Pharmacology Practice Sets (MCQs) Q.1. Ketone bodies are synthesised from the fatty acid oxidisation products by which of the following organ A. Brain B. Liver C. Skeletal muscle D. Kidney Answer: (B) Liver Q.2. An example of protien denaturation is A. Dissolving sugar in water B. Metabolism of meat C. Heating milk D. Heating egg Answer: (D) Heating egg Q.3. An enzyme catalysed the conversion of alddose sugar to ketose sugar would be classified as A. Isomerases B. Transferases C. Hydrolysases D. Oxydoreductases Answer: (A) Isomerases Pharmacology Practice Sets (MCQs)
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Pharmacology Practice Sets (MCQs)
Q.1. Ketone bodies are synthesised from the fatty acid oxidisation products by which of the following organ
A. BrainB. LiverC. Skeletal muscleD. Kidney
Answer: (B) Liver
Q.2. An example of protien denaturation is
A. Dissolving sugar in waterB. Metabolism of meatC. Heating milkD. Heating egg
Answer: (D) Heating egg
Q.3. An enzyme catalysed the conversion of alddose sugar to ketose sugar would be classified as
A. IsomerasesB. TransferasesC. HydrolysasesD. Oxydoreductases
A. AdrenalineB. DopamineC. NorepinephrineD. All of these
Answer: (D) All of these Explanation: levo dopa is the amino acid precursor for dopamine and also for adrenalineand noradrenaline.
Q.18. The most potent CNS stimulant among xanthine bases are-
A. TheophyllineB. CaffeineC. TheobromineD. All of these
Answer: (B) Caffeine Explanation: Caffeine is the most potent CNS stimulant.
Q.19. Chlorpromazine is useful in the treatment of -
A. Mental depressionB. SchizophreniaC. ParkinsonismD. None of the above
Answer: (B) Schizophrenia Explanation: Chlorpromazine (CPZ) is a dopamine antagonist of the typical antipsychoticclass of medications possessing additional anti-adrenergic, anti-serotonergic, anti-cholinergic, and anti-histaminergic properties used to treat schizophrenia.
B. ArrhythmiaC. Hyper lipoproteinemiaD. Angina pectoris
Answer: (C) Hyper lipoproteinemia Explanation: Lovastatin is a naturally occurring Drug in food, which controls bloodcholesterol level.
Q.24. Oral anticoagulants act by antagonising the actions of -
A. Calcium ionB. ProthrombinC. Vitamin KD. Fibrinogen
Answer: (C) Vitamin K Explanation: vitamin K is a fat soluble vitamin and is required for post translationalmodification.
Q.25. Glucocorticoid are used in the treatment of :
A. InflammationB. Inflammation and allergyC. Skin infectionsD. Allergy
Answer: (B) Inflammation and allergy Explanation: Glucocorticoids are the part of the feedback mechanism in the immunesystem that turns immune activity (inflammation).
Q.26. The sulphonamides are :
A. Bactericidal in natureB. Bacteriostatic in nature
C. Bactericidal only at high doseD. None of the above
Answer: (B) Bacteriostatic in nature Explanation: A Sulphonamide displaces bilirubin. It is competitive inhibitor of enzymeDHPS, cause inhibition of folate synthesis and cause bacteriostatic action.
Q.27. Tetracycline act by -
A. Inhibition of protein synthesisB. Interfering in cell wall synthesisC. Altering the permeability of cell membrane of organismD. All of the above
Answer: (A) Inhibition of protein synthesis Explanation: Tetracycline is a broad spectrum antibiotic which reduces the growth ofbacteria by inhibiting the protein synthesis. it binds with the 30s subunit of microbialribosomes, to inhibit protein synthesis.
Q.28. Nystatin is principally effective in:
A. Candidia albicansB. BlastomycesC. Cryptococcus histoplasmaD. All of the above
Answer: (A) Candidia albicans Explanation: Nystatin is a polyene antifungal medication derived from streptomycesnoursei.
Q.29. Pyridoxine is administered with isoniazid to minimise the:
Answer: (C) Nephrotoxicity Explanation: Pyridoxine is also called vitamin B6, assist in the balancing of sodium andpotassium as well as promoting RBC.
Q.30. Which one of these combination is used in Chloroquine resistance malaria?
A. Trimethoprim + pyrimethamineB. Pyrimethamine + sulphadoxineC. Mefloquine + PrimaquineD. None of the above
Answer: (B) Pyrimethamine + sulphadoxine Explanation: Sulphadoxine + Pyrimethamine (Fansidar) is a combination antimalarialcontaining the sulphonamide antibiotic sulphadoxine and the anti-protozoal pyrimethamine.
Q.31. Which one of the enzyme is used in the treatment of cancer?
A. L- asparginaseB. PhosphodiesteraseC. Xanthine OxidaseD. None of the above
Answer: (A) L- asparginase Explanation: L- asparginase catalyzes the hydrolysis of asparagines to aspartic acid.
(D) Acetylcholine Explanation: Acetylcholine mimics the action of the cholinergic system.
Q.39. Testosterone is not orally active because?
A. React with acidB. DegradationC. ReductionD. Rapid oxidation of 17-hydroxy group to ketones
Answer: (D) Rapid oxidation of 17-hydroxy group to ketones Explanation: Testosterone is an androgenic steroid hormone, responsible for malecharacteristics.
Q.40. Which one of the following drug shows antiplatelet activity?
A. VerapamilB. NifedipineC. WarferinD. Dipyridamole
Answer: (B) Pain Explanation: A Nociceptor is a receptor of a sensory neuron (nerve cell) that responds topotentially damaging stimuli by sending signals to the spinal cord and brain. This process
called nociception usually causes the perception of pain.
Q.42. Drug that shows selective antagonistic selective H1 antagonistic action?
A. ChlorpheniramineB. CimetidineC. RanitidineD. Thioperamide
Answer: (A) Chlorpheniramine Explanation: Chlorpheniramine is a first-generation alkylamine and anti-histamine for H1.Cimetidine and ranitidine are H2 antagonists and inhibit stomach acid production.Thioperamide is a selective H3 antagonist, and also capable of crossing the Blood-brainbarrier.
Q.43. Which one is the alkylating anticancer drug?
A. FluorouracilB. VincristineC. ThiotepaD. Doxorubicin
Answer: (C) Thiotepa Explanation: Thiotepa is an organophosphorus compound, is an alkylating anticancerdrug.
Q.44. Which one is a HMGC A reductase inhibitor?
A. RhabdomylosisB. NauseaC. VomitingD. Rise in serum transaminase
Answer: (A) Rhabdomylosis Explanation: Rhabdomyolysis is a condition in which damaged skeletal muscle tissue
A. GlucuronideB. Deacetylated productC. Hydroxy derivativesD. none of the above
Answer: (A) Glucuronide Explanation: Paracetamol is metabolised in the liver (90-95%) and?excreted?in the urinemainly as the glucuronide and sulphate conjugates. less than 5% is excreted as unchanged
Q.48. Cardiovuscular action of epinephrine is mediated through-
A. α - receptorB. α and β receptorC. β receptorD. none of the above
Answer: (C) β receptor Explanation: Ephinephrine is also known as adrenaline hormone and neurotransmitter.Cardiovascular action of epinephrine is mediated through β receptor.
Q.49. Slow metabolism of isoniazid in africans are due to-
A. Genetic variationB. IdiosyncracyC. Teratogenic effectD. none of the above
Answer: (A) Genetic variation Explanation: Isoniazid is given in the treatment of TB. Also known asisonicotinylhydrazine. In Africans Metabolism of Isoniazid is slow due genetic variations.
Q.50. Phenytoin act as anti-epilectic drug by-
A. inhibiting the enzymeB. blocking the receptorC. acting on cell membraneD. non-specific drug action
Answer: (C) acting on cell membrane Explanation: Phenytoin is a hydantoin derivative, class 1B anti-arrythmic. It act on cellmembrane by sodium channel blockade.
Q.51. Isosorbide dinitrate is usually administered by-
A. sublingual routeB. Oral routeC. Intravenous routeD. none of the above
Answer: (A) sublingual route Explanation: Isosorbide Dinitrate is used to prevent chest pain (angina attacks). It worksby relaxing and widening blood vessels so blood can flow more easily to the heart. Thesetablets will not treat an angina attack that has already begun. They may be also used tocontrol heart failure. generally taken as sublingual route (below the tongue) for quickabsorption and action in emergency.
Q.52. Methotrexate is a -
A. Enzyme inhibitorB. Receptor blockerC. Alkylating agentD. Anti-metabolic
Answer: (D) Anti-metabolic Explanation: Methotrexate is used in cancer, autoimmune diseases and ectopicpregnancy.
Q.53. Which one of these antibiotics is used in amoebic dysentery?
A. TetracyclineB. BacitracinC. ParamomycinD. tobramycin
Answer: (C) Paramomycin Explanation: Paromomycin is an antimicrobial used to treat a number of parasitic
infections including amebiasis, giardiasis, leishmaniasis, and tapeworm infection. It is afirst-line treatment for amebiasis or giardiasis during pregnancy. Otherwise it is generally asecond line treatment option. It is used by mouth, applied to the skin, or by injection into amuscle.
Q.54. Niclosamide is used in the infection caused by-
A. NematodesB. CestodesC. TrematodesD. all of the above
Answer: (B) Cestodes Explanation: Niclosamide is a tenacide in the antihelmintic family especially effectiveagainst cestodes.
Q.55. Which one of these is not a antiviral agent?
A. AmantadineB. IdoxuridineC. AcyclovirD. Haymycin
Answer: (D) Haymycin Explanation: Haymycin is a polyene antimycotic agent.
Q.56. Amphotericin B, polyene antibiotic act by-
A. Intracting with fungal membrane sterolB. Inhibiting protein synthesisC. Inhibiting cell wall synthesisD. all of the above
Answer: (A) Intracting with fungal membrane sterol Explanation: Amphotericin B id often used for treatment of systemic fungal nfections.
Q.57. Steven-Johnson syndrome is associated with-
A. PenicillinB. CephalosporinC. SulphonamidesD. Erythromycin
Answer: (C) Sulphonamides Explanation: Stevens- Johnson syndrom affects the skin and mucus membrane and theseis the common side effects of sulphonamides.
Answer: (A) Chloramphenicol Explanation: Typhoid fever is also called pathogenic fever. Chloramphenicol is a secondline agent in the treatment of tetracycline resistant cholera.
Q.60. 5-hydroxytryptophan on decarboxylation gives-
A. TryptophanB. 5-hydroxy indole acetic acidC. 5-hydroxytryptamineD. Indole
Answer: (C) 5-hydroxytryptamine Explanation: On decarboxylation, 5-HT gives 5-Hydroxtryptamine (serotonin).
Q.61. Pharmaclogical action of morphine is-
A. CNS stimulantB. VasoconstrictionC. Increase in blood pressureD. Release of histamine
Answer: (A) CNS stimulant Explanation: Morphine is an opiod analgesic, it acts directly on the CNS.
Q.62. Rhabdomylosis side effect is related with-
A. AtenololB. AtorvastatinC. PropranalolD. Digoxin
Answer: (B) Atorvastatin Explanation: Atorvastatin is primarily used for lowering blood cholesterol for theprevention of cardiovascular disease.
Q.63. Inchthamol is used in the treatment of-
A. TuberculosisB. DiarrhoeaC. inflammation and boilsD. Leprosy
Answer: (C) inflammation and boils Explanation: Inchthamol is used for treating some skin disease including eczema andpsoriasis.
Q.64. Famciclovir is an ester prodrug of-
A. Cytosine nucleosideB. Guanosine nucleosideC. Thymidine nucleosideD. Adenine nucleoside
Answer: (B) Guanosine nucleoside Explanation: Famciclovir is used for the treatment of various herpes virus infections,most commonly for herpes zoster.
Q.65. Compared to subcutaneous injection, the intramus- cular injection of drugs:
A. Is more painfulB. Produces faster responseC. Is unsuitable for depot preparationsD. Carries greater risk of anaphylactic reaction
Q.69. Bioavailability differences among oral formulations of a drug are most likely to occur if the drug
A. Undergoes little first-pass metabolismB. Is incompletely absorbedC. Is freely water solubleD. Is completely absorbed
Answer: (B) Is incompletely absorbed
Q.70. Marked redistribution is a feature of
A. Highly plasma protein bound drugsB. Depot preparationsC. Highly lipid soluble drugsD. Poorly lipid soluble drugs
Answer: (C) Highly lipid soluble drugs
Q.71. High plasma protein binding
A. Increases volume of distribution of the drugB. Generally makes the drug long actingC. Facilitates glomerular filtration of the drugD. Minimises drug interactions
D. Pharma • Pharmacology • B. Pharma MCQ Autonomic Nervous System Autonomic Nervous System Autonomic Nervous System MCQ Autonomic Nervous System Quiz ANS ANS MCQ ANS Quiz ANS Pharmacology Quiz Sympathetic Nervous System MCQ Parasympathetic Nervous System MCQ
Q.76. The following cotransmitter is most probably involved in mediating nonadrenergic-noncholinergic (NANC) relaxation of the gut
A. Nitric oxide (NO)B. AdenosineC. Neuropeptide Y (NPY)D. Kallidin
Answer: (D) Kallidin
Q.77. The major postjunctional cholinergic receptor is of the muscarinic type at the following site
A. Neuromuscular junctionB. Postganglionic parasympatheticC. Adrenal medullaD. Autonomic ganglia
Answer: (B) Postganglionic parasympathetic
Q.78. The choline ester resistant to both true and pseudo- cholinesterase is
A. BethanecholB. ButyrylcholineC. MethacholineD. Benzoylcholine
Q.79. The smooth muscle structure that is relaxed by choli- nergic drugs is
A. ColonB. Gastric fundusC. Bladder trigoneD. Major bronchi
Answer: (C) Bladder trigone
Q.80. Pilocarpine is used for
A. GlaucomaB. Paralytic ileusC. Urinary retentionD. Infection
Answer: (A) Glaucoma
Q.81. The following inhibitor binds only to the ani-onic site of the cholinesterase enzyme
A. NeostigmineB. EdrophoniumC. PhysostigmineD. Dyflos
Answer: (B) Edrophonium
Q.82. Reactivation of cholinesterase enzyme occurs on hydrolysis of the inhibitor by the same enzyme mole- cule in case of the following anticholinesterase
Q.90. Select the drug which is administered orally for erectile dysfunction in men
A. AlbendazoleB. MebendazoleC. CocaineD. Sildenafil
Answer: (D) Sildenafil
Q.91. Which of the following is a selective α1A receptor bloc- ker that affords symptomatic relief in benign prostatic hypertrophy without producing significant fall in blood pressure
A. DoxazosinB. AlprostadilC. TamsulosinD. Yohimbine
Answer: (C) Tamsulosin
Q.92. The bladder trigone and prostatic muscles are relaxed by
A. Heparin & ProtamineB. Protamine & ZincC. Heparin & ProthrombinD. All the above
Answer: (A) Heparin & Protamine Explanation: Chemical antagonism does not involve any receptors. Protamine is apositively charged protein at physiological pH and thus antagonizes the effects of Heparinwhich is negatively charged at physiological pH.
Q.97. Active transport differs from facilitated transport in following ways, except
A. Carrier is involvedB. It is against concentration gradientC. Energy is requiredD. All of the above
Answer: (A) Carrier is involved Explanation: Facilitated diffusion differs from active transport in that it does not requireenergy source and it carries the transport in the direction of electrochemical gradient.
Q.98. Acidic drugs mainly bind to plasma
A. AlbuminB. acid glycoproteinC. Weak acidsD. Heparin & Protamine
Answer: (A) Albumin Explanation: Glycoprotein binds to basic drugs and albumin binds to many acidic drugsand a small number of basic drugs.
Q.99. _______ is expressed in both the intestinal epithelium and the kidney.
A. CYP378AB. CYP4B2C. CYP3A4D. CYP256
Answer: (A) CYP378A Explanation: CYP3A4 is involved in the metabolism of majority of drugs and is alsoexpressed extrahepatically. In fact, poor bioavailability of many drugs is attributed to thedrug metabolism by CYP3A4 in gastrointestinal tract.
Q.100. N-oxidation will be involved with the metabolism of following drugs, except
A. DapsoneB. MeperidineC. PhenytoinD. Chlorpheniramine
Answer: (C) Phenytoin Explanation: N-oxidation is involved in the metabolism of dapsone, meperidine andchloramphenicol. Metabolism of phenytoin involves oxidative Ndealkylation.
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