Phy and Chem Practice Paper 01 Apr15th

CET1415PP1 1

PHYSICS & CHEMISTRY Class CET 2014-2015 Max. Marks 120 Practice Paper - 01 Duration 120 minutes

Date 15-04-2015 Instructions 1. This test paper contains 120 multiple choice questions. 2. For each question there are four options of which one option is correct. Choose the correct option and darken the

appropriate circle in the OMR response sheet. 3. Each question carries 1 mark for correct answer and 0 mark for wrong answer. 4. Rough work can be done on the question paper itself. 5. Calculator / Log table is not allowed. OMR Instructions 1. Complete the particulars on side 1 of the OMR response sheet. 2. Ensure that the student ID is written on both sides of the OMR response sheet. 3. Marking of more than one option for the same question will render the answer invalid.

PART I - PHYSICS

1. Among the given physical quantities the one which can be expressed in kg s2 is (A) viscosity (B) density (C) energy (D) spring constant

2. A physical quantity P is related to four physical quantities, a, b, c and d as 3 2a bPc d

. The percentage

errors of measurement in a, b, c and d are 1%, 3%, 4% and 2% respectively. The percentage error in the measurement of P is (A) 13% (B) 10% (C) 6% (D) 8%

3. At the instant a traffic light turns green, a car that has been waiting at an intersection starts ahead with a constant acceleration of 3.2 ms2. At the same instant, a truck travelling with a constant speed of 20 ms1, overtakes and passes the car. The distance from the starting point to the point at which the car overtakes the truck is (A) 200 m (B) 250 m (C) 300 m (D) 225 m

4. A particle moves such that its displacement as a function of time is given by x3 = t3 + 1. Its acceleration as a function of time and displacement is

(A) 2

42tx

(B) 52 tx

(C) 52tx

(D) 4t

x

5. A particle moves in the XY-plane with constant acceleration (a) directed along the negative Y-axis. The equation of the path of particle has the form y = bx cx2, where b and c are positive constants. The velocity of the particle at the origin of coordinates is given by

(A) 2a b 12c

(B) 22a b 13c

(C) 22a b 13c

(D) 2a b 12c

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6. A car speeds up in a circular path. Among the following diagram the one that illustrates the acceleration of the car is

(A) (B) (C) (D)

7. A system consisting of three bodies of different masses in contact is placed on a smooth surface as shown in the figure. A force F is applied as shown. The normal force between m1 and m2 is

(A) 1 21 2 3

m m Fm m m

(B) 1 2

2 3

m m Fm m

(C) 12 3

m Fm m

(D) 2 31 2 3

m m Fm m m

8. A pair of balls moving with a common velocity v, along a straight groove collides with the left end of a series of 8 balls kept along the groove. If the coefficient of restitution between two balls is 1, then, after collision

(A) the first ball from the right, alone moves with a speed 2 v (B) the first two balls from the right, move with a speed v

(C) all the balls which are originally at rest move with a common velocity of 4v

(D) all the 10 balls move with a common velocity of 5v

9. In the rotational motion of a rigid body, all the particles move with (A) the same linear velocity and angular velocity (B) the same linear velocity and different angular velocities (C) different linear velocities and same angular velocity (D) different linear velocities and different angular velocities.

10. If A is areal velocity of a planet of mass M, its angular momentum is

(A) MA

(B) 2MA (C) A2M (D) MA

11. Figure shows the stress-strain curves of two metals P and Q. From the graph it can be concluded that (A) Q has greater Youngs modulus and lesser ductility (B) P has greater Youngs modulus and lesser ductility (C) P has greater Youngs modulus and greater ductility (D) Q has greater Youngs modulus and greater ductility

a a a a

m m m m m m m m m m

v

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m

k

12. Water flows though a frictionless duct with a varying cross-section as shown in the figure. The graph which shows variation of pressure p along the x-axis is (Assume water to be non-viscous)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

13. The given graph, shows the fall of temperature (T) due to emission of radiation of two bodies 1 and 2 (having the same surface area) with time (t). The correct relations between emissive powers (E1 and E2) and the relation between absorptive powers (a1 and a2) are (A) E1 > E2, a1 < a2 (B) E1 < E2, a1 > a2 (C) E1 > E2, a1 > a2 (D) E1 < E2, a1 < a2

14. When the temperature of a black body increases, it is observed that the wavelength corresponding to maximum energy changes from 0.26 m to 0.13 m. The ratio of emissive powers of the body at the respective temperatures is

(A) 161

(B) 41

(C) 14

(D) 116

15. 50 R calories of heat is required to rise the temperature of 4 moles of an ideal gas at constant pressure from 50 C to 55 C. The gas could be (A) N2 (B) He (C) CO2 (D) CH4

16. For the arrangement shown in the figure, the time period of oscillation is

(A) m2k

(B) m22k

(C) m24k

(D) 4m2k

17. If 2y Asin ( t x) v represents a transverse wave travelling along x-axis, then the particle velocity

vp, the wave velocity v and the slope s of the wave are related as

(A) vp = vs (B) p s

vv (C) pv = s2v (D) p 2s

vv

18. An open pipe and a closed organ pipe are of same length. The ratio of the frequency of the nth mode of vibration of the two pipes is

(A) 1 (B) n2n 1

(C) 2n2n 1

(D) 2n

X

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19. A train is moving towards a hill with a speed of 3 ms1, blowing a whistle of frequency 327 Hz. The number of beats heard by a passenger in the train is (velocity of sound = 330 ms1) (A) 7 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6

20. Figure shows a tube structure in which signal is sent from one end and is received at the other end. The frequency of the sound source can be varied electronically between 2000 Hz and 5000 Hz. The frequency at which maximum intensity will be detected is (The speed of sound in air is 343 ms1). (A) 4280 Hz (B) 4950 Hz (C) 4490 Hz (D) 4000 Hz

21. A block of mass m and charge q is attached to an unstretched spring of spring constant k. When a horizontal electric field E is switched on, the block performs simple harmonic motion, whose amplitude of oscillation is

(A) qEk

(B) 2qE

k (C)

qEm

(D) 2qEm

22. Three charges of equal magnitude q are placed at the vertices of an equilateral triangle of side r. The magnitude of the electric field at any one vertex is

(A) 20

1 2q4 r

(B) 20

1 3q4 r

(C) 20

1 3q4 r

(D) zero

23. The graph which represents the variation of electric field E with distance due to a point charge q is

(A) (B) (C) (D)

24. Two conducting spherical shells of radii a and b with charges Q and Q are externally separated by a distance d. The capacitance of the system is

(A) 041 1 1a b d

(B) 041 1 1a b d

(C) 041 1 2a b d

(D) 041 1 2a b d

25. A semicircular metal ring of radius R has charge per unit length . The electric potential at the centre of

the ring is at 0

1 k4

(A) kR (B) k

R

(C) kR (D) k

26. The equivalent resistance between A and B in the network shown in the figure is

(A) 3.6 (B) 6 (C) 9 (D) 3

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27. Twenty four identical cells are available. They should be connected in a cell matrix such that maximum current flows through a resistance of 3 . Let m = number of cells in series in a row and n = number of such rows in parallel. If emf of each cell = 2V and internal resistance of each cell = 0.5 , then (A) m = 6, n = 4 (B) m = 8, n = 3 (C) m = 2, n = 12 (D) m = 12, n = 2

28. In the given figure, the energy stored in the capacitor is (A) 48 J (B) 12 J (C) 24 J (D) 36 J

29. Figure shows a long hollow conducting tube carrying a current I. The sections A and C are of unequal cross-sections joined by a conical section B. The points 1, 2 and 3 lie on a line parallel to the axis of the conductor. The magnetic fields at the points 1, 2 and 3 are B1 B2 and B3 respectively. Then. (A) 1 2 3B B B (B) 1 2 3B B B (C) 1 2 3B B B

(D) The fields cannot be calculated/compared as the dimensions of the sections are not given.

30. A particle of charge q and mass m is moving in a circular path of radius r with angular speed clockwise. The ratio of its magnetic moment (M) to the angular momentum (L) about the centre of the circular path is

(A) q , M and L2m

are parallel (B) q , M and Lm

are antiparallel

(C) q , M and Lm

are parallel (D) q , M and L2m

are antiparallel.

31. Two long straight parallel wires separated by a distance r carry same current I flowing in the same direction. The work required to increase their separation to 2r is

(A) 2

0I

(B) 2

0I2

(C) 2

0I ln r2

(D) 2

0I ln 22

32. A magnet is suspended in such a way that it oscillates in the horizontal plane. It makes 20 oscillations per minute at a place where the angle of dip is 30 and 15 oscillations per minute at a place where the angle of dip is 60. The ratio of earths total magnetic field at the two places is (A) 3 3 :8 (B) 16: 9 3 (C) 4 : 9 (D) 2 3 : 9

33. A diamagnetic liquid is taken in a U-tube. A strong magnetic field is applied across the liquid in any one limb of the U-tube. The level of the liquid in that limb. (A) raises relative to the liquid level in the other limb. (B) falls relative to the liquid level in the other limb (C) remains same (D) oscillates up and down

N S

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34. In the figure, region I is field free and region II has a uniform magnetic field B

directed into the plane of the paper. PMN is a semicircular conducting loop of radius r with centre at O. The plane of the loop is in the plane of the paper. The loop is rotated in clockwise direction with a constant angular velocity about an axis passing through O and perpendicular to plane of paper. The resistance of the loop is R. The expression for the magnitude of current in the loop is

(A) 2Br

2R (B)

22BrR

(C) 2Br

2R (D)

22BrR

35. Figure shows a metallic square frame of edge l in a vertical plane. A uniform magnetic field B

is horizontal and perpendicular to the plane of the

frame. Two boys pull the opposite corners of the square to deform it into a rhombus. They start pulling the corners at t = 0 and displace the corners at a uniform speed u. The induced emf in the frame at the instant when the angles at these corners reduce to 60 is

(A) Blu (B) 2Blu (C) 2Blu (D) 1 Blu2

36. The average current of a sinusoidally varying alternating current of peak value 5 A and initial phase

zero, between the instants T Tt to t8 4

is

(A) 14.14 A

(B) 17.32 A

(C) 12.33 A

(D) 10.00 A

37. A 50 W, 100V electric lamp is to be operated on 200 V, 50 Hz electric mains. The capacitance required in series with the lamp is (A) 7.2 F (B) 8.2 F (C) 9.2 F (D) 10.2 F

38. The electric field intensity produced by the radiations coming from 100 W bulb at 3 m distance is E. The electric field intensity produced by the radiations coming from 50 W bulb at the same distance is

(A) E2

(B) 2E (C) E2

(D) 2E

39. A convergent beam of light is incident on a convex mirror of radius of curvature R as shown in figure. A real image is formed at a distance 0.4 m from the mirror. The radius of curvature of the mirror is (A) 0.4 m (B) 0.4 m (C) 0.8 m (D) 0.8 m

40. Two geometrically identical plano-convex lenses are available. One is silvered on its plane surface and the other is silvered on its curved surface. If their focal lengths are respectively 30 cm and 10 cm, the radius of curvature of the curved surface is (A) 50 cm (B) 30 cm (C) 60 cm (D) 40 cm

0.2 m

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41. A young boy has accommodation of his eye such that the power of this eye-lens can change between 50 D and 60 D. His far point is at infinity. The distance of his retina from the eye-lens and his near point are respectively (in cm) (A) 2, 10 (B) 2.5, 12 (C) 3, 15 (D) 3.5, 12

42. Two independent waves are expressed as y1 = a1 sin (t + kx) and y2 = a2 sin (t + kx + ). Whether sustained interference is possible between these? (A) Yes (B) No (C) Possibility depends on (D) It cannot be predicted

43. In order to increase the resolving power of an electron microscope (A) de-Broglie wavelength of the electron beam must be increased (B) the electron beam must be accelerated through a high potential difference (C) the electron beam must be subjected to retardation potential (D) the electron beam must be accelerated through a low potential difference.

44. The slope of the graph of the maximum kinetic energy in joule of the photoelectrons versus the frequency difference ( 0) in Hz will be

(A) he

(B) Plancks constant h (C) eh

(D) 1h

45. The de-Broglie wavelength of the electron in the ground state of a hydrogen atom is (A) 0.53 (B) 1.06 (C) 1.67 (D) 3.33

46. The energy E of a photon is equal to the kinetic energy of a proton. Let 1 be the de-Broglie wavelength

of the proton and 2 be the wavelength of the photon. The ratio 12

is proportional to

(A) E (B) 12E (C) E1 (D) E2

47. In an experiment on scattering of -particles by a gold nucleus, the closest distance of approach is 30 fermi. If the velocity of the -particle is doubled, the closest distance of approach will (A) remain unaltered (B) also double (C) reduce to a value half of the original value (D) reduce to (1/4)th the original value

48. When an hydrogen atom emits a photon due to the electron transition from n = 5 to n = 1 state, its recoil speed is nearly (A) 104 ms1 (B) 2 102 ms1 (C) 4 ms1 (D) 8 102 ms1

49. According to Bohrs model of hydrogen atom (A) the linear velocity of the electrons is quantised (B) the angular velocity of the electrons is quantised (C) the linear momentum of the electrons is quantised (D) the angular momentum of the electrons is quantized

50. The magnetic moment of a free proton is approximately 2.8 n (n = nuclear magneton, a unit of magnetic moment; n = 5.05 1027 JT1). The potential energy of a proton subjected to a magnetic field 1.4 T is (assume that the magnetic moment is almost opposite to B while precessing) (A) 3.92 1026 J (B) 3.92 1026 J (C) 1.96 1026 J (D) 1.96 1026 J

CET1415PP1 8

51. The half life of a radioactive material is 8 hours. If 20% of the sample remains active after time t, 10% of the sample will remain active after (A) (t + 2) hour (B) (t + 4) hour (C) (t + 6) hour (D) (t + 8) hour

52. A block of pure silicon at 300 K has a length of 10 cm and an area of 104 m2. If a battery of emf 2 V is connected across it, the electron current is (Given: mobility of electrons is 0.14 m2 V1 s1 and electron density is 1.4 1016 m3) (A) 6.72 104 A (B) 6.72 105 A (C) 6.72 A (D) 0.56 A

53. If in a p-n junction diode, a square input signal of 10 V is applied as in the figure, then the value of output signal across RL will be

(A) (B) (C) (D)

54. In a photodiode, the value of the emf produced by monochromatic light is proportional to (A) the barrier voltage at p-n junction (B) the intensity of light falling on the photodiode (C) the frequency of light falling on the photodiode (D) the voltage applied at the p-n junction

55. In a CE-amplifier the audio signal voltage across the collector resistance of 2 k is 2V. The current amplification factor of the transistor is 100. The signal current through the base is (A) 0.01 mA (B) 0.1 mA (C) 0.001 mA (D) 0.05 mA

56. The diagram shows a logic circuit. A single gate which is equivalent to the given combination of logic gates is (A) X-NOR (B) NOR (C) X-OR (D) OR

57. In a LOS (Line of sight) communication system, the height of the transmitting antenna is 32 m, where as the height of the receiving antenna is 40.5 m. The maximum distance between them for satisfactory communication is about (Given: Radius of the earth = 6400 km) (A) 23 km. (B) 33 km. (C) 20 km. (D) 43 km.

58. Two coherent sources S1 and S2 are placed on X-axis at a separation of d = 6. An observer starts moving from P1, on a circular track of radius R (R >> d). The number of bright points and dark points observed by him when he reaches the point P1 again will be (A) 20, 20 (B) 19, 20 (C) 24, 24 (D) 20, 19

CET1415PP1 9

Cr

O

O

O O

O

59. The maximum amplitudes of the signal and carrier are 4 volt and 5 volt respectively. Then in the amplitude modulated wave, the percentage of modulation is (A) 20 % (B) 80 % (C) 100% (D) 125 %

60. The axes of a polarizer and an analyser are inclined at 60 with each other. The amplitude of the polarized light emergening from the analyzer is A. The amplitude of the unpolarised light incident on the polariser is (A) A/2 (B) A (C) 2A (D) 2 2 A

PART II CHEMISTRY

1. The order of reactivity for the following alcohols with halogen acids is (A) (a) > (b) > (c) (B) (c) > (b) > (a) (C) (b) > (a) > (c) (D) (a) > (c) > (b)

2. CrO5 has structure as shown . The oxidation number of chromium in the above compound is (A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 10

3. Of the following, the compound which undergoes self-aldol condensation in the presence of cold dilute alkali is (A) CH2=CHCHO (B) CHCCHO (C) C6H5CHO (D) CH3CH2CHO

4. Which one of the following is correctly matched? (A) Solid sol-cake (B) Aerosol-smoke (C) Foam-mist (D) Emulsion-Curd

5. In (CH3)3N, the state of hybridization of N atom and the spatial arrangement of methyl groups around it are respectively (A) sp3, pyramidal (B) sp3, tetrahedral (C) sp2, trigonal planar (D) sp3, trigonal planar

6. The correct order of increasing basic strength for bases 3 3 2 3 2NH , CH NH and (CH ) NH is (A) CH3NH2 < NH3 < (CH3)2NH (B) (CH3)2NH < NH3 < CH3NH (C) NH3 < CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH (D) CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH < NH3

7. The volume of 10 vol H2O2 required to liberate 500 cm3 of O2 at STP is (A) 50 ml (B) 5.0 ml (C) 15 ml (D) 100 ml

8. The temperature dependence of the rate constant is given by the Arrhenius equation

(A) aEn k n ART

l l (B) aEn A n kRT

l l

(C) aEn k ART

l (D) an A RT n E n k l l l

CH3CH2CH2OH

(a) (b)

CH3CH2 CH OH

CH3(c)

CH3CH3 C OH

CH3

CH3

CET1415PP1 10

9. The chemical formula of plaster of paris is (A) CaSO4. H2O (B) CaSO4. H2O (C) CaSO4. 2H2O (D) CaSO4. 3H2O

10. The IUPAC name of CH3OC2H5 is (A) ethyl methyl ether (B) methyl ethyl ether (C) methoxy ethane (D) ethoxy methane

11. Which amongst the following alkene is stable? (A) CH3 CH=CH2 (B) CH3CH=CHCH3 (C) (CH3)2C=C(CH3)2 (D) (CH3)2 C=CHCH3

12. Denaturation of proteins (A) disrupts the primary or secondary or tertiary structure of protein (B) disrupts the secondary and tertiary structures only (C) disrupts all the primary, secondary, tertiary and even the quaternary structure of protein (D) will not affect the original biological activity

13. In a cell with the reaction, Zn(s) + 2H+ (aq) Zn2+ (aq) + H2(g), addition of H2SO4 to cathode compartment will (A) lower the E and shift the equilibrium to the left (B) increase the E and shift the equilibrium to the left (C) increase the E and shift the equilibrium to the right (D) lower the E and shift the equilibrium to the right

14. In DNA, the complimentary bases are (A) Adenine and thymine; guanine and uracil (B) Adenine and guanine; thymine and cytosine (C) Uracil and adenine; cytosine and guanine (D) Adenine and thymine; guanine and cytosine

15. The catalyst used in Habers process for manufacture of ammonia gas? (A) Fe/Mo (B) P2O5 (C) Pt (D) NiO

16. On heating (NH4)2Cr2O7, the gas evolved is X. The same gas is obtained by heating (A) NH4NO2 (B) NH4NO3 (C) Mg3N2 + H2O (D) Na2O2 + H2O

17. Benzophenone is obtained by the reaction of (A) benzoyl chloride + benzene + AlCl3 (B) benzoyl chloride + hydrogen chloride (C) benzoyl chloride + phenyl magnesium chloride (D) benzene + carbon monoxide + ZnCl2

18. When temperature of an ideal gas is increased from 27 C to 927 C, the kinetic energy will be (A) same (B) increased by eight times (C) increased by four times (D) increased by two times

19. The carboxylic acid which does not undergo Hell-Volhard Zelinsky reaction is (A) CH3COOH (B) CH3CH2COOH (C) (CH3)2CHCOOH (D) (CH3)3CCOOH

20. Heat of combustion of C, H2 and C2H6 are x1, x2 and x3 respectively. Hence, heat of formation of C2H6 is (A) 2x1 3x2 + x3 (B) x1 x2 + x3 (C) x3 + 2x1 + 3x2 (D) x1 + x2 x3

CET1415PP1 11

21. The IUPAC name of is (A) 2-chloro-5-hydroxyhexane (B) 2-hydroxy-5-chlorohexane (C) 5-chlorohexan-2-ol (D) 2-chlorohexan-5-ol

22. The value of K for the reaction: 2 2H I 2HI is 49. Then the value of K for the reaction, 2HI H2 + I2 will be

(A) 49 (B) 149

(C) 7 (D) 17

23. The order of acid strength for the following compounds is

(A) V > IV > II > I > III (B) II > IV > I > III > V (C) IV > V > III > II > I (D) V > IV > III > II > I

24. The solubility in mol dm3 of A2X3 is y. Then solubility product is (A) 6y4 (B) 64y4 (C) 36y5 (D) 108y5

25. Concentration HNO3 oxidises phosphorous to (A) H3PO4 (B) P2O3 (C) H3PO3 (D) H4P2O7

26. Substrates which inhibit the catalytic activity of enzymes are called (A) competitive inhibitors (B) non-competitive inhibitors (C) inhibitors (D) non-promoters

27. The most stable hydride of group15 elements is (A) NH3 (B) PH3 (C) AsH3 (D) SbH3

28. Which of the following compound with molecular formula C5H10 yields acetone on ozonolysis? (A) 3-methyl-1-butene (B) cyctopentane (C) 2-methyl-1-butene (D) 2-methyl-2-butene

29. Amongst the following ions which one has the highest paramagnetism? (A) [Cr(H2O)6]3+ (B) [Fe(H2O)6]2+ (C) [Cu(H2O)6]2+ (D) [Zn(H2O)6]2+

30. Which one of the following has low heat of fusion? (A) a molecular solid (B) a metallic solid (C) an ionic solid (D) a covalent solid

31. Fac-Mer isomerism is associated with which one of the following complexes? (M = central metal) (A) [M(AA)2] (B) [MA3B3] (C) [M(AA)3] (D) [MABCD]

32. Increasing the temperature of an aqueous solution will cause decrease in (A) % w/w (B) mole fraction (C) molarity (D) molality

33. Which one of the following is a mineral of iron? (A) Cassiterite (B) Pyrolusite (C) Magnetite (D) Malachite

CH3 CH CH2 CH2 CH CH3Cl OH

OH

(I)

OH

NO2(II)

OH

OCH3

(III)

OH

(IV)

OH

(V)

NO2OCH3

CET1415PP1 12

34. Which of the following statements is not true for transition metals? (A) In the highest oxidation state, the transition metal show basic character and form cationic complexes (B) In the highest oxidation state of the first five transition elements (Sc to Mn), all the 4s and 3d electrons are used for bonding (C) Once the d5 configuration is exceeded, the tendency to involve all the 3d electrons in bonding decreases (D) In addition to the normal oxidation states, the zero oxidation state is also shown by these elements in complexes

35. A radioactive elements gets spilled over the floor of a room. Its half-life period is 30 days. If the initial activity is 10 times the permissible value, after how many days will it be safe to enter the room? (A) 1000 days (B) 300 days (C) 10 days (D) 100 days

36. Which one of the following characteristics of the transition metals is associated with their catalytic activity? (A) Paramagnetic behavious (B) Colour of hydrated ions (C) Variable oxidation states (D) High enthalpy of atomization

37. Which of the following oxidation states is the most common among the lanthanoids? (A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 2 (D) 5

38. Which of the following pairs of metals is purified by van Arkel method? (A) Ni and Fe (B) Ga and ln (C) Ar and Ti (D) Ag and Au

39. The resistance of 0.1 N solution of a salt is found to be 2.5 103 ohms. The equivalent conductance of the solution is (cell constant = 1.15 cm1). (A) 4.6 (B) 5.6 (C) 6.6 (D) 7.6

40. In the electrochemical process for aluminium extraction, electrolyte used is (A) Al(OH)3 in NaOH solution (B) an aqueous solution of Al2(SO4)3 (C) a molten mixture of Al2O3 and Na3AlF6 (D) a molten mixture of Al2O3 and Al(OH)3

41. Which property is most important which makes fluorine the strongest oxidizing halogen? (A) Bond dissociation energy (B) Ionisation enthalpy (C) Hydration enthalpy (D) Electron affinity

42. The ratio of time for 50 % and 90 % completion of a first order reaction is (A) 1 : 2 (B) 2 : 3 (C) 3 : 5 (D) 3 : 10

43. Which of the following is not the characteristic of interhalogen compounds? (A) They are more reactive than halogens (B) They are quite unstable but none of them is explosive (C) They are covalent in nature (D) They have low boiling points and are highly volatile

44. Which one among the following shows anisotropy? (A)Paper (B) Wood (C) Barium chloride (D) Glass

45. The number of significant figures in 0.0256 is (A) 5 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 2

CET1415PP1 13

46. The relatively lowering of vapour pressure in case of a solution of non-volatile solute is equal to the mole fraction of solute. The statement is based on (A) Henrys law (B) Arrhenius law (C) Raoults law (D) Ostwalds law

47. The ion that is isoelectronic with CO is (A) CN (B) 2O

(C) 2O (D) 2N

48. Which of the following has the largest size? (A) N3 (B) O2 (C) Na+ (D) Mg2+

49. Which of the following species exhibit diamagnetic behaviour? (A) O2 (B) NO (C) 22O

(D) 2O

50. The co-ordination number and oxidation state of the element E in the complex [E(en)2(C2O4)]NO2 (where en is ethylene diamine) are respectively (A) 4 and 3 (B) 6 and 3 (C) 6 and 2 (D) 4 and 2

51. A real gas tends to behave more ideally at (A) low T and low P (B) low T and high P (C) high T and low P (D) high T and high P

52. Most crystals show good cleavage because their atoms, ions or molecules are (A) Weakly bonded together (B) strongly bonded together (C) Spherically symmetrical (D) arranged in planes

53. The ionisation isomer of [Cr(H2O)4 Cl (NO2)]Cl is (A) [Cr (H2O)4 (O2N)]Cl2 (B) [Cr (H2O)4 Cl2](NO2) (C) [Cr (H2O)4 Cl(ONO)]Cl (D) [Cr (H2O)4Cl2(NO2)] . H2O

54. A solid dissolves in water if (A) dissolution is exothermic (B) lattice energy is equal to hydration energy (C) lattice energy is less than hydration energy (D) lattice energy is greater than hydration energy

55. Cottrell precipitator works on the principle of (A) distribution law (B) neutralization of charge on colloids (C) le-Chateliers principle (D) addition of electrolytes

56. The negative sign in the rate of reaction dt

]A[d indicates

(A) decrease in concentration of substance A (B) increase in concentration of substance A (C) no reaction is occurring (D) the rate of reaction is very small

57. In electrolytic conduction, (A) the resistance increases with increasing temperature (B) the resistance decreases with increasing temperature (C) the flow of current does not generate heat (D) the resistance is independent of the length of the conductor

58. Given, 3 4H O LiAlHKCN3 etherCH Br (A) (B) (C)

. The compound (C) in the above reaction is

(A) methane (B) acetone (C) ethyl alcohol (D) acetaldehyde

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59. Corrosion is (A) any reaction in presence of H2O (B) an electrochemical phenomenon (C) union between two light metals and a heavy metal (D) interaction between H+ and OH

60. In the following, the compound(s) which give racemic mixture on nucleophilic substitution by OH ion is/are

(A) (i) only (B) (i), (ii) and (iii) (C) (i) and (ii) (D) (i) and (iii)

* * *

CH3 CH Br

C2H5

(i)

CH3 C CH3C2H5

Br

(ii)

CH3 CH CH2Br

C2H5

(iii)

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