Vidyamandir Classes VMC | JEE Mains-2019 1 11 th JAN JEE Entrance Examination Joint Entrance Exam | Mains-2019 Paper Code - 11 th January 2019 | 3.00 PM – 6.00 PM PHYSICS , CHMISTRY & MATHEMATICS Important Instructions: 1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with only Black Ball Point Pen provided in the examination hall. 2. The Answer Sheet is kept inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars carefully. 3. The test is of 3 hours duration. 4. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 360. 5. There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting of Physics, Mathematics and Chemistry having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each question is allotted 4 (four) marks for correct response. 6. Candidate will be awarded marks as stated above in instruction No. 5 for correct response of each question. 1 4 (one-fourth) marks of the total marks allotted to the questions (i.e. 1 mark) will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the total score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet. 7. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in any question will be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted accordingly as per instruction 6 above. 8. For writing particulars/marking responses on Side-1 and Side-2 of the Answer Sheet use only Black Ball Point Pen provided in the examination hall. 9. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any electronic device, etc. except the Admit Card inside the examination room/hall. 10. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only. This space is given at the bottom of each page and in four pages (Page 20-23) at the end of the booklet. 11. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them. 12. The CODE for this Booklet is B. Make sure that the CODE printed on Side-2 of the Answer Sheet is same as that on this Booklet. Also tally the serial number of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet are the same as that on this booklet. In case of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to the Invigilator for replacement of both the Test Booklet and the Answer Sheet. 13. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet.
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Vidyamandir Classes
VMC | JEE Mains-2019 1 11th JAN JEE Entrance Examination
Joint Entrance Exam | Mains-2019
Paper Code -
11th January 2019 | 3.00 PM – 6.00 PM
PHYSICS , CHMISTRY & MATHEMATICS
Important Instructions: 1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with only Black Ball Point Pen
provided in the examination hall.
2. The Answer Sheet is kept inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet,
take out the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars carefully.
3. The test is of 3 hours duration.
4. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 360.
5. There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting of Physics, Mathematics and Chemistry
having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each question is allotted 4 (four) marks for
correct response.
6. Candidate will be awarded marks as stated above in instruction No. 5 for correct response of each
question. 14
(one-fourth) marks of the total marks allotted to the questions (i.e. 1 mark) will be
deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the total score will be
made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet.
7. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in any
question will be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted
accordingly as per instruction 6 above.
8. For writing particulars/marking responses on Side-1 and Side-2 of the Answer Sheet use only Black
Ball Point Pen provided in the examination hall.
9. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile
phone, any electronic device, etc. except the Admit Card inside the examination room/hall.
10. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only. This space is
given at the bottom of each page and in four pages (Page 20-23) at the end of the booklet.
11. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty
in the Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
12. The CODE for this Booklet is B. Make sure that the CODE printed on Side-2 of the Answer Sheet is
same as that on this Booklet. Also tally the serial number of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet are
the same as that on this booklet. In case of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the
matter to the Invigilator for replacement of both the Test Booklet and the Answer Sheet.
13. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet.
Vidyamandir Classes
VMC | JEE Mains-2019 2 11th JAN JEE Entrance Examination
Joint Entrance Exam/IITJEE-2019
PART-A PHYSICS
1. Two rods A and B of identical dimensions are temperature 30°C. If A is heated upto 180°C and B upto T°C, then
the new lengths are the same. If the ratio of the coefficients of linear expansion of A and B is 4 : 3, then the value
of T is:
(1) 270°C (2) 200°C (3) 230°C (4) 250°C
2. In a hydrogen like atom, when an electron jumps from the M-shell to the L-shell, the wavelength of emitted
radiation is . If an electron jumps from N-shell to the L-shell, the wavelength of emitted radiation will be:
(1) 16
25 (2)
27
20 (3)
20
27 (4)
25
16
3. A thermometer graduated according to a linear scale reads a value 0 / 3x when in contact with ice. What is the
temperature of an object in °C, if this thermometer in the contact with the object reads 0 / 2x ?
(1) 35 (2) 40 (3) 60 (4) 25
4. A particle of mass m and charge q is in an electric and magnetic field given by ˆ ˆ2 3 ; 4 6E i j B j k= + = + . The
charged particle is shifted from the origin to the point ( )1; 1P x y= = along a straight path. The magnitude of the
total work done is:
(1) (0.15)q (2) 5q (3) (2.5)q (4) (0.35)q
5. In the circuit shown, the potential difference between A and B is:
(1) 3V (2) 6V (3) 1V (4) 2V
6. An amplitude modulated signal is plotted below:
Which one of the following best describes the above signal?
(1) ( )( ) ( )4 59 sin 2 10 sin 2.5 10t t V+ (2) ( )( ) ( )4 51 9sin 2 10 sin 2.5 10t t V+
(3) ( )( ) ( )4 59 sin 4 10 sin 5 10t t V+ (4) ( )( ) ( )5 49 sin 2.5 10 sin 2 10t t V+
7. A simple pendulum of length 1m is oscillating with an angular frequency 10 rad/s. The support of the pendulum
starts oscillating up and down with a small angular frequency of 1 rad/s and an amplitude of 210 m−
. The relative
change in the angular frequency of the pendulum is best given by:
(1) 310 /rad s−
(2) 1 /rad s (3) 510 /rad s−
(4) 110 /rad s−
Vidyamandir Classes
VMC | JEE Mains-2019 3 11th JAN JEE Entrance Examination
8. Seven capacitors, each of capacitance 2 F , are to be connected in a configuration to obtain an effective
capacitance of 6
.13
F
Which of the combinations, shown in figures below, will achieve the desired value?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
9. A string is wound around a hollow cylinder of mass 5 kg and radius 0.5 m. If the string is now pulled with a
horizontal force of 40N, and the cylinder is rolling without slipping on a horizontal surface (see figure), then the
angular acceleration of the cylinder will be (Neglect the mass and thickness of the string):
(1) 212 /rad s (2) 216 /rad s (3) 210 /rad s (4) 220 /rad s
10. In a process, temperature and volume of one mole of an ideal monoatomic gas are varied according to the relation
VT = K, where K is a constant. In this process the temperature of the gas is increased by T . The amount of heat
absorbed by gas is (R is gas constant):
(1) 2
3
KT (2)
1
2R T (3)
3
2R T (4)
1
2KR T
11. In a double-slit experiment, green light (5303Å) falls on a double slit having a separation of 19.44 m and a width
of 4.05 m . The number of bright fringes between the first and the second diffraction minima is:
(1) 10 (2) 04 (3) 09 (4) 05
12. In a photoelectric experiment, the wavelength of the light incident on a metal is changed from 300 nm to 400 nm.
The decrease in the stopping potential is close to : 1240 -hc
nm ve
=
(1) 1.5V (2) 2.0V (3) 0.5V (4) 1.0V
13. The circuit shown below contains two ideal diodes, each with a forward resistance of 50 . If the battery voltage is
6V, the current through the 100 resistance (in Amperes) is:
(1) 0.036 (2) 0.030 (3) 0.027 (4) 0.020
14. When 100 g of a liquid A at 100°C is added to 50 g of a liquid B at temperature 75°C, the temperature of the
mixture becomes 90°C. The temperature of the mixture, if 100 g of liquid A at 100°C is added to 50 g of liquid B
at 50°C, will be:
(1) 60°C (2) 70°C (3) 85°C (4) 80°C
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VMC | JEE Mains-2019 4 11th JAN JEE Entrance Examination
15. A particle moves from the point ( )ˆ ˆ2.0 4.0i j+ m, at t = 0, with an initial velocity ( ) 1ˆ5.0 4.0i j ms−+ . It is acted
upon by a constant force which produces a constant acceleration ( ) 2ˆ ˆ4.0 4.0i j ms−+ . What is the distance of the
particle from the origin at time 2s?
(1) 20 2 m (2) 15m (3) 5m (4) 10 2 m
16. A 27mW laser beam has a cross-sectional area of 210mm . The magnitude of the maximum electric field in this
electromagnetic wave is given by:
[Given permittivity of space 120 9 10− = SI unit, Speed of light 83 10 /c m s= ]
(1) 1 /kV m (2) 0.7 /kV m (3) 2 /kV m (4) 1.4 /kV m
17. A copper wire is wound on a wooden frame, whose shape is that of an equilateral triangle. If the linear dimension
of each side of the frame is increased by a factor of 3, keeping the number of turns of the coil per unit length of the
frame the same, then the self-inductance of the coil:
(1) decreases by a factor of 9 3 (2) decreases by a factor of 9
(3) increases by a factor of 27 (4) increases by a factor of 3
18. A galvanometer having a resistance of 20 and 30 divisions on both sides has figure of merit 0.005
ampere/division. The resistance that should be connected in series such that it can be used as a voltmeter upto 15
volt, is:
(1) 120 (2) 100 (3) 125 (4) 80
19. The region between 0y = and y d= contains a magnetic field ˆB Bz= . A particle of mass m and charge q enters
the region with a velocity ˆv vi= . If 2
mvd
qB= , the acceleration of the charged particle at the point of its emergence
at the other side is:
(1) 3 1ˆ ˆ
2 2
qvBi j
m
+
(2)
1 3ˆ ˆ2 2
qvBi j
m
−
(3) ˆ ˆ
2
qvB i j
m
+
(4) ˆ ˆ
2
qvB j i
m
− +
20. A metal ball of mass 0.1 kg is heated upto 500°C and dropped into a vessel of heat capacity 1800JK−
and
containing 0.5 kg water. The initial temperature of water and vessel is 30°C. What is the approximate percentage
increment in the temperature of the water? [Specific Heat Capacities of water and metal are, respectively,
1 14200Jkg K− − and 1 1400Jkg K− − ]
(1) 25% (2) 15% (3) 30% (4) 20%
21. If speed (V), acceleration (A) and force (F) are considered as fundamental units, the dimension of Young’s
modulus will be:
(1) 4 2V A F−
(2) 2 2 2V A F− −
(3) 2 2 2V A F−
(4) 4 2V A F− −
22. In the experimental set up of metre bridge shown in the figure, the null
point is obtained at a distance of 40 cm from A. If a 10 resistor is
connected in series with 1R , the null point shifts by 10 cm. The
resistance that should be connected in parallel with ( )1 10R + such
that the null point shifts back to its initial position is:
(1) 20 (2) 30
(3) 40 (4) 60
Vidyamandir Classes
VMC | JEE Mains-2019 5 11th JAN JEE Entrance Examination
23. A particle of mas m is moving in a straight line with momentum P. Starting at time t = 0, a force F = kt acts in the
same direction on the moving particle during time interval T so that its momentum changes from p to 3p. Here k is
a constant. The value of T is:
(1) 2 p
k (2) 2
k
p (3)
2k
p (4) 2
p
k
24. The mass and the diameter of a planet are three times the respective values for the Earth. The period of oscillation
of a simple pendulum on the Earth is 2s. The period of oscillation of the same pendulum on the planet would be:
(1) 2
3s (2)
3
2s (3) 2 3 s (4)
3
2s
25. A monochromatic light is incident at a certain angle on an equilateral triangular prism and suffers minimum
deviation. If the refractive index of the material of the prism is 3 , then the angle of incidence is:
(1) 45° (2) 60° (3) 90° (4) 30°
26. An electric field of 1000 V/m is applied to an electric dipole at angle of 45°. The value of electric dipole moment
is 2910 . .C m−
. What is the potential energy of the electric dipole?
(1) 2910 10 J−− (2)
277 10 J−− (3) 1820 10 J−− (4)
209 10 J−−
27. A circular disc 1D of mass M and radius R has two identical discs 2D
and 3D of the same mass M and radius R attached rigidly at its opposite
ends (see figure). The moment of inertia of the system about the axis OO’,
passing through the centre of 1D , as shown in the figure, will be:
(1) 24
5MR (2) 22
3MR
(3) 2MR (4) 23MR
28. A paramagnetic substance in the form of a cube with sides 1 cm has a magnetic dipole moment of 620 10 /J T−
when a magnetic intensity of 360 10 /A m is applied. Its magnetic susceptibility is:
(1) 23.3 10− (2)
22.3 10− (3) 24.3 10− (4)
43.3 10−
29. The magnitude of torque on a particle of mass 1 kg is 2.5 Nm about the origin. If the force acting on it is 1N, and
the distance of the particle from the origin is 5m, the angle between the force and the position vector is (in
radians):
(1) 4
(2)
6
(3)
3
(4)
8
30. A pendulum is executing simple harmonic motion and its maximum kinetic energy is 1K . If the length of the
pendulum is doubled and it performs simple harmonic motion with the same amplitude as in the first case, its
maximum kinetic energy is 2K . Then:
(1) 2 12K K= (2) 2 1K K= (3) 12
4=
KK (4) 1
22
KK =
Vidyamandir Classes
VMC | JEE Mains-2019 6 11th JAN JEE Entrance Examination
PART-B CHEMISTRY
31. The major product obtained in the following conversion is:
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
32. 2 4K HgI is 40% ionized in aqueous solution. The value of its van’t Hoff factor (i) is:
(1) 1.6 (2) 1.8 (3) 2.0 (4) 2.2
33. In the following compound,
The faavourable site/s for protonation is/are:
(1) (b), (c) and (d) (2) (a) (3) (a) and (e) (4) (a) and (d)
34. Given the equilibrium constant:
CK of the reaction: 2Cu(s) 2Ag (aq) Cu (aq) 2Ag(s)+ ++ → + is 1510 10 , calculate the 0