MCQ in ORL COURSE Name:_______________________________________Computer #:____________ 1.Dorsum of Nose formed by all of the following EXCEPT: a.Vomer b. Lower Lateral Cartilage c.Nasal Bones d. Septal Cartilage 2.Upper lateral cartilage attached with the nasal bone a. Under side of the nasal bone b. Postero Superior part of the bone c. End to end d. Not attached at all 3. Nasal Vestibule lined by the: a. Cuboidal epithelium b. Columnar epithelium c.Skin d. Pseudo stratified ciliated columnar epithelium 4.The paranasal sinuses drains into the middle meatus of the nose EXCEPT: a. Sphenoid sinus
This document is posted to help you gain knowledge. Please leave a comment to let me know what you think about it! Share it to your friends and learn new things together.
1. Dorsum of Nose formed by all of the following EXCEPT:a. Vomerb. Lower Lateral Cartilagec. Nasal Bonesd. Septal Cartilage
2. Upper lateral cartilage attached with the nasal bonea. Under side of the nasal boneb. Postero Superior part of the bonec. End to endd. Not attached at all
4. The paranasal sinuses drains into the middle meatus of the nose EXCEPT:a. Sphenoid sinusb. Middle ethmoid sinusc. Maxillary sinusd. Posterior sinus
5. Olfactory cleft lies between the:a. Middle turbinate & cribriform plateb. Superior turbinate & cribriform platec. Superior turbinate & inferior turbinated. Inferior turbinate & cribriform plate
6. True about the nerve supply of the nose:a. Sympathetic supply from superior cervical ganglionb. Parasympathetic supply via nervus intermediusc. Nerve supply is extremely richd. All of the above
7. Type of sphenoid sinus in normal population is usually:a. Sellarb. Postsellerc. Presellerd. Maximal Pneumatisation
8. Pain in vertexis seen in:a. Ethmoid sinusitisb. Sphenoid sinusitisc. Frontal sinusitisd. Maxillary sinusitis
9. Nose develops from:a. Second branchial archb. First branchial archc. Third branchial archd. First & second arch
10.Incidence of mucocele is lowest ina. Frontal sinusb. Sphenoid sinusc. Maxillary sinusd. Ethmoid sinus
11.Extraction of which tooth commonly leads on to oroantral fistula:a. Second pre molar b. First molarc. First pre-molard. Second molar
12.Sodium chromogycate is helpful in allergic rhinitis because it causes:a. Desensitizationb. Decongestion of nasal mucosac. Most cell stabilizationd. Vasoconstriction
13.Nasal polyps in a child should arouse the suspicion of:a. Celiac diseaseb. Aspirin hypersensitivityc. Cystic fibrosisd. All the above
14.Aquamous papilloma of the nose arises froma. Turbinatesb. Vestibulec. Septumd. Any of the above
15.Coincidental malignancy in upper respiratory tract with inverted papilloma is:
a. 2%b. 5%c. 4%d. 0.1%
16.Best approach for surgical excision of inverted papilloma of nose is:a. Caldwell-luc’s approachb. External ethmoidectomyc. Intranasal approachd. Lateral rhinotomy
17.Syphilis of nose usually involves the:a. Nasal septumb. Ethmoid sinusc. Nasal boned. Maxillary sinus
18.Septal perforation may seen in all EXCEPT:a. Tuberculosisb. Syphilisc. Leprosyd. Toxoplasmosis
19.Cosmetic rhinoplasty is preferably avoided in:a. Nose with thick greasy skinb. Ethnic nosesc. Over forty years of aged. All of the above
20.Idead nasolabial angle in males is:a. 80b. 100c. 110d. 90
22.Ideal age for otoplasty in ears is:a. 1 yearb. 5 yearsc. 12 yearsd. 2 years
23.Cribriform plate is a part of:a. Ethmoid boneb. It is a separate bonec. Frontal boned. Vomer
24.Treatment for carcinoma maxillary sinus is:a. Radiotherapyb. Radiotherapy followed by surgeryc. Maxillectomy followed by radiotherapyd. Chemotherapy only
29.Reduction rhinoplasty is for:a. Hump noseb. Narrow nosec. Crooked nosed. Saddle nose
30.Tripode fracture is seen in:a. Zygomatic boneb. Temporal bonec. Nasal bonesd. Maxilla
31.Potato nose is seen in:a. Malignancyb. Sarcoidosisc. Rhinophymad. Rhinosporidiosis
32.Lefort II fracture also known as:a. Rhomboid fractureb. Pyramidal fracturec. Cranio-facial dissociationd. Molar fracture
33.Cranio-facial dislocation is seen in:a. Lefort I fractureb. Lefort II fracturec. Lefort III fractured. None of the above
34.True about nasopharyngeal angiofibroma:a. Benign but locally invasiveb. Seen only in males around pubertyc. High vascular tumord. All of the above
35.Commonest malignant neoplasm of the nose and paranasal sinuses is:a. Basal cell carcinomab. Squamous cellcarcinomac. Adenocarcinomad. Malignant melanoma
36.Commonest site of inverted papilloma of the nose:a. Lateral wall of the noseb. Nasal septumc. Floor of the nosed. Roof of the nose
37.Fracture of the skull seen in:a. Lefort I fractureb. Lefort II fracturec. Lefort III fractured. Lefort IV fracture
38.Diagnosis of glandular fever is confirmed by:a. Positive monospot testb. Raised liver enzymec. Leucocytosisd. C-reactive protein
39.Scarlet fever rashes are differentiated by:a. These are painfulb. There are slightly tenderc. Rashes appear earlyd. Desquamation
40.Waldayer’s ring is:a. Lymphatic ringb. Venous ringc. Arterial ringd. Ring of pigmentation
41.Shoberry tongue is seen in:a. Erysipelasb. Scarlet feverc. Monday feverd. All of the above
42.In Plummer Vinson syndrome most significant investigation is:a. Serum ironb. Bone marrow ironc. Serum hemoglobind. Serum ferritin
44.True about globus syndrome:a. Feeling of lump in the throatb. Organic lesion presentc. Relieved by anxietyd. Treatment is surgery
45.Difficulty in swallowing fluids than solids seen in:a. Achlasiab. Oesophageal stricturec. Pharyngeal pouchd. Carcinoma oesophagus
46.Acute retropharyngeal abscess in infants is dangerous because:a. Space is smaller in sizeb. Immune system is poorc. Infant’s spine is short and larynx is highd. It occurs bilaterally
47.A fascial space is defined as the area:a. Bone and fasciab. Area bounded by connective tissuec. Area around the glandd. Between muscle and fascia
48.Retropharyngeal space extends from base of skull to:a. Hyoid boneb. Bifuraction of tracheac. Angle of mandibled. Cricoid cartilage
49.All are contents of parapharyngeal space except:a. Internal jugular vienb. Part of parotid glandc. Submandibular glandd. Carotid artery
50.Trismus in parapharyngeal abscess due to spasm of the:a. Buccinatorb. Temporalisc. Masseterd. Medial pterygoid
56.Common site of hypopharyngeal tumour is:a. Anterior wallb. Posterior wallc. Post cricoid areasd. Pyriform fossa
57.Incidence of lymph node metastasis in pyriform fossa tumour is:a. 50%b. 95%c. 25%d. 75%
58.Radiographic finding of plummer Vinson syndrome is:a. Cricoid constrictionb. Post cricoid webc. Enlarged vasculatured. Mass in the pyriform fossa
59.Plummer Vinson syndrome is also known as:a. Killiam syndromeb. Paterson-Brown Kelly syndromec. Brown syndromed. None of the above
60.Type of apthous ulcer seen in population normally:a. Minorb. Malignantc. Majord. Recurrent
61.What is inappropriate about granular cell tumour of oral cavity:a. Common in upper jawb. Common in malesc. Common in fourth decaded. Arises from skeletal muscle
62.All are common sites of papilloma in oral cavity EXCEPT:a. Anterior pillarb. Buccal mucosac. Soft palated. Alveolus
63.Treatment of geographical tongue is:a. Reassuranceb. B-complexc. Vit. Ad. Iron
64.“Geographical tongue” is due to:a. Folic acid deficiencyb. Idiopathicc. Iron deficiencyd. Vit C deficiency
65.In “geographical tongue there is hypertrophy of:a. Circumvallate papillaeb. Filiform & fungiform papillaec. Fungiform papillaed. Filiform papillae
66.Median rhomboid glossitis is due to:a. Candida albicansb. Folic acid deficiencyc. Herpes virusd. Iron deficiency
67.All are types of ranula EXCEPT:a. Plungingb. Dermoidc. Simpled. Cavernous
68.Carcinoma soft palate is treated by:a. Radiotherapyb. Cryosurgeryc. Surgeryd. Chemotherapy
69.True about nerve supply of pyriform fossa:a. Secretomotor fibres go to chorda tympanib. Devoid of any nervec. Poor sensory supplyd. It has rich nerve supply
70.Malignant pleomorphic adenoma is commonest in:a. Minor salivary glandsb. Parotid glandc. Submandibular glandd. Sublingual gland
71.Most common malignant salivary gland tumour in children is:a. Muco-epidermoid tumourb. Adenoid cystic carcinomac. Adenocarcinomad. Squamous cell carcinoma
73.Most common site of mucoepidermoid tumour is:a. Submandibular glandb. Minor salivary glandsc. Sublingual glandd. Parotid gland
74.Accepted surgery for a benign parotid tumour is:a. Total parotidectomyb. Superficial parotidectomy + neck dissectionc. Superficial parotidectomyd. Enucleation
75.Cystic swelling in a parotid gland is usually caused by:a. Muco-epidemoid tumourb. Pleomorphic adenomac. Warthin’s tumourd. Adenoid cystic carcinoma
76.In a parotid tumour malignancy may be suspected with:a. Facial palsyb. Painc. Skin involvementd. All of the above
87.all are main functions of larynx EXCEPT:a. To control the air flowb. Phonationc. Generation of speechd. To protect the lungs
88.Microlaryngoscopy is usually done with an objective lens with focal length of:
a. 200 mmb. 400 mm c. 100 mmd. 300 mm
89.Vocal nodules present usually seen at:a. Anterior 2/3 & posterior 1/3 junctionb. Middle of the cordc. At the junction of anterior 1/3 & posterior 2/3 of the cordd. Posterior 1/3 of the cord
90.Most appropriate about spastic dysphonia:a. Seen in childrenb. Macrolaryngeal surgery cures the diseasec. It is stress relatedd. Hereditary
91.Diplophonia usually seen in:a. Vocal polypsb. Dysphonia plica ventricularisc. Contact ulcerd. Papilloma of larynx
92.Length of vocal cord in adult males:a. 3.5 cmb. 2.5 cmc. 1 cmd. 2 cm
93.Treatment of choice in early glottic cancer is:a. Chemotherapyb. Radiotherapyc. Toral laryngectomyd. Surgery followed by radiotherapy
94.Origin of laryngocele from:a. Vocal foldsb. Ventricular foldsc. Ventricled. All of the above
95.Left recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy is:a. aortic aneurysmb. Mitral stenosis surgeryc. Surgery of patent ductus arteriosisd. Subclavian artery aneurysm
96.Right recurrent laryngeal paralysis due to all EXCEPT:a. Carcinoma of apex of lungb. Aortic aneurismc. Thyroid surgeryd. Carcinoma of oesophagus
97.Dead space is reduced in tracheotomy:a. 15%b. 30 - 50%c. 10%d. 20%
98.Tracheal rings incised in tracheostomy are:a. Third & fourthb. Fifth & sixthc. Second & thirdd. First & second rings
99.Carotid body tumour is confirmed by:a. Ultrasoundb. Tomographyc. CT scand. Angiography
100. Commonest occult primary site is:a. Tonsilb. Pyriform fossac. Nasopharynxd. Base of tongue
101. Occult nodes are maximum in:a. Pyroform fossa tumoursb. Base of tongue malignancyc. Supraglottic tumoursd. Glottic tumours
102. Regurgitation of undigested good after a long time of swallowing is seen in:
a. Plummer Vinson syndrome b. Pharyngeal pouchc. Peptic ulcerd. Cardiac achlasia
109. Common symptom of laryngitis is:a. Painb. Dysphoniac. Burning sensationd. Foreign body sensation
110. Ludwig’s angina is infection of:a. Submental spaceb. Parapharyngeal spacec. Retropharyngeal spaced. Submandible space
111. Tuberculosis of the larynx affect the:a. Anterior part of the larynxb. Posterior part of the larynxc. Entire larynxd. None of the above
112. Tonsillar bed formed by all EXCEPT:a. Buccopharyngeal membraneb. Suprerior constrictor musclec. Pharyngobasilar fasiad. Inferior constrictor muscles
113. Most common malignancy of the tongue:a. Metastaticb. Malignant melanomac. Basal cell carcinomad. Squamous cell carcinoma
114. Most common site of salivary calculi:a. Submandibular glandb. Lingual glandc. Parotid glandd. Minor salivary glands
115. Paul-Bunnel test is for:a. Leukemiab. Diphtheriac. Glandular feverd. All of the above
116. Peritonsillar abscess most commonly occurs around which part of the tonsil:a. Anterosuperiorb. Lateralc. Anteroinferiord. Posterosuperior
117. Normal length of the styloid process is:a. 1.5 cmb. 2.5 cmc. 3.5 cmd. 4 cm
118. Which of the laryngeal cartilage does not ossify:a. Epiglottisb. Cuneiform cartilagec. Corniculate cartilaged. All of the above
120. Inspiratory strider seen in obstruction of:a. Larynxb. Tracheac. Bronchusd. Bronchiole
121. Most common histological type of laryngeal malignancy:a. Adenocarcinomab. Transitional cell carcinomac. Squamous cell carcinomad. None of the above
122. Angioneurotic edema is:a. Type I reactionb. Type II reactionc. Type III reactiond. Type IV reaction
123. Most common type of oesophageal malignancy:a. Adenocarcinomab. Squamous cell carcinomac. Transitional cell carcinomad. None of the above
124. Occult nodes commonly seen in malignancy of:a. Nasopharynxb. Larynxc. Oesophagusd. Lungs
125. Commonest type of malignancy of auricle and external auditory:a. Adenocarcinomab. Squamous cell carcinomac. Malignant melanomad. Transitional cell carcinoma
126. The cartilage of pinna made up of:a. Hyaline cartilageb. Fibrous cartilagec. Elastic cartilaged. Mixed cartilage
127. External auditery meatus is cartilaginous in its:a. Outer one thirdb. Outer two thirdc. Outer one forthd. Outer half
128. Boils of external auditory canal are very painful due to:a. Associated perichondritisb. Close attachment of skinc. It is extremely rich in sensory supplyd. Presence of cerumenous glands
129. Depth of the middle ear is the least in:a. Mesotympanumb. It is equal c. Epitympanumd. Hypotympanum
130. The vascular structure lie below the floor of middle ear is:a. Internal jugular veinb. Internal carotid arteryc. Jugular bulbd. Emissary vein
138. Cartilagenous part of Eustachian tube is:a. Outer halfb. Medial two thirdc. Outer two thirdd. Middle third
139. The fluid near to consistency of CSF:a. Cortilymphb. Perilymphc. Endolymphd. Prilymph & endolymph
140. Reissener’s membrane is between the:a. Scala media and scala tympanib. Scala vestibule and scala tympanic. Scala media and scala vestibulid. Cochlea and vestibule
141. Tympani membrane functions best when the middle ear pressure is:a. slightly higher than external earb. equal to external ear pressurec. slightly lower than external eard. None of the above is correct
142. Pain in the ear may be due to diseases of all parts of ear EXCEPT: a. External auditory canalb. Middle earc. Cochlead. Auricle
143. Most common symptom of ear disease is:a. Painb. Tinnitusc. Discharged. Deafness
145. Perforation of tympanic membrane with ragged edges is seen in:a. Chronic otitis mediab. Bass traumac. T.M. traumad. Myringotomy
146. Pain and tenderness in the region of tragus are usually caused by:a. Furuncleb. Mastoiditisc. Waxd. Temporamandibular joint dysfunction
147. Lining of the eustachian tube is:a. Cuboid epitheliumb. Transitional epitheliumc. Squamous epitheliumd. Ciliated columnar epithelium
148. Preferred frequency of tuning fork for hearing test is:a. 512b. 204c. 256d. 102
149. The Rinne test will be negative in conductive deafness of:a. 5-10 dbb. 0 - 5 dbc. 10 - 15 dbd. more than 15 db
150. Absolute bone conduction measures:a. Middle ear functionb. External ear functionc. Inner ear functiond. Middle and inner ear function
151. Absolute bone conduction is reduced in:a. Perceptive deafnessb. Conductive deafnessc. Psycogenic deafnessd. Malignant otitis media
152. Pharyngeal opening of Eustachian tube is at:a. Posterior end of superior turbonateb. Posterior end of middle turbonatec. Posterior end of inferior turbonated. Below the inferior turbonate
153. Weber’s test is lateralized when the hearing loss is:a. 7 dbb. 5 dbc. more than 15 dbd. more than 10 db
154. Masking is applied in better ear if the difference in threshold of two years is:a. 20 - 30 dbb. 30 - 40 dbc. 40 db or mored. more than 20 db
155. False about speech audiometry:a. It predicts the usefulness of hearing aidsb. It predicts the benefits of operationsc. It is very useful in functional deafnessd. It is a valuable method to access actual disability
156. Impedance audiometry is useful in:a. Ossicular discontinuityb. Eustachian tube obstructionc. Sercretory otitis mediad. All of the above
158. All are true about acoustic reflexes EXCEPT:a. It can help in localizing the facial nerve lesionsb. It is useful in malingerersc. It is very useful in Meniere’s diseased. Tensor tymapani contraction can be tested by stimulating cornea with
cold air
159. Most effective test in functional hearing loss is:a. Stenger’s testb. Lombard’s testc. Evoked response audimetryd. Delayed speech feedback
160. Fatiguable nystagmus is seen in:a. Vestibular typeb. Ocular typec. Central typed. Cochlear type
161. In caloric test, the interval between two irrigation is:a. 10 secondsb. 40 secondsc. 5 secondsd. 2 seconds
162. Caloric test is carried out in supine position with head raised about:a. 20b. 40c. 10d. 30
163. Perichondritis of the auricle usually caused by:a. Streptococcusb. Staphylococcusc. E. Colid. Pseudomonas
164. Ceruminous glands are present in external auditory canal in:a. Outer thirdb. Entire canalc. Outer halfd. Outer two third
165. Most common benign tumour of external auditory meatus:a. Osteomab. Adenomac. Papillomad. Ceruminoma
166. Primary cause of osteoma of external auditory canal is:a. Otitis externalb. Swimming in cold waterc. Traumad. Long standing otitis media
167. Commonest organism responsible for otitis externa in tropics is:a. Streptococcusb. H. influenzac. Staphylococcusd. Pseudomonas
168. Abnormally patent Eustachian tube may be seen in all of the following EXCEPT:a. Marked weight lossb. Adenoid enlargementc. Debilitating diseases in old aged. Congenital
169. Unilateral secretory otitis media in an adult may seen in:a. Grandular feverb. Parapharyngeal tumourc. Aidsd. Carcinoma nasopharynx
170. Commonest bacterial isolate in acute suppurative otitis media is:a. Pneumococcusb. H. influenzac. E. Colid. Staphylococcus
171. Chief complaint in chronic middle ear effusion in adult is:a. Pain in earb. Blocked feeling in earc. Tinnitusd. Deafness
172. All points towards chronic middle ear effusion EXCEPT:a. Reduced mobility of drumb. Flat tympanogramc. Conductive deafnessd. Red tympanic membrane
173. Cholesteatoma commonly erodes all of the following EXCEPT:a. Fallopian canalb. Cochleac. Incusd. Lateral semicircular
178. Sudden disappearance of symptoms in Gradenigo syndrome indicates:a. Improper antibioticsb. Psychogenic causec. Intracraniald. Complete cure of disease
179. Gradenigo syndrome consist all EXCEPT:a. Pain and headacheb. Diplopiac. Ear discharged. Fascial plasty
180. Evening rise of temperature with rigors after mastoid surgery occurs in:a. Tubercular otitis mediab. Lateral sinus thombosisc. Meningitisd. Extradural abscess
181. Tobey Ayer test is positive in:a. Otitic hydrocephalusb. Petrositisc. Lateral sinus thrombosisd. Cavernous sinus thrombosis
200. Hardest bone is:a. Squamous partb. Bony labyrinthc. Tympanic partd. Petrous part
201. Common fracture of temporal bone is:a. Longitudinalb. Obliquec. Mixedd. Transverse
202. Type of deafness in longitudinal fracture of temporal bone is:a. Sensorineural deafnessb. Central deafnessc. Conductive deafnessd. Mixed deafness
203. Barotrauma occurs if the pressure difference between nasopharynx and middle ear is above:a. 60 mm of Hgb. 120 mm of Hgc. 90 mm of Hgd. 30 mm of Hg
204. All are true about transverse fracture of temporal bone EXCEPT:a. Facial nerve commonly involvedb. Sensorinueral deafnessc. Conductive deafnessd. These fractures are less common
205. Noise trauma first of all involves the frequency range of:a. 1 - 3 K Hzb. 4 - 6 K Hzc. 1 - 2 K Hzd. 3 - 14 K Hz
206. Sound level in factory of 8 hours shift should not exceed:a. 65 dbb. 50 dbc. 45 dbd. 85 db
207. MacEwen’s triangle corresponds to:a. Mastoid tipb. Cochleac. Mastoid antrumd. All of the above
208. Most dangerous type of labyrinthisis:a. Circumscribed labyrinthisisb. Purulent labyrinthisisc. Paralabyrinthisisd. Serous labyrinthisis
209. Main disadvantage of modified radical mastoidectomy is:a. Facial palsyb. Intracranial complicationsc. Large cavityd. Severe deafness
210. Main disadvantage of combined approach tympanomastoidectomy is:a. High rate of complicationsb. Deafnessc. Large cavityd. Recurrence of cholesteatoma
222. Sudden development in patient having tinnitus & hearing loss followed by loss of tinnitus and improvement in hearing seen in:a. Ossicular otosclerosisb. Lermoyez syndromec. Cochlear otosclerosisd. Masked mastoiditis
223. Earliest syndrome of drug induced ototoxicity:a. Low pitched tinnitusb. High pitched tinnitusc. Sensorineural deafnessd. Any of the above
225. Which of the following is most common site of extradural abscess following otitis media is:a. Temporal lobeb. Cerebellumc. Frontal lobed. Occipital lobe
226. Most common cause of tinnitus is:
a. Otitis mediab. Meniere’s diseasec. Glamus tumoursd. Idiopathic
227. Intensity of the whispering is:a. 5 dbb. 20 dbc. 30 dbd. 40 db
228. Intensity sound of normal conversation:a. 40 dbb. 60 dbc. 50 dbd. 30 db