Mca Model Questions 2010

MCA – MODEL QUESTIONSI.1. If (64)2 – (36)2 = 20z, the value of z is

a)70 b)180c)120 d)140

2. Which one of the following fraction is the smallest?a)13/16 b)15/19c)17/21 d)7/8

3. 1 litre of water weights 1 kg. How many cubic millimeters of water will weigh0.1gm?a)0.1 b)1c)10 d)100

4. A tin of oil was 4/5 full. When 6 bottles of oil were taken out and four bottles of oil were poured into it, it was ¾ full. How many bottles of oil can the tin contain?a)40 b)20c)30 d)10

5. In a garden, there are 10 rows and 12 columns of mango trees. The distance between two trees is 2 meters and a distance of one meter is left from all sides of the boundary of the garden. The length of the garden is a)20 m b)22 m c)24 m d)26 m

6. A man d istributed Rs 100 equally among his friends. If there had been 5 more friends, each would have received one rupees less . How many friends had he?a)20 b)25c)30 d)35

7. The least perfect square number divisible by 3,4,5,6 and 8 is a)900 b)1200c)2500 d)3600

8. If v5 = 2.236, then the value of 1/v5 isa).367 b).745c).447 d).545

9. A man spends Rs 1800 monthly on an average for the first four months and Rs 2000 monthly for the next eight months and saves Rs 5600 a year. His average monthly income is a)Rs 2000 b)Rs 2200c)Rs 2400 d)rs 2600

10. The sum of the ages of A,B,and C is 96 years. To find out B’s age, which of the following information given in the statements P and Q is/are sufficient?P: A is 6 years older than CQ:The total of B and C’s ages is 56 years.

A)P B)QC) BOTH P AND Q D) NONE OF THE P AND Q

11. Average age of A and B is 24 years and the average age of B,C and D is 22 years. The sum of the ages of A,B,C and D is a)90 years b)96 yearsc)114 years d) the data is inadequate

12. If 5v5 x 53 ÷5-3/2 =5a+2, then the value of a isa)4 b)5c)6 d)8

13. In a public school ,1/5 th of girls and ¼ th of boys are under 12 years of age. If the total strength of the school is 1000 and number of gir ls is 2/5 th of the total, what part of the total strength of the school is accounted for by those which are 12 years or more of age?a)23% b)45%c)55% d)77%

14. A shopkeeper bought an article for Rs 319.60 . Approximately, at which price should he sell the article to make 25% profit?a)Rs 500 b)Rs 450c)Rs 400 d)R s 600

15. 20 litres of a mixture contains milk and the water in the ratio 5:3. If 4 litres of this mixture are replaced by 4 litres of milk, the ratio of milk to water in the new mixtur e will becomea)2:1 b)7:3c)8:3 d)4:3

16. If 8 men working 9 hours a day can build a wall 18 m long, 2m wide and 12 m high in a day, how many men will be required to build a wall 32 m long, 5 m wide and 9m high, working 6 hours a day in 8 days?a)45 b)40c)48 d)50

17. 20 men complete one third of a piece of work in 20 days. How many more men should be employed to finish the rest of the work in 25 more days?a)10 b)12c)15 d)20

18. Two trains running in the same direction at 65 kmph and 47 kmph, completely pass one another in 1 minute. If the length of the first train is 125 m, the length of the second train is a)125 m b)150 mc)175 m d)200 m

19. A man rows 13 km upstream in 5 hours and also 28 km downstream in 5 hours. The velocity of the stream is a) 1.5 km/hr b) 2 km/hrc) 2.5km/hr d) 3 km/hr

20. If the side of the square is increased by 5 cm, the area increased by 165 sq.cm. The side of the square is a)13cm b)14cmc)15cm d)12cm

21. Two cubes have their volumes in the ratio 8:27. The ratio of their surface area is a)2:3 b)3:2c)4:9 d)64:729

22. Choose the one number which is similar to the numbers in the given setGiven Set: 992,733,845,632a)114 b)326c)425 d)947

23. If TAP is coded as SZO, then how is FREEZE coded?a)EQDFYG b)ESDFYFc)GQFDYF d)EQDDYD

24. If ROSE is coded as 6821,CHAIR is coded as 73456 and PREACH is coded as 961473, what will be the code for SEARCH?a)246173 b)214673c)214763 d)216473

25. X introduces Y saying, “He is the husband of the grand daughter of the father of my father”.How is Y related to X?a)brother b)sonc)brother-in-law d)nephew

26. A party consists of grandmother, father, mother ,four sons and their wives and one son and two daughters to each of the sons. How many females are there is all?a)14 b)16c)18 d)24

27. There are 5 different houses, A to E, in a ro w, A is to the r ight of B and E is to the left of C and right of A. B is to the right of D. Which of the houses is in the middle?a)A b)Bc)D d)E

28. The ratio of the volume of a cube to that of a sphere which will fit inside the cube isa)4:? b)4:3?c)6: ? d)2: ?

29. In a 200 meters race A beats B by 35 m or 7seconds.A’s time over the course is a)40sec b)47secc)35sec d)33sec

30. On 8 th february 1995 it was Wednesday. The day of the week on 8th February 1994 wasa)wednesday b)tuesdayc)thursday d)friday

31. 1,4,2,8,6,24,22,88,(…)a)86 b)90c)154 d)352

II. Fill in the Blanks

32. Which term will replace the question mark in the series: ABD,DGK,HMS,MTB,SBL,…?

a)ZKW b)ZKUc)ZAB d)XKW

33. Which number would be replace question mark in the series 0,6,24,60,120,210,…?a)336 b)290c)240 d)504

34. 3:11::7 :…?a)22 b)29c)18 d)51

35. Find the wrong number in the series:3,8,15,24,34,48,63 ?a)15 b)24c)34 d)48

.

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

III. L ook careful ly a t the sequence of sy mbols to f ind the next pattern

IV. Thr ee of the words wil l be in the sam e classif ication ; the remain ing one will no t be.Your answer wil l be the one word that does NOT b elong to the sam e classifica tion as theothers.

V. Stu dy the Circle graph careful ly an d ans wer the question s g ive n below 46 to 50.

41. Which word does NOT belong with the others?a)Poland b)Koreac)Spain d)Italy

42. Which word does NOT belong with the others?a)carrot b)potatoc)Tomato d)Beetroot

43. Which word does NOT belong with the others?a)Nephrology b)Entomologyc)Astrology d)Mycology

44. Which word does NOT belong with the others?a) Sutlej b)Hirakudc) Aswan d)Pony

45. Which word does NOT belong with the others?a) Telephone b)X-rayc) Radio d)Computer

46. The ratio of the total amount spent on football to that spent on hockey is a)1:15 b)1:1c)15:1 d)3:20

47. If the total amount spent on sports during the year was Rs 1,20,000,00. How much was spent on basketball?a)Rs 9,50,000 b)Rs 10,00,000c)Rs 12,00,000 d)Rs 15,00,000

Sports

Tennis, 10%

Basket ball, 12.50%

Football, 15%

cricket, 25%

Hockey, 15%

Golf, 12.50%

Others, 10% Tennis

Basket ball

Football

cricket

Hockey

Golf

Others

48. Graph shows that the most popular game of the country is a)Hockey b)Footballc)Cricket d)Tennis

49. Out of the following , the country spent the same amount on a)Hockey and Tennis b)Golf and Basketballc)Cricket and Football d)Hockey and Golf

50. If the Total amount Spent on Sports during the year was Rs 1,50,00,000, the amount spent on cricket and hockey together wasa)Rs 60,00,000 b)Rs 50,00,000c)Rs 37,50,000 d)Rs 25,00,000

51. (a) Painter : Gallery (b) Actor : Stage (c) Mason : Wall (d) Farmer : Field

52. (a) Cow : Calf (b) Dog : Bitch (c) Lion : Cub(d) Tortoise : Turtle

53. (a) Volume : Litre (b) Time : Seconds (c) Length : Metre(d) Pressure : Barometer

54. (a) Farmer : Plough (b) Butcher : Chopper (c) Author : Book(d) Jockey : Tack

55. (a) Ornithology : Birds (b) Mycology : Fungi (c) Biology : Botany(d) Phycology : Algae

56. (a) BCD (b) KMN (c) QRS (d) GHI

57. (a) POCG (b) KLIZ (c) BUDX (d) FQMV

58. (a) CZHK (b) MLAG (c) XUBU (d) SUNO

59. (a) BDGK (b) JLOS (c) NPSW (d) MORU

60. (a) PH3 (b) XD6 (c) JB5 (d) VK2

VI. Choose the odd pair of words.

VII . Choose the gro up of letters which is diffe rent from others.

VIII. Each question below is given a passage followed by several inferences. Examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide onthe degree of truth or falsity .

Mark your answer as:(a) if the inference is ‘definitely true’ (b) if the inference is ‘probably true’(c) if you think the data are inadequate(d) if you think the inference is ‘definitely false’.

IX. In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. Consider the statement and decide which of the given assumptions is implicit.

(a) If only assumption I is implicit(b) Only if assumption II is implicit(c) If either I or II is implicit(d) If neither I nor II is implicit

A tiger, when killing its natural pre y, which it does either by stalking or lying in wait for it, depends for the success of its attack o n its speed and, to a lesser extent, on the condition of its teeth and claws. When, therefore, a tiger is suffering from one or more painful wounds or when its teeth are missing or defective and its claws are worn down, and it is unable to catch animals it has been accustomed to eating, it is driven be the necess ity to killing human beings.

61. Human beings are the natural prey of tigers

62. Sharp claws are needed by the tigers to kill animals in the forest.

63. Old age propels tigers to take to man eating.

Though state cultivates only 3.2 lakh tones of mangoes, they are of premium quality and with mangoes becoming second most consumed fruit in the world after grapes, the government has been trying exporting it through sea route which is cheaper. An experiment which was done in this regard last year has proved successful.

64. Quality of mangoes is an important factor in exports

65. The state also exports good quality grapes.

66. The government has decided to pay compensation to the tune of Rs.1 lakh to the family members of those who are killed in ra ilway accidents.Assumptions:

I. The government has enough funds to meet the expenses due to compensationII. There may be reduction in inciden ts of railway accidents in near future.

67. The management of XYZ Pvt. Ltd. Asked the worker’s union to call off strike immediately otherwise the management would be forced to close down the factory.Assumptions:

III. No alternative other than closing down the factory is left for the management of XYZ Pvt. Ltd.

IV. Such threat may have some effect on the worker’s union.

68. Computer education should start at schools itself .Assumptions:

V. Learning computers is easyVI. Computer education fetches job easily.

69. His recent investment in the shares of company A is only a gamble.Assumptions:

VII. He may incur loss on his investment.VIII. He may gain from his investment.

70. Traffic jams on most of the roads in the city have become a regular feature during monsoonAssumptions:

IX.Material used for road construction cannot withstand the fury of monsoon resu lting into innumerable pot holes on the roads .

X. Number of vehicles coming on the roads is much more in monsoon as compared to other seasons.

71. All roads are waters . Some waters are boats.Conclusions:

I. Some boats are roadsII. All waters a re boats.

72. Some swords are sharp. All swords are rusty.Conclusions:

I. Some rus ty things are sharp.II. Some rus ty things are not sharp.

73. All mangoes are golden in colour. No Golden coloured things are cheap.Conclusions:

II. All mangoes are cheap. III. Golden coloured mangoes are not cheap.

74. No bat is ball. No ball is w icket.Conclusions:

IV. No bat is wicket.V. All wickets are bats.

75. Some men are educated. Educated persons prefer small families.Conclusions:

VI. All families are educatedVII. Some men prefer small families.

X. In each question below is given two statemen ts followed by two conclusions numbered I and II . Take the given t wo statements to be true if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.

a) if only conclusion I followsb) if only conclusion II followsc) if either conclusion I or II followsd) if neit her conclusion I nor II follows

XI. Each of the following questions consist of a statement followed by two arguments I and II .

(a) If only argument I is strong, (b) If only argument II is strong(c) If neither I nor II is strong(d) If both I and II are strong.

XII. Choose the Synonym for the given words.

ABSTEMIOUS

INAMORATA

PROGNOSIS

SPORADIC

76. Should our country extend generous behaviour and goodwill to our erring and nagging neighbours?

Arguments:VII. Yes. Goodwill always pays dividendVIII. No. Our generous behaviour and goodwill will be considered as our

weakness.

77. Should there be a ban on product advertising?Arguments:

IX.No. It is an age of advertising. Unless your advertisement is better than your other competitors, the product will not be sold

X. Yes. The money spent on advertising is very huge and it inflates the cost of the product.

78. Should children be lega lly made responsible to take care of their parents during old age?

Arguments:XI. Yes. Such matter can only be solved by lega l means.XII. Yes. Only this will bring relief to poor parents

79. Should shifting agriculture be practiced?Arguments:

XIII. No. It is a wasteful processXIV. Yes. Modern methods of farming are too expensive.

80. Is pen mightier than a sword?Arguments:

XV. Yes. Writers influence the thinking of the peopleXVI. No. With the help of physical force one can conquer all.

81. a) Licent ious b) Miserly

c) Sparing d) Fastidious82.

a) Anger b) Jealousyc) Sweetheart d) Opera singer

83. a) Scheme b) Forecast

c) Preface d) Identification84.

a) Epide mic b) Whirlingc) Occas ional d) Stagnant

85. a) Above others in rank of authority

b) Famousc) Wide and extensived) Very important

86. a) Humour b) Sobriety

c) Haste d) Gruesomeness87.

a) Opulent b) Gravec) Trustworthy d) Inexpensive

88. a) Numerical b) Real

c) Obvious d) Heavenly89.

a) Honourable b) Courageousc) Sturdy d) Determined

90. a) Morose b) Natural

c) Mature d) Accurate

91. The department can use informatio n received from dissatisfied employees and _______________ to launch an investigation against the company.

a) Pettifoggers b) Buccaneersc) Ambassadors d) Whistleblowers

92. Many of Herbert’s poems are mere bundles if _______________ of metaphor, quaint and crabbed to the last degree.

a) Incitements b) Odditiesc) Portrayals d) Ramifica tions

93. Though the Chief had faith in us, he gave his _______________ hesistatingly. a) Ascent b) Condone

c) Assent d) Signature

94. In contrast to the durability of the old classic movies, many of today’s movies seem des igned to have only _____________ appeal.

a) Sensual b) Mundanec) Ephemeral d) Superficial

95. While the ancient Greek artists valued beauty, they were ultimately _______________ who felt tha t function dictated form.

a) Traditionalists b) Pragmatistsc) Aesthetes d) Crafts people

PARAMOUNT

XIII . Choose the Antonym for the give n words.

LEVITY

MENDACIOUS

CHIMERICAL

DASTARD

JEJUNE

XIV. Fill in the blanks with the suitable words given.

XV. Choose the Correct answe r.

96. The base 10 (or decimal - our normal way o f counting) number 65535 is represented in hexadecimal as...?

a) 0xFFFFF b) 0xFFFFc) 0xFFF d) 0Xffffff

97. '.BAK' extension refers usually to wha t kind of file?

a) Backup file b) Audio filec) Animation/movie file d) MS Encarta document

98. The letters, "DOS" st and for ...

a) Data Out System b) Disk Out Systemc) Disk Operating System d) Data Operating System

99. How many bits is a byte?

a) 4 b) 8c) 16 d) 32

100. Which computer uses vacuum tubes, switches and wired plug boards to implement programming.

a) EDVAC b) ENIACc) IBM d) UNIVAC

ANSWERQ.No Ans

1 d2 b3 d4 a5 b6 a7 d8 c9 c10 c11 d12 a13 d14 c15 b16 d17 b18 c19 a20 b21 c22 c

23 d24 b25 c26 a27 a28 c29 d30 b31 a32 a33 a34 d35 c36 d37 b38 c39 d40 d41 b42 c43 c44 a45 b46 b47 d48 c49 b50 a51 c52 b53 d54 c55 c56 b57 d58 c59 d60 a61 d62 a63 c64 a65 c66 a67 b68 a69 c70 a71 d72 a73 b74 d

75 b76 d77 d78 c79 a80 a81 c82 c83 d84 c85 d86 b87 c88 b89 b90 c91 a92 a93 c94 c95 b96 b97 a98 c99 b

100 b

SRM UNIVERSITY

MCA ENTRANCE EXAMINATION – MAY 2010

Question Paper Pattern

1. NUMERICAL REASONING

2. NUMERICAL REASONING: GRAPHS AND TABLES

3. Logical Reasoning ( Sequences )

4. NON-VERBAL REASONING TEST

5. VERBAL REASONING - COMPREHENSION EXERCISE

6. VERBAL (Synonyms and antonyms)

7. Basic Knowledge of Computers

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Total Number of Question : 100

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• Diagrammatic and Pictorial Form

It is a se lection of a passage of text which wil l be followed by four stateme nts. Read the passage carefully and then, using only the i nformation given in the passage, for each statement choose whet her it is , , or you have .

definitely t rue definite ly unt rueinsufficient info rmati on to answer

HOD / MCA

MBA & PGPM SYLLABUS

SYLLABUS AND PATTERN

PART 1. DATA INTERPRETATION: (20 Questions)

PART 2. QUANTITATIVE: (20 Questions)

PART 3. REASONING: (20 Questions)

PART 4: ENGLISH: (20 Questions)

PART 5: GK/CA/BA: (20 Questions)

The question paper will have 5 parts with the following topics:

To evaluate the candidate’s ability to pick out critically the data and apply the data to business decisions from given typical business situations.

Data Interpretation based on text, Data Interpretation based on graphs and tables.Graphs can be Column graphs, Bar Graphs, Line charts, Pie chart, Graphs representing Area, Venn Diagram, etc.

To evaluate the skill on solving mathematical problems of graduate level including those learnt in plus two or equivalent level.

Ratios and Proportion, Ratios, Percentages, In – equations, Algebra and Profit & LossAverages, Percentages, Partnership & Time – Speed – Distance, Work and time Probability, Permutations & Combinations

To evaluate the candidate’s skill on Logical reasoningCritical reasoning, Visual reasoning, Assumption – Premise – Conclusion, Assertion and reasons, Statements and assumptions, identifying valid inferences, identifying Strong arguments and Weak arguments, Statements and Conclusions, Cause and Effect, Identifying Probably true, Probably false, definitely true, definitely false kind of statement, Linear arrangements, Matrix arrangements.Puzzles, Syllogisms, Functions, Family tree – identifying relationship among group of people, Symbol Based problems, Coding and decoding, Sequencing, identifying next number in series, etc.

To evaluate the skill of the candidate on written English with questions on errors in usage, grammar, punctuation and the like.

Comprehension of passageVerbal Reasoning, Syllogisms, Antonyms, Fill in the Blanks, Jumbled paragraphs with 4 or 5 sentencesSentence Correction, Sentence completion, Sentence Correction, odd man out, idioms, one word substitution, Different usage of same word etc.

To evaluate the candidate’s skill on General knowledge, current affairs and Business AffairsCurrent Affairs, Business, Punch line of companies, Top officials of big companies, Major corporate eventsFamous award and prizesScience, History, Geography, International organizationsSocial issues, Sports, Finance, Automobiles, Entertainment, Politics etc.

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MODEL QUESTIONS – MBA

Direction for questions 1 to 30 : Answer each of the questions indepen dently.

1) A bird shooter was asked how ma ny birds he ha d in the bag. He replied that there were a ll sparrows but six, a ll pigeons but six, and all ducks but six. H ow many birds he had in the bag in a ll?

a) 9b) 18c) 27d) 36

2) A shepherd had 17 sheep. Al l but nine died. How many was he left w ith?a) Nil b) 8c) 9d) 17

3) Aruna cut a cake into two halves and cuts one half into smal ler pieces of equal size. Each of the smal l pieces is twenty grams in we ight. I f she has seven pieces of the cake in all with her, how heavy was the ori ginal cake?

a) 120 gramsb) 140 gramsc) 240 gramsd) 280 grams

4) At the end of a business conference the ten people present all shake hands with each other once. How may handshakes wil l there be together?

a) 20b) 45c) 55d) 90

5) A student got twice as many su ms wrong as he got r ight. If he attempted 48 sums in all , how many did he solve correct ly?

a) 12b) 16c) 18d) 24

6) The number of bo ys in a cl ass is three times the nu mber of gir ls. Which one of the fol lowing numbers cann ot represent the total nu mber of children in the class?

a) 48b) 44c) 42d) 40

7) A motorist knows four different routes from Br istol to Birmingham. From Birmingham to Sheffi eld he knows three differ ent routes and from S heffield to Carlisle he knows two different routes. How many routes does he know from Bristol to Car lisle?

a) 4b) 8c) 12d) 24

8) A pineapple costs Rs.7 each. A wat ermelon costs Rs.5 each. X spends Rs. 38 on these fruits. The number of pineapples purchased is

a) 2b) 3c) 4d) data insuff icient

9) If you write down al l the numbers from 1 to 100 , then how man y times do y ou write 3?

a) 11b) 18c) 20d) 21

10) The tota l number of digits used in numbering the pages of a book hav ing 366 pages is

a) 732b) 990c) 1098d) 1305

11) In a garden, there a re 10 rows and 12 columns of mango trees. The d istance between the two trees is 2 metres and a distance of one meter is left from al l sides of the boundary of the garden. The length of the garden is

a) 20mb) 22mc) 24md) 26m

12) A farmer bui lt a fence around his square plot. He used 27 f ence poles on each side of the square. How many p oles did he need together?

a) 100b) 104c) 108d) None of these

13) An enterprising businessma n earns an income of Re>1 on the first day of his business. On every subse quent day, he earns an inco me which is just dou ble of that made o n the previous day. One the 10 th day of business, his income is

a) Rs (2)9b) Rs (2)10c) Rs 10d) Rs (10)2

14) Find the nu mber which when ad ded to itself 13 times, gives 112.a) 7

b) 8c) 9d) 11

15) In a city, 40% of the adults are illiterate while 85% of the chi ldren are literate. If the ratio of the adults to that of the chi ldren is 2:3, then what percent of the population is literate?

a) 20%b) 25%c) 50%d) 75%

16) A fires 5 shots to B’s 3 but A ki lls only once in 3 shots wi le B kills once in 2 shots. When B has missed 27 times, A has k illed

a) 30 birdsb) 60 birdsc) 72 birdsd) 90 birds

17) If every 2 out of 3 readymade shirts need alterat ions in the slee ves, and every 4 out of 5 need it in the bod y, how ma ny alterations wi ll be required for 60 shirts?

a) 24b) 123c) 133d) 143

18) At a dinner party every two guests used a bowl of r ice between them, every three guests used a b owl of dal between them and every four used a bowl of meat between them. There were altogether 6 5 dishes.. How many guests were present at the party?

a) 60b) 65c) 90d) None of these

19) A bus starts from city X. The number of women in the bus is half of the number of men. In city Y, 10 men lea ve the bus and five women enter. Now, number of men an d wome n is equal. In the beg inning, how man y passe ngers entered the bus?

a) 15b) 30c) 36d) 45

20) A num ber con sists of two digits whose sum is 11. If 27 is added to the n umber, then the digits change the ir places. What is the num ber?

a) 47b) 65c) 83d) 92

21) If a clock takes se ven seconds t o strike se ven, how long w ill it take to str ike ten?a) 7 secondsb) 9 secondsc) 10 secondsd) none of these

22) If 100 cats k ill 100 mice in 100 days, then 4 cats would k ill 4 mice in how many days?

a) 1 dayb) 4 dayc) 40 daysd) 100 days

23) Two bus tic kets from c ity A to B and three t ickets from city A to C cost Rs 77 but three tic kets from c ity A to B and two tic kets f rom city A to C cost Rs.73. What are the fares for c ities B and C from A?

a) Rs4 and Rs23b) Rs13 and Rs 17c) Rs 15 and Rs 14d) Rs 17 and Rs 13

24) A total of 324 coins of 2 0 paise and 25 pa ise make a sum of Rs 71. The number of 25 pa ise co ins is

a) 120b) 124c) 144d) 200

25) A man has Rs 480 in the denominations of one-rupee notes, five -rupee notes , ten-rupee notes. The number of notes of each denomination is equal. What is the total number of notes t hat he has?

a) 45b) 60c) 75d) 90

26) On children’s day , sweets were to be equally d istributed am ong 175 children in a school. Actua lly on the children’s day 35 chi ldren were absent and therefore each child got 4 sweets extra. Total how many sweets were avai lable for distr ibution?

a) 2400b) 2480c) 2680d) 2800

27) A player holds 13 cards of four sui ts, of wh ich seven are black and six are red. There are twice as many hearts as diamon ds. How man y clubs d oes he h old?

a) 4b) 5c) 6d) 7

28) In a fami ly, each daughter has the same n umber of brothers s s he has sisters and each son ha s twice as many sisters as he has brothers. How man y sons are there in the fami ly?

a) 2b) 3c) 4d) 5

29) Five bells begin to tol l together and toll respecti vely at intervals of 6,5,7, 10 and 12 seconds. How many times wil l they tol l together in one ho ur excluding the one at the start?

a) 7b) 8c) 9d) 11

30) In a group of cows and he ns , there are 4 5 goats and 8 came ls with some keepers. If the total number of feet be 2 24 more than the num ber of heads in the caravan, the number of keepers is

a) 5b) 8c) 10d) 15

Family/B lood Relat ion qualms

31) Pointing to a photograph, a man said, I have no brother or sister but that ma n’s father is my father’s so n. Who se photograph was it?

a) His ownb) His sonsc) His fathersd) Hish nephews

32) Pointing towards a boy, Veena said, He is the son of only s on of m y grandfather. How is that boy related to Veena?

a) Uncleb) Brotherc) Cousiond) Data inadequate

33) Introducing Reena, Monika said, “She is the only daughter of my father’s o nly daughter.” How is Moni ka related to Reena?

a) Auntb) Niecec) Cousind) Data inadequate

34) Pointing to a man, a woman said, “ H is mother is the only daughter of my m other.” How is the woman related to the mother?

a) Motherb) Daughterc) Sisterd) Grandm other

Age Doubts

35) Sonu and Man u’s age rat io is 4:3. If sum of their a ges is 28 years, the rat io of the ir ages after 4 years will be a)5:4b)2:3c)5:6d)3:2

36) Ratio of Dol ly and Vandana ’s age is 2:3 and the sum of their ages is 60 years. How old is Do lly?

a)12b)16C)24d)30

37) Average age of 10 boys in a hostel comes out to be 14. A new admission brought down t heir average age by one year. How old the new recruit must be ?

a)4b)5c)12d)3

For Queations 38-40Seven chi ldren A, B,C,D,E ,F amd G are standing in a line. G is to the ri ght of D and to the left of B. A is on the ri ght of C. A and D have one chi ld between th em. E and B have two chi ldren between them. D and F have two children between them.

38) Who is on the extreme right?

a) Bb) Ec) Fd) G

39) Who is exactly in the middle?

a) Ab) Cc) D

d) E

40) Who is on the extreme left?

a) Ab) Bc) Cd) D

Direction (Qs 41-44) Six persons A,B,C,D,E and F are sitting in two rows, three in each.E is not at the end of any row.D is second to the left of F.C the neighbour of E, is s itting diagonal ly opposite to D.B is the nei ghbour of F.

41) Which of the fol lowing are sitting diagonal ly opposite to each other?

a) F and Cb) D and Ac) A and Cd) A and F

42) Which of the fol lowing are in the same row?

a) A and Eb) E and Dc) C and Bd) A and B

43) Which of the fol lowing are in one of the two rows?

a) FBCb) CEBc) DBFd) AEF

44) After interchanging w ith seat w ith E, who wi ll be the nei ghbors of D in the new position?

a) C and Ab) F and Bc) Only Bd) Only A

Direction for questions (Q45 -49) Read the fol lowing information carefu lly and answer the questions that follow:-

There are seven books one each on Psychology, Hindi , English, Socio logy, Economics, Education and Accou ntancy, lying on a table one above the other.Sociology is on the top of all the books.Accounta ncy is immediate ly below Education which is immediately below Sociology.Economics is immediate ly above Psychology b ut not in the middle.Hindi is immediate ly below Psychology.

45) Economics is between which of the fol lowing books?

a) Accounta ncy and Educationb) Psychology and Hindic) English and Psychologyd) Psychology and Sociology

46) Which three books a re between Accounta ncy and Hindi?

a) English , Economics and Psychologyb) Economics, Psychology and Ed ucationc) Economics, Psychology and Hindid) Cannot be determined

47) If Soc iology and Eng lish , Accountancy a nd Hindi , Education and Psych ology interchange thei r posit ions , which book wi ll be between psych ology and Sociology?

a) Accounta ncyb) Psychologyc) Hindid) Economics

48) Books of which subject is at the sixth position from the top?

a) Englishb) Hindic) Mathematicsd) History

49) Counting from the right to which subject does the 8th book belong?

a) Accounta nyb) Englishc) Hindid) History

50) In a shop, the items were ar ranged in a shelf consisting of s ix rows. Biscuits are arranged above the tins of chocolates but below the rows of packets of chips, cakes are at the bott om and the bottles of peppermints are bwlow the chocolates. The topmost row had the display of jam bottles. Where exactly are the bottles of peppermints? Mention the place from the top?

a) 2nd

b) 3rd

c) 4th

d) 5th

Directions for questions 5 1 to 55:- Answer the questions based on the following information.

A black smith has fi ve iron artic les A, B,C,D,and E each hav ing a different we ight.A weighs twic e as much as B.B weighs four and half times as much as C.C weighs half as much as D.D weighs half as much as E.E weighs less than A but m ore than C.

51) Which of the fol lowing is the lightest in we ight?

a) Ab) Bc) Cd) D

52) E is lighter in weight than which of the other two artic les?

a) A,Bb) D,Cc) A,Cd) D,Be) B,E

53) E is heav ier than which of the fol lowing two art icles?

a) D,Bb) D,Cc) A,Cd) A,B

54) Which of the fol lowing articles is the heav iest in weight?

a) Ab) Bc) Cd) D

55) Which of the fol lowing represents the descending order of wei ghts of the arti cles?

a) A,B,E,D,Cb) B,D,E,A,C

c) E,C,D,A, Bd) C,A,D,B, E

Direction for questions 56 to 6 0: Read the information g iven below and answer the questions that follow:-

In an examination, six subjects were ava ilable for a candidate of which only three had to be offered under the follow ing conditions:

One who offered A had to offer B a lso and vice versa.One who offered A could not offer E.One who offered C or D could not offer F.The d istribution of the candidates over the subject s was as fol lows:A – 70, B – 70, C – 90, D – 85, E – 70, F – 35

56) How many combinations were permitted?

a) 4b) 5c) 6d) 7

57) How many candidates in a ll appeared for the examination?

a) 120b) 130c) 140d) 380

58) How many candidates offered the combination A+B+C?

a) 15b) 20c) 35d) 70

59) How many candidates combined C with D?

a) 15b) 20c) 35d) 70

60) How many can didates offered B w ith F?

a) 15b) 20c) 35

d) 70

Directions (Q6 1 to 65) : These questions are based o n the data given in the fol lowing table showing investments made by the five companies over the year ( in lakh of rupees)

Company\years 1998 1999 2000 2001 2002I 40 42 100 70 150II 58 62 46 92 84III 62 58 54 44 32IV 66 28 66 74 96V 30 34 64 78 94Total 256 224 330 358 456

61) Which com pany made m ore than 25percent of the total investment made b y all the companies in 2 001?a) Ib) IIc) IVd) None of these

62) For which compan y has the amo unt of investment made incre ased continuo usly over the year?a) Ib) IIc) IIId) V

63) For which compan y, has the a mount of investment made decreased continuo usly over the years?a) Vb) IVc) IIId) None of these

64) In which year, the amount of investment ma de was the least as compared to average investment m ade by all the companies over the years?a) 1998b) 1999c) 2000d) None of these

65) In which year, the percentage change in the total amount of investment made is the hi ghest over its immediately preced ing year?a) 2002b) 2000c) 2001d) None of these

Directions (Q. 66 to 70) : Answer the questions on t he basis of the fol lowing tab le.

Assume al l colleges sent equal number of candidates in al l subjects for the examination.Percentage of Results for Subjects

College Maths Physics Chemistry Zoology BotanyA 52 65 62 47 40B 47 62 52 35 38C 53 70 46 54 39D 35 72 58 62 57

66) Taking all the co lleges in to account which subject has s hown highest percentage result?a) Chemistryb) Mathsc) Zoologyd) Physics

67) Taking the performance in a ll the subjects into account which colle ge has shown highest le vel of percentage results?a) Db) Ac) Bd) C

68) Seeing the performance of a ll the four col leges together wh ich combination of groups has s hown lowest le vel of percentage results?a) Zoology and Botanyb) Physics and C hemistryc) Maths and Ph ysicsd) Chemistry and Botan y

69) Taking all the co lleges into account which subject has shown lowest percentage result?a) Mathsb) Physicsc) Chemistryd) Botany

70) Taking the performance in a ll subjects in to account which col lege has shown lowest l evel?a) Ab) Bc) Cd) D

Direct ions (Q. 7 1 to 75) : These qu estions refer to the fo llowing circle graph showing the expenditure distr ibution of a certa in family. The fam ily spend s Rs.11,0 00 per

month.

71) How muc h it spends o n Food per m onth?a) Rs.3,300b) Rs.1,100c) Rs.2,200d) Rs.550

72) How muc h are its annual taxes?a) Rs.1,320b) Rs.9,800c) Rs.2,400d) Rs.1,080

73) How man y degrees should there be in the central ang le showing c lothing, taxes and trans portation co mbined?a) 100b) 110c) 120d) 126

74) How muc h more m oney per mo nth is spent by the family on food as co mpared to the rent?a) Rs.1,100b) Rs.1,200c) Rs.1,500d) Rs.1,400

75) If the expenditure budget of the family is raised to Rs.13, 000 per month an d distribution on var ious items remain the same, then the mo nthly ex penses on both, the entertainment and the transport, will be:a) Rs.1,800b) Rs.1,600c) Rs.2,340d) Rs.1,220

EXPENDITURE DISTRIBUTION OF A CERTAIN FAMILY

Rent 20%

Food30%

Miscelleneous5%

Transport8%

Taxes12%

Clothing15%

Entertainment 10%

Directions (Q. 76 to 80) Refer to the bar chart given be low to answer these question s.

76) The above chart shows :a) The annual yi eld of mi lk produced in each countryb) Annual consumption of milk in each countryc) Annual yield of m ilk produced per cattle in each countryd) Annual yield of m ilk given by each animal in each country

77) The runner up in the mi lk yield per catt le per year is:a) Indiab) U.S.A.c) Japand) Inadequate data

78) Which of the fol lowing statement is cor rect?a) Per catt le yield of m ilk in India is as much t hat of N.Z.b) USA produces one tonne more milk per cattle than Japan.c) Per catt le year ly yield of mi lk in Austral ia and EEC equal that of Israe l.d) Yearly per catt le yield of m ilk in Israel is three t imes that of N. Z.

79) From the bar chart , it appears that the white revolution has been most successful in:a) Indiab) U.S.A.c) Japand) Inadequate data

80) If the mi lk yield per catt le per year is increased by ten times in India , then it will :a) Exceed that of Israelb) Be equal that of Austra liac) Be equal that of Canadad) Be 7 times mo re than that of N.Z.

MILK YIELD FOR MAJOR COUNTRIES PER HEAD OF CATTLE PER HEAD

COUNTRIES

MIL

K Y

IEL

D (

TO

NN

ES

PE

R

YE

AR

)

0

2

4

6

8

10

12

N.Z Aus USA Canada Japan EEC Isreal India

Series1

Directions ( Q. 81 to 85): Production of differ ent types of sco oters in a compan y:-Year \ types A B C D E1992 180 60 84 100 761993 210 90 32 80 481994 135 30 44 95 851995 190 85 69 125 1151996 260 95 120 80 1201997 240 140 161 90 185

81) In which year was the production of B-type scoo ter close to its a verage production over given years?a) 1995b) 1993c) 1992d) 1994

82) In which year the production of D-type scooters was ma ximum?a) 1993b) 1994c) 1995d) 1996

83) What was the ap proximate percen tage of production of A-type sco oter in 1 995 to its total production over the years?a) 20b) 15c) 23d) 40

84) In which of the fol lowing pairs of years was the total production of E -type scooter two lakhs?a) 1993&1995b) 1995&1997c) 1994&1997d) None

85) In which year the total production of al l types of scooters was minimum?a) 1994b) 1996c) 1997d) 1995

Directions: (Q.86 to 90): Four stude nts A,B,C and D appeared in four papers. I, II ,III and IV in a test. Their scores out of 100 a re given be low:-

Students\papers I II III IVA 60 81 45 55B 59 43 51 A

C 74 A 71 65D 72 76 A 68

Where “A” stan ds for absen t. Read the above table and answer below mentioned question s 1-5.

86) Which candidate has secured betwee n 60-65 % mar ks in agreegate?a) Ab) Bc) Cd) D

87) Who has obtained the lowest avera ge in aggregate?a) Ab) Bc) Cd) D

88) Who has obtained the highest avera ge?a) Ab) Bc) Cd) D

89) In which paper the lowest marks were obtained by the candidates?a) Ib) IIc) IIId) IV

90) Which candidate has secured the highest percentage in the papers appeared?a) Ab) Bc) Cd) D

Comprehension The Constitution guarantees every c itizen the fundamental ri ght to equality. Yet afte r 50 years of independe nce, just o ne perusal of the female infant mortal ity figures, the literacy rates and the employment opportunities for women is sufficient evidence that discr imination exists. A lmost predictably, th is gender, b ias is evident in our polit ical system as wel l. In the 1 3th Lok Sabha there were only 43 women MPs out of a total of 543; it is not surprising figure, for never has women ’s representation in parl iament bee n more than 10 percent.

Historically, the manifestos of major politi cal parties have a lways encouraged women ’s partic ipation. It has been a charade. So, women ’s organization denied a pla ce on merit, opted for the last resort: a reservation of seats for women in parl iament and State Assemblies. Part ies wh ich look at everything w ith a vote bank in mind seemed to en dorse this. A las, th is too was a mira ge.

But there is another aspect also. At a t ime when caste I the trump card, some p oliticians want the bill to include further quotas for women from a mong minorit ies and backward castes. There is more to it. A survey shows that there is a g enera l antipathy towards the bill. It is a classic case of double speak. The reasons are ve ry clear: Men just do n’t wan t to vacate thei r seats of power.

91) The problem ra ised in the passage re flects badly on oura) Pol itical systemb) Socia l behav ior c) Indiv idual behaviord) Behav ior of group of peo ple

92) According to the passage, pol itical parties have mostly in minda) Economic prosperityb) Vote bankc) Peoples we lfared) Patriot ism

93) “Trump card” meansa) Trying to move a dead horseb) Playing the card cautiouslyc) Sabotaging all the moves by othersd) Mak ing the final jolt for success

94) The sentences “ Men ju st don’t want to vacate their seats of power” meansa) Lust for powerb) Desire to serve the nat ionc) Convict ion in ones own p olitical abilitiesd) Polit ical corruption

95) What is the percentage of women in the 1 3th Lok S abha?a) 10b) 7.91c) 43d) 9.1

Direction for questions 96 to 1 00:The sentences given in each question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labeled with a letter. Choose the most logica l order of sentences from a mong the four given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.

96) A) In United K ingdom, the Scots held a referendum to install the ir own par liament and the da y may not be t oo far off when the Scots h old a refer endum on whet her to recede or not.

B) Hence what should worry New De lhi is that the idea of holding referendum has won a fresh lease of life.

C) Strangely many Indians support the cause of Tibet and Eelam, but refuse to hear any argument for Kashmir.

D) The reason and histories certa inly are d ifferent, making comparison odious, but in al l three, the idea is the same.

a.ABCD b.DCBA c.ACBD d.DBCA

97) A) The stories p lanted in the international media about the yields of the Indian tests highl ighted the l imitations of the mo nitoring system.B) US intelligence agenc ies have expressed reservat ions on their abi lity to detect small y ield tests.C) While obfuscation on the China-Pakistan prol iferation axis may suit the US Presidents’sD) Presented with a p icture of nuclea r threats, it is logical for US senators t o take the stand that Washington should not foreclose its right to continue with nuclear test ing.a.BCDA b.ABCD c.DCBA d.BACD

98) A) The survey conducte d by 12 consu mer organizat ions which ordered more than 150 items from 17 countries has foun d that almost al l consu mer rights like safety and priva cy have been infr inged .B) An international comparative study of elect ronic commerce cond ucted b y Consumers International, Ma laysia, found t hat internet sho pping is more r isky than the u sual visit to the market place .C) For even before internet shop ping can take roots and gain the acceptance of consumers, several unfair t rade pract ices of reta ilers setting up sho ps on the world w ide web have come to l ight.D) Consu mers wh o want to sh op through t he internet had better watch out.a.BACD b.BDAC c.ABCD d.DCBA

99) A) Currently the term deposit rates of maturity of over three years are around 10 percent.B) The continuous low inf lation rates at around tow percent might prom pt the RBI to take measures to reduce interest rates in the busy season credit policy to be ann ounced on October 29.C) Such meas ures are likely to result in reduction in the term deposit rates.D) To this end, the Central Bank m ight dec ide to reduce the bank rates and the stipulated rat io of total deposits held by commercial banks to be mainta ined with the RBI.a) ABCD b)ACDB c)BDCA d)BCDA

100) A) And there hasn’t been any drastic increase in the number of nuclear

weapons recently, I think we ha ve come far.B) In the ear ly days, when there was a race to a cquire more and more nuclear weapons, t he problem was that of preventing the actual use of nuclea r weapons.C) Pugwash was set up to enc ourage dialogue between the pol itical leadership and the scientif ic community to prevent things from gett ing out of hand .D) It p layed an important part in bring ing about sign ificant reduction in the nuclear arsena l of Russia and brought thro ugh various treat ies.a.BCDA b.BDCA c.CBAD d.CABD

Direction for questions 101 to 106: Two objects , events or concepts are re lated in some way, you have to establish the same relationship with the other two objects, events or concept s on the basis of the alternat ives given below each questions: -

101) Light: Sun: : Heat : ?

a) Electricityb) Moonc) Fired) Star

102) Parrot: Ca ge: : Man: ?

a) Home b) Motor carc) Prisond) Forest

103) Disease : Health: : Freedom: ?

a) Slavery b) Pleasurec) Plightd) Beauty

104) Ocean: Pond: : Deep?

a) Riverb) Canalc) Shallowd) Filthy

105) Butter: Milk: : Oil: ?

a) Cowb) Seedsc) Curdd) Grains

Direction for questions 107 to 110: Each question has a pair of c apita lized words followed by four pairs of words. Cho ose the pair of words which best expresses t he relationship simi lar to that expressed in the capital ized pair .

106) Machines and Pull ies

a) Knife and Fruitsb) Car and Wheelsc) Bread and Butterd) Iron and Do ors

107) Chemistry and science

a) Painting and Artsb) Medic ine and Surgeryc) Geography an d History

d) Law and culture

108) Carpenter and W ood

a) Goldsmith and Goldb) Blacksmith and Ironc) Engineer and Machinesd) All of these

109) Class and Teacher

a) College and Pr incipalb) Books and Librar ianc) Worksho p and Foremand) All of these

110) Writer and poet

a) Poems an d Songsb) Prose and Poetr yc) Books and Lesso nsd) Letters and Words

Direction for questions 111 to 115: Two objects , events or concepts are re lated in some way, you have to establish the same re lationship with t he other two ob jects, events or concept s on the basis of the alternat ives given below each questions: -

111) 12 : 35 : : 16: ?

a) 63b) 32c) 28d) 55

112) 17: 19 : : 47 : ?

a) 53b) 59c) 41d) 34

113) 42 : 56 : : 110 : ?

a) 132b) 136c) 18d) 140

114) 3: 10 : : 8 : ?

a) 10

b) 13c) 17d) 14

115) 28: 126 : : 126 : ?

a) 127b) 28c) 56d) 81

Direction for questions 116 to 120: Read the comprehen sion and a nswer the questio ns

Due to the me dia commu nication explosion and the effect of g lobalization, markets a ll over the world a re going through a phase of metam orphosis. The visual media is regularly exposing a newer life-sty le, products and services to the fast expanding netizen -driven soci ety. Today, cons umers have beco me quite concerned a bout health issues and are taking a great interest in food matters. Envi ronmental issues, gr eater segmentation and increased mobility are the added factors. Besides, the Green Movement supported by media coverag e has been creating urge for natural food.

116) What d oes the word ‘metamorphosis’ stan d for ?a) change in natureb) change in marketc) change in life-sty led) development in growth

117) What is the unique role of v isual media?a) it creates new marketsb) it regularly exposes a newer l ife-sty le, products and servicesc) it influences every aspect of lifed) it brings out the glamour of modern lif e

118) What is netizen-driven society?a) a society crazy about internetb) a society cr ippled by internetc) a society exploited by internetd) a society making the optimum use of internet

119) What are the major concern s of cons umers?a) support for the Green Movementb) urge for natura l foodc) environmental issues and increased mo bility d) health and food matters

120) How would yo u describe the passage?a) informati veb) educativec) instructiv ed) interest ing

121) Who among the following has been appointed the National Secur ity Adv iser by the UPA Gov ernment ?

(a) Brajesh M ishra(b) Shiv shankar menon(c) Soli J. Sorabjee(d) T. K. A. Nair

122) Who among the fol lowing is the new Chie f Minister of Karnataka ?

(a) S. M. Krishna(b) Uma Bharti(c) Yediurappa(d) Y. S. Rajasekhara Reddy

123) Who among the fol lowing has won the Miss Universe 2004 crown ?

(a) Jennifer Haw kins (b) Shandi Finnessey(c) Alba Reyes(d) None of these

124) A solemn ceremony to mark the 60th Anniversary of D-Day landings of the A llies troops during the Second World War, was he ld in

(a) Pearl Harbour(b) Norman dy(c) New York(d) Lisbon

125) Which of the fol lowing c ricketers holds the world record of maximum number of sixes in Tests ?

(a) Chris Carins (Ne w Zealand)(b) Viv Richards (West Indies)(c) Sachin Tendulkar (India)(d) Wasim Akram (Pa kistan)

126) Who among the fol lowing has been appointed the new C hief Justice of India ?

(a) Justice Rajendra Babu(b) Justice V. N. Khare(c) Justice R. C. Lahoti(d) None of these

127) Who among the following sports persons got the honour of lighting the O lympic f lame at the Major Dhyan Chand Sta dium

in New De lhi recently ?(a) Anjal i Bhagwat(b) Abhinav B indra(c) Viswanathan Anan d(d) K. M. Beenamol

128) Who among the fol lowing has been appointed new chairman of the Nat ional Commission for Farmers ?

(a) Ajit Singh(b) K. C. Pant(c) Dr. M. S. Swam inathan(d) Sharad Pawar

129) Which of the fol lowing p lanets crossed the face of the sun (in trans it) after 122 years rec ently ?

(a) Mars(b) Venus(c) Jupiter(d) Saturn

130) Which of the fol lowing countries was readmitted to the Commo nwealth recently ?

(a) Nepal(b) Myanmar(c) Pakistan(d) None of these

131) The wor ld governing body of which of the fol lowing sports celebrated its 100 years in existence recent ly ?

(a) Football (b) Hockey (c) Badminton (d) Cricket

132) Who among the fol lowing won the men? s singles t itle ofthe French Open 2004 ?

(a) Guillermo Coria (b) Roger Federer (c) Andy R oddick(d) Gaston Gau dio

133) Who is India?s f irst Woman Grand Master in Chess ?(a) Aarthie Ramaswamy (b) Koneru Hu mpy(c) S. Meenakshi(d) S. Vijaya lakshmi

134) The age of a tree can be determined by(a) Measuring its he ight(b) Measuring its diameter(c) Analyzing its sap(d) Counting the annual growth rings of its stem

135) Which one of the following pairs is not correct ly matched ?Mountains Continent s (a) The Rocky : North America(b) The Andes : South America(c) The Alps : Europe(d) The Ural : Africa

136) Which of the fol lowing pa irs is correctly matched ?(a) ?Purna Swaraj? Resolution : 1929(b) Martyrdom of Sardar Bhagat S ingh : 1931(c) Formation of the Co ngress Social ist Party : 1939(d) Simla Confeence : 1940

137) The Lingaraja Temple bui lt during the medie val period is at(a) Bhubaneswar(b) Khajuraho(c) Madurai(d) Mount Ab u

138) Which one of the following is essentia lly a solo dance ?(a) Kuchipudi(b) Kathak(c) Manipuri(d) Mohiniattam

139) The deepest oceanic trench ?Mar iana? is located in (a) Atlantic Ocean (b) Arctic Ocean(c) Pacific Ocean (d) Indian Ocean

140) Although fog consists of fine drops of water, we c annot see c learly through it because

(a) The light rays undergo total internal reflection in the drops

(b) Fine drops of water in fog polar ize the light (c) The fine drops are opaque to t he light(d) The drops scatter most of the li ght

141) During the Mugha l period, which one of the fol lowing were the f irst to come to India as traders ?

(a) Portuguese (b) Dutch

(c) Danish(d) English

142) Who among the fol lowing Delhi Sultans is known for introducing market control mechanism ?

(a) Iltutmish(b) Balban(c) Alauddin Khalj i(d) Firoze Tughlaq

143) Which one of the following mountain peaks of the Himalayas is NO T in India ?

(a) Annap urna(b) Nanda Devi (c) Mt. Kamet(d) Kanchenj unga

144) A rift valley is formed mainly due to(a) The forces of tension in the earth?s crust(b) The subsidence of the floor of a river valley (c) The valley formed after the formation of fold mountains (d) The deepening of a valley by ice action

145) Who is the author of the book, ?The Man Who Divided India? ?(a) Arun Sho urie(b) Dominique Lapierre(c) Rafiq Zakaria(d) Salman Rush die

146) By what name do we know the Mah omedan Anglo -Oriental School?a) Banaras Hindu Un iversityb) Aligarh Musl im Universityc) Mumbai Universityd) Delh i University

147) Who confers the National c ivil and gal lantry awards?a) Prime Ministerb) Chief M inistersc) Pres identd) Defence M inister

148) What are cal led ‘Kabas’ at the Karni Dev i temple at Deshnok in Rajasthan?a) Catsb) Tigersc) Ratsd) Rabbits

149) In which capita l city is the Charbagh Rai lway Stadium is located?a) Ahmedabadb) Chen naic) Bangalore

d) Lucknow

150) Pandit Jasraj is the leading exponent of which gharana?a) The mewat ib) The Pars ic) Agarwa lsd) None of these

Q.no Ans Q.no Ans Q.no Ans Q.no Ans Q.no Ans

1 A 31 B 61 B 91 B 121 B

2 C 32 B 62 D 92 B 122 C

3 C 33 D 63 C 93 D 123 A

4 B 34 A 64 B 94 A 124 B

5 B 35 A 65 B 95 D 125 A

6 C 36 C 66 D 96 C 126 C

7 D 37 D 67 A 97 C 127 A

8 C 38 C 68 A 98 D 128 C

9 C 39 C 69 D 99 C 129 B

10 B 40 C 70 B 100 A 130 C

11 B 41 D 71 A 101 C 131 A

12 B 42 A 72 B 102 C 132 D

13 A 43 C 73 D 103 A 133 B

14 B 44 A 74 A 104 C 134 D

15 D 45 C 75 C 105 B 135 D

16 D 46 A 76 C 106 B 136 B

17 C 47 C 77 B 107 A 137 A

18 A 48 D 78 B 108 D 138 D

19 D 49 B 79 B 109 D 139 C

20 A 50 D 80 D 110 B 140 D

21 D 51 C 81 C 111 A 141 A

22 D 52 A 82 C 112 A 142 C

23 B 53 B 83 D 113 A 143 A

24 B 54 A 84 B 114 C 144 A

25 D 55 A 85 A 115 B 145 C

26 D 56 A 86 A 116 A 146 B

27 C 57 C 87 B 117 B 147 C

28 B 58 B 88 A 118 D 148 C

29 B 59 D 89 B 119 D 149 D

30 A 60 C 90 D 120 A 150 A

ANSWER

PATTERN OF ENTRANCE EXAMINATI ON - 2010

For M.TECH . PROGRAMMES

The questions will be set at the corresponding degree level.

The questions will be of scholastic aptitude type.

The question paper consists of 100 questions with duration of 150 mts.

Each correct answer carries 3 marks and each wrong answer carries negative mark of 1.

(i) Vector calculus (ii) Determinants and Matrices (iii) Analytic function theory (iv) Calculus and ordinary Differential Equations (v) Numerical Methods (vi) Probability and Statistics.

(i) Mechanics of Solids and Structural Analysis (ii) Concrete and Steel Structure (iii) Soil Mechanics and Geo Technical Engineering (iv) Fluid Mechanics and Water Resources Engineering (v) Environmental Engineering (vi) Surveying (vii) Transportation Engineering (viii) Remote Sensing (ix) Geographic Information Systems (GIS).


(i)Mechanics and Machine Design (ii) Material Science and Metallurgy (iii) Thermo dynamics (iv) Refrigeration and Air Conditioning (v) Production Technology (vi) Automotive Engines (vii) Automotive Transmission (viii) Strength of Materials (ix) Casting, metal forming and metal joining processes (x) Tool Engineering, Machine tool operation, Metrology and inspection (xi) Engineering Materials, Processing of Plastics and Computer Aided Manufacturing (xii) Product Design, Process Planning, Cost Estimate, Design of Jigs and Fixtures and Press Tools (xiii) Operations Research. (xiv) Operations Management (xv) Quality Control Reliability and Maintenance.


SYLLABUS

Mathematics

Other Topics

Mechanical (Code 02)

Mathematics

Other Topics

Mathematics

Civil (Code 01)

Electrical (Code 03)

Other Topics

Mathematics

Other Topics

Mathematics

Other Topics

Mathematics

Other Topics

Mathematics

(i) Circuit Theory (ii) Network Analysis and Synthesis (iii)DC & AC Machines (iv) Electronic Circuits(v) Power Electronics (vi) Control Systems (vii) Power System Analysis (viii) Microprocessors.


(i) Networks (ii) Electronic Devices (iii) Analog Circuits (iv) Digital circuits and microprocessors (v) Signals and Systems (vi) Control Systems (vii) Communications (viii) Electromagnetics


(i) Electron Devices (ii) Linear and Digital Integrated Circuits (iii) Electronic circuits (vi) Transducers and Industrial Instrumentation (v) Microprocessors and Microcontrollers (vi) Network Analysis (vii) Control systems (viii) Biomedical Instrumentation (ix) Electrical and Electronic measurements and instrumentation (x) Process control.


(i) Discrete Mathematical Structures (ii) Micro Processor and Hardware Systems (iii) Computer Organization and Architecture (iv) System Programming including Assemblers, Compilers and Operating Systems (v) Programming Methodology, Data Structures and Algorithms (vi) Database Systems (vii) Computer Networks.


Electronics (Code 04)

Instrumentation (Code 05)

Computer Science (Code 06)

Chemical (Code 07)

Other Topics

Fermentation Kinetics – Bioreactors

Mathematics

Other Topics

Mathematics

Other Topics

(i) Chemical process calculations (ii) Chemical Process Industries (iii) Mechanical Operations (iv) Fluid Mechanics (v) Heat Transfer (vi) Mass Transfer (vii) Thermodynamics (viii) Chemical Reaction Engineering (ix ) Instrumentation & Control (x) Process Engineering Economics.

Cell Structure – Function – Properties of Nucleic Acids - Protein Synthesis – Gene Manipulation –Transgenic Microbes, Plants and Animals – Metabolism and Bio Energetics – Gene Regulation – Enzyme Kinetics – Fermentation Process – Production of commercially important enzymes, Recombinant proteins –Microbial Growth Kinetics – Biosaftey – Bioethics and Intellectual Property Rights – Bio conversion –

- Genomics and Proteomics – Computer Applications in Bio Technology -Nano Biotechnology – Application of Bio Technology – Systems Biotechnology.


Probability Theory – Physics of Remote Sensing – Sensor – Electromagnetic Radiation – Satellites – Photogrammetry – Surveying – Cartography – Digital Image Processing – GIS – Hardwares, Softwares –Data base Management – Electronic Surveying – GPS – EDM – Radar – Hydrology – Geological Remote Sensing – Soils – Pollution – Coastal zone – Urban Planning – Disaster.


(i) Environmental Pollution (ii) Environmental Biotechnology (iii) Thermodynamics (iv) Ecology (v) Environmental Conservation (vi) Water Resources (vii) Ecology and Sustainable Development (viii) Remote Sensing (ix) Energy and Environmental (x) Environmental Impact Assessment (xi) Current Topics in Environmental Sciences (xii) Soil Pollution and Solid Waste Management (xiii) Natural Hazards (xiv) Environmental and Occupational Health

Bio Technology (Code 08)

GIS (Code 09)

Environmental (Code 10)

Food Processing (Code 11)

Bioprocess Engineering:

Food Engineering:

Biochemistry and nutrition:

Microbiology:

Properties of Vapors and Gases. Energy Balances/Conservation of Energy; Entropy; Ideal Gas Mixtures and

Psychometrics. Steady-state Heat Transfer; One-dimensional Heat Conduction; Heat Transfer through a

Composite Wall; Conduction, Forced Convection; Overall Heat Transfer Coefficient; Heat Exchangers; Radiation

Heat Transfer. Basic bioprocess engineering and reactor concepts; Stoichiometry , mass and energy balances;

Fluid flow and mixing in bioreactors; Heat transfer in bioprocesses; Mass transfer in bioprocess; Reaction and

cell growth kinetics; Downstream processing unit operations. Process instrumentation

Dimensions and units, Evaporation, crystallization, distillation, mechanical separations, size reduction and

mixing, properties of food, blanching, pasteurization, sterilization, extrusion, aseptic processing, drying, material

handling, dairy plant engineering, cereal processing, fat and oil processing, sugar cane processing, food

preservation, storage, non-thermal food processing, bakery and confectionary, meat and poultry processing,

Food safety and waste management, food packaging technology

Enzymes, Coenzymes, Cofactors, Elements of carbohydrates, fat and protein metabolism, Elements of

photosynthesis, Food Requirements, Vitamins and their functions in the body, Minerals and their functions in

body, Elements in protein biosynthesis-Nucleic acids and their importance.

Microorganism, isolation of microorganism, identification, stains and staining techniques, Growth, nutrition and

physiology of microorganism, diseases and control, microbial genetics, microbial spoilage in food, beneficial

microorganism, probiotic and prebiotic. Fermentation-Process, types, design, Fermented food products.

Enzymes-production-primary and secondary metabolites, application in food industry.

MODEL QUESTIONS – M.Tech

Civil (Section code 01)

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

Maximum directional derivative of a scalar point function is

a) b) c) Zero d) none of these

The value of curl (grad ) is (a) b) c) Zero d) one

Radius of curvature of at is (a) b) c) d)

Saddle point of the function is(a) (a,a) b) c) (a,0) d) (1,1)

Solution of Differential equation is

(a) b) c) d)

is analytic at the print

(a) (0,0) b) (0,1) c) (1,0) d) Nowhere analytic

Order of convergence in Newton-Raphson method is(a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four

Probability of getting one head when two coins are based isa) b) c) d)

Run of the matrix is

a) 2 b) 3 c) 1 d) zero

The sum of eigen values of A2 where A = is

a) 11 b) 12 c) 13 d) 14

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

82

8

3

8

4

4

5

A steel bar of length 2m, area of cross section 50 mm2, Young’s modulus 2. X 105 N/mm2 is subjected to a rise in temperature of 500 C. If the bar is free to expand the stress induced in the bars is

a) 100N/mm2

b) 58.5N/mm2

c) 0d) 60 N/mm2

In an experiment conducted on a metal bar the lateral strain was found to be 0.00083 and the longitudinal strain 0,003. The Poisson’s ratio is

a) 0.278b) 3.61c) 0.000415d) 0.015

For a material if the Young’s modulus is 2.1 X 105 N/mm2, and Poisson’s ratio 0.30, the bulk modulus is

a) 3 X 105 N/mm2

b) 1.75 X 105 N/mm2

c) 2.5 X 105 N/mm2

d) none of the above.A cantilever is subjected to

a) Always sagging momentb) Always hogging momentc) Both sagging and hogging moments togetherd) Can not say

A simply supported beam of span 6000 mm is subjected to a udl of 30000 N/m. If the modulus of elasticity is 2.1 X 104 N/mm2, and moment of inertia 2.39 X 109 mm4, the maximum deflection is

a) 1 mmb) 0.10 mc) 10 mmd) 1m

A fixed beam of span 8 m supports a load of 100 kN at 6m from left end. What is the right support moment reaction

a) 37.5 kNmb) 98.5 kNmc) 120 kNmd) 112.5 kNm

The central reaction of a two span continuous beam of equal spans of ‘l’ each subjected to a udl of w per unit length is

a)

b)

c)

d)

wl

wl

wl

wl

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.12

1236

21

23.

24.

25.

26.

The reaction at the left support of a simply supported beam of span 8 m subjected to a uniformly varying load of zero intensity at left support and 25 kN/m at right end is

a) 33. 33 kNb) 66.67 kNc) 16.16 kNd) none of the above

The degree of static indeterminacy of a two bay single storey frame whose supports are hinged is

a) 2b) 3c) 4d) 5

The degree of kinematic indeterminacy of a fixed beam is a) 0b) 1c) 2d) 3

A three hinged arch is a) Statically determinate b) Statically indeterminate c) externally indeterminate, internally determinated) none of the above

The value of a21 of the stiffness matrix of a structure is

a) 12b) -12c) 36d) -36

In matrix method of analysis the size of the flexibility matrix for a 3 span continuous beam using force method is

a) 1 X 1b) 2 X 2c) 3 X 3d) 4 x 4

A beam has a spring support of stiffness of 100 kN/m and it undergoes a displacement of 5 mm due to applied loads. The reaction at the spring support is

a) 5 kNb) 10 kNc) 0.5 kNd) 0.10kN

The conjugate beam of an over hanging beam with overhangs on both sides has

a) 4 simple supportsb) 2 internal hinges with ends freec) 2 ends fixed and two internal hingesd) two fixed supports

A single bay, single storey portal frame with two roller supports isa) Stable

−

a

b) Unstablec) Determinate and stabled) Indeterminate and stable

The position of the moving load for the occurrence of maximum bending moment at a section located at L/3 from left support of a simply supported beam is

a) At mid spanb) At L/3 from right supportc) At L/3 from left supportd) None of the above

The distribution of bending and shear stresses across a rectangular section, respectively is

a) Parabolic and linearb) Linear and parabolicc) Linear and spirald) Linear and exponential

The effective length of column fixed at one end and hinged at the other isa) 0.5Lb) 2Lc) L

d)

A simply supported beam of span 6 m is subjected to a clockwise couple of 36 kNm at 4 m from left end. The reaction at the right end is

a) 6 kN upwardsb) 24 kN upwardsc) 24 kN downwardsd) 24 kN upwards

Highway plan for India was first formulated in 1943 at a conference held ata) Madrasb) Bombyc) Hyderabadd) Nagpur

In a contour map the contour interval is 15 m and the ruling gradient is 1 in 20. The proposed road length between two consecutive contours is

a) 150 mb) 200 mc) 300 md) 400 m

Chose from following which is not associated with sight distancesa) Stopping sight distanceb) Overtaking sight distancec) Minimum distance of visibility of an object from the seat of the driverd) Safe sight distance for entering the uncontrolled intersections

Lemniscate is aa) Transition curveb) Term associated with extra widening of horizontal curvec) Term associated with speed of vehicles

27.

28.

29.

230.

31.

32.

33.

34.

L

d) A type of grade separatorIn a single lane road, the speed of vehicles is 50 kmph and average centre to centre spacing of vehicles is 12 m. The capacity of the road is

a) 600b) 2500c) 144d) 4167

CBR stands fora) California Bending Resistanceb) California Bending Reactionc) California Bearing Reactiond) California Bearing Ratio

Westergaard method of highway design is associated witha) Bituminous pavementb) WBMc) Earthen pavementd) Rigid pavement

The spacing of expansion joints of a rigid pavement with smooth interface at joint and laid in winter is

a) 50-60 mb) 100-140 mc) 90-120 md) < 50 m

Specific gravity of bitumen is a) 1.5-1.8b) 2.5-2.8c) 1.35-1.38d) 0.97-1.02

Double clover leaf is a) A type of grade separator at an intersectionb) A type of tree grown on the pathwayc) A type of horizontal transition curved) A type of vertical curve

The dimensions of coefficient of viscosity area) FL-2T b) FL-2T2

c) F 2L-2Td) FL-2T -1

A capillary tube of inside diameter 5 mm is dipped in water. If the surface tension is 0.0763 N/m and the angle of contact is 600, the capillary rise is

a) 5.286 X 10-4 mb) 5.286 X 10-3 mc) 5.286 X 10-5 md) 5.286 X 10-2 m

The total pressure on a rectangular plate of dimensions 0.6m X 1m placed with its shorter side horizontal, the surface being immersed vertically in water and the upper edge being 3 m below free surface, is

a) 20.6 kNb) 10.3 kN

35.

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

41.

42.

43.

c) 41.2 kNd) 5.15 kN

In a fluid flow, the stream function is given by = 2x2-y2. The resultant velocity at (2,3) is

a) 2b) 10c) -2d) 12

Reynold’s number is the ratio of

a)

b)

c)

d)

To measure low discharges the preferable notch isa) Rectangularb) Trapezoidalc) Circulard) Triangular

Hydraulic depth in open channel flow is ratio of

a)

b)

c)

d)

The most economical rectangular channel has a depth of flow equals toa) half the breadthb) ¼ of breadthc) breadthd) twice the breadth

The force generated by a 50 mm diameter water jet against a flat plate held normal to axis of stream whose velocity is 40 m/s is

a) 3.20 kNb) 6.28 kNc) 1.57 kNd) none of the above

Pelton wheel will be a preferred turbine undera) Low head, low dischargeb) High head, low dischargec) High head, high discharged) Low head high discharge

The Kharif season is characterized by

44.

45.

46.

47.sec

sec

sec

sec

48.

49.

50.

51.

ψ

forcespressure

forcesInertia

forcesgravityforcesInertia

forcesviscous

forcesInertia

forcessurface

forcesInertia

widthtop

tioncrossofarea

widthbottomtioncrossofarea

flowofdepth

tioncrossofarea

perimeterwetted

tioncrossofarea

a) Less number of rainy daysb) Rise in temperaturec) Large number of rainy daysd) None of the above

For a particular crop, irrigated over an area of 10 sq. km with a base period of 28 days, the duty is

a) 2.42 mb) 0.0242 mc) 0.242 md) none of the above

A canal has a hydraulic mean radius of 1.2885 m and area of cross section 12.71m2, bed slope of 1 in 1600, Manning’s constant, 0.015. The discharge is

a) 50 m3

b) 25 m3

c) 15 m3

d) 29 m3

Regime of flow in an open channel is characterized by a) Plane bed with no motionb) Ripples and dunesc) Transitiond) All of the above

A trapezoidal channel of side slope 1H:2V has a depth of flow of 2 m and a base width of 16.5 m. The hydraulic mean radius is

a) 1.77mb) 1.87mc) 1.67md) 1.57m

Which one of the following does not belong to canal regulation structure?a) Canal dropb) Cross regulatorc) Canal escaped) Super passage

A siphon aqueduct is provided a) As outlet in damsb) When canal crosses a river whose HFL is less than the FSL of the canalc) When canal crosses a river whose HFL is more than the FSL of the

canald) When canal crosses a river whose HFL is equal to FSL of the canal

In canal headworks cutoffs are provideda) To prevent cavitationb) To guard against scouring and pipingc) To control floodsd) To prevent road vehicles falling into canal

The suitable type of dam in a plain terrain with broad valleys isa) Masonry damb) Arch damc) Concrete damd) Earthen embankment dam

Freeboard in a dam is

52.

53.

54.

55.

56.

57.

58.

59.

60.

a) Extra vertical distance between the reservoir bed and crest of embankment

b) Extra vertical distance between the foot of spillway and crest of embankment

c) Extra vertical distance between the still water surface in the reservoir and crest of embankment

d) Extra vertical distance between the canal outlet and crest of embankment

Value of E adopted for structural steel sections in code isa) 210 MPab) 210 GPac) 210 Pad) 2.1 X 10 4N/mm2

Minimum thickness of steel directly exposed to weather and is fully accessible for cleaning and repairing is

a) 3 mmb) 4 mmc) 5 mmd) 6 mm

When steel structural members are designed for wind load combination, the stresses are

a) Increased by 33%b) Decreased by 33%c) Increased by 25%d) Decreased by 25%

The permissible stresses axial tension in steel is a) 0.66fy

b) 0.45fy

c) 0.50fy

d) 0.60fy

Rivets subjected to both shear and axial tension are designed to satisfy

a)

b)

c)

d)

Minimum pitch of rivets shall not be less thana) 3.5 times the nominal diameter of the rivetb) 2.5 times the nominal diameter of the rivetc) 4.5 times the nominal diameter of the rivetd) 5.5 times the nominal diameter of the rivet

In plastic analysis the shape factor of rectangular section is

61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

0.1,,

4.1,,

1.1,,

2.1,,

66.

67.

≤+σ

σ

τ

τ

≤+σ

σ

τ

τ

≤+σ

σ

τ

τ

≤+σ

σ

τ

τ

tf

caltf

vf

calvf

tf

caltf

vf

calvf

tf

caltf

vf

calvf

tf

caltf

vf

calvf

a) 1.67b) 1.1c) 2.1d) none of the above

Purlins are designed fora) Bending about major axis onlyb) Bending about minor and major axesc) Shear onlyd) Axial tension only

Lacings are provided a) In gantry girdersb) Plate girdersc) Tension membersd) Compression members

In pitched roof sheds, for normally adopted slopes the wind acts a) Away from the roofing sheetb) Towards the roofing sheetc) Horizontallyd) None of the above

The modulus of elasticity of concrete of grade 25 is a) 2.5 X 104N/mm2

b) 2.5 X 105N/mm2

c) 2.85 X 104N/mm2

d) 2.85 X 105N/mm2

For making concrete the pH value of water shall not be less thana) 3b) 4c) 5d) 6

In accordance with IS456:2000, M55 concrete falls undera) Low strength category b) Ordinary strength category c) Standard strength category d) High strength category

The maximum workability is required fora) Blinding concreteb) Tremie concretec) Strip footingsd) columns

Minimum amount of cement content required for RCC exposed to moderate weather conditions is

a) 420 kg/m3

b) 380 kg/m3

c) 360 kg/m3

d) 300 kg/m3

The effective flange width of ‘L’ beam may be taken asa) l0/12 + bw+3Df

b) l0/18 + bw+3Df

c) l0/6 + bw+3Df

d) l0/4 + bw+3Df

68.

69.

70.

71.

72.

73.

74.

75.

76.

77.

78.

79.

80.

15.1

15.1

5.1

5.1

81.

82.

83.

84.

For cantilever beams, the basic value of span to effective depth ratio shall not be greater than

a) 7b) 20c) 26d) 6

A RCC compression member may be considered as short whena) Lex/D is less than 12b) Ley/b is less thn 12c) Lex /D or Ley/b less than 12

d) is less than 12

Partial safety factor for steel in RCC isa) 1.25b) 1.15c) 1.05d) 0.95

In limit state of collapse, in flexure, the maximum strain in the tension reinforcement in the section at failure is

a) 0.002 +

b) 0.0035 +

c) 0.002 +

d) 0.0035 +

The limiting value of depth of neutral axis depends on a) Grade of steel reinforcement and grade of concreteb) Grade of steel and depth of sectionc) Grade of concrete aloned) None of the above

Shear reinforcement may be provided in the form of a) Vertical stirrupsb) Inclined stirrupsc) Bent up bars along with stirrupsd) All of above

The pitch of 6 mm diameter transverse reinforcement in a RCC column of cross section 300 mm X 500 mm, with 12mm diameter longitudinal reinforcement is

a) 300 mmb) 190 mmc) 250 mmd) 200 mm

The maximum permissible percentage of longitudinal reinforcement in RCC column is

a) 3%b) 6%

Db

LL eyex

s

y

E

f

s

y

E

f

s

y

E

f

s

y

E

f

+

+

c) 9%d) 10%

A slab of 150 mm thickness is provided with HYSD distribution bars. The spacing of 8 mm bars is

a) 275 mmb) 300 mmc) 450 mmd) 150 mm

The unit weight of undisturbed soil sample in wet condition is 18 kN/m3 ant its water content was found to be 8%. The dry unit weight of soil is

a) 1.67 kN/m3

b) 16.7 kN/m3

c) 15 kN/m3

d) 14 kN/m3

For a sample of soil the liquid limit is 50% , the plastic limit is 30% and the flow index is 27. The toughness index is

a) 0.67b) 0.57c) 0.90d) none of the above

The capillary rise in a soil with effective diameter D10 ,0.05 mm, void ratio 0.45, and empirical constant C as 0.5 is

a) 3.3 mb) 2.2 mc) 1.2 md) none of the above

If the backfill of a retaining wall has a surcharge of 15 kN/m2, the active pressure at the base of the retaining wall located 3 m below the backfill, assuming an angle of repose of 300 is

a) 15 kN/m2

b) 45 kN/m2

c) 5 kN/m2

d) 22.5 kN/m2

The bearing capacity calculated using Terzaghi’s equation for a purely cohesionless soil of unit weight 17 kN/m3for a strip footing of breadth 2m if there is no surcharge, assuming Nf = 20 is

a) 300 kN/m2

b) 310 kN/m2

c) 320 kN/m2

d) 340 kN/m2

The time taken by a 6m thick doubly drained layer of clay to consolidate by 50% of ultimate settlement, if Cv=0.03 X 10-4/min. and time factor = 0.197

a) 947 daysb) 1894 daysc) 473 daysd) none of the above

In a chain survey, before commencement of the survey the chain was found to be exactly 30 m. But after measuring 1000 m it was found to be 100 mm too long. The correct length of the line is

a) 996.68 mb) 998.34 m

85.

86.

87.

88.

89.

90.

91.

92.

c) 1003.33 md) 1001.67 m

The whole circle bearing of N 650 12 ‘ E is a) 1550 12’b) 650 12’c) 1140 48’d) none of the above

Three sides of a triangular area are 10 m, 15 m, and 12 m. The enclosed area is a) 18.5 m2

b) 59.81 m2

c) 108 m2

d) 112.68 m2

The stadia readings with a horizontal sight on a vertical staff were 1.284 and 1.780. The additive and multiplying constants of the tacheometer respectively are 0.40 and 100. The distance between the instrument and the staff station is

a) 10 mb) 20 mc) 30 md) none of the above

Population of a certain town in 2001 was 60000. If annual rate of growth of population is 2%, the projected population in 2031 will be

a) 208681b) 108681c) 106881d) 108861

Volume of water tank required to treat 1.8 million liters of raw water per day for a detention period of 5 hours is

a) 475 m3

b) 375 m3

c) 575 m3

d) 675 m3

Slow sand filters have a bacterial removal efficiency of a) 98%-99%b) 92%-93%c) 89%-90%d) 88%-89%

Sewage is made up of a) 99.9% of waterb) 89.9% of waterc) 79.9% of waterd) 69.9% of water

A sewage has a 5 day BOD at 200 C 200 mg/l. The ultimate I stage BOD with reaction constant of 0.20/day is

a) 444 mg/lb) 333 mg/lc) 222 mg/ld) 111 mg/l

93.

94.

95.

96.

97.

98.

99.

100.

Mechanical (Section code 02)

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.



The value of curl (grad ) is (b) b) c) Zero d) one

Radius of curvature of at is

(b) b) c) d)

Saddle point of the function is(b) (a,a) b) c) (a,0) d) (1,1)


(b) b) c) d)


(b) (0,0) b) (0,1) c) (1,0) d) Nowhere analytic

Order of convergence in Newton-Raphson method is(b) One b) Two c) Three d) Four



a) 2 b) 3 c) 1 d) zero


a) 11 b) 12 c) 13 d) 14

A kinematic pair is a joint of

a. Two links which are fixedb. Two links having same velocity

c. Two links having relative motion between them d. None of the above

A bolt and nut form a

a. Turning pair b. Rolling pairc. Screw pair d. Spherical pair

The function of an element is to

a. Transmit motion b. To serve as a supportc. To guide other elements d. All of the above

If ‘n’ links are connected at the same joint, the joint is equivalent to

a. (n-1) binary joints b. (n-2) binary jointsc. (n-3) binary joints d.(2n-1) binary joints

If a mechanism has n-links, then the number of instantaneous centres would be equal to

a. n b

c. d. (n-1)

The Ackermann steering gear is the inversion of a

a. Slider crank chain b. Four bar chain c. Double slider crank chain d. Crossed slider crank chain

In simple harmonic motion, acceleration is proportional to

a. Displacement b. Velocityc. Square of displacement d. Square of velocity

The minimum period of a compound pendulum is equal to

a. b.

c. d.

Kennedy’s theorem states that any three bodies moving relatively to each

other

a. Having three instantaneous centres and these these centres lie on a curved line b. Have three instantaneous centres and these three centres lie on a straight line c. Have only one instantaneous centre d. Have two instantaneous centre and these two centres lie on a circle

12.

13.

14.

15.

2)1(

2

16.

17.

18.

2 2

22

22

19.

−

π π

π π

nn

n

g

hg

k

g

k

g

k

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

64

3

32

3

In which of the following mechanism, the coriolis component of acceleration existsa. shaper mechanism b. Whitworth quick return

mechanismc. Tangent cam mechanism d. All of the above

The gyroscopic acceleration depends upon

a. Instantaneous value of b. The rate at which the axis of spin changes its speedc. both a) and b)d. none of the above

The product of moment of inertia and angular velocity is known as a. Kinetic energy b. Angular momentum

c. angular torque d. none of the above

A machine is said to be self-locking if efficiency of the machine is

a. more than 50% b. equal to 50%c. less than 50% d. equal to 100%

The equivalent co-efficient of friction for V-threads is

a)equal to actual coefficient of frictionb)less than actual co-efficient of frictionc) greater than actual co-efficient of frictiond) none of the above

When a material is subjected to varying stresses, it fails under stresses considerably lower than the ultimate stress. Such type of failure of material is known asa. creep b. fatiguec.stress concentration d.overstrain

The factor of safety, for a component subjected to fatigue loading, is given by

a. ultimate stress/working stressb. ultimate stress/endurance limit stressc. endurance limit stress/working stressd. none of the above

Stress concentration factor is a function of

a. geometry of the machine componentb. material of the machine componentc. geometry and material of the componentd. none of the above

For a solid shaft of diameter D, the polar modulus of section is equal to

a. b.

ω

π πD D

c. d.

If the diameter of a solid shaft is increased two times, the torque transmitted

will be

a. two times b. four timesc. eight times d. sixteen times

Fatigue strength

a. increased by cold working b. decreases by cold workingc. increases by hot working d. none of the above

The smallest permissible size for a dimension is known as

a. lower limit b. upper limit

c. basic size d. actual size

Basic shaft is one

a. whose lower deviation is zero b. whose upper deviation is zero

c. whose upper and lower deviation is zero d. none of the above

Which one of the following threads is not used for transmission of power ?

a. Square thread b. buttress thread

c. B.S.W.thread d. acme thread

Hook’s law holds good up to

a. proportional limit b. yield point

c. elastic limit d. plastic limit

The ratio of lateral strain to longitudinal strain is called

a. Poisson’s ratio b. bulk modulus

c. modulus of rigidity d. modulus of elasticity

The property of a material by virtue of which a body returns to its original shape after removal of the load is known asa. ductility b.plasticity

c. elasticity d.resilience

The modulus of elasticity (E) and modulus of rigidity c) are related by

a. C= b. C=

c. C= d. C=

If ‘L’ be the length and ‘D’ be the diameter of a cylindrical rod, then volumetric strain of the rod is equal to

16

3

64

4

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

)2(3 )1(2

)2(3 )1(2

38.

D D

mmE

mmE

mE

m

mE

m

π π

− +

− +

a. strain of length plus strain of diameter b. strain of diameter

c. strain of length + twice the strain of diameter d. strain of length

If a member is subjected to an axial tensile load , the plane normal to the axis

of Loading carries

a. minimum normal stress b. maximum normal stress

c. maximum shear stress d. none of the above

The maximum shear stress induced in a member which is subjected to an

axial load is equal to

a. maximum normal stress b. half of maximum normal stress

c. twice the maximum normal stress d. thrice the maximum normal

stress

Principal plane is a plane on which shear stress is

a. maximum b. minimum

c. average of maximum and minimum d. zero

A member of cross-sectional area 10 cm2 is subjected to an axial load of 10,000

kgf. A Plane makes an angle of 300 to the cross-section. The normal stress on

this plane will be

a. 1000 kgf b.750 kgf

c. 433 kgf d.0

In which of the following cases, Mohr’s circle is used to determine the stresses

on an Oblique plane

two unequal like principal stresses

two unequal unlike principal stresses

direct tensile stress in one plane accompanied by a shear stress

all of the above

If a beam is fixed at both its ends, it is called a

a. fixed beam b. built-in beam

c. encastered beam d. any one of the above

A cantilever of length (l) carries a point load(W) at the free end. The bending

moment diagram will be a

a. parabola with maximum ordinate at the centre of the beam

b. parabola with maximum ordinate at the cantilever end

c. triangle with maximum ordinate at the free end

d. triangle with maximum ordinate at the cantilever end

39.

40.

41.

42.

43.

a.

b.

c.

d.

44.

45.

46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

51.

52.

53.

54.

55.

56.

57.

The bending moment on a section is maximum where shearing force is

a. minimum b. maximum

c. zero d. all of the above

No liquid can exists as liquid at

a. – 273 K b.Vacuum c. Zero pressure d. Space

Which of the following is not the intensive property ?

a. Heat b. Pressure c. Temperature d. Density

One Watt is equal to

a. 1 N/m b. 1 Nm/s c. 1 Nm/h d. 1 Nm

Minimum work in compressor is possible when the adiabatic index n is equal

to

a.1.1 b.1.25 c.1.4 d.1.0

Entropy change depends on

a. Heat Transfer b. Temperature change c. Mass Transfer d. state

A heat engine is supplied with heat rate of 30,000 J/s and gives output of 9

kW.

Thermal efficiency of engine will be

a. 30% b. 33% c. 40% d. 50%

Diesel cycle efficiency is maximum when the cut-off is

a. maximum b. Minimum c. Zero d. One

Second law of thermodynamics defines

a. Enthalpy b. Entropy c. Temperature d. Work

Expansion process in nozzles is

a. Isothermal b. Isobaric c. Isochoric d. Isentropic

____ is used in the study of visco elasticity.

a. natural rubber b. synthetic rubber c. butyl rubber d. neoprene rubber

___________ is a type of composite materials

a. phenol b reinforced compositec. methane d .ethane

____________is an example of laminated composite

a .plywood b. phenol formaldehydec. methane d. ethane

____________ are very thin filaments, hair like single crystals of about 10^-4cm diameter.a. spheres b. cubesc. whiskers d. ethane

___________ is an agglomerated structure.

a .concrete b. sandc. H2O d. ethane

The match pattern is used in

a. green sand moulding, b. bench moulding, c. pit moulding, d. machine moulding

In centrifugal casting cores are made of

a. steel , b. cast iron, c. hard sand, d. none of above

The pouring temperature for grey cast iron is

a. 1000, b. 1250, c. 1400, d. 1550

Spinning operation is carried out on

a. hydraulic press, b. mechanical press. C. lathe. D. milling machine

Weld spatter refers to

a. Welding electrode

b. Flux

c. Weld Defect

d. Filler material

carburizing flame is used to weld metals like a. steelb. copper and brassc. Aluminum, stainless steel, Zinc die casting, Nickel, Monel etc.d. None of above

58.

59.

60.

61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

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67.

68.

69.

70.

71.

72.

73.

74.

75.

The commonly used flux for brazing isa. Resinb. Boraxc. Soft silverd. Soft iron

fluxes are used in welding in order to protect the molten metal and the surfaces to be jointed from

a. oxidationb. carburizingc. dirtd. distortion and warping

carburizing flame hasa. 1 zoneb. 2 zonesc. 3 zonesd. no zone

To remove maximum material per minute with the same tool lifea. Increase depth of cutb. Increase feed ratec. Decrease cutting speedd. Increase cutting speed

arc stability is better witha. AC weldingb. DC Weldingc. Both AC and DC Weldingd. Rectified supply

Arc length in arc welding should be equal to a. Half the diameter of electrode rodb. Rod diameterc. Twice the rod diameterd. 2.5 times the rod diameter

Seam welding isa. Multi spot welding processb. Continuous spot welding processc. Used for welding cylindrical objectsd. None of the above

Three jaw chuck is aa. Independent chuckb. Self centering chuckc. Chuck for holding irregular shaped objectsd. None of the above

Axis of the cutter rotation is parallel in

a. Peripheral millingb. Face millingc. Vertical millingd. Horizontal milling

Cutter machines the side of the work piece in a. Slab millingb. Slot millingc. Side millingd. Straddle milling

Other name for Down milling isa. Climb millingb. Jump millingc. Top millingd. None of the above

In Bed type milling machine, the word ‘Duplex’ meansa. Two worktablesb. Two columnsc. Two jobsd. Two spindles

G 40 refers to _______________

a. Rapid positioning of tool b. dwellc. Co ordinates between xyzd. Interpolation cycle

G 90 refer to _____________

a. Programming in incremental coordinatesb. Input valuesc. Programming in absolute coordinatesd. Interpolation cycle

M 05 refers to ____________

a. Program startb. Program stopc. Coolant ONd. Coolant OFF

M 30 refers to ____________a. Rapid positioning of tool b. machine dwellc. machine off

76.

77.

78.

79.

80.

81.

82.

d. Machine ON

Piston rings are usually made of a. Cast iron b. aluminum c. phosphor bronze d. carbon steel

Knock in the CI Engine is charecterised by a. sudden auto ignition of the mixture at the very beginning of the combustion process.b. sudden auto ignition of the mixture at the end of the combustion period c. knock does not occur in diesel enginesd. none of the statements are correct

The highest flame speed is obtained with an air fuel ratioa. somewhat richer than chemically correct mixtureb. stoichiometricc. very richd. lean

The quantity of heat lost to the cooling water in an IC Engine is about a. 10% b. 30% c. 50% d. 70%

In a diesel engine higher combustion chamber wall temperature will a. reduce knocking tendency b. increase knocking tendency c. reduce exhaust temperature d. have no influence on combustion process

Break even point is the ratio of fixed cost toa. unit priceb. unit variable costc. unit price-unit variable costd. None of the above

Difference of actual sales and break even point is calleda. margin of safetyb.price cost marginc. contributiond. None of the above

Break even point increases witha. increase in fixed cost b. increase in variable costc. decrease in unit cost productiond. All the above

83.

84.

85.

86.

87.

88.

89.

90.

91.

92.

93.

94.

95.

a.b.c.d.

96.

a.b.

c.

d.

97.

98.

Overhead rate is the ratio of total overhead charges toa. direct labourb. direct materialc. direct labour+direct materiald. None of the above

Seam less tubes in mass production are done by

a. Rollingb. Spinningc. Weldingd. Extrusion

Strech forming is a process of a. Cold rollingb. Forgingc. Cold drawingd. Spinning

Compression molding is ideal for

a. Plasticsb. Thermosetting plasticsc. Thermo plasticsd. Non ferrous materials

Injection molding is ideal for

Thermosetting plasticsThermo plasticsNon ferrous materialsNone of above

In combination dies

Two or more cutting operations can be performed simultaneouslyCutting and formation operations are combined and carried out in single operationWork piece moves from one station to another with separate operation done in each stationAll of the above

FMS mainly helps in a. providing manufacturing flexibility for switch over new productsb. introduction of computers in manufacturingc. reduction in setup timed .providing flexibility in layout

A compact estimate about the amount of materials handling between various work stations is obtained from a. travel chartb. gnat chart

c. string diagramd. bin chart

Use of modern control technology in automation systemsa. reduces costb. increases yieldc. improves reliabilityd. all of the aboveNumeric control a. applies only to milling machinesb. is a method for producing exact no.of parts per hourc. is a method of controlling by means of a set of instructionsd. all of the above

99.

100.

Electrical (Section code 03)

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.



The value of curl (grad ) is (c) b) c) Zero d) one


(c) b) c) d)

Saddle point of the function is(c) (a,a) b) c) (a,0) d) (1,1)


(c) b) c) d)


(c) (0,0) b) (0,1) c) (1,0) d) Nowhere analytic

Order of convergence in Newton-Raphson method is(c) One b) Two c) Three d) Four



a) 2 b) 3 c) 1 d) zero


a) 11 b) 12 c) 13 d) 14

Which of the following parameters is not specified for digital IC’s?

a) gate dissipation b) propagation delay

c) Noise margin d) band – width

Frequency of the square wave in Hz generated by an astable multivibrator is given by

a) 1/0.69 RC b) 1/1.39 RC c) 0.69 / RC d) 1.38 / RC

The astable multivibrator has

a) two stable states b) one stable, one quasi stable

c) two quasi-stable states d) none of these

An op-amp can amplify only

a) dc signals b) ac signals c) both ac & dc signals d) none of the above

A circuit in which the output voltage waveform is the integral of the input voltage waveform

a) integrator b) differentiator c) logarithmic amplifier

d) comparator

PUSH and POP operation can be done for

a) 8 bit registers b) 16 bit register pair alone

c) PSW alone d) both b) and c)

‘RST n’ refers to

a) Reset operations b) restart operations

c) Software interrupts d) hardware interrupt

RIM and SIM deals with

a) masking of interrupts b) pending of interrupts

c) serial data communication d) all the above

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

,

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

The microprocessor differentiates the address and data using

a) AD0 - AD7 b) ALE c) d)

all the above

The opcode fetch machine cycle is similar to

a) Memory read b) memory write c) I/O read d) I/O write

The following signals decides the machine cycle

a) Io/ b) S0,S1 alone c) ALE d) both a) and b)

When the microprocessor checks the status bit associated with the I/O devices for data transfer, then it is called.

a) hardware controlled I/O b) program controlled I/O

c) I/O controlled I/O d) I/O controlled by hardware signals

USART is

a) 8250 b) 8251 c) 8253 d) 8254

The number of interrupts in 8051 is

a) 5 b) 6 c) 7 d) 8

How many address lines are needed to address each memory location is 4096 x 4 memory chip?

a) 10 b) 11 c) 12 d) 16

A four bit number is given as 1001. Its one’s complement is

a) 1001 b) 1110 c) 0110 d) 0111

RWDR

M

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.)255(

252

32.

1

1

33.)1(

Exclusive OR followed by an inverter has the property

a) output high for input word of even parity

b) output high for input word of odd parity

c) output is 1’s complement of input word

d) output is 2’s complement of input word

The value 25 in octal system is

a) 40 b) 20 c) 400 d) 200

An AND gate is a

a) sequential circuit b) combinational circuit

c) memory circuit d) relaxation circuit

The gates required to build an half adder are

a) EX-OR and NOR gate b) EX-OR and OR gate

c) EX.-OR and AND gate d) four NAND gates

The second order system defined by is given a step input. The

time taken for the output to settle within 2% of input is

a) 1.2s b) 1.6s c) 2s d) 2s

The transfer function of a transportation lag is e-sT . If the lag is small compared with the time constants of the system, it can be approximated best by

a) sT b) 1+sT c) 1-sT d)

G(s) = . This system is operated in closed-loop with unity feedback.

The closed-loop system is

a) Stable b) unstable c) marginally stable d) conditionally stable

++

±

+

+

ss

sT

sTs

K

34.

35.

1321

321

1 12

231 1 3

121

21

1 12

321

1

36.

37.

1

1 1

38.

39.

11

111

1

If stability error for step input and speed of response be the criteria for design, what controller would you recommend?

a) P controller b) PD controller c) PI controller d) PID controller

The transfer function C/R of the block diagram given below is

a) b) c) d)

The frequency at which the Nyquist diagram crosses the negative real axis is known as

a) gain crossover frequency b) phase crossover frequency

c) damping frequency d) natural frequency

The steady state error of a stable, type 0 unity feedback system for a unit step function is

a) 0 b) c) d)

A system whose present output depends only on present and past inputs is called

a) Non-causal system b) causal system

c) FIR system d) IIR systems

Z-transform of unit impulse signal is

a) b) c) 1 d) -1

HGGG

GGG

HG

GGG G

HGG

GG

HG

GGG

Kp Kp

z z

+ ++ +

+ +

+∞

−− −+

40.

41.

42.

43.

44.

45.

Direct DFT requires -------------- real additions

a) 4N (N-1) b) 4N c) N2 d) N (N-1)

In the measurement of power by two wattmeter method, when the readings of the two watt meters are equal and opposite, it can be concluded that

a) power factor is zero b) power factor is 0.5 leading

c) power factor is unity d) power factor is 0.5 lagging

A double beam oscilloscope has

a) two screens b) two electron guns

c) two different phosphor coatings d) one waveform divided into two parts

The function of shunt in an ammeter is to

a) bypass the current b) increase the sensitivity of the ammeter

c) increase the resistance of ammeter d) none of the above

Megger is used to measure

a) breakdown voltage of insulation b) earth resistance

c) insulation resistance d) none of the above

A digital voltmeter uses an A/D converter which needs a start pulse, uses an analog comparator and has relatively fixed conversion time independent of the applied voltage. The A/D converter is

a) successive approximation converter b) digital approximation converter

c) dual slope approximation converter d) all the above

46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

51.

52.

53.

In dc chopper, for periodic time T, the output voltage can be controlled by PWM by varying

a) T, keeping TON constant b) TON, keeping T constant

c) T, keeping TOFF constant d) TOFF, keeping T constant

For a type A chopper, Vs is the source voltage, R is the load resistance and is the duty cycle. Average output voltage of this chopper

a) Vs b) (1- ) Vs c) Vs | d) Vs / (1- )

Inverter converts

a) ac voltage into dc voltage b) dc voltage into ac voltage

c) ac voltage of supply frequency into an ac voltage of desired frequency

d) boosts the voltages

Parallel inverter employs---------------

a) Natural commutation b) Forced commutation

c) Auxillary current commutationd) Complementary voltage commutation

As compared to power MOSFET, a BJT has

a) lower switching losses but higher conduction loss

b) higher switching losses and higher conduction loss

c) higher switching losses but lower conduction loss

d) lower switching losses and lower conduction loss

Phase difference between the two waveforms can be compared only when they have same

a) Frequency b) peak valuec) rms. value d) average value

In a series RLC circuit R = 10 , L=0.01H and C=0.1 F determine Q=?

a) 31.62 b) 41.62 c) 51.62 d) 61.62

A Hurwitz polynomial has

α

α α α α

Ω µ

a) zeros only in the left half of the s-plane

b) poles only in the left half of the s-plane

c) zeros anywhere in the s-plane d) poles on the j axis only

The system described by the equation F(s) = s4+2s3+3s2+6s+K, according to Routh Hurwitz’s criteria, is

a) unstable for all values of K b) stable if K 0

c) stable if K < 0 d) stable for all values of K

The transfer function of an electrical low-pass RC network is

a) b) c) d)

Gauss law is given by

a) 2 V = - b) 2 V = 0 c) . ds = Q

d) none of the above

Ampere’s circuital law, in its integral form, is given by

a) b)

c) d) none of the above

Energy density in magnetic fields is given by the equation

a) b) c) d) none of the above

Which of the following voltage is not very common

a) 11KV b) 22KV c) 6.6KV d) 177KV

PV bus should be converted to PQ bus while doing power flow analysis if

a) number of PV buses is more than the number of PQ buses

b) Q limit is violated

ω

≥

+ + + +

∇σ

ρ∇ ∫∫

∫ = ∫ =

∫ =

54.

55.

1 11

1 1

56.

57.

.

.

58.

2

1.

2

1

2

1

59.

60.

sRCsRC

sRC sRCRC

sRCs

S

D

IdH IdH

IsdH

HxB HB BxH

l l

c) number of slack bus is less compare to PV bus


The load flow equations for FDPF method is

a) [ p / | V|] = [B1 ] [ s] b) [ p / | V|] = [B1 ] x [ s]

c) [ Q / | V|] = [B1 ] [ s] d) none of the above

The number of iterations is constant for

a) G.S method b) N-R method c) both a& b d) none of the above

LG fault is more severe than 3L fault

a) always b) never c) if the generator neutrals is solidly grounded

d) if the neutral is left un connected

The back up relays

a) Supplementing the primary relays

b) Operating time may be more than primary relay

c) act as primary relays when primary relays are taken off for maintenance

d) all the above

In the inverse time current relays

a) The operating time reduces as the actuating quantity increases in magnitude

b) The operating time increases as the actuating quantity increases in magnitude

c) life time reduces as the operating current value increases in magnitude

d) all the above

For the operation of directional over current relay

a) Directional unit alone should be operated

b) Over current unit alone should be operated

61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

66.

∆ ∆ ∆ ∆ ∆ ∆

∆ ∆ ∆

c) both Directional and o/c units should operate


Which system needs lightning arrestor of least voltage rating?

a) Solid ground neutral system b) insulated neutral system

c) Resistance grounded neutral system d) reactance grounded neutral system

The phenomenon of rise in voltage at the receiving end of the open-circuited or lightly loaded line is called the

a) See beck effect b) ferranti effect c) proximity effect d) skin effect

Wein bridge oscillator is most often used whenever

a) wide range of high purity sine waves is to be generated

b) high feedback ratio is needed

c) square output waves are required

d) extremely high resonant frequencies are required.

CE amplifier is characteried by

a) low voltage gain b) single phase reversal

c) moderate power gain d) very high output impedance

In a class –A amp, induction extends over 360o because Q-point is

a) located on load line b) located near saturation point

c) centered on load line d) located at or near cut-off

A Diac is equivalent a

a) pair of SCR’s b) pair of 4 layer SCRs

c) diode & two resistors d) triac with two gate

67.

68.

69.

70.

71.

72.

73.

74.

75.

76.

77.

78.

79.

80.

Which of the following statement is wrong? In a multivibrator

a) Output is available continuously b) feedback between two stages is 100%

c) positive Feedback is employed d) when one Transfer in on, the other is OFF

Which of the following approximations is often used in electronic circuits?

a) Ic IE b) IB IE c) IB IC d) IE IB + Ic

Which stage of a dc power supply uses a zener as the main component?

a) rectifier b) voltage divider c) regulator d) filter

Current flow in a semiconductor depends on the phenomenon of

a) drift b) diffusion c) recombination d) all the above

The input impedance h11 of a network with output shorted is given by the ratio

a) v1 / i1 b) v1 / v2 c) i2 / i1 d) i2 / v2

The main use of a emitter follower is as

a) power amplifier b) impedance matching device

c) low input impedance circuit d) follower of base signal

What will happen if the back e.m.f of a DC motor vanishes suddenly?

a) the motor will stop b) the motor will continue to run

c) the armature will burn d) the motor will run noisy

Synchronous motor develops maximum power when load angle is

a) 45o b) 60 o c) 90 o d) 120 o

≅ ≅ ≅ ≅

81.

82.

83.

84.

85.

86.

87.

If air gap of an induction motor is increased, its

a) power factor will increase b) magnetising current will decrease

c) magnetising current will increase d) power factor will decrease

If stator voltage of a squirrel cage induction motor is reduced to one-half of its normal value, its starting current is reduced to ------------- percent of its full voltage value.

a) 75 b) 60 c) 50 d) 15

In an induction motor, the rotor reactance per phase is proportional to

a) s b) 1/s c) 1/s2 d) s2

In a dc machine, the interpole winding is connected

a) in series with the field winding

b) in parallel with the field winding

c) in series with the armature winding

d) in parallel with the armature winding

A 3-phase, 6 pole induction motor has 54 stator slots and 48 rotor slots. The motor will have a tendency of

a) cogging b) crawling c) noisy operation

d) developing cusps in torque-speed characteristics.

The test(s) needed to be performed to determine the leakage reactance of a transformer are

a) OC b) SC c) OC and SCd) Test by an impedance bridge

A brake test on DC motors is usually restricted to

a) small horse power motors b) variable speed motor

c) high speed motors d) open frame type motor

Hunting in a synchronous motor can not be due to

a) variable supply voltage b) variable frequency

c) variable load d) windage friction

The auto – starters can be used to start cage induction motor of the following type

a) star connected only b) delta connected only

c) both a) & b) d) none of the above

The power drawn by the primary winding of a transformer on no-load is predominantly absorbed by

a) copper loss b) core loss

c) copper loss + core loss d) eddy current

The transfer function of a first order LPF is

a) b)

c) d)

If both inputs of an op amp are at the same potential V, the output should be

a) +V b) –V c) depends on factor Av d) zero

Storage time in transistors occurs when it is operating in

a) active region b) cut-off region

c) saturation region d) active or saturation region

88.

89.

90.

91.

21

)()( 22

22

2

92.

93.

whS

AoWh

S

YAoY

whS

WoSAo

whWosS

AoWh

+

++

++α

94.

95.

96.

97.

98.

99.

100.

K – map method of simplification can only be applied when the given function is in

a) sum of product form b) product of sum form

c) canonical form d) can be applied to all form

The advantage of self – correcting code is that

a) it is a weighted code b) it has even parity

c) it is easy to decode electronically d) all of these

If is a BJT, IB = 100 A & IC =10 A, in what range does the value of its lie?

a) 0.1 to 1.0 b) 1.01 to 10 c) 10.1 to 100 d) 100.1 to 1000

The leakage current of a PN diode is caused by

a) heat energy b) chemical energy

c) barrier potential d) majority carriers

The advantage of using negative FB in an amplifier is that its gain can be made practically independent of

a) temperature changes b) age of components

c) frequency d) all of the above

The h parameters of a transistor depend on it

a) configuration b) operating point

c) temp d) all of the above

In a properly connected BJT, an increase in base current causes increase in

a) Ic only b) IE only c) both Ic & IE d) leakage circuit

µ µ β

Electronics (Section code 04)

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

Maximum directional derivative of a scalar point function is a) b) c) Zero d) none of these

The value of curl (grad ) is (d) b) c) Zero d) one


(d) b) c) d)

Saddle point of the function is(d) (a,a) b) c) (a,0) d) (1,1)


(d) b) c) d)


(d) (0,0) b) (0,1) c) (1,0) d) Nowhere analytic

Order of convergence in Newton-Raphson method is(d) One b) Two c) Three d) Four



a) 2 b) 3 c) 1 d) zero


a) 11 b) 12 c) 13 d) 14

1

32

332

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

R

RRRA

RR=

Ω Ω Ω Ω

The nodal analysis is primarily based on the application of a) KVL b) KCL

c) Ohm’s law d) both b) and c) are correct

Thevenin resistance of the circuit shown below across its terminals A and B is _______ ohm

a) 6 b) 3 c) 9 d) 2

The P.F. of an R-C circuit is

a) zero b) between zero and 1.0

c) 1.0 d) between zero and – 1.0.

For star-to-delta transformation which of the following statement is true?

a) b) RA = R1 + R2 + R1 c) RA = RB = RC d) None of these

The current following through the load RL in the circuit given below is.

a) 0.2 A. b) 0.25 A c) 0.5 A d) 1.0 A

The current flowing in the circuit shown below is i(t) = 2 sin 500 t A. The

applied voltage will be

a) 20 sin 500 t V. b) 20 cos 500 tV

c) 28.28 sin (500 t + 45o)V d) 30.5 cos (500 t + 30 o)V

An LC-driving point impedance function is

a) b) c) d)

The Fourier series for the following waveform is given by

a) f (? t) = 4A/p2 sin ? t – 1/9 sin 3? t + ……b) f (? t) = 8A/p2 sin ? t – 1/9 sin 3? t + ……c) f (? t) = 4A/p2 sin 2? t – 1/9 sin 4?t + ……d) f (? t) = 4A/p2 1/3 sin 3? t – 1/9 sin 9? t + …

What is the driving-point impedance at port one with port two open circuited for the figure shown?

a) 4 b) 5 c) 3 d) 6

Maxwell’s divergence equation for the magnetic field is given by

17.

18.

19.

20.

512

2

24

521

2

23

21

3

4 12 2

Ω Ω Ω Ω

++++

+++++

++ ( )+

ssss

sssss

ss

ss

a) x B = 0 b) c) d)

If the vectors and are conservative then

a) is solenoidal b) is conservative

c) is solenoidal d) is

solendoidal

A straight current-carrying conductor and two

conducting loops A and B are shown in the

given figure. If the current in the straight wire is

decreasing, then the induced currents in the two loops A and B will be

a) clockwise in both A and B

b) anticlockwise in both A and B

c) anticlockwise in B and clockwise in B

d) clockwise in A and Anticlockwise in B.

A wire of length L m carrying I ampere is bent in the form of a circle. Its

magnetic moment will be

a) /4p b) /4 p c) /4p d) 2/4p

A coil carrying electric current is placed in uniform magnetic field then

a) torque is formed b) emf is induced

c) Both a) and b) are correct d) None of these

Lenz’s law is a consequence of the law of conservation of

a) charge b) mass c) momentum d) energy

For any medium, electric flux density D is related to electric intensity E by the

equation

a) D = e0E b) D = e0 er E c) D = E/ e0 er d) D = e0

E/ er

The space surrounding a charge body, within which the influence of its

charge extends is called

a) coulombs b) electric field c) electric intensity d) lines of force.

∇ =∇ ρ=∇ ρ=∇

→ →

→→ →→

→→

+→→

−

0. ..

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

B XB B

A B

BAx BAx

BA BA

IL IL2 I2L2 LI

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

)cos1(2 1 )cos1(

21

)1(cos 1 )1(cos2 1

The force of attraction or repulsion between two charges q1 and q2 at a

distance d metres apart is proportional to the product of charges q1 and q2

and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between the two

charges.” This statement is attributed to

a) Lenz’s Law b) Faraday’s Law c) Maxwell’s Law d)

Coulomb’s Law

Semiconductor materials have ……….. bonds.

a) ionic b) convalent c) mutual d) metallic

Avalanche breakdown is primarily dependent on the phenomenon of

a) collision b) doping c) ionization d)

recombination.

As compared to a LED, and LCD has the distinct advantage of

a) extremely low power requirement b) providing a silver displays

c) being extremely thin c) giving two types of

displays.

The value of total collector current in a CB circuit is

a) b) c) d)

A unjunction transistor has

a) anode, cathode and a gate b) two bases and one emitter

c) two anodes and one gate d) anode, cathode and two gates.

The major component of a MOS IC is a/an

a) FET b) MOSFET c) BJT d) SCR

For a half-wave controlled rectifier, the average value of output dc voltage is

given by

a) b)

c) d)

IC = aIE Ic = a IE + ICO IC = a IE - ICO IC = ß IE

θπ

−= θπ

+=

−= θπ

+= θπ

VmVdc

VmVdc

VmVdc

VmVdc

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

41.

42.

43.

44.

The PIV of a half-wave rectifier circuit with a shunt capacitor filter is

a) 2 V b) V c) V /2 d) 2 V

CE amplifier is characteristed by

a) low voltage gain b) moderate power gain

c) signal phase reversal d) very high output impedance.

An electronic oscillator is

a) just like an alternator b) nothing but an amplifier

c) an amplifier with feedback d) a converter of dc to ac energy.

If Barkhausen criterion is not fulfilled by an oscillator circuit, it will

a) stop oscillating b) produce damped wave continuously

c) become an amplifier d) produce high-frequency whistles.

In a astable multi vibrator

a) ß = 1 b) ßA = 1 c) ß > 1 d) ß < 1

A practical current source consists of

a) an ideal current source in series with an impedance

b) an ideal current source in parallel with an impedance

c) Both a) and b) are correct

d) None of these.

The transient response occurs only in

a) resistive circuits b) inductive circuits

c) capacitive circuits d) Both b) and c) are correct

The electron and hole concentration in an N-type semiconductor is 1016/cm2

and 1016/cm2. If the mobilities of electrons and holes are 400 and 600 cm2/C-sec respectively, the conductivity of the material approximately is a) 1032 x e b) 1019 x e c) 4 x 1018 x e d) None of these

Three identical tuned amplifiers, each of bandwidth 100 kHz, are connected in

cascade. Neglecting any loading effect, the overall bandwidth will be about

a) 51 kHz b) 71 kHz c) 100 kHz d) 173 kHz

sm sm sm sm

45.

46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

Electronics is the branch of engineering which deals with flow of electrons

through

a) Semiconductor b) gas c) vaccum d) All of these.

The circuit shown in the figure below represents a feedback amplifier. For this

circuit, the current and voltage gains would respectively be

a) hfe, hfe RL/hie b) RF/RL, hfe RL/hie

c) hfe , RL/RF d) RF/RL, RL/RF

The chief reason why digital computers use complemental subtraction is that

it

a) simplifies their circuitry b) is a very simple process

c) can handle negative numbers easily d) avoids direct subtraction.

When we deorganize , we get

a) b) c) d)

When an input electrical signal A = 10100 is applied to a NOT gate, its output

signal is

a) 01011 b) 10101 c) 10100 d) 00101

In the following figures below, F represents

a) NAND of x, y b) NOR of x, y

AB

AB BABA BA BA+ +

c) Half-adder sum of x, y d) Half-adder carry of x, y

Which of the following logic families has the maximum functional capacity?

a) SSI b) MSI c) LSI d) VLSI

The ASCII

a) is a subset of 8-bit EBCDICb) is used only in Western counties c) is version II of the ASC standardd) has 128 characters, including 32 control characters.

Which of the following represent Commutative law, Associative law, and

Distributive law?

I A. (B. C) = (A. B). C II A. (B+C) = A.B + A.C II

A+B = B+A

a) I, III, and II, respectively b) II, I, and III, respectively

c) III, II and I, respectively d) III, I, and II, respectively.

What is the form of the Boolean expression AB+BC= Y?

a) Product-of-sums. b) Sum-of-products.c) Karanaugh map. D) Matrix.

The number of flip-flops required in a module N counter is

a) log2 (N) + 1 b) [log2 (N + 1)] c) [log2 (N)] d)

log2 (N – 1).

Mnemonic symbols are used to

a) denote address b) employ hamming code

c) denote errors d) assist human memory

In 8085, interrupts except TRAP are disabled (check the incorrect statement)

by

a) a DI instruction b) a system reset

c) acknowledgement of a previous in terrupt d) None of these

A microcomputer is a minimum combination of

a) µ P and clock. b) µ P clock, ROMs.

51.

52.

53.

54.

55.

56.

57.

58.

c) µ P, clock, RAMs and ROMs. d) µ P, clock, RAM, ROM, PIA

and ACIA

The physical part or electronic circuitry of a computer system is called

a) hardware b) software c) microprocessor d) peripheral

device

IC 8253 programmable interval timers are programmed with

a) Binary data only b) BCD data only

c) Binary and BCD data both d) None of these.

Block or buffer caches are used to

a) improve disk performance b) handle interrupts c) increase the capacity of main memoryd) speed up main memory read operation.

The 8085 A instruction that takes maximum number of machine cycles for

execution is

a) STA Addr b) MVI, data c) OUT Port d) CALL Addr.

Which of the following system is digital?

a) PPM b) PFM c) PWM d) PCM

Which of the following flag conditions are not available in 8085 processor?

a) Zero flag b) Parity flagc) Overflow flag d) Auxiliary carry flag.

MOSFET uses the electric field of

a) gate capacitance to control the channel current

b) barrier potential of p-n junction to control the channel current

c) both A and B

d) None of these

A 555 timer can be used as

a) an astable multivibrator only

b) a monostable multivibrator only

c) a frequency divider only

d) an astable multivibrator or a monostable multivibrator or a frequency

divider

59.

60.

61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

66.

67.

68.

69.

70.

71.

72.

Which of the following statements is not true for an ideal current-to-voltage

transducer?

a) Zero input impedance b) Infinite input impedance.c) Zero output impedance.d) A fixed relation between input current and output voltage

The overall voltage gain of the amplifier shown below is

a) 50 b) 100 c) 1,000 d) 10,000.

In an oscillator, the feedback signal is

a) in phase with the input signal. b) in phase with the output signal

c) out of phase with input signal. d) out of phase with the output

signal

The number of diodes required in a bridge rectifier circuit is

a) one b) two c) three d) four

The circuit shown below is an/a

a) integrator b) low- pass filter

c) high-pass filter d) band-pass filter

The function of bleeder resistance in filter circuits is

a) to maintain minimum current necessary for optimum inductor filter

operation.

b) to work as voltage divider in order to provide variable output from the

supply.

c) To provide discharge path to capacitors so that output becomes zero when

the circuit has been denergised

d) All of these.

The major advantage of a bridge rectifier is that

a) no centre-tap transformer is required.

b) the required peak inverse voltage of each diode is double of that for a full-

wave rectifier.

c) peak inverse voltage of each diode is half of that for a full-wave rectifier

d) the output is more smooth.

which one of the following is the correct Fourier transform of the unit step

signal

u(t) = 1 for t > 0

= 0 for t < 0

a) p (?) b) 1 / j? c) 1/j ? + p (?) d) 1/? + 2p (? )

Let F (?) b e the Fourier transform of a function f(t), then F(0) is

a) b) c) d)

The auto correlation of a wide-sense stationary random process is given by e-

2| | . The peak value of the spectral density is

a) 2 b) 1 c) e-1/2 d) e

Laplace transform of sin (? t +a) is

a) b)

73.

74.

75.

)(2

)(2

)(

)(

76.

77.

exp22

exp22

exp22

exp22

δ δ δ

∫∞

∞−∫∞

∞−∫∞

∞−

∫∞

∞−

τ

+ αωα

+ αωω

ω

+ αωα

+ αωω

dttf dttf dtttf

dtttf

s

as

s

s

s

as

s

as

c) d)

The function f(t) shown in the given figure will have Lab place transform as a)

b)

c)

d)

Inverse Laplace transform of the function

a) 2 exp (-2.5t) cosh 0.5 t b) exp (- 2t) – exp (-3t)

c) 2 exp (-2.5t) sinh 0.5 t d) 2 exp (-2.5 t) cos 0.5 t

Consider the following statements regarding a linear discrete-time system

1. The system is stable.

2. The initial value h(0) of the impulse response is -4.

3. The steady-state output is zero for a sinusoidal discrete-time input of

frequency equal to one-fourth the sampling frequency.

Which of these statements are correct?

a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 1 and 2 c) 1 and 3 d) 2 and 3

78.

79.

80.

222

111

)1(1 2

2

)1(1 2

)1(1 2

2

65

522

)5.0)(5.0(

1)(

2

ss es

ess

ss eses

ss eses

ss sees

ss

s

zz

zzH

−− −−

−− −−−

−− −−−

−− −−

++

+

−+

+=

81.

82.

2 22

1

2

1

83.

)0()(

0

1

)(

1

021 )()(

1||0

1||)(

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given

below the Lists:

a) 1. Exponential form of Fourier series

b) 2. Fourier transform

c) 3. Convolution integral

d) 4. z – transform

5. Odd function wave symmetry

Codes: A B C D

a) 5 1 2 3

b 2 1 5 3

c) 5 4 2 1

d) 4 5 1 2

A Voltage signal v (t) has the following Fourier transform:

The energy that would be dissipated in a 1 resistor fed from v(t) is

a) Joules b) Joules

c) Joules d) Joules

Consider the compound system shown in the above figure. Its output is equal to input with a delay of two units. If the transfer function of the first system is given

List I List II

Ω

π π

−

π π

−−=

∑∞

−∞=

ω

∫∞−

−

∫ − τττ

>

<=

−

ω

ωω

ω

de

tftf

n

tmneC

dtetf jwt

dtff

for

forejV

dj

by H1(z) = , then the transfer function of the second system would be

a) H2(z) = b) H2(z) =

c) H2(z) = d) H2(z) =

Two identical first-order systems have been cascaded non-interactively. The

unit step response of the systems will be.

a) overdamped b) underdamped

c) undamped d) critically damped

Which one of the following is the response y(t) of a causal LTI system

described by

H(s) = for a given input x(t) = e -t u(t)?

a) y(t) = e-t sintu(t) b) y(t) = e-(t – 1) sin (t -1) u (t – 1)

c) y(t) = sin (t – 1) u (t – 1) d) y(t) = e-t cost u(t)

The poles of a digital filter with linear phase response can lie

a) only at z = 0 b) only on the unit circle

c) only inside the unit circle but not at z = 0 d) on the left side of Real (z)

=0 line

Demodulation

a) is performed at the transmitting station b) removes side-bands

c) rectifies modulated signal d) is opposite of modulation.

Modern FM receivers use de-emphasis circuit for

a) reducing high frequency noise

b) reducing the amplitude of high frequencies in the audio signal

c) increasing the amplitude of higher modulating frequencies

d) making demodulation easy.

A telephone system is

a) Point-to-multipoint system b) Local area network

8.0

5.0

1

32

4.012.0

1

32

5.018.0

1

31

4.01

2.01

32

5.01

8.0

84.

85.

22

)1(2

86.

87.

88.

89.

−

−

−

−−

−−

−

−−

−−

−

−−

−

−−

−−

+

−

++

+

z

z

z

zz

z

zz

z

zz

z

zz

ss

s

c) Switched system d) Point-to-point system.

Signal-to-quantization noise ratio in A-law companding for voice PCM

a) remains essentially unchanged irrespective of talkers

b) changes with talkers arbitrarily

c) increases linearly with the voice level of the talker

d) cannot be determined.

which one is not a potential application of fiber optics?

a) Sensor b) Power transmission.

c) Image transmission d) Signal transmission

Most audio communication utilizes frequencies in the range

a) 100 Hz – 1 kHz b) 100 Hz – 3 kHz

c) 100 Hz – 30 kHz d) None of these.

For periodic time function, the frequency spectrum is

a) periodic b) continuous c) discrete d) None

of these.

The advantage of waveguides over coaxial line is that

a) these are simpler to manufacture b) power losses are lower

c) higher operating frequencies are possible d) All of these.

Strip-line is analogous to

a) flattened co-axial line b) parallel-wire line

c) wave guide d) None of these.

The VSB signal is produced from the DSB signal by employing

a) simpler filters b) balance modulator

c) ring modulator d) phase-shift circuit

The SSB demodulator is known as

a) balance modulation b) product demodulation

90.

91.

92.

93.

94.

95.

96.

97.

c) amplitude discrimination d) None of these.

The highest harmonic generated in human voice is

a) 1 kHz b) 3 KHz c) 5 KHz d) 10 KHz

For transmission of normal speech signal, the PCM channel needs a

bandwidth of

a) 64 kHz b) 8 kHz c) 4 kHz d) None

of these.

The height of the transmitting antenna is 225 m above ground level. Its radio

horizon will be

a) 60 km b) 76 km c) 120 km d) 225 km.

98.

99.

100.

Instrumentation (Section code 05)

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.



The value of curl (grad ) is (e) b) c) Zero d) one


(e) b) c) d)

Saddle point of the function is(e) (a,a) b) c) (a,0) d) (1,1)


(e) b) c) d)


(e) (0,0) b) (0,1) c) (1,0) d) Nowhere analytic

Order of convergence in Newton-Raphson method is(e) One b) Two c) Three d) Four



a) 2 b) 3 c) 1 d) zero


a) 11 b) 12 c) 13 d) 14

The chemical reaction involved in epitaxial growth takes place at a temperature of about

a)500° C b)1000° C c) 1200° C d) 1500° C

In a CE amplifier, thermal runaway is unconditionally avoided if

a)VCE = VCC /2 b)VCE < VCC /2 c) VCE > VCC /2 d) VCE = 0

Transistor amplifier configuration which simultaneously provides high current gain and high voltage gain is

a)CB configuration b)CE configuration c)CCconfiguration b)All of the above

The diffusion current is proportional to

a)applied electric field

b)concentration gradient of charge carrier

c) square of the applied electric field

d)None of the above

The dynamic resistance ‘r’ of a diode varies as

a) 1/I b)1/ I2 c) I d) I2

The concentration of minority carrier at JC in the base region of a PNP transistor operating in the active region is

a)zero b) same as at JC c) same as at JE d)same as at JB

The epitaxial growth may be of

a) n type only b) p type only c) either type d) none of the above

LED uses

a)radiative combination b)formation of photons

c)energy transfer from one electron to another d)formation of electrons

In Tunnel diode, the width of the depletion layer is of the order of

a)100 A° b) 0.1 micron c)1 micron d) 2 micron

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

In operational amplifiers, high input impedance _______a. Reduces loop gain b. Increases phase shift c. Results in internal oscillations d. None

In an ideal op – amp, __________a. Voltage gain is infinity b. Bandwidth is infinity

c. Output impedance is equal to zero d. All of the above

Closed loop gain of a non inverting amplifier is ______a. 1+ (Rf/R1) b. – (Rf/R1)c. 1 d. none

Closed loop gain of an inverting amplifier is ______a. – (Rf/R1). b. 1+ (Rf/R1) c. 0 d.1

Common mode rejection ratio can be defined as ________

a. Mod(Ac/Ad) b. Mod(Ad /Ac)c.1 d.none

A triangular wave can be generated by integrating a ________a. Sine wave b. Square wave c. Cosine wave d. None

A first order low pass filter has roll off rate of ________a. - 20dB decade b. – 40 dB decade c. - 60 dB decade d. None

Duty cycle D is defined asa.(on time / total time period) b. (off time / total time period) c.1 d.none

The 556 time is a ________a. 14 pin DIP b. 16 pin DIP c. 8 pin DIP d. None

Wien bridge uses ___________________ feedback

a) Negative b) Positive c) Both negative & positive d) None of the above

Which of the following is basically a square wave generator?

a) Colpitt oscillator b) Hartley oscillator

c) Astable Multivibrator d) None of the above.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

38.

Schmitt trigger is also known as ________________________

a) Squaring circuit b) Sinusoidal circuit

c) Blocking oscillator d) Sweep circuit.

The gain of an ideal oscillator is ______________________

a) Unity b) Zero c)Infinity d) Slightly more than unity.

IGFET is a_______________________ device.

a) Linear b) Logarithmic c) Half power d) Square law

Thermal run away occurs in ______________________

a) BJT b) JFET c) MOSFET d) all the above

A Triac is a_______________________ switch

a) Unidirectional b) Bi-directional c) either of the above d) all the above

A clamping circuit is known as _____________________

a) AC restoration circuit b) DC suppression circuit

c) DC restoration circuit d) AC bypass circuit

A JFET can operate in _________________________________

a) Depletion mode b) Enhancement mode

c) Depletion & Enhancement modes d) Neither depletion nor enhancement mode

The operation of a Pirani gauge is based on

a) ionization of gas at low pressure

b) variation of volume with pressure

c) variation of viscosity with pressure

d) variation of thermal conductivity of gas with pressure

Piezoelectric crystal is an example for __________transducer

a) active b)primary c) digital d)passive

The value which occurs most frequently in a set of observation is known as

a) median b)mode c)mean d) variance

A thermocouple used for temperature measurement is a

a) first order transducerb) second order transducerc) zero order transducerd) third order transducer

A potentiometer transducer with a stroke length of 5cm has a total resistance of 10KO. The voltage across the potentiometer is 7.5V. when the wiper is 2 cm from one end, what is the output of the potentiometer from that end?

a) 3 volts b) 4 volts c) 1 volt d) 5 volts

The development of a transverse electric potential gradient in a current carrying conductor, upon the application of a magnetic field at right angles to the direction of current is known as

a)Piezoelectric effect b)Hall effect c) Elastic effect d)Magnetostrictive effect

The degree of closeness with which a given value may be repeatedly measured is known as

a)precision b)accuracy c) resolution d)hysteresis

Bellow’s expansion is usually against a spring. The spring is provided to

a) increase sensitivityb) increase operating rangec) increase linearityd) decrease hysteresis effect

39.

40.

41.

42.

43.

44.

45.

46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

51.

52.

53.

The output of a LVDT with input mechanical motion of 10Hz and excitation frequency 400Hz will contain frequencies

a) 10Hz and 400Hz b)400 Hz only c)10 Hz only d)390 Hz and 410 Hz

Which technology is used in third generation microprocessor?

a)HMOS b)PMAS c)NMAS d)HCMAS

In which microprocessor Virtual memory concept was introduced first?

a)8086 b)80186 c)80286 d)Pentium 4

Intel 8257 is a

a)USART b)DMA c)PIC d)CRT

After executing the following program what will be the content of accumulator

MVI A,59

PUSH PSW

OUT 25

XRA A

POP H

a)59 b)25 c)00 d)FF

Watch dog timer is introduced in which micro controller?

a)8031 b)8051 c)8053 d)8096

How many register banks are in 8051 micro controller?

a)8 b)2 c)16 d)4

After the execution of POP instruction the Stack Pointer(SP) value will be

a)SP+2 b)SP-2 c)SP+1d)SP-1

What are the registers are affected when executing RET Instruction?

a)A&B b)PSW&H c)HL&A d)PC&SP

How many T states are required to execute one CALL instruction?

a)10 b)12 c)16 d)18

A parallel network consists of three resistors of 4 ?, 8 ? , and 32?. If the current in the 8? resistor is 2A, what are the currents in the other resistors?

a. 4A & 0.5A b. 3A & 2.5A c. 5A & 3.5A d. 8A & 3A

Determine the equivalent resistance between A&B

a. 3.5? b. 9? c. 3? d. 0.33?

A coil when connected to 200 V, 50 Hz supply takes a current of 10A and dissipates 1200W. Find the resistance and inductance of the coil

a. 5? & 23.55mH b. 9? & 42mH c. 2? & 32mH d. 12? & 50.93mH

A coil of relay has a resistance of 10 ? and an inductive reactance of 500?. The supply Voltage is 230 V, 50 Hz. What is the energy lost in the coil in 8 hrs?

54.

55.

56.

57.

58.

59.

a. 5.44 Wh b. 9.2Wh c. 16.9Wh d. 33Wh

A coil having a resistance of 6? and an inductance of 0.03H is connected across a 100V, 50 Hz supply, Calculate the current

a. 8.95A b. 9A c. 3.5A d. 3A

When the series AC circuit is at resonance,

a. XL – 2Xc = 0 b. XL – Xc = 0 c. 2XL – Xc = 0 d. XL = 3Xc

Coefficient of coupling between two magnetically coupled coils is given by

a. K=M/vL1L2 b. K=M/2vL1L2 c. K=1/MvL1L2 d.K=2M/vL1L2

A 20µF capacitor is charged at a constant current of 5µA for 10 mins. Calculate the final potential difference across the capacitor.

a. 120V b. 100V c. 150 V d. 80V

Three capacitors have capacitances of 10µF, 15µF & 20µF respectively. Calculate the total capacitance when they are connected in parallel.

a. 10µF b. 50µF c. 25µF d. 45µF

Selsyn is the trade name of ____a. Rotating Transducer b. Rotating Transformer c. Spinning Top d. Synchros

In higher order systems, the dominant poles are located _________a. Close to origin b. Away from origin c. At origin d. None

The value of damping for an under damped system is ________a. ? = 0 b. ? = 1 c. ? = 3 d. ? = 0.5

________ _ cannot behave as final control element a. control valve b. potentiometer c. stepper motor d. electro pneumatic converter

Servo mechanics usually consists of ________

60.

61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

66.

67.

68.

69.

a. mechanical output b. error signal c. power amplifier d. all

Which of the following is an error detector ?a. control valve b. stepper motor c. LVDT d. relay

The analogous element of Mass ’M’ in case of rotational system is _______a. Moment of inertia b. Dashpot c. Spring d. None

A gyroscope that uses derivative feedback is __________a. Free gyro b. Rate gyro c. Integrate gyro d. None

The type of servomotor best suited for low power application is ________a. AC servomotor b. DC servomotor c. Both d. none

Systole is defined

a)as the period of contraction of the heart musclesb)as the period of dilation of the heart cavities as they fill with bloodc)both a&b d)none

The recorded representation of bioelectric potentials generated by the

neuronal activity of the brain is called

a)electroencephalogram b)electrocardiogramc)electromyogram d)elctroretinagram

The recorded representation of bioelectric potentials generated by the muscles

of the heart is called


The recorded representation of bioelectric potentials associated with muscle

activity constitute


Spirometer is for the measurement of

a)Blood pressure b)blood flow c)respiratory measurement d)temperature measurement

The natural pacemaker in the cardiovascular system is

70.

71.

72.

73.

74.

75.

76.

77.

78.

79.

a)Bundle of his b)sinoatrial node c)atrioventricle ring d)tricuspid

valve

Oxygen tension “is

a)partial pressure of oxygen ,po2 b)partial pressure of oxygen,co2

c)both d)none

The rate at which an action potential moves down a fiber is called

a)conduction rate b)polarization rate c)depolarization rate

d)repolarization rate

The bandwidth of an electroencephalogram (EEG) amplifier is

a) dc to 0.01 Hz b) 1 to 60 Hz c) 60 to 150 Hz d) 2000 to 10000 Hz

A differential output high impedance signal source is connected to an instrumentation amplifier through two shielded cables. The best way to obtain a high CMMR is to connect the cable shields to

a)output of the instrumentation amplifier

b)mean of the two first stage outputs in the instrumentation amplifier

c)common signal ground

d)power supply ground

The type of A/D converter normally used in a 3 ½ digit multimeter is

a)dual-slope integrating type

b)voltage-to-frequency converter type

c)flash(or parallel) type

d)successive approximation type

An amplitude modulated signal can be observed on a CRO by applying the following waveform to the “external trigger” input:

80.

81.

82.

83.

84.

85.

a)the modulated waveform itself

b)derivative of the modulated waveform

c)the modulating waveform

d)the carrier waveform

A piezoelectric transducer is directly connected through a cable to an electronic voltmeter. The minimum operating frequency of measurement is 1000Hz. If the connecting length is doubled, the new minimum operating frequency is

a)500Hz b)1000Hz c)2000Hz d)4000Hz

An 8 bit ADC outputs all 1’s when Vin =1.275 volts. The quantization error is

a)+5mV b)-5mV c)10mV d)±2.5mV

Kelvin double is best suited for the measurement of

a)Resistances of very low value

b)Low value capacitance

c)Resistance of very high values

d)High value capacitance

A seismic type of transducer has a damping constant of 10. The transducer is designed to measure

a)acceleration b)velocity

c)displacement d)force

Majority of digital voltmeters are built with a Dual-slope ADC because

a)Dual slope ADCs are less complex than other type of ADCs

b) Dual slope ADCs are faster than other type of ADCs

c)Dual slope ADCs can be designed to be insensitive to noise and interference

d)Dual slope ADCs provide BCD outputs

86.

87.

88.

89.

90.

91.

92.

93.

94.

95.

96.

97.

98.

Wien bridge is best suited for the measurement of

a) Frequency b)Capacitance c) Inductance d)Resistance

The range of error to cover 0 to 100% of controller output is known asa)Differential gap b)Reset windup c)Proportional band d)Offset

Floating control mode is

a)Continuous mode b)Discontinuous mode c)Composite mode d)Complex mode

The phenomenon of reset windup may occur if the control algorithm contains

a)P mode b)I mode c)D mode d)PD mode

A PI controller is used for control of certain process. If the settings are as follows kp= 2%, p(0)=40%, ki=2% min,Ep=error signal= 4t+6 where t=time, then the controller output in percentage after 2 minutes is

a)50% b)60% c)68.8% d)72.4%

An integral controller is used for speed control with a set point of 12 rpm within a range of 10-15 rpm. The controller output is 22% initially. The constant Ki=-0.15% controller output per second per percentage error. The controller output after 2 seconds for a constant ep is

a)15% b)20% c)31% d)42%

An equal percentage valve has a maximum flow of 50m3/s and a minimum flow of 2 m3/s. If the full travel is 3cm,the flow at 1 cm opening is

a)5.85 m3/s b)3.53 m3/s c)2.43 m3/s d)6.32 m3/s

The proper Cv for a valve that must pump 150 gallons of ethyl alcohol per minute with a specific gravity of 0.8 at maximum pressure of 50 psi is

a)20.23 b)24.15 c)18.97 d)22.35

99.

100.

A pressure difference of 1.1 psi occurs across a constriction in a 5-cm diameter pipe. The constriction constant is 0.0009 m3/s per Kpa. The flow rate in m3/s is

a)0.5 b)0.025 c)0.075 d)0.045

The sampled data control system whose open loop pulse transfer function is given by A(z)= z/(2.45z+1)(2.45z-1) is

a)Stable b)Unstable c)Marginally stable d)None of the above

Computer Science (Section code 06)

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.



The value of curl (grad ) is (f) b) c) Zero d) one


(f) b) c) d)

Saddle point of the function isb. (a,a) b) c) (a,0) d) (1,1)


(f) b) c) d)


(f) (0,0) b) (0,1) c) (1,0) d) Nowhere analytic

Order of convergence in Newton-Raphson method is(f) One b) Two c) Three d) Four



a) 2 b) 3 c) 1 d) zero


a) 11 b) 12 c) 13 d) 14

11.

n(n 1)

2

nn 2 2

2

12.

1

16

1

8

7

8

15

16

13.

14.

15.

1

7

2

7

3

7

16.2 1

4 5

17.

b

a

f x dxb

a

xf x dx

18.

The minimum number of colours required to colour the vertices of a cycle with n nodes in such a way that no two adjacent nodes have the same colour is

a) 2n2 b) n2 c) d)

Four fair coins are tossed simultaneously. The probability that at least one head and one tail turn up is

a) b) c) d)

Let x be an integer which can take a value of 0 or 1. The statement if(x = = 0) x=1; else x=0; is equivalent to which one of the following?a) x = 1 + x; b) x = 1-x; c) x = x -1; d) x = 1%x;

What is the maximum number of edges in an acyclic undirected graph with n vertices?a) n-1 b) n c) n+1 d) 2n-1

What is the probability that a leap year selected at random will contain 53 Sundays?

a) b) c) d) None

What are the eigen values of the following 2 x 2 matrix?

a) -1 and 1 b) 1 and 6 c) 2 and 5 d) 4 and -1

Let f(x) be the continuous probability density function of a random variable X. The probability that a<X = b, is :

a) f(b-a) b) fb)-fa) c) d)

The binary relation S = (empty set) on set A = 1,2,3 isa) Neither reflexive nor symmetric b) Symmetric and reflexive

− − +

− −

( )∫ ( )∫

φ

c) Transitive and reflexive d) Transitive and symmetric

Which gate can be used to compare two bits?a) AND b) OR c) EX-OR d) NAND

a) B b) c) C d) none

Dual of the statement (A+1) = 1 isa) A.1 = A b) A.0 = 0 c) A+A =A d) A.A =A

A PLA containsa) AND and OR gates b) A micro controller

c) An array of diodes d) A PLL

In a combinational circuit the outputs at any instant depend a) only on past input b) only on past output

c) past as well present inputs d) only on the inputs present at that instant

Which of the following statement is/are true?S1: In combinational circuits we require a memory unit to store past outputs

S2: Parallel adder is a combinational circuit

a) S1 is true b) S2 is true c) S1, S2 are true d) none

Every Flip flop is defined bya) characteristic expression b) excitation table

c) both d) none

Race around condition exist in JK flip flop ifa) J=0 k =1 b) J=1 k =0 c) J=0 k =0 d) J=1 k =1

19.

20. A 'B 'C ' A 'BC ' ABC ' AB 'C 'C '

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

+ + + =

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

The storage place that holds data and instruction temporarily within CPU is calleda) Accumulator b) Bus c) Register d) None

In implementing interrupts, actions that are done by the hardware include a) saving all the register onto the stackb) saving the interrupt vector into a special registerc) fetching the address of the interrupt handlerd) Both a) and c)

RST 7.5 interrupt in 8085 microprocessor executes service routing form interrupt vector locationa) 0000H b) 0075H c) 003CH d) 0034H

A multiplexor with a 4 bit data select input is aa) 4:1 mutliplexor b) 2:1 multiplexor

c) 16:1 multiplexor d) 8:1 multiplexor

The number 43 in 2’s complement representation isa) (010101)2 b) (110101)2 c) (001010)2 d) (101010)2

When an odd number is converted into binary number, the LSB isa) 0 b) 1 c) 0 or 1 d) None

Which of the following is an unweighted code?a) 8421 code b) 5211 code c) Excess 3 code d) 2421 code

In what representation does the 4-bit number 1001 represent -6?a) unsigned b) signed magnitude

c) one’s complement d) two’s complement

PSW(Program Status Word) contains status of a) ALU(Arithmetic Logic Unit) b) Control unit

c) CPU(Central Prcessing Unit) d) All

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

41.

42. A A |

43.

Hardwired control provides _________________ execution of machine instructions over microprogrammed controla) faster b) on expensively

c) parallely d) concurrently

The number of memory references required by a CPU to execute immediate address instruction isa) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3

Number of address locations that can be identified by 12 address line isa) 64 b) 1024 c) 2048 d) 4096

A cache memory needs an access time of 20ns and main memory 120ns, what is the average access time of CPU(assume hit ratio 80%)?a) 30ns b) 44ns c) 35ns d) 45ns

RAID configuration of disks are used to provide a) fault tolerane b) high speed c) high data density d) none

Advantages of DMA over software transfers area) lack of software overhead from loop-control instructions.b) that it leaves the bus free for the CPU to access main memory.c) that it combines multiple interrupts into one.d) both a) and c)

Consider the grammar . Which of the following is true?a) The grammar is LL(1) b) The grammar is not LL(1)

c) The grammar is left recursive d) Both a) and c)

Suppose value of A depends upon evaluation of B and C. Which of the following evaluation order is the best for above requirement?a) Topological sort b) Quick sort

c) Bubble sort d) None of these

→ α β

44.S aSbS

| bSaS

|

45.

46.

47.

48.

49.

ji

k

50.

Consider the grammar

Which of the following is true?

a) The grammar is ambiguous and string abab will have 2 parse treesb) The grammar is ambiguous and abab will have 3 parse treesc) The grammar is not ambiguousd) None of the above

The principle of locality justifies the use of a) interrupts b) DMA c) polling d)cache

memory

In a virtual memory system the address space specified by the address lines of the CPU must be __________ than the physical memory size and ___________ than the secondary storage size.a) smaller, smaller b) smaller, larger c) larger, smaller d) larger,

larger

Locality of reference implies that the page reference being made by a processa) will always be to the page used in the previous page referenceb) is likely to be to one of the pages used in the last few page referencesc) will always be to one of the pages existing in memoryd) will always lead to a page fault

Which of the following is an example of a spooled device?a) The terminal used to enter the input data for the C program being

executedb) An output device used to print the output of a number of jobsc) The secondary memory device in a virtual storage systemd) The swapping area on a disc used by the swapper

If an instruction takes i microseconds and a fault takes an additional j microseconds, the effective instruction time if on the average a page fault occurs every k instruction is:

a) b) i + j *k c) (i + j) / k d) (j + j) * k

Increasing the RAM of a computer typically improves performance because

→

∈

+

a) Virtual memory increases b) Large RAMs are faster

c) Fewer page faults occur d) Fewer segmentation faults occur

Which one of the following is NOT shared by the threads of the same process?a) Stack b) Address Space

c) File Descriptor Table d) Message Queue

A process executes the following segment of code:for(i=1;i<=n;i++)

fork( );

The number of new processes created is:

a) n b) c) d)

System calls are usually invoked by using a) A software interrupt b) Polling

c) an indirect jump d) a privileged instruction

Which of the following scheduling algorithms is non-preemptive?a) Round Robin b) First-In First –Out

c) Multilevel Queue Scheduling d) Multilevel Queue Scheduling with Feedback

The optimal page replacement algorithm will select the page thata) has not been used for the longest time in the pastb) will not be used for the longest time in the futurec) has been used least number of timesd) has been used most number of times

Using a larger block size in a fixed block size file system leads toa) better disk throughput but poorer disk space utilizationb) better disk throughput and better disk space utilizationc) poorer disk throughput but better disk space utilizationd) poorer disk throughput and poorer disk space utilization

51.

52.

n( n 1)

2n2 1 n3 1

53.

54.

55.

56.

+− −

57.

58.

59.

60.

61.(A)(B)(C)(D)

62.

63.

Which of the following is false in context of Inter Process communication?a) Communicate with each other b) Synchronize their actions

c) Share the same address space d) Passing message to each other

The main idea in overlay is toa) keep all the data into memoryb) keep shared data only in memoryc) keep only those data that are needed at that timed) all of the above

During context switch which of the following is not necessary to save?a) General purpose registersb) TLBc) Program counterd) All of the above

A binary search tree contains the value 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8. The tree is traversed in pre-order and the values are printed out. Which of the following sequences is a valid output?a) 5 3 1 2 4 7 8 6 b) 5 3 1 2 6 4 8 7 c) 5 3 2 4 1 6 7 8 d) 5 3 1 2 4 7 6 8

The correct matching for the following pairs is All pairs shortest paths (1) Greedy Quick Sort (2) Depth-First searchMinimum weight spanning tree (3) Dynamic ProgrammingConnected Components (4) Divide and Conquer

a) A-2 B-4 C-1 D-3 b) A-3 B-4 C-1 D-2

c) A-3 B-4 C-2 D-1 d) A-4 B-1 C-2 D-3

Which one of the following algorithm design techniques is used in finding all pairs of shortest distances in a graph?a) Dynamic Programming b) Backtracking

c) Greedy d) Divide and Conquer

The number of articulation points of the following graph is

a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3

The best data structure to check whether an arithmetic expression has balanced parentheses is aa) queue b) stack c) tree d) list

Suppose each set is represented as a linked list with elements in arbitrary order. Which of the operations among union, intersection, membership, cardinality will be the slowest?a) union only b) intersection, membership

c) membership, cardinality d) union, intersection

Consider the following C-function:double foo (int n)

int i:

double sum;

if(n= = 0) return 1.0;

else

sum=0.0;

for (i=0;i<n;i++)

sum += foo (i);

return sum;

64.

65.

66.

The space complexity of the above function is

a) O(1) b) O(n) c) O(n!) d) O(nn)

To implement Dijkstra’s shortest path algorithm on unweighted graphs so that it runs in linear time, the data structure to be used is:a) Queue b) Stack c) Heap d) B-Tree

Let P be a singly linked list. Let Q be the pointer to an intermediate node X in the list. What is the worst-case time complexity of the best known algorithm to delete the node x from the list?a) O(n) b) O(log 2 n) c) O(log n) d) O(1)

The postfix expression for the infix expression (A + B * (C + D)) / (F + D * E ) isa) (AB + CD + *F) / D + E * b) (ABCD * +F) / (+DE * +)

c) (A * B + CD) / F * DE ++ d) None of the above

Queues serve a major role in a) simulation of recursion b) simulation of arbitrary linked list

c) simulation of limited resource allocation d) expression evaluation.

Which of the following is useful in traversing a given graph by breadth first search?a) stack b) set c) list d) queue

In linked list data is stored in a) adjacent location b) different location in memory

c) neither a) nor b) d) none of the above

void function (struct node **q, int num)struct node * temp;

temp = malloc (size of (struct node));

temp data = num;

temp link = *q;

67.

68.

69.

70.

71.

72.

73.

→

→

*q = temp;

This is the function for inserting an element in the linked list at

a) beginning b) end c) middle d) none of these

All the basic operations like insertion, deletion search etc. in a Binary Search Tree takes time in worst case equal to a) O(logn) b) O(n) c) O(nlogn) d) O(n2)

When should insertion sort be used?a) Each component of the array takes up a large amount of memory.b) Each component of the array takes up only a small amount of memoryc) Only a few elements are out of placed) The processor speed is very fast.

Find all customers who have an account at the bank but not a loan.a)

b)

c)

d)

Which of the following allows to submit queries at runtime?a) Dynamic SQL b) Embedded SQL c) Both A & B d) None

The key which is a set of one or more attributes that taken collectively, allows us to identify uniquely an entity in the entity set, is called a) Primary key b) Partial keyc) Candidate key d) Super key

Which of the following gives the number of employees in each departmenta) Select dno, dname, count(*) from E,D where edept=dno group by

dno,dnameb) Select dno,dname,count(*) from E,D group by dno,dnamec) Both A and Bd) None

74.

75.

76.

customer name customer name(depositor ) (borrower )

customer name customer name(borrowe r) (depositor )

cus tom er nam e (borrower depositor )

customer name (borrower depos itor loan )

77.

78.

79.

π π

π π

π ×

π × ×

80.

81.

82.F AB CD, ABC E,C A

83.

84.

85.

86.

Which command undo all the updates performed by the SQL in the transaction?a) Rollback b) Commit c) Truncate d) Delete

If every attribute is a candidate key then the above table is in a) 1NF b) 2NF c) 3NF d) BCNF

Let R(ABCDE) be a relational schema and be the set of functional dependencies.

The number of candidate keys area) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

In dense index, index record containsa) A search key value and a pointer to the first recordb) Longest search key value and a pointer to last recordc) Smallest search key value and a pointer to the first locationd) None of the above

Which of the following is true?a) A file can have atmost one primary index or atmost one clustering indexb) A file can have atleast one primary index or atleast one clustering indexc) A file can have both primary index and clustering indexd) None of the above

In the given schedule

a) Deadlock can occur b) Deadlock never occur

c) Can’t say d) None of these

Atomicity is managed by

= → → →

a) Transaction management component b) Recovery management component

c) Concurrency control component d) None

Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for routing packets form one network to another?a) Transport layer b) Data Link layer

c) Physical layer d) Session layer

A Multiplexer combines four 100-kbps channels using a time slot of 4 bits. Determined the frame rate, frame duration, bit rate and bit duration.a) 25000 fps, 40µs, 400 kbps, 4µs b) 500 fps, 20µs, 400 kbps, 4µs

c) 25x103 fps, 40µs, 200kbps, 5µs d) 5x104 fps, 20µs, 200 Kbps, 5µs

What is the process of inserting the header information of the layer and the data form the higher layer into the data frame?a) Encryption b) Compression

c) Encapsulation d) Heading

State True or False.Hub is a multi-port repeater

Bridge has filtering capability

The bridge changes the MAC address

a) TFF b) FFT c) TTF d) FTT

If a frame enters a bridge and the MAC address is not found in the MAC address table, what will the bridge do with the frame?a) Drop itb) Forward it to all ports except the port it came in fromc) Hold it until the destination MAC address is discoveredd) Block it

A sender sends a series of packets to the same destination using 5-bit sequence numbers. If the sequence number starts with 0, what is the sequence number after sending 100 packets?a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5

87.

88.

89.

90.

91.

92.

93.

94.

95.

96.

97.

98.

Match with the suitable one:

List I List II

A) Unidirectional traffic 1) Mesh topology

B) Multipoint 2) Star topology

C) Direct traffic between two devices 3) Bus topology

D) Data Passes through hub 4) Ring topology

a) A-4 B-1 C-2 D-3 b) A-3 B-4 C-1 D-2

c) A-2 B-3 C-4 D-1 d) A-4 B-3 C-1 D-2

A company is expanding rapidly, many new people are being employed and in addition the employees keep changing offices. The company wants to set up an Ethernet network. What physical topology would they use?a) Bus b) Star c) Ring d) Mesh

A 24 Mbps token ring has a token holding time of 20ms, then what is the longest frame that can be sent on the ring?a) 48KB b) 60KB c) 32KB d) none

Dijkstra’s algorithm is used toa) Create LSA’s b) Flood an internet with information

c) Calculate routing tables d) Create a link state database

Two important reasons that the Internet is organized as a hierarchy of networks for the purposes of routing area) least cost and maximum free circuit availabilityb) scale and administrative autonomyc) message complexity and speed of convergenced) link cost changes and link failure

Given an IP address 201.14.78.65 and the subnet mask 255.255.255.224. What is the subnet address?

a) 201.14.78.64 b) 201.14.78.65 c) 201.14.77.64d) 201.14.77.66

Which of the following statements accurately describes UDP? a) UDP is a member of the TCP/IP suite of protocols that governs the

exchange of electronic mail between message transfer agents.b) UDP is a member of the TCP/IP suite of protocols and is used to copy

files between two computers on the Internet. Both computers must support their respective roles: one must be a client, and the other a server.

c) UDP is a TCP Complement that offers a connectionless datagram service guaranteeing, neither delivery nor correct sequencing of delivered packets (much like IP)

d) None of these

Telneta) is used to send email b) uses telephone lines

c) is part of Netscape d) is a protocol that allows for remote login

99.

100.

Chemical (Section code 07)

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.



The value of curl (grad ) is (g) b) c) Zero d) one


(g) b) c) d)

Saddle point of the function is(f) (a,a) b) c) (a,0) d) (1,1)


(g) b) c) d)


(g) (0,0) b) (0,1) c) (1,0) d) Nowhere analytic

Order of convergence in Newton-Raphson method is(g) One b) Two c) Three d) Four



a) 2 b) 3 c) 1 d) zero


a) 11 b) 12 c) 13 d) 14

In contact process, SO3 is absorbed in 97% H2SO4 and not in water because

(a) SO3 gas is sparingly soluble in water

(b) Water forms an acid mist which is difficult to absorb

(c) The purity of the acid is affected

(d) Scale formation in absorber is to be avoided

Unsaturated oils compared to saturated oils have

a) lower melting point and higher reactivity to oxygen

b) higher melting point and higher reactivity to oxygen

c) lower melting point and lower reactivity to oxygen

d) higher melting point and lower reactivity to oxygen

Comparing sulphate process with sulphite process, we find that

a) both temperature and pressure in former is less than that in the later

b) both temperature and pressure in the former is more than that in the later

c) temperature is more in the former whereas pressure is more in the later

d) pressure is more in the former whereas temperature is less in the later

Dacron or terylene fibres as compared to nylon fibres have

a) better heat and acid resistant properties

b) poorer resistance to alkalis

c) poorer dyeability

d) all ‘a’, ‘b’ and ‘c’

Pitch is always mixed with creosote oil when it is to be burnt in a burned, because a) its calorific value is very lessb) tar neutralizes that residual acids present in pitchc) it reduces viscosity and imparts fluidity for its transportation through

pipelines at economic pressure dropd) all ‘a’, ‘b’ and ‘c’

Mineral oils are preferred over fatty oils as a lubricant due to its

a) poor oxidation stability and high gum forming tendencyb) greater tendency of decomposition at elevated temperaturec) hydrolysis tendency in presence of waterd) all ‘a’, ‘b’ and ‘c’

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

Presence of carbonaceous matter in the sewage

a) causes reduction in its dissolved oxygen content thereby endangering the life of aquatic creatures

b) reduces sulphate ions to sulphides causing obnoxious smellc) increases the quantity of chlorine used for its purificationd) all ‘a’, ‘b’ and ‘c’

Viscosity index improver is added to the lubricant to

a) reduce its viscosity b) increase its viscosityc) reduce the variation it its viscosity with temperature d) increase the variation it its viscosity with temperature

Phosphate rock is a raw material for the manufacture of

a) phosphoric acid b) phosphorus c) superphosphates d) all ‘a’, ‘b’ and ‘c’

A special manometer fluid has a specific gravity of 2.95 and is used to

measure a pressure of 1.15 bar at a location where the barometric pressure is

760mmHg. What height will the manometer fluid indicate?

a) 472.7 mm b) 800mm c) 272.7mm d) 672.7mm

Two kgs of CO2 gas is contained in a piston-cylinder assembly at a pressure

of 6.5 bar and a temperature of 300K. The piston has a mass of 5000kg and a

surface area of 1m2 . The friction of the piston on the walls is significant and

cannot be ignored. The atmospheric pressure is 1.01325 bar. The latch holding

the piston in position is suddenly removed and the gas is allowed to expand.

The expansion is arrested when the volume is double the original volume.

The amount of work appearing in the surroundings is found to be as

a) 126.93 * 10 5 J b) 250KJ c) 350.5* 10 5 J d) 425.5 * 10 5 J

A system consisting of some fluid is stirred in a tank. The rate of work done

on the system by the stirrer is 2.25hp. The heat generated due to stirring is

dissipated to the surroundings. If the heat transferred to the surroundings is

3400KJ/h, the change in internal energy is found to be as

a) 733.38 J/s b) 533.58 J/s c) 953.38 J/s d) 243.48J/s

A steam turbine using steam at 1368kpa and 645K and discharging saturated

steam at 137kpa is used to generate power for certain chemical plant. The

turbine acts adiabatically and the feed and discharge velocities may be

considered equal. From the steam tables, enthalpy of superheated steam at

1368kpa and 645K = 3200kJ/kg and enthalpy of saturated steam at 137kPa =

2690 kJ/kg. The theoretical horsepower developed by the turbine if it uses

1650kg steam per hour is calculated to be as

b) 513.56hp b) 313.46hp c) 617.53hp d) 115.23hp

The molar volume of air at 350K and at 1 bar (assuming air to behave as ideal

gas) is determined as

c) 5.61* 10-2 m3/mol b) 6.51* 10-2 m3/mol c) 2.91* 10-2 m3/mol

d) 8.31* 10-2 m3/mol

One Kilo mol CO2 occupies a volume of 0.381 m3 at 313K. Take the

vanderwaals constant to be a = 0.365 Nm 4/mol 2and b = 4.28 * 10-5 m3/mol

The pressure given by Vanderwaals equation is found to be as

d) 51.8 bar b) 35.8 bar c) 23.5 bar d) 15.6 bar

The density of gaseous ammonia at 473 K and 50 bar is 24.3 kg/m3 . The

fugacity is estimated to be as

e) 65.35 bar b) 44.47 bar c) 76.5 bar d) 13.76 bar

The Henry’s law constant for oxygen in water at 298K is 4.4*10 4 bar. The

solubility of oxygen in water at 298 K for a partial pressure of oxygen at 0.25

bar is found to be as

a) 0.0568 * 10 -4 moles/mole of water b) 1.1675 * 10 -4 moles/mole of water ( c )1 .1987 * 10 -4 moles/mole of water d) 2.354 * 10 -4 moles/mole of water

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The molar volume of an organic liquid at 300 K and 1 bar is 0.1m 3/kmol and

its coefficient of expansion is 1.25 * 10 -3K -1. Assuming ( )P is constant in

the pressure range 1 to 20 bar ,the change in entropy if the pressure is increased to 20 bar at 300 K is found to be as

a) -237.5 J/kmol K b) -653.7 J/kmol K c) -445.5 J/kmol K ( d) 131.6 J/kmol K

For crushing of solids, the Rittinger’s law states that the work required for crushing is proportional to a) the new surface created b)the size reduction ratio c)the change in volume due to crushing d)none of these

In power correlations for agitated vessels the effect of Froude number

appears:

a) for baffled vessels and when Reynolds number is less than 300.b) for unbaffled vessels and when Reynolds number is greater than

300.c) When there is no vortex formation.d) When the Reynolds number is less than 300.

The work index in Bond’s Law for crushing of solids has the following dimension

a)no units(dimensionless) b) KWh / tonc) KW/ton d) KWh m1/2 /ton

At very low r.p.m. ( N Re less than 5), the power required for agitation is Proportional to

Where D is the diameter of the impeller.

a) D b) D2 c) D3 d) D5

A fluid energy mill is used for a) Cutting b) grinding c) ultra grinding d) crushing

The weber number can be used to estimatea) ratio of inertial and surface tension forcesb) ratio of inertial and compressibility forcesc) ratio of inertial and centrifugal forces

d) ratio of pressure and surface tension forces

A spherical particle is falling slowly in a viscous liquid such that Reynolds number is less than one. Which statement is correct for this situation?a) inertial and drag forces are importantb) Drag, gravitational and buoyancy forces are important

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c) Drag force and gravitational forces are importantd) None of the above

For the laminar flow of a fluid in a circular pipe of radius R, the Hagen-Poiseuille equation predicts the volumetric flow rate to be proportional toa) R b) R2 c) R4 d) R0.5

For an ideal fluid flow the Reynolds number is a) 2100 b) 100 c) Zero d) infinity

Fluidized beds are formed when:a) fluid friction is zerob) gravity force is less than fluid frictionc) pressure forces equal gravity forcesd) sum of fluid friction and pressure forces is equal and opposite to gravity

forces.

Stokes equation is valid in the Reynolds number range a) 0.01 to 0.1 b) 0.1 to 2c) 2 to 10 d) 10 to 100.

A Newtonian liquid ( = density, µ = viscosity) is flowing with velocity v in a tube of diameter D. Let ?p be the pressure drop across the length L. For a laminar flow, ?p i s proportional to

a) L v2/D b) D v2/Lc) Lµv/D2 d) µ v/L

The type of process that most often can benefit from derivative control is:a) Flow b) Level c) Temperature d) Pressure

The open loop transfer function of a control system is KR/(1 + Ts). This represents:

a) a first order system b) dead time systemc) a first order time lag d) a second order system.

The response of two tanks of same size and resistance in series is a) under damped b) critically dampedc) over damped d) none of the above

In a feed-back control system G and H denote open loop and closed loop transfer functions respectively. The output – input relationship is :

a) G/(1 +G H) b) H/(1 + G) c) G/H d) H/G

The transfer function of PID controller isa) K c (1 + (1/ I s ) + D s ) b) K c (1 + I s + D s ) c) K c(1 + (1/ D s ) + I s ) d) K c [1 + (1/ I s ) + (1/ D s ) ]

For an input forcing function, x(t) = 2t2, the laplace transform of this function is

a) 2/s2b) 4/ s2 c) 2/ s3 d) 4/ s3

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The transfer function of a process is 16s2 + 8s + 4.If step change is introduced into the system, then the response will be

a) under damped b) critically dampedc) over damped d) none of the above

The total investment in a project is Rs. 10 lakhs and the annual profit is Rs. 1.5 lakhs. If the project life is 10 years, then the simple rate of return on investment is

a) 15%b) 10%c) 1.5% d) 150%

Direct costs component of the fixed capital consists of a) Contingency b) onsite and offsite costsc) labour costs d) raw material costs

Indirect contact heat exchangers are preferred over direct heat exchangers because

a) heat transfer coefficients are highb) there is no risk of contaminationc) there is no mist formationd) cost of equipment is lower

In a finned tube heat exchanger:a) only heat transfer area is augmentedb) only film coefficient is augmentedc) both heat transfer area and film coefficient are augmentedd) none of the above

The critical radius r of insulation on a pipe is given bya) r = 2k/h b) r = k/h c) r = k/2h d) r = h/k(Where k is the thermal conductivity of the insulation and h the heat transfer coefficient with the ambient)

The advantage of using 1-2 shell and tube heat exchanger over 1-1 shell and tube heat exchanger is

a) Lower tube side pressure dropb) Lower shell side pressure dropc) Higher tube side heat transfer coefficient d) Higher shell side heat transfer coefficient

Grashof number is associated with :a) buoyancy effects b) free convectionc) forced convection d) high temperature difference

Prandtl number for water varies from a) 0.5-1 b) 1-5c) 5-10d) 10-102

For condensation of pure vapors, if the heat transfer coefficients in filmwise and dropwise condensation are respectively hf and hd, then

a) hf = hd b) hf > hd c) hf < hd

d) hf could be greater or smaller than hd

The variation of thermal conductivity of a metal with temperature is often correlated using an expression of the for K = Ko + At. Where K is the thermal conductivity and T is temperature (in k). The unit of A in the SI system will be

a) W/m K b) W/m c) W/ m K2 d) None; A is just a number

In distillation columns, the number of bubble caps per tray primarily depends on the

a) allowable liquid velocityb) allowable gas velocityc) allowable gas and liquid velocitiesd) feed composition

Lewis number = 1 signifies:a) Pr = Sc b) Pr = Re c) Sc = Re d) Nu = Sh

The advantage of backward-feed multiple effect evaporators over forward-feed units is thata) heat sensitive materials can be handledb) there is no additional cost of pumping c) most concentrated liquor is at highest temperature d) equal heat transfer coefficients exist in various effects.

The sequence in which three C.S.T.R’s of volumes 5,10 and 15 cu.m. will be connected in series to obtain the maximum production in a second order irreversible reaction is:

a) 15 10 5 b) 5 10 15 c) 10 5 15 d) 10 15 5.

For the gaseous reaction 2A B where the feed consists of 50 mol% A and 50 mol% inerts, the expansion factor is

a) 1 b) – 0.5c) – 0.25 d) 0

From collision theory, the reaction rate constant is proportional toa) exp (- E/RT) b) exp ( - E/2RT)c) T1/ 2exp ( - E/RT) d) Tm exp ( - E/RT)

The dimensions of rate constant for reaction 3A B are (1/gmole)/min. Therefore the reaction order is

a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3

Choose the correct answer:An exothermic gas phase reaction proceeds according to the equation 3A + 2B 2R. The equilibrium conversion for this reaction:

a) increases with an increase in temperature b) decreases on dilution with an inert gasc) decrease with an increase in pressured) is unaffected by the presence of a catalyst

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In a homogeneous gas phase reaction A + 2B R + S what is the relationship between rA and rB:

a) 2 rA = rB b) rA = 2 rB

c) rA = rB d) none of the above

The units of frequency factor in Arrhenius equation area) the same as those of the rate constant b) depend on the order of the reaction c) depend on temperature, pressure etc. of the reactiond) are cycles per unit time

To maximize the formation of R in the simultaneous reactionsA + B R rR = 2CA 0.5 CB2

A + B S rS = 1.5CA CB We should havea) low CA, low CB b) low CA, high CB

c) high CA, low CB d) high CA, high CB

In the absorption of a solute gas from a mixture containing inerts in a solvent, it has been found that the overall gas transfer coefficient is nearly equal to the individual gas film transfer coefficient. It may therefore be concluded that:

a) the process is liquid film controlledb) the gas is sparingly soluble in the solventc) the transfer rate can be increased substantially by reducing the

thickness of the liquid filmd) the transfer rate can be increased substantially by reducing the

thickness of the gas film

The Knudsen diffusivity is dependent on :a) the molecular velocity only b) the pore radius of the catalyst onlyc) the molecular mean free path onlyd) the molecular velocity and pore radius of the catalyst

Absorption towers are operated under conditions of A. low pressure, high temperature B. high pressure, high temperature C. high pressure, low temperature D. low pressure, low temperature

For stripping of a gas in a counter current stripper, the operating line a) lies above the equilibrium curveb) lies below the equilibrium curvec) can lie above or below the equilibrium curved) is always parallel to the equilibrium curve

In distillation where q is defined as the moles of liquid flow in the stripping section per mole of feed introduced, for saturated liquid feed

a) q > 1 b) q < 1 c) q = 1 d) q = 0

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How many molecules are present in 691g K2CO3 ?a) 20.115 * 10 23 b) 30.115* 10 23 c) 60.225* 10 23 d) 80.324* 10 23

A body weighs 1.0kg in air, 0.90kg in water and 0.82kg in a liquid. The specific gravity of the liquid is a) 1.8 b) 3.5 c) 6.5 d) 4.9

The solubility of sodium chloride in water at 290K is 35.8kg/100kg of water. The mass fraction and mass percent of Nacl is found to be as

a) 1.233 , 35.5% b) 0.2636, 26.36% c) 6.511, 65.11% d) 4.9, 4.911%

The molar volume of a gas mixture analyzing 40% nitrogen and 60% ethane at 325K is 4.5*10-4 m3 /mol. The pressure of the gas by ideal equation is a) 600.45*10 4 N/m2 b) 350.5 *10 4 N/m2 c) 815.5*10 4 N/m2 d) 490.45*10 4 N/m2

Moist air contains 0.0109 kg water vapour per cubic meter of the mixture at 300K and 101.3kpa. The partial pressure of water vapour is

(a) 1.51 kpa b) 2.51kpa c) 4.81kpa d) 6.71 kpa

An aqueous solution of sodium carbonate contains 15% carbonate by weight, 80% of the carbonate is recovered as Na2CO3.10H20 by evaporation of water and subsequent cooling to 278K. The solubility of Na2CO3 at 278K is 9.0%(weight). On the basis of 100 kg of the solution treated, the quantity of crystals formed is calculated to be as

a) 32.28kg b) 55.58 kg c) 76.56 kg d) 12.23 kg

100kg/h of a thermic fluid, to be used as a heat transfer medium, is being indirectly heated in a heater from 380 K to 550 K. The heat capacity equation for the thermic fluid is given as Cp= 1.436 + 2.18*10-3 T, where Cp is in KJ/kgK and T is in K.The heat load on the heater in kW is calculated to be as a) 313.43kW b) 115.77kW c) 287.7kW d) 545.6kW

Given that the standard heat of combustion of acetylene is -1299.61 kJ, the standard heat of combustion of carbon is -393.51 kJ and the standard heat of formation of liquid water is -285.84 kJ. The standard heat of formation of acetylene is calculated as

a) 556.67kJ b) 357.6kJ c) 226.75kJ d) 776.8 kJ

Given is the reaction at 298K :C5H12 (g) + 8O2 (g) ? 5 CO2 (g) +6 H20 (l).The standard heat of formation are as follows:CO2 (g) = -393.51kJ, H20 (l) = -241.826kJ, C5H12 (g) = -146.4kJ. The latent heat of vaporization of water at 298K is 43.967 kJ/mol. The standard heat of the above reaction at 298 K is calculated to be as :a) -3535.908 kJ b) -9876.5kJ c) -2332.3kJ d) 5454.5 kJ

How many moles are there in 500g of oxygen?a) 31.25 b) 15.625 c) 76.13 d) 266.45

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It is required to make 100kg of a solution containing 40% salt by mixing solution A containing 25% salt and solution B containing 50% salt. The mass in Kgs of solution A required is

a) 40kg b) 60kg c) 75kg d) 25kg

A sewage gas sample is found to contain CH4 -68%, CO2-30%, NH3 – 2% on volume basis. The average molecular weight of the gas mixture is found to be as

a) 35.53 kg/kgmol b) 55.55 kg/kgmol c) 24.42kg/kgmol d) 73.24kg/kgmol

Carnot cycle consists of the following steps:a) two isothermals and two isentropicsb) two isobarics and two isothermalsc) two isochorics and two isobaricsd) two isothermals and two isochorics.

At the inversion point, the Joule-Thompson coefficient is a) positive b) negative c) Zero d) five

The number of degree of freedom for a mixture of ice and water (liquid) are:

a) 2 b) 3 c) 1 d) 0

The equation dU = TdS – PdV is applicable to infinitesimal changes occurring in:a) an open system of constant compositionb) a closed system of constant compositionc) an open system with changes in compositiond) a closed system with changes in composition

The change in Gibbs free energy for vapourization of a pure substance is a) positive b) negative

c) Zero d) may be positive or negative

Toothpaste is a a) Bingham plastic b) Pseudoplasticc) Newtonian liquid d) Dilatant

To produce talcum powder use a) Ball mill b) Hammer millc) jet-mill d) Pin-mill

Potential function is applicable only for a) irrotational flow b) turbulent flow(c ) steady flow d) none of these

Reciprocating pumps are not able to compete with the centrifugal pump for industrial use mainly because these pumps have

a) very low speeds b) smaller discharge( c) higher capital and maintenance cost d) high vibrations

In a free vortex, the a) velocity changes linearly with radial distanceb) flow is necessarily rotationalc) radial component of velocity is same everywhered) streamlines are not circular

For a binary mixture with low relative volatility, continous rectification to get pure products will requirea) low reflux ratio b) less number of trays (c ) small cross section column d) high reflux ratio

Mccabe-Thiele methoda) uses molal units for material and energy balanceb) uses weight fractions to express liquid and vapour compositionc) can use any type of unitsd) is more accurate than Ponchan-Savarit method

Fenske equation determinesa) maximum number of ideal platesb) height of the distillation columnc) minimum number of theoretical platesd) optimum reflux ratio

To get high tray efficiencya) interfacial surface between liquid and gas phase should be largeb) time of contact between the two phases should be lessc) gas velocity should be very lowd) liquid entrainment should be severe

Plate efficiency a) is a function of the mass transfer between liquid and vaporb) increases due to foamingc) increases due to liquid entrainment d) increases due to weeping and dumping of liquid

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Bio Technology (Section code 08)

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Dye injected into a plant cell might be able to enter an adjacent cell through a a) Tight junction b) Gap junctionc) Desmosome d) Plasmodesma

A plant cell was grown in a test tube containing radioactive nucleotides, the parts from which DNA is built. Later examination of the cell showed the radioactivity to be concentrated in thea) Rough ER. b) Peroxisomec) Smooth ER. d) Nucleus

Which of the following organelles is most important in providing energy to the cell? a) Mitochondrion b) Centrosome c) Nucleus d) Peroxisome

Name the membrane valves that open and close for potassium efflux and sodium influx. a) Ionchannels b) Vacuoles c) Capillaries d) Nexus

What technique can be used to measure cell activity like a change in membrane potential? a) Ionchannel b) Apoptosis c) Patchclamp d) Ion exchange

What role(s) does the cytoskeleton play in a living cell? a) Maintaining cell shape b) Movement c) Contraction d) All of these

Which is SMALLEST of these four? a) Bacterium b) Red blood cell c) Virus d) Lymphocyte

Gram positive organisms havea) Dipicolinic acid b) Muraminic acidc) Teichoic acid d) Acetic Acid

Acetoclastis is the process ofa) Splitting of acetate into methane and carbon dioxide by methanogensb) Splitting of formate into formalin and carbon dioxide by methanogensc) Splitting of acetate into methane and carbon dioxide by alkaligensd) Splitting of formate into formalin and carbon dioxide by alkaligens

BAC is expanded asa) Bacterial Accessing Catalogueb) Bacillus Anthrasis Culturec) Bacillus and Coccusd) Bacterial Artrifical Chromosome

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Fungal hypha that connects two compartments separated by a septum is called aa) Hyphal connection b) Clamp connectionc) Nexus d) Gap junction

Doubling time is the time required for a population to a) Double in number of biomassb) Double in number alonec) Double in both number and biomassd) None of the above

Endospores are present ina) Acid Fast Bacilli b) Gram positive bacteriac) Gram negative bacteria d) All of the above

Fusiform bacteria area) Needle shaped b) Pear shapedc) Fused at both the ends d) Spindle shaped

Quantity of biomass carbon formed per unit of substrate carbon consumed is calleda) Growth yield coefficient b) Growth rate constantc) Carbon substrate ratio d) Surface volume ratio

Layer of hyphae, fertile in producing asci from the process of meiosis are called a) Hyphaneum b) Hymeniumc) Hyphomenium d) Hypomanium

Thread like infections meansa) Binary fission b) Cell divisionc) Meiosis d) Mitosis

Layer of proteinaceous elements beneath the cell membrane in protozoa are called asa) Pellicle b) Prosthecaec) Trichomes d) Protenoids

Population of cells all descended from a single pure isolate are calleda) Clones b) Speciesc) Auxenic culture d) Strain

Hard external covering or shella) Coat b) Perithecac) Test d) Tentorium

Glass column with an anaerobic lower zone and an aerobic upper zone isa) G.R. Column b) Winogradskys column

c) Areobic- anaerobic column d) Microbial separation column.

Wild type is a) Strain of microorganism isolated from natureb) Strain of microorganism isolated from pure culturec) Strain of microorganism culture from ATCCd) Strain of microorganism cultured in natural conditions

MacConkey medium is a a) Differential medium b) Enrichment mediumc) Transport medium d) Specific medium

An event in which transducing DNA fails to be incorporated into the recipient chromosome isa) Adjunct transduction b) Abortive transductionc) Degenerative transduction d) Distinctive transduction

A mRNA is 336 nucleotides long, including the start codon and stop codon. The number of amino acids in the protein translated from this mRNA isa) 333 b) 336c) 111 d) 112

Which scientists gave experimental evidence that DNA is the genetic material?a) Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty b) Garrodc) Watson and Crick d) Hershy and Chase

In a double stranded DNA, the ratio of purines : pyrimidines is:a) Variableb) Determined by the base sequence in RNAc) Always 1:1e) Determined by the purines in the sense strand of DNA

Which of the following molecules do not form part of DNA?a) Purine b) Pyrimidine c) Deoxyribose d) Ribose

The transcription of DNA to a molecule of messenger RNA occurs:a) On the ribosomes b) In the cytosolc) In the nucleus d) Only during cell division

Codons are composed ofa) Triplet sequences of nucleotide bases in mRNAb) Triplet sequences of nucleotide bases in DNAc) Triplet sequences of amino acids in polypeptide chainsd) Triplet sequences of deoxyribose sugars in DNA

In Griffith's experiment, injection of a mixture of heat-killed smooth bacteria and living rough bacteria a) Kills the mouse b) Causes transfection

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c) Causes transduction d) has no effect

Which of the following is common to DNA and RNA a) Thymine b) Sugar c) Functions d) Guanine

Which of the following is true of transfer RNA? a) It is responsible adding correct amino acid to a growing polypeptide.b) It serves as the site of protein synthesis. c) It functions in transcription, translation and replication. d) It is an important component of ribosomes.

Which of the following is most similar to the Watson-Crick helix? a) B-DNA b) A-DNAc) C-DNA d) Z-DNA

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of DNA? a) Antiparallel b) Composed of nucleotides c) Complementary d) Contains ribose

Which is most preferred site for interaction of proteins with DNA a) Major groove b) Minor groovec) Phosphate backbone d) None

DNA duplexes can be “melted” or “denatured” bya) Temperature b) pHc) Ionic strength d) All the above

In replication the direction of DNA synthesis is a) 3’---5’ b) 5’---3’c) Both d) None

Inducer of operon isa) b) CAPc) allolactose d) None

Function of 5’cap of mRNA isa) Ribosome binding site b) Ribosome assembly sitec) Ribosome disassembly site d) Translation initiation site

Kozack sequence is found in a) Rice b) Mousec) Homo sapiens d) All the above

Transcription and translation is separated by time and space for a) E. coli b) Virusc) Bacillus d) Mouse

The A form of DNA exhibit --------a) Left handed helix b) Right handed helix c) Zig-zag d) None of the above

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lac lacI

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The modification in the CTD tail of RNA polymerase isa) Acetylation b) Phosphorylation c) Methylation d) Demethylation

Total number of ATP produced per complete oxidation of glucosea) 40 b) 2c) 8 c) 38

Glutathione is a) Tripeptide b) Dipeptidec) Lipids d) Polysaccharide

Invert Sugar is a) Glucose b) Fructosec) Sucrose d) Lactose

Cofactor of Scuccinate dehydrogenase isa) FAD b) NADc) NADH c) Cu

Antimycine is the inhibitor of a) Glycolysis b) TCA cyclec) Electron transport chain d) Oxidative phosphorylation

Total number of ATP produced in complete oxidation of palmitic acid isa) 8 b) 38c) 131 d) 129

Which amoung the following pathway is amphibolic naturea) Fatty acid biosynthesis b) Beeta oxidationc) Tricarboxylic acid cycle c) Electron transport chain

The enzyme with higher affinity towards substrate will have Km of a) High b) Low c) 0 c) Affinity not related to Km

Secondary metabolites appear predominantly in fermentor during which of the following stages.a) Exponential b) Stationaryc) Lag d) All the above

In aerobic industrial microbial processes, one of the most difficult problems to solve is a) Maintaining an adequate energy sourceb) Adjusting a pH to a desired value and maintaining that valuec) Providing adequate aerationd) Homogenous mixing

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Which of these is not an economical source of bulk carbon suitable for large scale industrial microbial processes?a) Cornsteep liquorb) Sucrosec) Wheyd) All of these are economic source for bulk carbon

Which of the following penicillin in current use represents an unmodified naturally occuring product?a) Ampicillin b) Penicillin Gc) Methicillin d) Amoxicillin

Wine yeast can tolerate upto a) 4-5% ethanol b) 12-14% ethanolc) 20-22 % ethanol d) 30-34% of ethanol.

Enology is science of studyinga) Bread making b) Cheese making c) Wine making d) Beer making

The holes in swiss cheese is produced by a) Gas producing by propionic acid bacteriab) Gas producing by lactic acid bacteriac) Gas producing by fungid) Gas production by yeast

A microbial guild is a) Groups of microbes of same speciesb) Several metabolic related populations interacting with each otherc) Groups of metabolically related populationsd) The location to which a microbe is adopted

Volatile fatty acids produced in rumen are used for a) Methanogenesis b) Acetogenesisc) Sulfate reduction d) Food for ruminant

In waste water treatment, primary treatment consists of a) Physical separation only b) Biological separation onlyc) Chemical separation only d) All the above

Which among is the following is fat soluble vitamina) Vit B b) Vit Cb) Vit D c) Vit H

Amphibolic nature of TCA cycle is is due to a) Produce GTP c) Produce FADH2

d) Links cetabolism and anabolism d) Due to author name

Polymorphism can be studied using restriction enzyme bya) Digestion mapping b) Ligation PCR c) RFLP d) RAPD

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RNAi isa) DNA amplification technique b) Is an enzymec) RNA amplification technique d) RNA silencing technique

Enzyme that breaks the phosphodiester bond in DNA isa) DNA ligase b) Nucleotide kinasec) EcoR I d) Alkaline phosphatase

Enzyme that makes the phosphodiester bond in DNA isa) Nucleotide kinase b) DNA ligasec) EcoR I d) Alkaline phosphatase

The following is the promoter used in transgenic plantsa) CaMV 35S b) GFPc) LacZ d) Trp

The following is a dye used in real time PCRa) Bromophenol blue b) Excel Bluec) Navi Blue d) SYBR green

Vectors used for cloning isa) Plasmids b) Phagemidsc) Phage c) All the above

Vector used for cloning large DNA fragments isa) Plasmids b) Phagemidsc) BAC d) None

Cloning of unknown sequence can be done bya) RT PCR b) PCR RFLPc) Inverse PCR d) Nested PCR

His-Tag is used for a) Protein purification b) DNA purificationc) RNA purification c) mRNA purification

Nucleic acids are quantified by measuring the optical density (OD) ata) 230 nm b) 240 nmc) 260 nm c) 280 nm

The most common temperature used for storage of restriction endonucleases is a) -20C b) 37Cc) 27C d) -80C

Theoretically, annealing temperature of PCR should be a) Less than the melting temperature of the primersb) Equal to the melting temperature of the primersc) Higher than the melting temperature of the primersd) Constant regardless of the melting temperature of the primers

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The following is possible by plant transformationa) Transfer of genes from animals to plantsb) Transfer of genes from plants to plantsc) Transfer of genes from human to plantsd) All the above

The following may lead to gene silencinga) Antisense expression b) Cosuppressionb) RNA interference c) All the above

The chemical used for chain termination in DNA sequencing a) dNTP b) ddNTPc) Termination primer d) EDTA

Salt from precipitated DNA can be removed by usinga) Water b) 70% ethanolc) 50% ethanol d) All the above

Movement of DNA in agarose gel is a) Inversely proportional to the molecular weightb) Directly proportional to the molecular weightc) Directly proportional to GC content d) Directly proportional to AT content

Oligo dT can be used to purifya) RNA b) mRNAc) Non coding RNA d) All the above

The cofactor of Taq DNA polymerase isa) NAD b) ATPc) FAD d) MgCl2

The study of the molecular organization of genomes, their information content and the gene products they encodea) Genetics b) Genomicsc) Ergonomics d) Proteomics

Which type of genomics studies similarities and differences among the genomes of multiple organisms?a) Comparative genomics b) Structural genomicsc) Functional genomics d) Proteomics

Assigning a function for a gene is a) Cloning b) Annotationc) Validation d) None

The field that is concerned with the management and analysis of biological data using computersa) Statistics b) Genomicsc) Bioinformatics d) Cheminformatics

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Small solid supports on to which are spotted hundreds of thousands of tiny drops of DNA that can be used to screen gene expression.a) DNA microarrays b) cDNA libraryc) Southern Arrays d) PCR

Proteomics is:a) A branch of quantum physicsb) The study of algal genomesc) The study of the entire collection of proteins expressed by an organismd) Analysis of gene expression

The first dimension of separation for two-dimensional electrophoresis is based on a) Molecular mass b) Isoelectric pointc) Folding d) PH

Which of the following is a 3D databasea) PDB b) NCBIc) EMBL d) PIR

Molecular visualization of proteins is done by using a) Rasmol b) Clustal Wc) Blast d) RAPTOL

The suitable server for homology modeling is a) Swiss PDB viewer b) HEXc) Autodock d) Dock

Human genome contains abouta) 2 billion base pairs b) 3 billion base pairsc) 4 billion base pairs d) 5 billion base pairs

Which one is not the Genome database?a) GenBank b) TIGRc) GeneQuiz d) LIGAND

To maintain computer files in an orderly fashion means to organize thema) Hierarchically b) Randomlyc) Linearly d) Orthogonally

Software which is used for progressive multiple sequence alignmenta) CLUSTAL W b) OLIGOc) GA d) HMM

Example for literature databases?a) Medline b) Software biocatalogc) Flybase archives d) all the above

Affymetrix microarray is based ona) cDNA clones b) oligonucleotides

c) Plasmids d) All the above

GIS (Section code 09)

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The value of curl (grad ) is (h) b) c) Zero d) one


(h) b) c) d)

Saddle point of the function is(g) (a,a) b) c) (a,0) d) (1,1)


(h) b) c) d)


(h) (0,0) b) (0,1) c) (1,0) d) Nowhere analytic

Order of convergence in Newton-Raphson method is(h) One b) Two c) Three d) Four



a) 2 b) 3 c) 1 d) zero


a) 11 b) 12 c) 13 d) 14

The art of obtaining information about an object without being in physical contact with it is known as a) Photogrammetry

b) Opticsc) Remote sensing d) Satellite Imaging

Photogrammetry is a a) Advanced Surveyingb) Irrigation of Hydrologyc) Analysis of Structurald) None of the above

The Photographs used in Photogrammetry area) Aerial Photos and Terrestrial Photosb) Color photosc) B&W photosd) Color and B& W Photos

Application of Phototgrammetry a) Road Alignment b) Environmental Management c) Management and Planning of Urband) All the above

Ballistic cameras are used fora) Positions in ground b) GCP- Find out c) To calculate satellite trajectoryd) None of the above

The degree of tilt in a tilted photograph is a) 1° to 3°b) 1° to 7°c) 1° to 6°d) 1° to 5°

------------controls the amount of light entering the photographic cameraa) Lens b) Shutter c) Aperture d) DiaphragmHorizon is visible in a) Vertical photographb) Tilted photographc) Low-oblique photographd) High-oblique photograph

The radial displacement of the image visible on the vertical photograph due to topography is known as a) Vertical distance b) Relief displacementc) Relief distance d) Relief difference

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The art and science of recording, measuring and interpreting photographs is known as a) Remote sensingb) Photogrammetryc) Cartographyd) None of the above

The point on the ground coinciding with the optical axis of the camera is known asa) Principle point b) Fiducial point c) Nadird) Floating mark

Orthophotos are a) Photographs without distortions b) Photographs with distortionsc) Photographs with relief displacementd) Photographs with tilt

Stereo pair Images are generated by a) Overlapping two Imagesb) Non-Overlapping two Imagesc) Over-lapping 3-Images d) None of these above

Relief displacement is defined asa) Change in Height b) Change Shapec) Change in Sized) All

Use of Stereoscope:a) Elimination of Parallaxb) 3D-viewingc) Exact Projection of Height visualizedd) All

Titled photogrammetry requiresa) Geometric Correctionb) Linear Correction c) Angular Correction d) All

Ortho photo are defineda) Rectified photob) Uniform scale photoc) Geometrically Environment photod) All

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SOI stands for a) Soil and Oceanographic department of Indiab) Survey of Indiac) Soil of Indiad) All of the above

Which of the following is a surveying technique?a) Trilateration b) Electronic distance measurementc) Reckoningd) All of the above

Panchromatic images mean a) Black and white imagesb) Colored images c) Both a and bd) None of the above

The arrangement of electromagnetic energy according to wavelength or frequency is known as a) Electronic spectrumb) Magnetic spectrum c) Electromagnetic spectrumd) Electronic distance measurement

Wavelength range for the visible region ranges between a) Gamma<UV<Radio waves<visible<microwave<infraredb) Gamma <microwaves < Radio waves < visible <UV < infraredc) Gamma <Microwave < Radio waves <Visible < Microwave < UVd) Gamma <UV < visible <Infrared < micro waves < radio waves

The region of atmosphere through which the electromagnetic radiations passes without attenuation isa) Atmospheric influencesb) Atmospheric doors c) Atmospheric widows d) Atmospheric greenhouse

Part of the electromagnetic energy is reflected from the surface of the matter, is called a) Scattering.b) Emission.c) Absorption.d) Transmission

_____________ is the type scattering, which is independent to wavelength.a) Mie Scattering.b) Rayleigh Scatteringc) Non-Selective scatteringd) None.

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The IRS stands for a) International Resource satellite b) Indian Remote Sensing Satellitec) Indian Regional Satellited) None of the above.

Rayleigh scattering affectsa) Shortwave visible regionb) Long wave region c) Infrared regiond) Microwave region

Which of the following wavelength band is absorbed by Chlorophyll present in the leaf?a) Red and Green b) Red and Bluec) Blue and Greend) Red and Blue

The size of the smallest object that can be discriminated by the sensor isa) Spectral resolutionb) Spatial resolutionc) Radiometric resolutiond) Temporal resolution

Wavelength bands centered at 0.45 and 0.67 µm are often known as a) Chlorophyll absorption bandsb) Water absorption bandsc) Normal wavelength bandsd) Soil absorption bands

Reflection from a flat surface is known as a) Diffuse reflectionb) Specular reflection c) EMR reflection d) All the above

Reflected radiation used for remote sensing is a) X-rayb) Visible c) Gamma raysd) Radio waves

Which of the following is not a meteorological satellite?a) NOAAb) INSATc) GOESd) IKONS

RADAR stands for a) Radio Audio Development and Research

b) Regional application for Data Analysis and Research c) Radio Detection and Ranging d) None of the above

Which of the following images having given spatial resolution will show more detail?a) 15.mb) 5.8mc) 23.5md) 0.61m

Cartosat-1 has the spatial resolution of a) 5mb) 2mc) 2.5md) 1.5m

GIS stands for a) Graphical Interface systemb) Geographical International societyc) Geographical Information systemd) Geo intelligence system

Raster data is represented bya) Line b) Pointsc) Polygonsd) Grids

Smallest unit of the picture is a) Cell b) Pixelc) Pictorial unit d) Pascal

NAVSTAR stands fora) Navigation Satellite with Time and Rangingb) Navigation and Virtual Satellite for Television and Radiosc) Navigation and Versatile Satellited) None of the above

GPS stands for a) Global Postal Systemb) Global Positioning Satellitec) Global Positioning Systemd) Global Pointing System

Satellite clock is made up ofa) Rubidium and quartz

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b) Rubidium and cesiumc) Rubidium and franciumd) Quartz

___________ used to measures the co-ordinates of the object on the Earth’s surface.a) GPSb) Clinometerc) Compass.d) Total station.

At present ___________ GPS satellites are operationala) 24b) 30c) 20d) 27

The two GPS carrier waves are a) L1 and L2b) C and A code c) P and Y coded) None of the above

The code denied for Military purpose is a) Y-codeb) P-codec) L-coded) S-code

The properties that should be preserved while preparing a map area) Distance b) Conformabilityc) Aread) All of the above

Vehicle to carry the sensor is a) Sensor setup b) Platformc) Detector d) Processing

Device to detect electromagnetic radiation:a) Detectorsb) Sensorsc) Platformsd) All the above

When the sensor uses light system generated from its own source it is known as a) Passive remote sensing systemb) Active remote sensing system

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c) Both of aboved) None of the above

IFOV stands for a) International Field Observationsb) Indian Field Observatory c) Instantaneous Field of Viewd) None of the above

AWIFS stands for a) Advanced Wire Field Systemb) Advanced Wise Field Sensorc) Advanced Wide Field Sensord) None of the above

SLAR stands for a) Side Landing Airborne Rocketb) Side Looking Airborne Radarc) Satellite Lidar and Radard) All the above

IRS-ID-LISS IV Satellite is a) Indian Satellite.b) American Satellite.c) French.d) Russian Satellite.

The data acquired by the remote sensing system are recorded ona) CCT.b) Floppy.c) CD-Rom.d) Film.

Which of the following methods may be used to input paper maps into a GIS?a) Manual digitizing b) Scanning c) Automatic digitizing d) All of the above

A buffer zone around a point feature will be a a) Circle b) Rectangle c) Squared) Surface

On which of the following the vector data model is based?a) Pixels b) Line, Point & Polygonc) Grids d) None of the above

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On which of the following the raster data model is based?a) Grid cells or pixels b) Coordinates c) Point, line & polygond) All the above

What does 1 mm on a map drawn at a scale of 1:50,000 represent on the ground?a) 5 meters b) 50 metersc) 500 centimetersd) 50 centimeters

The abbreviation CCD meansa) Circular Circuit Displayb) Circular Couple Devicec) Charged Circuit Discd) Charged Couple Disc

Panchromatic film stands fora) Black & White b) Red & Blackc) Blue & grayd) Red & Green

Population data is a type of a) Attribute data b) Spatial data c) Vector datad) Measurable data

Which of the following is not a data structure?a) Hierarchalb) Relational c) Network d) Overlay

Parent-Child data relationship database is known as a) Hierarchalb) Relational c) Network d) All the above

Which of the following is not the data input technique for computer?a) Scanning b) Digitizing c) Printing d) All the above

Which of the following is not a map overlay technique?a) Point in polygon

b) Line in polygonc) Point in line d) Polygon in polygon

DBMS stand for?a) Database Maintain Softwareb) Digital Base Mapping Systemc) Database Management Systemd) Database Manipulation Software

Server Principles involvea) Connecting all the clientsb) Connecting all the softwarec) Connecting all the clients to the printer d) All the above

Name of the secondary storage device in the computer system isa) Hard disk.b) Floppy.c) CD or Compact-Disk.d) All the above.

What is the chance that a leap year selected at random will contain 53 Sundays?a) 2/7b) 7/2c) 3/7d) 7/3

A bag contains 3 red, 6 white and 7 blue balls, what is the probability that two balls drawn are white and blue?a) 7/20b) 8/20c) 20/7d) 6/20

ISO-hyets are drawn bya) Joining of rain gauge stations.b) Drawing perpendiculars lines c) Drawing lines of equal elevations.d) Drawing lines of equal precipitation depth for a given rainguages

Wind erosion is caused bya) Storms of high intensity.b) Poor management of land resources c) Poor maintenance of soild) All the above.

Watershed management isa) To conserve the waterb) To conserve the soil

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c) To conserve the soil and waterd) None of the above

Soil Erosion by raindrops is calleda) Rill erosion b) Inter –rill erosion c) Splash erosion d) Sheet erosion

Which soil type has a low detachability rate?.a) Find clayb) Coarse soilc) Silt loam d) Organic matter

Water harvesting primarily means a) Collection and preservation of rainwaterb) Harvesting water from drainsc) Diverting water to riversd) Removal of excess water from fields

In an Embankment, the core is made of a material which isa) Impermeableb) Permeable c) Porous d) Sandy

Sand dunes deposit is developed bya) Seab) Windc) Glacierd) Earth quakes

Marble is a type of a) Volcanic rockb) Plutonic rockc) Sedimentary rockd) Metamorphic rock

Evaporation is measured by a) Infiltrometerb) Pan-Evaporimeterc) Iso-heightsd) None of these.

Kharif season falls duringa) Jan-May.b) Oct-April.c) June-Sept.d) March-October.

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Hydrological cycle consists of a) Precipitationb) Evaporationc) Transpirationd) All of these

Hydrograph is related toa) Rainfall vs Time.b) Rainfall vs Runoff.c) Runoff vs Time.d) All the above.

Detachment of soil particles due to action of wind and water is called a) Erosionb) Sedimentation c) Siltation d) All the above

Rainfall is measured by the instruments of a) Floating methodb) Tipping Bucket.c) Simen Rain gauge.d) All the above.

Which of the following materials has the highest porosity?a) Clay b) Silt.c) Sandd) GravelThe ground surface is means of irregular elevation and depressions, shapes, plains are called.a) Topographyb) Geographyc) Geologyd) Land forms

It is a slow or sudden downhill movement of slope forming surface materials under the force of gravity.a) Earth Quakeb) Tsunamic) Land Slided) All the above

Environmental (Section code 10)

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The value of curl (grad ) is (i) b) c) Zero d) one


(i) b) c) d)

Saddle point of the function is(h) (a,a) b) c) (a,0) d) (1,1)


(i) b) c) d)


(i) (0,0) b) (0,1) c) (1,0) d) Nowhere analytic

Order of convergence in Newton-Raphson method is(i) One b) Two c) Three d) Four



a) 2 b) 3 c) 1 d) zero


a) 11 b) 12 c) 13 d) 14

In thermosphere, the temperature reaches a value of about --- at 500C.a) 400oC b) 600oC c) 300oC d) 1200oC

Nitric oxide is generated in

a) Forest Fires b) Industrial and Domestic heating c) Internal combustion engines d) All

Hydrosphere includesa) Ocean and seas b) Rivers, lakes and streams c) Glaciers d) All

The science which deals with the study of soil is calleda) Soil science b) Pedology c) Edaphology d) All

Wetlands generally do not provide

(a) Food b) Timber c) Fuel wood d) All

Which of the following life process are controlled by temperature? a) Reproduction b) Migration

c) Rate of embryonic Development d) All

Which of the following factors are responsible sometimes for affecting the Coloration of certain animals?

a) Temperature b) Humidity c) Light ( d) All

Which of the following activity in plants is affected by temperature?a) Morphology b) Physiologyc) Biochemistry d) Distribution

The activities of plants are influenced by a) Quality of light (wavelength) b) Quantity of light (Intensity)c) Duration of light d) All

Nitrogen is an essential Constituent of a) Chlorophyll b) DNA c) RNA d) All

Which of the following are natural ecosystems?a) Pond b) Lake c) Ocean d) All

Which of the following are the important sinks for most atmospheric gases?a) Oceans b) Plants c) Vegetation d) All

Which of the following is the product of anaerobic biological decay?a) NH3 b) H2S c) CH4 d) All

Which of the following is the major individual primary pollutants emitted by automobile exhaust?

a) NOx b) SO2 c) CO d) O3

Which of the following nitrogen oxide is the major air pollutant released from exhaust of automobiles?

a) NO b) N2O c) NO2 d) N2O5

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In Sonox process a nitrogen containing additive is used which is generally,a) Urea b) Ammonia c) Thiourea d) Ammonium Chloride

Carbogen is a mixture of a) O2 and CO2 b) O2 and CO c) O2 and Cl2 d) O2 and He

Solids in gas aerosol particles includes,a) Dust b) Smoke c) Fly ash d) Pollen grains

Compared to vehicle powered by the internal combustion engines, fuel cell powered vehicles

a) Have very high energy conversion efficiency b) Almost zero pollutionc) Emit CO2 and water vapor only d) All are correct

The reaction O2 + hv ? O + O, could occur if the wavelength of radiation is a) > 240 nm b) < 240nm c) 230-320 nm d) > 400 nm

The quality of spring water mainly depends on geological and topographical conditions. So spring water may be a) Hard or soft b) Pure or Polluted c) Saline or Alkalined) All

Odour in water can be eliminated by using a) Activated carbon b) Chlorination c) Aeration d) Chlorine dioxide

Thermal power plants pollute the water by adding a) Heavy metals b) Heat c) Dissolved solids d) Inorganic Compounds

Which of the following coagulant is temperature and pH sensitive? a) FeSO4.7 H2O b) Al2 (SO4)3. 18 H2O c) FeCl3 d) All

Which of the following can be used independently as coagulant with lime? a) Ferric Sulphate b) Ferric chloride c) Both d) None

The following salts present in boiler feed water may cause explosion and corrosion.

a) MgSO2 b) Mg Cl2 c) Na d) None

Which of the following waste often have higher BOD values than COD values?

a) Textile waste b) Diary waste c) Paper and pulp waste d) All

Water tends to move down the soil by a) Cracks created by drying b) Earthwormsc) Roots of plants d) All

On the basis of water retention by soil , water may be classified as a) Gravitational water b) Capillary water

c) Hydroscopic water d) All

Atypical soil consist of a) A number of elements b) Trace elements c) Inorganic Compounds d) All

The principal adverse effects of organ chlorines on humans include, a) Cancer b) Reproductive and development impairment c) Effects on liver and kidney functions d) Neurological impairment

The commonly used biopesticides source are : a) Bacillus thirugenesis b) Baculoviruses c)Trichoderma and trichogramma d) All

What is RAD? a) Radiation b) Radiation antidose c) Radiation absorbed dose d) All

Gray unit is equivalent to a) 10 rads b) 100 rads c) 100 rads d) 0.1 rad

Natural radioactive elements are a) Present in soil b) Present in rocks c) Formed by Cosmic rays d) All

The discharge of low level radioactive wastes is not entirely safe in a) Rivers b) Seas c) Oceans d) All

Which of the following statement are correct for a coal based plants?

a) It emits SO2 in the atmosphere b) It emits nitrogen oxides in atmosphere c) It is responsible for causing acid rain d) All

Which of the following statements are correct for thermal pollution?a) It decreases the dissolve oxygen content of water b) It changes the properties of water c) It increases the toxicity of poison present in water d) All

Bursting of crackers on Diwali causes (a) Noise pollution b) Air pollution c) Particulate pollution d) All

Breast milk may contain a) Dioxins b) DDT c) Polychlorinated biphenyls d) All

Chromium has been found to be present in a) Hairs b) Nails c) Blood d) All

No liquid can exists as liquid at a) – 273 K b)Vacuum c) Zero pressure d) Space

Which of the following is not the intensive property?a) Heat b) Pressure c) Temperature d) Density

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One Watt is equal toa) 1 N/m b) 1 Nm/s c) 1 Nm/h d) 1 Nm

Minimum work in compressor is possible when the adiabatic index n is equal toa) 1.1 b) 1.25 c)1.4 d)1.0

heat engine is supplied with heat rate of 30,000 J/s and gives output of 9 kW.

Thermal efficiency of engine will bea) 30% b) 33% c) 40% d) 50%

Diesel cycle efficiency is maximum when the cut-off isa) Maximum b) Minimum c) Zero d) One

Second law of thermodynamics definesa) Enthalpy b) Entropy c) Temperature d) Work

Expansion process in nozzles is a a) Isothermal b) Isobaric c) Isochoric d) Isentropic

Flameless combustion meansa) Inert gas combustion b) Invisible combustionc) Catalytic combustion d) Combustion in vacuum

The theoretical air fuel ratio in petrol engine is a) 6:1 b) 9:1 c) 12:1 d)16:1

The spark plug gap is normally maintained ata) 0.2 mm b) 0.3 mm c) 0.4 mm d) 0.5 mm

Sulphur content in Diesel oil should not be more than a) 10% b) 5% c) 1% d) 0.1%

Why pH measurement is an important factor in water analysis?

a) Measures acidity and alkalinity b) Gives pure water c) Kills bacteria d) All

What is BOD? a) Maximum amount of oxygen required b) Minimum amount of oxygen required c) Decomposition by chemicals

d) None

Why cow dung burning is hazardous to health? a) Benzopyrene in smokes b) Phosgene in smokes c) Benzene release d) All

What is sewage sludge? a) Solid waste after treatment b) Liquid waste c) Gases d) All

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What is land fill operation? a) Depositing of refuge b) Excavating of land c) Compacting of land d) All

What are biofertilizers? a) Chemically active products b) Biologically active products c) Physically active products d) None

Why Gamma rays are not regarded as particles? a) No volume b) No mass c) No weight d) All

Cosmic rays are mixtures of corpuscular and electromagnetic radiations? a) Contain alpha, beta & gamma particles b) Alpha & beta particles c) Gamma rays d) All

Radio active materials that emit alpha or beta particles are known as internal emitters. a) It is helpful b) Severely affects the living tissues c) It destroy life d) None

Infrared light is also called heat radiation? a) Produces warmth in man b) Produces heat c) Produces light d) None

Mention the important factors responsible for the quality of unpleasantness of Sound waves. a) Frequency of sound b) Intensity of sound c) Time of exposure d) All

When is a sound called musical sound? a) Periodic b) Regular c) Of long duration d) All

The largest noise a man can hear without much discomfort is a) 80 dB b) 90 dB c) 50 dB d) 110 dB

What is loudness? a) Intensity of sound waves b) Frequency of sound waves c) Noise d) All

What is dB unit? a) 1/10th of Bel b) 1/110th of Bel c) 1/20th of Bel d) None

Name some important sources of chromium a) Paint industry b) Alloy industry c) Glass industry d) All

Cadmium is a cumulative poison. What are the main parts of the body which are affected by cadmium poisoning? a) Lungs b) Kidneys c) Respiratory tract d) All

What is dental fluorosis? a) Enamel of teeth loss b) Teeth breaking c) Flourine deposition d) None

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Which of the following are known to be extremely toxic? a) Lead b) Cadmium c) Mercury d) All

How copper reaches the aquatic environment a) Physiological process b) Wet or dry deposition c) Mining action d) None

What is solid waste? a) Organic material b) Inorganic material c) Both a & b d) None

What is biomethanization? a) Production of methane b) Production of Biogas

c) Decomposition d) All

Why press mud is used as manure? a) Rich in organic matter b) High calorific value

c) Good quality d) All

TIN stands for a) Triangular Irregular network b) Triangle Irrigational Networkc) Both a and b d) None

The system for referring location and the earth is known asa) Attribute system b) Quardinate systemc) Raster system d) Vector system

RF stands fora) Representation fraction b) Refraction factorc) Rotation factor d) All

In conical projection which of the following property preserveda) Direction b) Motion c) Mass d) Equation

Azimuthal projection is best suited fora) Mountain region b) Terrain regionc) Polar region d) All

The geographical coordinate system that make use of network of parallel and meridian is known as

a) Graticule b) Directionc) Line d) Parallel

The representation of real world picture with in the spatial frame work of a particular coordinate system known as

a) Projection b) Mapc) Globe d) All

Buffer zone around a point feature will be a a) Circle b) Pointc) Line d) Polygon

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The remote sensing image is a a) True colour b) False colour compositec) Both a and b d) None

Along track scanning is known asa) Push broom b) Whisk broomc) White broom d) Red broom

The first satellite of Indiaa) IRS b) Aryabhattac) Chandrayan-1 d) Geo-eye

The raster data model is based on which of the followinga) Grid cells or Pixels b) Tessellationsc) Pessellations d) All

What does 1mm on a map drawn at scale of 1in 50000 represented on the ground?

a) 25m b) 50m c) 75m d) 100m

Which of the following is not a type of map projection? a) Geographi b) Topographyc) Stereograph d) Monograph

c

Food Processing (Section code 11)

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Which is not a Indicator microorganism?a) Listeria monocytogenesb) Mycobacterium tuberclosisc) Enterococcus faecalisd) Staphylococcus areas

Example for food intoxication is a) Botulismb) Yersiniosisc) Shigellosisd) Vibriosis Food containing live microorganisms to actively enhance health by improving the balance of micro flora in the gut is called asa) Pre bioticb) Probioticc) Bioticd) All the aboveWhich is not a probiotic organism?

b)

d)The term single cell protein was coined by a) C.L. Wilsonb) Nicolas appret c) C.L.Williamd) Jhonson.SWhich is not a fermented product from milk?a) Cheeseb) Yogurtc) Kefir d) TempehDestruction of pathogenic organism is called as a) Pasteurization b) Sterilizationc) Destruction d) None of these Time temperature combination for HTSTa) 72oC for 15 secb) 70oC for 15 secc) 62oC for 15 secd) 75oC for 15 secWhich is not an Antioxidant?a) Butylated hydroxy anisole (BHA) b) Butylated hydroxy toulene (BHT) c) t-butyl hydroxy quinoline(TBHQ) d) EDTA

a) L.fermentum B.lactis

c) Streptococcus thermophilusNone of these

10.

11.a)b)c)d)

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

Which has the optimum temperature range between 10 to 15 °C for easy growth?a) Thermophillic organism b) Mesophillic organismc) Psychrophillic organism d) Psychrotrophs

By using hullers the average yield of white rice is obtained as55-62%62-64%65-67%68-71%

pH of honey is

a) 2.3 to 2.9b) 3.2 to 4.2c) 5.6 to 6.9d) 7.0 to 8.1

D value is indicated in

a) Minute b) Degree Fahrenheitc) Log number

Degree centigrade

In jam and jellies, which of the following is most likely to be responsible for the spoilage?

a) Bacteria onlyb) Molds onlyc) Yeast and moldsd) Yeasts, molds and bacteria

Which model is used to explain the cell structure of bacteria?

a) Fluid mosaic modelb) pumkin modelc) Pasteur model

None of the above

Preservation of foods in sealed containers and which usually implies heat treatment s the principal factor in the prevention of spoilage is called

a) Cold sterilizationb) Canningc) Aseptic packagingd) Simmering

Mordant is used in staining of flagella

d)

d)

a) Ethyl chloride b) Tannic acidc) Cetyl pyramidine chloride d) Pottassium picolinate

Alcohol content is beer is (by weight)

a) 3-4%b) 5-12%c) 20-23%d) 35-38%

Which staining technique is best suited to know the shape of microorganism?

a) Positive stainingb) Negative stainingc) Fluorescent stainingd) Acid fast staining

Rum is

a) Distilled liquorb) Un Distilled liquorc) Fortified wined) By product of brewing industry

Fourier’s Law of heat conduction applies to a) Convectionb) Conductionc) Radiationd) All the above

1 gm mole of the gaseous substance occupiesa) 22.414 litb) 22.414 kgc) 22.414 gmd) 22.414 cm3

Which of the following has the highest thermal conductivity?a) Brickb) Sandc) Copperd) Wood

Kopps rule is used to finda) Heat capacity of solidsb) Molar heat capacity of gaseousc) Activation energyd) Heat capacity of liquids

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

Dry air is a mixturea) Vapoursb) Gasesc) Both a) and b)d) Either a) or b)

Claussius Clapergron equation applies to ------processesa) Sublimation b) Meltingc) Vaporizationd) All the above

Economy of an evaporator is influenced bya) Steam pressureb) Temperature of the feedc) Number of effectd) Both b and c

In a continuous stirred tank Bio reactor all the cells will be completely washout when D is a) 1b) <1c) >1d) 0

In a single effect evaporator, the economy isa) 1b) <1c) >1d) none of theses

The rate of cell death follows--------------kineticsa) Second orderb) Zero orderc) First orderd) Both b) and c)

----------- chart is a graph related to Antoine equationa) Ostwaldb) COXc) Mollier’sd) Enthalpy Concentration

The dimension of dynamic viscosity isa) L-1T-1

b) L2T-1

c) LT-2

d) ML-1T-2

The value of gas constant ‘R’ is ----- Kcal/Kg mole C

a) 2.79b) 1.987c) 3.99d) None of these

Idli is a a) Natural foodb) Non vegetarian foodc) Fermented foodd) Baked foodWhat may be a reason for the relative success of bacterial forms?a) Rapid multiplication in numberb) High surface area to volumec) Rapid metabolic ratesd) All of them

The quantity of heat required to raise 1 kg of a substance by 1oC is known asa) Sensible heat b) Specific heat c) Latent heat d) Calorie

Velocity of steam in a pipe depends on a) Number of bends b) Length of pipe c) Specific volume of steam d) None of the above

In a sterilized soap bubble, pressure inside it compare to external pressure is a) Moreb) Lessc) Equald) Unpredictable

The unit of kinematic viscosity isa) Kg/m secb) N/m2

c) m2/secd) m/N sec

Wheat is ground into flour in a a) Roller crusherb) Impact millc) Hammer crusherd) Fluid energy mill

Holo enzyme is a) Protein part along with non-protein part of an enzyme b) Prosthetic groupc) Non-protein part of an enzyme

34.

35.

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

41.

d) Protein part of an enzyme

One of the follwing is coenzyme a) ATPb) Riboflavin c) NADH2

d) Iron

Coenzymes are vitamins a) True b) Falsec) True but not all vitaminsd) None of these

Ribose is a a) Ketopentoseb) Aldohexosec) Keto hexosed) Aldoketose

Amylose is a) Heteropolysaccharideb) Straight chain homo polysaccharidec) Branched chain polysaccharided) Protein

The carbohydrate moiety in bacterial cells a) Peptidoglycon b) Glucose and glucosec) Galactose and galactose d) Galactose and glucose Milk sugar is ---------------- and cane sugar is -------------------a) Lactose and sucrose b) Sucrose and lactosec) Glucose and sucrose d) Lactose and sucrose Protein component of egg is a) Casein b) Albumin c) Olein d) Linolein Protein calorie malnutrition (PCM) leads to the disease a) Kwashiorkor and Marasmus b) Anemia c) Beri beri d) Dwarfism --------------is one of the amino fatty acids. a) Glycine b) DOPAc) Tryptophan d) linoleic acid

42.

43.

44.

45.

46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

51.

52.

53.

54.

55.

56.

57.

58.

59.

60.

Site of Tri carboxylic acid a) Cytolpasm of cells b) Mitochondria c) Lysosomes d) Peroxysomes Every NADH2 yields --------- ATP molecules during electron transport a) 3b) 2c) 1d) 5The other name for vitamin A is a) Calciferolb) Niacinc) Retinol d) Ascorbic acid --------------is anti haemorrhagic vitamin a) Vitamin Kb) Vitamin A c) Vitamin Ed) Vitamin CIodine deficiency in human beings lead to the disease called a) Osteoporosisb) Blindness c) Anemia d) Goitre Acetyl COA acid is a) 3 carbon compoundb) 2 carbon compound c) 5 carbon compoundd) none of the above Site of photolysis of water a) Grana thylakoids of plastids b) Cytoplasmc) Mitochondria d) Golgi apparatus Deposition of excess fat molecules in inner wall of artery leads to a) Aterio sclerosisb) Jaundice c) Beriberid) None of these

Transcription is the process of a) Generation of mRNA from nuclear DNAb) synthesis of proteinc) Cleavage of heterogeneous RNAd) Synthesis of long chain fatty acids.Trypsin and chymotrypsin are a) Vitaminsb) Lipolytic enzymec) Therapeutic agents d) Proteolytic enzymes

De nova

61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

66.

67.

68.

69.

Food containing live microorganisms to actively enhance health by improving the balance of micro flora in the gut is called asa) Pre bioticb) Probioticc) Bioticd) All the above

Entrance of microorganisms into the body through the ingestion of contaminated foods is called a) Food infection b) Food intoxication c) Food contamination d) None of these Among these which one is a bacterium? a) Alternaria b) Monilla c) Cryptococcusd) PediococcusWhat is the antimicrobial constituent present in eggsa) Allicinb) Lysozyme c) Allyl isothiocynated) Eugenol

Cereal grains are ……..in naturea) Hydrophilicb) Hydrophobicc) Hydrothermald) Non thermalPercentage of Bran in Wheat isa) 13%b) 18%c) 14% d) 12%The differential speed b/w in the break roll isa) 1:2.5b) 2.5:1c) 2:2.5d) 3:2.5In Parboiling ,Gelatinization of starch takesplace duringa) Soakingb) Dryingc) Heatingd) Steaming

What are the raw materials can be used to manufacture fishmeal a) high fat fishb) small by catch fishc) waste from fish processing & filleting plantsd) all the above

70.

71.

72.

73.

74.

75.

76.

77.

78.

________ is the process to remove high melting glycerides in the oila) degermingb) winterizationc) both a&bd) none of the above

_________ can serve as a good raw material for the preparation of amino acids

a) Fish protein b) Meat protein c) Both a and b d) none of the above

Which dairy product contains gelatin?a) butter b) cheese c) icecream d) rabriWhat is fat:casein ratio in cheddar cheese making?a) 1:0.38 to 1:0.40 b) 1:0.48 to 1:0.50c) 1:0.58 to 1:0.60d) 1:0.68 to 1:0.70When the milk flows through the homogenisation valuea) pressure head increasesb) velocity head increasesc) velocity head decreasesd) pressure head is equal to velocity

Unsaturated fatty are stabilized by a) hydrogenation b) antioxidants c) cold storage d) all the above

Linoleic acid is example of a) essential fatty acidb) b saturated fatty acidc) c. unsaturated fatty acid d) d. poly unsaturated fatty acidThe common pigment used in glass manufacturing isa) Dyeb) Metal salt c) Cashew nut shell oild) none of these

Biodegradable plastics is degradablea) completely within short timeb) partially within short time

.

c) partially even after long period

For O2 sensitive food, best packaging method isa) MHPb) Vacuumc) MAPd) shrink-film wrapping technique

Acid content in jelly isa) 0.2 to 0.3b) 0.1 to 0.2c) 0.4 to 0.5d) 0.5 to 0.7Recommended head space for can is a) 0.3 to 0.5cmb) 0.1 to 0.2cmc) 0.8 to 1cmd) head space is not neededFPO recommended dosage level of so2 in fruit juice isa) 200ppmb) 500ppmc) 700ppmd) totally banned

Ham is made froma) Tie of pigb) Rips of pigc) Belly of pigd) All the aboveWhen Rigor mortis occurs a) a.Before deathb) b.After deathc) c.Both a and bd) d. None of these Edible sausage casing is made witha) a Sheep Gutb) b.Polyethylene bags c) Esophagusd) d.All the above The wastes from meat industry are utilized by the processa) Steam smokingb) Rendering c) Smoking d) None of these

Large crystals are formed at a) slow coolingb) Fast coolingc) a & bd) none of the above

79.

80.

81.

82.

83.

84.

85.

86.

87.

)

88.

89.

90.

91.

92.

93.

94.

95.

Distribution of components between a vapor phase and a liquid phase is called a) crystallizationb) distillationc) evaporationd) mechanical separation

Membrane pore size for reverse osmosis isa) 10-3-10-2b) b)10-2-10-3c) 10-4-10-3d) d)10-1-10+1

Sedimentation by forming agglomerates or clusters is called a) flotationb) flocculationc) gravity settlingd) none of the above

Rate of penetration of medium into a bacterial cell does not depend on

a) Nutrient of mediumb) Growth phasec) Temperaturesd) None of the above

Which of the following statements is /are correct?

a) Growth rate is reciprocal of generation timeb) Generation time of is 8 min at 370C in brothc) Both a and bd) Neither a nor b

The difference between a chemostat and turbidostat is /are

a) The dilution rate in a turbidostat varies and in chemostat it is constantb) Unlike chemostat, turbidostat does not have any limiting nutrientc) Turbidostat operates best at high dilution rates, the chemostat is most

stable an effective at lower dilution rated) All of the above

Turbidostat and chemostat are

a) Continuous culture systemb) Instrument to enumerate the microbial cellsc) Type of sterilizerd) Type of fermenter

The rate of nutrient exchange in a chemostat is expressed as

Bacillus subtitles

a) Maintenance energyb) Dilution ratec) Flow rate of medium through the culture vessel d) None of the above

Which of the following stains can be used to differentiate between dead and living cells?

a) Acridine orangeb) Methylene bluec) Resazurin d) All of the above

DEFT is based on

a) Conductanceb) Direct microbial count using microscopec) Turbidityd) Cellular activity

Total plate count method is being expressed in

a) Number of cell/mlb) C.F.U./mlc) Optical densityd) None of the above

During the dye reduction test using reassuring the colour change taking place is

a) Blue to greenb) Green to bluec) Pink to blued) Blue to pink

Most heat resistant spores is

a)b)c)d)

96.

97.

98.

99.

100.

Staphylococcus aureusClostridium botalinumCl. sporogenesBacillus stearothermophillus

ANSWER

Q.No Ans1 d2 b3 d4 a5 b

6 a7 d8 c9 c

10 c11 d12 a13 d14 c15 b16 d17 b18 c19 a20 b21 c22 c23 d24 b25 c26 a27 a28 c29 d30 b31 a32 a33 a34 d35 c36 d37 b38 c39 d40 d41 b42 c43 c44 a45 b46 b47 d48 c49 b50 a51 c52 b53 d54 c55 c56 b57 d58 c

59 d60 a61 d62 a63 c64 a65 c66 a67 b68 a69 c70 a71 d72 a73 b74 d75 b76 d77 d78 c79 a80 a81 c82 c83 d84 c85 d86 b87 c88 b89 b90 c91 a92 a93 c94 c95 b96 b97 a98 c99 b

100 b

MODEL QUESTI ONS – B.Tech

Part 1. - Physics

1. Which of the following pairs DOES NOT have the same dimensions?

a) frequency and angular frequencyb) angular velocity and veloc ity gradientc) velocity gradient and angular frequencyd) angular frequency and potential energy gradient

2. The velocity of a particle depends upon t as V = A + Bt + ct 2 . If velocity is in , the unit of A will be

a) b) 2 c) d)

3. Which of the following fou r statements is false?

a) A body can have zero velocity and still be acceleratedb) A body can have a constant velocity and still have a varying speedc) A body can have a constant speed and still have a varying velocity d) The direction of the velocity of a body can change when its acceleration is constant

4. The displacement of a body in motion is given by = a sin ( t+ ). The time at which the displacement is maximum is:

a) b) 2

c) 2

d) 2

5. The position of a particle moving along x – axis is given by = 3t – 4t 2 +t 3 , where is in metre and t in seconds . The average velocity of the particle in the time interval from t = 2 seconds to t = 4 seconds is

a) 7 b) 1 c) 13 d) None of these

6. An object A of mass 2 kg is moving with a veloc ity of 3 ms 1 and collides head on with an object B of mass 1 kg moving in the opposite direction with a velocity of 4 ms 1 . After collision both objects coalesce so that they move with a common velocity v equal to

a) 32

ms 1 b) 1 ms 1 c) 2 ms 1 d) 3 ms 1

7. The motion of planets in the solar system is an example of conservation of

a) mass b) momentumc) angular momentumd) kinetic energy

m/s

m/s m/s m.s m2/s

x x

x x

m/s m/s m/s

ω θ

ωθ

−ωθ

ωπ

ωπ

−ωθ

ωπ

−

−

− − − −

8. The velocity time graphs of two bodies A and B are shown in figure. The ratio of their acceleration is:

a) 1 : 3 b) 1 : 3 c) 3 : 1 d) 3 : 2

9. For a satellite, escape velocity is 11 . If the satellite is launched at an angle of 60 0 with

the vertical, then escape velocity will be

a) 11 b) 11 3 c) 3

11d) 33

10. There are two bodies of masses 100 kg and 10,000 kg separated by a distance of 1m. At what distance from the smaller body, the intensity of gravitational field will be zero.

a) 9

1 m b) 10

1 m c) 11

1 m d) 11

10 m

11. A liquid will not wet the surface of a solid if its ang le of contact is

a) zerob) less than 90 0

c) more than 90 0

d) 90 0

12. In a simple harmonic moti on (SHM), which of the following does not hold?

a) The force on the particle is maximum at the ends.b) The acceleration is minimum at the mean positionc) The potential energy is maximum at the mean position d) The kinetic energy is maximum at the mean position

13. What will be the wave velocity, if the radar gives 54 waves per minute and wavelength of the given wave is 10m?

a) 4 b) 6 c) 9 d) 5

14. A bomb explodes on the moon. How long will it take far the sound to reach the earth?

a) 10 s b) 1000 s c) 1 light year d) None of these

skm

km/s km/s km/s km/s

m/s m/s m/s m/s

15. Two gases are at absolute temperatures of 300k and 350 k respectively. Ratio of average kinetic energy of their molecules is

a) 7 : 6 b) 6 : 7 c) 36 : 49 d) 49 : 36

16. Two identical samples of a gas are allowed to expand a) isothermally b) adiabatically Work done is

a) more in the isothermal processb) more in the adiabatic processc) neither of them d) equal in both processes

17. An ideal heat engine exhausting heat at 77 0C is to have 30% efficiency. It must take heat at

a) 127 0 c b) 227 0 c c) 327 0 c d) 673 0 c

18. In a p – n junction having dep letion layer of thickness 10 6 m the pot ential across it is 0.1 V. The electric field is --------------Vm 1

a) 10 7 b) 10 6 c) 10 5 d) 10 5

19. The diode used in the circuit shown in the figure has a constant voltage drop of 0.5V at all currents and a maximum power rating of 100 milliwatts. What should be the value of the resistor R, connected in ser ies with the diode, for obtaining maximum current?

a) 1.5 b) 5 c) 6.67 d) 200

20. The mass number of Helium is 4 an d that for sulphur is 32. The radius o f sulphur nucleus is larger than that of Helium, by

a) 8 times b) 4 times c) 2 times d) 8 times

21. In Nuclear Fission 0.1% mass is converted in to energy. The energy released by the fission of 1 kg mass will be

a) 9 x 10 16 J b) 9 x 10 19 J c) 9 x 10 13 J d) 9 x 10 17 J

22. Half life of a radioactive substance is 140 days. Initially there is 16g of the substance. Calculate the time for this substance when it reduces in to 1g.

a) 140 days b) 280 days c) 420 days d) 560 days

−

−

− −

Ω Ω Ω Ω

23. The ratio of the long wavelength limits of the Lyman and Balmer series of hydrogen is

a) 27 : 5 b) 5 : 27 c) 4 : 1 d) 1 : 4

24. Light of wavelength 5000 Å falls on a sensitive plate with photoelectric work function of 1.9 eV. The kinetic energy of the photoelectron emitted will be

a) 0.58 eV b) 2.48 eV c) 1.24 eV d) 1.16 eV

25. The population inversion necessary for laser action used in solid state l asers is

a) electrical dischargeb) inelastic atom – atom collisionc) direct conversiond) optical pumping

26. A magnet of moment 2 Am 2 is placed in a uniform magnetic field of 5 Wb/m 2 . If the magnet experiences a torque of 5 Nm, then the angle between the direction of magnetic field and magnet is

a) 6

b) 4

c) 3

d) 2

27. The reduction factor of a tangent galvanometer is . If the number of turns and area of cross section of the coil are doubled, then the reduction factor becomes

a) 2

b) 2 c) 2

d) 2 K

28. The Focal length of a convex lens will be maximum for

a) blue light b) yellow light c) green light d) red light

29. In the Young’s double slit experiment using sodium light ( 5898 Å), 92 fringes are seen. If the green colour ( 5461Å is used , how many fringes will be seen

a) 62 b) 67 c) 75 d) 99

30. In the figure distance of the point from A where the electric field is zero is

a) 20 cm b) 10 cm c) 33 cm d) None of these

31. A parallel plate capacitor is first charged and then a dielectric slab is intro duced between the plates. The quantity that remains unchanged is

a) charge Q b) Potential V c) Capacity C d) Energy U

π π π π

=λ=λ

K

KK

K

32. The equivalent resistance between A & B of the circuit shown in the given figure is

a) 9 b) 4 c) 2 d) 1

33. As the temperature of hot junction increases, the thermo emf

a) always increases b) always decreases c) may increase and decreased) always remains constant

34. A moving charge will produce

a) only a magnetic field b) only a electric fieldc) both electric and magnetic fieldd) none of these

35. The energy stored in a coil of self inductance 40mH carrying a steady current of 2A is

a) 0.08 J b) 0.8 J c) 80 J d) 8 J

Ω Ω Ω Ω

Part 2. – Chemistry

36.

44 & 22 &

33 & 43 &

37.

38.

39.

40. )()( 242 )(2025

394 286 )(42

41.

20100

log5303.2

%20

100log

20303.2

%20

45

log303.2

%20 80log

100303.2

%20

42.

43.

33 )(&)( 33 )(&)(

33 )(&)( 33 )(&)(

44.

2256 ;; 2256 ;;

3256 ;; 2266 ;;

In which of the following pairs (of molecules / ions) the central atom has the same hybridisation?

a) b)

c) c)

Dissociation constant of a weak acid is 1 10 6 at 25o C. Find the of 0.01 of its aqueoussolution.(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 10 (d) 12

Assertion (A): Molar mass of acetic acid found by the depression of freezing point method, separately inthe solvents water and benzene are different.Reason(R):Waterhelps in ionizationbut benzenebrings associationof acetic acid. Identify the correctoption.

(a) Both A and R are correct; R is the correct explanation for ‘A’(b) Both A and R are correct; but R is not the correct explanation for ‘A’(c) A is true but R is false(d) A is false but R is true

2,4,6-Tribromophenol is for med when the organic compound ‘ ’ reacts with ‘ ’ in the presence of . What are and ?a) b)

c) d)

Enthalpy of formation of and at and I atm pressure are 52,

and KJ/mol respectively. Enthalpy of combustion of

a) b) c) d)

Identify the formula which is applicable to the conversion of 20% of the initial concentration of thereactant to the product in a first order reaction. (Rate constant = )

a) b)

c) d)

Chloroform and alcoholic can be used to differentiate -(a) 3 & 3 3 (b) & 3

(c)3 2

& (3)

2(d)

2 5 &

3 3

Strongest andthe weakest bases among the hydroxides of Lanthan ides are respectively

a) b)

c) d)

In a cubic unit cell, the following atom / ion occ upy the posit ions as mentioned below.... In the centre of the cube

... (Tung ston) At the corners of the cube... (Oxygen) At the centre of the edges.

(Formula of the compound is )(a)

2(b)

3(c)

2 3(d)

4

−

+

× −

− −

= =

= =

−

ClOXeF SOBeCl

ClFBH NHNH

gCOgHC lOH C

isgHC

tK

t

Kt

Kt

OHLaOHLu OHLuOHLa

OHCeOHLa OHNdOHPm

CSBrOHHC OHBrOHHC

FeBrBrCHOHC OHBrHC

pO H M

X Y ZX, Y Z

+1412 KJ/mol -1412 KJ/mol+141.25 KJ/mol -141.2 KJ/mol

K

KOHCH CHO CH COCH HCOOH CH COOHCH NH CH NH C H OH CH OCH

Na

WO

NaWO NaWO Na WO NaWO-

45.

46.

47. 22 22

48.

49.

50.

51.

52. 14

2

41

)( 2)(

21

)( 2)(

53.

54.

In which of the following aspects both physical adsor ption and chemical adsorption, resemble? Both are ......(a) exothermic (b) multimolecular layered(c) reversible (d) found more at high temperature

Among the following ions, wh ich has the highest spin magnetic moment?(At . No: = 22; = 25; = 28; Cu = 29).

(a) 2+ (b) 3+ (c) 2+ (d) 2+

(g) (g) (g)At equilibrium volume of the reaction vessel is incre ased. As a result the amount of -(a)

2will decrease (b)

2 2will increase

(c)2will increase (d)

2will remain unchanged

Which of the following reagents can convert acetone to acetic acid?(a)

3;

4(b)

4

(c) Conc. (d) 2 ; dilute

A large increase from the first to the second ionisation energy of anelement‘A ’ can be seen if it s e lec tronic configuration is -(a) 1 2 2 2 2 6 3 1 (b) 1 2 2 2 2 6 3 2

(c) 1 2 2 2 2 5 (d) 1 2 2 2 2 6 3 2 3 2

2 2 7+ + 6

2 4 2 2+ 6

4+

2and are respectively

(a) 4, 2, 3 (b) 6, 2, 6(c) 8, 2, 4 (d) 4, 1, 6

Which o f the following reacta nts combine to produce6 6

,2and ?

(a)6 5 2

, Hot2

(b)5 5 2 6 5

(c)6 5 2

,2 2

(d)6 5 2

, 3 2

, 2

In the nuclear transformation of to thenumber of beta particles ‘n’

is equal to

a) b)

c) d)

At a certain temperature vapour pressure of pure water is 3000 2. To 100 gms of water, 5 gms of non-electrolyte and non- volatile solute is added. Vapour pressure of the solution is 2985 -2. Assume thatit is a dilute solution, find the molar massof the solute.(a) 90 (b) 180 (c) 200 (d) 270

Wh ich of the following in pairs is wrongly matched?I II

(a) Terylene 2 2

(b) Nylon 6,62 2

(2)

4 2 2

(c) Buna-S-Rubber 6 5 2

(d) Bakelite2 5

Ti Mn Ni

Cu Ti Ni Mn

SO SO ClCl Cl

AgNO NH OH LiAlHHCl I , NaOH HCl

S S P S S S P SS S P S S P S P

K Cr O x KCl H SO y Cr O Cl KHSO z H O, x, y z

C H N HClC H N Cl H O C H N Cl, C H OHC H N Cl HCl, Cu Cl C H N Cl H PO H O

X Y

NmNm

OH CH CH OH NH CH CH CH NH

C H CH = CHC H OH

ClSO ClSO

nHemYX h

l

i

j

Ki mjl

jl mlK

º +

→

°++→ − β

− +−

− −−

−

− −

55.

56..23

33

563

d) .2256

57.

8.3 14.1c) 342.0 d) 28.2

58.

3

59.

60.

61. Find the correct statement about crystal defects. a) schottky defect makes a crystal elec trically ch arged. b) frenkel defect alters the density of the crystal. c) metal excess defect gives colour to the crystal d) metal deficiency defect can be found in the halides of alkali metals.

62. Which of the following conve rsions involves gain of 5 electrons per ion? a) 2

4 b) 2 34

c) 24 2 d) 2 3

2 7 2

63. Sodium reacts with water to give H2 gas and the solution contains substance ‘A’ zinc metal reacts solution ‘A’ to give the same H2 gas. Compound ‘A’ is

a) 2 b) c) 2 3 d) 3

64. Meso form can be obtained in- a) 1,2 – Dichlorobutane b) 1,4 – Dichlorobutane c) 2,3 – Dichlorobutane d) 1,3 – Dichlorobutane

65. Decomposition of ozone can be caused by a) atomic he lium b) water vapour c) dust particles d) atomic ch lorine

In the aqueous medium, which of the following ion is colourless ?(At. No. of = 21 ; = 22 ; = 23 & = 26).(a) 3+ (b) 3+ (c) 3+ (d) 3+

Among the following themost stable free radical is

a)

b)

c)

X-rays of wave-length 1.14 A in the first order reflection from a crysta l, were reflected at an angle of30o.The inter planar distance in the crystal is (sin 30o is 0.5)

a) b)

One litre of an aqueous solution has 3.65 gms of HCl. It is desired to increase the of the solution to 2.

Then ion concentration present initially should be

a) Also doubled b) Reduced to halfc) Increased by 10 times d) Reduced by 10 times

Which amo ng the following is a Polyamide Polymer?(a) Terylene (b) Buna-S-rubber(c) Polystyrene (d) Nylon 6,6

Which among the following is used as antacid?(a) Aspirin (b) Phenacetin(c) ( )3 + ( )2 (d) -Hydroxy azo benzene.

Sc Ti V FeSc Ti V Fe

pH

Al OH Mg OH P

−

•

•

° °

° °

+

− +→ − +→− → − +→

CHCH

CHCHCH

HCCHCH

CHCHHC

A AA A

OH

MnO Mn CrO Cr

MnO MnO Cr O Cr

Na O NaOH Na CO NaHCO

66. Normality of 0.25 M phosphorus acid 3 3 is a) 0.125 b) 0.75 c) 0.50 d) 0.25

67. Which of the following sets cont ains oxides in the sequence of basic, amphoteric and acidic in nature respectively?

a) 2 2 3, , b) 2 3 2 2, ,

c) 2 2 5, , d) 2 3 2, ,

68. Among 2, , and 2 compounds with maximum and minimum ionic character are respectively.

a) ; b) 2; c) 2; d) 2 2;

69. Between actinides and lanthanides, the complex formation tendency is more for a) lanthanides because of high chemical reactivity b) lanthanides due to greater stability. c) actinides as they have variable oxidation states. d) actinides due to high charge to size ratio

70. A solid mixture has benzoic acid and naphthalene. From this naphthalene can be separated by using

a) aqueous b) cold water c) benzene d) diethylet her

H PO

CaO SiO Al O Al O CO SiO

CO SO P O BaO Al O SiO

LiCl RbCl BeCl MgCl

LiCl RbCl RbCl BeCl RbCl MgCl MgCl BeCl

NaOH

Maths – Part 3

71. If 0

2 1 0

and ? 21

, then a, b, c are in

a) A.P b) G.P c) H.P d) none of the above

72. If sin x + cosec x = 2, then sinnx + cosecnx is equal to

a) 2n b) 2 c) 2n-1 d) 2n-1

73. The value of tan )32

(tan)54

(cos 11 is

a)161

b)167

c)7

16d) none

74. If a, b, c are in G.P, x, y are the A.M of a, b and b, c, respectively, then _____

1) 3 b) 1 c) 2 d) 5

75. The equation of the plane containing the line 1

22

331

and the point (0, 7, -7) is

a) x+y+z = 1 b) x+y+z=2 c) x+y+z=0 d) None of these

76. Foot of the perpendicular from the point (2, 2, 2) in the plane x+y+z = 9 is

a) (1, 1, 1) b) (3, 3, 3) c) (9, 0, 0) d) (2, 6, 1)

77. The solution of the equation 9 x+78 = 32x+3 is

a) 2 b) 3 c) 1/3 d) ½

78. The area of the quadrilateral formed by the tangents at the end points of latus rectum to the

ellipse 2 2

19 5

is

a)427

sq units b) 9 sq units

c)227

sq units d) None of the above

a b d d

b c b c

y

cx

a

zyx

x y

α

α

−

− = ∝

+ −−

=+

+=

−=

−+

+ =

79. If 2 2

12 2

x y dycos log a, then

x y dxis equal to:

a) y

xb)

x

yc)

2

2

x

yd)

2

2

y

x

80. The image of the point (1, 6, 3) on the line x y 1 z 2

1 2 3 is

a) 1, 6, 7 b) 1, 6, 7

c) 1, 0, 7 d) 1,1, 7

81. sin xsin x cos xe cos x dx

1 sin 2x

a) sin xe c b) sin x cos xe

c) sin x co s xe c d) cos x sin xe c

82. If A = If

cos sin 0

A sin cos 0 ,

0 0 0

q q

q q then A3 will be a null matrix i f and only if

a) 2K 1 k 12

b) 4K 1 k 13

c) 3K 1 k 14

d) none of these

83. If x is the mean of n observations x1, x2 ………x n, then the mean of 1 2 nx x x, ,...

a a ais

a)x

ab) x a

c) ax d) 2a x

84. The value of sin 10° + sin 20° + sin 30° + ………. + s in 360 ° is

a) 1 b) 0 c) -1 d) 2

− −= +

− −= =

( ) ( )− −

( ) ( )− −

−=

−∫

+ −

+ + − +

− =

( ) ( )πθ = + ∈

( ) ( )πθ = − ∈

( ) ( )πθ = − ∈

+

85. The degree and order of the differential equation 222 where is

a) (2, 1) b) (2, 2) c) (1, 2) d) (1, 1)

86. The coefficient of the term independent of x in the expansion of 9

23

3

1

2

3)21( is

a)5417

b)31

c)5419

d)41

87. A pack of playing cards was found to contain only 51 cards , if the first 13 cards which a re examined are all red, then the probability that the missing card is blac k

a)31

b)21

c) 13

13

25

51d)

32

88.cos1sin

a) )2

tan( b) )2

cot( c) )cos1(log d) )sinlog(

89. If the focus of the parabola is at (0, -3), and its directrix direction is y=3, then its equation is _____

a) x2 = -12y b) x2 = 12y c) y2 = -12x d) y2=12x

90. If 1 x iy

,a ib x iy

then a2+b2 is

a) x2+y2 b) 1

c) 0 d) 5

91. The equation of the curve through the point (1, 0) and whose slope is 2

y 1

x xis

a) y 1 x 1 2x 0 b) 2x y 1 x 1 0

c) x y 1 x 1 2 0 d) y x 1 x 0

92. 930 Deepawali greeting cards are exchanged amongst the students of a class. If every student

sends a card to every other student, then what is the number of students in the class?

a) 31 b) 29

c) 43 d) 24

93. If f(x) =

)1()1()2()1()1(3

)1()1(2

11

then f(100) =

a) 0 b) 1 c) 100 d) -100

bpapxydxdy

p

xxxx

C

C

dxx

xx

Cx

x Cx

Cx Cxx

xxxxxxxx

xxxxx

xx

++= =

−++

∫ =++

+ + ++ ++

−=

− +

−+

( )( )− + + = ( )− + + =

( )( )− + + = ( )+ − =

−−−−−

+−

+

94. The altitude fo a right circular cone of minimum volume circumscribed about a sphere of radius r is

a) 2r b) 3r c)5r d) 4r

95. If z 4 3, then the greatest and the least values of z 1 are

a) 3, 0 b) 6, 0

c) 4, 3 d) none of the above

96. If is one root of the equation 4x2 + 2x –1=0, then the other root may be

a) 34 3 b) 34 3

c) 33 4 d) 43 2

97. If 2 2 n

x 1

x x x .............. x nlim 5050,

x 1then n equals

a) 10 b) 100 c) 150 d) 200

98. If a coin is tossed n times the probability that head will appear an odd no of times is

21

121

21

52

99. The number of solutions of 763 2 + 14105 2 = 24 2 is

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

100. nc1 + 2nc2 + 3nc3 + …... + nncn =

a) n2n-1 b) (n+1)2n+1 c) n2n d) (n-1)2n+1

101. If A + B + C = ?, then sin A sin B sin C

sin A sin B sin C is equal to

a)B C

tan tan2 2

b)A B

tan tan2 2

c)A B C

tan tan tan2 2 2

d) tan A B tan C

+ ≤ +

α

∝ − ∝ ∝ + ∝

∝ − ∝ αα +

→

+ + + + −=

−

−

++ ++ − −

+ −+ +

⋅ ⋅

⋅ ⋅ ( )+ −

a) b) c) d) n n

xx xx x x

102. If g f x sin x and 2

f g x sin x . Then

a) 2f x sin x,g x x

b) f x sin x,g x x

c) 2f x x , g x sin x

d) f x , g x cannot be determined.

103. There are 9999 tickets bearing numbers 0001, 0002, 0003, ………. 9999. If one ticket is

selected from these tickets at random, the probability that the number on the ticket will

consist of all different digits, is:

a) 5040

9999b)

5000

9999

c) 5030

9999d) none of the above

104. The area of the region bounded by the two parabolas y=x2; y2=x is

a)31

b)32

c) 1 d)34

105. Two non -negative integers x and y are chosen at random with replacement. The probability

that x2 + y2 is divisible by 10 is

a) 3

50b)

4

25c)

9

50d)

7

50

( )( )= ( )( ) ( )=

( ) ( )= =

( ) ( )= =

( ) ( )= =

( ) ( )

Biology – Part 4

71.

72.

73.

74.

75.

76.

77.

78.

Bracteoles are 5 to 8 in

The blood pressure is decreased by

a) Insulin b) Interferonc) Interleukin d) Renin inhibitor

Casparian thickening is absent in __________ cells of the root

a) radial walls of endodermis b) metaxylem elementc) opposie to protoxylem d) transverse wall of endodermis

The shape of the metacentric chromosome is _________

a) V–shaped b) L–shaped c) Rod shaped d) C-shaped

Match the following

1. Medulla a) sleep wake cycle2. cerebellum b) swallowing and vomiting3. pons c) balance and maintenance4. hypothalamus d) sleep and respiratory centers

a) 1 – d 2 – a 3 – c 4 – bb) 1 – b 2 – c 3 – d 4 – ac) 1 – a 2 – b 3 – d 4 – cd) 1 – c 2 – d 3 – a 4 – b

which is not an autoimmune disease

a) Rhematoid arthritis b) SCIDc) Multiple sclerosis d) Insulin dependent diabetes

African sleeping sickness is caused by ________________

1) Allergies results from an inappropriate and excessive immune response to common autrigens in the disease called hypersensitivity

2) When the immune system attacks and destroys ‘self’ cells and molecules the disease is called autoimmune disease.

3) Graft between allogenic individuals are called heterograft.

a) Pavonia odorata b) Hibiscus rosasinensisc) Malva sylvestris d) Abutilon indicum

a) Trypanosoma gambiensb) Leishmania donavanic) Leishmaria tropicad) Giardia intestinatis

4) In distal convoluted tubules the urine becomes hypertonic.

a) 1 and 2 are true but 3 and 4 are false.b) 1 and 3 are true but 4 and 2 are false.c) 2 and 3 are true but 1 and 4 are false.d) 3 and 4 are true but 1 and 2 are false.

Photosynthesis is an oxidation – reduction reaction between ___________

a) Water and ATP b) Water and carbondioxidec) Carbondioxide and NADP d) Water and NADP

Ephedrine is used to cure

a) Pneumonia b) Cough c) Tuberculosis d) Skin infection

Match the following

1) Biosystematics a) Heteromerae2) Carolus Linnaeus b) Camp and Gily3) Biochemical mutation c) Sweden scientist4) More than two carpels d) Neurospora

a) 1 – a 2 – b 3 – c 4 – db) 1 – c 2 – d 3 – b 4 – ac) 1 – b 2 – c 3 – d 4 – ad) 1 – d 2 – b 3 – a 4 – c

Which of the following sentence is / are true

1. Meristematic cells are self perpetuating2. Uneven thickned cell wall is the characteristic features of scelerenchyma3. Macre-scleroids are present in the seed coat of pisum4. Sclerenchyma are shorter whereas fibres are longer

a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3 b) 3 and 4 d) 1 and 4

Urea is synthesized by

a) Kidney b) Pancrease c)Liver d) Gall bladder

Find the wrong match / matches

1. Flat fish - Naakkumeen2. Sardines - Parameen3. Grey Mullets - Madavai4. Tilapia - Jilabi kendai

a) 1 and 2 b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 3 and 4

79.

80.

81.

82.

83.

84.

85.

86.

87.

88.

89.

a)b)c)d)

90.

A functional idea to understand. The population genetics was provided in the form of law by _______________

a) H.J Muller and Ernst Mayrb) G.H. Hardy and W. Weinbergc) R.A. Fisher and Sewall Wrightd) G.L. Stebbins and August Weismann

Match the following

1. 2.

3. 4.

a) Parent and children b) Dizygous twinsc) Monozygous twins d) Consanguine marriage

a) 1 – a 2 – b 3 – c 4 – db) 1 – d 2 – a 3 – c 4 – bc) 1 – b 2 – d 3 – a 4 – cd) 1 – c 2 – b 3 – a 4 – d

Which one of the following is non-degradable waste

a) Mining waste b) Fibre and paperc) Leather d) Waste from food processing

The percentage of recombination can be determined by __________

a) Crossing over frequency b) Linkage frequency Linkage frequency Total offsprings

c) No of recombinant offspring d) No of total frequency Total number of offspring Total number of offspring

Ketosis occur due to

The low level of calcitoninThe low level of insulinThe high level of insulinThe low level of parathormone

The fracture in which haematoma does not communicate with the outside is ________________

a) Green stick fracture b) Stress fracturec) Pathological fracture d) Closed fracture

91.

92.

93.

94.

95.

96.

97.

98.

99.

The largest of all viruses is _______________

a) Pox viruses b) Poloma virusc) Adeno virus d) Rous sarcoma virus

Lack of rumination and dull appearance of cattle are the symptoms for __________ disease

a) Anthrax b) Cowpoxc) Constipation d) Milk fever

The botanical name of ashwagantha is __________________

Phloem fibres are also called as

a) Wood fibres b) Libriform fibresc) Bast fibres d) Supporting cells

The electron carriers in the electron transport system are arranged in

a) Three complexes b) Two complexesc) Four complexes d) Five complexes

Pick out the correct statements

a) C3 plants are more photosynthetically efficient than C4 plantsb) C4 plants are more photosynthetically efficient than C2 plantsc) C3 plants are more photosynthetically efficient than C2 plantsd) C4 plants are more photosynthetically efficient thanC3 plants

From pericycle ______________root arises

a) Primary root b) Lateral rootc) Secondary root d) Tertiary root

Albinism is due to _________________

a) absense of melanin b) absense of vitaminsc) presence of melanin d) absense of hormone

Match the following

sources of energy disadvantages

1. Solar cells a. affect the ecosystem2. Thermal power b. Co2, acid rain3. Hydel power c. Co2, fly ash

a) Withania somniferab) Solalum trilobatumc) Cestrym divernumd) Pelunia hybrida

4. Fossil fuel d. Carcinogena) 1 – d 2 – c 3 – a 4 – bb) 1 – c 2 – d 3 – b 4 – ac) 1 – a 2 – b 3 – d 4 – cd) 1 – b 2 – d 3 – c 4 – a

Bio-degradable products produced through gene modification of soyabean is _______________

a) Paints b) Fibresc) Industrial lubricants d) Plastics

Which of the following sentence is / are false

1) During kidney failure dialysis is done to filter the waste2) Blood cells and proteins are not filtered by the machine3) The blood leaves usually from a vein in the medulla and return to a near by artery

after dialysis4) Adrenalin act as anti inflammatory agent


The ovary is obliquely placed in the members of

a) Solanaceae b) Malvaceaec) Euphorbiaceae d) Musaceae

Which of the following sentences is / are not false ?

1) The primary site of infection is urethra in males in the disease gonorrhoea.2) Pencillin was discovered by Alexander Flemming in the year 19293) Western Blot is a sensitive test used to detect HIV4) The viruses integrated themselves with the bacterial genome is called lysogenic cycle

a) 1 and 4 b) 2 and 3 3) 3 and 4 d) 1 and 2

5800 genes are present in the genome of

a) Drosophila b) Chimpanzeec) Yeast d) Arabidopis thaliana

The inherent potential of any living plant probagule to develop into entire organism is called

a) Totipotency b) Organogenesisc) Morphogenesis d) Differenciation

Which of the following is / are secondary lymphoid organ/s ?1) Bursa of fabricius 2) Spleen3) Bone marrow 4) Mucosa

a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 4 c) 1 and 3 d) 3 and 4

100.

101.

102.

103.

104.

105.

106.

107.

108.

109.

110.

111.

112.

113.

In hexose phase _________ ATP molecules are consumed

a) One b) Two c) Three d) No ATP

Which of the following sentences is / are not false ?

1) The slow initial phase is called lag phase2) Gibberellin promote dormancy in potatotubers3) The term vernalisation was first introduced by German scientist called T.D

Lysenko4) The enzyme phosphofructokinase convert fructose 1,6 bisphosphate into glycerol

dehyde 3 phosphate


Name the insect which plays a vital role in tropical forests by pollinating trees

a) grasshopper b) Honeybeec) Bumble bee d) Orchid bee

Match the inflorescence with the flower

1. Catkin a) Pavonia odorata2. Helicoid cyme b) Withania somnifera3. Axillary cyme c) Acalypha indica4. Umbellate cyme d) Solanum tuberosum

a) 1 – c 2 – a 3 – a 4 – bb) 1 – a 2 – d 3 – d 4 – cc) 1 – a 2 – b 3 – c 4 – dd) 1 – b 2 – c 3 – d 4 – a

Arrange the following in the correct route for a complete reflex are

1) Sense organ 2) Effector neuron3) Effector 4) Grey matter of spinal cord5) Intermediate neuron 6) Affector neuron

a) 1 6 4 5 2 3b) 5 2 3 6 4 1c) 1 6 5 2 3 4d) 2 5 6 3 4 1

Find the incorrect match

a) Timber yielding - Tectora grandisb) Cotton - Gossypium hisatumc) Oil yielding - Arachis hypogead) Medicine - Colo nitida

The air breathing fish among the following is

a) Mrigal b) Rohu c) Catfish d) Mullet

→ → → → →→ → → → →→ → → → →→ → → → →

114.

115.

116.

117.

118.

119.

120.

----------------------

The genotype of carriers of sickle cell anaemia

a) HbS HbS b) HbA HbA

c) HbA HbS d) HbN HbN

A normal ECG composed of five waves designated from left to right with the letters

a) PRTS and Q b) PQRS and Tc) QPRS and T d) PTRQ and S

Super coils are released by

a) DNA polymerase b) Primasec) Topoisomerase d) DNA polymerase I, II and III

In kreb’s cycle dehydration occurs during the formation of

a) Succinic acid b) Malic acidc) Cis-aconitic acid d) Ketoglutaric acid

The major aspects of plant breeding are

1) Selection of better crop2) Conducting experiments to assess the quality of crops3) Release of a variety4) Creation of useful variation

Arrange them in correct order

a) 4, 3, 2, and 1 b) 4, 1, 2, and 3c) 1, 3, 2, and 4 d) 2, 1, 3, and 4

Which is the correct sequence of Natural selection theory by Darwin ?

1) over production 2) variation3) survival of the fittest 4) struggle for existence5) Natural selection

a) 1, 4, 2, 3, and 5 b) 1, 3, 4, 2, and 5c) 1, 5, 2, 3, and 4 d) 1, 2, 3, 5, and 4

Gibberella fusarium can break down __________ and reduce it to a nontoxic form

a) cyanide b) Mercuryc) Cadmium d) Chromium

ANSWER

1 d Physics 36 d Chemistry 71 b Maths 71 b Biology 111 a2 a 37 c 72 b 72 d 112 d3 b 38 a 73 d 73 c 113 c4 b 39 b 74 c 74 a 114 c5 a 40 b 75 c 75 b 115 b6 a 41 c 76 b 76 b 116 c7 c 42 c 77 d 77 a 117 c8 a 43 b 78 d 78 a 118 b9 a 44 b 79 a 79 b 119 a

10 c 45 a 80 c 80 b 120 a11 c 46 d 81 a 81 c12 c 47 c 82 d 82 d13 c 48 d 83 a 83 c14 d 49 a 84 b 84 b15 b 50 a 85 a 85 b16 a 51 d 86 a 86 d17 b 52 b 87 d 87 a18 c 53 b 88 a 88 c19 b 54 d 89 a 89 b20 c 55 a 90 b 90 d21 c 56 c 91 a 91 a22 d 57 b 92 a 92 c23 b 58 d 93 a 93 a24 a 59 d 94 d 94 c25 d 60 c 95 b 95 c26 a 61 c 96 a 96 d27 c 62 a 97 d 97 b28 d 63 b 98 c 98 a29 d 64 c 99 a 99 a30 c 65 d 100 a 100 c31 a 66 c 101 b 101 b32 c 67 d 102 a 102 a33 c 68 b 103 a 103 d34 c 69 d 104 a 104 c35 a 70 a 105 c 105 a

106 b107 b108 c109 d110 a

B.Tech - Syllabus

PART 1 – PHYSICS (35 Questions)

UNIT 1: Units and Measurement

UNIT 2: Mechanics

UNIT 3: Gravitation, Mechanics of Solids and Fluids

UNIT 4: Oscillations and Wave Motion

UNIT 5: Heat and Thermodynamics

UNIT 6: Ray and Wave Optics

Units for measurement, system of units-S.I., fundamental and derived units, measurements-errors in measurement-significant figures, dimensions-Dimensional analysis-applications.

Motion in one dimension-uniform and non-uniform motion-uniformly accelerated motion-scalar and vector quantities-Newton’s laws of motion-force and inertia-impulse and momentum-law of conservation of linear momentum-applications-motions in two dimension- projectile motion-uniform circular motion-friction-laws of friction-applications- centripetal force-centre of mass-torque-angular momentum and its conservation -moment of inertia-theorems of moment of inertia-work-energy-potential energy and kinetic energy-power-collision-elastic and inelastic collisions.

The universal law of gravitation, acceleration due to gravity-variation of ‘g’ with altitude, latitude and depth-gravitation potential-escape velocity and orbital velocity -geostationary satellites-kepler’s laws of planetary motion. Solids-elastic behaviour,stress-strain-Hooke’s law-Modulli of elasticity-relation between them-surface tension-capillarity-applications–viscosity-Poiseuille’s formula-Stokes law-applications-streamline and turbulent flow-reynolds number-Bernoulli’s theorem- applications.

Periodic motion-simple harmonic motion-equations of motion-oscillations of spring-simple pendulum-free, forced and damped oscillations-resonance-applications-wave motions-longitudinal and transverse waves-velocity of wave motion in different media-Newton’sformula-Laplace’s correction-super position of waves-progressive and standing waves-sonometer-air columns-Doppler effect and its applications.

Kinetic theory of gases-postulates-pressure of a gas-specific heat capacity-relation between Cp and Cv-first law of thermodynamics thermodynamical processes-isothermal and adiabatic-reversible and irreversible process-second law of thermodynamics-Carnot’s engine-Heat transfer-conduction-convection-radiation-thermal conductivity of solids-black body radiations-Kirchoff’s law-Wien’s displacement law-Stefan’s law-Newton’s law of cooling.

Reflection and refraction of light-total internal reflection-velocity of light determination-deviation and dispersion of light by a prism -Lens formula-magnification-power of lens-Combination of thin lenses in contact-Microscope-Astronomical telescope. -wavefront-

Huygens principle-wave nature of light–interference-Young’s double slit experiment-diffraction and polarization

Electrostatics-Coulomb’s inverse square law-dielectric constant-electric field-electric lines of force-electric dipole-electric potential-potential difference-electric flux-Gauss theorem-electrostatic induction-capacitor capacitors in parallel and series-action of points-lightning arrester electriccurrent-drift velocity of electrons-Ohm’s law-electrical resistivity and conductivity-super conductivity-Kirchoff’s law-Wheatstone’s bridge-principle of potentiometer-electric power- Earth’s magnetic field and magnetic elements-magnetic field due to a magnetic dipole-torque on a magnetic dipole-tangent law tangent galvanometer-deflection magnetometer-magnetic properties of a material–dia, para and ferromagnetic materials-applications.magnetic effects of electriccurrent-Bio Savart law-force on a moving charge in an uniform magnetic field-moving coil galvanometer-conversion of a galvanometer into voltmeter and ammeter-Faraday’s law-Lenz law of electromagnetic induction-Self inductance-mutual inductance-Flemming’s right handrule-methods of inducing emf-eddy current.Alternating currents-LCR series circuit-AC generator-Transformer

Atomic structure-properties of cathode rays and positive rays-specific charge of an electron-atom model-Thomson atom model-Rutherford atom model-Bohr atom model-merits and demerits-quantum numbers-X-rays-production-properties-Bragg’s law-Bragg’s X-ray spectrometer-Photoelectric effect-laser-spontaneous and stimulated emission-laser action-characteristics of laser light-ruby laser-applications of laser relativity-Einstein’s mass energy relation-variation of mass with velocity.

Matter waves-wave nature of particles-De Broglie wavelength-electron microscope. Nuclear properties; radius, mass, binding energy, density, isotopes, mass defect-Bainbridge mass spectrometer-nuclear forces neutron discovery-radioactivity-? , ?? and ?? decay-half life and meanlife-artificial radio activity-radio isotopes-radio carbon dating-radiation hazards. Nuclear fission-nuclear reactor-nuclear fusion-hydrogen bomb cosmic rays-elementary particles.

Semiconductors-doping-types-PN junction diode-biasing-diode as a Rectifier-transistors-transistor characteristics-amplifier-gain-feedback in amplifiers-logic gates-basic logic gates-NOT, OR, AND, NOR, NAND-universal gates-De Morgan’s theorems-space communication propagation

UNIT 7: Electricity and Magnetism

UNIT 8: Atomic Physics and Relativity

UNIT 9: Dual Nature of Matter and Nuclear Physics

UNIT 10: Electronics and Communication

of electromagnetic waves in atmosphere-sky and space wave propagation-modulation types–demodulation-microwaves-radars.

PART II – Chemistry (35 Questions)

Classification of matter into solid, liquid and gaseous states. Classification of solids: molecular, ionic, covalent and metallic solids,

amorphous and crystalline solids (elementary idea); Bragg’s Law and its applications; unit cell and lattices, packing in solids (fcc, bcc and hcp lattices), voids, calculations involving unit cell parameters, imperfection in solids; electrical, magnetic and dielectric properties.

Properties of liquids – vapour pressure, viscosity and surface tension and effect of temperature on them (qualitative treatment only).

Measurable properties of gases; Gas laws-Boyle’s law, Charle’s law, Graham’s law of diffusion, Avogadro’s law, Dalton’s law of partial pressure; concept of absolute scale of temperature; ideal gas equation, kinetic theory of gases (only postulates); concept of average, root mean square are most probable velocities; real gases, deviation from ideal behaviors, compressibility factor, Vander Waals equation, liquefaction of gases, critical constants.

Different methods for expressing concentration of solution-Molality, molarity, mole fraction, percentage (by volume and mass both), vapour pressure of solutions and Raoult’s law-ideal and non-ideal solutions, vapour pressure-composition, plots for ideal and non-ideal solutions; colligative properties of dilute solutions-relative lowering of vapour pressure, depression of freezing point, elevation of boiling point and osmoticpressure; determination of molecular mass using colligative properties; abnormal value of molar mass, Van’t Hoff factor and its significance.

Meaning of equilibrium, concept of dynamic equilibrium. Equilibria involving physical processes: Solid-liquid, liquid-gas and solid-gas equilibria, Henry’s law general characteristics of equilibrium involving physical processes.Equilibria involving chemical processes: Law of chemical equilibrium, equilibrium constants (Kp and Kc) and their significance, significance of DG and DGo in chemical equilibria, factors affecting equilibrium concentration, pressure, temperature, effect of catalyst; Le Chatelier’s principle.Ionic equilibrium: Weak and strong electrolytes, ionization of electrolytes, various concepts of acids and bases (Arrhenius, Bronsted-Lawry and Lewis) and their ionization, acid-base equilibria (including multistage ionization) and ionization constants,

Unit 1 States of Matter

Solid State:

Liquid State:

Gaseous State:

Unit 2 Solutions

Unit 3 Chemical Equilibrium

ionization of water pH scale, common ion effect, hydrolysis of salts and pH of their solutions, solubility of sparingly soluble salts and solubility products, buffer solutions.

Oxidation and reduction as an electron transfer concept. Redox reactions in aqueous solutions-electrochemical cells. EMF of a galvanic cell. Dependence of EMF on concentration and temperature (Nernst equation and numerical problems based on it). Electrolysis, Oxidation number (rules for assigning oxidation number, redox reactions in terms of oxidation number, nomenclature). Balancing of oxidation-reduction equations.

Electrolytic and metallic conduction, conductance in electrolytic solutions, specific and molar conductivities and their variation with concentration: Kohlrausch’s law and its applications.

Electrochemical cells-Electrolytic and Galvanic cells, different types of electrodes, electrode potentials including standard electrode potential, half-cell reactions, emf of a galvanic cell and its measurement; Nernst equation and its applications; relationship between cell potential and Gibbs’s energy change; dry cell and lead accumulator; fuel cells; corrosion and its prevention.

-Physisorption and chemisorption and their characteristics, factors affecting adsorption of gases on solids-Freundlich and Langmuir adsorption isotherms, adsorption from solutions.

-Homogeneous and heterogeneous, activity, and selectivity of solid catalysts, enzyme catalysis and its mechanism.

-Distinction among true solutions, colloids and suspensions, classification of colloids-lyophilic, lyophobic; multi molecular, macro molecular and associated colloids (micelles), preparation and properties of colloids-Tyndall effect, Brownian movement, electrophoresis, dialysis, coagulation and flocculation; emulsions and their characteristics.

instantaneous rate of reaction and order of reaction. Factors affecting rates of reactions-factors affecting rate of collisions encountered between the reactant molecules, effect of temperature on the reaction rate, concept of activation energy, catalyst. Rate law expression. Order of a reaction (with suitable examples). Units of rates and specific rate constants. Order of reaction and effect of concentration (study will be confined to first order only). Theories of catalysis-adsorption theory-some of important industrial process using catalysts.

Energy changes during a chemical reaction, internal energy and enthalpy, internal energy and enthalpy changes, origin of enthalpy change in a reaction, Hess’s law of constant heat summation, numerical, based on these concepts. Enthalpies of reactions

Unit 4 Redox Reactions and Electrochemistry

Unit 5 Surface Chemistry, Chemical Kinetics and Catalysis

Adsorption

Catalysis

Colloidal state

Rate of reaction,

Unit 6 Chemical Energetics and Chemical Thermodynamics

(enthalpy of neutralization, enthalpy of combustion, enthalpy of fusion and vaporization)First law of thermodynamics-Spontaneity of processes; DS of the universe and DG of the system as criteria for spontaneity, DGo (Standard Gibbs energy change and equilibrium constant.

Nature of radiations from radioactive substances. Nuclear reactions; Radioactive disintegration series; Artificial transmutation of elements; Nuclear fission and Nuclear fusion: Isotopes and their applications: Radio carbon-dating.

Modern periodic law and present form of the periodic table, s & p block elements, periodic trends in properties of elements, atomic and ionic radii, ionization enthalpy, electron gain enthalpy, valence, oxidation states and chemical reactivity. Transition elements-d-block elements, inner transition elements-f-block elements. Periodic trends in properties-ionization energy, electron affinity atomic radii, ionic radii and periodicity, lanthanides and actinides-general characteristics.

Covalent bonding: Concept of electronegativity, Fajan’s rule, dipole moment; Valence Shell Electron Pair Repulsion (VSEPR) theory and shapes of simple molecules.Quantum mechanical approach to covalent bonding: Valence bond theory-Its important features, concept of hybridization involving s, p and d orbitals; resonance.Molecular orbital theory-Its important features, LCAOs, types of molecular orbitals (bonding, anti-bonding), sigma and pi-bonds, molecular orbital electronic configurations of homonulear diatomic molecules, concept of bond order, bond length and bond energy. Elementary idea of metallic bonding. Hydrogen bonding and its applications.

( unique position in periodic table, occurrence, isotopes, properties, reactions and uses), Hydrides – molecular, soline and interstitial

structure of water molecule and its aggregates, physical and chemical properties of water, hard and soft water, water softening, hydrogen peroxide – preparation, properties, structure and uses.

– Preparation, properties, uses, compounds of Nitrogen – Ammonia, Oxides of Nitrogen, Nitric Acid – preparation, properties and uses.

, inorganic compounds of carbon – oxides, halides, carbides, elemental carbon. – occurrence, preparation and properties, oxides and oxyacids of phosphorus,

chemical fertilizers.

Unit 7 Nuclear Chemistry

Inorganic Chemistry

Unit – 8 Chemical Families-Periodic Properties

Unit – 9 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure

Unit – 10 Chemistry of Non-metals

Hydrogen

Water and hydrogen peroxide,

Nitrogen

CarbonSilicon

Noble gases

Unit – 11 Heavy MetalsIron

Copper and silver

Zinc and Mercury

Tin and Lead

Unit –12 Transition Metals including LanthanidesElectronic configuration

Unit 13 Coordination Chemistry and Organo Metallics

Organic Chemistry

Unit – 14 Some Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry

Nomenclature (Trivial and IUPAC)

Unit – 15 Hydrocarbons

– discovery, occurrence and isolation, physical properties, chemistry of noble gases and their uses.

– Occurrence and extraction, compounds of iron, oxides, halides, sulphides, sulphate, alloy and steel.

– occurrence and extraction, properties and uses, compounds –sulphides, halides and sulphates, photography.

–occurrence and extraction, properties and uses, compounds -oxides, halides; sulphides and sulphates

– occurrence and extraction, properties and uses, compounds – oxides, sulphides, halides.

: General characteristic properties, oxidation states of transition metals. First row transition metals and general properties of their compounds-oxides, halides and sulphides. General properties of second and third row transition elements (GroupWise discussion). Preparation and reactions, properties and uses of Potassium dichromate and Potassium permanganate. Inner Transition Elements: General discussion with special reference to oxidation states and lanthanide contraction.

Coordination compounds, Nomenclature : Isomerism in coordination compounds; Bonding in coordination compounds, Werner’s coordination theory. Applications of coordination compounds.

Tetravalency of carbon; shapes of simple molecules-hybridization (s and p); classification of organic compounds based on functional groups: -C=C-, -C?C- and those containing halogens, oxygen, nitrogen and sulphur; homologous series; isomerism-strctural and stereoisomerism.

Covalent bond fission-Homolytic and heterolytic: free radicals, carbocations and carbanions; stability of carbocation and free radicals, electrophiles and nucleophiles. Electronic displacement in a covalent bond-inducctive effect, electromeric effect, resonance and hyperconjugation.Common types of organic reactions-Substitution, addition, elimination and rearrangement.

Classification, isomerism, IUPAC nomenclature, general methods of preparation, properties and reaction.

-Conformation: Sawhorse and Newman projections (of ethane); mechanism of halogenation of alkanes.

-Geometrical isomerism; mechanism of electrophilic addition: addition of hydrogen, halogens, water, hydrogen halides (Markownikoff’s and peroxide effect); ozonolysis, oxidation, and polymerization.

-Acidic character; addition of hydrogen, halogens, water and hydrogen halides; polymerization. Aromatic hydrocarbons-nomenclature, benzene-structure and aromaticity; mechanism of electrophilic halogenation, nitration, Friedel-Craft’s alkylation and acylation, directive influence of functional group in monosubstituted benzene.

General methods of preparation, properties, reactions and uses.

Identification of primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols; mechanism of dehydration.

: Acidic nature, electrophilic substitution reactions: halogenation, nitration and sulphonation, Reimer-Tiemann reaction. Addition to>C=o group, relative reactivities of aldehydes and ketones

: Structure.: Nature of carbonyl group; Nuclephilic-Nuclephilic addition

reaction (addition of HCN, NH3 and its derivatives), Grigard reagent; oxidation; reduction (Wolff Kishner and Clemmensen); acidity of-hydrogen, aldol condensation, Cannizzaro reaction, Haloform reaction; Chemical tests to distinguish between aldehydes and ketones.

: Acidic strength and factors affecting it.

General methods of preparation, properties, reactions and uses.: Nomenclature, classification, structure, basic character and identification of

primary, secondary and tertiary amines and their basic character. salts: Importance in synthetic organic chemistry.

General introduction and classification of polymers, general methods of polymerization-addition and condensation, copolymerization; natural and synthetic rubber and vulcanization; some important polymers with emphasis on their monomers and uses –polythene, nylon, polyester and bakelike.

Alkanes

Alkenes

Alkynes

substitution:

Unit – 16 Organic Compounds Containing Oxygen and Nitrogen

Alcohols:

Phenols

EthersAldehyde and Ketones

Carboxylic acids

Amines

Diazonium

Unit – 17 Polymers

Unit – 18 Bio Molecules

Carbohydrates-Classification: aldoses and ketoses; monosaccharides (glucose and fructose), constituent monosaccharides of oligosacchorides (sucrose, lactose, maltose) and polysaccharides (starch, cellulose, glycogen).

Proteins-Elementary Idea of-amino acids, peptide bond, polypeptides; proteins: primary, secondary, tertiary and quaternary structure (qualitative idea only), denaturation of proteins, enzymes.

Chemicals in medicines-Analgesics, tranquilizers, antiseptics, disinfectants, antimicrobials, antifertility drugs, antibiotics, antacids.

Antihistamine-their meaning and common examples. Chemicals in food-preservatives, artificial sweetening agents-common examples.

Cleansing agents-Soaps and detergents, cleansing action.

Unit – 19 Chemistry in Everyday Life

PART III - MATHEMATICS (35 Questions)

UNIT 1 : Sets, Relations and Functions

UNIT 2 : Complex Numbers

UNIT 3 : Matrices and Determinants

UNIT 4 : Applications of Matrices and Determinants

UNIT 5: Quadratic Equations

UNIT 6: Permutations and Combinations

UNIT 7 : Mathematical Induction and Its Applications

UNIT 8: Binomial Theorem and its Applications

UNIT 9 : Sequences and Series

Sets and their Representations, Union, intersection and complements of sets, and their algebraic properties, Relations, equivalence relations, mappings, one-one, into and onto mappings, composition of mappings.

Complex numbers in the form a+ib and their representation in a plane. Argand diagram. Algebra of complex numbers, Modulus and Argument (or amplitude) of a complex number, square root of a complex number. Cube roots of unity, triangle inequality.

Determinants and matrices of order two and three, properties of determinants, Evaluation of determinants. Addition and multiplication of matrices, adjoint and inverse of matrix.

Computing the rank of a matrix - Test of consistency and solution of simultaneous linear equations using determinants and matrices.

Quadratic equations in real and complex number system and their solutions. Relation between roots and co-efficients, nature of roots, formation of quadratic equations with given roots; Symmetric functions of roots, equations reducible to quadratic equations – application to practical problems.

Fundamental principle of counting; Permutation as an arrangement and combination as selection, Meaning of P(n,r) and C(n,r). Simple applications.

Stating and interpreting the principle of mathematical induction. Using it to prove formulae and facts. Summation using n,n 2 , n 3 .

Binomial Theorem for a positive integral index; general term and middle term; Binomial Theorem for any index. Properties of Binomial Co-efficients. Simple applications for approximations.

Arithmetic, Geometric and Harmonic progressions. Insertion of Arithmetic Geometric and Harmonic means between two given numbers. Relation between A.M., G.M. and H.M.Special series: n, n 2 , n 3 . Arithmetic,Geometric Series, Exponential and Logarithmic series.

S S S

UNIT 10 : Differential Calculus

UNIT 11 : Applications of differential Calculus

UNIT 12 : Integral Calculus

UNIT 13 : Differential Equations

UNIT 14 : Straight Lines in Two dimensions

UNIT 15 : Circles in Two dimensions

UNIT 16 : Conic Sections in Two dimensions

Polynomials, rational, trigonometric, logarithmic and exponential functions, Inverse functions. Graphs of simple functions. Limits, Continuity; differentiation of the sum, difference, product and quotient of two functions. differentiation of trigonometric, inverse trigonometric, logarithmic, exponential, composite and implicit functions; derivatives of order upto two.

Rate of change of quantities, monotonic -increasing and decreasing functions, Maxima and minima of functions of one variable, tangents and normals, Rolle’s and Lagrange’s Mean Value Theorems.

Integral as an anti-derivative. Fundamental integrals involving algebraic, trigonometric, exponential and logarithmic functions. Integration by substitution, by parts and by partial fractions. Integration using trigonometric identities. Integral as limit of a sum. Properties of definite integrals. Evaluation of definite integrals; Determining areas of the regions bounded by simple curves.

Ordinary differential equations, their order and degree. Formation of differential equations. Solution of differential equations by the method of separation of variables. Solution of homogeneous and linear differential equations, and those of the type d 2 y/dx 2 = f(x) .

Cartesian system of rectangular co-ordinates in a plane, distance formula, area of a triangle, condition for the collinearity of three points and section formula, centroid and in-centre of a triangle, locus and its equation, translation of axes, slope of a line, parallel and perpendicular lines, intercepts of a line on the coordinate axes. Various forms of equations of a line, intersection of lines, angles between two lines, conditions for concurrence of three lines, distance of a point from a line Equations of internal and external bisectors of angles between two lines, coordinates of centroid, orthocentre and circumcentre of a triangle, equation of family of lines passing through the point of intersection of two lines, homogeneous equation of second degree in x and y, angle between pair of lines through the origin, combined equation of the bisectors of the angles between a pair of lines, condition for the general second degree equation to represent a pair of lines, point of intersection and angle between two lines.

Standard form of equation of a circle, general form of the equation of a circle, its radius and centre, equation of a circle in the parametric form, equation of a circle when the end points of a diameter are given, points of intersection of a line and a circle with the centre at the origin and condition for a line to be tangent to the circle, length of the tangent, equation of the tangent, equation of a family of circles through the intersection of two circles, condition for two intersecting circles to be orthogonal.

Sections of cones, equations of conic sections (parabola, ellipse and hyperbola) in standard forms, condition for y = mx + c to be a tangent and point(s) of tangency.

PART – IV Biology (50 Questions)Botany

Unit I Taxonomy of Angiosperm

Unit II Plant Anatomy

Unit III Cell Biology and Genetics

Unit IV: Biotechnology

with beneficial traitsBioethics in plant genetic engineering.

Unit V Plant physiology

Types of classifications -Artificial, Natural, Phylogenetic - Biosystematics -Binomial Nomenclature - Herbaria and their uses – Bentham and Hooker's classificationof plants - Families Malvaceae, Solanaceae - Euphorbiaceae, Musaceae and Economic Importance.

Tissues and Tissue System - anatomy of monocot and Dicot roots - anatomy ofMonocot and dicot stem and anatomy of dicot leaf.

Chromosomes - Structure and types - genes and genome - Linkage and crossing over –Gene mapping - recombination of chromosomes - mutation - chromosomal aberration –DNA as genetical material - Structure of DNA - replication of DNA - Structure of RNA and its type.

Recombinant DNA Technology - Transgenic plants – plant tissue culture and its application - Protoplasmic fusion –

UNIT 17 : Vector Algebra

UNIT 18 : Measures of Central Tendency and Dispersion

UNIT 19 : Probability

UNIT 20 : Trigonometry

Vectors and Scalars, addition of vectors, components of a vector in two dimensions and three dimensional space, scalar and vector products, scalar and vector triple product. Application of vectors to plane geometry.

Calculation of Mean, median and mode of grouped and ungrouped data. Calculation of standard deviation, variance and mean deviation for grouped and ungrouped data.

Probability of an event, addition and multiplication theorems of probability and their applications; Conditional probability; Bayes’ Theorem, Probability distribution of a random variate; Binomial and Poisson distributions and their properties.

Trigonometrical identities and equations. Inverse trigonometric functions and their properties. Properties of triangles, including centroid, incentre, circum-centre and orthocentre, solution of triangles. Heights and Distances

Photosynthesis - Significance - site of photosynthesis - photochemical and biosyntheticphases - electron transport system - cyclic and non cyclic photophosphorylation - C3 and C4

pathway - photorespiration – factor affecting photosynthesis – mode of nutrition – autotrophic -heterotropic – saprophytic – parasitic and insectivorous plants – chemosynthesis – respiration –mechanism of glycolysis – kreb’scycle – pentose pathway – anaerobic respiration – respiratory quotient – compensation point - fermentation – plant growth – growth regulators –phytohormones – auxin – gibberellins – cytokinins – ethylene and abscisic acid –photoperiodism and vernalisation.

Food production – breeding experiments – improved varieties and role of biofertilizer – crop diseases and their control – biopesticides – genetically modified food – biowar – biopiracy –biopatent – sustained agriculture and medicinal plants including microbes – Economic importance food yielding (rice) – Oil yielding (groundnut) fibre yielding (cotton) and timber yielding (teak)

Human PhysiologyNutrition – introduction – carbohydrates – proteins – lipids – vitamins mineral – water –Balanced diet – calorie value – (ICBM standard ) – obesity – Hyperglycemia – hypoglycemia –malnutrition. Digestion – enzymes and enzyme action – Brief account of following – Dental caries – Root canal therapy – peptic ulcer-Hernia-Appendicitis – Gallbladder stone – Liver cirrhosis – Hepatitis.Bones and Joints (Major types) fractures – Dislocations – Arthritis – Rickets and Osteomalasia –orthopaedies – Gout.Muscles – muscle action – muscle tone – Rigor Mortis – muscle pull (hernia) isometric and aerobic exercises (body building) myasthenia gravis.Respiration – Process of pulmonary respiration – inspiration Expiration – Exchange of gases at alveolar level – control of respiration – pneumonia – pleurisy – Tuberculosis – Bronchitis –Breathing exercise.Circulation – Functioning of heart origin and conduction of heart beat – Artificial pacemaker –coronary blood vessels and its significance – myocardial infraction – Angina pectoria –Angiogram – angioplasty and coronary bypass surgery – Atherosclerosis – heart attack – heart block – ECG and Echo Cardiography-heart valves-Rheumatic heart disease (RHD) ICCU-arterial and venous systems-Blood pressure-pulse rate-heart transplantation- Resuscitation in heart attack (First aid) Blood components-functions-plasma-corpuscles-blood clotting-anticoagulants-Thrombosis-embolism-blood related diseases like polycythemia-Leukemia-Lymph fluid.

Unit VI Biology in human welfare

ZOOLOGY

Unit I

Physiological Co ordination System:

Brain-functioning of different regions-memory-sleep-stroke- Alzheimer’s disease-meningitis-Brain fever-conditioned reflex-electroencephalography-Right brain left brain concept-spinal cord – functioning-reflex action-CSF-chemical coordination-pituitary (Hormones of adenohypophysis and their regulation) Thyroid-parathyroid hormones-insulin and glucogon-Hormones of adrenal cortex and medulla-Reproductive hormones-problems related to secretion, non secretion of hormones.

Eye-Focussing mechanism and photo chemistry of retina-short sightedness-Longsightedness-Optometry-Retinopathy- cataract -Lens replacement- Nectalopia-Eye infection-conjunctivities-Glucuoma- Eye care-Ear-Hearing mechanism-organ of corti-Hearing impairments and aids-Noise pollution and its importance-skin-melanin functions-Effect of solar radiation/UV Skin grafting-Dermatitis-Tongue-Gustatory reception.

Ureotelism-urea-Biosynthesis(ornithine cycle) Nephron- ultrafiltration -tubular reabsorption and tubular secretion-Renal failure-Dialysis kidney stone formation kidney transplantation-Diabetes.

Brief account of spermatogenesis and oogenesis-menstrual cycle-in vitro fertilization-Birth control

Introduction-History of medical microbiology-The influence of Pasteur, Koch and Lister-Virology-structure Genetics culture and diseases-AIDS and its control-Bacteriology structure, Genetics and diseases-protozoan microbiology-Diseases oriented-pathogenecity of micro organism-anti microbial resistance chemotherapy.

.

Innate immunity (Non specific)- anatomical Barriers-Physiological barriers-phagocytic barriers Lymphoidal organs-Thymus- Bursa of fabricius-Peripheral Lymphoid organs-Lymph nodes-Spleen-antibodies- immuno globulins-regions of polypeptide chain-Transplantation immunology-classification of grafts-Genetic basis of organ transplant-immune system disorder.

Introduction-scope-Human Genetics Karyotyping Chromosome gene mapping-Recombinant DNA technology and segmenting- genetic diseases – Human genome project-cloning-Transgenic organisms- Genetically modified organism(GMO)-Gene therapy-

Receptor Organs:

Excretion:

Reproductive System:

Unit II: Microbiology

Single cell protein. Microbial culture technique and its applications –Strain Isolation and Improvement - Isolation of microbial products

Unit III Immunology:

Unit IV: Modern Genetics and Animal Biotechnology

Animal cell culture and its applications – Stem cell technology – Bioethics of genetic engineering in

animals

Unit V Environmental Science:

Unit VI Applied Biology:

Unit VII Theories of Evolution:

. Bio informatics application DNA Sequencing and protein structure-Biological database.

Human population and explosion-issue-Global Warming Crisis - Green house effect - Ozone layer depletion- waste management- Biodiversity conservation (Biosphere reserve) Government and non-governmental organization involved-Energy crisis and environmental impact-poverty and environment-Freshwater crisis and management.

Livestock and management Dairy-Breed of cattle-Miltch breed –Drought breed Dual purpose-common diseases and control-Exotic and cross breeds–Techniques adapted in cattle breeding.Poultry-Farming techniques- Breeds- Farming method - poultry diseases-Economic valuePisciculture-fish farming- Edible fishes of Tamil Nadu. Medical lab techniques-stethescope-sphygmomonometer Haemocytometer-urine sugar analysis-ECG-PQRST Wave CT Scan-Endoscopic (Laproscopic) techniques artificial pace maker-Auto analyzer.

Lamarckism-Darwinism-Neodarwimsm/Modern concept of natural selection- species of concept-origin of species and isolating mechanism.

**********************

B.Arch Program – Aptitude test in Architecture : Syllabus

The Aptitude Test in Architecture shall consist of 2 papers: (2 hours 30 minutes duration)

Test –I

Test – II

(i) Test – I – Aesthetic Sensitivity – 50 marks – duration of test:- 30

minutes

(ii) Test – II – Drawing -100 marks – duration of test – Two hours.

Aesthetic Sensitivity is to evaluate candidate’s perception, imagination and

observation; creativity and communication; and Architectural awareness. The test

shall be of objective type and comprise of topics related to,

(i) Visualising three dimensional objects from two dimensional drawings

(ii) Visualising different sides of three dimensional object

(iii) Analytical Reasoning

(iv) Mental Ability

(v) Imaginative comprehension and expression

(vi) Architectural awareness

The Drawing aptitude of the candidate shall be judged on the following

aspects:

(i) Ability to sketch a given object proportionately and rendering the same

in visually appealing manner.

(ii) Visualising and drawing the effects of light on the object and shadows

cast on the surroundings.

(iii) Sense of perspective drawing

(iv) Creating interesting two dimensional composition using given shapes

or forms.

(v) Creating visual harmony using colours in given composition.

(vi) Understanding of scale and sense of proportion

(vii) Drawing from memory through pencil sketch on theme from day to day

experiences.

MODEL QUESTIONS – B.Arch

Test – I – Aesthetic Sensitivity (50 marks )

PART A (each question 1 mark)

A1.

Sun temple is located at

(1) Bhuvaneshwar (2) Konark

(3) Kolkata (4) Kajuraho

A2.

Big temple in Tanjore is also known as

(1) Brighadeswara temple (2) Linga raja temple

(3) Meenakshi Amman temple (4) Temple of 1000 pillar hall

A3.

Jantar Manthar in Delhi is

(1) A Temple (2) A Fort

(3) A Palace (4) An astronomical observatory

A4.

National centre for performing arts, TATA’s is located at

(1) New Delhi (2) Chennai

(3) Hyderabad (4) Mumbai

A5.

Golbumbaz tomb is located at

(1) Agra (2) Bijapur

(3) Mandu (4) Hyderabad

A6.

“Falling water” is designed by

(1) LeCarbusier (2) B.V.Doshi

(3) Frank Lloyd Wright (4) Mumbai

A7.

Pantheon is the example of

(1) Egyptian Architecture (2) Greek architecture

(3) Gothic architecture (4) Sumerian Architecture

A8.

The Sydney opera house in Australia resembles a

(1) Kangaroo (2) Guitar

(3) Ship with sails (4) A mountain

A9.

A10.

Anthropometrics is the study of

(1) Human dimensions (2) Building materials

(3) Beauty of building (4) Weather

A11.

Tread and Riser are elements of

(1) Window (2) Staircase

(3) Door (4) Foundation

A12.

Identify the group of primary colours

(1) Pink, yellow & orange (2) White, black&browm

(3) Blue,red&yellow (4) White, black&grey

Standard parking space for a car

(1) 1.5mX2.5m (2) 2.0mX5.0m

(3) 2.5mX5m (4) 3.5mx6.0m

A13.

Natural stone with maximum content of calcium used in building industry

(1) Slate (2) Marble

(3) Basalt (4) Granite

A14.

Which of the fallowing material is easily susceptible to corrosion

(1) Plastic (2) Aluminium

(3) Iron (4) Platinum

A15.

The largest historical Hindu temple in the world is at

(1) Colombo (2) Kathmandu

(3) Madurai (4) Angkor Wat

PART – B (each questions 2 marks)

B1. Series

The test divided into two parts. The first part consists of five problem figures and second part consists of five tentative answer figures. The five problem figures are in a sequence or order of their occurrence,

they have been arranged on the basic of some principle and youcannot change this order without violating the principle involved. On the other hand, the figures provided have tentative answer not in

any order. You are required to choose what would be the sixth figure in the series of problem figures. This required figure is one among the five tentative answer figures.

B2. Analogy

Find out the relationship between the first and second problem figures and then select one figure from the five answer figures on the right which should be related to the third problem figures in the same way.

B3. Classification

In the diagram given below, all except one of which are similar in some aspect or quality. Identify the one which is different from the

others

B4. Identical figures

Choose the identical figure from the given four figures in the boxes on the right for the one on the left.

B5. Odd figures

Select the odd figure from the given set of figures

B6. Paper cutting and punching.

a piece of paper is folded and then cut into a particular shape /design ( showing the direction of folding )( X,Y,&Z). Identify from the set of answer figures (A,B,C,D) the correct figure which represents the design that the paper have after it’s unfolded.

B7.

The four alternative figures on the right side (A, B, C & D) when folded along the dotted line will form the figure on the extreme left. Identify the correct figure from the right that will form the extreme left figure when folded along the dotted line.

B8.

Identify the building

1 Victoria memorial 2 Vidhan soudha

3 Rashtrapati bhavan 4 Jan tar mantar

B9.

Identify the monument

1 Teen darwaza 2 Buland darwaza

3 India gate 4 Gateway of India

B10.

Identify the Structure

1 Bahai temple 2 Brila mandir

3 Iskcon temple 4 Bal mandir

PART C (each question 3 marks)

C1.

Left hand side problem figure shows the view of an object. Identify correct elevation as indicated by arrow.

C2.

Left hand side problem figure shows the view of an object. Identify the correct top view.

C3.

Left hand side problem figure shows the top view of an object. Identify the correct front view.

C4.

Which of the right hand side answer figures is the correct mirror

image of the left hand side problem figure?

C5.

Find out the total number of surfaces of the object shown below.

Test – II – Drawing (100 marks)

PART A (50 Marks)

Imagine that you are inside a ticket counter of a cinema hall issuing

tickets, and sketch the view of the people lined in the Queue as seen

from inside the counter by you

PART B (25 Marks)

Compose a visually appealing composition with squares and circles

using minimum of three and not more than six each, and color the

composition with primary colours

PART C (25 marks)

Make an interesting three dimensional composition using three

cubes and two cones, showing the effect of light and shadow of the

composition

Mca Model Questions 2010

Documents

kmhr b

total of b

years of age

kmhr d

average age of b

kmhr c

beats b

years older