MANAGEMENT 2. the objective of Competition Act, 2002 ? (B ...

(3)M-2109-PHD-(MGT)(RM)-C 1 P.T.O.

MANAGEMENT

1. Which of the following is the vital question in the economic system ?

(A) What to produce (B) How to produce

(C) For whom to produce (D) All of these

2. Which of the following is not the objective of Competition Act, 2002 ?

(A) Prohibition of abuse of dominant position

(B) Prohibition of restrictive trade practices

(C) Prohibition of anti-competitive agreement

(D) Regulation of combinations

3. The credit for inventing the word “Privatisation” goes to :

(A) Elton Mayo (B) F. W. Taylor

(C) L. Urwick (D) Peter Drucker

4. Graph of variables having linear relation will be :

(A) Curved (B) Hyperbola

(C) Straight line (D) None of these

5. In which files, the records are organised in sequence and an index table is used

to speed up access to the records without requiring a search of the entire file ?

(A) Direct files (B) Sequential files

(C) Indexed Sequential files (D) None of these

6. Correlation between income and demand is :

(A) Negative (B) Positive

(C) Zero (D) None of these

(3)M-2109-PHD-(MGT)(RM)-C 2

7. MIS stands for :

(A) Multiple Information System

(B) Maximum Information System

(C) Management Information System

(D) None of the above

8. ……….is the term given to any system of reorganization of data items within a

file, where the reorganisation is independent of the information content of the file.

(A) Printing (B) Maintenance

(C) Copying (D) Merging

9. In which files, the records organised in such a way that it is possible for the

computer to directly locate the key of the desired record without having to search

through a sequence of other records ?

(A) Direct Files (B) Sequential files

(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these

10. Relationship of two or more variables is examined excluding some other variables

in case of :

(A) Total correlation (B) Partial correlation

(C) Multiple correlation (D) None of these

11. In the calculation of return on shareholders' investments the referred investment

deals with :

(A) All reserves

(B) Preference and equity capital only

(C) All appropriations

(D) All of the above

(3)M-2109-PHD-(MGT)(RM)-C 3 P.T.O.

12. Dividing the net profit by the paid up amount of equity share capital yields :

(A) Temporary investment

(B) Earning per share

(C) Rate of return on equity share capital


13. The return on investment (ROI) may be calculated as :

(A) Net profit before interest, tax and dividend/Capital employed

(B) Net profit after interest, tax and dividend/Shareholder's fund

(C) ( Net profit – preference dividend )/ No. of equity shares

(D) Return on Investment /Net profit ratio

14. The major sources where from debentures can be redeemed are :

1. Profits

2. Capital

3. Provisions made for redemption

4. Conversion into shares or new debentures.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(A) 1, 3 and 4 (B) 1 and 4

(C) 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

15. Which of the following profits are capital profits ?

l. Profit prior to incorporation

2. Premium received on issue of shares or debentures

3. Profit made on redemption of debentures

4. Profit set aside for redemption of preference shares

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(A) 2, 3 and 4 (B) 1, 3 and 4

(C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(3)M-2109-PHD-(MGT)(RM)-C 4

16. Which section of Banking Regulation Act, 1949 provides nomination for payment

of depositor's money ?

(A) Section 42 (B) Section 24

(C) Section 110A (D) Section 452A

17. Relationship of banker with payee of draft :

(A) Trustee and Beneficiary (B) Drawer and Drawee

(C) Licensor and Licensee (D) Principal and Agent

18. Which of the following statements is true ?

(A) The currency notes issued by RBI are legal tender throughout the world.

(B) The treasury bills are sold by the RBI for raising its working capital.

(C) All commercial banks, including those owned by government, do not need

a licence from the RBI to do banking business.

(D) The RBI is a banker to both central and state governments

19. SEBI is :

(A) Regulatory Authority (B) Statutory Authority

(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these

20. The short term money market comprises :

(A) The call money market

(B) The interbank deposit market

(C) The bills re-discounting market


(3)M-2109-PHD-(MGT)(RM)-C 5 P.T.O.

21. Bilateral arrangements instituted to restrain the rapid growth of exports of specific

manufactured goods, are called :

(A) Administered protection

(B) Voluntary export restraints

(C) Imposed export restraints


22. India is not associated with :

(A) SAARC (B) NAFTA

(C) BRICS (D) None of these

23. According to the credit tranche policy of the IMF, credit is made available in :

(A) Five tranches, each equivalent to 20% of country's quota

(B) Four tranches, each equivalent to 25% of country's quota

(C) Ten tranches, each equivalent to 10% of country's SDRs

(D) Four tranches, each equivalent to 25% of country's SDRs

24. A tariff fails to restrict imports when the demand for imports is :

(A) Perfectly price elastic (B) Price inelastic

(C) Of unitary price elasticity (D) None of these

25. Which barrier can be used against recession induced exports into the country ?

(A) Quotas (B) Voluntary export restraints

(C) Tariff (D) All of these

(3)M-2109-PHD-(MGT)(RM)-C 6

26. While delegating, a superior delegates :

(A) Only authority

(B) Authority and responsibility

(C) Authority, responsibility and accountability

(D) Authority and responsibility but not accountability

27. Which of the following is true with respect to planning function ?

(A) To make a blue print of ideas and work

(B) To tell the work allocation to all

(C) Monitoring whether the things allocated are done properly


28. Each subordinate should have only one superior whose command he has to obey.

This is known as :

(A) Division of work

(B) Exception principle

(C) Unity of Command principle

(D) Authority - responsibility principle

29. In line and staff organisation the staff performs the function of :

(A) Management (B) Advising the management

(C) Assigning responsibility (D) None of these

(3)M-2109-PHD-(MGT)(RM)-C 7 P.T.O.

30. Which one of the following orders indicates the correct logical order of managerial

functions ?

(A) Organising, Planning, Directing, Staffing, Coordination and Control

(B) Planning, Organising, Staffing, Directing, Control and Coordination

(C) Planning, Directing, Organising, Staffing, Control and Coordination

(D) Organising, Planning, Staffing, Directing, Control and Coordination

31. The kinked demand curve explains :

(A) Price rigidity (B) Price flexibility

(C) Demand rigidity (D) Demand flexibility

32. Imperfect competition was introduced by :

(A) Marshall (B) Chamberlin

(C) Keynes (D) None of these

33. A situation in which the number of competing firms is relatively small is known

as :

(A) Monopoly (B) Perfect competition

(C) Monopsony (D) Oligopoly

34. Demand is a function of :

(A) Price (B) Firm

(C) Product (D) Cost

35. Price effect in indifference curve analysis arises :

(A) When the consumer becomes either better off or worse off because price

change is not compensated by income change.

(B) When the consumer is better off due to a change in income and price

(C) When income and price change


(3)M-2109-PHD-(MGT)(RM)-C 8

36. Elasticity of demand measures the :

(A) Sensitivity of production to changes in a particular cost

(B) Sensitivity of sales to changes in a particular causal factor

(C) Value of price and cost

(D) Volume of product

37. In the case of an inferior good, the income effect :

(A) Is equal to the substitution effect

(B) Reinforces the substitution effect

(C) Partially offsets the substitution effect

(D) More than offsets the substitution effect

38. What is customer value ?

(A) Ratio between the customer's perceived benefits and the resources used to

obtain these benefits

(B) Excess of satisfaction over expectation

(C) Post-purchase dissonance


39. Which method does not consider the time value of money ?

(A) Net present value (B) Internal Rate of Return

(C) Average rate of return (D) Profitability Index

40. Which of the following has the highest cost of capital ?

(A) Loans (B) Equity shares

(C) Bonds (D) Preference shares

(3)M-2109-PHD-(MGT)(RM)-C 9 P.T.O.

41. If the current ratio is 2 : 1 and working capital is Rs. 60,000, what is the value

of the current assets ?

(A) Rs. 60,000 (B) Rs. 1,00,000

(C) Rs. 1,20,000 (D) Rs. 1,80,000

42. Which one of the following is correct ?

(i) A ratio is an arithmetical relationship of one number to another number

(ii) Liquid ratio is also known as acid test ratio

(iii) Role of thumb for current ratio is 2 : 1

(iv) Debt-equity ratio is the relationship between outsiders fund and shareholders

fund

(A) Only (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.

(B) Only (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.

(C) Only (ii) and (iii) are correct.

(D) All of the above.

43. If compounding is done quarterly in year, the effective rate of interest is equal to :

(A) 4 × nominal rate of interest

(B) (1 + nominal rate of interest/4)4

(C) (1 + nominal rate of interest)/4


44. Cost of capital from all the sources of funds is called :

(A) Specific Cost (B) Composite Cost

(C) Implicit Cost (D) Simple Average Cost

(3)M-2109-PHD-(MGT)(RM)-C 10

45. Which one of the following is not used to estimate cost of equity capital ?

(A) External yield criterion

(B) Dividend plus growth rate

(C) Equity capitalisation approach

(D) Capital asset pricing model

46. Liberalization means :

(A) Reducing number of reserved industries from higher to lower number

(B) Liberating the industry, trade and economy from unwanted restrictions

(C) Opening up of economy to the world by attaining international competitiveness

(D) Free determination of interest rates

47. When a company takes over another one and clearly becomes the new owner, the

action is called :

(A) Merger (B) Acquisition

(C) Strategic Alliance (D) None of these

48. Relaxing the restrictions and controls imposed on Business and Industry means :

(A) Liberalisation (B) Privatisation

(C) Globalisation (D) None of these

49. Company images and brand equity is factor affecting business :

(A) Internally (B) Externally

(C) Government Policy (D) None of these

50. Which among the following is not opened for private sector participation ?

(A) Power sector (B) Telecommunication sector

(C) Education sector (D) Railways

(3)M-2109-PHD-(MGT)(RM)-C 11 P.T.O.

RESEARCH METHODOLOGY

Refer the below for the Question Nos. 51 to 55 :

There are eight persons born in different years viz., 1972, 1978, 1983, 1985, 1992,

1994, 1997 and 2000 but not necessary in the same order. Their ages were calculated

based on the year 2018 and also they were born in the same date of the same month

in the given different years.

Only two persons are born between T and P, whose age is multiple of 11. N was born

in one of the even numbered years but not the youngest person. S was born immedi-

ately before N. As many persons born after Q is same as the people born before M.

Neither Q nor M is the youngest person. More than two persons were born between

R and V, who is elder than Q.

51. What is the age difference between V and N ?

(A) 14 years (B) 5 years

(C) 11 years (D) 12 years

52. If N is related to P and Q is related to S in a certain way. Then, V is related to

which of the following ?

(A) M (B) N

(C) Q (D) T

53. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and they form a group.

Which of the following is one that does not belong to the group ?

(A) M (B) V

(C) S (D) R

(3)M-2109-PHD-(MGT)(RM)-C 12

54. How many persons are born between V and Q ?

(A) None (B) One

(C) Two (D) Three

55. M was born in which of the following years ?

(A) 1978 (B) 1983

(C) 1994 (D) 1997


Many sociologists have argued that there is functional relationship between education

and economic system. They point to the fact that mass formal education began in in-

dustrial society. They note that the expansion of the economies of industrial societies

is accompanied by a corresponding expansion of their educational systems. They ex-

plain this correspondence in terms of the needs of industry for skilled and trained

manpower, needs which are met by the educational system. Thus, the provision of mass

elementary education in Britain in 1870 can be seen as a response to the needs of

industry for a literate and numerate workforce at a time when industrial processes were

becoming more complex and the demand for technical skills was steadily growing.

56. The industry needs a literate work-force because :

(A) its expansion needs sound learning

(B) it relies heavily on expertise

(C) it promotes a competitive spirit

(D) its operations need intricate technical knowledge

(3)M-2109-PHD-(MGT)(RM)-C 13 P.T.O.

57. The author argues that :

(A) formal education can be traced to industrial society

(B) industrial society is responsible for expansion of education at mass level

(C) industrial society gave rise to vocational education

(D) industrial society changed the pattern of education

58. The observation of the Sociologists is based on a study of :

(A) the statistical data available in a historical context

(B) economic system of the 19th century

(C) the correlation between industry and education in a historical context

(D) growth of industry in 19th century

59. The Sociologists referred to it in the passage say that the relationship between

industry and elementary education was one :

(A) based on mutual need

(B) based entirely on the need of the industry

(C) based entirely on economic need

(D) based on some inexplicable historical forces

60. By 'functional relationship' is meant :

(A) a short-term relationship

(B) practical and utilitarian relationship

(C) temporary arrangement

(D) close and unbreakable relationship

61. Computer Assisted Instruction is based on ................. principle.

(A) Classical Conditioning (B) Operant Conditioning

(C) Pavlovian Conditioning (D) Respondent Conditioning

(3)M-2109-PHD-(MGT)(RM)-C 14

62. Which of the following is Doordarshan's Educational Television Channel ?

(A) Gurukul (B) Gyan Bharati

(C) Gyan Darshan (D) Vidya

63. Which of the following affects an individual's development at a given time ?

(A) Their experiences

(B) Interaction of nature and nurture

(C) Inherited potentialities

(D) Social pressure on the individual

64. The .............. got "Fundamental Duties" added to the Constitution of India ?

(A) 42nd amendment

(B) 54th amendment

(C) 83rd amendment

(D) 93rd amendment

65. The development of a student's personality is affected the most by :

(A) Discipline at institute

(B) Emotional climate at home

(C) Inherited assets and liabilities

(D) Social orientation of peers and elders

66. To make learning effective, a goal must be meaningful in terms :

(A) Objectives of the curriculum

(B) Intellectual ideas

(C) Standards of others

(D) The needs and purposes of students

(3)M-2109-PHD-(MGT)(RM)-C 15 P.T.O.

67. If you want to improve the ability to observe in children, which of the following

would you recommend ?

(A) Generating interest in subject

(B) Developing a framework for experiences

(C) Sharpening the senses

(D) Training mental faculties

68. ..............is the apex institution involved in the planned and coordinated

development of the teacher education system in the country.

(A) UGC (B) NCERT

(C) NCTE (D) XSEED

69. What makes an adolescent revolt against Authority ?

(A) He thinks that he is mature enough

(B) His want for recognition and independence of thought and action

(C) He thinks that he is intelligent enough

(D) He believes that he does not need any advice

70. What is the main purpose of punishment to students ?

(A) Demonstrate authority

(B) Protect others from doing the same

(C) Reform the offender

(D) Retaliate for the wrong that has been done

71. ..............measure the extent of students learning in a given content area.

(A) Achievement Tests (B) Aptitude Tests

(C) Diagnostic Tests (D) Readiness Tests

(3)M-2109-PHD-(MGT)(RM)-C 16

72. What will be the IQ of a 25 years old boy whose mental age is 16 ?

(A) 64 (B) 75

(C) 80 (D) 100

73. Success of inclusive education depends on :

(A) Community support

(B) Attitudinal change among teachers

(C) High quality teaching—learning materials

(D) High quality textbooks

74. Interaction analysis category system in education for increasing the teacher

effectiveness was developed by :

(A) Amidon and Simon (B) Flander

(C) Rayon (D) Richard Over

75. NUEPA is concerned with :

(A) Educational evaluation (B) Educational planning

(C) Educational supervision (D) Educational unity

76. Who propagated cognitive theory of teaching ?

(A) David Berliner (B) Donald T. Campbell

(C) Egon Brunswik (D) N. L. Gage

77. Mind mapping refers to :

(A) An action plan for an adventure

(B) A technique to enhance comprehension

(C) Drawing the picture of mind

(D) Studying the functions of mind

(3)M-2109-PHD-(MGT)(RM)-C 17 P.T.O.

78. Fathometer is used to measure :

(A) Earthquakes (B) Rainfall

(C) Ocean depth (D) Sound intensity

79. Golf player Vijay Singh belongs to which country ?

(A) USA (B) Fiji

(C) India (D) UK

80. Which is a green planet in the solar system ?

(A) Pluto (B) Venus

(C) Uranus (D) Mars

81. What was the name of co-founder of Adobe and inventor of the PDF, who recently

died ?

(A) Charles Chuck Geschke (B) Simo Decosta Neomi

(C) John Warnock (D) Boby Freident

82. In the West Khasi Hills district of Meghalaya, fossils of bones of giant dinosaurs

with long neck, about 10 million years old, have been found, what are they

called ?

(A) Albania (B) Jurassic

(C) Western (D) Sauropod

83. Which Indian logistics company has started the 'Oxygen on Wheels' project to

transport oxygen ?

(A) Aegis Logistics

(B) Adani Logistics

(C) Container Corporation of India Ltd.

(D) Mahindra Logistics

(3)M-2109-PHD-(MGT)(RM)-C 18

84. Who has been awarded the "Order of the Rising Sun" of Japan ?

(A) Biswabhushan Harichandan (B) Sharankumar Limbale

(C) Alfred Ego (D) Brunette Ganesh

85. Pandit Debu Chaudhary, who passed away recently, was a great player of which

musical instrument ?

(A) Santoor (B) Sitar

(C) Tabla (D) Shehnai

86. Who has been named as the fourth Deputy Governor of Reserve Bank of India

(RBI) ?

(A) T. Rabi Shankar

(B) Subhash Kumar

(C) Mukhmeet S. Bhatia

(D) Shabir Hussain

87. Who among the following has won the Portuguese Grand Prix 2021 ?

(A) Valtteri Bottas (B) Sebastian Vettel

(C) Max Verstappen (D) Lewis Hamilton

88. According to new terminology, ‘Aries’ means ‘air’, ‘Taurus’ means ‘light’, ‘Libra’

means ‘water’ and ‘Scorpio’ means ‘earth’. What would an organism breathe in ?

(A) Aries (B) Taurus

(C) Libra (D) Scorpio

(3)M-2109-PHD-(MGT)(RM)-C 19 P.T.O.

89. A team of 5 players Ashwin, Rahul, Sachin, Virat and Rohit participated in a

tournament and played four matches.

The following table gives partial information about their individual scores and

the total runs scored by the team in each match.

Each column has two values missing. These are the runs scored by the two low-

est scorers in that match.

None of the two missing values is more than 10% of the total runs scored in

that match.

Runs scored Match 1 Match 2 Match 3 Match 4

Ashwin 100 53

Rahul 88 65 52

Sachin 110

Virat 72 75 20 56

Rohit 60 78

Total 270 300 240 200

What is the maximum possible percentage contribution of Ashwin in the total

runs scored in the four matches ?

(A) 19.7% (B) 19.9%

(C) 20.1% (D) 20.5%

90. Choose the word which is not similar to the other words in the group :

(A) Peas (B) Cabbage

(C) Spinach (D) Tomato

(3)M-2109-PHD-(MGT)(RM)-C 20

91. Solve the following question and choose the correct alternative from the

following :

1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 are sitting in row but not necessarily in that order.

All of them are sitting in a row with their backs toward North.

3 is immediate right to 5 and 4 is immediate left to 1. Only 2 is between 1 and

5.

Which of the following are at the extreme ends ?

(A) 3, 4 (B) 2, 5

(C) 2, 1 (D) 4, 5

92. Complete the given series by finding the missing term :

5, 15, 45, 225, ?

(A) 1024 (B) 1125

(C) 1500 (D) 2250

93. From the following list of statements identify the set which has negative

implications for ‘research ethics’ :

(i) A researcher critically looks at the findings of another research.

(ii) Related studies are cited without proper references.

(iii) Research findings are made the basis for policy making.

(iv) Conduct of practitioner is screened in terms of reported research evidences.

(v) A research study is replicated with a view to verify the evidences from other

researches.

(vi) Both policy making and policy implementing processes are regulated in terms

of preliminary studies.

Codes :

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) (B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(C) (ii), (iv) and (vi) (D) (i), (iii) and (v)

(3)M-2109-PHD-(MGT)(RM)-C 21 P.T.O.

94. ATNHG, DKCMB, CVPJI, GNFPE, EXRLK, JQISH, GZTNM, __

(A) MTLVK (B) PQMTH

(C) RIJTU (D) HSKUJ

95. DEF, DEF2, DE2F2, ............, D2E2F3

(A) DEF3 (B) D3EF3

(C) D2E3F (D) D2E2F2


Eight boxes are arranged one above the other. Each box contains different chocolates

Bar one, Perk, Snickers, Kitkat, Bournville, Dairy Milk, 5 star and Munch but not

necessarily in the same order.

Box K is kept second from the top. Only one box is kept between Box M and the

box which contains snickers. Box M is kept neither adjacent to Box K nor adjacent

to the box which contains Munch. As many boxes kept between Box Q and the box

which contains Perk is kept between Box W and the box which contains Kitkat. More

than three boxes are kept between Box K and the box which contains Munch. Box

which contains Perk is kept immediately below the box which contains Snickers. Box

M is kept above box L, but not contain Munch. Three boxes are kept between Box L

and the box which contains Dairy Milk. As many boxes kept above Box Q kept be-

low Box W. Box P is kept above Box W. Snickers is placed above M. Two boxes are

kept between Box S and the box which contains Bournville. Box K does not contain

Snickers. Box G is kept above Box S. Box Q does not contain Kitkat. Neither Box L

nor Box Q does not contain Bar one. At most one box placed between Munch and

Kitkat.

(3)M-2109-PHD-(MGT)(RM)-C 22

96. How many boxes are kept below the box which contains 5 star ?

(A) One (B) Two

(C) Three (D) Four

97. Which of the following statements is true ?

(A) As many boxes are kept between Box L and Box W are kept between Box

M and the box which contains Bar one

(B) More than three boxes are kept between Box S and the box which contains

Bournville

(C) Less than three boxes are kept above the box which contains 5 star

(D) None is true

98. Four of the following five are like in a certain way based on the above

arrangement. Find which one does not belong to the group ?

(A) W-Munch (B) M-Perk

(C) K-Bournville (D) L-Bar one

99. How many boxes are kept between Box L and the box which contains Dairy

Milk ?

(A) One (B) Two

(C) Three (D) None of these

100. If Box Q is related to Snickers, Box M is related to Munch, in the same way

Box S is related to which of the following ?

(A) Bournville (B) Dairy Milk

(C) 5 star (D) None of these

MANAGEMENT 2. the objective of Competition Act, 2002 ? (B ...

Documents