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PAPER - 2INSTRUCTIONS
A. General :
1. This Question Paper contains 63 questions.
2. The question paper CODE is printed on the right hand top corner on this sheet of this booklet.
3. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.
4. Blank paper, clipboard, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and electronic gadgets
in any form are not allowed.
5. The answer sheet, a machine-gradable Objective Response Sheet (ORS), is provided separately.
6. Do not Tamper / mutilate the ORS or this booklet.
7. Do not break the seals of the question-paper booklet before instructed to do so by the invigilators.
8. W rite your Name, Roll No. and Sign in the space provide on the back page of this booklet.
B. Filling the bottom-half of the ORS :
9. The ORS has CODE printed on its lower and upper Parts.
10. Make sure the CODE on the ORS is the same as that on this booklet. If the Codes do not match, ask for a
change of the Booklet.
11. Write your Registration No., Name and Name of centre and sig with pen in appropriate boxes. Do not write
these anywhere else.
12. Darken the appropriate bubbles below your registration number with HB Pencil.
C. Question paper format and Marking scheme :
13. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Chemistry, Mathematics & Physics). Each part consists of Four
Sections.
14. For each question in SectionI , you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to
the correct answer and zero marks if no bubble is darkened. In case of bubbling of incorrect answer,
minus one (1) markwill be awarded.
15. For each question in SectionII , you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble(s) corresponding
to the correct choice(s) for the answer and zero mark if no bubbled is darkened. There is no negative
marking for incorrect answer(s) for this this section.
16. For each question in SectionIII, you will be awarded 2 marks for each row in which you have darkened the
bubble(s) corresponding to the correct answer. Thus, each question in this section carries a maximum of
8 marks. There is no negative marking for incorrect answer(s) for this this section.
17. For each question in SectionIV, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to
the correct answer, and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In case of bubbling of incorrect answer, minus
one (1) markwill be awarded.
DONOTBREAKTHESEALSWITHOUTBEING
INSTRUCTEDTODOSOBYTHEINVIGILATOR
Date : 03-04-2011 Duration : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 237
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
CODE
0CLASS - XII / XIII
JEE PREPARATORY TEST-3 (JPT-3)TARGET : IIT-JEE 2011
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PART- I
Atomic masses : [H = 1, D = 2, Li = 7, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23, Mg = 24, Al = 27, Si = 28,
P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40, Cr = 52, Mn = 55, Fe = 56, Cu = 63.5, Zn = 65, As = 75,
Br = 80, Ag = 108, I = 127, Ba = 137, Hg = 200, Pb = 207]
SECTION - I
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 8 questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. As the pH of a solution increases, the solubility of salt MCN at 25 C in that solution generally ........... .
(Neglect the hydrolysis of M+ ions in solution)
(A) decreases (B) increases (C) remains unaffected
(D) may increase or decrease depending upon whether final pH of solution is less than or greater than 7.
2. An unknown sample was dissolved in water and made to titrate with 0.1 M HCl solution initially using
phenolphthalein indicator. The volume of HCl consumed was found to be VP ml. Then to the resulting solution,
methyl orange indicator was added and again titrated with same HCl solution. The volume of HCl consumed
now was found to be VM ml. If VP = VM, then the unknown sample might not contain :
(A) only Na2CO3 (B) equimolar mixture of NaOH, Na2CO3 and NaHCO3(C) equimolar mixture of NaOH and NaHCO3 (D) equimolar mixture of NaOH and Na2CO3
3. The values of PC and TC for two real gases X and Y (both gases have same molar mass) are given below.
Gases TC PCX 100 K 20 atm
Y 200 K 100 atm
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT for gases X and Y, where symbols have their usual
meanings:
(A) Gas X has a higher value of vanderwaal constant 'a'
(B) Gas Y has a lower value of vanderwaal constant 'b'
(C) Gas X has a lower value of critical density.
(D) Gas Y shows lesser deviation from ideal behaviour than gas X.
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4. Which of the following statement is INCORRECT :
(A) In general, adsorption of a gas on a solid involves H < 0 and S < 0.
(B) Chemisorption is much more specific than physisorption.
(C) Micelle formation takes place only below a particular temperature, called Kraft temperature.
(D) Among common protective colloids, gelatin has the least gold number and thus, maximum protective
power.
5. Predict the hybridisation and shape of a mononuclear complex (charge =3) having central atom / ion as
Mnx+, CN ions as ligands, 2 unpaired electrons and EAN = 34 :
(A) d2sp3, octahedral (B) sp3, tetrahedral
(C) dsp3, square plannar (D) sp3d2, octahedral
6. /NaOD
P + Q
P and Q respectively are :
(A) DCOO + CH2DOD (B) DCOO + D
2CHOH
(C) DCOO + CH2DOH (D) DCOO + D
3COD
7. Which species are Aromatic :
(I) (II) (III) (IV)
(A) I, II & III (B) I, III & IV (C) I & III (D) II & III
8. CH3 CH
2 CH
3
z)3(
y)2(
x)1( CH3 CH2 CH2 Br
x, y, z are respectively :(A) Br2
/ h , conc. H2SO
4, ThO
2/ (B) Cl
2/ h , alc. KOH / , HBr / R
2O
2
(C) Cl2
/ h , tBuO / , HBr (dark) (D) F2
/ h , Al2O
3/ , NBS
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SECTION - II
Multiple Correct Answer Type
This section contains 6 questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of
which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.
9. An equilibrium A(g) 2B(g) has been established in a one litre container. At equilibrium, moles of A and
moles of B are found to be equal (2 moles each). Now, if the volume of reaction vessel is halved keeping the
temperature constant and the equilibrium is allowed to restablish, then which of the following statements is/
are true :
(A) The concentration of B at new equilibrium is 3 M.
(B) The equilibrium can be said to be shifted in forward direction upon reducing the volume to half.
(C) The equilibrium can be said to be shifted in backward direction upon reducing the volume to half.
(D) The equilibrium will not shift in any direction upon reducing the volume to half as moles of A and B at initial
equilibrium are equal (2 each.)
10. In which of the following molecules or ions, removal of one electron will increase the bond order and at the
same time, make them diamagnetic from paramagnetic :
(A) CN (B) NO (C) O2
(D) N2
11. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding metallurgy :
(A) Both calcination and roasting are generally carried out in the same furnace, i.e., reverberatory furnace.
(B) The slag formed during the extraction of Copper metal from Chalcopyrites ore is CaSiO3.
(C) Mond's process involved in the extraction of Nickel is related with formation and decomposition of a
square plannar complex of nickel metal.
(D) In case of electrolytic refining of extracted metals, generally impure metal rod is made the Anode and
pure metal rod is made the Cathode.
12. The value of Hrfor the given reaction cannot be calculated using which of the following informations :
CH4(g) + 2O
2(g) CO
2(g) + 2H
2O()
(A) Bond enthalpies of C=O, O=O, OH and CH bonds.
(B) H(CO2(g)), H(H2O()) & H(CH4(g))(C) Bond enthalpies of CH, C=O & OH bonds and H
vap.(H2O())
(D) Hatomisation(C, graphite, s)
, Hatomisation(CH4(g))
,H(H2O()
and Bond enthalpies of O=O & C=O bonds.
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13. Which statement is incorrect.
(A) The -D-fructose and -L-fructose are stereoisomers.
(B)
,HO major product is trans-but-2-ene.
(C) Addition of bromonium ion on cis-but-2-ene will give chiral intermediate.
(D) Mixture of cis and trans-pent-2-ene react with Br2to give product mixture which represent four diastereomeric pairs.
14. In which reaction, major product formed is correct.
(A) + CHBr3
+ CO2
(B)
(C) 2HNO
(D)
O|| NHCR
2 2HNO
O|| OHCR
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SECTION - III
Matrix - Match TypeThis section contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given in two
columns, which have to be matched. The statements in Column-I are labelled
A, B, C and D, while the statements in Column-II are labelled p, q, r, s and t. Any
given statement in Column-I can have correct matching with ONE OR MORE
statement(s) inColumn-II
. The appropriate bubbles corresponding to the answersto these questions have to be drakened as illustrated in the following example.
If the correct matches are A-p, s and t ; B-q and r; C-p and q; and D-s and t; then the correct darkening of
bubbles will look like the following :
15. Match the following electrochemical cells at 25C in Column-I with their characteristics in Column-II :
Given : 0Zn/Zn2
E = 0.76 V,0
Ag/AgE
= 0.81 V,, 0
D/D 2E
= 0.01 V
Ksp (AgCl) = 1010, Ksp (AgBr) = 5 10
13
Column-I Column-II
(A) Pt(s)|H2 (g)| KOH (aq) ||HCl (aq)| H2 (g)| Pt (s) (p) Concentration cell (1atm) (0.01M) (0.01M) (1atm)
(B) Zn(s)|Zn2+ (aq)|| Ag+ (aq) |Ag (s) (q) Ecell
> 0
(0.1M) (0.1M)
(C) Pt(s)|D2(g)| D+ (aq) ||H+ (aq)| H
2(g)| Pt (s) (r) Cell reaction is at equilibrium
(0.1atm) (0.1M) (0.01M) (0.001atm)
(D) Ag(s)|AgBr (s)| Br (aq) ||Cl (aq)| AgCl (s)| Ag (s) (s) Cell will have the same emf as the one
(5104M) (0.1M) made up of standard electrodes.
(t) Diluting each electrode solution to double
volume would not affect the emf of cell(for gases involved, assume no change
in partial pressures).
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16. Match the following processes (changes in state of gas) for a fixed amount of an ideal gas (Column-I) with its
characteristics (Column-II). T represents absolute temperature and arrow represents direction of process :
Column I Column II
(A) (p) Work is done on the gas by the surrounding.
(B) (q) There occurs an increase in entropy of the system
during the process.
(C) (r) Root mean square (RMS) speed of gas molecules
increases during the process.
(D) (s) Such a graph is not possible
(t) Heat is rejected by the system during the process.
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SECTION - IV
Integer Answer Type
This section contains 5 questions. The answer to each of the questions is
a single digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9. The appropriate bubble below the
respective question number in the ORS have to be darkened.
17. Determine the number of moles of a real gas required to occupy 1.44 m3 volume at its Boyle's temperature
and 0.1 atm pressure. Take R = 0.082 L atm K1 mol1. Given : Vanderwaal constants 'a' and 'b' for the real
gas are 1.2 atm L2 mol2 and 0.05 L mol1 respectively.
18. For aqueous solution of how many of the following compounds / mixtures, does the pH remains constant
even upon dilution :
(1) NH4Cl
(2) Na2CO
3
(3) A 1 : 2 molar ratio mixture of Na2S and HCl.
(4) A 5 : 2 molar ratio mixture of NaOH and H3PO
4.
(5) A 5 : 4 molar ratio mixture of CH3COONa and HCl.
(6) NaH2PO
4
(7) A 2 : 1 molar ratio mixture of HCl and NaHCO3.
(8) CH3COONH4(9) A 4 : 3 molar ratio mixture of NH
4OH and HCl.
19. If Phosphorous acid, Tetrathionic acid and Pyrophosphoric acid have number of acidic hydrogen per
molecule respectively as x, y and z, number of SS bonds in Tetrathionic acid be p and number of PP
bonds in Pyrophosphoric acid be q, then find the value of x + y z + p + q.
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20. The number of fractions obtained after the reaction completion is :
Ph
Ph
Br
Et
Me
Me OHCH3
21. How many of the following compounds will give white precipitate with aqueous AgNO3.
Cl Cl Cl
Cl
Cl
Cl
O
ClOH||
PhCCPh||PhPh
Cl
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PART- II
SECTION - I
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 8 questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out ofwhich ONLY ONE is correct.
22. Let f(x) =
1x,)17b(logx2
1x,6x10xx2
2
23
, then the sum of all integral values of b such that f(x) has the
greatest value at x = 1, is
(A) 23 (B) 9 (C) 0 (D) 35
23. If the equation
)x(loglogloglog)x(logloglog
2y45
4812= 0 has a solution for x when c < y < b, y a, where b is as large as
possible and c is as small as possible, then the value of (a + b + c ) is equal to
(A) 15 (B) 17 (C) 19 (D) 21
24. Let the lines y 2 = m1(x 5) and (y + 4) = m2(x 3) intersect at right angles at P(where m1 and m2 areparameters). If locus of P is x2 + y2 + gx + fy + 7 = 0, then (f g) equals
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 8 (D) 10
25. Let M = {(x, y) | x2 + 2y2 3} , N = {(x, y) | y = mx + c}. If M N for all m R , then complete set of valuesof 'c' is
(A)
2
3,
2
3 (B)
2
3,
2
3 (C)
2
3,
2
3 (D)
2
3,
2
3
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26. Let f : R R be a differentiable function, such that (f(x))2 = f(x) f (x) for all x. If f(0) = 1 & f4(0) = 9. Thenpossible values of f(0) is equal to
(A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 1
27. Number of solution of the equation tan1
2x1
x+ tan1
3x
1=
4
3, belonging to the interval (0, 1) is
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) infinite
28. If the roots of the equation x3 + Px2 + Qx 19 = 0 are each one more than the roots of the equationx3 Ax2 + Bx C = 0 where A, B, C, P & Q are constants then the value of A + B + C =
(A) 18 (B) 19 (C) 20 (D) 29
29. A composite function (f1 f2 f3 ..... f21)(x) is an increasing function. If number of increasing functionsin the set {f1, f2, ....., f21 } is r and remaining are decreasing functions, then maximum value of r(21 r) is
(A) 110 (B)4
441(C) 105 (D) None of these
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SECTION - II
Multiple Correct Answer Type
This section contains 6 questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of
which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.
30. If Jm
= 3m
0r
3rm
rm CC and m
1, m
2are two values of m satisfying 5 J
m= 3J
m + 1, then correct statement is/are
(where [ . ] denotes greatest integer function)
(A) m1
+ m2
=7
8(B) m
1m
2=
7
46(C) [(1 m
1) (1 m
2)] = 8 (D) [(1 + m
1) (1 + m
2)] = 8
31. Let f : X Y where 2xf3 + 2x = 4 be a one-one and onto function & f(x) 0 then
(A) X = (0, ), Y = 4log,1 3 (B) X = ),3log[ 2 , Y = [0, )
(C) X = (0, ), Y = 4log,1 3 (D) X = ,3log2 , Y = 4log,0 3
32. If f(x) =1xsin1
xcos31xsin1xcos31
, then which of the following is/are correct ?
(A) f(x) has maximum value 12 (B) f(x) has maximum value 10(C) f(x) has maximum value 10 (D) f(x) has minimum value 0
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33. The solution of the equations log x + log x1/2 + logx1/4 +..... = y and )1y3(.....1074
)1y2(.....531
= xlog7
20is
(A) x = 105 (B) y = 10
(C) x = 10,7
10(D) y = 105, 105/7
34. The area bounded by the curve y = f1(x), x-axis, x = 0 & x = where f(x) is given by f(x) = x + sin x isb
a2
then the correct statement are
(A) a = 2b (B) a + 2b = 8 (C) 3a = b (D)
4
a,
b
2lies on f(x)
35. The function f(x) = max {(1 x), (1 + x), 2}, x (, ) is(A) continuous at all points(B) differentiable at all points(C) differentiable at all points except x = 1 and x = 1(D) discontinuous at x = 1 and x = 1 otherwise continuous
SECTION - III
Matrix - Match TypeThis section contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given in twocolumns, which have to be matched. The statements in Column-I are labelledA, B, C and D, while the statements in Column-II are labelled p, q, r, s and t. Anygiven statement in Column-I can have correct matching with ONE OR MOREstatement(s) in Column-II. The appropriate bubbles corresponding to the answersto these questions have to be drakened as illustrated in the following example.If the correct matches are A-p, s and t ; B-q and r; C-p and q; and D-s and t; then the correct darkening ofbubbles will look like the following :
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36. a,b,c are complex numbers and all roots of z3 + az2 + bz + c = 0 satisfy |z| = 1. Now match the column.
ColumnI ColumnII
(A) |a| |b| is equal to (p) 2
(B) Number of distinct real roots of (q) 0the equation z3 + |a|z2 + |b|z + |c| = 0
(C) If z3 + |a|z2 + |b|z + |c| = 0 then |z| is equal to (r) 1
(D) |c| is equal to (s) 3
(t) 4
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37. Column - I Column - II
(A) Ify
lim
y
1
y
1
1
dxx
11
dx]x[tan
, ([.] represents greatest integer function) is (p) 1
(B) If
x
1x1tan
21 : tan1 x = a : 1 (q)
2
1
then a is
(C))1x(
)!xsin(.xlim
3 2
x is (r) 0
(D) The number of real solution of the equation (s) 2
x2cos1 = 2 sin1 (sin x), x is
(t)31
SECTION - IV
Integer Answer Type
This section contains 5 questions. The answer to each of the questions isa single digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9. The appropriate bubble below therespective question number in the ORS have to be darkened.
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38. The value of dx12
xcos1x
1
2
, where [.] denotes the greater integer function, is
39. A blind man rolls a fair die marked 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 on its six faces. After the first rolling, he erases the
number on one of the six faces turning up and marks it with 1. He rolls the die again and erases the number
on the face turning up and marks it with 2. He repeats this exercise four more times and marks 2, 4, 5 and
6 on faces turning up in subsequent trials. If probability that the face initially marked with 4 still has 4 marked
on it, after the sixth trial is p then find value of4205
p66.
40. Let f(x) = x3 + x + 1. Suppose P(x) is a cubic polynomial such that P(0) = 1 and the roots of P(x) = 0 are the
squares of the roots of f(x) = 0, find the value of P(4) 90 .
41. y2 = 4ax and x2 = 4by are two curves intersect at P (other then origin). Perpendiculars PA & PB drawn oncoordinate axies and rectangle OAPB is completed. This rectangle OAPB is divided. by these curve in threeparts with area S
1, S
2, S
3. If area of the part of x2 = 4by bounded with x-axis is S
1= 5 sq. unit then the area
between two curves is.
42. If equation of normal to the curve y = (1 + x)y
+ sin1
(sin2
x) at x = 0 is given by ax + by = 1 then value of3a + 2b is
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46. Figure shows a cross section of a cubical block of side a . Block is acted upon bytwo force couples distributed over its surface. Normal stress at the plane passing
through two parallel face diagonals is -
(A) Zero (B)
2a2
F17 (C) 2a
F2(D)
2a2
F17
47. Four identical bricks, each of length , are put on top of one another in such a way that part of each extends
beyond the one beneath (see figure). Largest equilibrium extension values of x, y & z are respectively :
(A)2
&2
,2
(B)
2&
3,
4
(C)
2&
3,
6
(D)
2&
4,
6
48. An ammeter of resistance 10& a voltmeter of resistance 20 are connected in a circuit as shown in figure.
Reading of ammeter & voltmeter are respectively :
(A)3
10A &
3
100V (B) 10 A & 100 V
(C)3
10A & 100 V (D) 10 A &
3
100V
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49. If two gamma-ray photons are produced in positron annihilation then energy of each photon is approximately
(use me
= 0.00055 u & 1 u = 930 MeV/c2)
(A) 0.512 MeV (B) 1.023 MeV (C) 0.256 MeV (D) 2.046 MeV
50. A point source of light is immersed in water. Light travels out in all directions from the source. If for a position
of the source, fraction of light energy that escapes the water surface is f then as the source is moved deeper
into the water.
(A) f inreases (B) f decreases
(C) f remains same (D) f depends on the refractive index of water
SECTION - II
Multiple Correct Answer Type
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.
51. An electron enters perpendicular to a uniform electric field of magnitude
1.5 kV/m. A uniform magnetic field of 0.5 T is to be switched on within the
same region so that electron does not experience any net force then(A) Magnetic field must be directed outward the plane of paper.
(B) Magnetic field must be directed inward the plane of paper.
(C) Minimum possible value of v is zero
(D) Speed of electron 3 km/sec
52. Electric field in a certain region of space obeys Ex0 , E
y= E
z= 0 &
y
E
0 ,z
E
x
E
= 0 . An electric dipole
is oriented parallel to y-axis in this field then -
(A) Net force on the dipole may be along x-axis
(B) Net force on the dipole may be along y-axis
(C) Net torque on the dipole may be along z-axis
(D) Net torque on the dipole may be along x-axis
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53. A uniform conical conductor carries a constant current i as shown in figure.
There are two cross-sectional planes 1 & 2, intersection of which with the
plane of paper are shown then :
(A) Current density at a point on plane 1 > current density at
a point on plane 2.
(B) Electric field at plane 1 > Electric field at plane 2
(C) Electric flux through plane 2 > Electric flux through plane 1
(D) Electric current through plane 1 = Electric current through plane 2
54. An x-ray tube is operating at 84 kV & 10 mA. Only 1% of the electric power supplied is converted into x-rays.
If target has a mass of 300 gm & specific heat of 0.04 cal/gm/C. Then choose the correct statements (use1 cal = 4.2 J & hc = 12400 eV-)(A) cut-off wavelength is approximately 0.15 (B) cut-off wavelength is approximately 6.8 (C) average rate of temperature rise of target (assuming no heat loss) is 16.5C/sec.(D) average rate of temperature rise of target (assuming no heat loss) is 1.7C/sec.
55. A hydrogen atom in ground state is given least energy E0
so that it can emit H
- line in the Balmer
series then :
(A) E0 12.09 eV
(B) E0 12.75 eV(C) This atom can give maximum 3 different lines in emission spectrum.
(D) This atom can give maximum 6 different lines in emission spectrum.
56. Two coaxial circular loops are shown in figure, smaller loop (radius = r) is a distance
x above the larger one (Radius = R) with x >>R. Now if x is changing at a constant
ratedt
dx= v > 0 and current is flowing in the larger loop as shown then :
(A) Approximate magnitude of induced EMF generated in smaller loop
when x = NR is 24
20
RN
ri
2
3 (where N is a positive constant)
(B) Approximate magnitude of induced EMF generated in smaller loop
when x = NR is 24
20
RN
vri
2
3 (where N is a positive constant)
(C) Direction of induced current in the smaller loop is same as that in larger loop
(D) Direction of induced current in the smaller loop is opposite to that in larger loop.
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SECTION - III
Matrix - Match TypeThis section contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given in two
columns, which have to be matched. The statements in Column-I are labelled
A, B, C and D, while the statements in Column-II are labelled p, q, r, s and t. Any
given statement in Column-I can have correct matching with ONE OR MORE
statement(s) in Column-II. The appropriate bubbles corresponding to the answers
to these questions have to be darkened as illustrated in the following example.
If the correct matches are A-p, s and t ; B-q and r; C-p and q; and D-s and t; then the correct darkening of
bubbles will look like the following :
57. Match the possible trajectories as seen from earth given in columnII with the situation described incolumnI.
Column Column
(A) A charge particle projected in a uniform (p) straight line
constant magnetic field
(B) A charge particule projected in a uniform (q) circularconstant electric field
(C) A body projected from a few height above (r) parabolic
the earth where there is almost no atmosphere
present
(D) A body released from a satellite orbiting the (s) elliptical
earth in circular orbit.
(t) helical
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58. Some conservation principles given in column are to be matched with the given situation in column
where they may hold.
Column Column
(A) Linear momentum conservation (p) A disc rolling on rough incline
(B) Angular momentum conservation (q) A solid sphere moves with sliding
on rough horizontal surface
(C) Mechanical energy conservation (r) A planet revolving around the sun
(D) Kinetic energy conservation (s) A rolling ring encounters a step & the ring
ascends without sliding
(t) A proton hits a hydrogen atom which
was at rest & was in ground state.
No excitation results after hitting.
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SECTION - IV
Integer Answer TypeThis section contains 5 questions. The answer to each of the questions is
a single digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9. The appropriate bubble below the
respective question number in the ORS have to be darkened.
59. After the current in the circuit has reached its final steady state value, the switch S is closed. If magnitude of
current through the switch S,30
2nsec after S is closed is 0.7Ampere, find the value of ?
60. If stress in a stretched wire of a material (whose Youngs modulus is Y) is200
Y, in order that the speed of
longitudinal waves is equal to 10 times the speed of transverse waves then find value of ?
61. In a photoelectric effect experiment, for a certain cathode material, stopping potential V0
as a function of
frequency f of light used is shown. From the graph, find work function (in eV) of the material ?
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62. A hollow glass sphere of inner radius 5 cm & outer radius 10 cm is viewed as shown in figure. If refractive
index of glass is2
3, find distance (in cm) between A & O as seen from the observer ? (Assume near normal
incidence of light)
63. A point object O is kept at a distance of 9 cm from thin prism of refracting angle 4 & refractive index 3/2 asshown in figure. Find distance (in cm) of point image formed by this prism from O? (use 2 = 10)
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