P o f F Self Assessed Tests and Paper

European Pilot Training AcademyVolume 12 Principles of Flight - A

EUROPEAN PILOT TRAINING ACADEMYDISTANCE LEARNING COURSE

JAR-FCL PRINCIPLES OF FLIGHT

STUDY PERIOD 1 Definitions, Basic Principles, Lift And Drag (8 Hours)

Reference: Principles of Flight (A) (Volumes 12 & 12A)

Study: Chapters 1 to 4Chapter 13 (paras 13.3 &13.4)Addendum to Chapter 1 – Airspeed Indicator (ASI)

By the end of this Study Period you should be able to answer the following questions:

SELF ASSESSED TEST 1

Question 1

Newton’s first law of motion states that:

a) A body is said to have energy if it has the ability to do workb) The amount of energy a body possesses is measured by the amount of work it can

doc) A body will remain at rest, or in uniform motion in a straight line, unless acted on

by an external forced) In order to change the state of a body moving in a straight line at a constant speed, a

force must be exerted on it

Question 2

Which of the following statements is correct regarding Newton’s second law of motion?

a) The acceleration of an object from rest, or in uniform motion in a straight line, is inversely proportional to the applied force and proportional to the mass

b) For every action, there is an equal and opposite reactionc) The rate of change of momentum of an object will be in the opposite direction to

the applied forced) The bigger the force, the greater the acceleration

Page 1 of 94Version 1 Mar 06


Question 3

Which is the correct statement regarding Newton’s third law?

a) If two bodies with different masses hit each other, the body with the larger mass will have a greater change of direction

b) Power is the rate of doing workc) For every action, there is an equal and opposite reactiond) The rate of change of momentum of an object will be in the opposite direction to

the applied force

Question 4

Force is equal to:

a) m x gb) m x ac) (N x m) ÷ sd) V2 ÷ rg

Question 5

The SI unit of force is the:

a) Wattb) Pascalc) Joule d) Newton

Question 6

Pressure is defined as:

a) Mass per unit volumeb) The rate of doing workc) Potential energyd) Force per unit area



Question 7

Air density:

a) Decreases with altitudeb) Increases with altitudec) Increases with increasing temperatured) Decreases with decreasing temperature

Question 8

Dynamic pressure is:

a) The pressure due to the weight of the atmosphereb) The total pressure at a point where a moving airstream is brought to restc) The pressure exerted at a point where a moving airstream is brought to restd) The pressure energy exerted at a point where kinetic energy of a moving airstream

is reduced to zero.

Question 9

Static pressure:

a) Is directly proportional to air density and the square of the speedb) Is greater at higher altitudesc) Is greater at lower altitudesd) Is inversely proportional to air density and speed

Question 10

An object placed in a moving airstream will be subject to:

a) Static pressureb) Dynamic pressurec) Dynamic pressure plus static pressured) Dynamic pressure minus static pressure

Question 11

An Air Speed Indicator relies on the sensing of:

a) Static pressureb) Static and pitot pressurec) Static and dynamic pressured) Dynamic pressure



Question 12

Which of the following statements is correct?

a) EAS is IAS corrected for position errorb) CAS is IAS corrected for compressibilityc) TAS is EAS corrected for relative density and compressibilityd) TAS is the actual speed of the aircraft through the air

Question 13

The ASI is calibrated according to:

a) Relative densityb) The sea level density and temperaturec) The ISA sea level density and temperature at +15ºCd) The density at normal cruising level

Question 14

Movement of the air speed indicator pointer is proportional to:

a) Static pressureb) Dynamic pressurec) Dynamic pressure minus static pressured) Static pressure plus dynamic pressure

Question 15

If air flows through a narrowed cross section:

a) The velocity remains constant and the mass flow decreasesb) The velocity remains constant and the pressure increasesc) The mass flow remains constant and the pressure increasesd) The mass flow remains constant and the velocity increases

Question 16

Bernoulli’s theorem states that:

a) Pressure energy = kinetic energyb) Pressure energy + ½ V2 = constantc) ½ V2 = constantd) Kinetic energy = ½ V2



Question 17

If the velocity of a mass of air is increased:

a) Dynamic pressure decreases and static pressure increasesb) Static pressure remains constant and kinetic energy increasesc) Static pressure decreases and both dynamic pressure and kinetic energy will

increased) Mass flow remains constant, dynamic pressure decreases and static pressure

increases

Question 18

At speeds of less than approximately 300 kt, which of the following can be disregarded?

a) Static pressure changes due to temperatureb) Density changes due to dynamic pressurec) Density changes due to static pressured) Static pressure changes due to kinetic energy

Question 19

Lift can be defined as:

a) The aerodynamic force acting perpendicular to the upper surface of an aerofoilb) The aerodynamic force acting perpendicular to the chord line of an aerofoilc) The aerodynamic force acting perpendicular to the relative airflowd) The aerodynamic force resulting from pressure differentials about an aerofoil

Question 20

If IAS is reduced, what must be done to maintain altitude?

a) Decrease angle of attack to reduce dragb) Increase angle of attack to maintain liftc) Use speed brakes to increase dragd) Reduce thrust



Question 21

If airspeed is doubled and other factors remain constant, lift will be:

a) The sameb) Two times greaterc) Four times greaterd) One quarter

Question 22

A wing with a symmetrical aerofoil section is set at zero angle of incidence, will produce in level flight:

a) The same amount of lift on both the upper and lower surfacesb) More lift on the upper surface c) More lift on the lower surfaced) Zero lift

Question 23

The ……. is defined as: “a line connecting the leading and trailing edge midway between the upper and lower surface of an aerofoil”:

a) Chord lineb) Upper camber linec) Mean aerodynamic chord lined) Camber line

Question 24

When an aeroplane is in ground effect:

a) Drag and lift are both increasedb) Drag is increased, lift is decreasedc) Drag is decreased, lift is increasedd) Drag and lift are both decreased



Question 25

For an aeroplane in level flight, induced drag would be:

a) Greater with a high aspect ratiob) Less with a high aspect ratioc) Unaffected by aspect ratiod) Less at a higher weight

Question 26

An increase in IAS for an aeroplane in level flight will mean that:

a) Parasite drag will decrease and induced drag will increaseb) Parasite drag will increase and induced drag will decreasec) Both parasite and induced drag will increased) Both parasite and induced drag will decrease

Question 27

The airflow over a wing at a high angle of attack causes:

a) An increase in speed and an increase in pressure over the upper surface and an increase in speed and an increase in pressure over the lower surface.

b) An increase in speed and a decrease in pressure over the upper surface and a decrease in speed and an increase in pressure over the lower surface.

c) A decrease in speed and a decrease in pressure over the upper surface and an increase in speed and a decrease in pressure over the lower surface.

d) A decrease in speed and an increase in pressure over the upper surface and a decrease in speed and an increase in pressure over the lower surface.

Question 28

If the weight of an aeroplane is increased:

a) Parasite drag increases more than induced dragb) Induced drag increases more than parasite dragc) Induced drag and parasite drag increase equallyd) Induced drag and parasite drag decrease equally



Question 29

In which configuration would a large, heavy jet transport aeroplane create the largest wake turbulence?

a) Slow with undercarriage and flap downb) Slow with undercarriage and flap upc) Fast with undercarriage and flap downd) Fats with undercarriage and flap up




JAR-FCL PRICIPLES OF FLIGHT

STUDY PERIOD 2 Stalling, Spinning, Lift Augmentation (8 Hours)

Reference: Principles of Flight (A) (Volumes 12 &12A)

Study: Chapters 7 to 9, Chapter 11 and Chapter 17 (paras 17.2, 17.3 & 17.45)Chapter 19 (para 19.5)



Question 1

If the stalling speed in a 15 bank turn was 60 kt, what would be the stalling speed in a 45bank turn?

a) 83 Ktb) 70 Ktc) 85 Ktd) 69 Kt

Question 2

What happens if the CG moves forward to the forward limit?

a) VS increases, stall angle remains constantb) VS increases, stall angle increasesc) VS decreases, stall angle remains constantd) VS decreases, stall angle increases



Question 3

An aircraft whose weight is 237402 N stalls at 132 Kt. At a weight of 356103 N it would stall at:

a) 88 Ktb) 162 Ktc) 108 Ktd) 172 Kt

Question 4

Which of the following is the correct VA and VS relationship?

a) VA = VS1g nb) VS1g = VA nc) VA = VS1g x n2

d) VA = VS1g x n

Question 5

What causes a swept wing aircraft to pitch up at the stall?

a) Negative camber at the rootb) Separated airflow at the rootc) Forward movement of the CPd) Rearward movement of the CP

Question 6

In a level turn, the stalling speed:

a) Increases with flap extensionb) Increases with the square root of the load factorc) Decreases with increasing bank angled) Increases with the square of the load factor

Question 7

If a lateral disturbance affects an aircraft at the stalling angle:

a) The downgoing wing will normally stall firstb) The upgoing wing will normally stall firstc) The effect will depend on aircraft speedd) Both wings will stall at the same moment if the taper ratio is unity



Question 8

The stalling speed of an aircraft in a turn is equal to:

a) The basic stalling speed multiplied by the angle of bankb) The basic stalling speed multiplied by the load factorc) Basic stalling speed multiplied by the square root of the load factord) Basic stalling speed multiplied by the cosine of the angle of bank

Question 9

If a leading edge flap is extended:

a) CLMAX is increased and the CP moves to the rearb) CLMAX is decreased and the CP moves forwardc) CLMAX remains constant and the CP moves forwardd) CLMAX increases and the CP moves forwards

Question 10

Down selection of a trailing edge flap to the maximum lift position results in:

a) A better L/D ratiob) A reduced L/D ratioc) A forward movement of the CPd) A slightly decreased static margin

Question 11

Upon extension of Fowler-type trailing edge lift augmentation devices, whilst maintaining the same angle of attack:

a) CL is increased, while CD remains unaffectedb) CL and CD are increased c) CD is decreased, while the centre of lift shifts aftd) CL is increased, while the centre of lift shifts forward

Question 12

Which of the following speeds would activate the stick shaker?

a) 1.5 VS

b) 1.05 VS

c) 1.2 VS

d) 1.12 VS



Question 13

Following the deployment of leading edge slats:

a) The boundary layer is re-energised and the CP moves forward on to the slatb) The boundary layer is re-energised and the CP moves forward towards the wing

leading edgec) The boundary layer is de-energised and the CP moves forward on to the slatd) The boundary layer is de-energised and the CP moves forward towards the wing

leading edge

Question 14

A 19% reduction in weight will make VS:

a) 10% lowerb) 10% higherc) 0.9% lowerd) Reduce by a factor of 0.9

Question 15

The stalling speed of an aeroplane in level flight is 100 Kt. The stalling speed in a level turn with a load factor of 1.5 would be:

a) 150 Ktb) 141 Ktc) 122 Ktd) 82 Kt

Question 16

An increase in engine power will have the result that the stalling:

a) Speed will be increasedb) Angle will be increasedc) Speed will be reducedd) Angle will be reduced



Question 17

The primary function of a flap is to:

a) Alter the lift of an aerofoil.b) Alter the position of the centre of gravity.c) Trim the aircraft longitudinally.d) Increase the angle of attack at which the aerofoil will stall.

Question 18

During the autorotative phase of a spin:

a) The downgoing wing is partially stalled and the upgoing wing fully stalled.b) Both wings are fully stalled.c) The downgoing wing is fully stalled and the upgoing wing partially stalled.d) Both wings are partially stalled

Question 19

The primary purpose of leading edge high-lift devices is to:

a) Increase stalling speedb) Increase stalling anglec) Decrease stalling speedd) Decrease stalling angle

Question 20

A stall warning device is sensitive to:

a) TAS and angle of attack b) The stalling speedc) IAS and angle of incidenced) Angle of attack

Question 21

An aircraft has a basic stalling speed of 115 Kt. In a 3g turn, the new stalling speed will be:

a) 186 Kt.b) 149 Kt.c) 210 Kt.d) 199 Kt.



Question 22

The wing is twisted so that the tip is at a smaller angle of incidence than the root. This is to try to ensure that the wing will:

a) Stall at the root end firstb) Stall at the wing tip firstc) Stall simultaneously across the complete spand) None of the above

Question 23

With a reduction of aircraft weight:

a) The stalling angle increasesb) The induced drag increases c) The stalling speed decreasesd) The profile drag decreases

Question 24

The stalling angle of a wing will reduce with:

a) Increased IASb) Increased altitudec) Trailing edge flap deflectiond) Slotted leading edge flap deflection

Question 25

Entering the stall, the center of pressure of a straight wing will …… and of a strongly swept wing will …… :

a) Move aft move aftb) Move aft not movec) Move aft move forwardd) Not move move forward



Question 26

By what approximate percentage will the stall speed increase in a horizontal coordinated turn with a bank angle of 45º?

a) 31%b) 19%c) 52%d) 41%

Question 27

If flaps are deployed but airspeed is maintained constant, in order to maintain level flight:

a) The aircraft's nose must be lowered.b) The aircraft's nose must be raised.c) The aircraft's nose attitude must remain constant.d) The aircraft's nose attitude will depend on the load applied to the tailplane.

Question 28

Lowering the flaps on the approach allows:

a) A higher speed to be maintained.b) A lower speed to be maintained. c) The aircraft to sink at a greater rate.d) An increase in the speed at which the aircraft can land safely.

Question 29

The type of flap that increases wing area is:

a) A split flapb) A fowler flapc) A plain flapd) An extending flap

Question 30

If the flaps on an aircraft are lowered asymmetrically, this will cause:

a) A pitching, rolling and yawing moment.b) A nose up pitching moment. c) A nose down pitching moment. d) A pitching and yawing moment.



Question 31

The effect of frost, snow or ice on an aeroplane will be to:

a) Increase the stalling speedb) Decrease the stalling speedc) Increase the stalling angle of attackd) Decease the stalling angle of attack





STUDY PERIOD 3 Flight Controls, Level Flight, Climbing Flight (8 Hours)


Study: Chapters 5 and 6, Chapter 10 (para 10.7), and Chapters 14 and 15



Question 1

Control effectiveness varies with:

a) Stick forceb) Load factorc) V2

d) 1 V2

Question 2

Roll control is:

a) By the elevator about the lateral axisb) By ailerons about the longitudinal axisc) By the rudder about the longitudinal axisd) By the rudder about the normal axis



Question 3

The hinge moment experienced when a non-powered control surface is deflected is:

a) Due entirely to the force acting through the centre of pressureb) A product of the lift force produced by deflection and dynamic pressurec) A product of the lift force and the distance from the control surface hinged) A maximum when the lift force acts through the hinge itself

Question 4

Aerodynamic balance on control surfaces:

a) Alleviates any tendency of the surface to flutterb) Produces slightly heavier forces, which appear to increase the control surface

effectivenessc) Will decrease hinge moments on the surfacesd) Must be used on every aircraft

Question 5

Differential ailerons are provided to:

a) Reduce roll due to yawb) Increase the rate of rollc) Reduce the forces on the ailerons when rollingd) Reduce adverse yaw due to roll

Question 6

For a given IAS and aileron deflection:

a) The rate of roll at high altitude will decrease because of lower densityb) Control forces will be lighter as altitude increasesc) The rate of roll remains unaffected by changes in altituded) The rate of roll will be higher at altitude because of lower damping forces



Question 7

If a trim tab on an elevator is adjusted for level flight:

a) The tab will automatically re-adjust its position of balance when the elevator is moved

b) The tab will not move, relative to the elevator, with further elevator movement until the aircraft is re-trimmed

c) The tab will move to neutral with further elevator movementd) If the elevator is moved, the tab must always be re-adjusted

Question 8

Overbalance of a control surface may occur if:

a) The control surface CP moves forward of the hinge lineb) The balance tab becomes inoperativec) Too much control deflection is applied at low speedsd) In the case of a horn balance, the area of the horn is too small

Question 9

One method to compensate adverse aileron yaw is:

a) A balance tabb) An anti balance tabc) A differential ailerond) A balance panel

Question 10

A jet aeroplane equipped with spoilers and inboard and outboard ailerons is cruising at its normal cruise Mach number. In this case:

a) The inboard ailerons are active; the spoilers may be activeb) The inboard and outboard ailerons are activec) Only the spoilers will be active, not the aileronsd) Only the outboard ailerons are active



Question 11

In flight with the elevator and trim tab in line (neutral):

a) An up selection of the tab causes the tailplane to move downb) A down selection of the elevator will have no effect on the tabc) The tab will move up on a down selection of the elevatord) The tab will remain in neutral until a high load is applied to the elevator

Question 12

Why is it necessary to disconnect nose wheel steering when establishing VMCG?

a) If the take off is abandoned after the nose wheel is lifted, there will be no loss of control

b) To take account of slippery runway conditionsc) To prevent weathercocking in a crosswindd) Only primary controls are allowed to be used

Question 13

If left rudder is applied, the aeroplane will:

a) Roll left and yaw rightb) Yaw left and roll leftc) Yaw left and roll rightd) Yaw left only, with no roll

Question 14

For an aeroplane in unaccelerated level flight:

a) Lift equals weight, thrust is greater than dragb) Lift is less than weight, thrust is greater than dragc) Lift equals weight, thrust equals dragd) Lift is less than weight, thrust is less than drag

Question 15

If an aeroplane is in unaccelerated level flight and the tailplane is producing a download, the CP of the mainplane must be located:

a) Behind the CGb) Forward of the CGc) On the CGd) At the aerodynamic centre



Question 16

Regarding the speed stability of an aeroplane:

a) An aeroplane is stable below VMD because total drag decreases with a decrease in speed

b) An aeroplane is stable above VMD because total drag increases with an increase in speed

c) An aeroplane is unstable below VMD because total drag decreases with a decrease in speed

d) An aeroplane is unstable below VMD because thrust decreases with a increase in speed

Question 17

In a climb at a steady speed, the thrust is:

a) Less than the dragb) Exactly equal to the dragc) Greater than the drag plus the weight component along the flight pathd) Equal to the drag plus the weight component along the flight path

Question 18

For an aircraft to maintain a steady climb:

a) The thrust must equal the weight component along the flight path, and the lift must equal the sum of the drag and weight component that is perpendicular to the flight path

b) The thrust must equal the sum of the drag and the weight component along the flight path, and the lift must equal the weight component perpendicular to the flight path

c) The thrust must equal the weight component perpendicular to the flight path, and the lift must equal the weight

d) The thrust must equal the weight component along the flight path and the lift must equal the weight component perpendicular to the flight path

Question 19

The speed for the best rate of climb (VY), is obtained when:

a) Excess power is at maximumb) Excess power and drag are at a minimumc) Excess power and rate of climb are both reducedd) Excess power is increased but rate of climb is reduced



Question 20

If the ambient air temperature is higher than ISA, the service ceiling will be:

a) Lower than in ISA conditionsb) Higher than in ISA conditionsc) The same as in ISA conditionsd) As in any of the above answers depending on the density deviation correction

Question 21

If the all-up weight of an aeroplane is increased in a climb:

a) Excess power and rate of climb are both increasedb) Excess power is reduced but rate of climb is increasedc) Excess power and rate of climb are both reducedd) Excess power is increased but rate of climb is reduced

Question 22

Maximum rate of climb (VY) will give:

a) Maximum altitude in the shortest distanceb) Maximum altitude in the shortest timec) Minimum height in the shortest distanced) Maximum height in the shortest time and distance

Question 23

A headwind will make the climb gradient:

a) Steeper, with a higher rate of climbb) Steeper, with no change to the rate of climbc) Less steep, but with a higher rate of climbd) The same as in still air





STUDY PERIOD 4 Descending Flight, Manoeuvre, Load Factor (6 Hours)


Study: Chapter 13 (para 13.1) and Chapters 16 to 18



Question 1

To obtain the best range when gliding, the gliding speed should be:

a) As close to the stalling speed as possibleb) The speed that produces the best lift to drag ratioc) The highest possible speed available for normal operationsd) As close to the minimum power speed as possible

Question 2

If the all-up weight of an aircraft is decreased, then the maximum gliding range of that aircraft:

a) Remains the same but at a higher speedb) Is decreasedc) Is increasedd) Remains the same



Question 3

Best gliding range is obtained with:

a) The wing at a high angle of attack, at the maximum CL

b) The wing at a small angle of attack, at the maximum L/D ratioc) The wing at a small angle of attack, at the minimum L/D ratiod) The wing at a high angle of attack, at the minimum CL

Question 4

In a steady descent using power and at a constant speed, thrust is:

a) Greater than dragb) Greater than drag plus the weight component along the flight pathc) Exactly equal to dragd) Less than drag

Question 5

In a steady glide, the lift force is:

a) Equal to the weightb) More than the weightc) Less than the weightd) Dependent on the best lift to drag ratio obtained

Question 6

Which of the following will result in the maximum distance covered over the ground when gliding?

a) Headwindb) Tailwindc) Increased weightd) Decreased weight



Question 7

The distance travelled by an aeroplane in a glide over the ground will be affected by the wind and:

a) CL maxb) Weightc) Weight and power loadingd) L/D ratio

Question 8

If trailing edge flaps are selected for a glide, compared with a clean aeroplane:

a) The glide angle will be less and the best gliding speed will be higherb) The glide angle will be less and the best gliding speed will be lowerc) The glide angle will be greater and the best gliding speed will be lowerd) The glide angle will be greater and the best gliding speed will be higher

Question 9

During a correctly balanced turn:

a) The lift force provides a centripetal force and a force which opposes the weight of the aircraft

b) The lift force balances the weight of the aircraft c) The lift force is balanced by the centrifugal force d) The apparent weight of the aircraft is balanced by the centripetal force

Question 10

The load factor of an aircraft in a level 60o banked turn is

a) 4b) 1.414c) 2d) 1.15

Question 11

In a steady turn at constant height

a) The rate of turn depends upon TAS and angle of bankb) The rate of turn depends upon weight, TAS and angle of bankc) The radius of turn depends upon weight and load factord) The radius of turn depends solely upon load factor



Question 12

Dividing lift by weight gives:

a) Lift/drag ratiob) Wing loadingc) Load factord) Aspect ratio

Question 13

An aircraft is in straight and level flight at a CL of 0.35; a 1 increase in angle of attack would increase the CL by 0.079. Following a vertical gust, which gave a 2 increase in angle of attack, what increase in load factor would result?

a) 1.45b) 4.43c) 0.175d) 0.45

Question 14

What percentage increase in lift is required to maintain altitude in a 45º bank turn?

a) 19%b) 41%c) 50%d) 10%

Question 15

At a true airspeed of 300 kts, what turn radius would be achieved in a 45ºbank turn (g = 10m/s2)?

a) 23870 mb) 2387 mc) 25675 md) 9000 m



Question 16

Two aircraft are flying at the same speed and the same angle of bank; one aircraft is heavier than the other. Which of the following statements is correct?

a) The heavier aircraft will have a larger radius of turnb) The heavier aircraft will have a smaller radius of turnc) Both aircraft will have the same radius of turnd) Radius of turn depends on altitude: at high altitude the heavier aircraft will have the

larger radius

Question 17

What action must the pilot take to maintain altitude and airspeed when turning in a jet aircraft?

a) Decrease the turn radiusb) Increase angle of attackc) Increase thrustd) Increase angle of attack and thrust

Question 18

The lift of an aeroplane in level flight is 50 kN. In a level turn at 45º bank the lift would be increased to:

a) 50 kNb) 60 kNc) 70 kNd) 80 kN

Question 19

For an aeroplane to maintain a constant radius of turn with an increase in speed:

a) The bank angle must be increasedb) The bank angle remain the samec) The bank angle must be decreasedd) The bank angle will remain the same but the G loading will increase



Question 20

To make a rate 1 turn:

a) There is only one correct speed and bank angleb) Any speed may be used, but there is only one correct bank anglec) There is only one correct speed but with any bank angled) Any speed may be used but the bank angle must increase with higher speed

Question 21

Maximum glide range depends on wind and:

a) CLmax

b) (CL/CD)minc) Speed for minimum powerd) L/D ratio, which varies according to angle of attack

Question 22

Which point marks the value for minimum sink rate?

a) Point Db) Point Ac) Point Bd) Point C


D

C

B

A

CL

CD




STUDY PERIOD 5 Stability (6 hours)


Study: Chapter 8 (para 8.2.2.) and Chapter 10


SELF ASSESESSED TEST 5

Question 1

One of the requirements for dynamic stability is:

a) Positive static stabilityb) A small CG rangec) A large deflection range of the stabiliser trimd) Effective elevator

Question 2

If an aircraft is statically unstable it:

a) Can never be dynamically stableb) Will always be dynamically stablec) May or may not be dynamically stable, depending on the type of aircraftd) Will only be dynamically stable at high speeds

Question 3

The static margin is:

a) The distance between the CG and the neutral pointb) The distance between the CG and the CPc) The distance between the aerodynamic centre and the CPd) The distance between the aerodynamic centre and the CG



Question 4

If the lift/weight couple is greater than the thrust/drag couple, and the Centre of Gravity is forward of the Centre of Pressure, the tailplane is required to produce:

a) A neutral loadb) An uploadc) No loadd) A download

Question 5

Which of the following components provides longitudinal stability?

a) Enginesb) Wingsc) Fuselaged) Horizontal stabiliser

Question 6

The longitudinal stability of an aeroplane is increased when:

a) The Centre of Gravity is aft of the Centre of Pressureb) The Centre of Gravity is coincident with the Centre of Pressurec) The Centre of Gravity is forward of the Centre of Pressured) The Centre of Gravity is coincident with the aerodynamic centre

Question 7

For a public transport aeroplane, what is the position of the CG in relation to the neutral point when the CG is on the aft limit?

a) On the neutral pointb) Just behind the neutral pointc) Above the neutral pointd) In front of the neutral point



Question 8

The stick force gradient can be described as:

a) The force required to hold the aeroplane in a particular pitch attitudeb) The force required to change the load factor of the aeroplane by a given amountc) Due to dynamic pressured) The force supplied by a Q-feel system

Question 9

The forward movement of an aircraft's C of G will result in:

a) Lighter stick forces in the 'nose up' senseb) Less stability in yawc) An increased elevator deflection to achieve level flightd) A lower stalling speed

Question 10

Stability in yaw will be enhanced by:

a) A lesser static marginb) A greater static marginc) Longitudinal dihedrald) A greater keel surface forward of the C of G

Question 11

What effect does a ventral fin have on:

Longitudinal stability Directional stability Lateral stabilitya) No effect Increases Decreasesb) No effect Decreases Increasesc) Decreases Increases No effectd) No effect Increases Increases

Question 12

The effect of a swept wing is to give:

a) Adverse dihedral effectb) Positive dihedral effectc) Increased yaw effectd) Adverse yaw effect



Question 13

Which of the following wing characteristics would have the greatest restoring effect if the aeroplane were disturbed in roll?

a) A straight wingb) A swept back wingc) Wingletsd) A wing with dihedral

Question 14

An aircraft may be constructed with dihedral to provide:

a) Longitudinal stability about the lateral axisb) Lateral stability about the normal axis c) Longitudinal stability about the normal axisd) Lateral stability about the longitudinal axis

Question 15

At a constant IAS, what effect will increasing altitude have on damping in roll?

a) It will remain the sameb) It will decrease because density decreasesc) It will increase because the ailerons are less effectived) It will increase because the TAS increases

Question 16

When trailing edge flaps are lowered:

a) Longitudinal stability is decreasedb) Directional stability is decreasedc) Lateral stability is decreased d) Directional and lateral stability are decreased

Question 17

Directional stability is enhanced by:

a) Reducing the fin sizeb) Wing dihedralc) Moving the CG aftd) Increasing the fin size



Question 18

If the CG is moved to the rear:

a) Lateral stability will be increasedb) Longitudinal stability will be increasedc) Directional stability will be reducedd) Stability will be unaffected

Question 19

Which of the following conditions would cause a spiral dive?

a) When directional static stability is greater than longitudinal static stabilityb) When lateral static stability is greater than directional static stabilityc) When longitudinal static stability is less than lateral static stabilityd) When directional static stability is greater than lateral static stability

Question 20

The tendency of an aircraft to Dutch Roll following a lateral disturbance is caused by:

a) Directional stability being greater than lateral stabilityb) Lateral stability being greater than directional stabilityc) Longitudinal stability being greater than lateral stabilityd) Lateral stability being greater than longitudinal stability

Question 21

An aircraft with which of the following wing characteristics would be least affected by turbulence?

a) Straight wingsb) Swept back wingsc) Wingletsd) Wings with dihedral



Question 22

When considering the effect of a swept wing on stability with an increase in altitude, which of the following statements is correct?

a) Increase lateral static stability and decrease lateral dynamic stabilityb) Decrease lateral static stability and increase lateral dynamic stabilityc) Lateral static stability and lateral dynamic stability would be reducedd) Lateral static stability would be increased, but lateral dynamic stability would

remain the same

Question 23

If the CG is towards the forward limit for take-off, when compared to the aft limit:

a) VMCG is higher due to increased fin armb) Elevator stick force is lighter because of increased tailplane armc) The elevator stick force to rotate the aircraft to the correct pitch attitude for take-off

would be the same because the aircraft rotates about the main landing gear when on the ground.

d) Elevator stick force would be higher when rotating the aircraft for take-off

Question 24

Which is the advantage of rear mounted engines?

a) Easier engine accessb) Decreased liability for wing flutterc) Lighter wing constructiond) Less effect of thrust changes on longitudinal control



Question 25

The diagram below represents an aeroplane that is:

NOSE UP

Cm

CL

NOSE DOWN

a) Statically unstableb) Statically stablec) Statically neutrally stabled) Dynamically stable



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STUDY PERIOD 6 Transonic Flight (4 hours)

Reference: Principles of Flight (A) (Volume 12A)

Study: Chapter 10 (para 10.4), Chapter 14 (para 14.2) and Chapter 19 (paras 19.1 to19.4)



Question 1

As the temperature of the air falls with height:

a) The speed of sound remains the sameb) The speed of sound increasesc) The speed of sound is not related to air temperatured) The speed of sound reduces

Question 2

Mach number is:

a) True airspeed/local speed of soundb) Speed of sound/local air temperaturec) Local speed of sound/true airspeedd) True airspeed/indicated airspeed



Question 3

The free stream Mach number is:

a) The speed of the air as it leaves the aerofoilb) The speed of the air which gives rise to Mach 1 on the aerofoilc) The Mach number of the flow at a point unaffected by the presence of the aircraftd) The lowest speed which gives Mach 1 on the aerofoil

Question 4

The pressure waves caused by the movement of an aerofoil through the air, move at:

a) The same speed as the aerofoilb) Less than the speed of the aerofoilc) The speed of soundd) Above the speed of sound

Question 5

When the speed of the air over the top surface of the aerofoil reaches Mach 1 this is called:

a) The critical Mach numberb) The free stream Mach numberc) The critical drag rise Mach numberd) The compressible Mach number

Question 6

When the aircraft is accelerating through the transonic flight range:

a) The CP remains at the leading edgeb) The CP moves to mid chordc) The CP gradually moves forwardd) The CP moves rearward to approximately 45% chord



Question 7

What is the effect on TAS if altitude is increased to 35, 000 ft while flying at a constant Mach number?

a) Increases then decreasesb) Decreasesc) Increasesd) Increases then remains constant

Question 8

Wing sweepback will:

a) Increase lateral stability and MCRIT

b) Decrease lateral stability and MCRIT

c) Increase lateral stability and decrease MCRIT

d) Decrease lateral stability and increase MCRIT

Question 9

As an aircraft accelerates in the transonic speed range:

a) The nose will tend to pitch upb) Longitudinal stability will increasec) Lateral stability will increased) The coefficient of drag decreases

Question 10

The Mach trimming device:

a) Is sensitive to altitude and corrects the nose up trimb) Is sensitive to Mach number and corrects for nose down pitchc) Remains out of action at high Mach numbersd) Resets the trim above Mach 1

Question 11

What does the Mach trim system adjust?

a) The elevator trim tabb) Fuel shiftc) Stabiliser trimd) Longitudinal trim



Question 12

In transonic flight, the wing CP will move:

a) To the rear and require a nose down trim changeb) Forward and cause a nose up trim changec) To the rear and cause increased longitudinal stabilityd) Forward and contribute to a better L/D ratio

Question 13

“Mach tuck” may occur at:

a) High subsonic Mach numbersb) Low subsonic Mach numbersc) Only at low altitudesd) All Mach numbers

Question 14

What does the buffet onset boundary chart determine?

a) Values of MCRIT at different weights and altitudesb) Values of stall and shock stallc) Values of low speed and Mach buffet at different weights and altitudesd) Values of transonic drag coefficient

Question 15

The Mach buffet margin:

a) Increases with a decrease of altitude while maintaining a constant IASb) Remains constant at MMO

c) Decreases with a decrease of altitude while maintaining a constant Mach numberd) Increases with a increase of altitude while maintaining a constant Mach number

Question 16

In a steady climb, maintaining a constant IAS:

a) Mach number remains constant because Mach number is proportional to TAS LSS

b) Mach number remains constant because LSS is proportional to °Kc) Mach number will increased) Mach number will decrease



Question 17

When airflow passes through a shock wave, what happens to temperature and density?

a) Density decreases, temperature decreasesb) Density increases, temperature decreasesc) Density decreases, temperature increasesd) Density increases, temperature increases

Question 18

Wave drag can be minimised at high transonic speeds by:

a) Wingletsb) Thin, straight, low aspect ratio wingsc) Area ruled) Larger engine intakes

Question 19

A shock stall occurs because:

a) Airflow separates at a high angle of attack at high Mach numbersb) Airflow separates behind the shock wavec) Airflow separates at the leading edged) Airflow separates at the trailing edge

Question 20

For minimum wave drag an aeroplane should be flown at which of the following speeds?

a) High supersonicb) M 1.0c) Low supersonicd) Subsonic



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STUDY PERIOD 7 Supersonic Flight (4 hours)


Study: Chapter 19 (paras 19.2, 19.4 & 19.6)



Question 1

When an aircraft is flying at supersonic speed, where will the area of influence of any pressure disturbance due to the presence of the aircraft be located?

a) Within the mach coneb) In front of the mach conec) In front of the normal shock waved) In front of the oblique shock wave

Question 2

When an aircraft with a symmetrical aerofoil accelerates to supersonic speed, what happens to the centre of lift?

a) It moves aft towards the centre of chordb) It moves forward towards the 25% chordc) It moves forward of the 25% chordd) It moves aft of the 25% chord to the trailing edge at a speed just in excess of M 1.0



Question 3

What happens to the temperature of the airflow as it passes through an expansion wave?

a) It increasesb) It decreasesc) It remains the samed) Initially it increases slightly, then increases substantially

Question 4

What happens to the static pressure and temperature of supersonic airflow through an oblique shock wave?

a) Temperature increases and static pressure decreasesb) Static pressure increases and temperature remains almost constantc) Static pressure remains constant and temperature decreasesd) Static pressure increases and temperature increases

Question 5

When the airflow becomes supersonic, the pressure distribution on the top surface of the wing will become:

a) Rectangularb) Irregularc) The same as subsonicd) Triangular

Question 6

As air flows through an expansion wave, static pressure:

a) Increasesb) Decreasesc) Stays the samed) Initially increases then decreases, but at a higher value than before

Question 7

What happens to the LSS of airflow immediately after passing through a shockwave?

a) There is no changeb) It is lowerc) It is higherd) It is higher, then becomes lower



Question 8

How will the density and temperature change in a supersonic flow from a position in front of a shock wave to behind it?

a) Density increases and temperature decreasesb) Density increases and temperature increasesc) Density decreases and temperature increasesd) Density decreases and temperature decreases

Question 9

When air passes through an expansion wave, the local Mach number will:

a) Increaseb) Decrease then increasec) Remain the samed) Increase then decrease

Question 10

When air passes through a compression wave, the local Mach number will:

a) Decreaseb) Decrease then increasec) Remain the samed) Increase then decrease

Question 11

In the case of supersonic flow retarded by a normal shock wave, a high efficiency (low loss in total pressure) can be obtained if the Mach number in front of the shock wave is:

a) Exactly Mach 1b) Small but supersonicc) Lower than Mach 1d) High (supersonic)



Question 12

The Mach cone semi-angle:

a) Decreases up to a certain speed, then increasesb) Remains constant at all speeds above MCRIT

c) Increases with increasing speedd) Decreases with increasing speed

Question 13

The large static margin at supersonic speeds causes a ……… performance and ……… trim drag:

a) Reduced lowerb) Increased lowerc) Reduced higherd) Increased higher

Question 14

When supersonic flow enters a convergent duct it will experience ……… density and pressure and the velocity will ………:

a) Increasing decreaseb) Increasing increasec) Decreasing decreased) Decreasing increase

Question 15

When an aeroplane accelerates from subsonic to supersonic speed, the Aerodynamic Centre:

a) Moves from 25% to 50% chordb) Moves forwardc) Is unchangedd) No longer exists





STUDY PERIOD 8 Limitations, Manoeuvre Envelope (4 hours)


Study: Chapter 7 (para 7.4.4), Chapter 16Chapter 19 (paras 19.2. & 19.4)



Question 1

On what basis is VMO calculated?

a) CASb) TASc) Mach nod) EAS

Question 2

VNE is the:

a) Maximum landing gear extension speedb) Maximum flap extension speedc) Never exceed speedd) Normal operating speed



Question 3

In a descent at a constant Mach number, VMO can be exceeded because:

a) VMO is an IAS; descending at a constant Mach number requires an increase in TAS which will increase dynamic pressure

b) VMO is an IAS; descending at a constant Mach number requires an increase in TAS which will reduce dynamic pressure

c) The speed of sound will increase with decreasing altitude, thus increasing IASd) Density will increase with decreasing altitude, causing the ASI to under read

Question 4

VA is the:

a) Maximum speed at which rolls are allowedb) Speed at which a heavy transport aeroplane should fly in turbulencec) The minimum speed at which maximum elevator deflection up is allowedd) The speed that should not be exceeded in a climb

Question 5

Dividing lift by weight gives:

a) Lift/drag ratiob) Wing loadingc) Load factord) Aspect ratio

Question 6

An aeroplane is flying at a speed of 1.3 VA and full nose-up elevator deflection is applied. This is likely to:

a) Make the wing collapseb) Cause excess dynamic pressure because the aeroplane is flying so fastc) Break the aeroplaned) Possibly cause permanent deformation of the aeroplane



Question 7

Which of the following is the correct VA and VS relationship?

a) VA = VS1g nb) VS1g = VA nc) VA = VS1g x n2

d) VA = VS1g x n

Question 8

How does VNE vary with altitude?

a) Inversely with altitudeb) Directly with altitudec) Reduces at higher altitudesd) Decreases initially, then increases

Question 9

In a Vn diagram, what does the vertical line on the extreme right signify?

a) VD

b) VC

c) VMO

d) MMO

Question 10

An aircraft of 60000 kg mass has a VA of 237 kt. The positive load factor is 2.5. What would the VA be if the aircraft mass were reduced to 40000 kg due to fuel consumption in flight?

a) 150 ktb) 237 ktc) 194 ktd) 375 kt



Question 11

A jet commercial transport aeroplane is in a straight descent at a constant Mach number and at a constant weight. Which of the following operational limits may be exceeded?

a) MMO

b) VMO

c) VD

d) VNE

Question 12

Which of the following are correct gust intensity speeds at Vc at msl, 15000 ft and 50000 ft respectively?

a) 25ft/secs, 50ft/sec, 75ft/secb) 56ft/sec, 44ft/sec, 26ft/secc) 15 kts, 25 kts, 40 ktsd) 15 kts, 30 kts, 41kts

Question 13

Which of the following is a correct design gust value at Vc at 15000 ft?

a) 25 ft/sec at VA

b) 44 ft/sec at VC

c) 66 ft/sec at VD

d) 55 ft/sec at VD

Question 14

What is the positive load factor limit for large jet public transport aeroplanes?

a) 3.75b) 1.5c) 2.5d) 1.0



Question 15

Which of the following statements is correct concerning VRA?

a) VRA is usually less than VA

b) VRA is between VC and VD

c) VRA must be less than VB

d) When operating at low speeds, setting VRA may require an increase in speed

‘V’ Speeds

VA, VB, VC, VD and VF are all Design Speeds (EAS) related to the Design Manoeuvre Envelope. VRA, VNO, VMO, VNE, VFE, VLO, and VLE are all operating speeds derived from the Design Speeds.

VA The Design Manoeuvring Speed

VB The Design Speed for Maximum Gust Intensity

VRA The speed recommended for the aircraft to be flown for turbulence penetration. Not greater than the maximum gust intensity speed (VB), and less than VMO – 35kts (optimum margin between low and high-speed buffet margins).

VC The Design Cruising Speed. Sufficiently greater than VB to allow for inadvertent speed increases due to turbulence.

VNO Normal Operating Speed (MNO) – for ‘Small Aircraft’ (JAR 23). Must not be greater than the lesser of VC or 0.89VNE.

VD The Design Diving Speed

VMO Maximum Operating Speed (MMO) - for ‘Large Aircraft’ (JAR25)

VMO must not be greater than VC and must be sufficiently below VD to make it highly improbable that VD will be exceeded following an ‘upset’.

Mach No will increase with increasing height during a climb at constant VMO with the inherent danger that MMO may be exceeded

IAS will increase with decreasing height during a descent at constant MMO with the inherent danger that VMO may be exceeded

Note: For commercial transport aircraft, VNO and VMO are frequently the same.

VNE Never Exceed Speed (MNE). VNE = 0.9 VD



VF The Design Flap Speed

VFE The Maximum Speed at which it is Safe to Fly with the Flaps in the Prescribed Extended Position

VLO The Maximum Speed at which the Undercarriage may be Safely Extended or Retracted

If extension and retraction speeds are different, the 2 speeds will be designated VLO(EXT) and VLO(RET)

VLE The Maximum Speed at which the Aircraft may be flown safely with the Undercarriage Extended





STUDY PERIOD 9 Propellers, Asymmetric Flight (4 hours)

References: Principles of Flight (A) (Volumes 12 & 12A)

Study: Chapter 6 (paras 6.8.2, 6.23 & 6.24) and Chapter 12Addendum to Chapter 12 – Propellers

- Asymmetric Flight



Question 1

The plane of rotation of a propeller is defined as:

a) The plane in which the thrust force actsb) The plane in which the propeller rotatesc) The angle at which the blade strikes the aird) The plane in which the drag force acts

Question 2

The angle of attack of a propeller blade is the angle between:

a) The blade chord line and the plane of rotationb) Relative airflow and the plane of rotationc) Pressure force of the blade and the chord lined) Relative airflow and the chord line



Question 3

Centrifugal twisting moment acting on a propeller blade will:

a) Acts along the blade centrlineb) Acts around the blade centreline, trying to turn the blade to a finer pitchc) Tries to turn the blade against the direction of rotationd) Acts around the blade centrline, trying to turn the blade to a coarser pitch

Question 4

The slipstream effect on an aircraft fitted with a right-handed propeller will tend to cause the aircraft to:

a) Yaw to the leftb) Pitch nose upc) Yaw to the rightd) Pitch around its normal axis

Question 5

What is the purpose of increasing the number of propeller blades?

a) Noise reductionb) Increase power absorptionc) Increase the efficiency of the variable pitch mechanismd) Enable a longer undercarriage to be used

Question 6

Which of the following would cause gyroscopic precession of a propeller?

a) Pitch and yawb) Pitch and rollc) Increase rpm and rolld) Decrease rpm and yaw

Question 7

Which has the most drag?

a) A windmilling propellerb) A stationary propellerc) A propeller in coarse pitchd) A propeller in fine pitch



Question 8

With reference to the diagram below right, the line representing propeller torque is:

a) Eb) Dc) C Cd) A B D

A

Relative airflow

E

Question 9

During the take off roll, what effect does torque have on an aircraft with a clockwise rotating propeller?

a) Weight on left wheel decreased, weight on right wheel increasedb) Weight on left wheel increased, weight on right wheel remains constantc) Weight on left wheel increased, weight on right wheel decreasedd) Weight on right wheel increased, weight on left wheel decreased

Question 10

A variable pitch propeller operates on the principle of:

a) Oil pressure moving a pistonb) Oil pressure moving a gear trainc) A gear being operated mechanically d) An electrical service moving a gear



Question 11

Which of the following statements about a fixed pitch propeller optimised for cruise conditions is true for the take-off case?

a) The angle of attack of the propeller airfoil section is zerob) The angle of attack of the propeller blade is relatively smallc) The angle of attack of the propeller blade reduces to zerod) The angle of attack of the propeller blade is relatively high

Question 12

The CSU (Constant Speed Unit) governor works on the principle of:

a) Aerodynamic twisting movementb) Spring pressure acting against centrifugal forcec) Manual operationd) Centrifugal twisting movement

Question 13

With reference to the CSU, the term “on speed” means:

a) That the propeller speed has been controlled to that of the engineb) That the speed ratio between the propeller and the engine is correctc) That the governor weights are balanced by the opposing CSU springd) That the engine speed is not controlled by the CSU

Question 14

The booster pump in a single acting propeller constant speed unit (CSU) is used to:

a) Provide a high-pressure oil supply for feathering the propellerb) Boost the engine oil pressure to allow the CSU to move the propeller to a coarser

pitchc) Boost the engine oil pressure to allow the CSU to move the propeller to a finer

pitchd) Boost the engine oil pressure to allow the CSU to move the propeller to a coarser or

finer pitch



Question 15

When the propeller overspeeds, the governor flyweights move:

a) Inwards, causing the propeller to change to a finer pitchb) Outwards, causing the propeller to change to a finer pitchc) Inwards, causing the propeller to change to a coarser pitchd) Outwards, causing the propeller to move to a coarser pitch

Question 16

A windmilling propeller produces:

a) Drag, and rotates in the normal direction of rotationb) Lift and prevents engine rotationc) Thrust, and rotates in the normal direction of rotationd) Drag, and rotates in the opposite direction of rotation

Question 17

The reduction gear ratio is:

a) The ratio between engine and propeller revs/minb) The ratio between the blade's fine and coarse pitchc) The ratio between engine and the auxiliary gearbox assembly d) The ratio between the rpm of the crankshaft and the camshaft

Question 18

When a propeller is feathered the blade:

a) Leading edge is straight into the wind with a blade angle of 0°b) Trailing edge is straight into the wind with a blade angle of 0°c) Leading edge is straight into the wind with a blade angle of 90°d) Trailing edge is pointing in the direction of the airflow

Question 19

A propeller is operating in reverse pitch when:

a) The blade rotation is reversed to provide brakingb) The blade pitch has been increased to increase forward thrustc) The pitch angle is negative to reduce the aircraft speed on the groundd) It varies from coarse to fine pitch automatically



Question 20

For a twin-engined aircraft with two right-hand propellers, the yawing moment due to the asymmetric blade effect in the event of an engine failure would be:

a) The same whichever engine failsb) Greater if the starboard engine failsc) Greater if the port engine failsd) Balanced by the loss of torque on the failed engine

Question 21

On a twin-engined aeroplane, the yawing moment caused by a failed engine can be reduced by:

a) Reducing the thrust of the operating engineb) Increasing the thrust of the operating enginec) Rolling the aeroplane towards the operating engined) Lowering the undercarriage

Question 22

An aeroplane is maintaining altitude with the port engine inoperative and the wings level. Which of the following indications is correct?

a) Turn indicator neutral, slip indicator displaced to the leftb) Turn indicator displaced to the left, slip indicator displaced to the leftc) Turn indicator displaced to the left, slip indicator neutrald) Turn indicator neutral, slip indicator neutral

Question 23

Following the loss of the starboard engine of a twin-engine aircraft, the aircraft will yaw to ............... and will require a rudder trim tab to move ............. to zero ........ loads:

a) Starboard starboard rudder pedalb) Starboard port rudderc) Port starboard rudder pedald) Port port rudder



Question 24

If the throttle lever is retarded, the constant speed unit governor spring tension will:

a) Reduce, allowing the governor valve to move upwards to increase the propeller pitch

b) Overcome the force produced by the flyweights and the governor will move down to reduce the propeller pitch

c) Overcome the force produced by the flyweights and the governor will move down to increase the propeller pitch

d) Remain the same, allowing the valve to move upwards to increase propeller pitch



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EUROPEAN PILOT TRAINING ACADEMYJAR-FCL PRINCIPLES OF FLIGHT

SELF-ASSESSED PRACTICE PAPER

Time allowed: 1 hour 50 questions 50 marks

All questions carry equal marks

Question 1

The SI unit of density is:

a) Kg/m3

b) Psic) Kg/cm2

d) Bar

Question 2

The unit of measurement, kgm/s2, is expressed in the SI system as:

a) Jouleb) Newtonc) Pascald) Watt

Question 3

The lift force acting on an aerofoil:

a) Is mainly caused by overpressure on the lower surfaceb) Is at its maximum at a 2º angle of attackc) Is mainly caused by suction on the upper surfaced) Increases in proportion to the angle of attack until 40º



Question 4

Induced drag is proportional to:

a) 1 V

b) Vc) V2

d) 1 V2

Question 5

Which of the following shapes will cause the least drag when placed in a horizontal airflow (left to right)?

A B C D

a) Bb) Cc) Ad) D

Question 6

What is the advantage of a T-tail?

a) Lighter constructionb) Less likely to deep stallc) Clear of wing turbulenced) Allows space for central engine



Question 7

An aircraft in flight at a constant speed has a load factor of 0.4. An increase in angle of attack of 1º will increase the load factor by 0.09. The aircraft is disturbed suddenly and its angle of attack increases by 5º. What is the new load factor?

a) 0.45b) 1.09c) 0.85d) 1.45

Question 8

An aircraft has a VSO of 100 kt. At what speed should it fly in the landing configuration?

a) 110 ktb) 130 ktc) 120 ktd) 105 kt

Question 9 - Deleted

Question 10

An aircraft has its CG at its most forward limit. The variable incidence tailplane is set for maximum nose down trim. At take-off:

a) A decreased stick force will be requiredb) A decrease In take-off distance will be requiredc) An increase in rotation angle will be requiredd) An increase in stick force will be required



Question 11

Manoeuvring speed for a public transport aircraft is equal to:

a) VA = VG 3.75b) VS = VA 3.75c) VG = VS 2.5d) VA = VS 2.5

Question 12

What happens to VX and VY with increasing altitude if no other factors change?

a) Both increase b) VX increases, VY remains constant c) Both decreased) VX decreases, VY remains constant

Question 13

What happens to temperature of the airflow as it passes through an expansion wave?

a) It increasesb) It decreasesc) It remains the samed) Initially increases slightly, then increases substantially

Question 14

When an aircraft is flying at supersonic speed, where will the area of influence of any pressure disturbance due to the presence of the aircraft be located?

a) Within the Mach coneb) In front of the Mach conec) In front of the normal shock waved) In front of the oblique shock wave



Question 15

The effect of Mach trim on stick forces for power operated controls:

a) Is to maintain the required stick force gradientb) Is to decrease the stick force gradient to ensure that the pilot can manoeuvre the

aircraft adequately at high transonic Mach numbersc) Is to decrease the stick force gradient to prevent the possibility of high speed stalld) A Mach trim system is not required for an aircraft with power operated controls

Question 16

If total moments about an axis are not zero, will the result be?

a) Angular acceleration about that axisb) A force that moves the axisc) Equilibriumd) Stability

Question 17

What action must the pilot take to maintain altitude and airspeed when turning a jet aircraft?

a) Decrease the turn radiusb) Increase the angle of attackc) Increase thrustd) Increase angle of attack and thrust

Question 18

If the CG is towards the forward limit for take-off when compared to the aft limit:

a) VMCG is higher due to increased fin armb) Elevator stick force is lighter because of increased tailplane armc) Elevator stick force to rotate the aircraft to the correct pitch attitude for take-off

would be the same because the aircraft rotates about the main gear when on the ground

d) Elevator stick force would be higher when rotating the aircraft for take-off



Question 19

For minimum wave drag, an aircraft should be operated at which of the following speeds?

a) Low supersonicb) High subsonicc) M 1.0d) Subsonic

Question 20

On entering ground effect:

a) More power is requiredb) Less power is requiredc) Ground effect has no effect on powerd) Lift decreases

Question 21

Left rudder input will cause:

a) Right yaw about the normal axis and left roll about the longitudinal axisb) Left yaw about the normal axis and right roll about the longitudinal axisc) Right yaw about the normal axis and right roll about the longitudinal axisd) Left yaw about the normal axis and left roll about the longitudinal axis



Question 22

Which point on this polar diagram will give maximum glide distance?

CL D

C

B

A

CD

a) Db) Ac) Bd) C

Question 23

A normal shockwave causes the airflow to:

a) Expand as it passes the aerofoilb) Change directionc) Change from subsonic to supersonic flowd) Change from supersonic to subsonic flow

Question 24

Weight acts:

a) Perpendicular to the longitudinal axisb) Parallel to the gravitational forcec) Perpendicular to the chord lined) Perpendicular to the relative airflow



Question 25

If a mass balance is used to reduce flutter, it should be attached to a control surface:

a) On the hingeb) Behind the hingec) Above the hinged) In front of the hinge

Question 26

Manoeuvrability is best at:

a) High flap settingsb) Forward CG positionc) Aft CG positiond) Low speed

Question 27

When a Fowler flap is lowered, it moves rearward and:

a) Wing area and camber both increaseb) Wing area and camber both decreasec) Wing area and camber are both unaffectedd) Wing area increases and camber decreases

Question 28

Static pressure acts:

a) Parallel to the airflowb) Parallel to dynamic pressurec) In all directionsd) Downwards

Question 29

At a TAS of 300 kt, what would be the turn radius in a 45º bank turn, assuming g = 10m/s2?

a) 23870mb) 9000mc) 25670md) 2387m



Question 30

In which of the following locations would Krueger flaps most likely be fitted?

a) Outboard leading edgeb) Inboard leading edgec) The trailing edged) The leading edge

Question 31

Rearward movement of the CG will:

a) Give a greater tendency for spiral instabilityb) Decrease VMCG

c) Give a greater tendency to Dutch rolld) Increase the elevator stick force gradient

Question 32

For an aeroplane in straight and level flight at a constant IAS, if the density is halved, the aerodynamic drag will:

a) Increase x 4b) Increase x 2c) Remain constantd) Decrease x 4

Question 33

A clockwise rotating propeller will, during the take-off ground roll:

a) Give an increased load on the right wheel due to torque reactionb) Give an increased load on the right wheel due to gyroscopic effectc) Give an increased load on the left wheel due to torque reactiond) Give an increased load on the left wheel due to gyroscopic effect



Question 34

An aeroplane is in a glide at constant IAS with idle power set. If propeller pitch is decreased, the lift/drag ratio will:

a) Increaseb) Decreasec) Remain constantd) Increase initially, then decrease as the CSU activates

Question 35

With a feathered propeller:

a) The lift/drag ratio will be minimumb) The engine will turn over just fast enough to provide lubricationc) The best windmilling speed is achievedd) There will be minimum drag on the propeller

Question 36

What effect will an increase in IAS have on a coordinated turn while maintaining a constant angle of bank?

a) The rate of turn will decrease, resulting no changes in load factorb) The rate of turn will increase resulting a decreased load factorc) The rate of turn will increase, resulting in an increased load factord) The rate of turn will decrease, resulting in an increased load factor

Question 37

How does VNE vary with altitude?

a) Inversely with altitudeb) Directly with altitudec) Reduces at higher altitudesd) Decreases initially, then increases



Question 38

In a V-n diagram, what does the vertical line on the extreme right signify?

a) VD

b) VC

c) VMO

d) MMO

Question 39

What is depicted in this diagram?

a) Slatb) Krueger flapc) Fowler flapd) Vortex generator

Question 40

An aeroplane is in a continuous steady descent of 1000ft/min at 160 kt. Which of the following is correct?

a) L > Wb) L = Wc) L < Wd) D < total force moving the aeroplane forwards

Question 41

What is the maximum load factor of a light aeroplane in the utility category in a clean configuration?

a) 2.5b) 3.8c) 4.4d) 6.0



Question 42

In a steady climb, the climb angle depends on:

a) Thrust requiredb) Power availablec) Excess thrustd) Excess power

Question 43

In order to use maximum engine power for take-off, the propeller should be set to:

a) Fully coarse for maximum thrustb) Fully coarse for maximum RPMc) Fully fine for maximum thrustd) Fully fine for maximum RPM

Question 44

VMCL can be limited by:i) engine failure on take-offii) roll rate

a) i) is correct, ii) is incorrectb) i) and ii) are both correctc) ii) is correct, i) is incorrectd) i) and ii) are incorrect

Question 45

An aeroplane is flying at 1.3VS. What is the CL as a percentage of the CL at VS?

a) 59%b) 77%c) 169%d) 125%



Question 46

The VA of an aeroplane of 60000 kg mass is 237 kt. The positive load factor limit (n) is 2.5. If fuel consumption in flight reduced the mass to 40000 kg, what would the VA

become?

a) 150 ktb) 237 ktc) 194 ktd) 375 kt

Question 47

Mass balance weights are located:

a) Always on the hinge line, irrespective of the type of aerodynamic balanceb) On the hinge line if the control surface does not have an inset hingec) On the hinge line if the control surface has an inset hinged) In front of the hinge line

Question 48

When a jet aeroplane enters or straightens up from a turn, what device ensures correct response?

a) Vortex generatorsb) Yaw damperc) Roll control spoilersd) Dorsal fin

Question 49

Which of the following is the correct relationship?

a) VA = VS1g nb) VS1g = VA nc) VA = VS1g n2

d) VA = VS1g n



Question 50

In the transonic range, lift will decrease when shock stall occurs because:

a) Of the separation of the boundary layer at the shock waveb) Of the attachment of the shock wave on the trailing edge of the wingc) Of the appearance of the bow waved) MCRIT is reached





STUDY PERIOD 1 DEFINITIONS, BASIC PRINCIPLES, LIFT AND DRAG


SELF ASSESSED TEST 1: ANSWERS

Question 1: C Reference: Ch 1, para 1.7.1

Question 2: D Reference: Ch 1, para 1.7.2


Question 4: B Reference: Ch 1, para 1.7.3

Question 5: D Reference: Ch 1, page 6 Definitions


Question 7: A Reference: Ch 1, para 1.2.3




Question 11: B Reference: Addendum to Chap 1 – Airspeed Indicator – paras 1.2 & 1.2

Question: 12 D Reference: Ch 2, para 2.6. Addendum to Chap 1 – Airspeed Indicator –

para 1.6

Question: 13 C Reference: Addendum to Chap 1 – Airspeed Indicator – para 1.3

Question 14: B Reference: Addendum to Chap 1 – Airspeed Indicator – para 1.2

Question 15: D Reference: Ch 1, para 1.5



Question 16: B Reference: Ch 1, paras 1.6.1 to 1.6.3

Question 17: C Reference: Ch 1 para 1.6.2

Question 18: B Reference: Addendum Ch 1, para 1.7

Question 19: C Reference: Ch 2 para 2.4.1

Question 20: B Reference: Ch 2, paras 2.6 & 2.7

Question 21: C Reference: Ch 2, para 2.7


Question 23: D Reference: Ch 1, para 1.8.4.2



Question 26: B Reference: Ch 3, para 3.5.3, Ch 4, para 4.4.1



Question 29: B Reference: Ch 13, para 13.4




JAR-FCL PRICIPLES OF FLIGHT

Study Period 2 STALLING, SPINNING, LIFT AUGMENTATION

Reference: Principles of Flight (A) (Volumes 12 &12A)


Question 1: B Reference: Ch 7, para 7.4.5; Ch 17, paras 17.2 & 17.3



Use the equation: Vs at new weight = Vs at old weight (New weight / Old weight)

Question 4: A Reference: Ch 7, para 7.4.5; Ch 16, para 16.3

VA is the design manoeuvring speed and the relationship between that and the stalling speed, VS1g, uses the formula for calculating stalling speed in a turn.


Question 6: B Reference: Ch 7, para 7.4.4; Ch 17, paras 17.2 & 17.3

Question 7: A Reference: Ch 11, para 11.1

Question 8: C Reference: Ch 17, para 17.2 and 17.3
















Use the equation: Vs at 3g = Vs1g √(3)




Question 25: C Reference: Ch 7, paras 7.2.4 & 7.3.5






A flap deployment on one side only will cause an increase in lift on that side, which will produce a rolling motion. In addition, drag will increase causing both a yaw in the opposite direction to the roll and obvious control problems.

Question 31: A and D Reference: Ch 9, paras 9.2.1 & 9.2.4





STUDY PERIOD 3 FLIGHT CONTROLS, LEVEL FLIGHT, CLIMBING FLIGHT




Question 2: B Reference: Ch 6, paras 6.3, 6.14

Question 3: C Reference: Ch 6,para 6.5, 6.6

Question 4: C Reference: Ch 6, paras 6.6, 6.10

Question 5: D Reference: Ch 6, paras 6.15, 6.16

Question 6: D Reference: Ch 6, para 6.14; Ch 10, para 10.7
























STUDY PERIOD 4 DESCENDING FLIGHT, MANOEUVRE, LOAD FACTOR













In a level turn the load factor n = 1/CosAOB

Cos 600 = 0.5 so at 600 AOB the load factor n = 1/0.5 = 2.




To find increase in Load Factor, multiply increase in CL by increase in angle of attack, then express result as percentage of CL for level flight.

2 x 0.079 = 0.158, which is 45% of 0.35



LF increase = 0.45

Question 14: B Reference: Ch 16, paras 16.2 and 17.2


Remember that for a given angle of bank (), the radius of turn is determined solely by airspeed, thus tan = V 2

g x radiusTherefore radius = V 2

g tan

Convert airspeed to m/sec to determine radius in metres.


Radius of turn is proportional to V2 and inversely proportional to g and tan angle of bank. Thus at a constant angle of bank, weight will not affect the radius of turn.


Question 18: C Reference: Ch 16, paras 16.2 and 17.2



Question 21: D Reference: Ch 13, paras 13.1 and 18.2

Question 22: D Reference: Ch 13, paras 13.1 and 18.2





STUDY PERIOD 5 STABILITY


















Question 16: C Reference: Ch 8, para 8.2.2; Ch 10, para 10.6
















STUDY PERIOD 6 TRANSONIC FLIGHT









Question 7: B Reference: Ch 19, para 19.4; Ch 14, para 14.2


Question 9: B Reference: Ch 19, paras 19.2, 19.4; Ch 10, para 10.4


















STUDY PERIOD 7 SUPERSONIC FLIGHT
















Question 14: A Reference: Ch 19, para 19.




INTRNTIONALLY BLANK





STUDY PERIOD 8 LIMITATIONS, MANOEUVRE ENVELOPE



Question 1: D Reference: Ch 16, para 16.3; Ch 19, para 19.2


Question 3: A Reference: Ch 16, para 16.3; Ch 19, para 19.2




Question 7: A Reference: Ch 16, paras 16.2, 16.3

VS1g is the speed at which the aeroplane develops lift equal to its weight. It is VS factored to allow for the excess of weight over lift during the stall. Moving beyond the maximum lift line on the Vn diagram is, in fact, stalling in a manoeuvre.

Question 8: C Reference: Ch 16, para 16.3; Ch 19, para 19.2

At higher altitudes, VNE would change to MNE, as speed limitations are given as (constant) Mach numbers. Any corresponding IAS will therefore decrease with increasing altitude.




Question 10: C Reference: Ch 16, paras 16.2, 16.3; Ch 7, para 7.4.4

Reduced stalling speed due to reduced weight.New VA = original VA x √(new weight ÷ original weight)

VA = 237 40000 60000

= 194 kt

Question 11: B Reference: Ch 16, para 16.3, Ch 19, paras 19.2, 19.4


The standard gust speeds when flying at Vc were amended to 56 ft/sec at msl, 44 ft/sec at 15000 ft, and 26 ft/sec at 50000 ft in 2006.


The standard gust speeds when flying at Vc were amended to 56 ft/sec at msl, 44 ft/sec at 15000 ft, and 26 ft/sec at 50000 ft in 2006.







STUDY PERIOD 9 PROPELLERS, ASYMMETRIC FLIGHT

References: Principles of Flight (A) (Volumes 12 & 12A)Addendum to Chap 12 - Propellers




Question 3: B Reference: Ch 12, para 12.1; Addendum to Chap 12 – Propellers para 8.5


Question 5: B Reference: Ch 12, para 12.2; Addendum to Chap 12 – Propellers para 9



Question 8: C Reference: Ch 12, para 12.1; Addendum to Chap 12 – Propellers para 6


Question 10 A Reference: Addendum to Chap 12 - Propellers para 13


Question 12: B Reference: Addendum to Chap 12 – Propellers paras 14, 14.1, 14.2, 14.3

Question 13: C Reference: Addendum to Chap 12 - Propellers para 14.1

Question 14: C Reference: Addendum to Chap 12 - Propellers para 14.3Question 15: D Reference: Addendum to Chap 12 - Propellers para 14.2




Question 17: A Reference: Addendum to Chap 12 - Propellers para 12.7.4


Question 19: C Reference: Addendum to Chap 12 - Propellers para 12.7.4




If an engine has failed and the yaw is prevented with rudder and the wings are held level with aileron, it is clear that the rudder is opposing the aeroplane’s directional stability. As a result, the aeroplane is in equilibrium, but is sideslipping. As the slip indicator ball responds only to the relationship between centripetal force and gravity, it will give a false indication of no slip. The turn indicator will not indicate a turn because the wings are held level.

Question 23: A Reference: Ch 6, paras 6.8.2, 6 23

Question 24: B Reference: Ch 12 Addendum, para





SELF ASSESSED PRACTICE PAPER - ANSWERS

Question 1 AQuestion 2 BQuestion 3 CQuestion 4 DQuestion 5 BQuestion 6 CQuestion 7 CQuestion 8 BQuestion 9 DeletedQuestion 10 DQuestion 11 DQuestion 12 CQuestion 13 BQuestion 14 AQuestion 15 AQuestion 16 AQuestion 17 DQuestion 18 DQuestion 19 DQuestion 20 BQuestion 21 DQuestion 22 CQuestion 23 DQuestion 24 BQuestion 25 DQuestion 26 CQuestion 27 AQuestion 28 CQuestion 29 DQuestion 30 BQuestion 31 CQuestion 32 CQuestion 33 CQuestion 34 BQuestion 35 DQuestion 36 AQuestion 37 CQuestion 38 A



Question 39 AQuestion 40 CQuestion 41 CQuestion 42 CQuestion 43 DQuestion 44 CQuestion 45 AQuestion 46 CQuestion 47 DQuestion 48 CQuestion 49 AQuestion 50 A


P o f F Self Assessed Tests and Paper

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