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Hello All,
These are the (new) daily MCQs from my Facebook page from the
past 12 months.
These are NOT included in the 7th or (new) 8th edn of Sure
Success MAGIC, Since I am making it available online.
Please feel free to download and share.
I have also mentioned the highlights of the new edn of Sure
Success MAGIC in the end of this PDF.....pls share your feedback by
messaging me on facebook.
All the Best
Laser used in Selecetive Laser Trabeculoplasty is A. Argon Laser
B. Excimer Laser C. CO2 laser D. Nd YAG laser
Ans.....D......NdYAG...asked in many earlier state entrances and
Jipmer also SELECTIVE laser trabeculoplasty (different from argon
laser) + Uses 532 nm, frequency doubled, Q-switched Nd YAG laser +
NO scarring of trabecular meshwork + Repeatable The 1-2-3 sign or
Garland triad classically seen in A. Tuberculosis
B. Sarcoidosis C. Amyloidosis D. Bronchupulmonary aspergillosis
Ans........B........Sarcoidosis Garland's triad (also known as the
1-2-3 sign or Pawnbrokers sign) is a lymph node enlargement pattern
described in sarcoidosis. It comprises of: right paratracheal nodes
right hilar nodes left hilar nodes Forensic taphonomy refers to A.
Identification of dead body B. Postmortem changes C. Autopsy in
drowning cases D. Tracking the path of gunshot wound in body
Ans.......B.......Postmortem changes Forensic taphonomy is the
study of the postmortem changes to human remains, focusing largely
on environmental effectsincluding decomposition in soil and water
and interaction with plants, insects, and other animals "Toll" in
Toll like receptors (TLRs) are homologs of which Toll protein ? A.
Drosophila B. Penicillium C. Aspergillus D. Anopheles mosquito
Ans......A......Drosophila Toll was shown to be an essential
receptor for host defense against fungal infection in Drosophila,
which only has innate immunity Decerebrate posturing falls into the
following grade on Glasgow Coma Scale ? M2 M3 M4 M5
Ans......M2...
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M3 Abnormal flexion, i.e. decorticate posturing M2 Extensor
response, i.e. decerebrate posturing SMILE stands for _______ and
is used for ______ A. Small Incision lens Extraction; Mature Hard
Cataracts B. Small incision Lenticule Extraction, Myopia C. Small
Incision Linear Excimer, Myopia D. Small Incision Laser
emulsification, Mature Hard Cataracts Ans......B.... SMall Incision
Lenticule Extraction, Myopia Small incision lenticule extraction
(SMILE) results in similar or better refractive outcomes compared
with LASIK for the treatment of myopia COL4A5 mutation is a/w A.
GoodPasture syndrome B. Lupus nephritis C. Alport's syndrome D. IgA
nephropathy Ans......C..........Alport's Alport Syndrome is a
progressive renal disease with cochlear and ocular involvement. The
most common form ( approximately 80%) is inherited in an X-linked
pattern. X-linked Alport Syndrome (XLAS) is caused by mutations in
the type IV collagen alpha chain 5 (COL4A5). All are tributaries of
coronary sinus except A. Middle and small cardiac veins B.
Posterior vein of left ventricle C. Oblique vein of left atrium (of
Marshall) D. Venae cordi minimi Ans.....D........Venae cordi minimi
The tributaries of coronary sinus are: Great, middle and small
cardiac
veins Posterior vein of left ventricle Oblique vein of left
atrium (of Marshall) Left marginal vein Treatment of choice for
Torsade des pointes is A. Potassium B. Sodium C. Magnesium D.
Sodium bicarbonate Ans..........C...........Magnesium Intravenous
magnesium is the drug of choice for torsades de pointes. Magnesium
is effective even in patients with normal magnesium levels. Drug
used for treating Paroxysmal Nocturnal hemoglobinuria is A.
Eculizumab B. Idebenone C. Ivadrabine D. Nivolumab Ans......A......
eculizumab Eculizumab is a humanized monoclonal antibody that is a
first-in-class terminal complement inhibitor and approved for Rx of
PNH and atypical HUS. PAIR is used for a. Amebic liver abcscess b.
Hydatid cyst liver c. Hemangioma Liver d. Hepatocellular ca
Ans......B........Hydatid cyst liver The Puncture Aspiration
Injection Reaspiration (PAIR) technique is performed using either
ultrasound or CT guidance, involves aspiration of the cyst contents
via a special cannula, followed by injection of a scolicidal agent
for at least 15 minutes, and then reaspiration of the cystic
contents. This is repeated until the return is clear. The cyst is
then filled with isotonic sodium chloride solution.
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Perioperative treatment with a benzimidazole is mandatory (4 d
prior to the procedure and 1-3 mo after). Which disease is called
"the captain of the men of death" A. Ca Lung B. Ca stomach C. Ca
Liver D. Ca prostate Ans......B......Ca stomach Carcinoma of the
stomach was termed Captain of the Men of Death by Lord Moynihan in
the last century. ALSO KNOW: Sir William Osler, known as "the
father of modern medicine," appreciated the morbidity and mortality
of pneumonia, describing it as the "captain of the men of death" in
1918, as it had overtaken tuberculosis as one of the leading causes
of death in his time. Globoid bodies are seen in A. Pick disease B.
Parkinson's disease C. Alzheimer's disease D. Krabbe's disease
Ans....D....Krabbe's disease ALSO KNOW 1. Pick bodies: Pick
disease. 2. Hirano bodies: Alzheimer disease 3. Bunina bodies:
amyotropic lateral sclerosis 4. Marinesco bodies: located chiefly
in melanin containing brain stem neurons; no known pathologic
significance. 5. Lafora bodies: myoclonic epilepsy Cabbage like
odor to skin and urine is seen in A. Phenylketonuria B. Maple syrup
urine disease C. Homocystinuria D. Tyrosinemia
Ans.....D....Tyrosinemia
+ Cabbage like odor - tyrosinemia + Musty odor - PKU + Burnt
sugar odor - maple syrup urine disease Recent AIIMS journal related
question. "AIIMS test" has been proposed to be as good as
Schaeffer's test....... Schaeffer's test is used to identify the
tendon of A. Flexor carpi ulnaris B. Flexor carpi radialis longus
C. Palmaris longus D. Extensor carpu ulnaris
Ans....C.........Palmaris Longus The Palmaris longus, one of the
most variable muscles in the body both flexes the wrist and tenses
the palmar fascia. It is used by surgeons as a source of tendon
graft All are stigmata of cong. syphilis except a. olympian brow b.
mulberry molars c. saber tibia d. band shaped keratopathy
ns.......D.......Band shaped keratopathy Classic stigmata iof cong
syphilis nclude Hutchinsons teeth (centrally notched, widely
spaced, peg-shaped upper central incisors) Mulberry molars
(sixth-year molars with multiple, poorly developed cusps), Saddle
nose, and Saber shins (Saber tibia) Rhagades: wrinkled radiating
scars around the mouth Olympian brow - prominent forehead due to
periostitis of frontal bone Interstitial keratitis is a late manif
of cong syphilis..... Which of the following words is derived from
the Latin/Greek word for Crab?
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A. Tumor B. Cancer C. Fistula D. Ulcer ans.....B......cancer The
origin of the word cancer is credited to the Greek physician
Hippocrates (460-370 BC), who is considered the Father of Medicine.
Hippocrates used the terms carcinos and carcinoma to describe
non-ulcer forming and ulcer-forming tumors. In Greek, these words
refer to a crab, most likely applied to the disease because the
finger-like spreading projections from a cancer called to mind the
shape of a crab. The Roman physician, Celsus (28-50 BC), later
translated the Greek term into cancer, the Latin word for crab.
Galen (130-200 AD), another Greek physician, used the word oncos
(Greek for swelling) to describe tumors. Although the crab analogy
of Hippocrates and Celsus is still used to describe malignant
tumors, Galens term is now used as a part of the name for cancer
specialists oncologists. Prominent superior ophthalmic vein in MRI
maybe seen in A. cavernous hemangioma orbit B. Capillary hemangioma
orbit C. Lymphangioma orbit D. Carticocavernous fistula
Ans.....D...Carotico-cavernous fistula Enlargement of the superior
ophthalmic vein (SOV), is considered a sign of carotid-cavernous
fistula best seen on MRI. Hyperkalemia is a feature in following
conditions EXCEPT a) Insulin deficiency b) Calcitonin Deficiency c)
Aldosterone deficiency d) Severe Obesity Ans......D....Severe
obesity
"Severe obesity is a/w comorbidities like hyperinsulinemia (type
II DM) and HTN which are a/w HYPOkalemia; Also in sever obesity -
diuretics are used (either for reducing the "swelling" or for HTN);
as well as repeated bouts of fasting, low-calorie foods and bulimia
may contribute to DEPLETION of total body potassium levels"
Calcitonin reduces renal tubular reabsorption and consequently
results in an increase in the excretion of calcium, potassium,
magnesium, phosphorus and sodium by the kidneys". Hence it would
follow that calcitonin deficiency would result in hyperkalemia.
correct me if i'm wrong here. this was a 2007 pg entrance qn. Vocal
cord laterlisation is which type of thyroplasty? Type 1 Type 2 Type
3 Type 4 Ans......Type 2 Vocal cord medialisation Type I Vocal cord
lateralization Type II Which of the following has highest malignant
potential for oral cancer? A. Leukoplakia B. Oral submucus fibrosis
C. Oral lichen planus D. Erythroplakia Ans....D... Erythroplakia
has 17 times higher malignant potential than leukoplakia
Sideropenic dysphagia refers to A. Brown Sequard syndrome B.
Iatrogenic esophageal perforation C. Patterson kelly syndrome D.
Corkscrew esophagus Ans.....C.....Patterson kelly syndrome
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The association of postcricoid dysphagia, upper esophageal webs,
and iron deficiency anemia is known as Plummer-Vinson syndrome
(PVS) in the United States and Paterson-Brown Kelly syndrome in the
United Kingdom. The term sideropenic dysphagia has also been used,
since the syndrome can occur with iron deficiency (sideropenia), In
nearly 80% cases cardiac dominance is A. right dominant B. left
dominant C. co-dominant D. mixed dominance Ans.....A.......right
dominant The artery that supplies the posterior descending artery
(PDA)[1] (a.k.a. posterior interventricular artery) determines the
coronary dominance + If the posterior descending artery (PDA) is
supplied by the right coronary artery (RCA), then the coronary
circulation can be classified as "right-dominant". + If the
posterior descending artery (PDA) is supplied by the circumflex
artery (CX), a branch of the left artery, then the coronary
circulation can be classified as "left-dominant". + If the
posterior descending artery (PDA) is supplied by both the right
coronary artery (RCA) and the circumflex artery, then the coronary
circulation can be classified as "co-dominant". Approximately 80%
of the general population are right-dominant. Ross classified five
stages of (MHCET 2015 Q) A) Schizophrenia B) Delusion C) Death D)
None Ans....C.......Death
In her 1969 book, On Death and Dying, Swiss-born psychiatrist
Elizabeth Kubler-Ross outlined the five stages of grief of someone
who is dying: (DABDA) D - Denial and isolation: "This is not
happening to me." A - Anger: "How dare God do this to me." B -
Bargaining: "Just let me live to see my son graduate." D -
Depression: "I can't bear to face going through this, putting my
family through this." A - Acceptance: "I'm ready, I don't want to
struggle anymore." Serum Lithium level should be checked earliest
after how many days of constant dosing ? (MHCET 2015 Q) A) 3 B) 5
C) 14 D) 20 Ans.....B......5 days Kaplan & Sadock's Concise
Textbook of Clinical Psychiatry, Pg 518, 3rd edn. When obtaining
blood for lithium levels, patients should be at steady state
lithium dosing, (usually after 5 days of constant dosing) and the
blood sample must be drawn 12 hours after a given dose. Tavaborole
is used for treating A. Keratomycosis B. Otomycosis C. Vaginal
mycosis D. Onychomycosis Ans....D......Oncyhomycosis Tavaborole is
a topical antifungal medication for the treatment of
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onychomycosis, a fungal infection of the nail and nail bed. It
inhibits an essential fungal enzyme, Leucyl-tRNA synthetase, or
LeuRS, required for protein synthesis. It is not for use in the
eyes, mouth, or vagina. Rundle's curve can be used to explain which
disease ? A. Hodgkin's lymphoma B. Thyroid Ophthalmopathy C.
Coronary Heart Disease D. Type 1 DM Ans....B..... Thyroid
Ophthalmopathy + The natural history of Thyroid Ophthalmopathy
follows Rundle's Curve. + The initial phase usually of a few months
is associated with worseing of the TED which reaches a plateau and
then spontaneously improves. Which of the following maybe a/w
Tuberculosis? A. Erythema gyratum repens B. Erythema annulare
centrifugum C. Erythema induratum of Bazin D. Erythema ab igne
Ans.....(C) 1. Erythema induratum of Bazin, 2. lichen
scrofulosorum, and 3. papulonecrotic tuberculide are the 3
recognized tuberculides, which are sequelae of immunologic
reactions to hematogenously dispersed antigenic components of
Mycobacterium tuberculosis Dhatura seeds resemble seeds of a.
calotropis b. capsicum c. ricinus d. gelsimium ns....B....capsicum
Dhatura seeds resemble capsicum seeds; BUT dhatura seeds are
larger, thicker and kidney shaped. 93. All of the following are
health
promotion strategies EXCEPT a) Chlorination of water b) Paring
of nails c) Chemoprophylaxis d) Lifestyle changes 94. The following
are examples of specific protection EXCEPT a) Use of calipers for
post polio residual paralysis b) Use of helmets c) Vitamin A
administration to children d) Use of goggles by welders 95. The
severity of illness of a disease is represented by a) Attack rate
b) Proportional mortality rate c) Case fatality rate d) Cause
specific mortality rate 96. A good measure of the virulence of a
disease is a) Attack rate b) Secondary attack rate c) Incidence
rate d) Prevalence rate Ans to yestday's set C A C B 1. Abacavir is
a nucleoside transcription inhibitor that carries which side effect
unique for HIV antiretroviral agents? A. Fanconis anemia B.
Granulocytopenia C. Lactic acidosis D. Severe hypersensitivity
reaction 2. Indinavir is a protease inhibitor that carries which
side effect unique for HIV antiretroviral agents? A. Abnormal
dreams B. Benign hyperbilirubinemia C. Hepatic necrosis in pregnant
women D. Nephrolithiasis Ans to yestdays qns
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Abacavir - hypersensitivity Indinavir - renal calculi -
nephrolithiasis Greenish color of bruise is due to A. Hemoglobin B.
Hemosiderin C. Bilirubin D. Hematoidin Ans......D.....hematoidin
Also Know - Age of bruise - At first - Red (oxyhemoglobin) - Few
hrs to 3 days - blue (reduced hemoglobin) - 4th day - bluish black
(hemosiderin) - 5-6 days - greenish (hematoidin) - 7-12 days -
yellow (bilirubin) - 2 weeks - normal (absorption of pigment)
another set.... 1. Acute infectious purpura fulminans is caused by
a) Neisseria meningitidis and Variclla b) Gonococci c) E. coli d)
Proteus 2. Waddling gait (sailors gait) is seen in a) Bilateral
CTEV (Congenital Talipes Equino Varus) b) Bilateral CDH (Congenital
Dislocation of Hip) c) Congenital genu recurvatum d) Bilateral
calcaneo-valgus deformity 3. Bernoullis principle could explain a)
Deviated nasal septum b) Malignancy c) Polyp formation d) Nasal
Allergy 4. Civatte bodies are seen in a. Lichen sclerosus b. Lichen
planus c. Lichen amyloidosis d. Psoriasis 5. Lincoffs rule is
useful in diagnosing
a. Site of duodenal ulcer b. Site of retinal detachment c. Site
of perforation of tympanic membrane d. Site of intestinal
perforation 6. Sensitivity means ability to detect a) True positive
b) False positive c) True negative d) False negative 7. Dohle
bodies seen in neutrophils of patients suffering from sepsis are a)
Golgi complexes b) Toxic granules c) Dilated endoplasmic reticulum
d) Degenerated mitochondria Ans to yestday's set 1-A; 2-B; 3-C;
4-B; 5-B; 6-A; 7-C Lincoff's rule for finding the site of break in
retinal detachment Tache noire after death is seen in a) eyes b)
face c) dependent areas like elbows and buttocks d) gastric mucosa
Ans......A.....eyes Tache noire, literally meaning black spot, is a
dark, reddish brown strip that will form horizontally across the
eye ball. During life the eye balls are kept moist by blinking, but
sometimes they are no longer protected upon death. Therefore, tache
noire will occur in individuals whose eyelids are not closed post
mortem. Similarly, other mucous membranes like the tongue will
darken after prolonged air exposure to the normally moist tissue.
If the individual drowned, or the body was found in water, the
tache noire would not be present. The eye balls have to be exposed
to air for it to occur Open ring sign is relatively specific for a.
Space occupying lesion
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b. Intracranial hypertension c. Demyelination d. Intracranial
abscess Ans is c.......demyelination The open ring sign (white
matter crescent sign) is a relatively specific sign for
demyelination, helpful in distinguishing between ring enhancing
lesions. The enhancing component is thought to represent advancing
front of demyelination and thus favours the white matter side of
the lesion. The open part of the ring will therefore usually point
towards the grey matter. Also NOTE: McDonald's MRI criteria are
used for Multiple sclerosis Cracked mud retina seen in a. CMV
retinitis b. Acute retinal necrosis c. Progressive outer retinal
necrosis d. Retinitis pigmentosa Ans......C..... Progressive outer
retinal necrosis (PORN), first described in 1990, is seen in
patients who are immunocompromised (e.g., AIDS) who present with
rapid outer retinal necrosis. Multifocal lesions with deep retinal
opacification are characteristic of PORN. About 30 percent of
patients have deep outer retinal lesions in the macula, which
become confluent to form a cherry red spot. They classically have a
cracked mud appearance where there is perivenular clearing of the
retinal opacification. This fracture has been dubbed the "unsolved
fracture" for more than a century... A. Fracture neck of femur B.
Fracture shaft of femur C. Vertebral fracture D. Fracture scaphoid
Ans.....A
Displaced fracture of the intracapsular proximal femur has been
termed the unsolved fracture because it is unclear whether it
should be treated by internal fixation or by replacement of the
femoral head with an artificial hip (arthroplasty) Lorenzo's oil is
used in (this is a true question !!! in earlier exam) A.
Metahcormatic leukodystrophy B. Adrenoleukodystrophy C. Krabbe's
disease D. Gaucher's disease Lorenzos oil is a combination of two
chemicals called erucic acid and oleic acid.Lorenzos oil is used as
a treatment for two related inherited conditions -
adrenoleukodystrophy (ALD), which occurs in children; and
adrenomyeloneuropathy, which occurs in adults. The oil is named
after a child, Lorenzo Odone, who developed ALD. His parents
discovered a mixture of fatty acids that seemed to slow progression
of the disease. The mixture became known as Lorenzos oil. - ALSO a
movie of the same name based on this true story was made in 1992
and that's the picture I had posted. These disorders cause
accumulation of very long-chain fatty acids(VLCFA) in the blood and
many other tissues.The white matter of the brain, the Leydig cells
of the testes and the adrenal cortex are the most severely affected
systems.The levels of VLCFA can be normalized by treatment with
Lorenzo's oil, but this does not alter the progression of the
disease. CURB-65 score is used for a. Cannabis addiction b.
Pneumonia c. Intestinal obstruction d. Acute pancreatitis CURB-65
Severity Score for Community-Acquired Pneumonia: Calculates the
CURB-65 Score to estimate pneumonia mortality to help
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determine inpatient vs. outpatient treatment. Confusion BUN >
19 mg/dL (7 mmol/L) / Respiratory Rate 30 / Systolic BP < 90
mmHg or Diastolic BP 60 mmHg / Age 65 The Pulvinar sign refers to
T2 hyperintensity in the posterior thalamic nuclei (the pulvinar).
It is classically described in a. Arnold Chiari malformation b.
Parkinson disease c. Creutzfelt Jakob disease d. Alzheimer's
disease Ans ........C The pulvinar sign refers to bilateral FLAIR
hyperintensities involving the pulvinar thalamic nuclei. It is
classically described in variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (vCJD)
As per BIRADS known biopsy proven malignancy is grouped under grade
a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6 Ans to yestday's qn..... BI-RADS = 'breast
imaging reporting and data system', 0- incomplete, 1- negative,
2-benign findings, 3-probably benign, 4-suspicious abnormality,
5-highly suspicious of malignancy, 6- with known biopsy proven
malignancy. 11. Gluten free diet is beneficial in: A. Psoriasis B.
Exfoliative dermatitis C. Dermatitis herpetiformis D. Pemphigoid
12. Buford complex is a normal anatomic variant of which joint? A.
Elbow
B. Shoulder C. Knee D. Hip 13. CAMP test is used to detect
infection caused by a) Streptococcus equsimilis b) Streptococcus
agalactiae c) Streptococcus viridans d) Staphylococcus aureus 14.
NIH Swab is used for the recovery of the eggs of a) Ancylostoma
duodenale b) Enterobius vermicularis c) Ascaris lumbriocoides d)
Trichinella Spiralis 15. Kidney transplantation is an: (a)
Allograft (b) Isograft (c) Xenograft (d) Syngeneic graft Ans for
yestday's set C B B B A Next set....... 1. A 14-year-old girl has a
1-day history of pain in the right ear. She swims every morning.
The right ear canal is red and swollen. She has pain when the
auricle is pulled or the tragus is pushed. Which of the following
is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute otitis media B. Bullous
myringitis C. Chronic otitis media D. External otitis 2. World
health day is on A. January 7 B. April 7 C. Dec 1 D. January 14 3.
All are anti-VEGFs in treating macular edema except A. Bevacizumab
B. Ranibizumab C. Adalimumab D. Pagaptanib
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4. Which of the following is true about lgG antibody? a)
Produced in primary immune response b) Cannot cross placenta c)
Provides local protection d) Produced in secondary immune response
5. Acclimatization does NOT include a) Hyperventilation b)
Decreased concentration of 2,3 DPG in RBC c) Increased
erythropoiesis d) Kidney excrete more alkali Ans for yestday's set
1-D; 2-B; 3-C; 4-D; 5-B Next set........ 1. NESTROFT test is for
screening A. CML B. AML C. Thalassemia D. Carcinogenic potential 2.
Skirrows medium is used for A. Proteus B. C. jejuni C. H.influenzae
D. Mycpolasma 3. A 54-year-old man who is being treated for
hypertension and hypercholesterolemia develops diffuse muscle pain
and weakness. His serum creatine kinase activity is increased.
Which of the following drugs is most likely to have caused this
clinical picture? (A) Captopril (B) Hydrochlorothiazide (C)
Lovastatin (D) Nicotinic acid 4. STEPS program is for the following
A. Pneumococcal vaccine B. Thalidomide C. Streptomycin D.
Ethambutol
5. Vogts triad includes all except A. Seizures B. Mental
retardation C. Choroidal hemangioma D. Adenoma sebaceum Ans for
previous set...... 1-C; 2-B; 3-C; 4 B. 5 -C Next set.......... 1. A
58-year-old female with rheumatoid arthritis is treated with
infliximab for refractory disease. All the following are potential
side effects of this treatment except A. demyelinating disorders B.
disseminated tuberculosis C. exacerbation of congestive heart
failure D. pulmonary fibrosis 2. What is the most common
extraarticular manifesta- tion of ankylosing spondylitis? A.
Anterior uveitis B. Aortic regurgitation C. Cataracts D.
Third-degree heart block 3. Which of the following joints are
typically spared in osteoarthritis (OA)? A. Ankle B. Cervical spine
C. Distal interphalangeal joint D. Hip 4. All the following
organisms have been implicated in reactive arthritis except A.
Chlamydia trachomatis B. Neisseria gonorrhoeae D. Shigella
dysenteriae E. Yersinia enterocolitica Ans to previous set.........
1-D; 2-A; 3-A; 4-B 1. Coloboma of the lid is commonest in: (a)
Lateral half of the lower lid (b) Medial half of the lower lid (c)
Medial half of the upper lid
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(d) Lateral half of the upper lid 2. Pulse oximeter works on the
following principle: (a) Beer Lambarts law (b) Raman scattering
effect (c) Venturi principle (d) Mass spectrometry 3. Amyl nitrate
inhalation test is used to detect: (a) Carcinoma esophagus (b)
Achalasia cardia (c) Oesophageal diverticulum (d) Tracheoesophageal
fistula 4. Hyperuricaemia is a side effect of this anti- tubercular
drug: (a) Pyrazinamide (b) Isoniazid (c) Capreomycin (d) Ethambutol
5. The bacteria producing a picture resembling pseudohaemoptysis in
sputum sample due to prodiogisin production is: (a) Serratia
marcesens (b) Erwinia herbicola (c) Ehrlichiasennestsu (d)
Legionella pneumophila ans to previous set 1-C; 2-A; 3-B; 4-A; 5-A
Next set.......... 1 All are components of Quadruple test except A.
Beta HCG B. Maternal serum AFP C. Nuchal transluceny D. Inhibin A 2
Triple test is used in the diagnosis of A. Turners syndrome B. Down
syndrome C. Edwards syndrome D. Pataus syndrome 3 Coarctation of
aorta is a/w A. Turners syndrome B. Down syndrome
C. Edwards syndrome D. Pataus syndrome 4. Cri du Chat syndrome
is a/w chromosome A. 5 B. 6 C. 7 D. 8 5. Quilty effects is seen in
A. Lung transplants B. Cardiac transplants C. Renal transplants D.
Skin grafting Ans to yestday's set........... 1-C; 2-B; 3-A; 4-A;
5-B Next set............. 1. Lucid interval is characteristic
pathognomonic feature of: A. Extradural haemorrhage B.
Intracerebral haemorrhage C. Tumour in the frontal lobe D.
Intracerebral abscess 2. Dietls crisis occurs in: A. Hydronephrosis
B. Tuberculosis of kidney C. Acute intussusception D. Wandering
spleen 3. Landmark study in the management of postoperative
endophthalmitis was a. BRAVO study b. ONTT study c. EVS study d.
HEDS study 4. Submandibular gland surgery may result in damage to
the following nerves, except: A. Buccal branch of the facial nerve
B. Accessory nerve C. Hypoglossal nerve D. Glossopharyngeal nerve
5. A 60-year-old man develops a tremor in his fingers. The tremor
is most pronounced when he reaches for his coffee cup or points to
an object.
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Which of the following components of the motor system is most
likely to be involved? A. Basal ganglia B. Cerebellar hemisphere C.
Cerebellar vermis D. Frontal eye field Ans...........to yestday's
set 1-A; 2-A; 3- C; 4-D; 5-B 4th is a sllghtly controversial
question old KCET question......glossopharyngeal nerve injury is
more asso with tonsilectomy COCA-COLA Bottle sign is seen in a.
Pseudotumor cerebri b. Thyroid ophthalmopathy c. Orbital
myocysticercosis d. Dacryoadenitis Ans......B......thyroid
ophthalmopathy The coca-cola bottle sign refers to the appearance
of the muscles of the orbit in thyroid eye disease. The belly of
the muscle enlarges with sparing of the tendinous insertion, giving
the appearance of the traditional coca-cola bottle. Next
set........ 1. Gerstmanns syndrome is due to involvement of: A.
Right parietal lobe B. Left parietal lobe C. Upper brainstem D.
Cerebellum 2. Known causes of diffuse interstitial fibrosis include
all of the following, except: A. Sarcoidosis B. Asbestosis C.
Cigarette smoking D. Bleomycin 3. Lurching gait is produced by the
paralysis of: A. Gluteus maximus B. Gluteus medius C. Adductor
magnus
D. Soleus 4. The principal precursor of cholesterol is: A.
Citrate B. Acetate C. Glycerol D. Lanosterol 5. Drugs associated
with significant ototoxicity include the following, except: A.
Ethacrynic acid B. Nitrogen mustard C. Gentamicin D. Cotrimoxazole
Ans....to yestday's set 1-B; 2-C; 3-B; 4-D; 5-D 1. voriconazole
commonly causes all of the following side effects except a.
drug-drug interactions b. photosensitivity skin rashes c. renal
toxicity d. visual disturbances 2. Helicobacter pylori colonization
is implicated in all of the following conditions except a. duodenal
ulcer disease b. gastric adenocarcinoma c. gastric
mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT) lymphoma d.
gastroesophageal reflux disease 3. Radial keratoneuritis is a
feature of A. Herpes simplex keratitis B. Acanthameba keratitis C.
Aspergillus keratitis D. Post LASIK complication 4. A patient who
has undergone prosthetic valve sur- gery 6 weeks ago is readmitted
with signs and symptoms consistent with infective endocarditis.
Which of the fol- lowing is the most likely etiologic organism? 1.
Candida albicans 2. Coagulase-negative staphylococci 3.
Enterococcus 4. Escherichia coli
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5. A deficiency of copper affects the formation of normal
collagen by affecting the activity of: A. Glucosyl transferase B.
Galactosyl transferase C. Prolyl hydroxylase D. Lysyl oxidase Ans
to yestday's set.......... 1-C; 2-D; 3-B; 4-B; 5-D; Voriconazole is
an azole antifungal - less renal roxicity compared to ampho-B Next
set.......... 1. Bonneys test is done for A. Urinary fistula B.
Stresss incontinence C. Urinary retention D. Urge incontinence 2.
Bronchial asthma is likely to be relieved by all except : A.
Stimulation of beta adrenoceptors B. Histamin aerosols C. Drugs
which stabilize mast cell membranes D. Glucocorticoids 3. Corpora
amylaceae is seen in A. Prostate B. Parotic C. Pituitary D. Pineal
4. MEN type 2 is inherited as A. AD B. AR C. XD D. XR 5. A 42 yrs
old man was diagnosed to have a pheochromocytoma tumor. Staging
investigations showed the tumour to be operable. What definite
therapy will the patient most likely be started on a few weeks
before the surgery: a) verapamil b) sodium nitroprusside c)
phenoxybenzamine
d) nitroglycerine 6. Ulcus serpens is caused by A. Streptococcus
B. Pneumococcus C. Staphylococcus D. pseudomonas Ans ......to
yestday's set........ 1-B; 2-B; 3-A; 4-A; 5-C; 6-B Another
set.......from JIPMER 6. Neve found in Guyons canal is A. Radial
nerve B. Ulnar nerve C. Median nerve D. Sciatic nerve 7. Posterior
gastric artery is a branch of A. Hepatic artery B. Splenic artery
C. Left gastric. D. Right Gastric artery 8. CO poisoning is type of
A. Stagnant hypoxia B. Histotoxic hypoxia C. Hypoxemic hypoxia D.
Anemic hypoxia 9. All muscles are innervated by oculomotor nerve
except a. superior rectus b. inferior rectus c. lateral rectus d.
medial rectus 10. Northern Blotting is for: A. RNA B. DNA C.
Protein D. Polysaccharides Ans.....to yestday's set 6-B; 7-B; 8-D;
9-C; 10- A Few from earlier JIPMER.... 1. In post natal period the
greatest
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growth in the CNS is of? A.Cell body B.Axon C.Dendrite D.Size of
perikaryon 2. A patient with proteinuria has a renal biopsy that
reveals segmental collapse of the glomerular capillary loops and
overlying podocyte hyperplasia. The patient most likely has A.
diabetes B. HIV infection C. multiple myeloma D. systemic lupus
erythematosus 3.Which is Eaton agent ? A. Mycoplasma B. H.influenza
C. Klebsiella D. E.coli 4.Hassal corpuscles are seen in? A.
Adrenals B. Thyroid C. Parathyroid D. Thymus 5. Which of the
following Nuclei DOES not lie in the floor of 4th ventricle ? A.
Abducens Nerve B. Facial Nerve C. Hypoglossal Nerve D. Vagus Nerve
Ans.....to yestday's set..... 1-C; 2-B; 3-A, 4-D; 5-B; Which aortic
arch does not develop further in human embryo? 1st 2nd 4th 5th
Ans.........5th
Of the six pairs of aortic arches, most of the 1st and 2nd
arches disappear, 5th totally disappears. ++ 1st arch = mainly
disappears, remaining part forms inferior alveolar artery, branch
of maxillary artery ++ 2nd arch = mainly disappears, remaining part
forms stapedial artery 1. The following molecules are important
activators of apoptosis except A. Caspase 3 B. Cytochrome C C. Heat
shock proteins D. Fas 2. True about neutrophils is A. Have
multilobed nuclei B. Are the predominant cell type in chronic
inflammation C. May fuse to form multinucleate giant cells D. Have
numerous eosinophilic granules in their cytoplasm 3. Epstein Barr
Virus is a/w all except A. Glandular fever B. Burkitts lymphoma C.
Gastric Ca D. Nacopharyngeal Ca 4. The following may cause right
heart failure except A. VSD B. COPD C. HTN D. Atherosclerosis 5.
Bladder cells and Wedl cells are seen in A. Iris pearls in leprosy
B. Elschnig pearls C. Basal cell Ca D. Squamous Cell ca
Ans.........to yestday's set...... 1-C; 2-A; 3-C; 4-D; 5-B 1.
Autopsy by removal of organs one by one is called A. Virchows
method
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B. Letulles method C. Gohn method D. Rokitanksy method 2.
Siderosis is caused by A. Steel B. Copper C. Mercury D. Brass 3.
Topical retinoids used in acne treatment are all except A.
Adapalene B. Tazoretene C. Benzoyl peroxide D. Tretinoin 4. Tree
bark appearance in vessel wall is seen in A. Tuberculosis B.
Syphilis C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Wegeners granulomatosis 5.
Indian evidence act was enacted in A. 1871 B. 1872 C. 1901 D. 1902
Answers to yestday set..... 1-A; 2-A; 3-C; 4-B; 5-B.... 2. Steel -
has ferrous content (alloy of IRON and carbon) - so siderosis
there...mentioned in parsons.........as for the rest - they are
routine one liners... Aaron's sign, Rosving's sign, Bastedo's sign
and Dieulafoy's triad is a/w A. Acute mestenteric ischemia B.
Splenic rupture C. Acute periotnitis D. Acute appendicitis
Ans.....D........Acute appendicitis + Aaron's sign: a referred pain
or feeling of distress in the epigastrium or precordial region, on
continuous firm pressure over McBurney's point, in
acute appendicitis. + Bastedo's sign: pain and tenderness in the
right iliac fossa on inflation of the colon with air, in cases of
chronic appendicitis. + Rovsing's sign: pain at McBurney's point
induced in cases of appendicitis, by pressure exerted over the
descending colon. + Dieulafoy's triad: tenderness, muscular
contraction and skin hyperaesthesia at McBurneys point in
appendicitis. 1. The rule of 10 is usually applied for: A. Adrenal
cortical tumours B. Pheochromocytoma C. Myelolipoma D. Adrenal
metastases 2. The surgeon who introduced catgut in surgery was: A.
Astley Cooper B. Lord Lister C. John Hunter D. Syme 3. The triad of
Whipple is a feature of: A. Carcinoma head of pancreas B. Islet
cell adenoma of pancreas C. Chronic pancreatitis D. Acute
pancreatitis 4. The fold of Treves is: A. The fold of mucus
membrane projecting into the lumen of the rectum B. The
ileo-appendicular fold of peritoneum C. The fold of mucus membrane
around the ampulla of Vater D. The fold of peritoneum over the
inferior mesenteric vein 5. Astley-Cooper ligament is: A. Medial
end of inguinal ligament B. Pectineal part of inguinal ligament C.
Fibres along the ileopectineal line D. Linea semilunaris
Ans.......to yest'days one-liners 1-B; 2-B; 3- B; 4-B, 5- B
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NUHM (National Urban Health Mission) was launched in ? 2005 2008
2011 2013 NUHM (National Urban Health Mission) - launched in 2013
NRHM (National Rural Health Mission) - launched in 2005 Myeloid or
zebra bodies or renal biopsy are seen in a. IgA nephropathy b.
HIVAN c. Henoch schonelin nephritis d. Fabry's disease
Ans.......D......Fabry's disease ++ Fabry disease is an X-linked
recessive inherited lysosomal storage disease, which results in
accumulation of globotriaosylceramide (Gb3) in a variety of cells,
including in the lysosomes. ++ The metabolic defect is deficiency
of the lysosomal hydrolase alpha-galactosidase A. ++ By electron
microscopy, widespread deposits of Gb3 appear within enlarged
secondary lysosomes as lamellated membrane structures, called
myeloid or zebra bodies "Staccato" cough is a/w which pneumonia ?
a. Staphylococcus b. Chlamydia c. Hemophilus d. Mycoplasma
Ans........B......Chalmydia Cough usually occurs as staccato
paroxysms (breath between each cough) that may be followed by
periods of vomiting or apnea. Thus, prolonged and distressing cough
can give an important clue for the clinical diagnosis of C.
trachomatis Yellow colour of Lens Nuclear
degeneration is due to ? a. Lipofuscin b. Urochrome c.
Lipochrome d. Bilirubin Ans.....B......urochrome + In the nuclear
cataract the hardened central lens nucleus appears yellowish or
brown. The color results from an accumulation of UROCHROME. + The
colored lens absorbs blue light distorting color vision - hence
following cataract surgery some ptnts c/o blue vision - cyanospia -
a normal phenomenon Road to health chart was designed by (an
earlier TNPG qn) a. David Hasselhoff b. David Morley c. David Gower
d. David Goliath Ans......B..........David Morley.. Ans yes the
options were weird......but then when the question was a general
knowledge question - so thot options could be general knowledge
based....... :). - David Hasselhoff - The "Baywatch" guy - David
Gower - the stylish English left handed batsman from the 1980s -
David Goliath - no one keeps that name ! - stoyr of David and
Goliath from the bible !! Myerson's sign maybe seen in a. Multiple
sclerosis b. Parkinson's disease c. Neurocysticercosis d.
Creutzfeldt Jakob disease Ans...B.....Parkinson's disease Tapping
the glabella (i.e., between the patients eyebrows) causes blinking,
which typically ceases after several taps. Persistent blinking
(i.e., more than 4 or 5 blinks) in response to glabellar tapping is
abnormal, and is called Myersons sign.
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It Maybe ASSOCIATED WITH - Parkinsons disease - Cerebral
infarction - Cerebral haemorrhage - Alzheimers dementia - Vascular
dementia - Frontotemporal dementia - Advanced HIV/AIDS dementia
Achromatopsia related to which area of occipital cortex? V3 V4 V7
V8 Ans.....V4....Bilateral damage to the fourth visual area (area
V4) causes achromatopsia Bull's eye maculopathy maybe caused by all
except A. Chloroquine tox B. Stargadts disease C. Bardet Bield
syndrome D. Polypoidal choroidal vasculopathy
Ans.......D....polypiodal choroidal vasculopathy BULL'S EYE
maculopathy Chloroquine maculopathy Advanced Stargdardts disease
Fenestrated sheenmacular dystrophy Benign concentric annular
macular dystrophy Clofazimine retinopathy Sielmeyer Vogt synd.
Bardet Biedl synd. Hallervorden Spatz disease Leber congenital
amaurosis Lipofuscinosis AD cerebellar ataxia Maltese crosses are
a/w a. Leishmeniasis b. Babesiosis c. Trypanosomiasis d. Naegleria
fowleri Ans...B.....Babesiosis Babesia microti, a hemoprotozoan
parasite of rodents, is also important as a zoonotic agent of human
babesiosis.
The Maltese cross form, which consists of four masses in an
erythrocyte, is characteristic of the developmental stage of B.
microti. Face of the giant panda sign and double panda sign seen on
MRI in a. Multiple sclerosis b. Wilson's disease c. Metachromatic
leukodystrophy d. Creutzfeldt Jakob disease Ans....B....Wilson
disease The midbrain panda sign on T2-weighted MRI has been
previously described as preservation of normal signal intensity in
the red nuclei and lateral portion of the pars reticulata of the
substantia nigra, high signal in the tegmentum, and hypointensity
of the superior colliculus. The face of the miniature panda is seen
within the pontine tegmentum. It is delineated by the relative
hypointensity of the medial longitudinal fasciculi and central
tegmental tracts Pupillary powdering is seen in a. Pigment
dispersion syndrome b. ICE syndrome c. Pseudoexfoliation syndrome
d. Posner Schlossmann syndrome Ans......C.....PSeudoexfoliation
syndrome The deposition of pseufoexfoliative material at the
pupillary margin causes the appearance of 'pupillary powdering' and
this condition is a/w poor pupillary dilation. Brain cells most
sensitive to hypoxia are a. Oligodendrocytes b. Astrocytes c.
Pyramidal cells d. Endothelial cells Ans......C....Pyramidal cells
+ Brain cells sensitivity to hypoxia :Neurons > Oligodendrocytes
> Astrocytes > Endothelial cells
-
+ Among Neurons most sensitive are - Pyramidal cells in area CA1
of hippocampus (Ammon's horn) - known as Sommer's sector First list
of essential medicines in India was published in which year? 1996
1997 1998 1999 Ans.....A.....1996 The National list of essential
medicines is one of the key instruments in balanced healthcare
delivery system of a country which inter alia includes accessible,
affordable quality medicine at all the primary, secondary, tertiary
levels of healthcare. Realizing this GOI, MOHFW decided to have its
own essential medicines list. The first National List of Essential
Medicines of India was prepared and released in 1996. The disease
which is classically described as associated with the ancient "silk
route" is A. Syphilis B. Gonorrhea C. Behcet's disease D.
Cysticercosis Ans.....C......Behcet's disease + Behet's disease is
a multisystem disorder named after the Turkish dermatologist,
Hulusi Behet (18891948), who recognised and reported in 1937 a
triad of symptoms consisting of recurrent eye inflammation, oral
ulcers and genital ulcers. + Behet's disease is particularly common
in the Far East and the Mediterranean basin, and is frequently
noted between the 30th and 45th degree latitudes in Asian and
European populations, corresponding to the Old Silk Road, an
ancient trading route stretching between the
Mediterranean, the Middle East and the Far East. + The disease
had also been alluded to in descriptions by physicians as far back
as Hippocrates. Ohngren's classification and Ohngren's line are
related to A. Cerebellopontine angle tumor B. Maxillary sinus Ca C.
Glomus jugulare tumor D. Basal cell ca of eyelid
Ans......B......Maxillary Sinus Ca ++ Historically, Ohngren's line,
connecting the medial canthus of the eye to the angle of the
mandible, is used to divide the maxillary sinus into an
anteroinferior portion (infrastructure), which is associated with a
good prognosis, and a superoposterior portion (suprastructure),
which has a poor prognosis. ++ The poorer outcome associated with
superoposterior cancers reflects early access of these tumours to
critical structures, including the eye, skull base, pterygoids, and
infratemporal fossa. PIRADS is a reporting scheme for a. Prostate
b. Pancreatitis c. Pulmonary X-rays d. Pregnancy
Ans.....A..........Prostate PI-RADS an acronym for Prostate
Imaging-Reporting and Data System refers to a structured reporting
scheme for prostate cancer. The score is assessed on prostate MRI
Acute anterior uveitis associated with hypopyon is seen with this
therapy: a. Zidovudine b. Maraviroc c. Reltegravir d. Rifabutin
Ans.......D............ (Rifabutin). Rifabutin is used for
prophylaxis of
-
disseminated MAC infection in AIDS patients; also used in TB and
Crohns. It is well known to be a/w hypopyon uveitis as a side
effect. ALSO KNOW: Cidofovir can also cause this effect. Idealisib
is FDA approved for treatment of CLL CML ALL AML Ans.....CLL
Idealisib is a phosphoinositide 3-kinase inhibitor; more
specifically, it blocks P110, the delta isoform of the enzyme
phosphoinositide 3-kinase. Approved for CLL and relapsed follicular
B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma (FL) and relapsed small lymphocytic
lymphoma (SLL) Blackfoot disease" is due to consumption of water
contaminated with a. copper b. selenium c. ergot d. arsenic
Ans....D......Arsenic BlackFoot Disease was associated with the
consumption of inorganic arsenic from the artesian wells. Typical
clinical symptoms and signs of progressive arterial occlusion are
mainly found in the lower extremities Angioid streaks in the fundus
are seen in all except a. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum b. Acromegaly c.
Pagets disease d. Hypocalcemia Ans.......D......Hypocalcemia
Angioid streaks (also called Knapps striae) are cracks in the
Bruch's membrane...
I also use this mnemonic "PAPSHEL.." Psudoxanthoma elasticum ..
Acromegaly ..Pagets disease..Sickle cell disease..Hypercalcemia..
Ehler Danlos syndr.. Lead poisoning. The test of choice to detect
perivalvular abcess of the aortic valve is: (a) MRI of heart (b)
Transesophageal Echo with Doppler (c) Ventriculography (d) CT chest
Ans......B.... An earlier Comed-K question Trans Esophageal
Echocardiography with color Doppler is the test of choice to detect
perivalvular abscesses: - H'son 18th Marey's law relates a. heart
rate and BP b. cardiac output and stroke volume c. respiratory rate
and exercise d. Hb level and hypoxia Ans.....A.........heart rate
and BP Marey's Law states that heart rate is inversely related to
arterial blood pressure Bracht-Wachter bodies are found in a.
rheumatic heart disease b. subacute bacterial endocarditis c. old
sign of acute MI d. amyloidosis of heart Ans......B..........
subacute bacterial endocarditis BrachtWachter bodies are found in
infective endocarditis consisting of yellow-white miliary spots in
the myocardium. First appendicectomy was performed by (don't curse
me for this........BUT was asked in DNBCET earlier)
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a. Jacopo Berengario da Carpi b. Gabriele Fallopio c. Caspar
Bauhin d. Claudius Amyand Ans...........D........Claudius Amyand
The first successful appendicectomy was performed in 1735 by
Claudius Amyand ALSO KNOW + Kurt Semm performed the first
laparoscopic appendectomy in 1981 Most common side effect of ACE
inhibitors is a. Hyperkalemia b. Dry cough c. Ankle edema d.
Angioedema Ans.....(B).......Dry cough + Dry cough is the most
common and annoying, although harmless, side effect associated with
the use of ACE inhibitors. + It usually disappears on withdrawal of
the specific ACE inhibitor + Accumulation of bradykinin maybe the
cause Treatment fo choice for bacillary angiomatosis is a.
erythromycin b. amoxicillin c. ciprofloxacin d.
trimethorpim-sulfamethaxazole Ans....(A).....Erythromycin +
Bacillary Angiomatosis is caused by Bartonella henslae or
B.quintana + MC manifestation is raised, reddish, highly vascular
skin lesions that can mimic the lesions of Kaposi sarcoma; common
in AIDS + Drug of choice : erythromycin Lafora bodies maybe
associated with a. Alzheimer's disease b. Epilepsy c. Acute
hemorrhagic stroke
d. Wernicke's encephalopathy Ans....(B).....Epilepsy Lafora
disease: progressive myoclonus epilepsy ; lafora bodies - abnormal
glycogen clumps in neurons...... ALSO KNOW + Hirano bodies:
Alzheimer's disease + Bunina bodies: ALS All are used for treating
osteoporsis except a. Zoledronic acid b. Pamidronate c. Denosumab
d. Natalizumab Ans....D........Natalizumab Zoledronic acid and
pamidronate - IV biphsophonates Denosumab - monoclonal antibody
that prevents conversion of preosteoclast to mature osteoclast.
ALSO KNOW: + Teriparatide used in osteoporsis Rx - analog of PTH;
it stimulates the production of new collagenous bone matrix
Sampolaesi's line is seen in a. cornea b. angle of the eye c.
retina d. optic chiasma Ans.....B > A.......a controversial
question from a recent exam Technically Sampolaesi's line is a
pigmented line just anterior to Schwalbe's line......considering
that Schwalbe's line is a peripheral termination of Descemet's
membrane A (cornea) may be marked as answer; BUT sampolaesi's line
is seen clinically ONLY by gonioscopy - in the angle of the eye (B)
Medulloblastoma belongs to grade ______ as per WHO classification ?
I
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II III IV Ans.....D.....IV MedulloBLASToma and GlioBLASToma -
Grade IV Osteitis and osteomyelitis maybe complications with which
vaccine? a. MMR b. BCG c. HiB d. Hepatitis B Ans....B.......BCG
Osteitis and OSteomyelitis - BCG ALSO KNOW - Vaccine associated
reactions (add to MAGIC 7/e Pg 247) + Toxic shock syndrome -
Measles + Acute cerebellar ataxia , Pneumonitis - Varicella +
Transient thrombocytopenia - measles, MMR, HiB vaccine +
Intussusception - Rotavirus vaccine Exanthem subitum is caused by
a. Herpes virus b. EBV c. Poxvirus d. Togavirus
Ans....(A)....Herpesvirus Exanthem subitum (Roseola infantum) is a
common childhood disease. The causative organism is human
herpesvirus 6 (HHV-6). The classic presentation of roseola infantum
is a 9- to 12-month-old infant who acutely develops a high fever
and often a febrile seizure. After 3 days, a rapid defervescence
occurs, and a morbilliform rash appears Winking owl sign seen in a.
vertebral metastases b. neurofibromatosis c. maxillary sinusitis d.
orbital metastases
Ans.....A......vertebral metastases Erosion of the pedicles (the
"winking owl" sign) is the earliest radiologic finding of vertebral
tumor. - H'son 18th. In 2008, a series of suicides planned over the
internet in Japan cam to be known as The Japanese Detergent Suicide
technique........gas involved was a. Carbon monoxide b. hydrogen
sulfide c. sulfur hexaflouride d. hydroegn cyanide
Ans....b.....hydrogen sulfide Was an earlier AIIMS
question..........if u r interested read more here..... Ozurdex
intravitreal implant consist of _______ mg of dexamethasone (prev
AIIMS numerical question) a. 0.5 b. 0.6 c. 0.7 d. 1.0
Ans.....C....0.7 OZURDEX (dexamethasone intravitreal implant) 0.7
mg is a biodegradable implant injected into the eye (vitreous;
approved for -- macular edema following branch retinal vein
occlusion (BRVO) or central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO) and --
NON infectious posterior uveitis Eosinophilia is the presence of
> _________ eosinophils per microlitre of blood a. 400 b. 500 c.
600 d. 700 Ans..... B 500 Eosinophilia is the presence of > 500
eosinophils per microL of blood - H'son 18th
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Few more......... 1. Carneys triad is associated with all except
A. GIST B. Male preponderance C. pulmonary chondroma D. manifests
in younger age group 2. Dubois abscess is seen in A. skin B. thymus
C. adrenals D. eyelids 3. Component of corpora quadrigemina is A.
Fourth ventricle B. Medulla C. Superior colliculus D. Sigmoid sinus
Ans.........B.....B......C Carney triad: extra-adrenal
paraganglioma, GIST, and pulmonary chondroma; MC in young females
Dubois abscess: thymus (a/w congenital syphilis) Corpora
quadrigemina = sup + inf colliculus Few qns 1. "Piano Key Sign" is
positive in A) Carpal Instability B) Proximal Radioulnar Joint
Instability C) Distal Tibiofibular Joint Instability D) Distal
Radioulnar Joint Instability 2. Dyslipidemia can be a side effect
of A. Ramipril B. Thiazides C. Amlopdepine D. Amiloride 3. Acute
hemorrhagic cystitis may be seen with A. Methotrexate B.
Azathioprine C. Cyclophosphamide
D. Paclitaxel Ans.....D B C Piano key sign - DRUJ instaibility -
was asked in MH SSET and COMEDK earlier Thiazides - dyslipidemia
Cyclophopshamide - cystitis - str forward qn All are features of
Addisonian (Adrenal) crisis except a. abdominal pain b.
hypertension c. hyponatremia d. hypoglycemia Ans....B....HTN An
acute adrenal crisis can manifest with vomiting, abdominal pain,
and hypovolemic shock. Hyponatremia is common (although not
diagnostic); hyperkalemia, metabolic acidosis, and hypoglycemia
also may be present. 1. Stiles Crawford effect is with respect to
A. Cornea B. Retina C. Crystalline lens D. Cataractous lens 2. Ames
test is used to detect A. Action potential B. Mutagenic potential
C. Cataractogenic potential D. Emetogenic potential 3. Kveim
sitzbach test is diagnostic for A. Amyloidosis B. Sarcoidosis C.
Tuberculosis D. Brucellosis 4. touton giant cells are seen in A.
tumors B. xanthomas C. RHD D. TB
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5. True about Canakinumab is A. acts against IL-1 B. acts
against Il-2 C. used in asthma D. used in rheumatoid arthritis Ans
to yest set......... 1-B; 2-B; 3-B; 4-B; 5-A Canakinumab is a human
monoclonal antibody targeted at interleukin-1 beta; approved for
the treatment of cryopyrin-associated periodic syndromes Apremilast
- FDA approved for psoriatic arthritis is a a. phosphodiesterase 4
inhibitor b. histone deacetylase inhibitor c. anti IgG monoclonal
antibody d. new herbal remed Ans....A.... phosphodiesterase 4
inhibitor Apremilast is a phosphodiesterase 4 (PDE4) inhibitor
indicated for the treatment of adult patients with active psoriatic
arthritis. all are used for treating mycosis fungoides except a.
bexarotene b. omalizumab c. vorinostat d. electron beam therapy
Ans....(B).....Omalizumab Romidepsin is another hitone deacetylase
inhibitor used for mycosis fungoides; bexarotene, vorinostat and
electron beam theray are options. Also Know Omalizumab is a
recombinant humanized IgG1 monoclonal anti-IgE antibody - INDICATED
FOR adults and adolescents (12 years of age and above) with
moderate to severe persistent asthma. Fruit with bite mark of the
victim or suspect is preserved in A. Camdens solution
B. Hartmann's solution C. Refrigerator door D. Refrigerator
freezer compartment Ans is ......A.....Campden's solution This was
a JIPMER qn......Campden's solution is a metabisulphite solution
used for fruit bottling and is used for preserving fruit bite
marks. ALSO KNOW Chocolate with bite marks are preserved in
refrigerator (NOT frozen) Kaufman white scheme is for serotyping of
a. clostridia b streptococci c. staphylococci d. salmonella
Ans....D.....salmonella The Kauffman and White classification
scheme is a system that classifies the genus Salmonella into
serotypes, based on surface antigens. ALSO KNOW -- Selection of
cells rich in H antigens may be made using a device, named
Craigie's tube SPIKES approach is used a. during CPR in infant b.
during CPR in adult c. for critically ill patient in ICU d. for
epileptic found in non hospital settings Ans....C....for critically
ill patient in ICU SPIKES approach is a protocol for disclosing
unfavorable informationbreaking bad newsto cancer patients about
their illness. Straightforward and practical, the protocol meets
the requirements defined by published research on this topic. The
protocol (SPIKES) consists of six steps S = "Setting Up" P =
"Perception"
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I = "Invitation" K = "Knowledge" E = "Empathising and Exploring"
S = "Strategy and Summary" Urinary bladder develops from the a.
Pronephros b. mesonephros c. metanephros d. urogenital sinus
Ans.....(D)....urogenital sinus Bladder develops from urogenital
sinus. ALSo KNow -- Epithelium of trigone of the bladder is derived
from the absorbed mesonephric / WOLFFIAN ducts (mesoderm).
Prophylaxis with vitamin C is helpful in preventing A) Flurosis B)
Neuro Lathyrism C) Iodine deficiency D) Botulism
Ans....(B).....Neurolathyrism Vitamin C prophylaxis has shown
benifit in prophylaxis of Neurolathyrism MRI sign of intracapsular
rupture of a breast implant is a. linguine sign b. meniscus sign c.
double line sign d. toothpaste sign Ans...(A)...Linguine sign
Linguine sign: MRI sign of intracapsular rupture of a breast
implant. ALSO KNOW -- Meniscus sign: Air is seen between the
Aspergillus fungal ball and the wall of the cavity -- Double line
sign: Avascular necrosis of femoral head on MRi -- Toothpaste sign:
Represents an
extrusion of a disc into epidural space Quilty effect is seen in
A. Kidney transplantation B. Lung transplantation C. Cardiac
transplantation D. Bone marrow transplantatio Ans....C....Cardiac
transplantation Quilty effect refers to lymphocytic infiltrates in
the endocardium of cardiac allografts. Quilty effect is generally
not regarded as a manifestation of rejection and should be
distinguished from focal interstitial lymphoid infiltrates of
cellular rejection. Sofosbuvir and Simeprevir were FDA approved in
2013 for ? a. Hep B b. Hep C c. HIV d. H1N1 Ans...(B).....Hepatitis
C - Nucleotide analog inhibitor - sofosbuvir - Protease inhibitor -
Simeprevir, is approved for treating adults with chronic hepatitis
C virus or HCV infection Rigler sign is seen in a. Pneumothorax b.
Pneumoperitoneum c. Pneumoencephaloecele d. Pericardial effusion
Ans....(B).......pneumoperitoenum The Rigler's sign, also known as
the double wall sign, is seen on an x-ray of the abdomen when air
is present on both sides of the intestine, i.e. when there is air
on both the luminal and peritoneal side of the bowel wall -
Pneumoperitoneum (due to perforation or, from recent
instrumentation or surgery) The precore mutants in Hepatitis B are
characterised by notable absence of
-
A) HBVDNA B) HBeAg C) HBcAg D) AntiHBeAg Ans....(B).....HBeAg
....MHCET 2014 qn Hepatitis B virus (HBV) precore mutants are
associated often with highly productive infection in hepatitis B
surface antigen (HBsAg) carriers lacking hepatitis B e antigen
(HBeAg) but positive for anti-HBe, rendering serological
identification of infectious individuals unreliable. von Herick's
method is useful for assessing a. grade of posterior subcapsular
cataract b. thickness of cornea c. depth of anterior chamber d.
macular edema post cataract surgery Ans....(C).....depth of
anterior chamber von Herick's method is for asessing the depth of
the anterior chamber - compares peripheral anterior chamber depth
with thickness of the peripheral cornea - used for assessing risk
of angle closure Also Know - Lincoff's rule : used for determining
site of break in retinal detachment Recent AIIMS journal
publication question... Which is a SGLT2 inhibitor ? a. Exanitide
b. Canagliflozin c. Saroglitazar d. Sitagliptin
Ans....(b).....canagliflozin -- The kidneys reabsorb glucose via
sodium glucose co-transporters (SGLTs), primarily SGLT2. --
Canagliflozin provides SGLT2 inhibition, reducing renal glucose
reabsorption and increasing urinary glucose excretion "Box
shaped" heart on x-ray is seen in a. tetralogy of Fallot b. Ebstein
anomaly c. TAPVR d. Endocardial cushion defect Ans....(B)...Ebstein
anomaly..........ALSO KNOW -- box-shaped heart (Ebstein anomaly).
-- scimitar (partial anomalous pulmonary venous return), --
gooseneck (endocardial cushion defect), -- boot-shaped heart
(tetralogy of Fallot), -- figure of three and reverse figure of
three (aortic coarctation), -- egg on a string: transposition of
the great arteries), -- snowman/figure of 8/cottage leaf sign:
[TAPVR MC cardiovascular manif of thyrotoxicosis is a. sinus
tachycardia b. atrial fibrillation c. supraventricular tachycardia
d. HOCM Ans.....A.....sinus tachycardia Sinus tachycardia is the MC
cardiovascular manifestation of thyrotoxicosis. Atrial fibrillation
is more common in patients >50 years of age. Straightforward
question but like I always say u've got to get the simple ones also
right...... which of the follwing is known to cause acute myopia
and angle closure glaucoma ? a. gabapentin b. levatricetam c.
quetiapine d. topiramate Ans....D.....topiramate Topiramate is an
oral sulphamate
-
medication primarily used for seizure, migraine and neuropathic
pain. It has been a/w secondary bilateral angle closure, which can
mimic acute angle closure glaucoma and induced myopia also. ALSO
KNOW -- Quetiapine is a/w cataracts Vogts triad includes all except
A. Seizures B. Mental retardation C. Choroidal hemangioma D.
Adenoma sebaceum Ans...C Vogts triad in tuberous sclerosis includes
EPILOIA= EPIlepsy, LOw Iq and Adenoma sebaceum Shifting sands of
Sahara syndrome may be seen as a complication of A. LASIK B.
Scleral buckling surgery C. Squint surgery for paralytic squint D.
Glaucoma calve implant - Sands of the Sahara syndrome, or diffuse
lamellar keratitis (DLK) as it is more commonly called, is an
exaggerated interface inflammation following lamellar refractive
surgery. - While all LASIK patients on careful examination have a
few white blood cells in the interface on the first postoperative
day, in DLK there is a continuous sheet of cells. - These are MC
seen in the periphery of the flap, especially superiorly. - Most
patients respond to topical steroids. Ludloff's sign is seen in a.
# neck of humerus b. # lesser trochanter femur c. # medial
epicondyle humerus d. # lateral epicondyle humerus Ans....(B).....#
lesser trochanter - The Ludloff test is a specific test for the
iliopsoas muscle. - The test isolates the iliopsoas muscle by
lifting the leg with the knee
extended whilst sitting on a chair - Production of a deep groin
pain during this test implies the muscle's tendinous insertion onto
the LESSER trochanter is affected (positive Ludloff sign) So - Add
to MAGIC on Pg 395- in the point abt ludloff sign, add the
"iliopsoas muscle" part as above. Which is anti-apoptotic ? p53 Fas
Bax Bcl-2 Ans....Bcl-2 Bcl-2 is anti-apoptotic. Whenever it is
over-expressed in tumours, cells will have a prolonged surviva
Ferriman Gallwey score is used to clinically grade a. extent of
endometriosis b. hirsutism c. alopecia d. area of burns
Ans...(B).....Hirsutism Ferriman Gallwey score is most widely used
method for visually scoring excess terminal body or facial hair
growth for the clinical or investigational assessment of -
Hirsutism. Modified Ferriman- Gallwey (mFG) scoring system used now
considers 9 body areas. Poland syndrome - all are true except a.
absence of pectoralis major b. syndactyly and brachydactyly c.
right side MC affected d. females MC affected
Ans.....(D)......females MC affected Poland syndrome: - MC in males
and on right side - absence of pectoralis major - syndactyly +
brachydactyly =
-
(symbrachydactyly) - rarely a/w dextrocardia Widened
intercondylar notch and squared inferior margin of the
patella....seen in A. Osteoarthritis B. Hemophilic artyhritis C.
Juvenile rheum arthritis D. Psoariatic arthropathy
Ans....(B)...Hemophilic arthritis -
Squaredpatella(flattenedinferiorly). - Widened intercondylar notch
- Tibiotalar slanting. - Talar tilt What's NEW in MAGIC 8th edn?
Should I buy 8th edn or will 7th edn be enough? How different is it
from other revision books? ........these are the questions many of
you have been asking me.......so I am clarifying that
here........read on below....... My main aim of Sure Success MAGIC
has been to provide "A QUICK REVISION NO NONSENSE BOOK that gives
you MAXIMUM INFORMATION IN MINIMUM TIME !!" - with this new edition
also, I have made the best effort to live up to this . 1. The
theory part has undergone major changes in almost all subjects and
systems. High-yield MCQ related material including those from
recent exams has been added and low-yield material has been
deleted. 2. Numerous high quality color images have been added in
all subjects and systems - these serve the purpose of "image based
questions:" which are standard in most computer based exams these
days (AIPGE, DNB CET, AIIMS etc). These images, are along with the
text itself ,and not at the end of the book - this ensures
easier
readability (ex: images related to congenital heart disease are
along with congenital heart disease topic; images related to
cataract are along with cataract topic etc...) 3. Some images have
MCQ related points within the image itself (ex: anatomy of celiac
plexus or anatomy of brachial plexus is a favorite MCQ question for
examiners)...... similarly each subject has numerous mages for
easier/faster understanding. 4. The text has all MCQ related points
in BOLD and ITALICS with "Q" marked as superscript - so these
"MCQ/likely MCQ" can be identified easily - in fact frankly I would
say each and every line in this book is important. It has the "core
knowledge" of various PG entrance papers of the past 10 years. 5.
Sure Success MAGIC is not a collection of 1000s of facts one line
below the other like many other books - "Its
different!"..........In fact I have ensured that it is as much as
possible presented systematically starting from etiology to
treatment/prognosis....(ex: psoriasis topic would start from
etiology and end at treatment, rather than giving 100 facts about
psoriasis in 100 lines) - ensures it is easier to remember/retain
and recall also. 6. Numerous new tables and flowcharts have been
added to enable easier/faster understanding. 7. 2015 exams roundup
includes important points from the various state and central level
exams of 2015.
-
8. Extensive Index has been added at the end. Of course the
other existing highlight of the book have been retained in this
edition also - as below System-wise and subject-wise presentation.
High Yield tables 100s of Easy to remember Mnemonics / Memory Aids
for confusing stuff (ex: LI Fraumeni syndrome = chromosome
17.....remember as LI= ulta 17!)...... You will find these little
helpful memory tips scattered throughout the book. PG entrance
preparation is a difficult phase and if the book is in black and
white OR in shades of a singe color (like light and dark blue, red
etc..) ........reading these only for hours/days together sometimes
gets boring and stressful ( I have been through that phase and I
KNOW it!). HENCE for this new edition of MAGIC, I have requested
the publisher and ensured that this book is of an excellent quality
and in full color BUT at affordable price...........when u pick up
this book you will like the feel of the book and feel like reading
it ! Ohkkkk..................I just read the lines above after I
typed this and realized that I am "OH SO TOTALLY PROMOTING!" my new
edition here................YES I AM and I have no issues about
that because.............I want every PG aspirant to BENEFIT from
this book................ I have been through the grind of PG
entrance preparation and know how much "hard work" you guys put
into it.......its the same "hard work" which you just finished
recently in passing MBBS.........its the same "hard work"
which you WILL again put into 2-3 years of your PG
course.......BUT in addition to the same "hard work" PG entrance
also requires "SMART work"......and Sure Success MAGIC, 8th edn,
will help you in this direction. All the Best and God Bless Dr.
Ramgopal PS: Starting July 1st week I will be starting
"www.suresuccessmagic.com" for any corrections and printing errors
in the book and also for additional info about any topic which has
come recently as MCQ - you can add this into your books in the
respective pages - I have called it - Add To Magic - "ATM"!!
........... Ex: Just when I thought I had included almost all
possible MCQ related stuff about schizophrenia - there was a qn
about high risk of schizophrenia in ptnts with Velocardiofacial
syndrome!!- (in TNPG 2015) - so I will try to include all such
points..