08 COMPETITIVE EXAMINATION - 2016 DATE SUBJECT SUBJECT CODE TIME 03-03-2016 ECONOMICS 08 2.00 pm to 5.00 pm MAXIMUM MARKS TOTAL DURATION MAXIMUM TIME FOR ANSWERING 200 210 Minutes 180 Minutes MENTION YOUR REGISTER NUMBER QUESTION BOOKLET DETAILS QUESTION BOOKLET SERIAL NO. & VERSION NO. DOs: 1. Check whether the Register No. has been entered and shaded in the respective circles on the OMR answer sheet. 2. Check whether the Centre Code has been entered and shaded in the respective circles on the OMR answer sheet. 3. Check whether the subject name has been written and the subject code has been entered and shaded in the respective circles on the OMR answer sheet. 4. This question booklet will be issued to you by the invigilator after the 2 nd bell i.e., after 1.55 pm. 5. The serial number of this question booklet should be entered on the OMR answer sheet. 6. The version number of this question booklet should be entered on the OMR answer sheet and the respective circles should also be shaded completely. 7. Compulsorily sign at the bottom portion of the OMR answer sheet in the space provided. DONTs: 1. The timing and mark’s printed on the OMR answer sheet should not be damaged / mutilated / spoiled. 2. The 3 rd Bell rings at 2.00 pm, till then; • Do not remove the seal on the right hand side of this question booklet. • Do not look inside this question booklet. • Do not start answering on the OMR answer sheet. IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES 1. This question booklet contains 100 questions and each question will have one statement and four distracters (Four different options / choices.) 2. After the 3 rd Bell is rung at 2.00 pm, remove the seal on the right hand side of this question booklet and check that this booklet does not have any unprinted or torn or missing pages or items etc., if so, get it replaced by complete test booklet. Read each item and start answering on the OMR answer sheet. 3. During the subsequent 180 minutes: • Read each question carefully, • Choose the correct answer from out of the four available distracters (options / choices) given under each question / statement. • Completely darken / shade the relevant circle with a blue or black ink ballpoint pen against the question number on the OMR answer sheet. Correct Method of shading the circle on the OMR answer sheet is as shown below: A B C D 4. Please note that even a minute unintended ink dot on the OMR answer sheet will also be recognized and recorded by the scanner. Therefore, avoid multiple markings of any kind on the OMR answer sheet. 5. Use the space provided on the question booklet for Rough Work. Do not use the OMR answer sheet for the same. 6. After the last bell is rung at 5.00 pm, stop writing on the OMR answer sheet and affix your left hand thumb impression on the OMR answer sheet as per the instructions. 7. Hand over the OMR answer sheet to the room invigilator as it is. 8. After separating the top sheet, the invigilator will return the bottom sheet replica (candidate’s copy) to you to carry home for self evaluation. 9. Preserve the replica of the OMR answer sheet for a minimum period of ONE year. 10. In case of any discrepancy in the English and Kannada Versions, the English version will be taken as final in case of Compulsory Paper – III and Optional Papers, except the languages of optional paper. GFGC
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� 08
COMPETITIVE EXAMINATION - 2016
DATE SUBJECT SUBJECT CODE TIME
03-03-2016 ECONOMICS 08 2.00 pm to 5.00 pm
MAXIMUM MARKS TOTAL DURATION MAXIMUM TIME FOR ANSWERING
200 210 Minutes 180 Minutes
MENTION YOUR REGISTER NUMBER QUESTION BOOKLET DETAILS
QUESTION BOOKLET SERIAL NO. & VERSION NO.
DOs:
1. Check whether the Register No. has been entered and shaded in the respective circles on the OMR answer sheet.
2. Check whether the Centre Code has been entered and shaded in the respective circles on the OMR answer sheet.
3. Check whether the subject name has been written and the subject code has been entered and shaded in the respective circles on the OMR answer sheet.
4. This question booklet will be issued to you by the invigilator after the 2nd
bell i.e., after 1.55 pm. 5. The serial number of this question booklet should be entered on the OMR answer sheet. 6. The version number of this question booklet should be entered on the OMR answer sheet and the respective
circles should also be shaded completely. 7. Compulsorily sign at the bottom portion of the OMR answer sheet in the space provided.
DONTs:
1. The timing and mark’s printed on the OMR answer sheet should not be damaged / mutilated / spoiled. 2. The 3
rd Bell rings at 2.00 pm, till then;
• Do not remove the seal on the right hand side of this question booklet. • Do not look inside this question booklet. • Do not start answering on the OMR answer sheet.
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. This question booklet contains 100 questions and each question will have one statement and four distracters (Four different options / choices.)
2. After the 3rd
Bell is rung at 2.00 pm, remove the seal on the right hand side of this question booklet and check that this booklet does not have any unprinted or torn or missing pages or items etc., if so, get it replaced by complete test booklet. Read each item and start answering on the OMR answer sheet.
3. During the subsequent 180 minutes: • Read each question carefully, • Choose the correct answer from out of the four available distracters (options / choices) given under each
question / statement. • Completely darken / shade the relevant circle with a blue or black ink ballpoint pen against the question
number on the OMR answer sheet.
Correct Method of shading the circle on the OMR answer sheet is as shown below:
A B C D
4. Please note that even a minute unintended ink dot on the OMR answer sheet will also be recognized and recorded by the scanner. Therefore, avoid multiple markings of any kind on the OMR answer sheet.
5. Use the space provided on the question booklet for Rough Work. Do not use the OMR answer sheet for the same.
6. After the last bell is rung at 5.00 pm, stop writing on the OMR answer sheet and affix your left hand thumb impression on the OMR answer sheet as per the instructions.
7. Hand over the OMR answer sheet to the room invigilator as it is. 8. After separating the top sheet, the invigilator will return the bottom sheet replica (candidate’s copy) to you to
carry home for self evaluation. 9. Preserve the replica of the OMR answer sheet for a minimum period of ONE year. 10. In case of any discrepancy in the English and Kannada Versions, the English version will be taken as final in case
of Compulsory Paper – III and Optional Papers, except the languages of optional paper.
GFGC
Space For Rough Work
2 Economics
1. If the marginal utility of the last unit of commodity ‘X’ consumed is twice the marginal utility of the last unit of ‘Y’ consumed; then the consumer will be in equilibrium when
(A) the price of ‘X’ is one half of the price of ‘Y’ (B) the price of ‘X’ is twice the price of ‘Y’ (C) the price of ‘X’ is equal to price of ‘Y’ (D) the price of ‘X’ is thrice the price of ‘Y’ ‘X’ ÔåÜÈåê¾ÕÄå ’ðëÄð²ìåê ›å®’åÁ™ÒÁµå ÜÝ µåêÔå ÜÝéÔåìæÒ¼å ¼åêÚݱ˜µåê¸Ôåíú ‘Y’ ÔåÜÈåê¾ÕÄå ’ðëÄð²ìåê
3. When the price elasticity of demand of a good is greater than one, then the expenditure on the good
(A) increases with price fall (B) decline with price fall (C) rise with price rise (D) remain the same irrespective of price rise or fall §ÒÁµåê ÜÈå²µå“Äå ÊðÑð Êðé ™’ð ÜÝÀ½ÜÈæÀÇÈå’å¼ð²ìåêê §ÒÁµå“”Ò¼å ßðô梘™Áµå²µð, „ ÔåÜÈåê¾ÕÄå ÔðêéÑð Ôåìæ µåêÔå
4. Which one of the following price discrimination takes away the entire consumer surplus ? (A) Price discrimination of the third degree (B) Price discrimination of the second degree (C) Price discrimination of the first degree (D) All the above ’ðâÿå ™Äå ²ìåìæÔå ßåÒ¼åÁµå ÊðÑð²ìåê ¼æ²µå¼åÔåêÏÔåíú ˜µæÐßå’åÄå ƒÁ·™’å ¼åïÇݾ²ìåêê ÜÈåÖÑÉÔåî …ÑÓÁµåÒ¼ð
5. In case of ‘L-shaped (right angle)’ isoquant, MRS
xy will be
(A) Positive (B) Negative (C) Equal to zero (D) None of these ‘L-„’æ²µåÁµå (ÊÑ ’ðëéÄæ’æ²µåÁµå)’ ÜÈåÔåê ‡¼åÉÄåÆ ²µðé•ÿð²ìåêÑ–Ó MRS
xy ²ìåêê (A) Á·µåÄæ¼åÍ’åÔ昙²µåê¼å¾Áµð (B) ‰ê¹æ¼åÍ’åÔ昙²µåê¼å¾Áµð (C) ×åëÄåÏ’ð” ÜÈåÔåêÔ昙²µåê¼å¾Áµð (D) …Ôåíú˜µåâÿåÑ–Ó ²ìåìæÔåíúÔåî ƒÑÓ 6. The price faced by a perfect competitor is ` 5. Then its average revenue will be (A) less than ` 5 (B) equal to ` 5 (C) more than ` 5 (D) data inadequate to determine ÇÈå²™ÇÈå ÜÈåÉÁ·µð¤²ìåêÄåêÆ ŠÁµåê²™ÜÈåê½¾²µåêÔå ›å®’åÔåíú ‡¼æÉÁ™ÜÈåê½¾²µåêÔå ÔåÜÈåê¾ µåâÿå ÊðÑð²ìåêê ` 5 …Áµæ µå
7. Market with only one buyer is called (A) Monopoly (B) Monopsony (C) Monopolistic competition (D) Oligopsony §ÊÌÄðé •²™éÁ™Áµæ²µåŲµåêÔå Ôåìæ²µåê’å ð±²ìåêÄåêÆ ‹ÄðÒÁµåê ’å²µð²ìåêÑ昵åê¼å¾Áµð ? (A) ‹’åÜÈæÖÔåêÏ (B) ÔåêÄðëÇÈåÞÅ
(C) ÜÈæÖÔåêϲìåêê¼å ÇÈðñÇÈðî° (D) „Ñ– µðëÇÈåÞÅ
Space For Rough Work
4 Economics
8. A person is earning ` 25,000 per month in his present profession and can earn a maximum of ` 22,000 per month in the next best profession. What is the economic rent earned by the person in his present profession ?
(A) ` 25,000 (B) ` 22,000 (C) ` 3,000 (D) None of these / …Ôåíú˜µåâÿåÑ–Ó ²ìåìæÔåíúÔåî ƒÑÓ 9. In the Kinked demand curve model, what is the effect of upward shift in the MC curve
within the discontinuous range of MR curve ? (A) Quantity rises but Price remains the same. (B) Price rises but Quantity remains the same. (C) Both Price and Quantity remains the same. (D) Both Price and Quantity increases. ’ðëÒ’åê Êðé ™’ð ÔåìæÁµå²™²ìåêÑ–Ó, ÜÝéÔåìæÒ¼å „Áµæ²ìåê ²µðé•ÿð²ìåêê Õ¡¢ÄåÆÔ昙²µåêÔå ÔæÏÇݾ²ìåêÑ–Ó
ÜÝéÔåìæÒ¼å Ôðôå¢ ²µðé•ÿð²ìåêê ÔðêéÑêÍ•Ô昙 ôåÑ–ÜÝÁµå²µå ÇÈå²™¹æÔåêÔåÄåêÆ ½â–ÜÝ. (A) ÊðÑð²ìåêê …ÁµåÂÚÈð±é …Áµåê ÇÈåÐÔåìæ¸Ôåíú ßðô梘µåê¼å¾Áµð. (B) ÇÈåÐÔåìæ¸Ôåíú …ÁµåÂÚÈð±é …Áµåê ÊðÑð²ìåêê ßðô梘µåê¼å¾Áµð. (C) ÊðÑð Ôåê¼åê¾ ÇÈåÐÔåìæ¸ Š²µå µåë …ÁµåÂÚÈð±é …²µåê¼å¾Ôð. (D) ÊðÑð Ôåê¼åê¾ ÇÈåÐÔåìæ¸ Š²µå µåë ßðô梘µåê¼å¾Áµð. 10. In the theory of production with one variable input, which of the following are true when
the Average Product (AP) is at its maximum ? (i) Declining marginal product curve (ii) Increasing total product curve (iii) MP = AP (iv) Declining total product curve Select the correct answer using the codes : (A) (i) (B) (ii) and (iii) (C) (iii) and (iv) (D) (i), (ii) and (iii) §ÒÁµåê ÊÁµåÑ昵åêÔå ‡¼æÉÁµåÄæÒ˜µåÕ²µåêÔå ‡¼æÉÁµåÄæ ÜÝÁµæÂÃÒ¼åÁµåÑ–Ó, ÜÈå²µæÜÈå²™ ‡¼åÉÄåÆÔåíú ˜µå²™ÚÈå±Õ²µåêÔå
(A) (i) (B) (ii) Ôåê¼åê¾ (iii) (C) (iii) Ôåê¼åê¾ (iv) (D) (i), (ii) Ôåê¼åê¾ (iii)
Space For Rough Work
Economics 5
11. What is the price elasticity of demand when marginal revenue is equal to zero ? (A) Equal to zero (B) Greater than one (C) Less than one (D) Equal to one ÜÝÔåìæÒ¼å „Áµæ²ìåêÔåíú ×åëÄåÏ’ð” ÜÈåÔåêÔ昙Áµæ µå ÊðÑð Êðé ™’ð ÜÝÀ½ÜÈæÀÇÈå¼ð²ìåêê ŠÚݱ²µåê¼å¾Áµð ?
13. The Cobb-Douglas production function is given as : Y = 1.32 L0.7 K0.6. It indicates the (A) Constant returns to scale (B) Diminishing returns to scale (C) Increasing returns to scale (D) All the above ’æÊó- µå µåÓÜÈó ‡¼æÉÁµåÄæ Ê–ÒÊ–’åÔåíú Y = 1.32 L0.7 K0.6 ŠÒÁµåê …Áµæ µå …Áµåê ‹ÄåÄåêÆ ¼ðëé²™ÜÈåê¼å¾Áµð ? (A) ’æÄóÜÈð±Ò¯ó ²™®ÄóÞ¤ ®ê ÜÈð”éÑóÄåêÆ (B) ™ÕêÅÚÝÒ˜µó ²™®ÄóÞ¤ ®ê ÜÈð”éÑóÄåêÆ (C) …Äó“ÐÜÝÒ µó ²™®ÄóÞ¤ ®ê ÜÈð”éÑóÄåêÆ (D) ÔðêéÑ–Äå ŠÑÓÔåÄåêÆ
14. A firm earned total revenue of ` 400 by selling 40 units, if it increases its sales by one more unit, its total revenue will be ` 405. What will be the marginal revenue and the average revenue of the firm if it sells 41 units ?
(A) MR = 9.878 and AR = 5.0 (B) MR = ` 5.0 and AR = ` 9.878 (C) MR = ` 5.0 and AR = ` 5.0 (D) MR = ` 9.878 and AR = ` 9.878 §ÒÁµåê ‡ÁµåÏÔåê ›å®’åÔåíú 40 ²ìåêêůó ÔåÜÈåê¾ µåâÿåÄåêÆ Ôåìæ²µåêÔåíúÁµå²µå ÔåêëÑ’å ` 400 §®ê±
15. What is the value of multiplier when consumption function is given as, C = 120 + 0.8 Y ?
ƒÄåêÊðë阵å Ê–ÒÊ’åÔåíú C = 120 + 0.8 Y „˜™Áµæ µå, ˜µå긒åÁµå ÔåìòÑÏÔåíú ŠÚݱ²µåê¼å¾Áµð ?
(A) 120.8 (B) 120.0 (C) 5.0 (D) 0.8
16. The Philips curve deals with the relationship between which of the following variables ? (A) Wages and Price level (B) Unemployment and Inflation (C) Unemployment and Income (D) None of these
17. According to classical economists, full employment will be ensured through (A) Wage price flexibility (B) Price adjustment (C) Interest rate rigidity (D) All the above ÜÈåÒÇÈåÐÁµæÎê’å ƒÁ¿·µå¤×æÜÈå¾ø¦ö²µå ÇÈåÐ’æ²µå † ’ðâÿå ™Äå ²ìåìæÔåíúÁµå²µå ÔåêëÑ’å ÇÈå ‡ÁµðëÏ阵åÔåÄåêÆ
18. Given C = 200 + 0.5 Y, I = 200 and G = 50 (where; C = Consumption, I = Investment, G = Government expenditure and Y = Income). Find the value of equilibrium income.
C = 200 + 0.5 Y, I = 200 Ôåê¼åê¾ G = 50 „Áµæ˜µå ÜÈåÔåê¼ðëéÑÄå „Áµæ²ìåêÔåÄåêÆ ’åÒ´µåê à ™Îê²™. (…Ñ–Ó ; C = ƒÄåêÊðë阵å, I = ßåë ™’ð, G = ÜÈå’椲µåÁµå Ôðôå¢ Ôåê¼åê¾ Y = „Áµæ²ìåê).
(A) 450 (B) 900 (C) 350 (D) 800
19. According to Keynes, which one of the following is not correct ? (A) Unemployment is caused by deficiency in the effective demand. (B) Effective demand determines the level of employment in the economy. (C) Effective demand is determined by aggregate demand and aggregate supply price. (D) Economy operates always at full employment level. “éÄóÞ²µåÔå²µå ÇÈåÐ’æ²µå † ’ðâÿå ™Äå ²ìåìæÔåíúÁµåê ÜÈå²™²ìåì昙ÑÓ ?
20. In the IS-LM model, the LM curve shows the equilibrium condition in the (A) Goods market (B) Financial market (C) Labour market (D) Real sector IS-LM ÔåìæÁµå²™²ìåêÑ–Ó, LM ²µðé•ÿð²ìåêê ’ðâÿå ™Äå ²ìåìæÔåíúÁµå²µå ÜÈåÔåê¼ðëéÑÄåÔåÄåêÆ ¼ðëé²™ÜÈåê¼å¾Áµð ? (A) ÜÈå²µå’å꘵åâÿå Ôåìæ²µåê’å ð± (B) ßå ’æÜÈåê Ôåìæ²µåê’å ð± (C) ×åÐÔåêÁµå Ôåìæ²µåê’å ð± (D) Äðñ¦ ÔåѲìåê
21. An increase in the money supply results in (A) change in the slope of the LM curve (B) no change in the LM curve (C) rightward shift of LM curve (D) leftward shift of LM curve ßå Áµå ÇÈåî²µðñ’ð²ìåêÑæÓ µåêÔå ßðôå¢âÿåÔåíú † ’ðâÿå ™Äå ²ìåìæÔå ÇÈå²™¹æÔåêÔåÄåêÆÒ®ê Ôåìæ µåê¼å¾Áµð ? (A) LM ²µðé•ÿð²ìåê …â–¦ÿæ²™ÄåÑ–Ó ÊÁµåÑæÔå¹ð (B) LM ²µðé•ÿð²ìåêÑ–Ó ²ìåìæÔåíúÁµðé ÊÁµåÑæÔå¹ð²ìåì昵åêÔåíúÁ™ÑÓ. (C) LM ²µðé•ÿð²ìåêê ÊÑʷ昵å’ð” ÇÈåÑÓ®Ô昵åê¼å¾Áµð. (D) LM ²µðé•ÿð²ìåêê Š µåʷ昵å’ð” ÇÈåÑÓ®Ô昵åê¼å¾Áµð.
22. Consider that the per capita income of X state in 2011-12 at market price was ` 67,000 and Price Index (2004-05 = 100) in that year was 161, find the real per capita income :
27. Which of the following indicators were used by Morris for the construction of Physical Quality Life Index ?
(i) Basic literacy rate (ii) Infant mortality rate (iii) Life expectancy at age one (iv) Per capita income Select the correct answer by using the codes : (A) (i) only (B) (i) and (ii) (C) (i), (ii) and (iii) (D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) ¨éÔåÄåÁµå Êò½’å ˜µåê¸Ôåê®±Áµå ÜÈåëôæÏÒ’åÔåÄåêÆ ²µå¡ÜÈåÑê Ôðëé²™ÜÈó²µåÔå²µåê † ’ðâÿå ™Äå ²ìåìæÔå
28. The growth strategy which intents to provide equitable opportunity for economic participants and extends the benefits of growth to every sections of the society is known as
ÊðâÿåÔåº µð²ìåê Ç·ÈåÑÔåÄåêÆ ÕÜÈå¾²™ÜÈåêÔå ‡ÁµðÂé×åÔåÄåêÆ ßðëÒÁ™²µåêÔå ÊðâÿåÔåº µð²ìåê ¼åÒ¼åÐÔåÄåêÆ ŠÄðÒÁµåê ’å²µð²ìåêê¼æ¾²µð ? (A) ÜÈåÔåê¼ðëéÑÄå ÊðâÿåÔ庘µð (B) ÜÈåêÜÝÀ²µå ÊðâÿåÔ庘µð (C) §âÿå µðëÒ µå ÊðâÿåÔ庘µð (D) Ôð阵åÁµå ÊðâÿåÔ庘µð 29. In the new methodology (2010 onwards), which of the following variables is/are being used
for the computation of Human Development Index ? (i) Literacy rate (ii) Gross enrolment (iii) Mean years of schooling (iv) Expected years of schooling Select the correct answer by using the codes : (A) (i) only (B) (i) and (ii) (C) (ii) and (iii) (D) (iii) and (iv) ßðëÜÈå ÕÁ·µæÄåÁµåÑ–Ó (2010 ²µå ÄåҼ岵åÁµå), ÔåìæÄåÔå ƒÊ–·ÔåïÁ™Âà ÜÈåëôæÏÒ’åÔåÄåêÆ ²µå¡ÜÈåÑê ’ðâÿå ™Äå ²ìåìæÔå
31. The trickle-down theory (A) recommended for the adoption of tricks to help the poor. (B) states that government should spend more on poor. (C) recommended for increasing income tax rate. (D) states that an increase in per capita income will eventually increase the well
being of all the segments of society. °Ðé’åÑó- µòÄó ÜÝÁµæÂÃÒ¼åÔåíú (A) Ê µåÔå²™ µð ÜÈåßæ²ìåê Ôåìæ µåÑê ¼åÒ¼åИµåâÿåÄåêÆ ƒâÿåÔå ™ÜÝ’ðëâÿåäÑê ÜÈåÑßð Åé µåê¼å¾Áµð. (B) ÜÈå’椲µåÔåíú Ê µåÔå²µå ÔðêéÑð ßðôåê¢ •ôåê¤ Ôåìæ µåÊðé’åê ŠÒÁµåê ßðéâÿåê¼å¾Áµð. (C) „Áµæ²ìåê ¼ð²™ µð²ìåê Áµå²µåÔåÄåêÆ ßð¡¢ÜÈåÑê ÜÈåÑßð Ôåìæ µåê¼å¾Áµð. (D) ßðô梘µåê½¾²µåêÔå ¼åÑæ „Áµæ²ìåêÔåíú ’åÐÔðêé¸Ô昙 ÜÈåÔåìæ¦Áµå ŠÑæÓ Ôå µå¤Áµå ¦Äå²µå
²ìðë阵å’ðÛéÔåêÔåÄåêÆ ßð¡¢ÜÈåê¼å¾Áµð.
32. Which one of the following economists is considered as originator of ‘Big Push Model’ ? (A) Hirschman (B) Paul Rosenstein Rodan (C) Kaldor (D) Solow † ’ðâÿå ™Äå ²ìåìæÔå ƒÁ¿·µå¤×æÜÈå¾ø¦ö²µåÄåêÆ ‘Áµðë´µå¶ ¼åâÿåêÔå ÔåìæÁµå²™²ìåê’ ÔåêëÑ ÇÈåÐÔå¼å¤’åÄðÒÁµåê
33. ‘The degree of inequality in income distribution increases in the beginning and start declining at latter stage of development’. Who has propounded this hypothesis ?
(A) Harrod-Domar (B) Lewis (C) Karl Marx (D) Simon Kuznets ƒÊ–·ÔåïÁ™Âòìåê ÇÈæвµåÒÊ–·’å ßåÒ¼åÁµåÑ–Ó „Áµæ²ìåê ռ岵å¹ð²ìåê ƒÜÈåÔåìæÄå¼ð²ìåêê ßðô梘™ ÄåҼ岵åÁµå ßåÒ¼åÁµåÑ–Ó
34. Sustainable development address (A) the needs of present generation only (B) the needs of future generation only (C) the needs of present generation without compromising the needs of future
36. Knife-edge problem arises in (A) Solow model (B) Kaldor model (C) Joan Robbinson model (D) Harrod-Domar model ’ðâÿå ™Äå ²ìåìæÔå ÜÝÁµæÂÃÒ¼åÁµåÑ–Ó ôæ’åê-ÔðëÄð ÜÈåÔåêÜÈðÏ ‡ÁµåÌÃÕÜÈåê¼å¾Áµð ? (A) ÜÈðëÑðëé ÔåìæÁµå²™ (B) ’æÑð붲µó ÔåìæÁµå²™ (C) ¦ÿðëéÄó ²µæÊ–ÄåÞÄó ÔåìæÁµå²™ (D) ßð²µðë´µó- µðëÔåê²µó ÔåìæÁµå²™
37. If the price elasticity of supply (es) is greater than the elasticity of demand (ed), then the
proportion of tax burden on buyer is (A) Lower than upon the seller (B) Same as on the seller (C) Higher than upon the seller (D) All the above ÊðÑð ÇÈåî²µðñ’ð ÜÝÀ½ÜÈæÀÇÈå’å¼ð²ìåêê (es) Êðé´™’ð ÜÝÀ½ÜÈæÀÇÈå’å¼ð ™Ò¼å (ed) ßðô梘™²µåêÔå ÜÝÀ½²ìåêÑ–Ó,
38. The Laffer curve explains the relationship between which of the following : (A) Tax rate and unemployment (B) Tax rate and tax revenue (C) Tax rate and inflation rate (D) Tax rate and government expenditure ÑæÏÇ·Èå²µó ²µðé•ÿð²ìåêê, † ’ðâÿå ™Äå ²ìåìæÔåíúÁµå²µå Äå µåêÕÄå ÜÈåÒÊÒÁ·µåÔåÄåêÆ ÕÔå²™ÜÈåê¼å¾Áµð ? (A) ¼ð²™ µð²ìåê Áµå²µå Ôåê¼åê¾ Å²µåêÁµðëÏ阵å (B) ¼ð²™ µð²ìåê Áµå²µå Ôåê¼åê¾ ¼ð²™ µð²ìåê „Áµæ²ìåê (C) ¼ð²™ µð²ìåê Áµå²µå Ôåê¼åê¾ ßå ÁµåêÊ̲µå Áµå²µå (D) ¼ð²™ µð²ìåê Áµå²µå Ôåê¼åê¾ ÜÈå’椲™ Ôðôå¢ 39. The principle of exclusion is applicable in which of the following goods : (A) Public roads (B) Public park (C) An individuals’ house (D) None of these † ’ðâÿå ™Äå ²ìåìæÔå ÜÈå²µå’å꘵åâ– µð ßðë²µå ™ µåêÔå ¼å¼åÖÔåíú ƒÄåÖ²ìåêÔ昵åê¼å¾Áµð ? (A) ÜÈæÔå¤¦Å’å ²µåÜÈð¾ (B) ÜÈæÔå¤¦Å’å ‡ÁµæÏÄåÔåÄå (C) ÔåÏ“¾²ìåê ÔåêÄð (D) …Ôåíú˜µåâÿåÑ–Ó ²ìåìæÔåíúÔåî ƒÑÓ 40. Mr. Raj has improved his English vocabulary in his pursuit to acquire post graduation in
English literature. Then, he has contributed for the improvement in the vocabulary of his neighbourhood in his routine way of life. His influence on neighbours’ vocabulary could be considered as
(A) Individual profit (B) Positive externality of education (C) Negative externality of education (D) None of these ‚. ²µæ¦ê …Ôå²µåê …Ò˜™ÓéÚÈó ÜÈæà¼åÏÁµåÑ–Ó ÜÈæƼå’ðëé¼å¾²µå ÇÈåÁµåÕ²ìåêÄåêÆ ÇÈå µð²ìåêêÔå ÇÈåГвìðê²ìåêÑ–Ó
41. In which one of the following group of taxes impact and incidence of tax coincide ? (A) Income tax and Excise duties (B) Corporate tax and Excise duties (C) Income tax and Corporate tax (D) Excise duties and Sales tax ’ðâÿå ™Äå ²ìåìæÔå ˜µåêÒÇÝÄå ¼ð²™ µð µåâÿåÑ–Ó ¼ð²™ µð²ìåê …ÒÇÈæÏ’ó± Ôåê¼åê¾ …ÅÞ µðÄóÞ Š²µå µåë §Ê̲µå ÔðêéÑð
42. Imposition of progressive tax is expected to (A) Reduce the Gini coefficient (B) Increase the Gini coefficient (C) Maintain stability in the Gini coefficient (D) Have bell shaped curve ÇÈåИµå½ÇÈå²µå ¼ð²™ µð²ìåêÄåêÆ ÕÁ·™ÜÈåêÔåíúÁµå²™ÒÁµå † ’ðâÿå ™Äå ²ìåìæÔåíúÁµåÄåêÆ Å²™é“ÛÜÈåÊßåêÁµåê ? (A) ˜™Å µåê¹æÒ’åÁµåÑ–Ó …â–’ð (B) ˜™Å µåê¹æÒ’åÁµåÑ–Ó ‹²™’ð (C) ˜™Å µåê¹æÒ’åÁµåÑ–Ó ÜÝÀ²µå¼ð (D) ÊðÑó „’æ²µåÁµå ²µðé•ÿð
43. The part of the government deficit which is financed solely by borrowing from RBI is called (A) Revenue deficit (B) Fiscal deficit (C) Budget deficit (D) Monetized deficit ÜÈåÒÇÈåÔ昙 RBI ÅÒÁµå ÇÈå µð²ìåêêÔå ÜÈæÑÁ™ÒÁµå ß帒æÜÈåê Ôåìæ µåÑ昵åêÔå ÜÈå’椲µåÁµå ’ðë²µå¼ð²ìåê
44. Tax buoyancy is an indicator used to measure the efficiency in revenue mobilization in response to
(A) increase in population (B) increase in government expenditure (C) increase in tax rate (D) increase in GDP ’ðâÿå ™Äå ²ìåìæÔåíúÁµå²µå ÇÈåн“вìðê²ìåì昙 „Áµæ²ìåê ’ðëÐé ·™é’å²µå Áµå Áµå’åÛ¼ð²ìåêÄåêÆ ƒâÿð²ìåêÑê ¼ð²™ µð
45. In a financial year, the fiscal deficit of a government is reported to be ` 6,50,000 crore, revenue deficit is recorded as ` 1,40,000 crore and interest payment was ` 1,10,000 crore. Given this information find the primary deficit.
48. According to the factor–endowment theory, a country must specialize in (A) Goods which employ more of dearer factors. (B) Goods which employ more of abundant factors. (C) Goods which employ improved technology. (D) Any of the above ‡¼æÉÁµåÄæÒ˜µå-Áµå½¾ ÜÝÁµæÂÃÒ¼åÁµå ÇÈåÐ’æ²µå §ÒÁµåê Áµðé×åÔåíú ²ìåìæÔå ÔåÜÈåê¾ÕÄå ‡¼æÉÁµåÄð²ìåêÑ–Ó
49. Trade between nations can be profitable even if one of the two nations can produce both commodities more efficiently than the other nation is the gist of
(A) Absolute cost advantage theory (B) Opportunity cost theory (C) Comparative cost advantage theory (D) Factor endowment theory ‘§ÒÁµåê Áµðé×åÔåíú Š²µå µåë ÔåÜÈåê¾ µåâÿåÄåêÆ ÜÈåßå …ÄðëÆÒÁµåê Áµðé×å“”Ò¼å ßðôåê¢ Áµå’åÛÔ昙
50. Marshall-Lerner condition states that the foreign exchange market would be stable if the sum of the price elasticities of the demand for imports and the demand for exports is
(A) Greater than one (B) Equal to zero (C) Less than one (D) Equal to one ÔåìæÚÈå¤Ñó-ÑÄ夲µó ŲìåêÔåêÁµå ÇÈåÐ’æ²µå ÕÁµðéØ ÕÅÔåê²ìåê Ôåìæ²µåê’å ð±²ìåêê ÜÝÀ²µåÔ昙²µåÊðé’æÁµå²µð
(A) ƒÔå’æ×å Ôðôå¢ ÜÝÁµæÂÃÒ¼å (B) ÇÈå²µåÜÈåɲµå Êðé ™’ð ÜÝÁµæÂÃÒ¼å (C) ÔðÒ¯ó Ç·Èæ²µó ÜÈå²µóÇÈåÓÜÈó ÜÝÁµæÂÃÒ¼å (D) ÕÅÔåê²ìåê ÜÝÁµæÂÃÒ¼å 57. The ratio between the quantity of a country’s import and export is known as (A) Income terms of trade (B) Gross barter terms of trade (C) Single factor terms of trade (D) Double factor terms of trade §ÒÁµåê Áµðé×åÁµå „ÔåêÁµåê Ôåê¼åê¾ ²µåÇ·Èåùíý¾ ÇÈåÐÔåìæ¸Áµå Äå µåêÕÄå ƒÄåêÇÈæ¼åÔåÄåêÆ ‹ÄðÒÁµåê ’å²µð²ìåêÑ昵åê¼å¾Áµð ? (A) „Áµæ²ìåê ÔæÏÇÈæ²µåÁµå ’岵沵åê (B) §®ê± ÕÅÔåê²ìåê ÔæÏÇÈæ²µåÁµå ’岵沵åê (C) ‹’æÒ×å ÔæÏÇÈæ²µåÁµå ’岵沵åê (D) µåÊÑó Ç·ÈæÏ’å±²µó ÔæÏÇÈæ²µåÁµå ’岵沵åê 58. Official reduction in external value of the currency is known as (A) Depreciation (B) Deflation (C) Exchange control (D) Devaluation §ÒÁµåê Áµðé×åÁµå ßå¸Áµå ÊæßåÏÔåìòÑÏÔåÄåêÆ ƒÁ·™’åï¼åÔ昙 ’å ™Ôðê Ôåìæ µåêÔåíúÁµåÄåêÆ ‹ÄðÒÁµåê
’å²µð²ìåêÑ昵åê¼å¾Áµð ? (A) ™ÇÝÐÜݲìðêéÚÈåÄó (B) ™Ç·Èðùù Ó×åÄó (C) ÕÅÔåê²ìåê ÅʤÒÁ·µå (D) ™ÔæÏÑëϲìðêé×åÄó 59. Fisher’s Ideal Index Number satisfies (A) only time reversal test (B) only factor reversal test (C) both time reversal and factor reversal test (D) none of these Ç·Ý×å²µó²µåÔå²µå „Áµå×å¤ ÜÈåëôæÏÒ’åÔåíú ’ðâÿå ™Äå ²ìåìæÔåíúÁµåÄåêÆ ¼åïÇݾÇÈå ™ÜÈåê¼å¾Áµð ? (A) ÜÈåÔåê²ìåê ½²µåêÔåíú ÇÈå²™é’ðÛ²ìåêÄåêÆ Ôåìæ¼åÐ (B) Ç·ÈæÏ’å±²µó ½²µåêÔåíú ÇÈå²™é’ðÛ²ìåêÄåêÆ Ôåìæ¼åÐ (C) ÜÈåÔåê²ìåê Ôåê¼åê¾ Ç·ÈæÏ’å±²µó …²µåêÔå Š²µå µåë ÇÈå²™é’ðÛ˜µåâÿåÄåêÆ (D) …Ôåíú˜µåâÿåÑ–Ó ²ìåìæÔåíúÁµåë ƒÑÓ
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60. The profit function given below will attain maximum value when the output level is
61. The solution for a linear programming is said to be optimum when the objective function takes
(A) only maximum value (B) only minimum value (C) either maximum or minimum value (D) zero value Ñ–éŲìåê²µó ÇÈðîИµæÐÕêÒ˜µóÄå ‡ÁµðÂé×å Ê–ÒÊ–’åÔåíú ’ðâÿå ™Äå ²ìåìæÔå ÔåìòÑÏÔåÄåêÆ ÇÈå µ ðÁµæ˜µå ÇÈå²™ßæ²µåÔåíú
ƒ¼åêϼå¾Ôåê ÜÝÀ½²ìåêÄåêÆ ¼åÑêÇÈåíú¼å¾Áµð ? (A) ˜µå²™ÚÈå± ÔåìòÑÏÔåÄåêÆ ÇÈå µðÁµæ˜µå Ôåìæ¼åÐ (B) ’åÅÚÈå± ÔåìòÑÏÔåÄåêÆ ÇÈå µðÁµæ˜µå Ôåìæ¼åÐ (C) ˜µå²™ÚÈå± ƒÁ¿·µåÔå ’åÅÚÈå± ÔåìòÑÏÔåÄåêÆ ÇÈå µðÁµæ˜µå (D) ×åëÄåÏÔ昙Áµæ µå 62. Input-output (model) analysis use the technique of (A) Differentiation (B) Integration (C) Matrices (D) None of these …ÄåêÉ ó-˯óÇÈåíú¯ó Õ×ðÓéÚÈå¹ð²ìåêê ’ðâÿå ™Äå ²ìåìæÔå ÕÁ·µæÄåÔåÄåêÆ ÊâÿåÜÝ’ðëâÿåêä¼å¾Áµð ? (A) ™Ç·Èå²µðÅÞ²ìðêé×åÄó (B) …Ò° µðÐé×åÄó (C) ÔåìæÏ°ÐÜÝÜÈó (D) …Ôåíú˜µåâÿåÑ–Ó ²ìåìæÔåíúÁµåë ƒÑÓ 63. In regression of ‘Y’ on ‘X’ ; X is a (A) Dependent variable (B) Independent variable (C) Constant (D) None of these
64. The sum of squares of deviation of set of values is minimum when deviation is taken from (A) Arithmetic mean (B) Median (C) Mode (D) Harmonic mean ’ðâÿå ™Äå ²ìåìæÔå ÜÈå²µæÜÈå²™ ÔåìòÑÏÁ™ÒÁµå ÕôåÑÄð²ìåêÄåêÆ ¼ð µðÁµåê’ðëÒ´µæ˜µå §ÒÁµåê ˜µåêÒÇÝÄå ÔåìòÑϘµåâÿå
ÕôåÑÄð²ìåê Ôå µå¤ÔåìæÄå µåâÿå (squares) Ôðë¼å¾Ôåíú ’åÅÚÈå³Ô昙²µåê¼å¾Áµð ŠÒÁµå²µð (A) ƒÒ’å µåº¼åÁµå ÜÈå²µæÜÈå²™ (B) Õêé ™²ìåêÄó (C) Ôðëé µó (D) ßæ²µðëÍéÅ’ó ÕêéÄó 65. If ‘r’ is the correlation coefficient between two variables, then; r’ ŠÒÊêÁµåê Š²µå µ åê ôåÑ’å µåâÿå Äå µåêÕÄå ÜÈåßåÜÈåÒÊÒÁ·µåÔåÄåêÆ ¼ðëé²™ÜÈåê¼å¾Áµð ŠÒÁµæÁµå²µð, „˜µå (A) 0 ≤ r ≤ 1 (B) –1 ≤ r ≤ 0 (C) –1 ≤ r ≤ 1 (D) 1 ≤ r ≤ 2 66. Variance is the square of (A) Mean (B) Range (C) Quartile Deviation (D) Standard Deviation Ê–·ÄåƼð²ìåêê (Variance) ’ðâÿå ™Äå ²ìåìæÔåíúÁµå²µå Ôå²µåšÔåìæÄå (square) Ô昙Áµð ?
(A) ÕêéÄó (B) ²µðéÒ¦ÿó (C) ’æÖ²µð±ûñÑó ™Õ²ìðêé×åÄó (D) ÜÈæ± ÏÒ µå µó¤ ™Õ²ìðêé×åÄó 67. If Mean = 25 and Median = 20, then find the mode; (A) 5 (B) 10 (C) –10 (D) None of these ÕêéÄó = 25 Ôåê¼åê¾ Õêé ™²ìåêÄó = 20 „Áµæ˜µå Ôðëé µó ’åÒ µåê à ™Îê²™. (A) 5 (B) 10 (C) –10 (D) …Ôåíú˜µåâÿåÑ–Ó ²ìåìæÔåíúÁµåë ƒÑÓ 68. The chi-square test can be used to test for (A) Significance of association (B) Difference between population means (C) Correlation (D) None of these ¡-ÜÈð”þÖé²µó ¯ðÜÈó± ƒÄåêÆ, ²ìåìæÔåíúÁµåÄåêÆ ÇÈå²™é“ÛÜÈåÑê ÊâÿåÜÈåÊßåêÁµåê ? (A) ÜÝ ™ÆÇ·Ý’ðÄóÞ „Ç·Èó ƒÜÈðëéÜݲìðêé×åÄó (B) ÇÈæÇÈåíúÑðé×åÄó ÕêéÄó˜µåâÿå Äå µåêÕÄå ÔåϼæÏÜÈå (C) ÜÈåßåÜÈåÒÊÒÁ·µå (D) …Ôåíú˜µåâÿåÑ–Ó ²ìåìæÔåíúÁµåë ƒÑÓ
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69. If mean of a series is 20 and variance is 16, then the coefficient of variation is (A) 40 (B) 80 (C) 20 (D) None of these §ÒÁµåê ÜÝé²™ÜÈóÄå ÜÈå²µæÜÈå²™²ìåêê 20 „˜™Áµåê Ôåê¼åê¾ Ê–·ÄåƼð²ìåêê (variance) 16 „˜™Áµæ µå
70. Type – I error occurs when (A) the null hypothesis is incorrectly accepted when it is false. (B) the null hypothesis is incorrectly rejected when it is true. (C) the sample mean differs from the population mean. (D) the test is biased. ¯ðñÇÈó – I ÁµðëéÚÈåÔåíú ²ìåìæÔæ˜µå ‡Ò¯æ µåê¼å¾Áµð ŠÒÁµå²µð, (A) ¼åÇÈæÉ ™²µåêÔå ÄåÑó-ßðñÇÈðîé¼ðÜÝÜÈóÄåêÆ ÁµðëéÚÈå²ìåêê’å¾Ô昙 ƒÒ ™é’å²™ÜÝÁµæ˜µå (B) ÜÈå²™²ìåì昙²µåêÔå ÄåÑó-ßðñÇÈðîé¼ðÜÝÜÈóÄåêÆ ÁµðëéÚÈå²ìåêê’å¾Ô昙 ½²µåÜÈ唲™ÜÝÁµæ˜µå (C) ÜÈæÏÒÇÈåÑóÄå ÜÈå²µæÜÈå²™²ìåêê ÇÈæÇÈåíúÑðé×åÄó ÜÈå²µæÜÈå²™ ™Ò¼å Ê–·ÄåÆÔ昙Áµæ µå (D) ¯ðÜÈó± ÇÈå’åÛÇÈæ½²ìåì昙Áµæ µå
71. Decadal growth rate of Indian population during 2001-2011 was 2001-2011 ²µå ƒÔåÁ·™²ìåêÑ–Ó Ê·æ²µå½é²ìåê ¦ÄåÜÈåÒ•ÿðϲìåê ÊðâÿåÔ庘µð²ìåê Áµå²µåÔåíú (A) 21.54 (B) 17.64 (C) 23.87 (D) 15.41
72. Global hunger index is developed by (A) World Health Organisation (B) Food and Agriculture Organisation (C) International Food Policy Research Institute (D) W.T.O. † ’ðâÿå ™Äå ²ìåìæÔå ÜÈåÒÜÈðÀ²ìåêê ¦ÿ昵å½é’å ßåÜÝÔåíú ÜÈåëôæÏÒ’åÔåÄåêÆ ƒÊ–·ÔåïÁ™ÂÃÇÈå ™ÜÝÁµð ? (A) Õ×åÖ „²µðë阵åÏ ÜÈåÒÜÈðÀ (WHO)
(B) „ßæ²µå Ôåê¼åê¾ ’åïÚÝ ÜÈåÒÜÈðÀ (FAO)
(C) ƒÒ¼å²µæÚݱøé²ìåê „ßæ²µå Åé½ ÜÈåÒ×ðëéÁ·µåÄæ ÜÈåÒÜÈðÀ (D) W.T.O. 73. Over the last few decades, share of agriculture sector to the national income of the country is (A) increasing (B) remaining constant (C) decreasing (D) none of these ’åâÿðÁµå ’ðÑÔåíú Áµå×å’å µåâ–ÒÁµå, Áµðé×åÁµå ²µæÚݱøé²ìåê „Áµæ²ìåêÁµåÑ–Ó ’åïÚÝ ’ðÛé¼åÐÁµå ÇÈæÑê (A) ßðô梘µåê½¾Áµð (B) ÜÝÀ²µåÔ昙Áµð (C) ’å ™Ôðê²ìåì昙Áµð (D) …Ôåíú˜µåâÿåÑ–Ó ²ìåìæÔåíúÁµåë ƒÑÓ
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74. The first (inaugural) ministerial conference of W.T.O. was held at (A) Singapore (B) Geneva (C) Seattle (D) Doha W.T.O. Äå ÔðëÁµåÑ (ÇÈæвµåÒÊ·ðëé¼åÞÔåÁµå) ÜÈå¡Ôå ÜÈåÔðêÍéâÿåÄåÔåíú ŠÑ–Ó Äå µðÎê¼ðÒÁµå²µð (A) ÜÝÒ˜µåÇÈåî²µó (B) ¨ÅéÔæ (C) Üݲìåê®Ñó (D) Áµðëéßæ
75. Who is considered as Father of Green Revolution in India ?
79. 14th Finance Commission was constituted under the chairmanship of (A) Vijay L. Kelkar (B) Y. Venugopal Reddy (C) Y.S.P. Thorat (D) Abhijit Sen 14 Äðé ßå ’æÜÈåê „²ìðë阵åÔåÄåêÆ ²ìåìæ²µå ƒÁ·µåùÏ’åÛ¼ð²ìåêÑ–Ó ²µå¡ÜÈåÑ昙Áµð ? (A) Õ¦²ìåìó L. ’ðéÑ”²µó (B) Y. Ôðé¸ê˜µðëéÇÈæÑó ²µð ™¶ (C) Y.S.P. Á¿·µðëé²µå ó (D) ƒÊ–· é¼ó ÜÈðéÄó
80. In which type of unemployment, marginal productivity is zero or near zero ? (A) Seasonal unemployment (B) Structural unemployment (C) Disguised unemployment (D) Frictional unemployment ²ìåìæÔå ÕÁ·µåÁµå ŲµåêÁµðëÏ阵åÁµåÑ–Ó ÜÝéÔåìæÒ¼å ‡¼æÉÁµå’å¼ð²ìåêê ×åëÄåÏÔ昙²µåê¼å¾Áµð ƒÁ¿·µ åÔå ×åëÄåÏ’ð”
81. What was the minimum support price for maize during Kharif season of 2014-15 ? 2014-15 ²µå ÔåêêÒ˜µæ²™ÄåÑ–Ó Ôðê’ð”¦ÿðëéâÿå’ð” صåÁ™ÇÈå ™ÜÈåÑ昙Áµå ’åÅÚÈå± ÊðÒÊÑ ÊðÑð ‹Äåê ?
(A) ` 1,150 (B) ` 1,310 (C) ` 1,250 (D) None of these / …Ôåíú µåâÿåÑ–Ó ²ìåìæÔåíúÁµåë ƒÑÓ
82. Which one of the following is not a provision of National Food Security Act, 2013 ? (A) Right to receive foodgrains at subsidized price (B) Nutritional support to pregnant women and lactating mothers (C) Immunization support to mother and child (D) Nutritional support to children ²µæÚݱøé²ìåê „ßæ²µå Ê·åÁµåмð ’æ²ìðê – 2013, ²µåÑ–Ó ’ðâÿå ™Äå ²ìåìæÔåíúÁµå’ð” ƒÔå’æ×åÕÑÓ ?
86. How many talukas of Karnataka were considered as ‘most backward talukas’ in the report of high powered committee for redressal of regional imbalances ?
(A) 39 (B) 40
(C) 35 (D) None of these ÇÈæÐÁµðéØ’å ƒÜÈåÔåê¼ðëéÑÄåÔåÄåêÆ ÅÔæ²™ÜÈåÑê ²µå¡ÜݲµåêÔå ßðñ ÇÈåÔå²µå µó ÜÈåÕê½²ìåê Ôå²µåÁ™²ìåêÑ–Ó ’åÄ椮’å
88. As per 2011 Census, the percentage of urban population in Karnataka is (A) more than the percentage of urban population in India. (B) less than the percentage of urban population in India. (C) equal to the percentage of urban population in India. (D) None of these 2011 ²µå ¦Äå µå ½²ìåê ÇÈåÐ’æ²µå, ’åÄ椮’å ²µæ¦ÏÁµå Äå µå²µå ÇÈåÐÁµðé×åÁµå ¦ÄåÜÈåÒ•ÿðϲìåê ×ðé’å µæÔæ²µåê
ÇÈåÐÔåìæ¸Ôåíú Ê·æ²µå¼åÁµðé×åÁµå Äå µå²µå ÇÈåÐÁµðé×åÁµå ¦ÄåÜÈåÒ•ÿðϲìåê ×ðé’å µæÔæ²µåê (A) ÇÈåÐÔåì渓”Ò¼å ßðô梘™Áµð (B) ÇÈåÐÔåì渓”Ò¼å ’å ™Ôðê …Áµð (C) ÇÈåÐÔåì渒ð” ÜÈåÔåêÔ昙Áµð (D) …Ôåíú˜µåâÿåÑ–Ó ²ìåìæÔåíúÔåî ƒÑÓ 89. According to 2011 Census, sex ratio (females per 1000 male) of Udupi district (A) 1093 (B) 1130 (C) 1005 (D) None of these 2011 ²µå ¦Äå µå ½²ìåê ÇÈåÐ’æ²µå, ‡ µåêÇÝ ¨ÑðÓ²ìåê Ñ–Ò˜µæÄåêÇÈæ¼åÔåíú (ÇÈåн ÜÈæÕ²µå ÇÈåíú²µåêÚÈå²™ µð
ßð ê»Ôåê’å”âÿå ÜÈåÒ•ÿðÏ) ; (A) 1093 (B) 1130 (C) 1005 (D) …Ôåíú˜µåâÿåÑ–Ó ²ìåìæÔåíúÔåî ƒÑÓ 90. What is the percentage Share of Karnataka in the total population of India (as per Census
94. Which one of the following was established to work as a nodal agency to implement all the housing schemes sponsored by central as well as State Government ?
(A) ²µæ¨éÔó ˜µæÒÁ·™ ˜µæÐÕêé¸ ÔåÜÈå½ Å µåÔåê ŲìåêÕê¼å (B) Ôåêßæ¼åÍ µæÒÁ·™ ˜µæÐÕêé¸ ÔåÜÈå½ Å˜µåÔåê ŲìåêÕê¼å (C) …ÒÁ™²µæ ˜µæÒÁ·™ ˜µæÐÕêé¸ ÔåÜÈå½ Å µåÔåê ŲìåêÕê¼å (D) …Ôåíú˜µåâÿåÑ–Ó ²ìåìæÔåíúÁµåë ƒÑÓ 95. Which one of the following is/are true with respect to SHG-Bank linkage model ? (i) It was launched by NABARD (ii) It was launched in 1992 (iii) It is being used as financial inclusion strategy (iv) In this model, only those SHGs which registered under cooperative act are linked to
Banks. Choose the correct answer by using codes : (A) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (B) (i), (ii) and (iii) (C) (i), (iii) and (iv) (D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) ÜÈåÖÜÈåßæ²ìåê ÜÈåÒ›å µåâÿåê Ôåê¼åê¾ ÊæÏÒ’ó Ñ–Ò’ðé¦ÿó ÔåìæÁµå²™ µð ÜÈåÒÊÒÁ·™ÜÝÁµåÒ¼ð ’ðâÿå ™Äå ²ìåìæÔåíúÔåíú
(C) ÜÈåßå’æ²™ ²ìðëé¦Äæ ÜÈåÕê½ (D) ÔðñÁµåÏÄæÁ¿·µ åÄó ÜÈåÕê½ 97. NAFED is a (A) Private company (B) Government Department (C) Cooperative Organisation (D) Non-Government Organisation NAFED §ÒÁµåê (A) •ÿæÜÈå ™ ’åÒÇÈðŲìåì昙Áµð (B) ÜÈå’椲µåÁµå …Ñæ•ÿð²ìåì昙Áµð (C) ÜÈåßå’æ²™ ÜÈåÒÜÈðÀ²ìåì昙Áµð (D) ÜÈå²µå’æ²µðé¼å²µå ÜÈåÒÜÈðÀ²ìåì昙Áµð 98. Which of the following is/are true with respect to ‘National Co-operative Development
Corporation’ ? (i) It was established in 1973 (ii) It was established as a statutory corporation (iii) It was established by an act of Parliament. (iv) It has given boost to the growth of Cooperative Marketing. Select the correct answer by using the codes : (A) (i) only (B) (i) and (ii) (C) (i), (ii) and (iii) (D) (ii), (iii) and (iv) ²µæÚݱøé²ìåê ÜÈåßå’æ²™ ƒÊ–·ÔåïÁ™Âà صåÔåê’ð” ÜÈåÒÊÒÁ·™ÜÝÁµåÒ¼ð ’ðâÿå ™Äå ²ìåìæÔåíúÔåíú ÜÈå²™²ìåì昙Ôð ?