Question Booklet Series :– ç'u iqfLrdk J`a[kyk %& A Question Booklet No. :– ç'u iqfLrdk la[;k %& 520566 Time Allowed: 90 Minutes Total No. of Questions : 120 vuqer le; % 90 feuV PAPER – II ç”uksa dh dqy la[;k % 120 Roll No. : (Paper–II) OMR Answer Sheet No. : vuqØekad % -------------------------------------------- ¼isij&II½ vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk la[;k : --------------------------- Name of the Candidate (in capital letters) : vH;FkÊ dk uke % ---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- Candidate's Signature Invigilator's Signature vH;FkÊ ds gLrk{kj % ------------------------------- d{k fujh{kd ds gLrk{kj % --------------------------------- POST CODE NAME OF THE POST SUBJECT B J.E. (ELECTRICAL Engineering) ELECTRICAL IMPORTANT:– Read the following instructions carefully. Do not mark answers on the question booklet, otherwise you may be debarred from the selection process. 1. Before commencing to answer, check that the Question Booklet has 120 questions. Each Question Booklet will be in different series (combination of question booklet number and series). You must write correct Question Booklet Number and Question Booklet Series on your OMR Answer Sheet. Further check that there is no misprinting, overprinting and/or any other shortcoming in it. If there is any shortcoming in the question booklet, intimate the same to your room invigilator and take a fresh question booklet and a fresh OMR sheet. No complaint in this regard shall be entertained at any later stage. IMPORTANT NOTE: The OMR Answer Sheet will be evaluated with a combination of question booklet series and question booklet number hence you must write correct question booklet series and question booklet number. Any mistake in filling any of them will lead to invalidation of your OMR Answer Sheet. Also in case of non filling of question booklet series and question booklet number the OMR Answer Sheet will not be evaluated and its sole responsibility lies on the candidate. 2. Question paper is bilingual (Hindi/English). In case of any variation in Hindi version, English version will be taken as final for evaluation purposes. 3. Ensure that your admit card and OMR sheet is signed by you and the invigilator. If the same is not signed, your candidature is liable to be rejected. 4. All Multiple Choice Questions carry 1 mark. No Mark will be awarded or deducted for not attempting a question. Darken ONLY ONE OVAL for each answer. If you darken more than one oval or any stray mark is found on more than one oval, no mark will be awarded for that oval. 5. This is an objective type test in which each objective question is followed by four responses serialled (1) to (4). Your task is to choose the correct/best response and mark your response in the OMR Answer Sheet only as per the instructions given and NOT in the Question Booklet. 6. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen for all your work on the OMR Answer Sheet. The ovals on the OMR Answer Sheet are to be completely filled by Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only. ANSWERS ONCE GIVEN CAN NOT BE CHANGED. Cutting/overwriting the answers are not allowed. 7. Use of Calculators, Slide rules, Mobiles, calculator watches or any such devices and any other study/reference material is NOT allowed inside the examination hall and prohibited If found carrying, it shall be punishable offence. 8. Rough Work is to be done in the blank space provided in the Question Booklet, not on the OMR Answer Sheet. No other paper will be allowed/provided for rough work. 9. Handover OMR Answer Sheet to the invigilator on completion of the test. Do not take OMR Answer Sheet outside the examination room. Doing so is a punishable offence. The candidate can retain question paper after exam is over. fgUnh esa vuqns”k vfUre i`’B ¼Back cover½ ij fn;k x;k gSA
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Question Booklet Series :– ç'u iqfLrdk J`a[kyk %& A Question Booklet No. :–
ç'u iqfLrdk la[;k %& 520566
Time Allowed : 90 Minutes Total No. of Questions : 120vuqer le; % 90 feuV PAPER – II ç”uksa dh dqy la[;k % 120
Name of the Candidate (in capital letters) : vH;FkÊ dk uke % ----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
IMPORTANT:– Read the following instructions carefully. Do not mark answers on the question booklet, otherwise you may be debarred from the selection process. 1. Before commencing to answer, check that the Question Booklet has 120 questions. Each Question Booklet will be in
different series (combination of question booklet number and series). You must write correct Question Booklet Number and Question Booklet Series on your OMR Answer Sheet. Further check that there is no misprinting, overprinting and/or any other shortcoming in it. If there is any shortcoming in the question booklet, intimate the same to your room invigilator and take a fresh question booklet and a fresh OMR sheet. No complaint in this regard shall be entertained at any later stage. IMPORTANT NOTE: The OMR Answer Sheet will be evaluated with a combination of question booklet series and question booklet number hence you must write correct question booklet series and question booklet number. Any mistake in filling any of them will lead to invalidation of your OMR Answer Sheet. Also in case of non filling of question booklet series and question booklet number the OMR Answer Sheet will not be evaluated and its sole responsibility lies on the candidate.
2. Question paper is bilingual (Hindi/English). In case of any variation in Hindi version, English version will be taken as final for evaluation purposes.
3. Ensure that your admit card and OMR sheet is signed by you and the invigilator. If the same is not signed, your candidature is liable to be rejected.
4. All Multiple Choice Questions carry 1 mark. No Mark will be awarded or deducted for not attempting a question. Darken ONLY ONE OVAL for each answer. If you darken more than one oval or any stray mark is found on more than one oval, no mark will be awarded for that oval.
5. This is an objective type test in which each objective question is followed by four responses serialled (1) to (4). Your task is to choose the correct/best response and mark your response in the OMR Answer Sheet only as per the instructions given and NOT in the Question Booklet.
6. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen for all your work on the OMR Answer Sheet. The ovals on the OMR Answer Sheet are to be completely filled by Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only. ANSWERS ONCE GIVEN CAN NOT BE CHANGED. Cutting/overwriting the answers are not allowed.
7. Use of Calculators, Slide rules, Mobiles, calculator watches or any such devices and any other study/reference material is NOT allowed inside the examination hall and prohibited If found carrying, it shall be punishable offence.
8. Rough Work is to be done in the blank space provided in the Question Booklet, not on the OMR Answer Sheet. No other paper will be allowed/provided for rough work.
9. Handover OMR Answer Sheet to the invigilator on completion of the test. Do not take OMR Answer Sheet outside the examination room. Doing so is a punishable offence. The candidate can retain question paper after exam is over.
fgUnh esa vuqns”k vfUre i`’B ¼Back cover½ ij fn;k x;k gSA
1. The per unit impedance of a circuit element is 0.15. If the base kV and base MVA are halved, then the new value of the per-unit impedance of the circuit element will be: (1) 0.075 (2) 0.15 (3) 0.30 (4) None of these
2. A mho relay is used for protection of: (1) Protection of a transformer against external faults. (2) Long Transmission lines (3) Protection of a transformer against all the internal
faults and external faults. (4) Medium length lines
(3) lHkh vkarfjd vkSj ckg~; =qfV;ksa ls VªkalQkeZj dh jkk
(4) e>ksyh nwjh dh ykbusa
3. In coal-fired thermal power stations, what are the electrostatic precipitators used for? (1) To remove dust particles settling on the bus bar
conductors in the station yard. (2) To condense steam by electrostatic means. (3) To keep the air heaters clean. (4) To collect the dust particles from the flue gases.
(1) LVs”ku ;kMZ esa cl ckj pkydksa ij tek gksus okys /kwy ds d.kksa
dks gVkuk
(2) fLFkj fo|qr lk/kuksa kjk Hkki dks nzfor djuk
(3) ok;q ghVjksa dks lkQ j[kuk
(4) ¶yw xSlksa ls /kwy ds d.k bdV~Bs djuk
4. Equivalent π model is quite suitable for analyzing the performance of transmission line of: (1) 50 km length. (2) 150 km length. (3) 250 km length. (4) All of these.
(1) 50 km yackbZ (2) 150 km yackbZ (3) 250 km yackbZ (4) ;s lHkh
5. For reducing tower footing resistance, it is better to employ: (1) Chemical and counterpoise (2) Ground Rods and counterpoise (3) Chemical and ground rods (4) Chemical, Ground Rods and counterpoise
6. The non-uniform distribution of voltage across the units in a string of suspension insulators is due to: (1) Unequal self capacitance of the units (2) The existence of stray capacitance between the
metallic junctions of the units and the tower body. (3) Non uniform distance of separation of the units from
the tower body. (4) Non uniform distance of between the cross-arm and
(3) Vkoj fudk; ls ;wfuVksa ds ikFkZD; dh vleku nwjh
(4) dSaph Hkqtk vkSj ;wfuVksa ds chp vleku nwjh
7. Which one of the following statements correctly represents the post acceleration in cathode-ray tube? (1) It provides deflection of the beam. (2) It increases the brightness of the trace if the signal
frequency is higher than 10 MHz. (3) It accelerates the beam before deflection. (4) It increases the brightness of the trace of low
frequency signal.
7. fuEu esa ls dkSu&lk dFku dSFkksM&fdj.k V~;wc ds i”p Roj.k dks lgh
8. A spring controlled moving iron voltmeter draws a current of 1mA for full scale value of 100 V. If it draws a current of 0.5 mA, the meter reading is: (1) 25 V (2) 50 V (3) 100 V (4) None of these
lHkh Lora= /kkjk lzksrksa dks foo`rifFkr dj fn;k tkrk gS
10. In a single phase power factor meter, the controlling torque is: (1) Provided by the spring control. (2) Not required. (3) Provided by the gravity control. (4) Provided by the stiffness of suspension.
10. ,dy dyk “kfDr xq.kkad ehVj esa fu;a=d cy vk?kw.kZ%
(1) fLizax fu;a=.k kjk miyC/k djk;k tkrk gS
(2) dh t:jr ugha gksrh
(3) xq#Ro fu;a=.k kjk miyC/k djk;k tkrk gS
(4) fuyacu dh n`<+rk kjk miyC/k djk;k tkrk gS
11. A dc circuit can be represented by an internal voltage source of 50 V with an output resistance of 100 KΩ. In order to achieve accuracy better than 99% for voltage measurement across its terminals, the votage measuring device should have a resistance of at least: (1) 10 MΩ (2) 1 MΩ (3) 10 KΩ (4) None of these
12. Two meters X and Y require 40 mA and 50 mA, respectively, to give full-scale deflection, then: (1) Sensitivity can not be judged with given information. (2) X is more sensitive. (3) Both are equally sensitive. (4) Y is more sensitive.
12. nks ehVjksa X vkSj Y dks iw.kZ&Lrjh; foksi iznku djus ds fy, Øe”k% 40 mA vkSj 50 mA dh t:jr jgrh gS] rks% (1) nh xbZ tkudkjh ls laos|rk dk fu/kkZj.k ugha fd;k tk ldrk
(2) X vf/kd laosnh gS
(3) nksuksa leku :i ls laosnh gS
(4) Y vf/kd laosnh gS
13. The dielectric loss of a capacitor can be measured by: (1) Hay’s Bridge (2) Schering Bridge (3) Maxwell Bridge (4) Anderson Bridge
14. Sensitivity of LVDT is mainly due to: (1) Magnetic shielding of the core. (2) Permeability of the core. (3) Exact cancellation of secondary voltages. (4) Insulation used in the windings.
15. The concept of transfer function applies to: (1) Linear time varying system. (2) Linear time invariant systems only. (3) Linear and non-linear systems only. (4) Only to MIMO systems.
15. varj.k Qyu dh vo/kkj.kk fuEu ij ykxw gksrh gS%
(1) jSf[kd le; ifjorhZ iz.kkyh
(2) dsoy jSf[kd dky vpj iz.kkfy;ka
(3) dsoy jSf[kd vkSj vjSf[kd iz.kkfy;ka
(4) dsoy MIMO iz.kkfy;ka
16. The stepper motor has six phase winding on its stator and has 12 teeth on rotor. The stepping angle is: (1) 5 degrees (2) 10 degrees (3) 2.5 degrees (4) 30 degrees
16. LVSij eksVj ds LVsVj ij ‘kV~dyk yisV vkSj jksVj ij 12 nkarsa gSaA LVSfiax dks.k gS%
17. A d.c. series motor is accidently connected to single phase a.c. supply. The torque produced will be: (1) Of zero average value. (2) Oscillating (3) Steady and unidirectional (4) Pulsating and unidirectional
18. In an electromechanical energy conversion device, the developed torque depends upon: (1) Stator field strength and torque angle. (2) Stator field strength and rotor field strength. (3) Stator field and rotor field strengths and torque angle. (4) Stator field strength only.
19. The starting current of a 3∅ induction motor is five times the rated current, while the rated slip is 4%. The ratio of starting torque to full load torque is: (1) 0.6 (2) 0.8 (3) 1.0 (4) None of these
20. The full load copper loss and iron loss of transformer are 6400 W and 5000 W respectively. The copper loss and iron loss at half load will be, respectively: (1) 3200 W and 2500 W (2) 3200 W and 5500 W (3) 1600 W and 5000 W (4) None of these
20. VªkalQkeZj dh iw.kZ Hkkj rkack gkfu vkSj ykSg gkfu Øe”k% 6400 W rFkk 5000 W gSA v)Z Hkkj ij rkack gkfu vkSj ykSg gkfu gksxh
Øe”k%
(1) 3200 W rFkk 2500 W (2) 3200 W rFkk 5500 W (3) 1600 W rFkk 5000 W (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
21. Which one of the following methods gives more accurate result for determination of voltage regulation of an alternator? (1) m.m.f. method (2) Synchronous impedance mrthod (3) American institution standard method (4) Potier triangle method
21. fuEu esa ls dkSu&lh fof/k ,d izR;kofrZ= ds oksYVrk fofu;eu ds
fu/kkZj.k dk vf/kd “kq) ifj.kke iznku djrh gS\
(1) m.m.f. fof/k (2) rqY;dkfyd izfrck/kk fof/k
(3) vejhdh laLFkku ekud fof/k
(4) iksfV;j f=dks.k fof/k
22. Kirchoff’s law is applicable to: (1) Passive networks only (2) A.c. netwoks only (3) d.c. netwoks only (4) Both a.c. and d.c. circuits
22. fØ[kkQ fu;e fuEu ij ykxw gksrk gS%
(1) dsoy fuf’Ø; usVodZ ij
(2) dsoy a.c. usVodZ ij (3) dsoy d.c. usVodZ ij (4) a.c. rFkk d.c. nksuksa ifjiFkksa ij
23. The circuit whose properties are same in either direction is known as: (1) Unilateral circuit. (2) Bilateral circuit. (3) Irreversible circuit. (4) Reversible circuit.
24. If two sinusoids of different amplitudes and phase angles are subtracted, the resultant is: (1) A sinusoid of double the frequency. (2) A sinusoid of half of the original frequency. (3) A sinusoid of same the frequency. (4) Not a sinusoid.
28. The nominal ratio of a current transformer is: (1) Primary winding current / secondary winding current (2) Number of Primary winding turns / Number of
29. What is the value of total electric flux coming out of a closed surface? (1) Zero (2) Equal to the total charge enclosed by the surface. (3) Equal to the volume charge density. (4) Equal to the surface charge density.
31. Magnetostriction is a phenomenon of: (1) Generation of electricity in ferromagnetic materials (2) Generation of magnetism in ferromagnetic materials (3) Change in permeability of ferromagnetic materials
during magnetization (4) Change in physical dimension of ferromagnetic
materials during magnetization.
31. pqacdh; fo:i.k fuEu dk ?kVukØe gS%
(1) ykSgpqacdh; lkexzh esa fo|qr dh mRifRr
(2) ykSgpqacdh; lkexzh esa pqacdRo dh mRifRr
(3) pqacdu ds nkSjku ykSg&pqacdh; lkexzh dh ikjxE;rk esa ifjorZu
(4) pqacdu ds nkSjku ykSg&pqacdh; lkexzh ds HkkSfrd vk;ke esa
ifjorZu
32. The development of barrier potential in the depletion zone of a PN junction is consequent to: (1) Diffusion of majority carriers across the junction. (2) Drift of minority carriers across the junction. (3) Generation of minority carriers across the junction. (4) Initial flow of conduction current.
33. The armature of a d.c. machine is laminated: (1) to reduce the eddy current loss. (2) to reduce the hysteresis loss. (3) to reduce the inductance of the armature. (4) to reduce the mass of the armature.
33. d. c. e”khu dk vkesZpj iVfyr fd;k tkrk gS%
(1) Hkaoj /kkjk dh gkfu de djus ds fy,
(2) fgLVSjsfll gkfu de djus ds fy,
(3) vkesZpj dk izsj.k de djus ds fy,
(4) vkesZpj dk nzO;eku de djus ds fy,
34. An electric circuit with 10 branches and 7 nodes will have: (1) 4 loop equations (2) 7 loop equations (3) 10 loop equations (4) 5 loop equations
38. The current and potential coils of a dynamometer type wattmeter were accidentally interchanged while connecting. After energizing the circuit, it was observed that the wattmeter did not show the reading. This could be due to: (1) Damage to potential coils (2) Damage to current coil (3) Damage to both current coil and pressure coil (4) Loose contacts
(1) ,d gh vko`fÙk ds fLFkj ac oksYVrk dks ifjorÊ ifjek.k ac oksYVrk esa
(2) ,d gh ifjek.k ds fLFkj ac oksYVrk dks ifjorÊ vko`fÙk ac oksYVrk esa
(3) dc fyad ds ek/;e ls fLFkj ac oksYVrk dks ifjorÊ vko`fÙk esa
(4) fLFkj ac oksYVrk dks ifjorÊ ifjek.k ifjorÊ vko`fÙk ac esa
40. If a ramp input is applied to Type -2 system, the steady state error is: (1) Zero (2) Positive constant (3) Negative constant (4) Positive infinity
41. The effect of Tachometer feedback is to improve: (1) Steady state response (2) Transient response (3) Both steady state and transient response (4) Neither Steady state nor Transient response
42. Standardization of potentiometers is done in order to make them: (1) Accurate and precise (2) Accurate (3) Accurate and direct reading (4) Precise.
43. Sphere gaps are used for the measurement of: (1) Instantaneous values of voltage (2) Peak values of voltage (3) r.m.s. values of voltage (4) Average values of voltage
45. Shunt compensation in EHV is resorted to: (1) Improve the stability (2) Reduce the fault level (3) Improve the voltage profile (4) As a substitute for synchronous phase modifier.
45. EHV esa “kaV izfriwfrZ dk lgkjk fuEu iz;kstu ds fy, fy;k tkrk gS% (1) fLFkjrk esa lq/kkj ykuk
(2) =qfV Lrj dks ?kVkuk
(3) oksYVrk izksQkby esa lq/kkj ykuk
(4) ledkfyd dyk v”kksf/k= ds ,oth ds :i esa
46. The voltage of a particular bus can be controlled by controlling the: (1) Phase angle (2) Reactive power of the bus (3) Active power of the bus (4) Phase angle and reactive power of the bus
47. When two sinusoidal waves are 90° out of phase,: (1) One has its peak value when the other has zero value. (2) Each has its peak value at the same time (3) Each has its minimum value at the same time (4) None of these
48. If a parallel resonant circuit is shunted by a resistance, then: (1) The circuit impedance is increased. (2) Q of the circuit is increased (3) The gain of the circuit is increased (4) The circuit impedance is decreased.
49. The purpose of having a commutator and brush arrangement in a dc motor is: (1) To produce a unidirectional torque (2) To produce a unidirectional current in the armature (3) To help in changing the direction of rotation of the
armature (4) To reduce eddy current loss in armature
49. dc eksVj esa ,d fnd~ifjorZd vkSj cz”k O;oLFkk j[kus dk iz;kstu
gksrk gS%
(1) vfn”kkRed cy vk?kw.kZ mRiUu djuk
(2) vkesZpj esa ,d vfn”kkRed /kkjk mRiUu djuk
(3) vkesZpj ds Qsjs dh fn”kk cnyus esa enn djuk
(4) vkesZpj esa Hkaoj /kkjk gkfu de djuk
50. Under full load running condition, the slip of a synchronous motor is: (1) About 0.01 (2) About 0.1 (3) Zero (4) Unity
51. The direction of rotation of an ordinary shaded pole single phase induction motor: (1) Can be reversed by reversing the supply terminal
connections to the stator winding (2) Cannot be reversed (3) Can be reversed by open-circuiting the shading ring. (4) Can be reversed by short-circuiting the shading ring.
54. The total harmonic distortion (THD) of ac supply input current of rectifiers is maximum for: (1) Single-phase diode rectifier with dc inductive filter (2) 3-phase diode rectifier with dc inductive filter (3) 3-phase thyristor rectifier with inductive filter (4) Single-phase diode rectifier with capacitive filter
54. fn’Vdkfj;ksa dh a.c. vkiwfrZ fuos”k/kkjk dh lexz gkeksZuh fod`fr
55. Starting torque of a three-phase squirrel cage induction motor at rated voltage is: (1) 30% to 40% of the rated torque (2) The rated torque (3) 100% to 200% of the rated torque (4) 5 to 7 times of the rated torque
57. Which of the following is not the same as watt? (1) Joule / Sec. (2) (Ampere)2X ohm (3) (Volt)2 /ohm (4) Volt / Ampere
57. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk ,d okWV dh rjg ugha gS\
(1) Joule / Sec. (2) (Ampere)2X ohm (3) (Volt)2 /ohm (4) Volt / Ampere
58. Lap winding is most suitable for: (1) Low voltage, low current machine (2) High voltage, high current machine (3) Low voltage, high current machine (4) High voltage, low current machine
58. ySi okbZfUMax lcls T;knk mi;ksxh gksrk gS%
(1) fuEu oksYVrk] fuEu /kkjk e'khuksa gsrq
(2) mPp oksYVrk] mPp /kkjk e'khuksa gsrq
(3) fuEu oksYVrk] mPp /kkjk e'khuksa gsrq
(4) mPp oksYVrk] fuEu /kkjk e'khuksa gsrq
59. A double squirrel cage induction motor has two: (1) Rotors moving in opposite direction (2) Parallel windings on rotor (3) Parallel windings on stator (4) Series windings in stator
59. ,d ffiatjh izsjd eksVj esa gksrs gSa%
(1) foijhr fn”kkvksa esa pyus okys nks jksVj
(2) jksVj ij nks lekukarj okbafMax
(3) LVSVj ij lekukarj okbafMax
(4) LVSVj esa Js.kh okbafMax
60. No load test on a three-phase squirrel cage induction motor at rated voltage is performed to obtain: (1) Stator and rotor resistance and reactance (2) Series branch parameters of equivalent circuit (3) Copper and core losses (4) Shunt branch parameters of equivalent circuit
61. The maximum power that can be transmitted in a network between sources and loads when the system is subject to small disturbances is called: (1) Steady-State Stability Limit (2) Transient Stability Limit (3) Sub-Transient Stability Limit (4) None of the Above
62. During hunting of a synchronous motor: (1) Negative sequence currents are generated. (2) Harmonics are developed in the armature circuit. (3) Damper bars develop torque (4) Field excitation increases.
63. In an induction motor, if the air gap is increased,: (1) Speed will reduce (2) Efficiency will improve (3) Power factor will be lowered (4) Breakdown torque will reduce
64. To conduct Sumpners test on a transformer: (1) Only one transformer is sufficient (2) Two identical transformers are needed (3) Two un-identical transformers are needed (4) At least three transformers are necessary
64. VªkUlQkeZj dk lEiuj ijhk.k djus ds fy,%
(1) dsoy ,d VªkUlQkeZj i;kZIr gS
(2) nks leku VªkUlQkeZjksa dh vko”;drk iM+rh gS
(3) nks vleku VªkUlQkeZjksa dh vko”;drk iM+rh gS
(4) de ls de rhu VªkUlQkeZjksa dh vko”;drk iM+rh gS
65. Electrostatic instruments are suitable for the measurement of: (1) ac and dc voltages (2) ac voltage and current (3) dc voltage and current (4) ac and dc currents
66. Please refer figure showing oil pot with electrodes used for testing dielectric strength of transformer oil. The gap between two electrodes is 4 mm and the pot is filled with oil.
The pot is placed in the oil testing kit and it is observed that breakdown occurs at 16KV. The dielectric strength of oil is: (1) 16KV/cm (2) 20 KV/cm (3) 40KV/cm (4) 50KV/cm
66. fuEufyf[kr lanfHkZr fp= esa VªkUlQkeZj rsy dh ijkoS|qr lkeF;Z
67. To neglect a current source, the terminal across the sources are: (1) Open-circuited (2) Short-circuited (3) Replaced by some resistance (4) Replaced by capacitance
68. Which of the following combination of 3-phase transformers can be successfully operated in parallel: (1) ∆-Υ and ∆-Υ (2) Υ-Υ and ∆-Υ (3) ∆-∆ and ∆-Υ (4) Υ-∆ and ∆-∆
68. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk f=dyk VªkalQkeZj dk la;kstu lekukUrj esa
69. Three phase step-up transformer installed at power house, just before commencement of transmission line, have: (1) DELTA–DELTA connection (2) STAR–STAR connections (3) STAR–DELTA connections (4) DELTA–STAR connections
gSa lapj.k ykbZuksa ds vkjEHk gksus ls Bhd iwoZ] gksrk gS%
(1) MsYVk&MYVk vkca/ku
(2) LVkj&LVkj vkca/ku
(3) LVkj&MsYVk vkca/ku
(4) MsYVk&LVkj vkca/ku
70. Which of the following theorem uses current generator: (1) Superposition theorem (2) Maximum power transfer theorem (3) Thevenin’s theorem (4) Norton’s theorem
70. fuEu esa ls dkSu&lk izes; /kkjk tsujsVj dk iz;ksx djrk gS\
(1) v/;kjksi.k izes;
(2) vf/kdre “kfDr varj.k izes;
(3) FkSofuu izes;
(4) ukVZu izes;
71. When the series field is so connected that its ampere-turns act in the same direction as those of shunt field, the generator is said to be: (1) Shunt generator (2) Differentially compound generator (3) Series generator (4) Cumulatively compound generator
73. Which of the following instruments is generally used for measuring d.c. current: (1) M. C. type (2) M. I. type (3) Dynamometer type (4) Induction type
73. d.c. /kkjk dks ekius ds fy, fuEukafdr midj.kksa esa ls dkSu&lk
lkekU;r% ç;ksx fd;k tkrk gS%
(1) M. C. Vkbi (2) M. I. Vkbi (3) Mk;ueksehVj Vkbi (4) çsj.k Vkbi
75. A 3-phase delta connected motor is supplied at a line voltage of 400 V, the voltage across each winding of the motor will be: (1) 400 V (2) 200 V (3) 100 V (4) 300 V
76. A 6 pole Lap wound dc generator has 300 conductors. Emf induced per conductor is 5 volt. This generator will generate emf of: (1) 60 volt (2) 300 volt (3) 250 volt (4) 1800 volt
77. Holes are drilled on opposite site of the disc of an induction type energy meter to: (1) Prevent creeping (2) Balance the disc (3) Dissipate energy due to eddy current (4) Increase the deflecting torque
78. When a hot-plate is connected to the mains, its element becomes red hot, but copper wire in the leads remain cool. This is due to: (1) The element is coiled, but the copper wire is not (2) Length of the element is more than the copper wire (3) Copper wire is thinner than the element (4) The element has a high resistance than the copper
79. The iron losses in a 100 kvA transformer are 1 kw and the full load copper losses are 2 kw, then maximum efficiency occurs at a load of: (1) 100√2 kvA (2) 100/√2 (3) 50 kvA (4) None of these
79. 100 kvA VªkUlQkeZj esa ykSg gkfu 1 kw gS ,oa iw.kZ Hkkj rkez gkfu
2 kw gS] rks vf/kdre nkrk fdl Hkkj ?kfVr gksxh%
(1) 100√2 kvA (2) 100/√2 (3) 50 kvA (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
80. Which is the correct statement: (1) In a dc commutator motor, the rotor has permanent magnet (2) In a brush less dc motor, the rotor has permanent magnet (3) In a hybrid stepper motor, the stator has a permanent
magnet (4) Multi stack variable reluctance motor has permanent
magnet on rotor
80. buesa ls dkSu&lk dFku lgh gS%
(1) ,d Mh-lh- dE;wVsVj eksVj esa ?kw.kZd esa LFkkbZ pqEcd gksrk gS
(2) fcuk cz”k okyh Mh-lh- eksVj esa ?kw.kZd esa LFkkbZ pqEcd gksrk gS
(3) ,d ladj LVsij eksVj esa LVsVj esa LFkkbZ pqEcd gksrk gS%
(4) eYVh LVsd pj çfr’VEHk eksVj esa ?kw.kZd esa LFkkbZ pqEcd gksrk gS
81. Which of the following 1-phase induction motor has highest starting torque: (1) Split-Phase (2) Capacitor-Start (3) Capacitor-Run (4) Capacitor-Start, Capacitor-Run
81. fuEukafdr esa ls dkSu lh 1&Qst okyh çsj.k eksVj esa mPpre çorZu cy vk?kw.kZ gksrk gS%
(1) foHkä&Qst
(2) la/kkfj=&çofrZr
(3) la/kkfj=&pfyr
(4) la/kkfj=&çofrZr] la/kkfj=&pfyr
82. A system has the transfer function s1s–1
+, known as:
(1) Low pass system (2) High pass system (3) All pass system (4) Band pass system
83. For the grounding of an entire sub–station: (1) Counterpoises are used (2) Grounding rods are used (3) Grounding mats are used (4) Peterson coil is used
83. laiw.kZ lc&LVs'ku ds Hkw&laidZu ds fy,%
(1) çfrrksy ç;ksx fd, tkrs gSa
(2) Hkw&laidZu NM+ ç;ksx fd, tkrs gSa
(3) Hkw&laidZu eSV ç;ksx fd, tkrs gSa
(4) ihVjlu dqaMyh ç;ksx dh tkrh gS
84. Gain margin is the reciprocal of gain at the frequency at which the phase angle becomes: (1) 0° (2) 90° (3) 180° (4) 270°
84. mikUr yfC/k ¼gain margin½] yfC/k dh vU;ksU; ml vko`fÙk ij
87. Two bulbs of rating 60W, 250V and 100W, 250V are connected in series across a supply of 250V in a room. What will be the total power dissipation in the circuit? (1) 37.5 W (2) 60.0 W (3) 100.0 W (4) 160.0 W
87. 60W, 250V rFkk 100W, 250V ds fu/kkZj okys nks cYc ,d dejs esa 250V dh vkiwfrZ ds chp Ja`[kyk esa tksM+s tkrs gSaA ifjiFk esa dqy
fo|qr k; fdruk gksxk\
(1) 37.5 W (2) 60.0 W (3) 100.0 W (4) 160.0 W
88. How is the burden of current transformer expressed? (1) Secondary winding current (2) VA rating of transformer (3) Voltage, current and power factor of secondary
89. Main purpose of using oil in oil circuit breaker is to: (1) Provide insulation between oil circuit breaker contacts (2) Provide cooling of contacts (3) Quenching arc (4) None of these
90. A capacitor opposes: (1) Change in current (2) Change in voltage (3) Both change in current and voltage (4) None of these
90. ,d dSisflVj fojks/k djrk gS%
(1) /kkjk esa ifjorZu
(2) oksYVrk esa ifjorZu
(3) /kkjk ,oa oksYVrk nksuksa esa ifjorZu
(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
91. What is the cause of occurrence of stray load losses in transformer? (1) Leakage flux (2) Poor cooling (3) Overloading (4) Under frequency operation
91. VªkalQkeZj esa LVªs Hkkj gkfu dk D;k dkj.k gS\
93. In a Kelvin’s double bridge, two set of readings are taken when measuring a low resistance, one with the current in one direction and the other with direction of current reversed. This is done to: (1) Eliminate the effect of contact resistance (2) Eliminate the effect of resistance of leads (3) Correct for changes in battery voltage (4) Eliminate the effect of thermo-electric effects
94. If two supply terminals of a 3φ induction motor are interchanged, then the: (1) Speed of the motor will become zero (2) Speed of the motor will increase (3) Motor will continue to run in the same direction with
less speed (4) Motor will rotate in the opposite direction
95. The function of conservator in a transformer is to: (1) Store extra oil to be used in emergency (2) Prevent entry of moisture (3) Cool transformer (4) Take care of expansion and contraction of oil due to
(4) rsy ds rkiØe esa ifjorZu ds dkj.k rsy esa QSyko ,oa ladqpu
dh ns[kHkky djuk
96. Critical speed of a DC shunt generator is the speed below which: (1) The generator fails to build up voltage (2) The generator build up voltage (3) The generator can not take load (4) The generator can take load
96. DC ik”oZiFk tfu= dh ØkfUrd pky og pky gksrh gS ftl pky ds
uhps%
(1) tfu= oksYVst cukus esa vlQy jgrk gS
(2) tfu= oksYVst cukrk gS
(3) tfu= Hkkj ugha ys ldrk
(4) tfu= Hkkj ys ldrk gS
97. A cylindrical rotor synchronous motor is switched on to the supply with its field winding shorted on themselves. It will: (1) Not start. (2) Start but not run at synchronous speed. (3) Start as an induction motor and then run run as a
synchronous motor. (4) Start and run as a synchronous motor.
97. ,d csyukdkj jksVj rqY;dkfyd eksVj bldh ks= dqaMyh ftls mu ij
98. Core of transformer is made of good quality material like CRGO steel to minimize: (1) Eddy current loss (2) Full load copper loss (3) Hysteresis loss (4) No load copper loss
101. The material used for fuse wire should have the following characteristics: (1) Low melting point, high conductivity (2) High melting point, low conductivity (3) Highly malleable and coercive (4) High resistance, low melting point
102. Which of the following insulators will be selected for high voltage transmission? (1) Pin (2) Strain (3) Shackle (4) Suspension
102. mPp oksYVrk lapkj.k ds fy, fuEukafdr esa ls fdl fo|qrjks/kh dk p;u fd;k tk,xk\
(1) fiu (2) foÑfr (3) 'kSdy (4) fuyaEcu
103. In d.c. generator armature reaction is produced by: (1) Field or armature current (2) Field and armature current (3) Field current (4) Armature current
104. A dc motor works on the principle of: (1) Fleming’s right hand rule (2) Fleming’s left hand rule (3) Right hand thumb rule (4) Cork screw rule
104. dc eksVj fuEu ds fl)kar ij dke djrh gS%
(1) ¶ysfeax dk nfk.k gLrfu;e
(2) ¶ysfeax dk oke gLrfu;e
(3) nfk.k gLr FkEc fu;e
(4) dkdZ LØw fu;e
105. A fuse is provided in an electrical circuit to: (1) Reduce the power consumption in the circuit (2) Limit the current in the circuit (3) Safeguard the circuit against heavy current (4) Increase the current in the circuit
105. fo|qr ifjiFk esa ¶;wt fuEu iz;kstu ls yxk;k tkrk gS% (1) ifjiFk esa fctyh dh [kir de djuk
(2) ifjiFk esa /kkjk lhfer djuk
(3) ifjiFk dks Hkkjh /kkjk ls lqjfkr j[kuk
(4) ifjiFk esa /kkjk c<+kuk
106. The e.m.f induced is 2V when current is changing at the rate of 0.5A/s. The self inductance of coil is: (1) 4 (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) None of these
107. Resistivity of copper is: (1) Less than aluminium (2) More than aluminium (3) Equal to aluminium (4) Exactly twice than aluminium
107. rkez dh jsflLVhfoVh gksrh gS% (1) ,Y;wfefu;e ls de
(2) ,Y;wfefu;e ls vf/kd
(3) ,Y;wfefu;e ds cjkcj
(4) ,Y;wfefu;e ds Bhd nqxquk
108. In a a.c. circuit , then the power
factor of a.c. circuit will be: )wtcos(10i
)60wtsin(50=
+=υ o
(1) 0.5 lag (2) 0.5 lead (3) 0.866 lag (4) 0.866 lead
108. ,d a.c. ifjiFk esa] a.c. ifjiFk dk “kfDr
xq.kd gksxk%
)wtcos(10i)60wtsin(50
=+=υ o
(1) 0.5 i”p (2) 0.5 vxz
(3) 0.866 i”p (4) 0.866 vxz
109. An inductor L is connected across the 220 volts d.c. supply. What will be the reactance? (1) L (2) wL (3) Zero (4) None of these
109. izsjd L dks 220 oksYV Mhlh vkiwfrZ esa la;ksftr fd;k tkrk gSA bldk
izfr?kkr fdruk gksxk\
(1) L (2) wL (3) “kwU; (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
110. Magnitude of the electric shock on human body depends upon: (1) The line voltage (2) The line current (3) The line voltage and line current (4) Current flowing through human body
110. euq’; ds “kjhj ij fctyh ds >Vds dh ek=k fuEu ij fuHkZj djrh gS%
112. The power of an inductive series circuit is 0.8 lag. If the magnitude of current is 15 Amp then it can be expressed in complex form as: (1) 12-j9 (2) 9-j12 (3) 12+j9 (4) 9+j12
113. When localizing ground fault with the help of a loop test, the resistance of a fault: (1) Affects the balance condition (2) Affects the value of the cable resistance (3) Affects the sensitivity of the bridge (4) All of these
114. The advantage of the Varley loop test over Murray loop test is: (1) Can be used for localizing the short circuit fault (2) Loop resistance can be determined (3) Can be used for localizing the earth fault (4) Their accuracy is higher
115. The addition of ground rods in the earthing grid: (1) Decrease the earth resistance (2) Has no effect on earth resistance (3) Slightly decrease the earth resistance (4) Slightly increase the earth resistance
115. Hkw&laidZu fxzM esa Hkw&NM+ksa dh o`f)%
(1) Hkw&izfrjks/k de djrh gS
(2) Hkw&izfrjks/k ij dksbZ izHkko ugha iM+rk
(3) Hkw&izfrjks/k rfud de djrh gS
(4) Hkw&izfrjks/k rfud c<+k nsrh gS
116. A horn load unit: (1) Increase the acoustic output (2) Decrease the acoustic output (3) Multiplies the acoustic output (4) None of these
118. In AM: (1) The phase remains constant (2) The amplitude remains constant (3) The frequency remains constant (4) None of these
118. AM esa% (1) izkoLFkk vifjorhZ jgrh gS
(2) vk;ke vifjorhZ jgrk gS
(3) vko`fRr vifjorhZ jgrh gS
(4) mi;qZDr esa ls dksbZ ugha
119. The band width of AM signal is: (1) Directly proportional to the frequency of modulation signal (2) Inversely proportional to the frequency of modulation signal (3) Not related to the frequency of modulation signal (4) 10 KHz