Time Allowed : 2 Hours] [Maximum Marks : 200 Number of Pages in this Booklet : 40 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 100 Signature and Name of Invigilator 1. (Signature) ......................................... (Name) ................................................ 2. (Signature) ......................................... (Name) ................................................ Seat No. (In figures as in Admit Card) Seat No. .............................................................. (In words) OMR Sheet No. (To be filled by the Candidate) HISTORY JUN - 10219 C Instructions for the Candidates 1. Write your Seat No. and OMR Sheet No. in the space provided on the top of this page. 2. This paper consists of 100 objective type questions. Each question will carry two marks. All questions of Paper II will be compulsory. 3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet will be given to the student. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as follows : (i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept a booklet without sticker-seal or open booklet. (ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in the booklet with the information printed on the cover page. Faulty booklets due to missing pages/questions or questions repeated or not in serial order or any other discrepancy should not be accepted and correct booklet should be obtained from the invigilator within the period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be given. The same may please be noted. (iii) After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Number should be entered on this Test Booklet. 4. Each question has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on the correct response against each item. Example : where (C) is the correct response. 5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR Sheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark at any place other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated. 6. Read instructions given inside carefully. 7. Rough Work is to be done at the end of this booklet. 8. If you write your Name, Seat Number, Phone Number or put any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair means, you will render yourself liable to disqualification. 9. You have to return original OMR Sheet to the invigilator at the end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. You are, however, allowed to carry the Test Booklet and duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on conclusion of examination. 10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 11. Use of any calculator or log table, etc., is prohibited. 12. There is no negative marking for incorrect answers. A B D 1. 2. 3. (i) (ii) (iii) 4. (A), (B), (C) (D) (C) 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. A B D Test Booklet Code & Serial No.
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Transcript
Time Allowed : 2 Hours] [Maximum Marks : 200
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 40 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 100
Instructions for the Candidates1. Write your Seat No. and OMR Sheet No. in the space provided
on the top of this page.2. This paper consists of 100 objective type questions. Each question
will carry two marks. All questions of Paper II will be compulsory.3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet
will be given to the student. In the first 5 minutes, you arerequested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it asfollows :(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the
paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accepta booklet without sticker-seal or open booklet.
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions inthe booklet with the information printed on the coverpage. Faulty booklets due to missing pages/questionsor questions repeated or not in serial order or anyother discrepancy should not be accepted and correctbooklet should be obtained from the invigilator withinthe period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the QuestionBooklet will be replaced nor any extra time will begiven. The same may please be noted.
(iii) After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Numbershould be entered on this Test Booklet.
4. Each question has four alternative responses marked (A), (B),(C) and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below onthe correct response against each item.Example : where (C) is the correct response.
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR
Sheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark at any place
other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated.
6. Read instructions given inside carefully.
7. Rough Work is to be done at the end of this booklet.
8. If you write your Name, Seat Number, Phone Number or put
any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space
allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your
identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair
means, you will render yourself liable to disqualification.
9. You have to return original OMR Sheet to the invigilator at the
end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with
you outside the Examination Hall. You are, however, allowed
to carry the Test Booklet and duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on
conclusion of examination.
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.
11. Use of any calculator or log table, etc., is prohibited.
12. There is no negative marking for incorrect answers.
A B D
1.
2.
3.
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
4. (A), (B), (C) (D)
(C)
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
A B D
Test Booklet Code & Serial No.
2
JUN - 10219/II—C
3 [P.T.O.
JUN - 10219/II—C
1. According to which medieval source
were elephants to be found in the
Rajpipla forests of Gujarat ?
(A) Ibn Batuta
(B) Abdul Hamid Lahori
(C) Abul Fazl
(D) Abbas Sarwani
2. In the year 1335, which short lived
Sultanate was established in India ?
(A) Faruqi
(B) Madurai
(C) Arcot
(D) Tiruchirapalli
1.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
2.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
HistoryPaper II
IITime Allowed : 120 Minutes] [Maximum Marks : 200
Note : This Paper contains Hundred (100) multiple choice questions. Each questioncarrying Two (2) marks. Attempt All questions.
(100) (2)
4
JUN - 10219/II—C
3.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
4.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
3. Athanasius Nikitin was
a..............traveller.
(A) Russian
(B) Italian
(C) Portuguese
(D) Spanish
4. During the period of Muhammad
bin Tughlaq, the office of the diwan-
i-mazalim handled...........................
(A) Cases concerning revenue
adjustment
(B) Cases of madad-i-ma’ash grants
(C) Cases involving the
bureaucracy
(D) The actual collection of revenue
5 [P.T.O.
JUN - 10219/II—C
5. Which of the following Sultans sent
an embassy to the Ottoman Sultan
Suleiman ?
(A) Burhan Nizam Shah of
Ahmadnagar
(B) Sultan Bahadur Shah of
Gujarat
(C) Sultan Ali Adil Shah of Bijapur
(D) Sultan Yusuf Quli Shah of
Golconda
6. To whom were the titles asvapati
and gajapati applied in the sources
of the Deccan and the south ?
(A) Vijayanagar rulers and the
Ganga kings of Odisha
(B) Chalukyas and the Shilaharas
(C) Chola rulers and the Pandya
rulers of Madurai
(D) Vijayanagar rulers and the
Bahmani Sultans
5.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
6.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
6
JUN - 10219/II—C
7. What is meant by the term
sthaladayam found in Vijayanagar
period inscriptions ?
(A) Tax on grain
(B) A form of forced labour
(C) Transit duty
(D) Tax on plough oxen
8. Which Mughal Prince got the
Bijapur and Golconda to sign the
Deed of Submission ?
(A) Khurram
(B) Salim
(C) Dara Shikoh
(D) Jalaluddin
9. According to the 17th century text
Vyavaharmayukha, watan land was
to be considered..............................
(A) Private property
(B) Ritual and traditional rights in
the village
(C) Inherited and communal
property
(D) Assignable land
7.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
8.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
9.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
7 [P.T.O.
JUN - 10219/II—C
10. What was katraparcha ?
(A) A tax on metal
(B) A tax on paper
(C) A tax on cloth
(D) A tax on looms
11. The kaniyatchi of Chola and
Vijayanagar period of South India
were.............................
(A) Upper castes associated with
temple management
(B) Bhakti saints
(C) Weavers
(D) Dominant landed classes
12. The final surrender of the Mewar
Rana took place :
(A) At the beginning of Jahangir’s
reign
(B) Towards the end of Akbar’s
reign
(C) Towards the end of Jahangir’s
reign
(D) During the period of Shah
Jahan’s governorship of
Rajasthan
10.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
11.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
12.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
8
JUN - 10219/II—C
13. What are khasra documents ?
(A) Documents giving details of
land owned by peasants
(B) Documents that give the prices
of indigo and sugarcane
(C) Documents about customs
collected at Surat port
(D) Documents of the nagarsheths
of Ahmedabad
14. The earliest reference to the term
balutedar is found in the..................
(A) Jnyaneshwari
(B) Seeta Swayamvar
(C) Pune Peth Kaifiyat
(D) Radha-madhav Vilasa champu
15. The Bundelas began to come to
prominence after :
(A) The establishment of a capital
at Orchcha
(B) The murder of Abul Fazl
(C) The attack on Orchcha by Shah
Jahan
(D) The conquest of Malwa by
Akbar
13.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
14.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
15.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
9 [P.T.O.
JUN - 10219/II—C
16. The Lekhapaddhati is a text from
.................................
(A) Karnataka
(B) Gujarat
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) The Doab region
17. Which two political institutions are
regarded by historians as the
‘backbone of the Vijayanagar
Empire ?
(A) The nayankara and ayagar
system
(B) The ayagar system and the
Ainnurruvar
(C) The nayankara system and the
temple
(D) The temple and the ayagar
system
16.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
17.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
10
JUN - 10219/II—C
18. In the Bahmani period, the port of
Dabhol was known as........................
(A) Mustafabad
(B) Nasratpur
(C) Bandar Mubarak
(D) Islamabad
19. Light artillery carried on camel back
was called.........................in Mughal
times.
(A) Narnal
(B) Gajal
(C) Arraba
(D) Shutrnal
20. Where is Aurangzeb’s tomb ?
(A) Delhi
(B) Agra
(C) Khuldabad
(D) Daulatabad
18.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
19.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
20.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
11 [P.T.O.
JUN - 10219/II—C
21. The Sufi saint Muhammad Banda
Nawaz is better known as...............
(A) Baba Farid
(B) Gesudaraz
(C) Baba Palangposh
(D) Shaikh Mohammad
22. Who assumed office as the first
viceroy of Portuguese territory of
Goa from 1505-1509 ?
(A) Afonso d’Albuquerque
(B) Francisco de Almeida
(C) Vasco da Gama
(D) Father Stevens
23. An early Dutch traveler to India and
Indonesia was..............................
(A) Francisco Pelsaert
(B) Peter Floris
(C) Adrian van Rheede
(D) John Huyghen van Linschoten
21.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
22.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
23.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
12
JUN - 10219/II—C
24.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
25.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
26.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
24. The cities of Sultanpur and Bandar
Mubarak are better known as..........
and .................
(A) Madurai and Nagapattinam
(B) Dwarasamudra and Kalyani
(C) Chaul and Vengurla
(D) Warangal and Surat
25. Tavernier in the 17th century
described two routes from Surat to
Agra, one via.................. and the other
via........................
(A) Burhanpur and Ahmedabad
(B) Burhanpur and Sironj
(C) Merta and Kota
(D) Gwalior and Kota
26. In the 16th and 17th centuries, what
feature did the ports of Gandevi,
Chaul and Narsapur share ?
(A) They were all on the west coast
of India
(B) They were all centres of ship
building
(C) They were all under the control
of the Portuguese
(D) They were all centres of
Armenian merchants
13 [P.T.O.
JUN - 10219/II—C
27. The Takht-i-Kirmani, a gate built by
descendants of a saint from Kirman,
is located in.............................
(A) Chaul
(B) Vengurla
(C) Bidar
(D) Nagpur
28. The segmentary state model was
based on the study of................
by.................
(A) Chola state, Burton Stein
(B) Alur society, Aidan Southall
(C) Rajput lineages, Richard Fox
(D) Vijayanagar state, N.
Karashima
29. The Ragamala paintings are typical
of the..................... style of the 18th
century.
(A) Deccan
(B) Kangra
(C) Rajput
(D) Pahari
27.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
28.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
29.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
14
JUN - 10219/II—C
30. Who says that ‘Plassey was a
transaction in which the rich
bankers of Bengal and Mir Jafar
sold out the Nawab to the
English ?
(A) N.K. Sinha
(B) K.M. Pannikar
(C) R.S. Sharma
(D) N.L. Chatterjee
31. The Jagat Seths were an influential
......................... family in Bengal.
(A) Noble
(B) Banking
(C) Military
(D) Physician
32. Mir Jafar shifted his capital from
Murshidabad to............................
(A) Monghyr
(B) Midnapur
(C) Burdwan
(D) Lakhnauti
30.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
31.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
32.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
15 [P.T.O.
JUN - 10219/II—C
33. Where did the British start the Dual
system of Government ?
(A) Madras
(B) Bengal
(C) Bombay
(D) Pondicherry
34. Who among the following is known
as the ‘liberator of Indian Press’ ?
(A) Lord William Bentinck
(B) Charles Metcalfe
(C) Lord Macaulay
(D) Lord Dalhousie
35. The Lancashire cotton textiles were
first introduced in India, in................
(A) 1786
(B) 1815
(C) 1831
(D) 1852
33.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
34.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
35.
(A) 1786
(B) 1815
(C) 1831
(D) 1852
16
JUN - 10219/II—C
36. A modern Western Painting School
was established in Pune in 1798. Its
student, who famously made the
drawings of Ellora as he
accompanied Sir Charles Malet in
his artistic expedition was..................
(A) Erloo Bin Narayan
(B) Dhakji Dadaji
(C) Gangaram Tambat
(D) Vasudev Kamat
37. Witnessing the devastation of the
Indian textile industries, William
Bentinck remarked, ‘‘The bones of
the..........................are bleaching the
plains of India’’.
(A) Cotton Traders
(B) Cotton Weavers
(C) Mill Workers
(D) Cotton Farmers
36.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
37.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
17 [P.T.O.
JUN - 10219/II—C
38. Tinkathiya system is associated
with............................cultivation.
(A) Wheat
(B) Cotton
(C) Sugarcane
(D) Indigo
39. This person led a revolt against the
moneylenders and the British in
Ahmednagar and Nasik region. The
British had declared a Prize of Rs.
5,000 to capture him.
(A) Fond Sawant
(B) Narsappa
(C) Shivkar Bapuji Talapade
(D) Raghoji Bhangre
40. Around 1840-41, this freedom fighter
had conquered the fort of Badami
with the help of other soldiers and
hoisted the flag of the Chhatrapati
of Satara on this fort.
(A) Sevaram Bhill
(B) Narsingrao Petkar
(C) Umaji Naik
(D) Lahuji Salve
38.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
39.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
40.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
18
JUN - 10219/II—C
41. This person belonged to the first
batch of doctors that graduated from
the Grant Medical College in 1850
and was a great patron of arts and
theatre.
(A) Bhau Daji Lad
(B) Vishram Ramji Ghole
(C) R.G. Bhandarkar
(D) Jagannath Shankarsheth
42. Who among the following criticised
the University Act of 1904.
commenting that the Indian
Universities had become some of the
world’s most governmental
institutions ?
(A) Hunter Commission
(B) Sadler Commission
(C) Radhakrishnan Commission
(D) Kothari Commission
43. ..........................was one of the founders