Paper II Hkwxksy - setexam.unipune.ac.insetexam.unipune.ac.in/QuestionPaper/17FEB_Geography_PII.pdfform (B)It is a landform of glacial ... Internal to industry (C)External to industry

1 [P.T.O.

FEB - 36213/II

1. Endogenetic forces cause relief

to ..................

(A) Increase

(B) Decrease

(C) Get distributed

(D) Get concealed

2. Continental drift theory was not

accepted because ................

(A) The evidences cited were in-

adequate

(B) Explanation about force was

not acceptable

(C) Jig-saw fit has gaps

(D) The evidences cited were not

convincing

1. vkartZfud cykaeq s mapl[kyi.kk --------------

(A) ok<rks

(B) deh gksrks

(C) forfjr gksrks

(D) >kdrk tkrks

2. [kaMogu flºkUrkl ekU;rk feˇkyh ukgh

dkj.k %

(A) fnysys iqjkos viqjs gksrs

(B) cykps fo'ys"k.k ekU; gks.;klkj[ks

uOgrs

(C) Hkw[kaMkaP;k pi[ky tksMkr QVh

vkgsr

(D) fnysys iqjkos [kk=hyk;d uOgrs

GeographyPaper II

Hkwxksyiz'uif=dk II

Time Allowed : 75 Minutes] [Maximum Marks : 100

Note : This Paper contains Fifty (50) multiple choice questions, each question carries

Two (2) marks. Attempt All questions.

lwpuk % ;k iz'uif=dsr ,dw.k iÈkkl (50) cgqi;kZ;h iz'u fnysys vkgsr- izR;sd iz'ukyk nksu (2)xq.k vkgsr- loZ iz'u lksMok-

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FEB - 36213/II

3. Which of the following is not true

about the esker ?

(A) It is a depositional land-

form

(B) It is a landform of glacial

action

(C) It is a long extending elevated

form

(D) It is an egg shaped hill

4. Which of the following forms of

transformation is not possible by

wind ?

(A) Suspension

(B) Saltation

(C) Solution

(D) Drag

3. iq<hyiSdh dks.krs fo/kku fgeks< dVdkckcr

[kjs ukgh \

(A) gs fu{ksi.kkps Hkw:i vkgs

(B) gs fgeunhP;k dk;kZps Hkw:i vkgs

(C) gs ykacp ykac iljrsrs mUuf;r Hkw:i

vkgs

(D) gh vaMÓkP;k vkdkjkph VsdMh

vkgs

4. iq<hyiSdh dks.krk ogu izdkj okÚ;keq s laHkor

ukgh \

(A) fuyacu

(B) mRifjorZu

(C) foy;u

(D) izfrd"kZ.k

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5. Which of the following landforms is

predominently produced by

weathering ?

(A) Abrasion platform

(B) Honeycomb and Taffoni

(C) Stack

(D) Geos

6. The gusty dry and warm winds of

Rockies are :

(A) Foehn

(B) Loo

(C) Mistral

(D) Chinook

7. The greenhouse gas released by

livestock is :

(A) Carbon dioxide

(B) Methane

(C) Ozone

(D) Nitrogen oxide

5. iq<hyiSdh dks.krs Hkw:i izkeq[;kus fonkj.k

izfÿ;sus cuys vkgs \

(A) vi?k"kZ.k eap

(B) guhdksEc o VWQksuh

(C) LraHk

(D) vkarekZxZ

6. jk Wdht e/khy vrh'k q"d o m".k okjk

Eg.kts %

(A) Qksgsu

(B) yw

(C) feLV™y

(D) fpuwd

7. i'kq/kukus mRlftZr dsysyk gfjrx`gok;w %

(A) dkcZuMk; vkWDlkbZM

(B) feFksu

(C) vks>ksu

(D) uk;V™kstu vkWDlkbZM

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8. The average net radiation balance

of atmosphere is ......................... kilo

langleys.

(A) zero

(B) +79

(C) –79

(D) 66

9. The cyclone formed over Arabian Sea

during June 2010 was named :

(A) Laila

(B) Aila

(C) Pheta

(D) Nargis

10. Concept of potential evapo-

transpiration was proposed first

in :

(A) 1925

(B) 1931

(C) 1948

(D) 1955

8. okrkoj.kkps ljkljh uRr izkj.k larqyu

----------------------- fdyks y°xysl vkgs-

(A) 'kwU;

(B) +79

(C) –79

(D) 66

9. twu 2010 e/;s vjch leqÊkoj fuekZ.k >kysys

pÿhoknˇkps uko %

(A) ySyk

(B) vSyk

(C) QsV

(D) uxhZl

10. lqIr ok"ihHkou ck"iksRltZuph ladYiuk izFkep

ekaM.;kr vkysys o"ksZ --------------

(A) 1925

(B) 1931

(C) 1948

(D) 1955

5 [P.T.O.

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11. Plants of monsoon region are

called :

(A) Hydrophytes

(B) Hygrophytes

(C) Tropophytes

(D) Xerophytes

12. Blue mud results from disintegration

of rocks containing :

(A) Iron oxide and ochreous

matter

(B) Silicates of potassium and

glauconite

(C) Skeletons and shells

(D) Sulphide and organic matter

13. The water body with highest

salinity is :

(A) Lake Van

(B) Dead Sea

(C) Lake Sambhar

(D) Great Salt Lake

11. eksleh izns'kkrhy ouLirhauk ---------------------

Eg.krkr-

(A) gk;M™ksQkbZV~l

(B) gk;xzksQkbZV~l

(C) V™ksiksQkbZV~l

(D) >sjksQkbZV~l

12. fuˇk fp[kˇ ---------------------- ÊO; vl.kkÚ;k

[kMdkrhy fonkj.kkus r;kj gksrks-

(A) vk;Zu vkWDlkbZM o vksdsjh;l inkFkZ

(B) iksVWf'k;e flyhdsV~l o XykWdksukbZV

(C) lkaxkMs o f'kaiys

(D) lYQkbZM o lsaÊh; inkFkZ

13. lok ZrtkLr {kkjrk vl.kkjk tyk'k;

Eg.kts %

(A) OgWu ljksoj

(B) e`r leqÊ

(C) lkaHkkj ljksoj

(D) xzsV lkYV ljksoj

6

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14. Which one of the following is the

most important element of

ecosystem ?

(A) Ecological succession

(B) Energy flow

(C) Food chain

(D) Food web

15. The warm current that flows along

the Peruvian Coast is called :

(A) Peru

(B) El Nino

(C) La Nina

(D) Gulf Stream

16. Who is considered as the founder of

human geography ?

(A) Humboldt

(B) Blache

(C) Ratzel

(D) Taylor

14. [kkyhyiSdh ifjlaLFk spk dk s.krk ?kVd

lokZf/kd egRRokpk vkgs \

(A) ifjfLFkrhdh; vuqÿfer fodkl

(B) mtkZ laÿe.k

(C) vUu lk[kˇh

(D) vUu tkˇh

15. is#P;k fdukÚ;kyxr okg.kkÚ;k m".k izokgkl

-------------------- Eg.krkr-

(A) is#

(B) ,y&fuuks

(C) yk&fuuk

(D) xYQ LV™he

16. ekuoh Hkwxksykpk laLFkkid dks.krk eku«s

tkrs \

(A) gEcksYV

(B) Cyk'k

(C) jWV~>sy

(D) Vsyj

7 [P.T.O.

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17. The term possibilism is coined

by :

(A) Taylor

(B) Blache

(C) Hartshorne

(D) Febvre

18. Griffith Taylor promoted :

(A) Voluntarism

(B) Stop and go determinism

(C) Possibilism

(D) Determinism

19. Miss Semple was a disciple of :

(A) Ratzel

(B) Ritter

(C) Humboldt

(D) Blache

17. 'kD;krkokn gh laKk -------------------- us okijyh

vkgs-

(A) Vsyj

(B) Cyk'k

(C) gkVZ'kksuZ

(D) QsCoj

18. xzhfQFk Vsyjus ------------------------- yk izksRlkgu

fnys-

(A) Lo;alsforkokn

(B) ^Fkkack* vkf.k ^tk* fu;rhokn

(C) 'kD;rkokn

(D) fu;rhokn

19. dq- lsEiy dks.kkph vuq;k;h gksrh \

(A) jWV~>sy

(B) fjV~Vj

(C) gEcksYV

(D) Cyk'k

8

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20. ‘‘Anthropogeographie’’ is authored

by :

(A) Yi-Fu-Tuan

(B) Ratzel

(C) Spencer

(D) Blache

21. ...................... model appears similar

to that of Von Thunen.

(A) Multiple nuclie

(B) Sector

(C) Concentric

(D) Distance decay

22. Settlement developing in dry

elevated location surrounded by

marshy area is called :

(A) Wet point settlement

(B) Dry point settlement

(C) Oasis settlement

(D) Hill top settlement

20. ^^vaFkzksiksftvkWxzkQh;k** dks.kh fyfgys \

(A) ;h&Qw&rqvku

(B) jWV~>sy

(C) LisUlj

(D) Cyk'k

21.------------------------- izfreku gs OgkWu F;wusu P;k

izfrekuk izek.ksp vlY;kps fnlwu ;srs-

(A) cgqdsaÊh;

(B) foHkkxh;

(C) ledsaÊh;

(D) varjÚgkl

22. maphojP;k] dksjMÓk o nynyhauh os<ysY;k

fBdk.kh ok<.kkÚ;k oLrhl -------------------------

Eg.krkr-

(A) vkÊZ LFkku oLrh

(B) 'kq"d LFkku oLrh

(C) e#ou oLrh

(D) Mksaxj ekFkk oLrh

9 [P.T.O.

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23. Who introduced the concept of

Rank-size rule ?

(A) R.E. Dickinson

(B) G.K. Zipf

(C) A.E. Smailes

(D) W. Christaller

24. Natural increase in population

refers to :

(A) Number of births minus

number of deaths

(B) Number of births minus

number of deaths minus

number of outmigrants

(C) Number of inmegrants minus

number of outmigrants

(D) Number of births plus number

of inmigrants minus number of

outmigrants

23. j°d&lkb> :y dks.kh lqpfoyk \

(A) vkj-bZ- fMfdUlu

(B) th-ds- f>IQ

(C) ,-bZ- Lesy~l

(D) MCY;w- fÿLVWyj

24. yksdla[;srhy uSlfxZd o`ºh Eg.kts %

(A) tUela[;k otk e`R;qla[;k

(B) tUela[;k otk e`R;qla[;k otk cfg%

LFkykarj la[;k

(C) var% LFkykarj la[;k otk cfg% LFkykarj

la[;k

(D) tUela[;k vf/kd varLFkykarj la[;k otk

cfgLFkykarj la[;k

10

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25. Mksaxjkˇ izns'kkrhy esa<ikˇkaP;k LFkykarjkl

--------------------- Eg.krkr-

(A) nSuafnu izdkj

(B) gaxkeh LFkykarj

(C) ik;jh ik;jhps LFkykarj

(D) V™kUlgÓqeUl

26. gk ^jsM dkWyj* O;olk; vkgs %

(A) migkjx`g ekyd

(B) izlk/kudrkZ

(C) la'kks/kd oSKkfud

(D) dksˇh

27. lalk/kus --------------------- vkgsr-

(A) fulxZnŸk ns.kxh

(B) ekSY;oku ns.kxh

(C) fulxZnŸk lqIr lalk/kus

(D) 'kksf"kr lalk/kus

25. Migration of sheperds in hilly area

is termed as ..................

(A) Commuting

(B) Seasonal migration

(C) Stepwise migration

(D) Transhumance

26. ...................... occupation is ‘‘Red

Collar’’ job.

(A) Hotellier

(B) Beautician

(C) Research scientist

(D) Fisherman

27. Resources are :

(A) Natural endowments

(B) Valuable endowments

(C) Natural potentialities

(D) Exploited potentialities

11 [P.T.O.

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28. Agglomeration economies are :

(A) Internal to firm

(B) Internal to industry

(C) External to industry

(D) Internal to region

29. The term ‘Range of goods’ refers

to :

(A) Range of goods sold

(B) Spatial range of goods sold

(C) Maximum distance over which

a consumer moves to purchase

goods

(D) Range of customer drawn

28.------------------------ ;k l•iMd vFkZO;oLFkk

vkgsr-

(A) O;kikjh is<hyk varxZr

(B) m|ksxkyk varxZr

(C) m|ksxkyk cfgxZr

(D) izns'kkyk varxZr

29. eky d{kk ;k laKspk lanHkZ ------------------ 'kh

vkgs-

(A) foÿh >kysY;k ekykph d{kk

(B) foÿh >kysY;k ekykph vfHk{ks=h;

d{kk

(C) eky [kjsnh dj.;klkBh xzkgd ts tkLrhr

tkLr varj pkyrks

(D) ,dw.k xzkgd la[;sph d{kk

12

FEB - 36213/II

30. Japan imports wood because

she :

(A) Does not possess forests

(B) Wants to save its forests

(C) Has poor quality forests

(D) Has no accessible forests

31. Mackinder termed Eurasia as

‘‘World Island’’ because :

(A) It was surrounded by

oceans

(B) It had the largest number of

nations

(C) It was at the centre of the

world

(D) It accounted for about 40% of

land and 80% of world

population

30. tiku ydMkph vk;kr djrks dkj.k %

(A) R;kaP;kdMs taxys ukghar

(B) rs taxykps j{k.k d# bfPNrkr

(C) R;kaph taxys deh ntkZph vkgsr

(D) R;kaP;kdMs lqxe taxys ukghar

31. eWfdaMjus ;wjsf'k;kyk eeZHkweh vls uko fnys

dkj.k %

(A) rs leqÊkus os<ysys gksrs

(B) rsFks lokZr vf/kd ns'k gksrs

(C) rs txkrys e/; LFkku gksrs

(D) rs txkpk 40% HkwHkkx vkf.k 80%

yksdla[;k gksrh

13 [P.T.O.

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32. folkO;k 'krdkrY;k lokZr okbZV izdkjph

oa'kHksnkph iz.kkyh dksBs gksrh \

(A) dk°xks

(B) dsfu;k

(C) bfFk;ksfi;k

(D) nf{k.k vkf›dk

33. e/; vkf'k;kP;k lekos'k dks.kR;k lkaLœfrd

izns'kkr dsyk tkrks \

(A) bLykfed lkaLœfrd izns'k

(B) iwoZ vkf'k;k lkaLœfrd izns'k

(C) e/; vkf›dh; lkaLœfrd izns'k

(D) ;wjksih; lkaLœfrd izns'k

34. egkjk"V™kr lokZr ygku /kkfeZd vYila[;kad

xV dks.krk \

(A) ckSº

(B) f[kzLrh

(C) tSu

(D) 'kh[k

32. The worst form of Apartheid in the

20th century was in :

(A) Congo

(B) Kenya

(C) Ethiopia

(D) South Africa

33. Central Asia is a part of :

(A) Islamic culture realm

(B) East Asian culture realm

(C) Meso-African culture realm

(D) European culture realm

34. Which is the smallest minority

religious group in Maharashtra ?

(A) Buddhists

(B) Christians

(C) Jains

(D) Sikhs

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35. Garo and Khasi tribes are found

in :

(A) Assam

(B) Arunachal Pradesh

(C) Manipur

(D) Meghalaya

36. ‘‘Functional’’ region is best

described as an area with :

(A) Functional uniformity

(B) Functional superiority

(C) Functional nodality

(D) Common interest

35. ^xkjks* vkf.k ^[kklh* vkfnoklh tekrh dksBs

vk<ˇrkr \

(A) vklke

(B) v#.kkpy izns'k

(C) ef.kiwj

(D) es?kky;

36. ^dk;kZRed izns'kkps* loks ZŸke o.kZu

Eg.kts ---------------------------------- nk[kfo.kkjs

{ks=-

(A) dk;kZRed ,dftulhi.kk

(B) dk;kZRed Js"Brk

(C) dk;kZRed dsaÊh;rk

(D) lkoZtfud LokjL;

15 [P.T.O.

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37. .......................... is the most refined

technique for agglomerative

regionalisation.

(A) Ranking

(B) Median and quartile

(C) Mean and standard

deviation

(D) ‘Z’ score

38. India had annual plans

in .............

(A) Late 1960s

(B) Early 1970s

(C) Late 1970s

(D) Mid 1980s

37.---------------------------------------------- gs lafiaMhœr

izknsf'kdhdj.kkdjhrk lokZr lQkbZnkj ra=

vkgs-

(A) ÿeokjh

(B) e/;xk o prqFkZd

(C) ljkljh o izekf.kr fopyu

(D) ‘Z’ ewY;

38. Hkkjrkr okf"kZd ;kstuk ------------------ vfLrRokr

gksR;k-

(A) 1960 P;k mRrjk/kkZr

(B) 1970 P;k iwokZ/kkZr

(C) 1970 P;k mRrjk/kkZr

(D) 1980 P;k e/;kr

16

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39. Green Revolution aimed at :

(A) Enhancing farm production

(B) Increasing farm yield

(C) Reducing social disparities

(D) Reducing regional disparities

40. Chhattisgarh is a :

(A) Dynamic region

(B) Potential region

(C) Problem region

(D) Depressed region

41. The highest peak in India is :

(A) Mt. Everest

(B) Godwin Austin

(C) Kanchenjunga

(D) Nandadevi

39. gjhr ÿkarhpk -------------------- mÌs'k gksrk-

(A) 'ksrhps mRiknu ok<fo.ks

(B) 'ksrh mrkjk ok<fo.ks

(C) lkekftd fo"kerk deh dj.ks

(D) izknsf'kd fo"kerk deh dj.ks

40. NRrhlxM ---------------------- vkgs-

(A) xfreku izns'k

(B) {kerk izns'k

(C) leL;k izns'k

(D) eanh izns'k

41. Hkkjrkrhy lokZr map f'k[kj --------------------

vkgs-

(A) ek≈aV ,OgjsLV

(B) xkWMfou vkWLVhu

(C) dkaputaxk

(D) uanknsoh

17 [P.T.O.

FEB - 36213/II

42. Identify the pair that does not

match :

(A) Regur—Basalt

(B) Red soil—Granite

(C) Clayey soil—Schist

(D) Laterites soil—Sandstone

43. The coast of Tamil Nadu has ..............

forests.

(A) Dry deciduous

(B) Moist deciduous

(C) Dry evergreen

(D) Evergreen

44. Maximum proportion of area under

well irrigation is in :

(A) Gujarat

(B) Maharashtra

(C) Punjab

(D) Rajasthan

42. folaxr tksMh vks [kk %

(A) jsxwj—cslkWYV

(B) rkacMh e`nk—xzWukbZV

(C) e`fRrdke; e`nk—f'kLV

(D) tkaHkh e`nk—l°MLVksu

43. rkfeˇukMw fdukjiV~Vhoj --------------------- taxy

vk<ˇrs-

(A) 'kq"d iku>M

(B) vkÊZ iku>M

(C) 'kq"d lnkgjhr

(D) lnkgjhr

44.---------------- ;k jkT;kr foghjflapuk[kkyhy {ks=

lokZr tkLr vkgs-

(A) xqtjkFk

(B) egkjk"V™

(C) iatkc

(D) jktLFkku

18

FEB - 36213/II

45. Maximum production of bauxite in

India comes from :

(A) Gujarat

(B) Jharkhand

(C) Orissa

(D) Maharashtra

46. For isopleth maps the locational

data related to ............................ is

necessary.

(A) Points

(B) Lines

(C) Areas

(D) Time

45.------------------------- jkT;ke/;s Hkkjrkrhy lokZr

tkLr ckWDlkbZV ps mRiknu gksrs-

(A) xqtjkFk

(B) >kj[kaM

(C) vksjhlk

(D) egkjk"V™

46. le?kuh udk'kkalkBh LFkkulanHkhZ; lkaf[;dh

------------------------------------ 'kh fuxMhr vlkoh

ykxrs-

(A) fcanw

(B) js"kk

(C) {ks=

(D) dky

19 [P.T.O.

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47. Which of the following IRS satellite

data can facilitate developing a true

colour composite ?

(A) IRS 1A/B

(B) IRS 1C/D

(C) Resource sat 1

(D) Cartosat

48. A ratio of mean to the

standard deviation is referred

as ..............

(A) coefficient of variation

(B) coefficient of correlation

(C) coefficient of regression

(D) coefficient of concentration

47. iq<hyiSdh dks.kR;k vk;-vkj-,l- mixzgh;

lkaf[;dheq s ;FkkFkZ o.kZu izfrek r;kj gks≈

'kdrs \

(A) IRS 1A/B

(B) IRS 1C/D

(C) fjlkslZlWV 1

(D) dkVksZlWV

48. ljkljh o izekf.kr fopyukP;k xq.kksŸkjkl

-------------------------- Eg.krkr-

(A) pyu'khyrk xq.kkad

(B) lglaca/k xq.kkad

(C) lekJ;.k xq.kkad

(D) dsaÊhdj.k xq.kkad

20

FEB - 36213/II

49. Which two of the following are not

parametric tests ?

(a) Students ‘t’test

(b) Chi-square test

(c) Snedecor’s ‘F’ test

(d) Kolmogrove-Smirnov test

(A) (a) and (b)

(B) (b) and (c)

(C) (b) and (d)

(D) (a) and (c)

50. Which of the following sampling

techniques is recommended to draw

a sample of villages, spread in

a number of Talukas, from a

district ?

(A) Systematic sampling

(B) Cluster sampling

(C) Stratified sampling

(D) Random sampling

49. iq<hyiSdh dks.kR;k nksu pkp.;k ijhek.kkRed

pkp.;k ukghar \

(a) LVwMaV ^Vh* VsLV

(b) dk; oxZ pkp.kh

(c) LusMsdksj ph ^,Q* VsLV

(d) dksyeksxzksOg&fLejukWOg VsLV

(A) (a) vkf.k (b)

(B) (b) vkf.k (c)

(C) (b) vkf.k (d)

(D) (a) vkf.k (c)

50. ,[kk|k ftYgÓkrhy vusd rkyqD;kr iljhY;k

[ksMÓkapk uequk ?ks.;klkBh iq<hyiSdh dks.krs

izfrn'kZ ra= ;ksX; Bjsy \

(A) ÿecº izfrn'kZ

(B) iqat izfrn'kZ

(C) Lrjhr izfrn'kZ

(D) ;kn`PNhd izfrn'kZ

21 [P.T.O.

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ROUGH WORK

22

FEB - 36213/II

ROUGH WORK

23 [P.T.O.

FEB - 36213/II

Time Allowed : 1¼ Hours] [Maximum Marks : 100

Number of Pages in this Booklet : 24 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 50

Signature and Name of Invigilator

1. (Signature) .........................................

(Name) ................................................

2. (Signature) .........................................

(Name) ................................................

Seat No.

(In figures as in Admit Card)

Seat No. ..............................................................

(In words)

OMR Sheet No.

(To be filled by the Candidate)

Paper-II

GEOGRAPHY

FEB - 36213

Instructions for the Candidates1. Write your Seat No. and OMR Sheet No. in the space provided

on the top of this page.2. This paper consists of 50 objective type questions. Each question

will carry two marks. All questions of Paper-II will be compulsory,covering entire syllabus (including all electives, without options).

3. At the commencement of examination, the question bookletwill be given to the student. In the first 5 minutes, you arerequested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it asfollows :(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the

paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accepta booklet without sticker-seal or open booklet.

(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questionsin the booklet with the information printed on thecover page. Faulty booklets due to missing pages/questions or questions repeated or not in serialorder or any other discrepancy should not beaccepted and correct booklet should be obtainedfrom the invigilator within the period of 5 minutes.Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet will bereplaced nor any extra time will be given. The samemay please be noted.

(iii) After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Numbershould be entered on this Test Booklet.

4. Each question has four alternative responses marked (A), (B),(C) and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below onthe correct response against each item.Example : where (C) is the correct response.

5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMRSheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark at any placeother than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated.

6. Read instructions given inside carefully.7. Rough Work is to be done at the end of this booklet.8. If you write your Name, Seat Number, Phone Number or put

any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the spaceallotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose youridentity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfairmeans, you will render yourself liable to disqualification.

9. You have to return original OMR Sheet to the invigilator at theend of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it withyou outside the Examination Hall. You are, however, allowedto carry the Test Booklet and duplicate copy of OMR Sheet onconclusion of examination.

10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.11. Use of any calculator or log table, etc., is prohibited.12. There is no negative marking for incorrect answers.

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10. Q‰ fuˇÓk fdaok dkˇÓk ckWy isupkp okij djkok-11. dWyD;qysVj fdaok ykWx Vscy okij.;kl ijokuxh ukgh-12. pqdhP;k mŸkjklkBh xq.k dikr dsyh tk.kkj ukgh-

A B D

A B D

FTest Booklet No.

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