NIZAMS INSTITUTE OF MEDICAL SCIENCESPunjagutta, Hyderabad 500
082, A.P., India.
Set A2012 DM Cardiology
Question Booklet
Entrance Examination for Admission to Subject DM Cardiology
24 June 2012
Marks 90
Time: 1 hr: 30 min
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1 of 25
Q1. Radiofrequency catheter ablation therapy is recommended over
implantable cardioverter-defibrillator for which of the following
VT A) B) C) D) Q2. LV fascicular VT LV Scar VT VT in Arrhythmogenic
RV Dysplasia. VT in Idiopahic Dilated Cardiomyopathy.
All the following are tributaries of coronary venous sinus
except
A) B) C) D) Q3.
inferior cardiac vein posterior cardiac vein middle cardiac vein
small cardiac vein.
Renal artery stenosis may occur in all of the following except
A) B) C) D) atherosclerosis fibromuscular dysplasia Takayasu's
arteritis polyarteritis nodosa
Q4. Preferred angiographic view to evaluate ostial portion of
the left anterior descending and circumflex coranary arteries is A)
B) C) D) LAO caudal LAO cranial AP cranial RAO cranial
2 of 25
Q5. During sinus impluse activation of the atria , following is
the last part of the atrium to get activated A) B) C) D) Q6. crista
terminalis part of right atrium lower septal porion of the right
atrium superolateral part of left artium inferolateral part of left
atrium
Isomerism of left atrial appendages is associated with A) B) C)
D) anterior position of inferior vena cava trilobed lungs asplenia
atrial arrythmias
Q7.
Regarding ductus arteriosus A) B) C) D) during intrauterine life
, its diameter is smaller than that of branch arteries. functional
closure begins 24 hours after birth post natal closure is hastened
by high altitude. anatomical closure begins near pulmonary artery
and progresses towards aorta
Q8. A patient's serological report reveals HBsAg +ve, HBeAg
Negative, Anti HBe +ve, anti HBc IgM negative, HBV DNA quantitative
19,00,000 IU/ml. The diagnosis based on serology is A) B) C) D)
chronic HBsAg carrier wild type chronic HBsAg carrier with acute
exacerbation chronic HBsAg carrier with pre core mutation HBV
related acute viral hepatitis
Q9. Which of the following criteria is most likley to affect the
generalizability of the results of a clinical trial to patients
seen in routine practice A) B) C) D) Q10. enrollment criteria power
of the study selection bias randomisation strategy
In a carcinoma with unknown primary the most common histology
seen is A) B) C) D) squamous cell carcinoma neuroendocrine
histology well differentiated adenocarcinoma poorly differentiated
adenocarcinoma
3 of 25
Q11.
Regarding precordial lead V6 in ECG A) B) C) D) is located in
left 6th intercostal space is located in the same horizontal plane
as V4 is in left posterior axillary line shows ST depression in
acute lateral myocardial infarction
Q12. A patient who has undergone AICD implantation reports to
emergency room with history of multiple AICD shocks in the last one
hour. ECG done in the emergency room shows atrial fibrillation with
rapid ventricular rate. Management would be A) B) C) D) I.V
amiodarone bolus followed by infucion over 12 hours I.V adenosine
I.V verapamil Apply magnet over AICD pulse generator
Q13. Which of the following food types have a significant effect
on altering the risk of coronary heart disease 1. high fruit and
vegetable intake 2. total coffee intake 3. dairy food consumption
4. intermittent moderate alcohol consumption A) B) C) D) only 1, 2
and 3 are correct only 1 and 3 are correct only 2 and 4 are correct
only 4 is correct
Q14. A 50 year old man, an alcoholic and a smoker presents with
a 3 hours history of increasing shortness of breath and chest pain.
He started having this pain while eating, which was constant and
radiated to the back and interscapular region. He was a known
hypertensive. On examination, he was cold and clammy with a heart
rate of 130/min, and a BP of 80/40 mmHg. JVP was normal. All
peripheral pulses were present and equal. and ejection systolic
murmur was heard.Which one of the following is the most likely
diagnosis A) B) C) D) acute aortic dissection acute myocardial
infarction rupture of the esophagus acute pulmonary embolism
4 of 25
Q15. Regarding postural orthostatic tachycardia syndrome - on
upright tilt patients exhibit A) B) C) D) significant increase in
heart rate and blood pressure. significant increase in heart rate
with no significant change in BP. significant increase in heart
rate with significant fall in BP. inappropriate increase in resting
heart rates with no significant further change.
Q16. Large v waves on pulmonary capillary wedge (PCW) tracing
are seen in all of the following except A) B) C) D) papillary
muscle dysfunction rheumatic mitral regurgitation acute AR
ventricular septal defect
Q17. with
Inducible ischemia can be diagnosed by exercise testing in
symptomatic patients
A) B) C) D)
complete RBBB. WPW syndrome. complete LBBB. electronically paced
ventricular rhythm.
Q18. Assertion: during percutaneous coronary intervention
smaller ST segment changes are noticed in balloon inflations
subsequent to initial inflation Reason: ischemic preconditioning is
the proposed mechanism for cardiac protection A) Both Assertion and
Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation for
Assertion B) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is not
the correct explanation for Assertion C) Assertion is true, but
Reason is false D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true
5 of 25
Q19. Correct match of ECG pattern to the time range following
onset of myocardial infarction
1)
2)
3)
4)
A) B) C) D)
1-week , 2-hour ,3-year ,4-minute 1-minute ,2-hour ,3-year
,4-week 1-minute ,2-hour ,3-week ,4-year 1-week ,2-year ,3-minute
,4-hour
Q20. Which of the following measure/ measures is/ are highly
recommended by ACC/AHA in the treatment of patients with endstage
heart failure 1.cardiac transplantation 2. intermitent infusion of
positive inotrope agents 3. left ventricular assist device in
patients expected to survive for less than a year with medical
therapy 4. mitral valve repair for severe secondary mitral
regurgitation A) B) C) D) only 1, 2 and 3 are correct only 1 and 3
are correct only 2 and 4 are correct only 4 is correct
6 of 25
Q21. Which of the following drug/ drugs has / have the potential
to precipitate decompensation in patients with chronic heart
failure 1. allopurinol 2. rosiglitazone 3. alpha adrenergic
blockers 4. non steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs A) B) C) D) only
1,2 and 3 are correct only 1 and 3 are correct only 2 and 4 are
correct only 4 is correct
Q22. Assertion : under stress myocardial oxygen delivery
increases dominantly due to increased extraction of oxygen from
blood Reason: oxygen extraction is almost maximal under resting
conditions A) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the
correct explanation for Assertion B) Both Assertion and Reason are
true, and Reason is not the correct explanation for Assertion C)
Assertion is true, but Reason is false D) Assertion is false, but
Reason is true
Q23. A 26 year old lady came with the complaints of fever with
altered sensorium and reduced urine output of 1 week duration. On
evaluation her hemoglobin was 7 gm/dl, platelet count of
30,000/cu.mm with peripheral smear showing schistocytes.Serum
creatinine was 3mg/dl.Prothrombin time and activated partial
thromboplastin time were normal. Enzyme most likely to be deficient
in this situation is A) B) C) D) hexokinase pyruvate kinase ADAMTS
13 glucose-6 phosphate dehydrogenase
Q24.
Regarding blood supply to the cardiac conduction system all are
true except A) B) C) D) right bundle branch has dual blood supply
from RCA and LAD left anterior fascicle has dual blood supply from
LAD and RCA. left posterior fascicle has dual blood supply from LAD
and RCA. AV node is supplied by dominant coronary artery
7 of 25
Q25. Troponin - T is preferable to CPK - MB in the diagnosis of
acute myocardial infarction (MI) in the following
situation/situations 1. bedside diagnosis of acute MI 2.
postoperatively (after CABG) 3. small infarcts 4. reinfarction
after 4 days A) B) C) D) Q26. only 1, 2 and 3 are correct only 1
and 3 are correct only 2 and 4 are correct only 4 is correct
Doppler principle states that
A) change in received frequency is inversely proportional to the
velocity of blood moving towards the transducer B) change in
received frequency is directly proportional to the velocity of
blood moving towards the transducer C) change in received signal
amplitude is directly proportional to the velocity of blood moving
towards the transducer D) change in received signal amplitude is
inversely proportional to the velocity of blood moving away from
transducer Q27. In an elderly hypertensive patient with depression
which of the following drug is to be avoided A) B) C) D) sertaline
phenelzine imipramine mirtazapine
Q28.
Bosentan used for treatment of pulmonary arterial hypertension
is A) B) C) D) selective ET-A receptor antagonist both ET-A and
ET-B receptor antagonist phosphodiesterase inhibitor
prostacyclin
8 of 25
Q29. A resident doctor inserted central venous catheter for a
patient with hypotension in the emergency medicine department. The
cotton dressing stained with blood should then be placed into A) B)
C) D) Q30. yellow plastic bag red plastic bag black plastic bag
white translucent plastic bag
Which of the following is not used for bypass grafting of
coronary arteries A) B) C) D) radial artery gastroepiploic artery
ulnar artery inferior epigastric artery
Q31. Which of the following prehospital measures are acceptable
in the care of a patient with snakebite A) B) C) D) application of
splint to the bitten extremity incision and application of suction
to the bite site application of ice or poultices application of
tourniquet
Q32. Which one of the following third generation beta blockers,
is a beta-1- selective, vasodilator A) B) C) D) carvedilol
labetalol nebivolol bucindolol
Q33. Regarding adverse drug reaction of chemotherapeutic agent
which is a wrong match A) B) C) D) 5-FU- acute coronary syndrome
doxorubicin-LV dysfunction cisplatin-Hypokalemia
paclitaxel-Hypotension
9 of 25
Q34. Which of the following is/are cardiac manifestations in
primary antiphospholipid syndrome 1. pericarditis 2. non bacterial
endocarditis 3. conduction system disease 4. thrombotic coronary
artery disease A) B) C) D) Q35. only 1,2 and 3 are correct only 1
and 3 are correct only 2 and 4 are correct only 4 is correct
Regarding the definition of pulmonary arterial hypertension
1.pulmonary arterial pressure more than 25 mmHg at rest
2.pulmonary capillary wedge pressure less than 15 mmHg 3.increased
pulmonary vascular resistance 4.presence of pulmonary embolism A)
B) C) D) only 1, 2 and 3 are correct only 1 and 3 are correct only
2 and 4 are correct only 4 is correct
Q36. Mason - Likar modification of 12 lead ECG placement during
Tread mill Test causes 1. Right axis shift 2. Appearance of Q wave
in II , III , avf 3. Appearance of Q wave in a v L 4. Left axis
shift A) B) C) D) only 1,2 and 3 are correct only 1 and 3 are
correct only 2 and 4 are correct only 4 is correct
Q37.
The graft with the highest patency rate in coronary artery
bypass surgery is A) radial artery to the right coronary artery B)
left internal mammary to the left anterior descending artery C)
radial artery to the left anterior descending artery D) left
internal mammary artery to the circumflex artery
10 of 25
Q38. Patient with Primary VF (within first 24 hours) during
Acute Myocardial Infarction requires A) B) C) D) Q39. long term
amiodarone. subsequent Electrophysiologic study for inducibility of
VT. implantable Cardioverter- Defibrillator none of the above.
Given the following ECG of cyanotic child, the most likely
diagnosis is
A) B) C) D)
d-transposition if great arteries TAPVC Ebsteins anomaly
tricuspid atresia
11 of 25
Q40.
In which following conditions left atrium is not enlarged A) B)
C) D) ventricular septal defect atrial septal defect aortopulmonary
window patent ductus arteriosus
Q41.
During ventricular pressure pulses square root wave is seen in
A) B) C) D) ASD MVPS dilated cardiomyopathy constrictive
pericarditis
Q42. A 15-year old girl presented with recurrent palpitations
and central cyanosis. Auscultation revealed quadruple rhythm and
holosystolic murmur at lower left sternal border. Her
electrocardiogram is depicted below.
Most probable clinical diagnosis is A) B) C) D) Ebstein's
anomaly tricuspid atresia Eisenmenger atrial septal defect (ASD)
tetralogy of Fallot (TOF)
12 of 25
Q43.
Regarding prasugrel, a newer antiplatelet drug A) B) C) D) it is
an 5-HT2A antagonist it is shortacting is a prodrug exhibits high
inter-individual variablity in platelet response
Q44.
In Brugada syndrome VF episodes are precipitated most with A) B)
C) D) exercise. catecholamines. quinidine. fever.
Q45. A 59 year man with severe myxomatous mitral regurgitation
is asymptomatic, with a left ventricular ejection fraction of 45%
and an endsystolic diameter index of 2.9cm/m2. The most appropriate
treatment is A) B) C) D) Q46. mitral valve repair or replacement no
treatment ACE inhibitor therapy digoxin diuretic therapy
Among the atrial septal defects shown below, the darkly shaded
defect is of type
A) B) C) D)
ostium primum ostium secundum sinus venosus coronary sinus
13 of 25
Q47.
Regarding Stress ECG testing in an otherwise healthy
individual
1. diastolic pressure raises 5mm Hg at each stage 2. isolated
VPCs at peak exercise suggest left main disease 3. false negative
result more common in single vessel disease in LAD than other two
vessels 4. S-T-depression limited to recovery phase do not
generally represent false-positive response. A) B) C) D) only 1,2,
and 3 are correct only 1 and 3 are correct only 2 and 4 are correct
only 4 is correct
Q48. Which of the following situations would be rated as the
most appropriate indication for the use of radionuclide imaging for
detection of coronary heart disease (CHD) A) asymptomatic patient
with intermediate risk of CHD according to ATP III criteria with an
uninterpretable ECG B) acute chest pain with definite acute
coronary syndrome C) troponin elevation without additional evidence
of acute coronary syndrome D) new onset atrial fibrillation with an
unclear etiology
Q49. Drug B is investigated in a meta-analysis for its effect on
mortality after acute myocardial infarction. It is found that, when
this drug is administered, the mortality drops from 11% to 3%. How
many patients will have to be treated with drug B to prevent one
death A) B) C) D) 3 11 12.5 24
Q50. Which of the following investigation has the highest
sensitivity for diagnosing myocarditis A) B) C) D) CK-MB isoform
Indium -111 antimyosin scintigraphy myocardial biopsy
echocardiography
14 of 25
Q51.
True about Dressler's syndrome is all, except A) B) C) D) occurs
with in hours after myocardial infarction recurrence may be seen
chest pain is common responds well to salicylates
Q52.
Which of the following hemodynamic changes occur in
pregnancy
1. decreased peripheral vascular resistance 2. decreased
pulmonary vascular resistance 3. increased blood volume 4.
decreased venous pressure in lower extremities A) B) C) D) Q53.
only 1, 2 and 3 are correct only 1 and 3 are correct only 2 and 4
are correct only 4 is correct
Regarding ranolazine
Assertion: it is a piperazine derivative that has anti ischemic
properties Reason: it blocks rectifier potassium currents and also
lowers heart rate A) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason
is the correct explanation for Assertion B) Both Assertion and
Reason are true, and Reason is not the correct explanation for
Assertion C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false D) Assertion is
false, but Reason is true Q54. In patients with diabetes and kidney
disease
Assertion: Angiotensin converting enzyme blockers and
angiotensin receptor antagonists are the preferred over calcium
channel blockers antihypertensives in patients with diabetic
nephropathy Reason: Angiotensin converting enzyme blockers and
angiotensin receptor antagonists are more effective in lowering
blood pressure in those with diabetes A) Both Assertion and Reason
are true, and Reason is the correct explanation for Assertion B)
Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is not the correct
explanation for Assertion C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false
D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true
15 of 25
Q55.
All of the following are useful in the treatment of instent
restenosis except A) B) C) D) brachytherapy atherectomy devices Gp
IIb IIIa inhibitors DES implantation
Q56.
Regarding cardiac output during rest and exercise in a normal
person
1. at rest is ~5 to 6 liters/minute and can increase
approximately fivefold during strenuous exercise 2. increases with
a decrease in the pressure gradient (P1 - P2) generated by the
heart 3. during exercise blood flow to the skin and skeletal muscle
increases to constitute as much as 85 % of the cardiac output 4.
during exercise the brain, kidney and splanchnic circulations
receive about 1/3rd of their basal flow A) B) C) D) only 1,2 and
3,are correct only 1 and 3 are correct only 2and 4 are correct only
4 is correct
Q57. Regarding vein graft in CABG Assertion: degeneration occurs
significantly after 5 years of CABG Reason: degenerative process in
vein grafts is similar to native vessel atherosclerotic disease A)
Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct
explanation for Assertion B) Both Assertion and Reason are true,
and Reason is not the correct explanation for Assertion C)
Assertion is true, but Reason is false D) Assertion is false, but
Reason is true Q58. Discontinuity between the anterior mitral
leaflet and coronary cusps are present in
1. d-transposition of great arteries 2. l-transposition of great
arteries 3. discrete sub-aortic stenosis 4. mitral valve prolapse
A) B) C) D) only 1, 2, and 3 are correct only 1 and 3 are correct
only 2 and 4 are correct only 4 is correct
16 of 25
Q59. The term "extensively drug-resistant tuberculosis (XDR-TB)"
refers to isolates of M.tuberculosis resistant to A) streptomycin,
rifampicin, pyrazinamide, ethambutol and cycloserine B) isoniazid,
rifampicin, flouroquinolones and atleast one injectable second line
drug C) pyrazinamide, isoniazid, ethambutol and atleast one
injectable second line drug D) streptomycin, rifampicin,
pyrazinamide, ethambutol and ethionamide Q60. Regarding statins
Assertion: Pravastatin should be taken in the evening whereas
atorvastatin can be taken at any time in the day. Reason:
Pravastatin causes day time drowsiness as a most common side
effect. A) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the
correct explanation of Assertion. B) Both Assertion and Reason are
true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion. C)
Assertion is true but Reason is false. D) Assertion is false but
Reason is true. Q61. Regarding Malaria
Assertion: plasmodium vivax malaria is characterized by long
term relapses Reason: the latent erythrocytic stage lasts for
several years A) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is
the correction explanation for the assertion B) Both Assertion and
Reason are true, and Reason is not the correction explanation for
the assertion C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false D)
Assertion is false, but Reason is true Q62. Regarding normal
ventricular activation A) B) C) D) Q63. activation front is
directed from epicardium to endocardium. earliest LV activation is
in apex on left side of septum. earliest RV activation involves
pulmonary conus. posterobasal LV is last to be activated.
Ezetimibe exerts its action by A) B) C) D) inhibiting intestinal
cholesterol absorption inhibiting intestinal triglyceride
absorption inhibiting HMG Co-A reductase activity binding to bile
acids to form insoluble complexes 17 of 25
Q64. Ideal emergency imaging modality for unstable patient with
proximal aortic dissection is A) retrograde aortography. B) MRI C)
transesophageal echocardiography D) intravasucular ultrasound /
transthoracic echocardiography Q65. Rastelli operation is done
for
A) Transposition of great arteries(TGA) with intact Ventricular
septum B) TGA with ventricular septal defect(VSD) C) TGA, VSD with
left ventricular outflow tract (LVOT) obstruction D) Tetralogy of
Fallot
Q66. Which of the following combinations of lung volume
abnormalities are most likely in idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis A)
decreased total lung capacity (TLC), decreased vital capacity (VC),
decreased residual volume (RV), increased FEV1/FVC ratio, normal
maximum inspiratory pressure (MIP) B) normal TLC, normal residual
volume RV, normal FEV1/FVC ratio, normal MIP C) increased TLC,
decreased VC, decreased FEV1/FVC ratio D) decreased TLC, increased
residual volume RV, normal FEV1/FVC ratio, decreased MIP
Q67. The primary biochemical lesion in homozygotes with familial
hypercholesterolemia A) the loss of apoprotein B B) the
malfunctioning of acyl CoA cholesterol acyl transferase (ACAT) C)
the functional deficiency of plasma membrane receptors for low
density lipoproteins D) the increased production of low density
lipoproteins
18 of 25
Q68. A specific predictor for higher risk of sudden cardiac
death in patients with idiopathic dilated
cardiomyopathy(non-ischemic CMP) is A) B) C) D) Q69. non-sustained
ventricular tachycardia induction of polymorphic VT or VF during EP
testing unexplained syncope any of the above
All of the following are seen in cardiac tamponade except A) B)
C) D) pulsus paradoxus diastolic collapse of right ventricle on
echocardiogram electrical alternans Kussmaul's sign
Q70. A 24 year old patient presents to casualty department with
chest pain of 2 day duration, pulse-110/min,BP:100/70mmhg, Temp
100F,Resp-22/min, Chest-B/l equal air entry ,CVS-normal heart
sounds,no murmurs. The given electrocardiogram is suggestive of
A) B) C) D)
acute pericarditis acute myocardial infarction pulmonary
embolism early repolarization changes
19 of 25
Q71.
In TOF severity of cyanosis depends on
1) severity of infundibular obstruction 2) amount of aortic
override 3) systemic vascular resistance 4) site of VSD A) B) C) D)
only 1,2 and 3 are correct only 1 and 3 are correct only 2 and 4
are correct only 4 is correct
Q72. Regarding use of calcium channel blockers in management of
acute coronary syndrome Assertion: they are indicated as first line
drugs in the management of acute coronary syndrome Reason: they
inhibit vascular smooth muscle function and cause coronary and
peripheral vasodilatation A) Both Assertion and Reason are true,
and Reason is the correct explanation for Assertion B) Both
Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is not the correct
explanation for Assertion C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false
D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true
Q73. A 45 year old male having a long history of cigarette
smoking presented with gangrene of left foot. An amputation of the
left foot was done. Representative sections from the specimen
revealed presence of arterial thrombus with neutrophilic infiltrate
in the arterial wall. The inflammation also extended into the
neighbouring veins and nerves. The most probable diagnosis is A) B)
C) D) Takayasu arteritis Giant cell arteritis hypersensitivity
angitis thromoboangitis obliterans
Q74. Prospective gating in coronary computerised tomography
angiography is associated with A) B) C) D) low radiation dose x ray
tube continuously on evaluation of both systole and diastole
enables flexible reconstruction in the event of arrhythmias
20 of 25
Q75. Infection /infections that occur in the first 2 weeks after
allogeneic stem cell transplantation is/ are 1. gram positive
bacterial sepsis 2. candida sepsis 3. herpes simplex virus disease
4. cytomegalovirus disease A) B) C) D) Q76. only 1, 2 and 3 are
correct only 1 and 3 are correct only 2 and 4 are correct only 4 is
correct
The antiretroviral drug implicated in the development of heart
muscle disease A) B) C) D) nevirapine efavirenz zidovudine
emtricitabine
Q77.
Regarding cryptococcal infection
1. lifelong maintenance therapy is recommended to prevent a
symptomatic clinical relapse in patients with HIV infection. 2.
pulmonary cryptococccosis in an immunocompetent host always
progresses to disseminated cryptococcosis if not treated. 3.
complications of central nervous system cryptococcosis include
cranial nerve deficits, vision loss and cognitive impairment. 4.
the echinocandins , caspofungin and micafungin are highly effective
against cryptococcus species A) B) C) D) Q78. only 1,2 and 3 are
correct only 1 and 3 are correct only 2 and 4 are correct only 4 is
correct
Cardiac involvement in sarcoidosis is characterised by A) B) C)
D) Right heart failure secondary to primary cardiac involvement
Echocardiographic evidence of myocarditis is seen >80% cases
Intraventricular delays and atrioventricular blocks Apical regional
wall motion abnormality secondary to coronary involvement
21 of 25
Q79.
Regarding fondaparinux A) B) C) D) is a orally acting direct
thrombin inhibitor requires dose adjustment with APTT levels
excreted mainly through hepatic metabolism is a synthetic
pentasacharide that inhibits factor Xa
Q80. In a patient with chronic congestive cardiac failure, all
of the following drugs prolong survival except A) B) C) D) Q81.
metoprolol carvedilol enalapril digoxin
Which of the following is a minor criteria for diagnosis of
infective endocarditis A) B) C) D) antiphase I IgG antibody titer
for Coxiella brunetti > 1:800 new partial dehiscence of
prosthetic valve single positive blood culture for coagulase
negative staphylococci rheumatoid factor
Q82.
All of the following statements about mitral valve prolapse are
true except A) B) C) D) it is more common in females most patients
are symptomatic it has a benign clinical course transient cerebral
ischemia is a known complication
Q83. Regarding digoxin Assertion: it controls ventricular
response in CHF patients with atrial fibrillation Reason: it has
vagolytic action. A) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason
is the correct explanation for Assertion B) Both Assertion and
Reason are true, and Reason is not the correct explanation for
Assertion C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false D) Assertion is
false, but Reason is true
22 of 25
Q84.
The following pedigree is an example of what pattern of
inheritance
A) B) C) D)
X-linked dominant X-linked recessive autosomal recessive
autosomal dominant
Q85. In which of the following category of patients with CHD
does coronary bypass surgery result in improved survival A) B) C)
D) mild ischemia, two vessel disease, ejection fraction more than
50% mild ischemia,two vessel disease(LCX and RCA),ejection fraction
< 50% mild ischemia, triple vessel involvement, ejection
fraction less than 50% moderate ischemia, two vessel disease,
ejection fraction more than 50%
Q86.
Which among the following is short RP tachycardia A) B) C) D)
atypical AVNRT AVRT with slowly conducting pathway orthodromic AVRT
sinus node re-entry
23 of 25
Q87. Patient of HOCM underwent dual chamber pacemaker
implantation, following are pressure traces at different
AV(atrio-ventricular)
intervals
Assertion: AV delay of 240msec is ideal in this patient Reason:
optimal AV delay involves minimal LVOT gradient, normal stroke
volume with no significant rise in LA pressure A) Both Assertion
and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation for
Assertion B) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is not
the correct explanation for Assertion C) Assertion is true, but
Reason is false D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true Q88.
Multi drug resistant salmonella typhi infection is resistant to the
following drugs
A) B) C) D)
quinolones and chloramphenicol chloramphenicol, ampicillin and
trimethoprim ciprofloxacin, ampicillin and ceftriaxone nalidixic
acid and chloramphenicol
24 of 25
Q89.
Augmented limb lead aVL has its negative terminal in A) B) C) D)
wilson central terminal. combined output of right arm and left foot
electrodes. left arm. combined output of right arm, left arm and
left foot electrodes.
Q90. Higher risk of sudden cardiac death is predicted by which
one of the following features on exercise testing A) B) C) D) lower
resting heart rate. large increments in heart rate during exercise.
lower increment in heart rate during first minute of recovery lower
decrement in heart rate during first minute of recovery.
25 of 25