, VB and VC denote the
potentials of the three shells, then, for c = a + b, we have
-
(1) VC = VB = VA (2) VC = VA VB (3) VC = VB VA (4) VC VB VA (11)
Sol. Answer (2) VA = 0 0 0 0 0 2 a b c (a b c) a + = + = VB = 2 0 a
b c b + = 2 0 0 a b a b a(a b) b b + + + = VC = 2 2 0 a b c c c + =
2 2 2 0 a b c c + = 2 0 (a b)(a b) (a b) a b + + + + = 0 0 2 [( ) ]
a b a b a + + = 36. A student measures the terminal potential
difference (V) of a cell (of emf and internal resistance r) as a
function of the current (I ) flowing through it. The slope and
intercept of the graph between V and I, then, respectively,
equal
-
(1) and r (2) and r (3) r and (4) r and Sol. Answer (3) V = E Ir
V E I y = mx + C (x = I, y = V) Slope m = r, intercept C = 37. A
rectangular, a square, a circular and an elliptical loop, all in
the (x y) plane, are moving out of a uniform magnetic field with a
constant velocity = . V vi The magnetic field is directed along the
negative z axis direction. The induced emf, during the passage of
these loops, out of the field region, will not remain constant for
(1) Any of the four loops (2) The rectangular, circular and
elliptical loops (3) The circular and the elliptical loops (4) Only
the elliptical loop Sol. Answer (3) In square loop effective length
inside magnetic field remains constant. (12) 38. If a diamagnetic
substance is brought near the north or the south pole of a bar
magnet, it is (1) Attracted by both the poles (2) Repelled by both
the poles (3) Repelled by the north pole and attracted by the south
pole (4) Attracted by the north pole and repelled by the south pole
Sol. Answer (2) Diamagnetic substance always repeled by magnet. 39.
The number of photo electrons emitted for light of a frequency
(higher than the threshold frequency 0) is proportional to (1)
Frequency of light () (2) 0 (3) Threshold frequency (0) (4)
Intensity of light Sol. Answer (4) Photoelectric current intensity.
40. Monochromatic light of wavelength 667 nm is produced by a
helium neon laser. The power emitted is 9 mW. The number of photons
arriving per sec. on the average at a target irradiated by this
beam is (1) 3 1019 (2) 9 1017 (3) 3 1016 (4) 3 1015 Sol. Answer (3)
3 9 16 34 8 9 10 667 10 3 10 6.63 10 3 10 n p hc = = . . . = . . .
. 41. The figure shows a plot of photo current versus anode
potential for a photosensitive surface for three different
radiations. Which one of the following is a correct statement?
Retarding potential Anode potential a
-
b c Photo current (1) Curves (b) and (c) represent incident
radiations of same frequency having same intensity (2) Curves (a)
and (b) represent incident radiations of different frequencies and
different intensities (3) Curves (a) and (b) represent incident
radiations of same frequency but of different intensities (4)
Curves (b) and (c) represent incident radiations of different
frequencies and different intensities Sol. Answer (3) Current
intensity and Einstein photoelectric equation eV0 = h . 42. The
number of beta particles emitted by a radioactive substance is
twice the number of alpha particles emitted by it. The resulting
daughter is an (1) Isotope of parent (2) Isobar of parent (3)
Isomer of parent (4) Isotone of parent Sol. Answer (1) Atomic
number remains unchanged. (13) 43. The ionization energy of the
electron in the hydrogen atom in its ground state is 13.6 eV. The
atoms are excited to higher energy levels to emit radiations of 6
wavelengths. Maximum wavelength of emitted radiation corresponds to
the transition between (1) n = 4 to n = 3 states (2) n = 3 to n = 2
states (3) n = 3 to n = 1 states (4) n = 2 to n = 1 states Sol.
Answer (1) ( 1) 6 4 2 n n = n = Maximum wavelength corresponds to
lowest energy. 44. In a Rutherford scattering experiment when a
projectile of charge z1 and mass M1 approaches a target nucleus of
charge z2 and mass M2, the distance of closest approach is r0. The
energy of the projectile is (1) Directly proportional of mass M1
(2) Directly proportional of M1 M2 (3) Directly proportional of
z1z2 (4) Inversely proportional to z1 Sol. Answer (3) 2 1 2 0 0 1 2
4 q q mV r = r0 q1q2 r0 z1z2 45. In the nuclear decay given below A
A A4 A4 ZXZ+1YZ1BZ1B The particles emitted in the sequence are (1)
, , (2) , , (3) , , (4) , , Sol. Answer (2) A A A4 A4 ZX Z1Y Z1B
Z1B
-
+ 46. The mean free path of electrons in a metal is 4 108 m. The
electric field which can give on an average 2 eV energy to an
electron in the metal will be in units of V/m (1) 5 107 (2) 8 107
(3) 5 1011 (4) 8 1011 Sol. Answer (1) W = F.S W = qE.S 2 eV = eE 4
108 m 7 1 8 2 5 10 Vm 4 10 E V m = = . . (14) 47. Sodium has body
centred packing. Distance between two nearest atoms is 3.7 . The
lattice parameter is (1) 8.6 (2) 6.8 (3) 4.3 (4) 3.0 Sol. Answer
(3) In bcc 4r= 3a 2(d) = 3a 2 2 3.7 4.3 3 1.73 a d = = . = 48. A
p-n phot2odiode is fabricated from a semiconductor with a band gap
of 2.5 eV. It can detect a signal of wavelength (1) 4000 (2) 6000
(3) 4000 nm (4) 6000 nm Sol. Answer (1) Maximum wavelength 124000eV
4960 2.5 eV hc E = = = 49. The symbolic representation of four
logic gates are given below (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) The logic symbols
for OR, NOT and NAND gates are respectively (1) (i), (iii), (iv)
(2) (iii), (iv), (ii) (3) (iv), (i), (iii) (4) (iv), (ii), (i) Sol.
Answer (4) 50. A transistor is operated in common-emitter
configuration of VC = 2 V such that a change in the base
current
-
from 100 A to 200 A produces a change in the collector current
from 5 mA to 10 mA. The current gain is (1) 50 (2) 75 (3) 100 (4)
150 Sol. Answer (1) = = = (10 5) 50 (200 100) C B I mA I A 51. 10 g
of hydrogen and 64 g of oxygen were filled in a steel vessel and
exploded. Amount of water produced in this reaction will be (1) 1
mol (2) 2 mol (3) 3 mol (4) 4 mol (15) Sol. Answer (4) 2 2 2 5 2
4mol 2H +O 2H O Here, limiting reagent is O2 52. Oxidation numbers
of P in PO4 3, of S in SO4 2 and that of Cr in Cr2O7 2 are
respectively (1) 3, +6 and +6 (2) +5, +6 and +6 (3) +3, +6 and +5
(4) +5, +3 and +6 Sol. Answer (2) +5, +6 and +6 53. Maximum number
of electrons in a subshell of an atom is determined by the
following (1) 2n2 (2) 4l + 2 (3) 2l + 1 (4) 4l 2 Sol. Answer (2) 4l
+ 2 54. Which of the following is not permissible arrangement of
electrons in an atom? (1) n = 3, l = 2, m = 2, s = 1/2 (2) n = 4, l
= 0, m = 0, s = 1/2 (3) n = 5, l = 3, m = 0, s = +1/2 (4) n = 3, l
= 2, m = 3, s = 1/2 Sol. Answer (4) The value of m varies from 1,
0, +1 55. From the following bond energies HH bond energy : 431.37
kJ mol1 C=C bond energy : 606.10 kJ mol1 CC bond energy : 336.49 kJ
mol1 CH bond energy : 410.50 kJ mol1 Enthalpy for the reaction, C =
C + H H H C C H H H H H H
-
H H H will be (1) 553.0 kJ mol1 (2) 1523.6 kJ mol1 (3) 243.6 kJ
mol1 (4) 120.0 kJ mol1 Sol. Answer (4) H = (HC=C + HHH) (2 HCH + 1
HCC) = (606.1 + 431.37) (2 410.5 + 1 336.49) = 1037.47 1157.49 =
120.02 kJ mol1 120.0 kJ mol1 (16) 56. The ionization constant of
ammonium hydroxide is 1.77 105 at 298 K. Hydrolysis constant of
ammonium chloride is (1) 5.65 1012 (2) 5.65 1010 (3) 6.50 1012 (4)
5.65 1013 Sol. Answer (2) 14 w 10 H 5 b K 10 K 5.65 10 K 1.77 10 =
= = . . 57. Given (i) Cu2+ + 2e Cu, Eo = 0.337 V (ii) Cu2+ + e Cu+,
Eo = 0.153 V Electrode potential, Eo for the reaction, Cu+ + e Cu,
will be (1) 0.38 V (2) 0.52 V (3) 0.90 V (4) 0.30 V Sol. Answer (2)
2 o o 1 1 2 o o 2 2 o o 3 3 Cu 2e Cu, E 0.337 V, G 2 F 0.337 0.674
F Cu Cu e , E 0.153 V, G 1 F 0.153 0.153 F Cu e Cu, E ?, G 0.521F +
+ + + + = = . . = + = = . . =+ + = = o o 3 3 G 0.521F E 0.521 V nF
1 F = = =
-
. 58. What is the [OH] in the final solution prepared by mixing
20.0 mL of 0.050 M HCl with 30.0 mL of 0.10 M Ba(OH)2? (1) 0.12 M
(2) 0.10 M (3) 0.40 M (4) 0.0050 M Sol. Answer (2) 20 ml . 0.5 N
HCl 30 ml . 2 N Ba(OH)2 = = 1 meq 6 meq 5 meq 5 = 50 N N = 0.1 M
59. The energy absorbed by each molecule (A2) of a substance is 4.4
1019 J and bond energy per molecule is 4.0 1019 J. The kinetic
energy of the molecule per atom will be (1) 4.0 1020 J (2) 2.0 1020
J (3) 2.2 1019 J (4) 2.0 1019 J Sol. Answer (2) Ek per atom =
EabsorbedEB.E. 2 = 4.4 1019 4 1019 2 . . = 2 1020 (17) 60. For the
reaction, N2 + 3H2 2NH3, if 3 4 d[NH ] 2 10 dt = . mol L1 s1, the
value of d[H2 ] dt would be: (1) 1 104 mol L1 s1 (2) 3 104 mol L1
s1 (3) 4 104 mol L1 s1 (4) 6 104 mol L1 s1 Sol. Answer (2) 2 NH3
1dH 1d 3 dt 2 dt =+ H2 4 4 d 3 2 10 3 10 dt 2 = . . = . 61. For the
reaction A + B products, it is observed that: (a) On doubling the
initial concentration of A only, the rate of reaction is also
doubled and (b) On doubling the initial concentrations of both A
and B, there is a change by a factor of 8 in the rate of the
reaction The rate of this reaction is given by: (1) rate = k [A]
[B] (2) rate = k [A]2 [B] (3) rate = k [A] [B]2 (4) rate = k [A]2
[B]2
-
Sol. Answer (3) Rate [A]x (2)1 (2)x Rate [A]x[B]y 8 (2)1 (2)y y
= 2 Hence Rate = K[A] [B]2 62. The equivalent conductance of M 32
solution of a weak monobasic acid is 8.0 mhos cm2 and at infinite
dilution is 400 mhos cm2. The dissociation constant of this acid is
(1) 1.25 104 (2) 1.25 105 (3) 1.25 106 (4) 6.25 104 Sol. Answer (2)
8 1 0.02 400 50 = = = 21 1 4 5 k C. 0.02 0.02 10 1.25 10 32 8 = = .
. = . = . 63. A 0.0020 m aqueous solution of an ionic compound
Co(NH3)5 (NO2) Cl freezes at 0.00732C. Number of moles of ions
which 1 mol of ionic compound produces on being dissolved in water
will be (kf = 1.86C/m) (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (18) Sol. Answer (2)
0.00732 = i 1.86 0.002 0.00732 i 2 1.860.002 = 64. In the reaction
BrO3(aq) 5Br (aq) 6H 3Br2(l) 3H2O(l) + + + + The rate of appearance
of bromine (Br2) is related to rate of disappearance of bromide
ions as following : (1) 2 d(Br ) 3 d(Br ) dt 5 dt = (2) d(Br2 ) 3
d(Br ) dt 5 dt = (3) 2 d(Br ) 5 d(Br ) dt 3 dt = (4) d(Br2 ) 5 d(Br
) dt 3 dt = Sol. Answer (2) (Br2 ) [Br ] 1d 1d
-
3 dt 5 dt = (Br2 ) [Br ] d 3 d dt 5 dt = 65. Lithium metal
crystallises in a body centred cubic crystal. If the length of the
side of the unit cell of lithium is 351 pm, the atomic radius of
the lithium will be: (1) 300.5 pm (2) 240.8 pm (3) 151.8 pm (4)
75.5 pm Sol. Answer (3) 4r = a 3 a 3 351 1.732 r 4 4 = = . =
151.983 pm 66. The dissociation constants for acetic acid and HCN
at 25C are 1.5 105 and 4.5 1010, respectively. The equilibrium
constant for the equilibrium CN CH3COOH HCN CH3COO + + would be:
(1) 3.0 104 (2) 3.0 105 (3) 3.0 105 (4) 3.0 104 Sol. Answer (1) +
CH3COOH CH3COO + H ...(i) HCN H++ CN ...(ii) (19) For CN + CH3COOH
HCN + CH3COO K K = 1 2 K K = 5 10 1.5 10 4.5 10 . . = 1 5 10 3 . =
3 104 (approx) 67. The values of H and S for the reaction,
C(graphite)+CO2 (g)2CO(g) are 170 kJ and 170 JK1, respectively.
This reaction will be spontaneous at: (1) 510 K (2) 710 K (3) 910 K
(4) 1110 K Sol. Answer (4) G = H T. S 0 = 170 103 T 170 T = 170
103
-
170 . = 1000 K (at eq.) For spontaneous, T must be greater than
1000 K i.e. 1110 K 68. Half life period of a first-order reaction
is 1386 seconds. The specific rate constant of the reaction is: (1)
5.0 102 s1 (2) 5.0 103 s1 (3) 0.5 102 s1 (4) 0.5 103 s1 Sol. Answer
(4) K = 0.693 1386 = 0.5 103 s1 69. In which of the following
molecules/ions BF3, NO2,NH2 and H2O, the central atom is sp2
hybridized? (1) BF3 and NO2 (2) NO2 and NH2 (3) NH2 and H2O (4) NO2
and H2O Sol. Answer (1) BF3 & NO2 70. Among the following which
is the strongest oxidising agent? (1) Cl2 (2) F2 (3) Br2 (4) I2
Sol. Answer (2) F2 (since its ERed is highest) 71. According to MO
theory which of the following lists ranks the nitrogen species in
terms of increasing bond order? (1) 2 N2 N2 N2 < < (2) 2 N2
N2 N2 < < (3) 2 N2 N2 N2 < < (4) 2 N2 N2 N2 < <
(20) Sol. Answer (3) 2 N2 MCl > MF (2) MCI > MI > MBr >
MF (3) MF > MCl > MBr > MI (4) MF > MCl > MI >
MBr Sol. Answer (1) MI > MBr > MCl > MF 73. Which of the
following oxides is not expected to react with sodium hydroxide?
(1) BeO (2) B2O3 (3) CaO (4) SiO2 Sol. Answer (3) CaO doesn't react
with NaOH due to basic nature remaining are acidic. BeO is
amphoteric. 74. Al2O3 is reduced by electrolysis at low potentials
and high currents. If 4.0 104 amperes of current is passed through
molten Al2O3 for 6 hours, what mass of aluminium is produced?
(Assume 100% current efficiency, At. mass of Al = 27 g mol1) (1)
1.3 104 g (2) 9.0 103 g
-
(3) 8.1 104 g (4) 2.4 105 g Sol. Answer (3) w = E it 96500 = 9 4
4 10 6 3600 96500 . . . . = 8.05 104 g 75. The stability of +1
oxidation state increases in the sequence: (1) Ga < In < Al
< Tl (2) Al < Ga < In < Tl (3) Tl < In < Ga <
Al (4) In < Tl < Ga < Al Sol. Answer (2) Al < Ga <
In < Tl On moving down in 13 group the stability of oxidation
state +1, increases due to increase of inert pair effect. 76.
Copper crystallises in a face-centred cubic lattice with a unit
cell length of 361 pm. What is the radius of copper atom in pm? (1)
108 (2) 128 (3) 157 (4) 181 Sol. Answer (2) For FCC 4r = a 2 a 361
r 127.65 128 pm 2 2 2 1.414 = = = . (21) 77. What is the dominant
intermolecular force or bond that must be overcome in converting
liquid CH3OH to a gas? (1) London dispersion force (2) Hydrogen
bonding (3) Dipole-dipole interaction (4) Covalent bonds Sol.
Answer (2) Hydrogen bonding 78. Which of the following complex ions
is expected to absorb visible light? (1) [Zn (NH3)6]2+ (2) [Sc
(H2O)3(NH3)3]3+ (3) [Ti (en)2(NH3)2]4+ (4) [Cr (NH3)6]3+ (At.
number Zn = 30, Sc = 21, Ti = 22, Cr = 24) Sol. Answer (4) [Cr
(NH3)6]3+ (due to presence of unpaired 'd' electron d-d transition
is possible) 79. Out of 2 3 TiF6 , COF6 Cu2Cl2 and 2 NiCl4 (Z of Ti
= 22, CO = 27, Cu = 29, Ni = 28) the colourless species are: (1) 3
COF6 and 2 NiCl4 (2) 2 TiF6 and 3 COF6 (3) Cu2Cl2 and 2
-
NiCl4 (4) 2 TiF6 and Cu2Cl2 Sol. Answer (4) 2 TiF6 and Cu2Cl2
(Due to absence of unpaired e) 80. Which of the following does not
show optical isomerism? (1) [CO (en)3]3+ (2) [CO (en)2Cl2]+ (3) [CO
(NH3)3Cl3]0 (4) [CO(en)Cl2(NH3)2]+ (en = ethylenediamine) Sol.
Answer (3) [Co(NH3)3Cl3]0 81. Which one of the elements with the
following outer orbital configurations may exhibit the largest
number of oxidations states? (1) 3d24s2 (2) 3d34s2 (3) 3d54s1 (4)
3d54s2 Sol. Answer (4) 3d54s2 82. Which of the following molecules
acts as a Lewis acid? (1) (CH3)3 N (2) (CH3)3 B (3) (CH3)2 O (4)
(CH3)3 P Sol. Answer (2) (CH3)3 B (22) 83. Amongst the elements
with following electronic configurations, which one of them may
have the highest ionization energy? (1) Ne[3s23p1] (2) Ne[3s23p3]
(3) Ne[3s23p2] (4) Ar[3d104s24p3] Sol. Answer (2) 3p3-configuration
is more stable than 4p3-configuration. 84. The straight chain
polymer is formed by (1) Hydrolysis of (CH3)2 SiCl2 followed by
condensation polymerisation (2) Hydrolysis of (CH3)3 SiCl followed
by condensation polymerisation (3) Hydrolysis of CH3 SiCl3 followed
by condensation polymerisation (4) Hydrolysis of (CH3)4 Si by
addition polymerisation Sol. Answer (1) Silicone formation. 85. The
IUPAC name of the compound having the formula CH CCH = CH2 is (1)
1-butene-3-yne (2) 3-butene-1-yne (3) 1-butyn-3-ene (4)
but-1-yne-3-ene Sol. Answer (1) 1-butene-3-yne. 86. Which of the
following compounds will exhibit cis-trans (geometrical) isomerism?
(1) 2 Butenol (2) 2-Butene (3) Butanol (4) 2-Butyne Sol. Answer (2)
2-butene. 87. H2COH.CH2OH on heating with periodic acid gives : (1)
2 C O H H (2) 2CO2 (3) 2HCOOH (4)
-
CHO CHO Sol. Answer (1) CH OH 2 CH OH 2 HIO4 2HCHO 88. Consider
the following reaction, ethanol PBr3 Xalc. KOHY 2 4 2 (i) H SO room
temperature (ii) H O, heat Z ; The product Z is (1) CH3CH2OH (2)
CH2 = CH2 (3) CH3CH2OCH2CH3 (4) CH3CH2OSO3H (23) Sol. Answer (1)
PBr3 alc. KOH H2SO4, 25 C C2H5OH C2H5Br CH2 CH2 CH3CH2OH = 89.
Benzene reacts with CH3Cl in the presence of anhydrous AlCl3 to
form (1) Xylene (2) Toluene (3) Chlorobenzene (4) Benzylchloride
Sol. Answer (2) CH3 + CH Cl 3 Anhyd. AlCl3 90. Nitrobenzene can be
prepared from benzene by using a mixture of conc. HNO3 and conc.
H2SO4. In the mixture, nitric acid acts as a/an (1) Catalyst (2)
Reducing agent (3) Acid (4) Base Sol. Answer (4) Base. 91. Which of
the following reactions is an example of nucleophilic substitution
reaction? (1) RX + Mg RMgX (2) RX + KOH ROH + KX (3) 2RX + 2Na RR +
2NaX (4) RX + H2 RH + HX Sol. Answer (2) RX + KOH ROH + KX 92.
Which one of the following is employed as a tranquilizer? (1)
Chlorpheninamine (2) Equanil (3) Naproxen (4) Tetracycline Sol.
Answer (2) Equanil. 93. Structures of some common polymers are
given. Which one is not corretly presented? (1) Nylon 66
[NH(CH2)6NHCO(CH2)4 CO]2 (2) Teflon ( CF2CF2)n (3) Neoprene CH2C
CHCH2CH2 | Cl n =
-
(4) Terylene COOCH CH O ) 2 2 n ( OC (24) Sol. Answer (3) CH2C
CHCH2 | Cl = [Note : The answer will also be (1) because the
structure of nylon-66 given is dimer structure not polymer
structure.] 94. Predict the product : NHCH3 + NaNO2 + HCl Product
(1) N OH CH3 (2) N N CH3 O (3) N NO2 CH3 (4) NO NHCH3 NHCH3 + NO
Sol. Answer (2) NHCH3 + NaNO + HCl 2 N N CH3 O 95. Propionic acid
with Br2 | P yields a dibromo product. Its structure would be (1) C
COOH Br Br CH3 (2) CH2BrCHBrCOOH (3) C CH COOH 2 Br Br H (4)
CH2BrCH2COBr Sol. Answer (1) Br2 /P 3 2 HVZ reaction 3 Br | CH CH
COOH CH CCOOH | Br (25) 96. Trichloroacetaldehyde, CCl3CHO reacts
with chlorobenzene in presence of sulphuric acid and produces (1)
Cl CH Cl CCl3 (2) Cl C Cl
-
CH2Cl Cl (3) Cl C Cl H Cl (4) Cl C Cl Cl OH Sol. Answer (1) CCl
CHO + 2 Cl 3 H2SO4 CCl CH 3 Cl Cl D.D.T. 97. Consider the following
reaction : 3 4 3 2 CH Cl Alkaline KMnO Zn dust Anhydrous AlCl H O/H
Phenol X Y Z + , the product Z is (1) Benzene (2) Toluene (3)
Benzaldehyde (4) Benzoic acid Sol. Answer (4) OH CH3Cl AlCl3 Zn
Dust CH3 (i) Alkaline (ii) H /H O + 2
COOH 98. The state of hybridization of C2, C3, C5 and C6 of the
hydrocarbon, CH C 3 CH CH CH C CH CH3 CH3 CH3 7 6 5 4 3 2 1 is in
the following sequence (1) sp, sp2, sp3 and sp2 (2) sp, sp3, sp2
and sp3 (3) sp3, sp2, sp2 and sp (4) sp, sp2, sp2 and sp3 Sol.
Answer (2) sp, sp3, sp2 and sp3 (26) 99. The segment of DNA which
acts as the instrumental manual for the synthesis of the protein is
(1) Nucleoside (2) Nucleotide (3) Ribose (4) Gene Sol. Answer (4)
Gene. 100. Which of the following hormones contains iodine? (1)
Thyroxine (2) Insulin (3) Testosterone (4) Adrenaline Sol. Answer
(1) Thyroxine 101. Which one of the following has haplontic life
cycle? (1) Wheat (2) Funaria (3) Polytrichum (4) Ustilago
-
Sol. Answer (4) Wheat diplontic life cycle. Funaria and
Polytrichum Haplodiplontic life cycle. 102. T.O. Diener discovered
a (1) Bacteriophage (2) Free infectious RNA (3) Free infectious DNA
(4) Infectious protein Sol. Answer (2) He discovered viroids having
ssRNA and no capsid. 103. Mannitol is the stored food in (1)
Gracillaria (2) Chara (3) Porphyra (4) Fucus Sol. Answer (4)
Reserve food of brown algae (Fucus) is Laminarin and Mannitol. 104.
Which one of the following is a vascular cryptogram? (1) Cedrus (2)
Equisetum (3) Ginkgo (4) Marchantia Sol. Answer (2) Equisetum is a
pteridophyte i.e., vascular cryptogam. 105. Phylogenetic system of
classification is based on (1) Floral characters (2) Evolutionary
relationships (3) Morphological features (4) Chemical constituents
Sol. Answer (2) Phylogeny deals with evolutionary interrelations.
(27) 106. Which one of the following groups of animals is
bilaterally symmetrical and triploblastic? (1) Sponges (2)
Coelenterates (Cnidarians) (3) Aschelminthes (round worms) (4)
Ctenophores Sol. Answer (3) Aschelminthes are bilaterally
symmetrical and triploblastic with pseudocoelom. Sponges are
generally asymmetrical and some are radially symmetrical and
diploblastic. Coelenterates and Ctenophores are radially
symmetrical and diploblastic. 107. Peripatus is a connecting link
between (1) Coelenterata and Porifera (2) Ctenophora and
Platyhelminthis (3) Mollusca and Echinodermata (4) Annelida and
Arthropoda Sol. Answer (4) Peripatus is a connecting link between
annelida and arthropoda. It has annelidian character like presence
of nephridia and unjointed legs and like arthopods it respires by
trachea. 108. Which one of the following pairs of animals comprises
jawless fishes? (1) Guppies and hag fishes (2) Lampreys and eels
(3) Mackerals and Rohu (4) Lampreys and hag fishes Sol. Answer (4)
'Jawless' fishes belong to the class Cyclostomata. The example of
this class are Petromyzon (lamprey) and Myxine (hagfish). 109. If a
live earthworm is pricked with a needle on its outer surface
without damaging its gut, the fluid that comes out is (1) Slimy
mucus (2) Excretory fluid (3) Coelomic fluid (4) Haemolymph Sol.
Answer (3) Annelids are bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic with
a true coelom. The coelom is filled with coelomic fluid
-
which acts as hydraulic skeleton and even helps in locomotion.
110. Plasmodesmata are (1) Connections between adjacent cells (2)
Lignified cemented layers between cells (3) Locomotary structures
(4) Membranes connecting the nucleus with plasmalemma Sol. Answer
(1) These are protoplasmic strands for communication and transport
between adjacent cells. 111. Stroma in the chloroplasts of higher
plant contains (1) Chlorophyll (2) Light-independent reaction
enzymes (3) Light-dependent reaction enzymes (4) Ribosomes Sol.
Answer (2) Dark reaction is light independent reaction and is an
enzymatic process. (28) 112. Synapsis occurs between (1) Two
homologous chromosomes (2) A male and a female gamete (3) mRNA and
ribosomes (4) Spindle fibres and centromere Sol. Answer (1)
Synapsis (Bivalent formation) stands for pairing of homologous
chromosomes. 113. Middle lamella is composed mainly of (1)
Phosphoglycerides (2) Hemicellulose (3) Muramic acid (4) Calcium
pectate Sol. Answer (4) Middle lamella is composed of Ca-pectate
(mainly) and Mg-pectate. 114. Cytoskeleton is made up of (1)
Proteinaceous filaments (2) Calcium carbonate granules (3) Callose
deposits (4) Cellulosic microfibrils Sol. Answer (1) Microtubule
Tubulin protein Microfilament Actin protein Intermediate filament
Acidic proteins 115. The cell junctions called tight, adhering and
gap junctions are found in (1) Neural tissue (2) Muscular tissue
(3) Connective tissue (4) Epithelial tissue Sol. Answer (4) The
various cells in a tissue are held together by ECF (extracellular
fluid), it is made up of glycoproteins and acts as a binder. In the
epithetial tissue the cells are in close contact with each other
with little or no extracellular fluid. So, the cells in epithelial
tissue are held together by cell junctions. 116. The kind of tissue
that forms the supportive structure in our pinna (external ears) is
also found in (1) Tip of the nose (2) Vertebrae (3) Nails (4) Ear
ossicles Sol. Answer (1) Ear pinna has elastic cartilage, which is
also present in the tip of nose; but the nasal septum has hyaline
cartilarge. 117. The epithelial tissue present on the inner surface
of bronchioles and fallopian tubes is (1) Squamous (2) Cuboidal (3)
Glandular (4) Ciliated Sol. Answer (4) The epithelial tissue
present in the bronchioles and fallopian tubes is ciliated
epithelium. Ciliated epithelium is present on the surfaces which
involve movement of particles, mucous or cells. (29)
-
118. Given below is a schematic break-up of the phases/stages of
cell cycle Which one of the following is the correct indication of
the stage/phase in the cell cycle? (1) A-Cytokinesis (2)
B-Metaphase (3) C-Karyokinesis (4) D-Synthetic phase Sol. Answer
(4) It represents S-phase that occurs between G1 and G2 phase. 119.
What is not true for genetic code? (1) It is unambiguous (2) A
codon in mRNA is read in a non-contiguous fashion (3) It is nearly
universal (4) It is degenerate Sol. Answer (2) All three bases are
to be read continuously to code for an amino acid. 120. Removal of
introns and joining the exons in a defined order in a transcription
unit is called (1) Capping (2) Splicing (3) Tailing (4)
Transformation Sol. Answer (2) Splicing is eukaryotic feature to
remove introns (non coding sequences). 121. Semiconservative
replication of DNA was first demonstrated in (1) Salmonella
typhimurium (2) Drosophila melanogaster (3) Escherichia coli (4)
Streptococcus pneumoniae Sol. Answer (3) Meselson and Stahl
conducted this experiment on E.coli. 122. Whose experiments cracked
the DNA and discovered unequivocally that a genetic code is a
triplet? (1) Beadle and Tatum (2) Nirenberg and Mathaei (3) Hershey
and Chase (4) Morgan and Sturtevant Sol. Answer (2) Triplet code
was first deciphered by Nirenberg and Matthaei using homopolymer of
Poly U nucleotides. 123. Point mutation involves (1) Deletion (2)
Insertion (3) Change in single base pair (4) Duplication Sol.
Answer (3) True gene mutations that may occur as transition or
transversion. (30) 124. In the case of peppered moth (Biston
betularia) the black-coloured form became dominant over the
light-coloured form in England during industrial revolution. This
is an example of (1) Inheritance of darker colour character
acquired due to the darker environment (2) Natural selection
whereby the darker forms were selected (3) Appearance of the darker
coloured individuals due to very poor sunlight (4) Protective
mimicry Sol. Answer (2) Natural selection selects alleles which
makes an individual live and reproduce successfully. After
industrial revolution the soot was deposisted on tree trunks, so
the black/melanic moth could easily camouflage and they were
naturally selected. 125. Sickle cell anemia is (1) Characterized by
elongated sickle like RBCs with a nucleus (2) An autosomal linked
dominant trait (3) Caused by substitution of valine by glutamic
acid in the beta globin chain of haemoglobin (4) Caused by a change
in a single base pair of DNA Sol. Answer (4)
-
Sickle cell anaemia is due to a single base change in the -chain
of haemoglobin. Glutamic acid at position number six is replaced by
valine. 126. Study the pedigree chart given below What does it
show? (1) Inheritance of a recessive sex-linked disease like
haemophilia (2) Inheritance of a sex-linked inborn error of
metabolism like phenylketonuria (3) Inheritance of a condition like
phenylketonuria as an autosomal recessive trait (4) The pedigree
chart is wrong as this is not possible Sol. Answer (3) Aa Aa Aa aa
Aa Aa aa Aa aa Aa Aa Phenylketonuria is an autosomal recessive
trait. (31) 127. The most popularly known blood grouping is the ABO
grouping. It is named ABO and not ABC because O in it refers to
having (1) No antigens A and B on RBCs (2) Other antigens besides A
and B on RBCs (3) Overdominance of this type on the genes for A and
B types (4) One antibody onlyeither antiA or antiB on the RBCs Sol.
Answer (1) In the ABO blood group system the blood group 'O' has no
antigen on RBC but both the antibodies a and b are present in blood
plasma. 128. Select the incorrect statement from the following (1)
Baldness is a sex-limited trait (2) Linkage is an exception to the
principle of independent assortment in heredity (3) Galactosemia is
an inborn error of metabolism (4) Small population size results in
random genetic drift in a population Sol. Answer (1) Baldness is a
sex influenced trait. 129. Cotyledons and testa respectively are
edible parts in (1) Cashew nut and litchi (2) Groundnut and
pomegranate (3) Walnut and tamarind (4) French bean and coconut
Sol. Answer (2) Fleshy testa is edible for pomegranate and
cotyledons are edible in groundnut. 130. An example of a seed with
endosperm, perisperm and caruncle is (1) Castor (2) Cotton (3)
Coffee (4) Lily Sol. Answer (1) Ricinus (Castor) has all three
structures, where caruncle is an overgrowth of outer integument at
micropyle showing hygroscopic nature. Perisperm is persistent
nucellus in seed. 131. Guard cells help in (1) Fighting against
infection (2) Protection against grazing (3) Transpiration (4)
Guttation Sol. Answer (3) Movement of guard cells regulate
transpiration. 132. Manganese is required in (1) Chlorophyll
synthesis (2) Nucleic acid synthesis
-
(3) Plant cell wall formation (4) Photolysis of water during
photosynthesis Sol. Answer (4) Mn present in OEC takes e from
water, causing its splitting. (32) 133. Oxygenic photosynthesis
occurs in (1) Chlorobium (2) Chromatium (3) Oscillatoria (4)
Rhodospirillum Sol. Answer (3) Oscillatoria is a BGA that uses
water as a source of H+ and e. 134. A fruit developed from
hypanthodium inflorescence is called (1) Caryopsis (2) Hesperidium
(3) Sorosis (4) Syconus Sol. Answer (4) Syconus is a composite
fruit developing from the whole hypanthodium inflorescence, e.g.,
Ficus. 135. The annular and spirally thickened conducting elements
generally developed in the protoxylem when the root or stem is (1)
Differentiating (2) Maturing (3) Elongating (4) Widening Sol.
Answer (1) Tracheary elements develop as a result of
differentiation involving lignification and loss of protoplasm.
136. The floral formula K(5) C(5) A5G(2)is that of (1) Tobacco (2)
Tulip (3) Soybean (4) Sunnhemp Sol. Answer (1) This floral formula
is characteristic to Solanaceae family. e.g. Tobacco, Potato,
Tomato. 137. An example of axile placentation is (1) Marigold (2)
Argemone (3) Dianthus (4) Lemon Sol. Answer (4) MarigoldBasal
placentation, Argemone Parietal placentation, Dianthus Free central
placentation. 138. In barley stem vascular bundles are (1) Closed
and radial (2) Open and scattered (3) Closed and scattered (4) Open
and in a ring Sol. Answer (3) Barley is a monocot. 139. Aerobic
respiratory pathway is appropriately termed (1) Anabolic (2)
Catabolic (3) Paraboilc (4) Amphibolic Sol. Answer (4) It supports
both catabolism and anabolism. (33) 140. Palisade parenchyma is
absent in leaves of (1) Gram (2) Sorghum (3) Mustard (4) Soybean
Sol. Answer (2) Mesophyll is characteristically undifferentiated in
monocot leaf e.g., Sorghum. 141. Reduction in vascular tissue,
mechanical tissue and cuticle is characteristic of (1) Hydrophytes
(2) Xerophytes (3) Mesophytes (4) Epiphytes Sol. Answer (1) It is
characteristic to hydrophytes. These are anatomical adaptations to
survive in aquatic condition. 142. Anatomically fairly old
dicotyledonous root is distinguished from the dicotyledonous stem
by
-
(1) Position of protoxylem (2) Absence of secondary xylem (3)
Absence of secondary phloem (4) Presence of cortex Sol. Answer (1)
Dicot root in younger stages exhibit clear cut exarch condition.
143. Cyclic photophosphorylation results in the formation of (1)
ATP (2) NADPH (3) ATP and NADPH (4) ATP, NADPH and O2 Sol. Answer
(1) Cyclic photophosphorylation used only PS-I and releases ATP
only. Both ATP and NADPH are produced during non cyclic pathway
144. In a standard ECG which one of the following alphabets is the
correct representation of the respectively activity of the human
heart? (1) P-depolarisation of atria (2) R-repolarisation of
ventricles (3) S-start of systole (4) T-end of diastole Sol. Answer
(1) P-wave in ECG represents depolarisation of atria; QRS wave
represents depolarisation of ventricles; ST wave depolarisation of
ventricle. T is for repolarisation of ventricles. 145. Uric acid is
the chief nitrogenous component of the excretory products of (1)
Frog (2) Man (3) Earthworm (4) Cockroach Sol. Answer (4) Uric acid
is the nitrogenous waste material excreted by cockroach. The
excretory waste of frog and man is urea. Earthworm is mainly
ureotelic but when plenty of water is available it becomes
ammonotelic. 146. Which one of the following pairs of food
components in humans reaches the stomach totally undigested? (1)
Starch and cellulose (2) Protein and starch (3) Starch and fat (4)
Fat and cellulose Sol. Answer (4) 30% starch is digested in the
buccal cavity by -salivary amylase. Cellulose cannot be digested
because it is a polymer of glucose with -linkage. We do not have
-amylase, so when the food reaches the stomach fat and cellulose
are totally undigested. (34) 147. Which one of the following is
correct pairing of a body part and the kind of muscle tissue that
moves it? (1) Iris - Involuntary smooth muscle (2) Heart wall -
Involuntary unstriated muscle (3) Biceps of upper arm - Smooth
muscle fibres (4) Abdominal wall - Smooth muscle Sol. Answer (1)
Iris which controls the size of the pupil is made of involuntary
smooth muscles. Heart wall is made up of striated, involuntary
cardiac muscles. Biceps of upper arm is made up of skeletal muscles
(striated). Abdominal wall is made up of vestigeal segmental
muscles. 148. Compared to blood our lymph has (1) More RBCs and
less WBCs (2) No plasma (3) Plasma without proteins (4) More WBCs
and no RBCs Sol. Answer (4) Lymph has WBCs and no RBCs. It has less
proteins and can coagulate. 149. What will happen if the stretch
receptors of the urinary bladder wall are totally removed?
-
(1) There will be no micturition (2) Urine will not collect in
the bladder (3) Micturition will continue (4) Urine will continue
to collect normally in the bladder Sol. Answer (3) If the stretch
receptors of the urinary bladder are totally removed the urine will
collect in the bladder to the maximum; then micturition will
continue drop by drop. This results in urinary incontinence. 150.
Which part of human brain is concerned with the regulation of body
temperature? (1) Hypothalamus (2) Medulla oblongata (3) Cerebellum
(4) Cerebrum Sol. Answer (1) Hypothalamus has thermoregulatory
centre. 151. A young infant may be feeding entirely on mother's
milk which is white in colour but the stools which the infant
passes out is quite yellowish. What is this yellow colour due to
(1) Pancreatic juice poured into duodenum (2) Intestinal juice (3)
Bile pigments passed through bile juice (4) Undigested milk protein
casein Sol. Answer (3) The yellow colour of the faeces in due to a
pigment stercobilin. It is formed by the breakdown of bile pigments
i.e., bilirubin brought to intestine through the bile juice. 152.
Globulins contained in human blood plasma are primarily involved in
(1) Clotting of blood (2) Defence mechanisms of body (3) Osmotic
balance of body fluids (4) Oxygen transport in the blood Sol.
Answer (2) Antibodies are gamma globulins synthesised by lymph
nodes. (35) 153. Seminal plasma in humans is rich in (1) Fructose
and certain enzymes but poor in calcium (2) Fructose, calcium and
certain enzymes (3) Fructose and calcium but has no enzymes (4)
Glucose and certain enzymes but has no calcium Sol. Answer (2) The
male accessory glands include paired seminal vesicles, a prostate
and paired bulbourethral glands; secretions of these glands
constitute seminal plasma which is rich in fructose, calcium and
certain enzymes. 154. Given below is a diagrammatic sketch of a
portion of human male reproductive system. Select the correct set
of the names of the parts labelled A, B, C, D A B C D A B C D (1)
Ureter Seminal vesicle Prostate Bulbourethral gland (2) Ureter
Prostate Seminal vesicle Bulbourethral gland (3) Vas deferens
Seminal vesicle Prostate Bulbourethral gland (4) Vas deferens
Seminal vesicle Bulbourethral gland Prostate Sol. Answer (3) A is
vas deferens B is seminal vesicle C is prostate gland D is
bulbourethral gland 155. Which one of the following is the correct
matching of three items and their grouping category? Items Group
(1) Cytosine, uracil, thiamine - Pyrimidines
-
(2) Malleus, incus, cochlea - Ear ossicles (3) Ilium, ischium,
pubis - Coxal bones of pelvic girdle (4) Actin, myosin, rhodopsin -
Muscle proteins Sol. Answer (3) Each half of the pelvic girdle is
made up of a single bone Os innominatum also called as coxal bone.
Each coxal bone is made up of 3 bones i.e., Ilium, ischium and
pubis. 156. Which one of the following statements is true regarding
digestion and absorption of food in humans? (1) About 60% of starch
is hydrolysed by salivary amylase in our mouth (2) Oxyntic cells in
our stomach secrete the proenzyme pepsinogen (3) Fructose and amino
acids are absorbed through intestinal mucosa with the help of
carrier ions like Na+ (4) Chylomicrons are small lipoprotein
particles that are transported from intestine into blood
capillaries (36) Sol. Answer (3) Some substances like fructose and
some amino acids are absorbed with the help of the carrier ions
like Na+. Their mechanism is called the facilitated diffusion. 157.
Which one of the following correctly describes the location of some
body parts in the earthworm pheretima? (1) Two pairs of testes in
10th and 11th segments (2) Two pairs of accessory glands in 16-18
segments (3) Four pairs of spermathecae in 4 - 7 segments (4) One
pair of ovaries attached at intersegmental septum of 14th and 15th
segments. Sol. Answer (1) In earthworm there are two pairs of
testes one pair in 10th and one pair in 11th segment. There are two
pairs of accessory glands, one pair in 17th and one pair in 19th
segment. There are four pairs of spermathecae present in 6, 7, 8
and 9th segment. One pair of ovaries attached at the intersegmental
septum of 12th and 13th segment. 158. Elbow joint is an example of
: (1) Ball and socket joint (2) Pivot joint (3) Hinge joint (4)
Gliding joint Sol. Answer (3) Elbow joint is hinge joint as it
involves the movement only in one plane. 159. Which one of the
following is considered important in the development of seed habit?
(1) Free-living gametophyte (2) Dependent sporophyte (3)
Heterospory (4) Haplontic life cycle Sol. Answer (3) Development of
two kinds of spores (heterospory) is marked as the primary
requirement to develop the seed. 160. One of the synthetic auxin is
: (1) IBA (2) NAA (3) IAA (4) GA Sol. Answer (2) IBA and IAA are
naturally occurring auxins 161. Which one of the following acids is
a derivative of carotenoids? (1) Abscisic acid (2) Indole butyric
acid (3) Indole-3-acetic acid (4) Gibberellic acid Sol. Answer (1)
Auxins are derived using tryptophan; gibberellic acid is derived
using acetyl co A. 162. Vegetative propagation in mint occurs by
(1) Sucker (2) Runner (3) Offset (4) Rhizome
-
Sol. Answer (1) Suckers are used in mint to propagate profusely
(37) 163. Which one of the following plants is monoecious? (1)
Papaya (2) Marchantia (3) Pinus (4) Cycas Sol. Answer (3) Both sex
organs are present on the same plant 164. Foetal ejection reflex in
human female is induced by (1) Differentiation of mammary glands
(2) Pressure exerted by amniotic fluid (3) Release of oxytocin from
pituitary (4) Fully developed foetus and placenta Sol. Answer (4)
Parturition is induced by a complex neuroendocrine mechanism. The
signals for parturition originate from the fully developed foetus
and placenta which induce mild uterine contractions called foetal
ejection reflex. 165. Which one of the following is the correct
matching of the events occurring during menstrual cycle? (1)
Menstruation : breakdown of myometrium and ovum not fertilised (2)
Ovulation : LH and FSH attain peak level and sharp fall in the
secretion of progesterone (3) Proliferative phase : Rapid
regeneration of myometrium and maturation of Graafian follicle (4)
Development of corpus luteum : Secretory phase and increased
secretion of progesterone Sol. Answer (4) Myometrium does not
breakdown during menstruation, so there is no regeneration of
myometrium in proliferative phase. Ovulation results in the
formation of corpus luteum and thus progesterone will increase.
166. Which one of the following is the most likely root cause why
menstruation is not taking place in regularly cycling human female?
(1) Retention of well-developed corpus luteum (2) Fertilisation of
the ovum (3) Maintenance of the hypertrophical endometrial lining
(4) Maintenance of high concentration of sex-hormones in the blood
stream Sol. Answer (4) If menstruation is not taking place in
regularly cycling human female, it indicates the maintenance of
high concentration of sex hormones in the blood stream. 167. The
correct sequence of spermatogenetic stages leading to the formation
of sperms in a mature human testis is (1)
Spermatogonia-spermatid-spermatocyte-sperms (2)
Spermatocyte-spermatogonia-spermatid-sperms (3)
Spermatogonia-spermatocyte-spermatid-sperms (4)
Spermatid-spermatocyte-spermatogonia-sperms Sol. Answer (3) The
correct sequence of spermatogenetic stages leading to the formation
of sperms in mature human testes is Spermatogonia Primary
spermatocyte Secondary spermatocyte Spermatid Sperms. (38) 168. A
change in the amount of yolk and its distribution in the egg will
affect: (1) Fertilization (2) Formation of zygote (3) Pattern of
cleavage
-
(4) Number of blastomeres produced Sol. Answer (3) The pattern
of cleavage division depends on the amount and distribution of yolk
in the cytoplasm. Yolk is an inert material and retards the passage
of cleavage furrow. 169. When breast feeding is replaced by less
nutritive food low in proteins and calories; the infants below the
age of one year are likely to suffer from (1) Pellagra (2) Marasmus
(3) Rickets (4) Kwashiorkor Sol. Answer (2) Both marasmus and
kwashiorkor are PEM disorders. Marasmus occurs in infants below the
age of one. 170. Which one of the following types of organisms
occupy more than one trophic level in a pond ecosystem? (1) Frog
(2) Phytoplankton (3) Fish (4) Zooplankton Sol. Answer (3) Larger
and small fishes function at different trophic levels 171. Which
one of the following has maximum genetic diversity in India? (1)
Tea (2) Teak (3) Mango (4) Wheat Sol. Answer (3) About thousand
varieties of mango are found in India. 172. Montreal Protocol aims
at (1) Control of CO2 emission (2) Reduction of ozone depleting
substances (3) Biodiversity conservation (4) Control of water
pollution Sol. Answer (2) Montreal protocol (1987) - A land mark
international agreement to reduce ODS. 173. Chipko movement was
launched for the protection of (1) Wet lands (2) Grasslands (3)
Forests (4) Livestock Sol. Answer (3) Chipko movement (tree hugging
movement). 174. The correct sequence of plants in a hydrosere is
(1) Oak Lantana Volvox Hydrilla Pistia Scirpus (2) Oak Lantana
Scirpus Pistia Hydrilla Volvox (3) Volvox Hydrilla Pistia Scirpus
Lantana Oak (4) Pistia Volvox Scirpus Hydrilla Oak Lantana (39)
Sol. Answer (3) Volvox -Plankton stage, Hydrilla - Submerged stage
Pistia -Floating stage, Scirpys - Reed swamp stage Lantana
-Woodland stage, Oak - Climax stage 175. A country with a high rate
of population growth took measures to reduce it. The figure below
shows age-sex pyramids of populations A and B twenty years apart.
Select the correct interpretation about them : Males Females Males
Females Age 70 + 60 69 50 59 40 49 30 39 20 29 10 19 0 9 Age (in
years)
-
1512 9 6 3 0 3 6 9 12 15 'A' Age 70 + 60 69 50 59 40 49 30 39 20
29 10 19 0 9 Age (in years) 15 12 9 6 3 0 3 6 9 12 15 'B'
Interpretations (1) "A" is the earlier pyramid and no change has
occurred in the growth rate (2) "A" is more recent and shows slight
reduction in the growth rate (3) "B" is earlier pyramid and shows
stabilised growth rate (4) "B" is more recent showing that
population is very young Sol. Answer (2) The number of young
individual is decreased in pyramid A. 176. Steps taken by the
Government of India to control air pollution include : (1) Use of
non-polluting Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) only as fuel by all
buses and trucks. (2) Compulsory mixing of 20% ethyl alcohol with
petrol and 20% biodiesel with diesel (3) Compulsory PUC (Pollution
Under Control) certification of petrol driven vehicles which tests
for carbon monoxide and hydrocarbons. (4) Permission to use only
pure diesel with a maximum of 500 ppm sulphur as fuel for vehicles.
(40) Sol. Answer (3) Presently CNG is used only in National
Capital, Delhi. 177. Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) in a river
water (1) Increases when sewage gets mixed with river water (2)
Remains unchanged when algal bloom occurs (3) Has no relationship
with concentration of oxygen in the water (4) Gives a measure of
salmonella in the water Sol. Answer (1) Mixing of sewage decreases
DO and increases BOD, due to increased aerobic digestion of organic
waste. 178. DDT residues are repidly passed through food chain
causing biomagnification because DDT is (1) Water soluble (2) Lipo
soluble (3) Moderately toxic (4) Non-toxic to aquatic animals Sol.
Answer (2) DDT (Organochlorine) is lipophilic and accumulates in
lipid bilayer of PM. 179. Global agreement in specific control
strategies to reduce the release of ozone depleting substances, was
adopted by (1) The Vienna Convention (2) Rio de Janeiro Conference
(3) The Montreal Protocol (4) The Koyoto Protocol Sol. Answer (3)
Kyoto protocol To mitigate climatic change and to reduce overall
green house gas emission. Rio de Janerio conference i.e., Earth
Summit, held in Brazil in 1992. 180. Somaclones are obtained by (1)
Genetic engineering (2) Tissue culture (3) Plant breeding (4)
Irradiation Sol. Answer (2) Plants regenerated from a single
culture (clonal propagation) invitro are called somaclones. 181.
Which one is the wrong pairing for the disease and its causal
organism? (1) Root-knot of vegetables-Meloidogyne sp (2) Late
blight of potato - Alternaria solani
-
(3) Black rust of wheat - Puccinia graminis (4) Loose smut of
wheat - Ustilago nuda Sol. Answer (2) Late blight of
potatoPhytophthora infestans. 182. Which of the following is not
used as a biopesticide? (1) Xanthomonas campestris (2) Bacillus
thuringiensis (3) Trichoderma harzianum (4) Nuclear Polyhedrosis
Virus (NPV) Sol. Answer (1) Xanthomonas campestrisBacterial rot in
crucifers. (41) 183. Which of the following plant species you would
select for the production of bioethanol? (1) Jatropha (2) Brassica
(3) Zea mays (4) Pongamia Sol. Answer (3) Zea mays is used for
bio-ethanol production. Jatropha and Pongamia are biodiesel plants.
184. Which of the following is a symbiotic nitrogen fixer? (1)
Azolla (2) Glomus (3) Azotobacter (4) Frankia Sol. Answer (4)
Frankia is symbiotic N2 fixing actinomycetes, forming root nodules
in non legumes. e.g., Casuarina. 185. A health disorder that
results from the deficiency of thyroxine in a adults and
characterised by (i) a low metabolic rate, (ii) increase in body
weight and (iii) tendency to retain water in tissues is (1)
Cretinism (2) Hypothyroidism (3) Simple goitre (4) Myxoedema Sol.
Answer (4) Deficiency of thyroxine in adults results in myxoedema.
The symptoms of this diseases are low metabolic rate, increases in
body weight and there is retention of water in facial tissue.
Thyroxine is a calorigenic hormone. 186. Which one of the following
statements is correct? (1) Malignant tumours may exhibit metastasis
(2) Patients who have undergone surgery are given cannabinoids to
relieve pain (3) Benign tumours show the property of metastasis (4)
Heroin accelerates body functions Sol. Answer (1) Malignant tumors
are cancerous. Malignant neoplasms or the cancerous cells will
break from the tumor and spread through blood and lymph throughout
the body. This movement is called as metastasis. 187. Which of the
following is a pair of viral diseases? (1) Typhoid, Tuberculosis
(2) Ringowrm, AIDS (3) Common Cold, AIDS (4) Dysentery, Common Cold
Sol. Answer (3) Typhoid and tuberculosis are caused by bacteria and
ringworm by fungi. 188. A person likely to develop tetanus is
immunised by administering (1) Weakened germs (2) Dead germs (3)
Preformed antibodies (4) Wide spectrum antibiotics Sol. Answer (3)
A person likely to develop tetanus is immunised by administering
preformed antibodies. This is an example of artificially acquired
passive immunity. (42) 189. Use of anti-histamines and steroids
give a quick relief from (1) Headache (2) Allergy
-
(3) Nausea (4) Cough Sol. Answer (2) The drugs given for the
treatment of allergy are anti-histamines, steroids and adrenaline
hormone. 190. Alzhimer disease in humans is associated with the
deficiency of (1) Gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA) (2) Dopamine (3)
Glutamic acid (4) Acetylcholine Sol. Answer (4) Alzheimer's
diseases is due to the deficiency of acetylcholine. This disorder
is associated with loss of memory of past events. 191. Which one of
the following is commonly used in transfer of foreign DNA into crop
plants? (1) Penicillium expansum (2) Trichoderma harzianum (3)
Meloidogyne incognita (4) Agrobacterium tumefaciens Sol. Answer (4)
Agrobacterium tumefaciens mediated transformation is the most
common method of transformation used for the production of
transgenic plants. 192. The bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis is
widely used in contemporary biology as (1) Source of industrial
enzyme (2) Indicator of water pollution (3) Insecticide (4) Agent
for production of dairy products Sol. Answer (3) Bacillus
thuringiensis produces a protein endotoxin which acts as
insecticide. 193. Which one of the following pairs is wrongly
matched? (1) Textile - amylase (2) Detergents - lipase (3) Alcohol
- nitrogenase (4) Fruit juice - pectinase Sol. Answer (3)
Nitrogenase enzyme is involved in the formation of ammonia. 194.
Polyethylene glycol method is used for (1) Energy production from
sewage (2) Gene transfer without a vector (3) Biodiesel production
(4) Seedless fruit production Sol. Answer (2) (43) One of the
method of direct/vectorless gene transfer is, chemical mediated
gene transfer. This involves use of PEG (polyethylene glycol). 195.
Transgenic plants are the ones (1) Grown in artificial medium after
hybridization in the field (2) Produced by a somatic embryo in
artificial medium (3) Generated by introducing foreign DNA in to a
cell and regenerating a plant from that cell (4) Produced after
protoplast fusion in artificial medium Sol. Answer (3) Transgenic
plants have the foreign gene called as transgene. They have had
their DNA manipulated to possess and express (foreign) gene. 196.
What is true about Bt toxin? (1) The concerned Bacillus has
antitoxins (2) The inactive protoxin gets converted into active
form in the insect gut (3) Bt protein exists as active toxin in the
Bacillus (4) The activated toxin enters the ovaries of the pest to
sterilise it and thus prevent its multiplication Sol. Answer
(2)
-
Bt. toxin is produced in inactive form as protoxin but it gets
converted into active form in gut of insects. 197. The genetic
defect-adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency may be cured
permanently by (1) Enzyme replacement therapy (2) Periodic infusion
of genetically engineered lymphocytes having functional ADA cDNA
(3) Administering adenosine deaminase activators (4) Introducing
bone marrow cells producing ADA into cells at early embryonic
stages Sol. Answer (4) Gene isolate from marrow cells producing ADA
if introduced into cells at early embryonic stages, could be a
permanent cure. 198. There is no DNA in (1) Hair root (2) An
enucleated ovum (3) Mature RBCs (4) A mature spermatozoan Sol.
Answer (3) There is no DNA in mature RBC. During the maturation of
RBC there is degeneration of mitochondria, nucleus and golgi. An
enucleated ovcum has mitochondria which contains DNA. 199. The
letter T in T-lymphocyte refers to (1) Thymus (2) Thyroid (3)
Thalamus (4) Tonsil Sol. Answer (1) The maturation of T-lymphocytes
occurs in thymus; so 'T' in T-lymphocytes represents thymus. 200.
Tiger is not a resident in which one of the following national
park? (1) Jim Corbett (2) Ranthambhor (3) Sunderbans (4) Gir Sol.
Answer (4) Gir National ParkLion.