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Work Smart Session - MRCP Part 1
Which one of the following cutaneous lesions is associated with
HIV infection?
(Please select 1 option)
Leucoplakia
Lichen planus
Lichen sclerosus
Plasma cell balanitis
Psoriasis
Question: 1 of 10 Time taken: 00:41 Session Analysis
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Work Smart Session - MRCP Part 1
Which one of the following cutaneous lesions is associated with
HIV infection?
(Please select 1 option)
Leucoplakia Incorrect answer selected
Lichen planus
Lichen sclerosus
Plasma cell balanitis
Psoriasis This is the correct answer
It occurs in 2-4% of healthy people. If pre-existing psoriasis
flares up for no apparent reason or middle-agedpeople develop
psoriasis for the first time, one should exclude underlying HIV
infection in those patients.
Leucoplakia is a pre-cancerous lesion whereas oral hairy
leucoplakia is a sign of immunodefiency in an HIVpositive
patient.
Lichen planus, lichen sclerosus and plasma cell balanitis are
not associated with HIV infection.
Question: 1 of 10 Time taken: 01:02
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Balanoposthitis - Basics -Aetiology - Best Practice -English
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Balanoposthitis - Basics -Aetiology - Best Practice -English
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Cutaneous Manifestationsof Rheumatic Diseases. --BAER 56 (4):
228 --Annals of the RheumaticDiseases Read article
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Work Smart Session - MRCP Part 1
Which one of the following is an AIDS defining illness?
(Please select 1 option)
Anal canal warts
Extra genital molluscum contagiosum
Multidermatomal shingles
Oesophageal candidiasis
Oral candidiasis
Question: 2 of 10 Time taken: 01:11 Session Analysis
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Which one of the following is an AIDS defining illness?
(Please select 1 option)
Anal canal warts
Extra genital molluscum contagiosum
Multidermatomal shingles
Oesophageal candidiasis Correct
Oral candidiasis
Any opportunistic infections or opportunistic malignancies are
AIDS defining illnesses.
Oesophageal candidiasis is an AIDS defining illness but oral
candidiasis is not.
Anal warts are not an opportunistic infection.
Extra genital molluscum contagiosum is also not an opportunistic
infection but frequently occurs in symptomaticHIV positive
patients.
Multidermatomal shingles is not an opportunistic infection but
if it occurs in a young person HIV infection needsto be
excluded.
Question: 2 of 10 Time taken: 01:41 Session Analysis
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Total Answered: 2
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A 28-year-old man with HIV presents with a five day history of
feeling unwell. He is a heavy smoker.
A chest radiograph showed right upper lobe consolidation. His
CD4 count was 468 cells/mm3. HIV RNA level
was 90,678 copies/ml. He is not on any antiretroviral
treatment.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
(Please select 1 option)
Bronchial carcinoma
Invasive pulmonary aspergillosis
Pulmonary tuberculosis
Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia (PCP)
Streptococcal pneumonia
Question: 3 of 10 Time taken: 01:51 Session Analysis
Score: 50%
Total Answered: 2
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Work Smart Session - MRCP Part 1
A 28-year-old man with HIV presents with a five day history of
feeling unwell. He is a heavy smoker.
A chest radiograph showed right upper lobe consolidation. His
CD4 count was 468 cells/mm3. HIV RNA level
was 90,678 copies/ml. He is not on any antiretroviral
treatment.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
(Please select 1 option)
Bronchial carcinoma
Invasive pulmonary aspergillosis
Pulmonary tuberculosis
Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia (PCP)
Streptococcal pneumonia Correct
This is typical of community-acquired pneumonia. One should
think of common infections rather than anyopportunistic infections
in HIV patients with good CD4 counts. (More than 400 cells/mm
3 is not
immunocompromised.)
It is not a typical history for bronchial carcinoma as the
history was short and radiographic changes were nottypical of
bronchial carcinoma.
Invasive pulmonary aspergillosis is unlikely in a patient with
good CD4 count. Pulmonary tuberculosis typicallycauses cavitating
lesions in a patient with a good CD4 count.
PCP commonly occurs in patients with CD4 count of less than 200
cells/mm3 and chest radiograph shows
bilateral infiltrates from the hila without any effusion or
lymphadenopathy.
Question: 3 of 10 Time taken: 02:58
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Score: 66.67%
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A rare cause of empyemain a non-immunocompromised caseand
successful combinedtreatment -- 80 (941): 185-- Postgraduate
Medical
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Work Smart Session - MRCP Part 1
Which one of the following is an oncogenic virus?
(Please select 1 option)
Hepatitis A
Human papilloma virus 6 (HPV 6)
Human papilloma virus 11 (HPV 11)
Human papilloma virus 16 (HPV 16)
Varicella zoster virus (VZV)
Question: 4 of 10 Time taken: 03:13 Session Analysis
Score: 66.67%
Total Answered: 3
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Work Smart Session - MRCP Part 1
Which one of the following is an oncogenic virus?
(Please select 1 option)
Hepatitis A
Human papilloma virus 6 (HPV 6)
Human papilloma virus 11 (HPV 11)
Human papilloma virus 16 (HPV 16) Correct
Varicella zoster virus (VZV)
HPV 16 is oncogenic and causes squamous cell carcinomas in the
oral cavity, cervix, anus and penis.
Hepatitis A is not an oncogenic virus, as it does not cause
chronic infection or cancer.
HPV 6 and 11 typically cause the majority of benign warts.
VZV causes chicken pox and herpes zoster.
Reference:Yoganathan K, Patel RN, Maitland N, McManus TJ, Calman
FM, Pozniak A. Carcinoma of the penis in an HIVpositive patient.
Genitourin Med.1995 Feb; 71 (1): 41-2.
Further reading:United Kingdom National Guideline on the
Management of Ano-genital Warts, 2007 (pdf)
Question: 4 of 10 Time taken: 03:28
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1
2
3
4
5
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Score: 75%
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Novel mechanism forimpaired nitrergicrelaxation in achalasia
--Boeckxstaens 55 (3): 304 -- Gut Read article
Oral communications -- 58(suppl 1): A3 -- Journal ofEpidemiology
CommunityHealth Read article
Recurrent conjunctivalpapilloma progressing intosquamous cell
carcinomawith change of HPV-
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A 34-year-old homosexual Caucasian man developed jaundice two
months after taking a combination ofantiretroviral drugs.
He admitted that he had had several episodes of unprotected sex
with several casual male partners. His liverfunction showed raised
bilirubin with normal transaminases and alkaline phosphatase.
What is the most likely cause of his jaundice?
(Please select 1 option)
Acute hepatitis B
Alcoholic hepatitis
Atazanavir
Efavirenz
Nevirapine
Question: 5 of 10 Time taken: 03:38 Session Analysis
Score: 75%
Total Answered: 4
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Work Smart Session - MRCP Part 1
A 34-year-old homosexual Caucasian man developed jaundice two
months after taking a combination ofantiretroviral drugs.
He admitted that he had had several episodes of unprotected sex
with several casual male partners. His liverfunction showed raised
bilirubin with normal transaminases and alkaline phosphatase.
What is the most likely cause of his jaundice?
(Please select 1 option)
Acute hepatitis B
Alcoholic hepatitis
Atazanavir This is the correct answer
Efavirenz Incorrect answer selected
Nevirapine
Atazanavir causes hyperbilirubinaemia with normal transaminases
and alkaline phosphatase (mimickingGilbert's syndrome).
Acute hepatitis B is unlikely with normal trasaminases and
alkaline phosphatase.
A mild to moderate rise in trasaminases and alkaline phosphatase
occurs in alcoholic hepatitis.
Efavirenz can cause acute hepatitis with raised levels of
transaminases.
Nevirapine causes acute hepatitis where transaminases are raised
several-fold.
Question: 5 of 10 Time taken: 04:32
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1
2
3
4
5
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Score: 60%
Total Answered: 5
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A single centre cohortexperience with a newonce daily
antiretroviraldrug -- Stebbing et al. 82(967): 343 --
PostgraduateMedical Journal Read article
New drugs for treatingdrug resistant HIV-1 --Isaac and Pillay 79
(3):176 -- SexuallyTransmitted Infections Read article
Antiretroviral treatment ofHIV infected adults --
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Work Smart Session - MRCP Part 1
Which of the following is a sign of immunodeficiency in the
mouth?
(Please select 1 option)
Gingivitis
Herpes labialis
Leucoplakia
Oral hairy leucoplakia
Oral wart
Question: 6 of 10 Time taken: 04:44 Session Analysis
Score: 60%
Total Answered: 5
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Work Smart Session - MRCP Part 1
Which of the following is a sign of immunodeficiency in the
mouth?
(Please select 1 option)
Gingivitis
Herpes labialis
Leucoplakia
Oral hairy leucoplakia Correct
Oral wart
Oral hairy leucoplakia is a sign of immunodefiency. It is due to
reactivation of Epstein-Barr virus infection.
Gingivitis is not a sign of immunodefiency.
Leucoplakia is not a sign of immunodefiency but it is a
precancerous lesion.
Herpes labialis is due to herpes simplex infection, which causes
'cold sores' in immunocompetent patients andchronic herpes labialis
in immunocompromised patients.
Oral warts can occur in healthy people. They are due to HPV
infection usually due to benign types, 6 and 11.
Question: 6 of 10 Time taken: 05:13
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5
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Score: 66.67%
Total Answered: 6
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A 32-year-old African woman with HIV presents with a two week
history of greenish, frothy, itchy vaginaldischarge.
What is the most likely cause of her discharge?
(Please select 1 option)
Candida albicans infection
Chlamydia infection
Foreign body
Gonorrhoea infection
Trichomonas vaginalis infection
Question: 7 of 10 Time taken: 05:22 Session Analysis
Score: 66.67%
Total Answered: 6
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A 32-year-old African woman with HIV presents with a two week
history of greenish, frothy, itchy vaginaldischarge.
What is the most likely cause of her discharge?
(Please select 1 option)
Candida albicans infection
Chlamydia infection
Foreign body
Gonorrhoea infection
Trichomonas vaginalis infection Correct
Trichomonas vaginalis causes itchy, frothy, greenish vaginal
discharge.
Candida albicans causes a white, curdy, itchy vaginal
discharge.
Chlamydia and gonorrhoea do not cause itchy, frothy vaginal
discharge and both can be asymptomatic.
Foreign body causes foul smelling vaginal discharge.
Further reading:
United Kingdom National Guideline on the Management of
Trichomonas vaginalis (2007) (pdf) BASHH
Question: 7 of 10 Time taken: 06:17
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Total Answered: 7
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Work Smart Session - MRCP Part 1
A 39-year-old Caucasian man with symptomatic HIV disease
developed multiple painless umbilicated papularlesions on his
face.
What is the most likely cause of his skin lesions?
(Please select 1 option)
Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
Epstein Barr virus (EBV)
Human herpes virus (HHV) 8
Human papilloma virus (HPV 16)
Pox virus
Question: 8 of 10 Time taken: 06:37 Session Analysis
Score: 71.43%
Total Answered: 7
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Work Smart Session - MRCP Part 1
A 39-year-old Caucasian man with symptomatic HIV disease
developed multiple painless umbilicated papularlesions on his
face.
What is the most likely cause of his skin lesions?
(Please select 1 option)
Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
Epstein Barr virus (EBV)
Human herpes virus (HHV) 8
Human papilloma virus (HPV 16)
Pox virus Correct
Multiple painless umbilicated papular lesions are typical of
molluscum contagiosum and are caused by poxvirus.
CMV does not cause painless papular lesions.
EBV causes Burkitt's lymphoma, non-Hodgkin's lymphoma and
primary brain lymphomas.
HHV 8 is strongly associated with Kaposi's sarcoma.
HPV 16 is associated with squamous cell carcinomas in cervix,
penis, anus and oral cavity.
Reference:Bain S, Yoganathan K. Physical Signs for the General
Practitioner. Case 51. Molluscum contagiosum. Dentalupdate. 2008;
68.
Yoganathan K, Patel RN, Maitland N, McManus TJ, Calman FM,
Pozniak A. Carcinoma of the penis in a HIVpositive patient.
Genitourin Med.1995 Feb; 71 (1): 41-2.
Question: 8 of 10 Time taken: 07:19
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The HIV-positive skinbiopsy -- Grayson 61 (7):802 -- Journal of
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AIDS related systemicnon-Hodgkin's lymphoma -- Powles et al. 76
(5): 335-- Sexually TransmittedInfections Read article
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A 46-year-old homosexual HIV positive man presents with a two
week history of weakness of his right arm andleg.
Examination reveals right hemiparesis and left cerebellar signs.
CT scan shows white matter lesions in the leftcerebellar region and
left temporoparietal area. There is no midline shift or surrounding
oedema.
Which one of the following is most likely to be found in his
cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)?
(Please select 1 option)
Positive cytomegalovirus (CMV) PCR
Positive Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) PCR
Positive herpes simplex virus (HSV) PCR
Positive human herpes virus (HHV) 8 PCR
Positive JC PCR
Question: 9 of 10 Time taken: 07:26 Session Analysis
Score: 75%
Total Answered: 8
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Work Smart Session - MRCP Part 1
A 46-year-old homosexual HIV positive man presents with a two
week history of weakness of his right arm andleg.
Examination reveals right hemiparesis and left cerebellar signs.
CT scan shows white matter lesions in the leftcerebellar region and
left temporoparietal area. There is no midline shift or surrounding
oedema.
Which one of the following is most likely to be found in his
cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)?
(Please select 1 option)
Positive cytomegalovirus (CMV) PCR
Positive Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) PCR Incorrect answer
selected
Positive herpes simplex virus (HSV) PCR
Positive human herpes virus (HHV) 8 PCR
Positive JC PCR This is the correct answer
Multifocal lesions in left cerebellar and temporoparietal white
matter areas without any mass effect orsurrounding oedema are most
likely to be due to progressive multifocal leucoencephalopathy
(PML).
JC virus causes PML in immunocompromised patients especially
when the CD4 count is below 100 cells/mm3.
CMV polymerase chain reaction (PCR) may be found in CMV
encephalitis. It is clinically not a typical feature ofCMV
encephalitis.
Positive EBV PCR indicates primary brain lymphoma where CT scan
often shows significant mass effect withsurrounding oedema.
HSV PCR may be found in HSV encephalitis which commonly affects
temporal lobes in patients with good CD4count.
HHV 8 PCR is usually associated with Kaposi's sarcoma.
Question: 9 of 10 Time taken: 09:23
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Score: 66.67%
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Progressive multifocalleucoencephalopathy andimmunosuppression
--Cuevas and Fuchs 63 (1):112 -- Annals of theRheumatic Diseases
Read article
Community-acquiredbacterial meningitis inadults -- Schut et al.
8 (1):8 -- Practical Neurology Read article
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A 67-year-old man presents after having a urine tract infection
treated and has read in a magazine that maybeit would be worth
checking a PSA.
When should his PSA be checked?
(Please select 1 option)
Check in three days' time
Check in one week
Check in two weeks
Check on this occasion
No need to check PSA
Question: 10 of 10 Time taken: 09:39 Session Analysis
Score: 66.67%
Total Answered: 9
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A 67-year-old man presents after having a urine tract infection
treated and has read in a magazine that maybeit would be worth
checking a PSA.
When should his PSA be checked?
(Please select 1 option)
Check in three days' time
Check in one week
Check in two weeks This is the correct answer
Check on this occasion Incorrect answer selected
No need to check PSA
Prostate-specific antigen ( PSA) concentrations can rise with
problems of false positives after catheterisationand particularly
urinary tract infections (UTI).
Therefore, if one has decided to check a PSA then it is
recommended that this should be measured at leasttwo weeks after a
treated UTI.
Question: 10 of 10 Time taken: 10:14
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Score: 60%
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Work Smart Session - MRCP Part 1
A 56-year-old man who has presented with chest pain, has a PSA
of 45 ng/ml (normal less than 4).
Which of the following statements is correct with respect to
this patient's management?
(Please select 1 option)
An elevated PSA is a definitive test for prostate cancer
High selenium intake is related to prostate cancer
Prostate cancer is more aggressive with increasing age
Prostate cancer is typically squamous call carcinoma
The most commonly used pathological grading system is the
Gleason score
Question: 1 of 1 Time taken: 00:23 Session Analysis
Score: 0%
Total Answered: 0
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Exam Revision Scores Community Help 26
Work Smart Work Hard Group Learning Saved Tests Revision Advice
Tagged Questions
Work Smart Session - MRCP Part 1
A 56-year-old man who has presented with chest pain, has a PSA
of 45 ng/ml (normal less than 4).
Which of the following statements is correct with respect to
this patient's management?
(Please select 1 option)
An elevated PSA is a definitive test for prostate cancer
High selenium intake is related to prostate cancer
Prostate cancer is more aggressive with increasing age
Prostate cancer is typically squamous call carcinoma
The most commonly used pathological grading system is the
Gleason score Correct
Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) may be elevated in prostatitis,
benign prostatic hyperplasia and prostatecancer.
High intake of animal fats is related to prostate cancer, as
well as low intake of selenium.
As a rule, prostate cancer is more aggressive in younger
men.
Prostate cancer is an adenocarcinoma.
The Gleason score is recommended by the American College of
Pathologists. The most well differentiatedtumours have a Gleason
score of 2, and the most poorly differentiated a Gleason score of
10.
Related Articles (BMJ)
Metastatic conventional prostatic adenocarcinoma with diffuse
chromogranin A and androgen receptorpositivity -- Roudier et al. 57
(3): 321 -- Journal of Clinical Pathology Read article
Epidural compression of the cauda equina caused by vertebral
osteoblastic metastasis of prostaticcarcinoma: resolution by
hormonal therapy -- Susuki et al. 68 (4): 514 -- Journal of
Neurology,Neurosurgery Psychiatry Read article
Acute effects of therapeutic irradiation for prostatic carcinoma
on anorectal function -- Yeoh et al. 43(1): 123 -- Gut Read
article
Question: 1 of 1 Time taken: 02:05
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Total Answered: 1
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